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SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 11th B Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Create a table to show the various efforts of Gandhiji in the national movement.

Event	Gandhiji’s Role

Answer:

Event	Gandhiji’s Role
1917 & 1918 Peasants’ struggle	His earliest interventions were in local movements in Champaran and Kheda where he led peasants in their struggles against unfair terms and excessive taxes.
1919 Mill workers strike	In Ahmedabad he led a successful textile workers strike in 1919.
1919 Rowlatt Act	Gandhiji gave a call for Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act.
1920 Punjab wrongs	Gandhiji supported the Muslims call and urged the Congress to campaign against “Punjab wrongs”, the Khilafat wrong.
1920-22 Non-Cooperation Movement	Gandhiji demanded Swarajya and abruptly called off Non­Cooperation movement.
1930 Salt Satyagraha, Civil Disobedience	He led a campaign to Dandi village from Sabarmathi Ashram in Ahmedabad and refused the British laws.
1942 Quit India movement	Quit India resolution was passed on 8-8-1942 at Bombay. “British Rule in India must end immediately”; Gandhiji addressed memorable words to the Indian People.
194, Aug 15	He rendered his services till we attained our independence.

Question 2.
The national movement fought all attempts of the British government to deny democratic freedom and rights of the people. Give examples of the rights which the government tried to curtail and the movement launched against it.
Answer:

1. In 1919 the British introduced and passed the Rowiatt Act. The act curbed the fundamental rights of citizens and strengthened police powers.
   The National leaders declared 6-4-1919 “the day of humiliation and prayer” and hartal, Satyagraha sabhas were set up to launch the movement.
2. In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan or Khalifa.
   The nationalist leaders and Muslim League opposed this as Punjab wrongs’ and ‘Khilafat wrong’ and demanded swaraj. They announced Non-Cooperation movement.
3. The British government decided to convert Chirala-Perala into a municipality. They forced high taxes. The people refused, under the leadership of Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya, to pay the taxes. They migrated to a new settlement called Ramnagar and remained there for eleven months.
4. The Britishers imposed tax on ‘Common salt’. The nationalists opposed this and started civil disobedience movement.
   Thus the Indian Nationalists opposed all the negative activities of the British government.

Question 3.
To what extent was the Salt Satyagraha successful in its objectives? Give your assessment.
Answer:
A wave of enthusiasm swept the country during the Salt Satyagraha. Sait laws were broken at many places and even women took part in the Civil Disobedience Movement. In Delhi alone, 1600 women were imprisoned. This movement was not confined to the Salt Satyagraha alone. Foreign-cloth shops and liquor shops were picketed and were burned. Hand spinning was taken up as a movement. British schools, colleges, and services were boycotted. The people joined in large numbers in this movement.

The combined struggles of the Indian people bore fruit when the Government of India Act of 1935 prescribed provincial autonomy and the government announced elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937.
Thus it was successful in its objectives.

Question 4.
Which of the following was part of the national movement?
a. Picketing shops that sell foreign clothes
b. Hand spinning thread to weave clothes
c. Burning imported clothes d. Wearing khaddar
e. All the above
Answer:
e) All the above

Question 5.
What were the different events that led to the partition?
Answer:

1. In 1940, the Muslim League had moved a resolution demanding the Independent States for Muslims.
2. From the late 1930s, the League began viewing the Muslims as a separate ‘nation’ from the Hindus.
3. The provincial elections of 1937 seemed to have convinced the League that Muslims were a minority and they would always have to play second fiddle in any democratic structure.
4. Muslim League sought to enlarge its support in the early 1940s when most Congress leaders were in jail.
5. At the end of the war in 1945, the British opened negotiations between the Congress, the League but failed.
6. In 1946 elections the Congress did well in the ‘Genera! Constituencies’ but the League’s success in the seats reserved for Muslims was spectacular. It persisted with its demand for “Pakistan”.
7. The Cripps Mission could not get the Congress and the Muslim League to agree to specific details of the proposal – the United India.
8. Muslim League announced 16th August, 1946 as ‘Direct Action Day’. By March, 1947 violence spread to different parts of northern India.
9. Louis Mountbatten was not able to resolve the differences between the Muslim League and the Congress Party.
10. India became independent on 15th August, 1947 while Pakistan celebrated its independence on 14th August.

Question 6.
Look at the India map and fill colors in Pakistan and Bangladesh which are our adjacent countries.
Note: The students are advised to fill colours in Pakistan and Bangladesh in practise.
Answer:
Both Pakistan and Bangladesh are our neighbouring countries.

Question 7.
Read the first paragraph under the heading ‘The Happenings of 1922-1929’ and answer this, ‘Gandhiji called off the movement after the violence. How do you support it?
Answer:
The Non-Cooperation Movement held in February 1922 turned violent. A crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura. Twenty-two policemen were killed on that day. Realizing that the situation was going bad to worse, Gandhiji abruptly called off the movement.

Gandhiji followed non-violence and Satyagraha. Those were against this violence. Hence I support Gandhiji’s decision.

Question 8.
As a part of Non-Cooperation movement, what incidents took place in our state?
Answer:
Guntur district was at the centre of nationalist activity and the participation was very widespread including not only students, but also merchants and peasants in the villages. A highlight of the Non-Cooperation movement was the famous Chirala Perala movement. The government decided to convert this town into a municipality and forced high taxes. About 15,000 people of the town led by Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya refused to pay the taxes and migrated to a new settlement called Ramnagar and remained there for eleven months. There was a powerful movement of non-payment of land revenue by the peasants and mass resignations of village officers. People said, “Gandhiji’s swaraj is coming and we will not pay taxes to this government.”

Another major development was the Forest Satyagraha in Palnati taluka of Guntur district and also in Rayachoti taluka of Kadapa district. Peasants began sending herds of cattle into the forests without paying grazing fees to the forest department. In many villages of Palnadu, people declared Gandhi Raj and attacked police parties. People were convinced that the colonial rule was coming to an end and the forests would be back in the control of the village people. In the two taluqs, the forest administration had to virtually close down during the agitation period.
These were some of the incidents that took place in our state as a part of Non-Cooperation movement.

Question 9.
Write a brief note on Quit India Movement.
Answer:

1. On 8th August, 1942 the Quit India Movement was launched.
2. In this movement all the categories of people from throughout India participated.
3. Younger activists organized strikes and acts of sabotage all over the country.
4. In several districts, such as Satara in the west and Medinipur in the east, “independent” governments were proclaimed.
5. The young in very large members, left their colleges to go to jail.
6. During this time Mahatma Gandhi addressed these memorable words to the Indian people. “Every one of you should from this movement onwards consider yourself a free man or woman and act as if you are free. I am not going to be satisfied with anything short of complete freedom. We shall “do or die”. We shall either free India or die in the attempt”. Like this he encouraged all people to participate in this movement. Due to the above reasons Quit India movement become popular.

Question 10.
Prepare a timeline chart on Freedom Struggle from 1885 to 1947.
Answer:

Year	Events
1) 1885	Indian National Congress established.
2) 1886	Congress representatives were elected for local bodies (436).
3) 1885-1905	The period of Moderates
4) 1903	Swadeshi movement.
5) 1905	‘Vande Mataram1 movement against the partition of Bengal.
6) 1905-1920	The period of Extremists.
7) 1907	A split in Congress
8) 1915	Home Rule movement by Tilak and Annie Besant.
9) 1916	Congress united in Lucknow pact.
10) 1915	Gandhiji arrived – joined in Indian freedom movement.
11) 1917	Champaran local movement
12) 1918	Kheda struggle
13) 1919	Ahmedabad Mill workers strike, Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act.
14) 1920	Khilafat movement
15) 1921	Non-Cooperation Movement
16) 1922	Chauri-Chaura incident, called off Civil disobedience
17) 1930	Dandi Satyagraha – Civil disobedience recalled on.
18) 1935	Government of India Act
19) 1937	Elections to the provincial legislatures
20) 1940-1945	Radical Nationalists period
21) 1942	Quit India Movement
22) 1942-44	Parallel government of Midnapur people
23) 1946	Elections, Muslim League persisted for separate Pakistan
24) 1946	Cripps Mission, Muslim League announced as Direct Action Day
25) 1947	Violence spread to different parts of northern India.
26) 1947-14th Aug	Independence to Pakistan
1947-15th Aug	India became independent

Question 11.
Did the fruits of sacrifices of many great leaders of Independence movement reach all the people? Mention your opinion on this.
Answer:
My opinion: I think that the fruits of sacrifices of many great leaders of independence movement reached all the people in the early period after independence. But it is sorry to say that the spirit of independence is hanged at present.
Reasons:

1. corruption
2. violence
3. lack of belongingness etc.

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Do you think it is right to give the police such powers to suppress revolts? (Textbook Page No. 130)
Answer:
Terrorism and showing anger through demonstrations are two delicate issues. The police should recognise the tenderness and difference between these two. Then only it is right to give such powers.

Question 2.
Find out more about Chirala Perala Movement and the Forest Satyagraha. Prepare a skit and enact it in the class. (Textbook Page No. 132)
Answer:

Independence Movement -1919

Ram Nagar Camp (Chirala I Perala)
Ramudu: Arey! Raja, why did you leave our village?
Raja: Not only myself, totally our Chirala / Perala villagers left our village.
Sekhar: What? I think this ¡s our fate, we have to leave our houses.
Yaswanth: That is not our fate. That is the fate of the Britishers. They tried to raise our tax Rs. 4000/- to Rs. 40,000/-. It is really a cruel action.
Ramudu: Leave it. Gandhiji gave us a beautiful idea.
Raja: Yes ra! His idea, the leadership of Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya are very well. Let us hope that these British will leave us soon.
Yaswanth: Are you right? Will they leave us?
Sekhar: Why do they leave us? They arrest us for our retort.
Raja: Let them do that. We will sacrifice our lives but we dont leave them.
All: Okay ra! Let us do like that.

Gandhiji – Jai
Duggirala – Jai
Bharat Matha – Jai
Jai – Jai

1921 – Forest Satyagraha
Mono Action
Kanneganti Hanumanthu – Palnati Warrior
Age: 30 years
In Palnati Forest

Orey Britishoda ! Who is the person that asked us to pay pullari tax. We, the sons of this land, you, the dependent on this land. Why should we pay tax to you ? Is it just ? Is it Dharma? Do you think that the son of this Palnadu will do this – English dogs.

Orey Rutherford! This forest is our mother. Our own mother. Why should we pay you for our mother’s blessings.
Neeru pettava ? Naru vesava ? Kota kosava ? Kuppa nurchava ? Enduku kattalira sistu, Enduku kattalira neeku sistu.
Enduku, Enduku ?
Amma, Amma, if you kill me ….
Amma – Thousands of Hanumanthus will born ….
You, the Britishers, will be chased – chased and necked out of our country.
Amma-Amma Vande Mataram.
Vande Mataram.
Ammaaa
Bharatha Matha – Selav.
In the next birth also I will be your son – I will play in freedom.
Van … de … maa …. tar.. am.
…. (died)….

Question 3.
Why do you think were people against such laws during the freedom movement? (Textbook Page No. 180)
Answer:

1. Most of the police and higher officials were Britishers at that time.
2. It was most difficult for the people to been the dictatorship.
3. Introducing such laws at that time was like pouring ghee into the fire. So they were against such laws.

 

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 7th Lesson Money and Banking Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 7th Lesson Money and Banking

8th Class Social Studies 7th Lesson Money and Banking Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Fill in the following table with some examples of transactions.

Transactions involving rupee notes and coins	Transactions not involving rupee notes and coins

Answer:

Transactions involving rupee notes and coins	Transactions not involving rupee notes and coins
1) Train journey	1) Crossing the canal on boat in villages.
2) Purchase of Electricals e.g.: 1. I travel from Khazipet to Hyderabad by paying for a ticket. 2. We purchase a tubelight for Rs. 45.	2) Purchase of salt and ‘Muggu powder”, e.g.: 1. We pay two bags of paddy to the person who helps us to cross the Godavari in his boat. 2. My grandmother purchases salt and ‘Muggu Powder’ by giving handful of paddy.

Question 2.
Can there be any difficulties or disadvantages in keeping money in a bank? Think and write.
Answer:
There will be no problems in keeping money in a bank. But there may be problems due to computers, ATMs and the negligence of employes, e.g.:

1. Many problems may arise while withdrawing amount from ATMs.
2. Deducting the EMis of loans twice a month by overlook.
3. Blocking the accounts.

Question 3.
In what ways have cheques made exchange of money more convenient?
Answer:
Nowadays cheques are widely used for making payments and receiving money. When you want to give money to someone, you write a cheque on that person’s name. When you want to send money to someone who lives in a different place, you can send a cheque to her by post. You can also use your cheque to transfer money electronically into the other person’s account through a bank. For business purposes, where money is frequently received and paid, cheques are very important as a medium for transactions.

Thus cheques have made exchange of money more convenient.

Question 4.
Only a part of the total deposits is kept as cash in the bank-safe. Why is this so and how does this benefit the bank ?
Answer:
Banks keep only a part of the total deposits as cash in the bank of safe. This is so because it helps the daily cash transactions of the bank.
The banks lend the remaining amount to their customers on interest. Thus the banks earn profits.

Question 5.
If a very large number of account – holders do not wish to keep their money in the bank, how will it affect the bank s working?
Answer:
If a large number of account – holders do not wish to keep their money in the bank.
This affects the reserves of a bank.
The bank cannot lend loans to customers. This affects their income. As a result it is impossible to run a bank.

Question 6.
If many loans are written off (that is, borrowers are not required to pay back the money), how will this affect the working of the bank?
Answer:
A bank is a business enterprise. It has to pay interest to its depositors, pay salary to its employees, has to buy and maintain equipment, pay rent and bear all the cost of running a bank and also make profit.
If the loans are written off, the bank cannot perform all these activities. So the banks cannot write off the loans. In any case if the government writes off the loans, then the government should bear the losses.

Question 7.
People have to pay a higher interest on loans than the interest they receive on a fixed deposit for the same time-period. Why do you think this is so?
Answer:

1. Bank trade with money.
2. Fixed deposits means money that is to be kept with the bank for agreed and specified period. When one has to disturb this arrangement, he has to pay penalty for the same.
3. Hence banks charge more interest on fixed deposit loans than what they give.
4. An other important aspect is discouraging loans on fixed deposits.
5. Not only that, the banks should reach number of expenses such as payment of salaries to its employees, has to buy and maintain equipments, pay rents and bear all the cost of running a bank and also make profit. That’s why we should pay more interest on loans.

Question 8.
Suppose this year the rains are poor and the crop yield is only half as much as was originally expected. Some people say that if this happens the farmers should be asked to pay back only half the amount they have taken as loans. However, other people say that full amount should be repaid, keeping in view the next year’s crop. In your opinion, what should the bank do and why?
Answer:

1. Whatever the situation, normally banks ask for full payment of loan.
2. When there is a crop failure or less yield, farmers are unable to repay their loans.
3. In such situation banks have to reschedule the repayment procedure and has to provide crop loans to the farmers for the next season.
4. Government shall support the farmers by waiving interest component and directing the banks to provided necessary loans for next crop.

Question 9.
Read the Paragraph under the header ‘Types of Loans’ and answer the following question:
Types of Loans
Banks give loans and advances to different sections of the public like traders, industrialists, students (educational loans), farmers, artisans, SHG, etc. Let us examine some of them.
“What sort of loans are more common in your area?”
Answer:

1. Crop loans
2. Housing loans
3. SHG loans

Question 10.
Do you feel that the loans taken from SHGs are helpful to the members? How?
Answer:
These are very useful to them.

1. They need not ensure the bank with securities.
2. The group will ensure that loans are paid back by its members.
3. Interest is also nominal.
4. The loan can be repaid in easy monthly installments.

8th Class Social Studies 7th Lesson Money and Banking InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Are you aware of any exchanges that are done without money?
Answer:
I know about Barter System. In this system goods are directly exchanged for each other without the use of money.

Question 2.
You may have bought things in exchange of old clothes, plastic, newspapers, hair, paddy, etc. Discuss the transaction. (Textbook Page No. 77)
Answer:

1. Old clothes : We usually exchange old clothes with steel utensils. This depends mostly on the seller.
2. Plastic and Newspapers : We usually exchange these with onion traders. He gives 11/2 kg onions for 1 kg plastic or newspaper.
3. Hair: They offer money for hair.
4. Paddy: In our village paddy is exchanged for services rendered by washerman, barber etc.

Question 3.
Complete the following table:
a)

	Gopal	Seenu	Ramu
Wishes to buy
Wishes to sell

b) What can we conclude from the above table?
(Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
a)

	Gopal	Seenu	Ramu
Wishes to buy	rice	goat	wheat
Wishes to sell	goat	wheat	rice

b)

1. Trading between these three people is impossible.
2. Gopal needs rice. Srinu does not need goat.
3. Money helps this transaction.

Question 4.
Explain in your own words why exchange is not possible between Gopal and Seenu. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Gopal needs rice. Seenu has rice. But he doesn’t need goat. He needs wheat. So the transaction between Gopal and Srinu is not possible.

Question 5.
a) Will the use of money help? Fill in the blanks. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
The use of money helps this type of transaction.
b) If Gopal exchanges for money, his goat with —–(i)—– then Gopal uses this —–(ii)—– to buy rice from —–(iii)—– Now —–(iv)—– can use this money to buy —–(v)—– from Seenu.
Answer:
i) Seenu
ii) money
iii) Ramu
iv) Ramu
v) wheat

Question 6.
Ask your parents how washermen, barbers, neeti kaavalikaru were paid for their work in villages and towns. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Nowadays they are paid money only. But 15 years back our parents paid them in the form of paddy.

Question 7.
How can money be used in the transactions between Gopal, Seenu and Ramu ?
Explain with the help of a flow chart. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:

Gopal should sell his goat for money.
↓
He should purchase rice with that.
↓
Seenu should sell wheat for money.
↓
He should purchase goat with that.
↓
Ramu should sell rice for money.
↓
He should purchase wheat with that.

Question 8.
If the role of money as described above were stated as a medium of exchange, would you agree? Explain. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the above statement. In the barter system the calculation of valuation is not logical and scientific. So I agree with this.

Question 9.
For how much rice should Gopal exchange his goat? (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
This depends on the demand of goat. If the demand is high, the rice should be in the quantity demanded by Gopal. Otherwise he should accept the offer of the seller.

Question 10.
In a barter system how do you pay to a person who cuts your hair? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
In barter system I give one kg of rice to the person who cuts my hair. At present the price of one kg of rice is Rs.30/-. The rate of hair cut is also equal to it.

Question 11.
In the above example, complete the conversation, so that they are able to trade. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Gopal: How many bags of rice will you give for this goat?
Seetaiah: Two bags.
Gopal: I was offered 4 bags for it in other village.
Seetaiah: And I can get a goat for just one bag in that village.
Gopal: ……………………………………..
Seetaiah: …………………………………….
Answer:
Gopal: I can give this at least for 3 bags.
Seetaiah: Okay. Take it.

Question 12.
If money was not used by you or any of the traders in your santhalu or weekly market what would happen? Describe in a paragraph. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
Nowadays money is mostly used as medium of exchange. No one can decide the value of the commodities. Employees and other workers have money only for exchange. The conditiion is unpredictable.

Question 13.
Do you think money can act as a measure of value of goods and services? Explain.
(Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
Yes, money can act as a measure of value of goods and services. Public services and private services can be measured. But we cannot and should not measure the values of services of our parents and blood relations.
e.g.: Public Services : Transportation – APSRTC
Medical facilities – Government hospitals.
Private Services : Transportation – Private buses
Medical facilities – Private hospitals

Question 14.
Can you think of situations when this trust of the goldsmith could break? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
The trust of the goldsmith could break in the following situations:

1. debasing the coins
2. maintaining difference in the quality of coins
3. fail to give the coins whenever they asked
4. and any action of cheating

Question 15.
What was the problem faced by the traders in Amsterdam and how did they find a way out? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Amsterdam was a major trading centre in Europe. Here, there were 846 silver and gold coins recognised by the government that could be accepted for exchange. However, traders were always suspicious of each other – everyone would doubt the purity and weight of these coins. The merchants of Amsterdam got together and solved this problem in a unique manner. They created a bank owned by the city.

Question 16.
Draw the picture of a bank cheque in your notebook and pay Rs.1,50,000/- to your friend sitting next to you. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:

Question 17.
a) If Suresh Babu wants to deposit 1,75,000, electronically into Kancharla Sujatha’s account through his bank, how can this be done ?
b) What more information would he require ? Visit a bank and find out. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
a) This can be done through NEF transfers. According to this process any account holder can transfer to another account holder of any other bank in the country without any charges. The maximum limit is Rs.2,00,000.
b) For this she needs the account number, name of the receiver, branch name and city of Sujatha.

Question 18.
Discuss and make a list of the payments that people make electronically without using a cheque. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
People can make payments electronically without using cheques by using internet.

1. Sale and purchase of goods
2. Raising capitals
3. Repaying debts
4. Paying electricity and Phone bills
5. Transfer of money
6. Paying income tax
7. Paying house taxes etc.

Question 19.
What is the difference between a savings account and a current account? (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
Savings account: The savings account holders are mostly employees and common people. They get interest on their amount in the account. Money wil be safe. The account holder can withdraw it at any time he/she wants. The bank promises to pay on demand. Current Account : Business people and traders maintain this account. There are no restrictions on the number of times you can deposit or withdraw the money from a current account. Transactions can be made by way of cheque. The bank does not pay any interest on money deposited in a current account but will collect service charges.

Question 20.
Match the statement in column A with the word(s) / terms in column B. (Textbook Page No. 86)

Answer:
a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii

Question 21.
When should one opt fixed deposits for savings? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
The money invested in fixed deposits should not be withdrawn in the given period. Then only one can use fixed deposits for savings.

Question 22.
How is an SHG loan different from an individual loan? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
One should mortgage one’s property when he/she takes individual loan. The SHG will ensure that loans are paid back by its members. They need not mortgage any asset.

Question 23.
a) Hari cultivates vegetables like tomatoes, okra, green leaves etc. He wants to buy fertiliser after three months. He can’t keep these vegetables with him to pay for the fertiliser after three months. If he does not use money what arrangement will he get into with the person supplying fertilisers?
b) Do you find any such arrangements in villages around you?
c) Many a times farmers may not benefit from such arrangements. Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
a) Hari should sell his vegetables to the trader of fertilisers. Then in future he can get the fertilisers for the same rate. Thus they should enter into an agreement.
b) We have no such arrangements in our village.
c) These arrangements are beneficial to the farmers. Values differ in different seasons. So government should plan the substitutes.

Question 24.
Have you ever been inside a bank? What are the names of some banks you know? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Yes. I have visited the banks many times.
Names of Banks:

1. Kotak Mahindra
2. State Bank of India
3. Andhra Bank
4. Indian Bank
5. Vijaya Bank
6. Dena Bank
7. Kanakadurga Grameena Bank

Question 25.
If you step inside a Bank, you will find some employees sitting at different counters with their computers/ ledgers and dealing with the customers. You can also observe people depositing money at some counters and withdrawing money at other counters. There is one cabin where the manager sits. What do these bank employees do? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
My name is Subba Rao. Once I went to the State Bank of India branch in Mudinepalli One gentleman sat inside a cabin. There is a name plate before him.

ANASINGARAJU VENKATA CHALAPATHI RAO – B.M.

He was going through some documents and discussing with some others. My mother came there to withdraw some amount. She filled up the withdrawal form and handed over it to the person in counter no. 2. The person in the counter verified the form and the book. He signed it and gave us a token no. 4. We waited there for sometime. In the meanwhile one known person Sri K. Yagnaiah came there and deposited some amount. He wished my mother and went away. Rama Krishna, my brother’s friend, came to the bank to open a new account. He was enquiring about it. Bank people were drafting D.D.s, verifying accounts, opening new accounts and helping the locker holders etc. After 40 minutes there was a call from No. 6 counter. We went to the counter and took our money. I was told by my mother that the Manager looks after the bank management issues and any other problems.

Question 26.
Read the promise on paper notes used today. Who is making the promise and to whom? Why is this important? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
I find the following promise on the hundred rupee note.

“I PROMISE TO PAY THE BEARER THE SUM ON ONE HUNDRED RUPEES.”
– GOVERNOR.

This promise is given by the Reserve Bank Governor, Dr. Raghuram Rajan. This promise is given to the owner of the note. Without this promise this note can be treated as a paper. So this is important.

Question 27.
Visit a commercial bank which is near to your locality and fill up the following table. (Textbook Page No. 88)

S.No.	Type of loan	Loan amount	Duration of loan	Documents required	Interest rate	Mode of payment	Security, if any
1.	Vehicle
2.
3.

Answer:

S.No.	Type of loan	Loan amount	Duration of loan	Documents required	Interest rate	Mode of payment	Security, if any
1.	Vehicle	6,00,000	84 months	1) Six months bank state­ment etc. 2) 2 photos	10.50% p.a.	Monthly EMI
2.	Housing Loan	15,00,000	15 years	1) IT Pancard Address proof	10% p.a.	“	Government employee’s signature or any other security
3.	Educa­tion loan	4,00,000	3 years	“	13.50% p.a.	After getting job or 6 months after completion of the education	Signature of a government official or any other security

Question 28.
Why were metals preferred for use as money? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:
Copper, bronze, silver and gold are durable, can be divided into parts and be carried around Since they were scarce they became acceptable by all. So the metals were preferred for use as money.

Question 29.
Do you think minting of coins was a good idea? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:
Yes, I think so. But the quality and measurement should be perfect as per norms.

Question 30.
In what ways would minting of coins benefit the rulers? Can you think of three different reasons? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:

1. The trade transactions in their kingdom will be perfect. This strengthens their treasury.
2. Minting coins is an industry. The income through this also strengthens their treasury.
3. They print their favourite designs on the coins. This act enables the future generation to know about the interest of the past people.
   Eg. : If we find any musical instrument on the coin, it tells us that they were the lovers of music.

Question 31.
Why do the receipts of the goldsmith work as money? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
The goldsmiths charged fees for keeping their valuables safe and making them available whenever they wanted. This practice became popular and the trust in some of the goldsmiths or shroffs grew. These goldsmiths would also give loans and had branches in many cities leading to a new system of paper money or hundis. With the great confidence on the goldsmiths, the people treated the receipts as money.

Question 32.
Why is a crossed cheque safe? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
The crossed cheque can be deposited and cashed in the account holder’s account only. No other person can cash it. This system can create confidence in the customers. Otherwise it can be misused.

Question 33.
Why do banks ask for security while lending? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
There is no personal relation and identification between the bank people and their customers. If the bank people failed to recollect the debts, it leads to bankrupt. So banks ask for security while lending.

Question 34.
Which is a better source of loans — banks or money lenders? Why? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
Banks are a better source of loans.
Reasons:

1. The Bank interest is nominal.
2. The loan can be paid in easy instalments.
3. If any customer fails to repay, the bank gives reasonable time for the repayment.

Question 35.
After two centuries, this bank collapsed. Can you guess what could have been the reasons for this? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Amsterdam Bank opened many branches in many European countries. It was called ‘Wissel Bank’ in Dutch. There was debasement problem in Dutch. It was often. Due to that the customers of the Bank usually repaid the coins of lesser values. So the customers were dissatisfied. As Dutch was a small country, the problem raises many times. Due to this the name of the bank was defamed.

The decline of the Bank accelerated with the fourth Anglo-Dutch war (1780-84). The British blockade of Holland and the capture of many Asian colonies put tremendous pressure on the Dutch East India Company. Loans were issued to all. The metallic stock of the bank was dropped from 20 million to 6 millions (1780-84). The French revolution led the bank towards failure. At last it was closed in 1819.

Question 36.
How would she (Geeta) withdraw the money from an ATM? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
1) Geeta would follow the instructions displayed on the screen of the ATM.

Instructions :
a) Insert the card/Remove the card
b) Feed the PIN number
c) Feed the amount, press ok
d) Take the money
e) Take the receipt
f) Press the ‘Clear’ Button
g) Leave the room
2) By following the given instructions Geetha would withdraw the money from an ATM.

Question 37.
What would she (Geeta) do if she went to her bank branch? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
She would stand in a queue for 30 to 40 minutes to get the amount. She had to fill the withdrawal slip and stand in the queue. When her turn comes she gives the slip and passbook in the counter. Then she gets token. After a few minutes she will be paid in another counter.

Question 38.
How much money will Manaswini get from her Fixed Deposit till five years, if the rate of interest is 8%? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
Manaswini gets Rs. 15000/- approximately after the period of 5 years.

Question 39.
Suppose she needs the money urgently for some medical treatment. Can she withdraw it from the Fixed Deposit at the bank? What will happen? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
She can withdraw her deposit whenever she wants. But she will not receive 8% of interest. She receives less percentage as per bank norms.

Question 40.
Will the same rate of interest be charged for all types of borrowers from a bank? (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
The rate of interest changes from loan to loan.
For e.g.: They charge 8% on housing loans and 14% on personal loans.

Question 41.
What will happen if some borrowers do not repay the bank loan? (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
The bank collects the loan from the guarantors or disposes the mortgage.
For e.g.: If any customer fails to repay the housing loan, the bank sells the house in auction. It takes the loan amount and gives the remaining amount to the customer.

Classroom Activity

Suppose you need Rs. 2,000. You fill a cheque and give it to your sister and send her to get the money in cash.
Answer:
Self cheque:

1. I will write a cheque for Rs. 2,000/- on my friend’s name and ask her to get cash from the bank.
2. I will sign on the down and back of the cheque.
3. I will give her instructions where to handover the cheque in the bank and how to receive cash in counter.
4. No need of any account to my friend in the bank.

Cross cheque: If I wrote an amount on cross cheque, my sister needs an account in any of the banks to change the check into cash.

Project
Question 1.
Visit a bank or invite a bank employee to the school and find out:
a) How to open a saving account in your name?
b) How are cheques cleared by the banks?
c) How do banks make NEFTransfers? (National Electronic Funds Transfer)
d) What security precautions are necessary for an ATM to work? What does the computer check?
e) Apart from cheques, people can also exchange money through Bank Drafts/online transaction etc. Find out.
f) For the person receiving the money, what is the advantage of online transaction compared to a cheque?
g)

The following Interest rates on saving deposit.
Interest rate on fixed deposit
Interest rate for loans given to farmers
Interest rate for loan given to housing
Interest rate for loans given for education

Answer:
a) The person should take two photographs, address proof, income proof, personal identifi¬cation to the bank. He/she should fill the application form and get the introduction signa¬ture. He/she should handover these papers in the counter, his/her account can be opened.

b) Cheques are cleared by the banks in the Clearing Bank.

c) All the banks in the country are interconnected with computers and internet. A person can transfer a particular amount (less than 2,00,000/-) from his account to others account in other bank. This transaction can be done through NEFT. The Bank will not charge any rate for this.

d) Security precautions necessary, for an ATM to work :

1. Computer should be checked whether working properly or not.
2. Receipt system and printer should be checked.
3. The machine should understand the orders of the user.
4. The count of notes should be proper.
5. There must be a watchman.
6. A camera should be fixed in the ATM room.
7. In addition to the PIN number, a system should be improved which records the thumb prints. Computer checks the PIN number and balances in the accounts.

e) Yes, there are bank drafts and online transactions etc., to exchange money.
Drafts take sometime to be encashed. But online transactions take no time. One can withdraw the amount immediately after a click.

f) When compared to a cheque, online transaction is the best. The person can receive the money without any delay. But a cheque takes 2 to 4 days time to be encashed. So the receiver can save his time.

g)

Interest rate on savings deposit	4%
Interest rate on fixed deposit	1 year – 8.50%. 3 to 6 months: 6.50%
Interest rate for loans given to farmers	I year 8% II year – 9%
Interest rate for loan given to housing	10 .50%
Interest rate for loans given to education	13.50% – 14%

Question 2.
Please visit www.rbi.org.in and read comics on financial inclusion / financial literacy themes.
Answer:
Student Activity.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 6th Lesson Reproduction

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What questions you ask the doctor, who visited your school on World AIDS day?
Answer:

1. How does AIDS disease occurs?
2. How does the AIDS transmit?
3. What are the symptoms of AIDS?
4. What are the precautions to be taken to prevent AIDS?

Question 2.
What is colostrum?
Answer:
The first secretion from the Mammary glands, after giving birth, rich in antibodies.
During the end of pregnancy, a watery yellowish lymph like fluid accumulates in mammary glands. It is known as colostrum.

Question 3.
Name the types of asexual reproduction in the following organisms:
a) Paramoecium b) Yeast
Answer:
a) Paramoecium : Paramoecium reproduces by splitting into two. (Transverse binary fission)
b) Yeast: Yeast reproduces by Budding.

Question 4.
What are the advantages of grafting method in plants.
Answer:

1. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
2. It can be used to produce varieties in seedless fruits.

Question 5.
What measures can be taken to avoid sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:

1. Avoid sex with unknown or multiple partners.
2. Sex with life partners only.
3. Follow ethical and healthy life practices because contraceptives always cannot prevent STD’s.
4. In case of any doubt, consult a qualified doctor for early detection if diagonised with disease take complete treatment.

Question 6.
What is parthenogenesis?
Answer:
The process of developing zygote from female gametes without fertilization is known as parthenogenesis.

Question 7.
In flowering plants, I am formed as the result of double fertilization. The cotyledons digest and absorb me. Who am I?
Answer:
Endosperm.

Question 8.
In what way does mitotic division help the living organism?
Answer:

1. growth
2. cell repair
3. healing wounds.

Question 9.
Give any two suggestions to create awareness to stop female foeticide.
Answer:

1. Preparing relevant slogans
2. Organising rallies
3. Awareness campaign by using electronic and print media

Question 10.
Write two precautions you take, while observing Rhizopus in the laboratory.
Answer:

1. Don’t touch the experimental bread with hand.
2. If you touch the bread, thoroughly wash your hands.
3. Leave the bread in the open air for about an hour.
4. Avoid opening of the plastic bag as much as you can.
5. Sprinkle water over bread.
6. Place the bag in a dark and warm place.

Question 11.
Mention two materials you have used to observe Rhizopus on bread mould.
Answer:
Bread mould sample, plain glass slide, cover slip, water, disposable gloves.

Question 12.
What type of reproduction occurs in paramoecium during favourable conditions?
Answer:
During favourable conditions paramoecium reproduce asexually by fission.

Question 13.
What type of reproduction occurs in paramoecium during unfavourable conditions?
Answer:
During unfavourable conditions paramoecium reproduce sexually by conjugation.

Question 14.
Which bacteria is responsible for formation of curd from milk?
Answer:
Lactobacillus bacteria is responsible for formation of curd from milk.

Question 15.
What is asexual reproduction?
Answer:
The reproduction in which a single parent is involved, without formation of gametes is known as asexual reproduction.

Question 16.
What is fission?
Answer:
Splitting of organisms into two or more offsprings in a symmetrical manner is known as fission. Ex: Paramoecium and bacteria.

Question 17.
How budding occurs in yeast?
Answer:

1. A bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at specific site.
2. These buds develop when fully mature, detach from the parent body and become new independent individuals.

Question 18.
Which animals reproduce through fragmentation?
Answer:
Fragmentation is a common mode of reproduction in Algae, Fungi and many land plants.

Question 19.
What is Regeneration?
Answer:

1. Many fully differentiated organisms have the ability to give rise to new individual organism from their body parts.
2. If the individual is some how cut or broken up into many pieces, many of these pieces grow into separate individuals. Ex: Hydra and planaria.

Question 20.
In which plant, small plants grow at the edge of leaves?
Answer:
In Bryophyllum, small plants grow at the edge of leaves.

Question 21.
By means of which plants propagate vegetatively through stem?
Answer:
Plants propagate vegetatively through stem by means of stolons, bulbs, corms, tuber etc.

Question 22.
Through which the Vallisneria, Strawberry propagate vegetatively?
Answer:
Vallisneria, Strawberry propagate vegetatively through stolons.

Question 23.
Which plants produce the new plants through roots?
Answer:
New plants are produced from the roots of Dahlia, radish, carrot etc.

Question 24.
What are the artificial propagation methods in plants?
Answer:
Cutting, Layering and Grafting are the artificial propagation methods in plants.

Question 25.
Which method is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters?
Answer:
Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.

Question 26.
Which method will you adopt to get two desirable characters from two different plants in a single plant?
Answer:
I will adopt grafting method to get two desirable characters from two different plants in a single plant.

Question 27.
Which fungus is commonly called as bread mould?
Answer:
Rhizopus is commonly called bread mould.

Question 28.
How bread mould appears when you observe it under microspore?
Answer:
The common bread mould consists of fine thread like projections called hyphae and thin knob like structures called Sporangia.

Question 29.
In which plants leaf is known as Sporophyll? Why?
Answer:
In fern plants leaf is known as Sporophyll. Because on the lower surface of the leaf sporangia are present.

Question 30.
What is fertilisation?
Answer:
Union of male and female gametes is known as fertilisation.

Question 31.
What is external fertilisation?
Answer:
If the fertilisation occurs outside the body of the organism then it is known as external fertilisation. Eg : Frog and fish.

Question 32.
What is internal fertilisation?
Answer:
If the fertilisation occurs inside the body of the female organism then it is known as internal fertilisation. Eg : Terrestrial animals (Reptiles, Aves, Mammals).

Question 33.
What are the parts present in male reproductive system of man?
Answer:
A pair of testis, Accessory glands and System of ducts.

Question 34.
The male reproductive organ testis produces?
Answer:
Testis produces male reproductive cells or spermatozoa.

Question 35.
Sperms are temporarily stored in which part of duct system?
Answer:
Sperms are temporarily stored in epididymis of duct system.

Question 36.
What are the accessory glands present in male reproductive system?
Answer:
The accessory glands present in male reproductive system are one prostrate gland . and two cow cowper glands.

Question 37.
The fluid secreted by accessory glands is
Answer:
The fluid secreted by the accessory glands is semen.

Question 38.
What is the function of semen?
Answer:
Semen provide nutrients for sperm to keep alive and helps as a medium for the movement of sperms.

Question 39.
Which hormone regulates the development of the male reproductive organs?
Answer:
The hormone testosterone regulates the development of the male reproductive organs.

Question 40.
How are the secondary sexual characters are controlled in males?
Answer:
Secondary sexual characters in males are controlled by the male sex hormone testosterone.

Question 41.
Men produce sperm from the age of about?
Answer:
Men produce sperm from the age of about 13 or 14 years and can go on doing so most their lives.

Question 42.
Which are capable of changing the sex of the organism in which they grow like wasp?
Answer:
Some bacteria and other micro-organisms have been found capable of changing the sex of the organism of wasp in which they live.

Question 43.
The female gamete ovum is produced by
Answer:
The female gamete ovum is produced by graffian follicles of Ovary.

Question 44.
What is ovulation?
Answer:
The release of ovum from graffian follicle is known as ovulation.

Question 45.
Fertilisation of ovum occurs in which part of female reproductive system?
Answer:
Fertilisation of ovum occurs in fallopian tube or oviduct of female reproductive system.

Question 46.
What is placenta?
Answer:
Placenta is the nourishment tissue formed by the outer membrane of the embryo called chorion and the part of the uterine tissue.

Question 47.
When do placenta is formed during the development of embryo?
Answer:
Placenta is formed at around 12 weeks of pregnancy or during the embryonic development.

Question 48.
What keeps embryo moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury?
Answer:
The embryo develop in amniotic fluid filled cavity which keeps it moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury.

Question 49.
Which membrane forms umbilical cord?
Answer:
Allantois membrane which originates from the digestive canal of the embryo forms the major part of tube like structure called umbilical cord.

Question 50.
What is foetus?
Answer:
From the third month of pregnancy the embryo is called foetus.

Question 51.
What is gestation period?
Answer:
Total time required for the development of embryo and foetus is called gestation period.

Question 52.
What is the gestation period in human beings?
Answer:
The gestation period in human beings is 9 months or 280 days.

Question 53.
Collect the information about gestation periods in different animals.
Answer:
Gestation period in different animals:

Animal	Gestation period
Cat and dog	63 days
Horse	330 days
Cow	280 days
Rat and mouse	20-22 days

Question 54.
What is after birth?
Answer:
The muscular contractions of the uterus continue until they push out the tissues of the placenta, which are commonly called the ‘after birth’.

Question 55.
What are labour pains?
Answer:
The rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscle layers of the uterus is known as labour pains.

Question 56.
What is colostrum?
Answer:
Colostrum: During the end of pregnancy a watery yellowish lymph like fluid accumulates in the mammary glands. It is known as colostrum.

Question 57.
What is the importance of feeding colostrum to new born baby?
Answer:
It is very important to feed colostrum to the new born baby because it helps in developing the immune system of the child.

Question 58.
What is the need of sexual reproduction?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction help organisms to develop characters that would be help them to adapt better to their surroundings.

Question 59.
In which mountain regions can Sal trees grow?
Answer:
Sal trees grow in the Himalayan mountains.

Question 60.
What are the different parts of a flower?
Answer:
Sepals, petals, stamens and carpels are the different parts of a flower.

Question 61.
What are stamens and carpels?
Answer:
The reproductive parts of a flower which possess the sex cells or germ cells are called stamens and carpels.

Question 62.
What are unisexual flowers? Give examples.
Answer:
Flowers having either stamens or carpels are called unisexual flowers.
Eg: Bottlegourd, papaya.

Question 63.
What are Bisexual flowers? Give some examples.
Answer:
Flowers having both the stamen and carpel are called bisexual flowers. Eg: Datura.

Question 64.
What are the three parts of carpel or gynoecium?
Answer:
The three parts of carpel or gynoecium are ovary, style and stigma.

Question 65.
What is self pollination?
Answer:
Plants having flowers. Where reproductive cells of stamen of the flower fertilise the female reproductive cells of the carpel of the same flower is called self pollination.
Eg: Plants of pea family.

Question 66.
How cross fertilisation occurs?
Answer:
If the male cells of flower of a plant fertilise the female cells of flowers on the same or different plants of the same species, the type of pollination is called cross pollination.

Question 67.
What did Darwin showed regarding fertilization of plants?
Answer:
Darwin in 1876 showed that plants when isolated had the greatest tendency to self fertilize while when surrounded by varieties of the same flower, they readily cross fertilize.

Question 68.
Which cells are composed the embryosac of ovule?
Answer:
The embryosac of ovule composed of gametophyte cells.

Question 69.
How many cells and nuclei does an embryosac consisting in majority of flowering plants?
Answer:
The majority of flowering plants have an embryosac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.

Question 70.
What is double fertilisation?
Answer:
Double fertilisation: Union of one male nucleus with an egg and the second male nucleus with the fusion nucleus is called double fertilisation.

Question 71.
What is germination?
Answer:
The seed produced after fertilisation contains the future plant or embryo that develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions. This process is called germination.

Question 72.
Who gave the phrase “omnis cellula de cellula”? What does it mean?
Answer:
The ‘phrase omnis cellula de cellula’ means cells arise from pre-existing cells. It was given by Rudolph Virchow who discovered cell division.

Question 73.
Who stated that the animals can reproduce through binary fission of cells?
Answer:
In 1852 Robert Remak of Germany stated that animals can reproduce through binary fission of cells.

Question 74.
Who discovered the process of mitosis?
Answer:
Mitosis was discovered by Walther Flemming in 1879.

Question 75.
What is the most important discovery of Walther Flemming regarding chromosomes?
Answer:
Walther Flemming’s most important discovery was chromosomes appear double in nature.

Question 76.
Who proposed that chromosomes carried a different set of heritable elements?
Answer:
Wilhelm Roux proposed that chromosomes carried a different set of heritable elements.

Question 77.
What are the hypothesis made by August Weiseman on chromosomes?
Answer:

1. In successive generations, individuals of the same species have the same number of chromosomes.
2. In successive cell division the number of chromosomes always remain constant.

Question 78.
Who confirmed the scheme of mitotic division?
Answer:
The scheme of mitotic division was confirmed in 1904 by Theodor Boveri.

Question 79.
Who discovered the structure of DNA?
Answer:
The structure of (DNA) deoxy ribonucleic acid was discovered in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick.

Question 80.
The cells in which organ do not divide?
Answer:
Cells present in organs such as heart and brain of an individual never divide.

Question 81.
What is time required for completion of mitosis?
Answer:
The process of mitosis is completed in 40 to 60 minutes.

Question 82.
What is interphase?
Answer:
The period between two cell divisions is called interphase.

Question 83.
Into how many phases the interphase can be divided?
Answer:
Interphase can be divided into three phases. They are G₁ phase, S phase and G₂ phase.

Question 84.
What is G₁ phase of interphase?
Answer:
G₁ phase is the linking period between the completion of mitosis and the begining of DNA replication (Gap 1 phase).

Question 85.
What is S phase of interphase?
Answer:
S phase is the period of DNA synthesis leading to duplication of chromosomes.

Question 86.
What is G₂ phase of interphase?
Answer:
G₂ phase is the time between the end of DNA replication and the beginning of mitosis (Gap 2 phase).

Question 87.
Who conducted some experiments using the cell fusion technique on phases of interphase?
Answer:
Potu Narasimha Rao and Johnson conducted some experiments using the cell fusion technique to understand the functional relationship between the phases of interphase.

Question 88.
What is cytokinesis?
Answer:
Division of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.

Question 89.
What are the different stages present in mitosis?
Answer:
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase are the different stages present in mitosis.

Question 90.
In which phase of the mitosis chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids?
Answer:
In prophase of the mitosis chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids.

Question 91.
During which phase of mitosis chromatids are pulled towards poles?
Answer:
During anaphase of mitosis chromatids are pulled towards poles.

Question 92.
How many haploid daughter cells are formed after meiosis?
Answer:
Four haploid daughter cells are formed after meiosis.

Question 93.
What are the diseases that can be sexually transmitted?
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases include bacterial infections such as Gonorrhoea and Syphilis and Viral infections such as AIDS.

Question 94.
In what way the sexually transmitted diseases spread from person to person?
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases spread by unsafe sexual contacts, using infected devices, infected blood transfusion, from an infected mother to child.

Question 95.
Which state has the highest number of HIV patients in the country?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana has the highest number of HIV patients in the country.

Question 96.
Which factors are contributing to the spread of HIV in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Illiteracy, poor health, unemployment, migration, non-traditional sex practise, unethical contacts and trafficking are some of the factors contributing to the spread of HIV in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 97.
Expand “ASHA”.
Answer:
Accredited Social Health Activist.

Question 98.
What is Red ribbon express?
Answer:
Red Ribbon express is an AIDS/HIV awareness campaign train by the Indian Railways. The motto of the Red ribbon express is “Embarking on the Journey of Life”.

Question 99.
What is contraception?
Answer:
The prevention of pregnancy in women by preventing fertilisation is called contraception.

Question 100.
Which device not only prevents fertilisation but also transmitting some sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:
Condoms and diaphragm (cap) prevents fertilisation and also useful to not transmitting some sexually transmitted diseases like gonorrhoea, syphilis, AIDS.

Question 101.
What are spermicides?
Answer:
Spermicides are the pills used for killing sperms.

Question 102.
What are the surgical methods to birth control in males and females?
Answer:
Vasectomy for males and Tubectomy for female are the surgical birth control methods in human beings.

Question 103.
What is Vasectomy?
Answer:
In males, a small portion of vas deferens is removed by surgical operation ami both ends are tied properly. This method is called vasectomy.

Question 104.
What is Tubectomy?
Answer:
In females, a small portion of oviducts (fallopian tube) is removed by surgical operation and the cut ends are tied. This prevents the ovum from entering into the oviducts. This method is called Tubectomy.

Question 105.
What is the marriage age for girls in India?
Answer:
The marriage age for girls in India is 18 years.

Question 106.
What is foeticide?
Answer:
Foeticide is the act of destruction or aborting a foetus because it is female.

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the questions you asked the doctor who visited your school to know “the ways of transmission of HIV”?
Answer:
I shall ask the following questions to the doctor.

1. What are the ways of transmission of HIV?
2. How can we prevent the spread of HIV?
3. What precautions should we take while doing transfusion of blood:
4. How does HIV transmit from mother to baby?
5. Why should we use disposable syrenges?

Question 2.
The chromosomal number is reduced to half in the daughter cells produced by meiosis. What happens if the number is not reduced to half in daughter cells?
(OR)
In Meiosis, the chromosome number in the daughter cells are reduced to half that of their parent cells. Guess, what would happen, if the reduction of chromosome number is not done.
Answer:

1. If the reduction of chromosomes number is not done, the chromosomal number is doubled in the offsprings.
2. The change in chromosomal number leads to development of abnormal characters in the individual.
3. The offspring differs from parental generation.
4. Abnormal characters will be formed in new generation, which are not useful for the existence of individual.

Question 3.
What questions do you ask a doctor to know about different birth control methods?
Answer:

1. What is family planning?
2. What is meant by contraception?
3. How many types of contraceptive methods are there?
4. What are the contraceptive devices used for female?
5. What are the contraceptive devices used for male?
6. What is tubectomy?
7. What is vasectomy?
8. What are surgical methods of birth controls?

Question 4.
Apparao and Ramulamma are a newly married illiterate couple. They don’t want children for few years. Suggest some birth control methods for them.
(OR)
Mention any four birth control methods.
Answer:
a) condoms
b) diaphragm (Cap)
c) pills
d) copper – T
e) loop

Question 5.
Why is it important for gametes to have half the number of chromosomes?
Answer:

1. If gametes have 2 sets of chromosomes, the number of chromosomes will be 4 sets in zygote after fertilization because of this the chromosomal number will be doubled in each generation. This results in abnormalities in off-spring.
2. Hence, to maintain a constant number of chromosomes, garnets should have half set of chromosomes.

Question 6.
Identify the flower parts a, b, c, d and write their main function.
Answer:
a) Ovary: Female reproductive organ in flower. It produces female gametes called ovules.
b) Style: Ovary has a pipe like structure called style. It allows the pollen tube to enter the ovary for fertilization.
c) Stamen: These are male parts called androecium. It has two parts. They are filament and Anther.
d) Anther : Produces male gametes called pollen grain.

Question 7.
Draw and label the diagram of human sperm cell.
Answer:

Question 8.
How can we get the desired useful triats with the help of two selected triats by using grafting method?
Answer:

1. Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant.
2. One which is attached to soil is called stock and the cut stem of another plant without roots is called scion.
3. Both stock and scion are tied with the help of a twine thread and covered by a polythene cover.
4. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
5. This technique is very useful in propagating improved varieties of plants with various flowers and fruits. Ex: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.

Question 9.
Draw the labelled diagram of Embryo-sac A.
Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Which phases take same time duration?
Answer:
G₁ phase and S phase.
ii) In which phase, DMA synthesis takes place?
Answer:
S Phase.

Question 11.
Write the process involved in seedless fruit development with two suitable examples.
Answer:
In some plants ovary directly develops into fruit without the process of fertilization, this phenomenon is called as parthenocarypy.
Ex: Grapes, water melon.

Question 12.
What precautions will you take to keep away from diseases like AIDS and other sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:

1. Avoid sex with unknown partners or multiple partners.
2. Use condom every time.
3. Use disposable syringes and needles.
4. Transfusion of safe blood to the patients.
5. HIV mother can have child with doctor’s advice only.

Question 13.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Name male and female reproductive parts of the above figure.
Answer:
Male reproductive parts – anther / pollen grain / stamen
Female reproductive parts – ovary / ovule / style / stigma.

ii) Write the names of (1) and (2) in the diagram.
Answer:

1. Sepal or calyx
2. Petal or corolla

Question 14.
When does Parthenogenesis occur? Write names of two animals in which parthenogenesis takes place.
Answer:
a) Parthenogenesis is a process of reproduction where there is a shift from sexual to asexual mode of reproduction.
b) In this process generally the female garnets develops into zygote without fertilization.
c) This strange kind of reproduction occur in bees, ants and wasps.
d) The parthenocarpic zygote develop into male (Monoploid) while the fertilized one developed into female (Diploid)

Question 15.
Draw the figure of metaphase in mitosis, and write about it.
Answer:

1. Chromosomes move to spindle equator, centromeres attached to spindle fibres.
   
2. Centromeres split, separating the chromatids.

Question 16.
Prepare 4 questions on meiosis, to conduct a Quiz programme.
Answer:

1. Where does meiosis occur in?
2. How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
3. In which phase of meiosis karyokinesis takes place?
4. Name the scientist who discovered meiosis for the first time.

Question 17.
Write slogans on ‘Child marriages – a social evil’.
Answer:

1. Child marriage, a loosing game.
2. She is a child herself, why burden her with another child?
3. My childhood, my right.
4. A child should call ‘mother’ but a child should not be called mother.
5. Good marriages take place slowly. Go slow with children’s marriage.
6. Say no to child marriage.

Question 18.
Write 5 slogans on the prevention of HIV/AIDS.
Answer:

1. Open your eyes before AIDS closes them.
2. Hate the disease but not the diseased.
3. Spread the knowledge not the virus.
4. Wear protection to prevent infection.
5. AIDS brings pain! Girls please obstain.

Question 19.
What is fission? Give examples.
Answer:

1. Fission is a method of asexual reproduction in which a single-celled organism splits into two or more offsprings.
2. This splitting usually occurs in a symmetrical manner.
3. When an organism is split into two offsprings it is called binary fission.
4. When an organism is split into more offsprings, it is called multiple fission.
5. This is often the only mode of reproduction for single celled organisms.
   Ex : Paramoecium and bacteria.

Question 20.
Write a short notes on fragmentation.
Answer:

1. Fragmentation is a reproductive method in multicellular organisms with relatively simple body organisation.
2. Some can grow from a separate piece of parent organism. This can be from any part of the body.
3. This happens only in the simplest such as some flat-worms, moulds, lichens, spirogyra, etc.
4. Fragmentation is a common mode of reproduction in algae, fungi and many land plants.

Question 21.
What do you know about parthenogenesis? Explain with examples.
Answer:

1. Parthenogenesis is an asexual reproduction in which unfertilized eggs develop into offsprings.
2. In this process generally egg develops into new individual without meiosis and fertilization. So the offsprings are diploid.
3. In some species of animals reproduction occurs only through parthenogenesis. There are no males known in these species. Ex: Rotifers.
4. In another type of parthenogenesis meiosis does occur and the egg can develop whether fertilized or not.
5. The monoploid offsprings develop into males and diploid into females.
   Ex: Bees, Ants and Wasps.
6. Nowadays we are able to develop seed less fruits like watermelon, grapes, pomegranate etc.

Question 22.
Describe the vegetative propagation through the stem with examples.
Answer:

1. Production of new plants from the vegetative parts such as stem, root, leaves of the existing plant is called vegetative propagation.
2. Aerial weak stems like runners and stolons, when they touch the ground, give off adventitious roots.
3. When the connection with the parent plant is broken, the portion with the newly struck roots develops into an independent plant.
4. Some examples for propagation by stem are from stolons, bulbs, corms and tubers as follows.
   a) Stolons – Vallisneria, Strawberry
   b) Bulbs – Alliumcepa or onion
   c) Corms – Colacasia
   d) Tuber – Potato

Question 23.
Write short note on artificial propagation method cutting.
Answer:

1. Cutting is an artificial method of vegetative propagation in which new plants are developed from the cut portion of existing plant.
   
2. Some plants grow individually when a piece of the parent plant having bud is cut from the existing plant.
3. The lower part of this cutting is buried in moist soil.
4. After few days the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant.
   Ex: Rose, Hibiscus.

Question 24.
What is layering? Explain briefly about it.
Answer:

1. Stems that form roots while still attached to the parent plants are called layers. Propagating the plants in this method is layering.
2. A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and a part of it is covered with moist soil leaving the tip of the branch exposed above the ground.
3. After sometime, new roots develop from the part of the branch hurried in the soil.
4. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant, later it develops roots and grows to become a new plant. Ex: Nerium.

Question 25.
Write a short note on Grafting.
Answer:

1. Grafting is a method of artificial vegetative propagation in which two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant.
   
2. One which is attached to soil is called stock and the cut stem of another plant without roots is called scion.
3. Both stock and scion are tied with help of a twine thread and covered by a polythene cover.
4. After few days both will unite by forming new tissue and grow as a single one.
5. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
6. Plants in which grafting is done more in mango, apple, citrus, plants.

Question 26.
What are the advantages of grafting?
Answer:

1. Grafting enables us to combine the most desirable characteristics of the two plants (scion and stock) in its flower and fruits.
2. By grafting method, a very young scion can be made to flower and produce fruits quite fast when it is grafted to the stock.
3. Grafting can be used to produce varieties of seedless fruits.

Question 27.
How is tissue culture more beneficial than other traditional methods for the artificial propagation of plants? (OR)
What is tissue culture? What are its uses?
Answer:

1. The traditional methods for the artificial propagation of plants are being replaced by the modern methods of artificial propagation of plants involving tissue culture, as it is more beneficial than the traditional methods.
2. In tissue culture, a few plant cells or plant tissue are placed in a growth medium with plant hormones in it and it grows into new plants.
3. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short interval of time.
4. There will be no climatic impact on the propagation, so multiplication can be done throughout the year.
5. It is possible to obtain plants that are free from pathogens.

Question 28.
How does the Rhizopus propagate?
Answer:

1. Rhizopus propagates by means of spores.
   
2. The Rhizopus parent plant produces hundreds of microscopic reproductive units called spores.
3. When the spore case of the plant bursts, the spores spread into air.
4. These air borne spores fall on food or soil, under favourable conditions like damp and warm conditions, they germinate and produce new plants.

Question 29.
Write a short note on spore formation. (OR)
How spores are produced in sporangia of fungi?
Answer:

1. Spore formation is a method of asexual reproduction which occurs through microscopic reproductive units called spores.
2. Most of the fungi like rhizopus, mucor etc., bacteria and non-flowering plants such as ferns and mosses reproduce by the method of spore formation.
3. In fungi like rhizopus spores are produced in some specialised structures called sporangia which bursts and spreads the spores into air. These spores when fall on food or soil under favourable conditions germinate and produce new plants.
4. In non-flowering plants like fern, the leaves called sporophyll bears clusters of sporangia on their lower side. These sporangia produce the spores which produce the new plant when it falls on ground under favourable conditions.

Question 30.
How is external fertilisation different from internal fertilisation? (OR)
What are the differences between external and internal fertilisation?
Answer:

1. Fertilisation that takes place outside the body of mother is called external fertilisation. This is most common in animals like fishes and amphibians. As the chance of fertilisation is controlled by nature it becomes necessary to give rise to vast number of eggs and sperms by these animals.
2. Fertilisation that takes place inside the body of mother is called internal fertilisation. This is common in most of the land animals. As the chance of fertilisation is not controlled by the nature, these animals generally produce less number of eggs.

Question 31.
Write a short note on ovulation. (OR)
What is ovulation? How it occurs?
Answer:

1. Release of the egg or ovum is called ovulation.
2. The ova develop in tiny cellular structures in ovary called follicles, which at first look like cellular bubbles.
3. As a follicle grows, it develops a cavity filled with fluid.
4. Each follicle contains a single ovum.
5. When an ovum is mature, the follicle ruptures at the surface of the ovary and the tiny ovum is flushed out.
6. This release of ovum is called ovulation.

Question 32.
How does the uterus get adapted to receive the embryo?
Answer:

1. The uterus at the time of fertilization is beautifully adapted to receive the developing embryo, providing it with food and disposing of its wastes.
2. A few days prior to this time, the uterus was small, its tissues were thin, and its supply of blood vessels was poor.
3. When the fertilized egg or zygote is about to enter the uterus become much larger, its inner wall becomes thick, soft and moist with fluid, its blood supply is greatly increased and waiting for an embryonic occupant.

Question 33.
What is colostrum? What is its importance?
Answer:

1. During the end of pregnancy, a watery lymph like fluid accumulates in the mammary glands.
2. This is called colostrum.
3. For the first few days after the baby is born, the mammary glands secrete only colostrum.
4. It is very important to feed the new born baby with colostrum because it helps in developing the immune system of the child.

Question 34.
What is the importance of mitosis in human beings?
Answer:

1. Mitosis is the cell division that transforms a human fertilized egg into a baby in nine months and into an adult in the next 20 years.
2. The bone marrow cells actively divide by mitosis to produce red blood cells.
3. Mitosis helps in replacing the worn out cells in the skin.
4. Mitotic divisions in the cells surrounding the wound helps in cease the wound and healing.

Question 35.
Collect the information about the significance of the experiments done by Dr Potu Narasimha Rao and Johnson.
Answer:

1. Nearly 4 decades back Dr.P.N. Rao and Johnson did some elegant experiments using the cell fusion technique to understand the functional relationship between the phases of cell cycle.
2. These experiments have, for the first time provided evidence that the progression of cells through the cell cycle is sequential and unidirectional and are controlled by a series of chemical signals that can diffuse freely between nucleus and cytoplasm.
3. These experiments revealed for the first time the structure of interphase chromosomes that are not ordinarily visible under the microscope.
4. These experiments are considered to be a ‘milestone’ in the cell cycle studies.

Question 36.
Ramu said that it is very essential to create more awareness in Andhra Pradesh on the risk of HIV infection and AIDS. Do you support him? If so, how can you support his statement?
Answer:
Yes, what Ramu said is right. I support his statement with the following reasons.

1. Andhra Pradesh has the highest number of HIV patients in the country.
2. According to official statistics, the state had 5 lakh of the 24 lakh HIV positive patients
   in the country during 2011-12.
3. While one in every 300 adults is suffering from HIV elsewhere, in Andhra Pradesh one in every 100 adults is a HIV patient, that is almost one per cent.
4. The prevalence of HIV is 1.07 per cent among males and 0.73 among females in the state, which again is higher than in other states.

Question 37.
Briefly explain about the contraception and contraceptive methods.
Answer:
The prevention of pregnancy in the woman by preventing fertilisation is called contraception. Any device or chemical which prevents pregnancy in a woman is called a contraceptive. Contraceptive methods are of various types and used by any of the partners as preferable. Some of the contraceptive methods are:

1. Use of physical devices such as condoms and diaphragm (cap).
2. Use of hormonal pills which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into oviduct.
   These pills can be induced either orally or inserting into female reproductive organ vagina.
3. Use of spermicides that kills the sperms.
4. Use of intra-uterine device called copper – T, loop, etc.
5. Use of surgical methods such as vasectomy for male and tubectomy for female.

Question 38.
Classify the given organisms basing on the type of reproduction.
Man, Flatworm, Mould, Dog, Bacteria, Frog, Fern, Datura, Hen, Yeast.
Answer:

Sexually reproducing organisms	Asexually reproducing organisms
Man	Flat worm
Dog	Mould
Frog	Bacteria
Datura	Fern
Hen	Yeast

Question 39.
What will happen if the amnion is ruptured before the foetus is developed completely?
Answer:

1. Amnion is the embryonic membrane that grows around the embryo itself.
2. The cavity within the amnion is filled with a fluid called amniotic fluid, which keeps the growing embryo moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury.
3. If the amnion ruptures by accident before the foetus developed completely, the amniotic fluid is released out through vagina.
4. As there is no protective fluid around the foetus, it starts getting damaged.
5. So if possible delivery must done immediately by surgerical method, otherwise abortion must be done.
6. If baby dies inside the uterus which leads to infections in uterus causing problems
   to mother that leads to death.

Question 40.
How will you appreciate the contribution of August Weiseman to the cell biology?
Answer:

1. Science is not advanced only by the collection of data. Someone must think about and interpret the data. August Weiseman belongs to this category who think and interpret the data.
2. Even though his poor eyesight not allowed him to use a microscope to study cells, he made great contribution to the cell biology making use of his thinking capacity and interpretation skills.
3. He hypothesised that
   a) In successive generations, individuals of the same species have the same number of chromosomes.
   b) In successive cell division, the number of chromosomes remains constant.
4. His hypothesis proved right in case of mitosis.
5. We should take such a great person who overcame his defect with his will as our role model.

Question 41.
How will you appreciate the contribution of Dr. P.N. Rao to the ceil biology?
Answer:

1. Dr. Potu Narasimha Rao, a renowned scholar and eminent cytologist came from a poor family in Muppalla village of Guntur district.
2. He did his research work on the cytogenetics of tobacco plant and cancer cells in culture medium.
3. He conducted research in cell kinematics and triggering factor of cell division i.e., mitosis.
4. He observed the interphase and its three phases.
5. To understand the functional relationship between these phases he did elegant experiments on cell fusion technique along with his research associate Dr.Johnson.
6. His researches revealed that the cell cycle is sequential, unidirectional and controlled by a series of chemical signals.
7. His experiments are considered to be a milestone in the cell cycle.
8. He is an exemplary person who proved that poverty is not a barrier to the talent and wisdom.

Question 42.
Write briefly about natural vegetative propagation in plants.
Answer:

1. In natural vegetative propagation new plants are produced from stem, root, leaves of old plants without the help of any reproductive organs.
2. In bryophyllum small plants grow at the edge of leaves.
3. Aerial weak stems like runners stolons, when they touch the ground give it adventitious roots.
4. When the connection with the parent plant is broken the stem portion with the adventitious roots develops into an independent plant.
5. Some examples for propagation by stem are from stolons, bulbs, corms, tuber etc.
   
6. Stolons – Vallisneria, strawberry.
   Bulbs – Onion (Alliumcepa)
   Corms – Colacasia
   Tuber – Potato

Question 43.
What are sexually transmitted diseases and mention the ways to prevent them?
Answer:

1. A disease which can be transmitted through sexual contact is called sexually transmitted disease or STD.
2. These include bacterial infections such as gonorrhoea, syphilis, Herpis and viral infections such as herpes and AIDS.
3. Lack of hygiene is usually a major factor in providing conditions for spread of STDs.
4. But unprotected sex with multiple and unknown partners is the highest reason for the spread of STDs.
5. Some of the ways to prevent STD are as follows.
   a) Being faithful to one’s life partner.
   b) Avoid sexual contact with unknown person.
   c) Using condom during sexual intercourse.
   d) Maintaining personal hygiene.

Question 44.
Why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individual through regeneration ?
Answer:

1. Many organisms have the ability to give rise to new individual organisms from their body parts.
2. Regeneration happens through mitosis and a particular type of tissue can give rise to its own kind only.
3. In complex organisms, different tissues and organs have altogether different structures.
4. Regenerating a different kind of tissue from another kind is not possible.
5. Hence complex organisms are not able to give rise to new individuals through regeneration.

Question 45.
How an organism will be benefited if it reproduces through spores?
Answer:

1. Reproduction through spores gives several advantages to an organism like they are produced in very large numbers and it helps in propagation of species.
2. Spores can remain dormant till favourable conditions become available.
3. Spores help an organism to overcome unfavourable conditions.
4. Spores can be spread through water, air or animals and thus is good for the spread of an organism to more places.

Question 46.
What is the role of the placenta in embryo development?
Answer:

1. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother.
2. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy and becomes an important structure for nourishment of the embryo.
3. Placenta is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue.
4. On the other side mother’s blood spaces are present.
5. This provides a large surface area for diffusion of glucose, oxygen and other nutrients from the mother of the embryo.

Question 47.
Why do we practise vegetative propagation for growing some types of plants?
(OR)
Why vegetative propagation is adopted over other types of propagation?
Answer:
Vegetative propagation is practised in some plants because

1. It is the only method of reproduction in seed less plants.
2. We get more number of matured plants in a very short time.
3. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short time.
4. This method can help the breeder in preserving the characters he need.
5. It is very easy and economical method for the multiplication of ornamental plants.

Question 48.
What is Mitosis? Which type of cells it occurs in organisms? Write about the different stages of it.
Answer:

1. Mitosis is a method of cell division, in which the nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei.
2. Each containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus.
3. Mitosis takes place in all body cells which retains same number of chromosomes.
4. Different stages of mitosis:
   1. Prophase
   2. Metaphase
   3. Anaphase
   4. Telophase

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the changes involved in the formation of seed from Ovule.
(OR)
Pollen grain reached the stigma of a flower. Explain the changes that occurs up to the formation of seeds in a sequence.
Answer:
Process of double fertilization:

1. At the time of fertilization there will be a total of 7 cells arranged in three groups in a mature embryo sac.
2. They are one egg (female garnet) two synergids, one central cell (secondary or polar nucleus) and three antipodals.
3. While all the cells are in haploid (n) condition only the polar nucleus is diploid (2n). This is due to the fusion of two nuclei.
4. The synergids are also known as helper cells.
5. Fertilization is the process of fusion of male and female gametes. For the fusion pollen grains have to reach the surface of the stigma. This is called pollination.
   
6. Pollen grain received by the stigma, germinate and give rise to pollen tubes. The pollen tube has two male nuclei.
7. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through microphyle and discharges the two male gametes into the embryo sac.
8. One male nucleus (garnet) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form diploid (2n) zygote this is called first fertilization.
9. The other male nucleus reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) (polar nucleus) and fuses with it to form endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization. Thus double fertilization occurs in embryosac.
   Changes after double fertilization:
10. After double fertilization, the ovule increases in size rapidly as a result of formation of endosperm tissue by mitosis and the development of new embryo.
11. The embryo consists of cotyledons an epicotyl and a hypocotyl. The cotyledons become greatly enlarged because of stored food for the seedling.
12. The zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat and is converted into a seed. The ovary grows to form a fruit.

Question 2.
Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions.
i) What are the four main parts of a flower?
Answer:
Calyx, Corolla, Androecium and Gynoecium are the main parts of a flower.

ii) Which parts of the flower produces gametes?
Answer:
Androecium and gynoecium produces gametes.

iii) Which parts of the flower help in pollination?
Answer:
Petals or corolla help flower in pollination.

iv) Which part protect the flower during its bud stage?
Answer:
Sepals or calyx protect flower in bud stage.

v) Which part of the flower will turn into a fruit in the future?
Answer:
Ovary of the flower will change into fruit.

Question 3.
Organisms reproduce asexually in many ways. Some of the organisms are given below. Fill the below table based on the collected information about the organism and mode of asexual reproduction in it.
a) Onion b) Spirogyra c) Strawberry d) Ginger e) Honey-bee f) Paramoecium g) Planaria h) Yeast

Name of the organism	Mode of Asexual reproduction

Answer:

Name of the organism	Mode of Asexual reproduction
a) Onion	Bulb
b) Spirogyra	Fragmentation
c) Strawberry	Stolons
d) Ginger	Rhizome
e) Honey – bee	Parthenogenesis
f) Paramoecium	Binary fission
g) Planaria	Regeneration
h) Yeast	Budding

Question 4.
i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of L.S. of flower.
ii) What are the sexual parts in the flower ?
Answer:
i)
ii) A. Androecium or Stamen
B. Gynoecium or Pistil

Question 5.
Read carefully and answer the following questions.

According to Weismann prediction, every organism undergoes two kinds of cell divisions. In Mitosis, there is no change in chromosomal number (2n) and in Meiosis, chromosomal number is reduced to half (n).

i) What does ‘n’ and ‘2n’ indicate?
Answer:
‘n’ indicates haploid state. ‘2n’ indicates diploid state.

ii) In which cells, Meiosis takes place?
Answer:
Meiosis occurs in sex cells during the formation of gametes.

iii) What happens, if chromosomal number is not reduced in Meiosis?
Answer:
The chromosomal number not constant in successive generations.

iv) Which type of cell division occurs in the skin cells?
Answer:
Mitosis

Question 6.
Observe the diagram and answer the following.

i) Which part produce the female gamete?
Answer:
Ovary

ii) Where does the fertilization takes place in female reproductive system?
Answer:
Fallopian tube

iii) Where does the embryo develops until it is ready to born?
Answer:
Uterus

iv) In some cases doctor’s cut and tie the cut ends of the fallopian tubes. What is the name of surgery?
Answer:
Tubectomy

Question 7.
Briefly explain the stages of cell cycle.
Answer:
The process of cell division is called “mitosis”. The period between two cell divisions is called “Interphase”.
This is actually the period when the genetic material makes it’s copy so that it is equally distributed to the daughter cells during mitosis. Interphase can be devided into three phases.
G₁ Phase: This is the linking period between the completion of mitosis and the beginning of DNA replication (GAP-1 Phase). The cell size increase during this period.
S Phase: This is the period of DNA synthesis (Synthesis phase) leading duplication of chromosomes.
G₂ Phase: This is the time between the end of DNA replication and the beginning of mitosis. Cell organells devide and prepare chromosome for mitosis.

Question 8.
i) Draw a labelled diagram of the human male reproductive system.
ii) What is the function of testosterone?
Answer:
i) Male reproductive system:
ii) The function of testosterone hormone is maintaining of secondary sexual chracters in males.

Question 9.
Describe the life cycle of a flowering plant with a help of neat labelled diagrams. (OR) Draw the life cycle of a flowering plant.
Answer:

1. Adult plant produces flowers:
   When the plant matures and is ready to reproduce, it develops flowers. Flowers are special structures involved in sexual reproduction, which includes pollination and fertilisation.
   
2. Pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called pollination.
3. Fertilisation:
   i) After pollen grains falls on the stigma fertilization occurs when the male gamete present in pollen grains joins with the female gametes present in the ovule.
   ii) In the ovary the male nucleus of pollen combines with the nucleus of female gamete or egg present to form zygote.
4. Formation of fruit and seed: After fertilisation, a combined cell i.e. zygote grows into an embryo within a seed formed by the ovule.
5. Each seed contains a tiny plant called an embryo which has root, stem and leaf parts ready to grow into a new plant when conditions are favourable.
6. Another part of the flower (the ovary) grows to form fruit, which protects the seeds and helps them spread away from the parent plant to continue the cycle.

Question 10.
Analyze the following information and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Name of the plant	Method of propagation
1.	Mango	Grafting
2.	Rose, Hibiscus	Cutting
3.	Jasmine	Layering
4.	Bryophyllum	Small plants grow on edges of leaves
5.	Colacasia	Cor ms
6.	Onions	Bulbs

i) What do you call the given reproduction methods?
Answer:
Given reproduction methods are called ‘vegetative propagation’.

ii) What is the major difference between sexual reproduction and vegetative reproduction in plants?
Answer:
In sexual reproduction gametes form zygote. Plant parts like root, stem and leaf are used in vegetative reproduction. It is one of asexual method.

iii) Potato plants do not produce seeds. How can you propagate this plant?
Answer:
Potato plants propagates through the ‘eyes’.

iv) What are the advantages of propagating plants with the above given methods?
Answer:
In vegetative propagation

1. More plants are produced in less time
2. Characters are not changed.
3. It would be possible to develop new varieties with useful characters.

Question 11.
Explain the methods of artificial propagation in various plants.
Answer:
Artificial propagation:

1. Cutting: Some plants can grow individually when a piece of the parent plant having bud is cut off from the existing plant. The lower part of this cutting is buried in moist soil.
   
   After few days the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant after developing roots. E.g. Rose, Hibiscus.
2. Layering: A branch of the plant with atleast one node is bent towards the ground and part of it is covered with moist soil. After a few days new roots develop from the part of the branch buried in the soil. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant.
   E.g: Nerium, Jasmine
   
3. Grafting: Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant. This technique is very useful in propagating improved varieties of various flowers and fruits. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable character. E.g: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.
   

Question 12.
Observe the following figures and find the stages of cell division and explain.
Answer:
In the mitotic cell division, the division of nucleus (karyokinesis) followed by the division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis). Finally brings about the formation of two daughter cells. There are four stages in mitosis division.
They are

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

1) Prophase	1) Chromosomes condense and get coiled. They become visible even in light microscope. Nucleoli become smaller. 2) Chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids, connected by centromeres. 3) Nuclear membrane disappears. 4) Centrosome, containing rod-like centrioles, divide and form ends of spindle
2) Metaphase	1) Centrosomes move to spindle equator, spindle fibres attached to centromeres.
3) Anaphase	1) Centromeres split, separating the chromatids. 2) Spindle fibres attached to centromeres contract, pulling chromatids towards poles.
4) Telophase	1) Chromatids elongate, replication at this stage to become chromosomes and become invisible. 2) Nuclear membrane form round daughter nuclei. 3) Cell membranes pinches into form daughter cells (animals) or new cell wall material becomes laid down across spindle equator (plants) 4) Nucleus divides into two and division of cytoplasm starts. Two cells are form.

Question 13.
Mention the stages of Mitosis with the help of diagrams. Explain the changes that takes place in Prophase.
Answer:
Mitosis is a method of cell division, in which the nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei each containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus. Mitosis takes place in all body cells which retains same number of chromosomes.
Different stages of mitosis:
1) Prophase 2) Metaphase 3) Anaphase 4) Telophase

1) Prophase

1. In this phase chromosomes condense and get coiled.
2. They become visible even in light microscope.
3. Nucleoli becomes smaller.
4. Chromosome split lengthwise to form chromatids, connected by centromeres.
5. Nuclear membrane breaks down.
6. Centrosome containing rod like centrioles, divide and form ends of spindle.

Question 14.
Describe the process of double fertilization in plants. Explain the uses of endosperm that is formed.
Answer:
Double fertilization:

1. In flowering plant germinated pollen grain forms pollen tube.
2. The end of the pollen tube ruptures and two male garnets are released in the Embryosac.
3. Out of two male garnets one male garnet fuses with female garnet which is called fertilization.
4. Another male garnet fuses with the secondary nucleus and forms endosperm.
5. So in flowering plant fertilization occures twice hence it is called double fertilization.

Uses of Endosperm:

1. Cotyledons develops by utilizing endosperm.
2. The Cotyledons utilizes the stored food in the endosperm.
3. Some of the plants utilizes the endosperm completely and changes in to seed.
4. Because of the stored food the size of the cotyledons increases.

Question 15.
Explain any two natural and two artificial vegetative propagation methods to produce more number of plants in less time period with examples.
Answer:
Natural propagation:
i) Leaves – Small plant grow at the edge of the leaves. Ex: Bryophyllum
ii) Stems:
a) Stolon – Ex: Jasmine, strawberry b) Bulbs – Ex: Onion
c) Corns – Ex: Colocasia d) Rhizome – Ex: Ginger e) Tuber – Ex: Potato
iii) Root – Ex: Roots of murayya, guava
Artificial propagation:
Cutting: Some plants can grow individual when a piece of parent plant having bud is cut off from the existing plants. Ex: Rose, Hibiscus.
Layering: A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and a part of it is covered with moist soil leaving the tip of the branch exposed above the ground. Ex: Nerium, Jasmine.
Grafting: Two plants are joint together in such a way that stems join and grow as a single plant one which is attached to soil is called stock and stem of another plant without roots is called scion. Both stock and scion are tied with a twine thread and cover by a polythene cover. Ex: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.

Question 16.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

SI. No.	Structure	Location
1.	Tricuspid valve	Right auriculo-ventricular aperture
2.	Guard cells	Epidermis of leaves
3.	Glomerulus	Nephron
4.	Alveoli	Lungs
5.	Acrosome	Above the head of a sperm.

i) Name the structure concerned to the heart.
Answer:
Tricuspid valve

ii) What is the function of acrosome?
Answer:
It helps the sperm in penetrating into ovum.

iii) Name the structures which are helpful for gaseous exchange.
Answer:
Alveoli and guard cells

iv) Name the part performing Excretion.
Answer:
Glomerulus

Question 17.
a) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Human female reproductive system.
b) What happens when the Fallopian tubes are closed?
Answer:
a) Female reproductive system
b) If fallopian tubes are closed the sperm can not reach the ova, fertilization will not happen and zygote will not form.

Question 18.
Observe the following table.

Reproduction system	Organisms
Fission	Paramoecium, Bacteria
Budding	Yeast, Hydra
Fragmentation	Flatworms, Spirogyra
Rhizome	Ginger, Turmeric
Cutting	Rose, Hibiscus
Grafting	Citrus, Apple

On the basis of information given in the table write- the answers to the following questions.
i) Write the names of two organisms that show Asexual reproduction.
Answer:
Yeast, Hydra, Bacteria, Paramoecium (any two you may write)

ii) Write two artificial vegetative propagation methods mentioned in the table.
Answer:
Cutting, Grafting

iii) Write the names of two plants, which undergo natural vegetative propagation mentioned in the table.
Answer:
Ginger, Turmeric

iv) In fission, how many organisms can we get from one organism?
Answer:
Two

Question 19.
Among the following organisms can we see asexual reproduction? Write about the method of asexual reproduction in any of the two organisms.
Answer:
а) Paramoecium b) Yeast c) Spirogyra d) Amoeba e) Planaria
Yes, we can see asexual reproduction in all the following organisms.

Method of asexual reproduction – Organism
Binary fission                                – Paramoecium, amoeba
Budding                                        – Yeast
Fragmentation                              – Spirogyra
Regeneration                                – Planaria

1) Binary fission in Paramoecium: A single cell divides into two equal daughter cells. First the cytoplasm divides into two parts followed by nuclear division.
2) Asexual reproduction in Yeast: Budding is the common method of asexual reproduction in yeast. In this method, yeast cell wall at a particular region becomes soft and bulges into an outgrowth called bud. Cytoplasm enters into this bulge and then nucleus divides mitotically into two nuclei, one moves into the bud. Finally bud is detached from the parent cell and grows into an independent yeast cell.

Question 20.
See the adjacent picture. Which type of pollination will occur in this ? Why do you think so?
Answer:

1. Self-pollination occurs if stamens and carpels matures at the same time.
2. If they mature at different times, cross pollination occurs.
3. Cross pollination occurs in this plant.
4. For cross pollination the pollen grains are carried from other plants belonging to the same species.
5. The mechanism of dispersal of pollen grains from one plant to other plant is facilitated mostly by wind and insects.
6. Cross pollination is believed to be advantageous for the plant.
7. The seeds produced by the flower will contain another source of genetic material
8. Which may contain genes which are advantageous to the survival of the seedlings.

Question 21.
What are the consequences if meiosis do not happen in the body cells of the organism?
Answer:

1. Each organism has a fixed number of chromosomes.
2. This number has to be maintained in its offspring.
3. Any sudden change in the number of chromosomes will be harmful to the offspring. Assume parent has 10 chromosomes.
4. In the absence of meiosis during sexual reproduction gametes will also have the same number of chromosomes as parent i.e., 10 chromosomes.
5. Union of female and male gametes occur forming zygote during sexual reproduction. The number of chromosomes doubled in zygote will have 10+10 chromosomes.
6. In the next generation, the offspring will have forty chromosomes. If this continues cells in the offsprings will have thousands of chromosomes within few generation.
7. This results in formation of abnormalities in each generation. Hence by way of meiotic division, the chromosome number is maintained constant from generation to generation.

Question 22.
Describe different artificial vegetative methods to produce large scale production of plants.
Answer:

1. Different artificial vegetative propagation methods are cutting, layering, grafting and tissue culture methods.
2. Cutting: Some plants grow individually when a piece of parent plant having bud is cut from the existing plant. After burying in the soil the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant after developing roots. E.g. Rose.
3. Layering: A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and part of it is covered with moist soil. After sometime, new roots develop from the part of the branch hurried in the soil. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant. E.g: Nerium.
4. Grafting: Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant. This technique is very useful in propagating improved vari¬eties of various flower and fruits. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable character. E.g: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.
5. Tissue culture: In this method, few plant cells or plant tissues are placed in a growth medium with plant hormones in it and it grows into new plants. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short interval of time.

Question 23.
i) Labelled parts of A, B, C, D above drawn Human female reproductive system.

ii) In which part fertilization takes place?
iii) Which part is in connection with implantation?
iv) What is ovulation?
Answer:
i) A: Fallopian tube
B: Ovary
C: Uterus
D: Vagina
ii) Fertilization takes place in fallopian tube.
iii) Uterus
iv) Release of ovum from graffian follicle of ovary is known as ovulation.

Question 24.
Write some programmes conducted by you to bring awareness in the people about health and hygeine and family planning?
Answer:

1. Organising Health camps on World Health day to people of the village.
2. Conducting immunisation programs for every three months.
3. Supplying tablets on the deworming day.
4. Organising seminars by expert doctors on individual health and cleanliness programs.
5. Propagating small family norms conducting camps for family planning operations.
6. Educating the masses through pamplets on the needs of taking balanced diet.
7. Need of using toilets and washing hands and legs before and after meals.
8. Educating the people by conducting adult education centres. This is basically required for enlightening the people on health aspects.

Question 25.
Government made an act on determining sex through ultrasound scanning and telling it as crime. What do you do to tell this to others?
Answer:

1. I will educate people knowing the sex of foetus inside mother’s womb is a severe crime as per the act made by government.
2. The purpose of ultrasound tests are to know the growing condition of the foetus and also to see whether it is suffering with severe ailments.
3. By knowing the sex of the foetus, if it is female people are ready for aborting it.
4. This leads to reduction in male female ratio in the country.
5. Children either male or female are equal to parents.
6. We should see proper development of girl child after her birth.

Question 26.
Write about the embryonic membranes that nourish, protect and support to the embryo?
Answer:

1. The growing embryo form two membranes – Chorion and Amnion.
2. Chorion establishes connection with the walls of the uterus and helps in the supply of nutrients to the embryo and in the removal of wastes from the embryo.
3. Amnion forms a sac like structure around the embryo and amniotic fluid is present between layers of Amnion.
4. Amnion and Amniotic fluid give protection to the embryo against mechanical shocks.
5. Placenta is a tissue formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy by the cells from the embryo and mother.
6. Embryo receives all the required nutrients and oxygen for its metabolism from the mother through the blood vessels present in the placenta.
7. Another membrane called allantois, which originates from the digestive canal of the embryo forms the major part of a tube like structure called umbilical cord.
8. Umbilical cord contains very important blood vessels that connect the embryo with the placenta.

Question 27.
Write brief history of cell division.
Answer:

1. In 1852 a German scientist, Robert Remak published his observations on cell division and stated that the binary fission of cells was the means of reproduction of animal cells.
2. This view was widely publicized by Rudolf Virchow who gave the phrase “Omnis cellulade cellula” means all cells arising from pre existing cells.
3. In 1879 Walther Flemming reported that there were string like structures in the nucleus which split longitudinally during cell division. He named the process as mitosis means fine threads as the dividing structures resembled threads.
4. Wilhelm Roux proposed that each chromosome carried a different set of heritable elements and suggested that the longitudinal splitting observed by Flemming ensured the equal division of these elements.
5. Combined with the rediscovery of Gregor Mendel’s 1866 paper on heritable elements in peas, these results highlighted the central role of the chromosomes in carrying heritable material or genetic material.
6. The scheme of mitotic division was confirmed in 1904 by Theodor Boveri.
7. The chemical nature of the genetic material was determined in a series of experiments over the next fifty years.
8. The structure of DNA – the constituent of the genetic material was determined in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick.

Question 28.
Explain briefly about child birth. (OR) How child birth occurs after gestation period?
Answer:

1. Total time required for the embryonic and foetal development is about 9 months or 280 days.
2. After this time, foetus is expelled from the uterus by the mother. This is child birth.
3. Child birth is a complicated process and involves the participation of child and mother.
4. The foetal hormones produced inside, stimulate the contraction of the muscles present in the walls of uterus.
5. These contractions called labour pains help in the expulsion of the foetus from the uterus.
6. During this process the amnion ruptures, placenta is separated from the walls of J the uterus.
7. At child birth the head usually comes out first.
8. The foetus is still attached to the mother’s uterus through the umbilical cord, which is later separated by the doctors.

Question 29.
Draw the life history of flowering plant in the form of block diagram.
Answer:
Life history of a flowering plant:

Question 30.
In a flower self fertilization takes place. Write the process, the flower organs which involve in self fertilization.
Answer:

1. Fusion of male and female gametes produced by the same individual is called self fertilization.
2. Self ferlization occurs in bisexual flowering plants.
3. The flower organs which involve in self fertilization are stamens (androecium) and carpels (Gynoecium).
4. Majority of flowering plants have an embryo sac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.
   
5. The pollen grains produced by anther of stamen are transferred to the stigma of the same flower by wind or insects.
6. The stigma of the carpel secretes a sticky substance which promotes the growth of pollen grains.
7. Under favourable conditions pollen grains germinate on the stigma and give rise to pollen tubes.
   Only one pollen tube finally reaches the embryo sac.
8. This pollen tube will have two male nuclei, which migrate to the tip of the pollen tube at the time of fertilization. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle and discharges the two male gametes into its embryo-sac.
9. One male nucleus (gamete) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form a diploid zygote. This is first fertilization.
10. The other male nucleus reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) and fuses with it to form the endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization in the embryo sac.
11. Thus double fertilization occurs in embryo sac which is unique in flowering plants.

Question 31.
Describe the structure of flower with a neatly labelled diagram.
Answer:

1. A typical flower consists of an outer whorl of green sepals (calyx) which protects the parts with in.
2. The second whorl has petals (corolla) which are usually brightly coloured. They sometimes emit fragrance also.
3. Petals are soft and are useful to attract insects to facilitate cross pollination.
   
4. The third whorl of the flower consists of stamens (Androecium) which are the male reproductive organs.
5. Each stamen is made up of a filament and an anther.
6. Each anther usually has two anther lobes. The anther produces pollen grains (microspores).
7. The inner most fourth whorl is gynoecium or pistil. It consists of ovary, style and stigma.
8. Ovary occupies central portion on the thalamus. A swollen ovary is present on the thalamus.
9. Inside the ovary future seeds, known as ovules are present.
10. Ovary has a pipe like extension called style. The tip of the style ends in stigma. The stigma receive the pollen grains.

Question 32.
Write a brief note on male reproductive system of human beings.
Answer:

1. The male reproductive system of human beings consists of a pair of testis, accessory glands and a system of ducts.
2. Testis are male reproductive organs and produces spermotozoa or sperms and also secretes male sex hormone Testosterone.
   
3. Inside each testis several lobules are present. Each lobule has several tubules called seminiferous tubules.
4. Germinal epithelial cells in the seminiferous tubules undergo meiotic division to produce sperms.
5. The accessory glands include one prostrate gland and two cowper glands. Secretion of these glands produce semen.
6. The duct system consists of vasa efferentia.
   They collect spermatozoa from seminiferous tubules.
7. Vasefferentia continue as epididymis where sperms are stored temporarily.
8. From epididymis sperms moved into tubule called vas deference and then into urethra.

Question 33.
Describe the female reproductive system in human beings.
Answer:

1. A pair of ovaries, oviducts, uterus and vagina are the parts present in female reproductive system.
2. Ovaries are present just below the Kidneys in the abdominal cavity.
3. Each ovary has several sac like structures called ovarian follicles or Graffian follicles.
   
4. Every time only one follicle matures and release one ovum into the body cavity.
5. Ovaries secrete two female sex hormones called oestrogen and progesterone which control the development of female reproductive organs, ovulation and menstruation.
6. Just above the ovaries are the tubes called oviducts or fallopian tubes where fertilisation takes place.
7. The two oviducts connect to a bag like organ called uterus at their other ends.
8. The uterus is connected through a narrow opening called cervix to another tube called vagina which opens to the outside of the body.
9. Vagina is a tubular structure and is also called birth canal because it is through this passage that the baby is born after the completion of development inside the uterus of the mother.

Question 34.
Describe briefly about the reduction division or meiosis.
(OR)
Why meiosis is also known as reduction division? Comment on it.
Answer:

1. Meiosis occurs only during the formation of gametes in sexual reproduction.
2. During meiosis only one set of chromosomes are passed on to the daughter cells. Hence daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes of the mother cells.
   
3. In meiosis karyokinesis and cytokinesis occur two times.
4. During first phase of meiosis the parent cell divides twice, though the chromosomes divide only once.
5. The second phase meiosis is similar to normal mitosis, but chromosomes do not duplicate more over the chromosome number distributed equally to each cells.
6. Thus the four daughter cells have just half the number of chromosomes of the parent cells.
7. These are haploid (containing only one set of chromosomes).
8. Thus meiotic division is also called reduction division.

Question 35.
Describe the developmental stages of human embryo after fertilization with the help of neatly labelled diagrams.
Answer:

1. During fertilization, chromosomes of the ovum and the chromosomes of the sperm make up into pairs and the resulting cell is called zygote.
2. Fertilization takes place in the oviduct or fallopian tube.
   
3. The zygote which is diploid travels down the fallopian tube. As it moves it undergoes several mitotic divisions forming the embryonic stage called blastocyst.
4. Blastocyst moves towards the wall of the uterus and finally gets attached and embedded in the wall of the uterus. This is called implantation.
5. The growing embryo forms two membranes Chorion and Amnion.
6. Chorion establishes connection with the walls of the uterus and helps in the supply of nutrients to the embryo and removal of wastes from the embryo.
7. Amnion forms a sac like structure around the embryo. The space between the amnion and embryo is filled with a fluid called amniotic fluid.
8. Amnion and amniotic fluid give protection to the embryo against minor mechanical injury.
9. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy.
10. Placenta nourishes the growing embryo.
    
11. A tough cord called umbilical cord is also formed by the embryo which is connected to the walls of the uterus through the placenta.
12. From 3 months of pregnancy, the embryo is called foetus.
13. Pregnancy lasts on an average 9 months or 280 days. This period is called gestation period.
14. After this time foetus is expelled from the uterus by the mother – this is child birth.
15. This process is complicated and involves the participation of foetus and mother.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 11th A Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 11th Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Correct the false statements:
a. In the early phase of Indian National Congress it included only people from Bombay.
b. Indian industrialist began to establish companies in different parts of India.
c. People in India expected that India would become democratic after the First World War.
Answer:
a) In the early phase of Indian National Congress it included the intellectuals all over the Nation.
b) Swadeshi Movement gave tremendous impetus to Indian industry.
c) Everyone expected that the British would accept the just demands for democratic rule in India and bring in the constitutional reforms.

Question 2.
Write an imaginary dialogue between the extremist and moderate activists of Indian National Congress in the context of their a) main demands; and b) mode of mobilisation.
Answer:

Lucknow Meeting

Moderates: We will request them to increase our representation in our ‘Imperial Ligislative Council.
Extremists: Why should we request them ? Choice is ours. We need not request them. We should chose them and send out from our country.
Moderates: Let us agree it. But upto that we should pass our time. Our people should be in authority for our safety. So we are requesting to conduct civil services in our country.
Extremists: We cannot have independence with the policy of pray, petition and protest. We cannot get the support of our people also. Let us unite together and fight. Let us take the problem to the public. Let us have their support. We will neck out the British soon.
Moderates: Okay. We change our way as peoples’ way. Let us join our hands to them and have our independence.
All: “Vande Mataram” “Vande Mataram”.

Question 3.
After reading this chapter, Mariamma thinks that the early phase of national movement was largely participated by educated Indians. And many of their ideas were of western origin. Would you agree with her? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with her.
Reasons:

1. With the growth of English education in some major cities, a new consciousness, began to develop.
2. They opposed the inequalities and injustices of the old social system.
3. They pointed out the exploitation and injustice caused by the British rule and fought to end it. Thus they sprouted the nationalism in the minds of common people.

Question 4.
Why was it important to understand the economic impact of British rule in India?
Answer:
It was important to understand the economic impact of British rule in India to understand

1. how they were draining our resources.
2. how our crafts lost their status.
3. the reasons for our poverty.

Question 5.
What do you understand by swadeshi? What were the major areas of its impact?
Answer:
I understood Swadeshi ‘as goods produced in our own country’.
The major areas of its impact were:

1. Political
2. Social
3. Industrial
4. Foreign trade
5. Spiritual
6. Business (national trade)
7. Education
8. Cultural
9. Judicial

Question 6.
How did different parts of the country and people respond to division of Bengal ?
Answer:
One major trigger for the movement was the proposal for partition of Bengal into East and West Bengal in 1903 by Lord Curzon. The Nationalists immediately saw this as a political act by the government to divide the Bengali people and also weaken the national movement. Even the ordinary people of Bengal were enraged by this act and took to streets to protest against it. There were massive protests, petitions and campaigns but they were not heeded to and the government partitioned Bengal in 1905. Several protest meetings were held and together they decided to boycotting English cloth and salt. There was a tremendous mass response to this call. Boycott and public burning of foreign cloth, picketing of shops selling foreign goods became common in remote corners of Bengal as well as in many important towns and cities throughout the country. Women refused to wear foreign bangles and use foreign utensils, washermen refused to wash foreign clothes and even priests declined offerings which contained foreign sugar. This spontaneous unity of diverse social groups was the basis of Indian nationalism. The early nationalists were successful in germinating this nationalism.
There was also a call for boycott of all government institutions like schools, colleges, courts etc. People set up Swadeshi schools and colleges and parallel courts in which they settled their mutual disputes. Thus the people responded to division of Bengal.

Question 7.
Locate the following in map India:

1. Calcutta (Kolkata)
2. Madras (Chennai)
3. Bombay (Mumbai)
4. Lucknow

Answer:

Question 8.
Locate the following in the World map:

1. Britain
2. France
3. Russia
4. Germany

Answer:

Question 9.
A few leaders like Gandhiji, Tilak, Subhash Chandra Bose, Bhagat Singh sacrificed their lives for the sake of our nation.
What would have happened, if they did not do so?
Answer:
The British would have plundered our nation’s wealth more and more. The people of our country would have been suffered as slaves under the British rule and India would have become a very poor country.

Question 10.
Are there any movements taken place in your region recently? Why?
Answer:
Recently ‘Jai Andhra’ movement took place in our region on the occasion of separating Telangana from Andhra Pradesh.
Reasons:

1. Regional imbalances
2. Political ill healthness
3. Lack of broad outlook

Project

Question 1.
Collect photos of national leaders who participated in freedom struggle and prepare an album. Make a report on it and present in the class.
Answer:
Report :

1. The National Movement in India was an important epoch in the history of India and it helped to weld diverse people and sections of society into one nation. Ail the sections came together to not only fight aganist the British rule but also to build a new country.
2. The seeds of a new consciousness were sown in the second half of 19th century.
3. The educated Indians, after understanding the nature of British rule and enter into free-dom movement.
4. The early leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Pherozeshah Mehta, W.C Banerjee, etc, they realised that the unity of all people could be built only by accommodating the special requirements of different regions and religious communities of India.
5. The famous leaders they left their jobs and families and move throughout the country given speeches and create awareness about Indian Independence and to send out the British from India.
6. They promote democratic ideas among the people.
7. They gave call for Swadeshi and boycott for foreign goods.
8. After First World War they raised their voice against British and started movements very actively.
9. Like this so many of our leaders participated in the freedom movement and sacrifice their lives and given a great freedom for us now we are enjoying that.
10. If they did not sacrifice their lives for the sake of our nation, then we would not have achieved freedom from the British rule and would have continued to be their slaves till date.

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Imagine yourself as a student participating in a burning of foreign cloth. Describe what all would have happened on that day and your feelings at that time. (Textbook Page No. 126)
Answer:
My name is Sarath Chandra Chatterji. I was studying B.A. – I year in Calcutta College. Britishers occupied our country. They were trying to cut it into pieces as a cake. Till now we, the Indians, are in faith of Law of ‘Karma’. But we wanted to teach them a lesson. We planned to burn the foreign goods in our area.

It is our centre. The roads were clear upto 2 p.m. But all of sudden they were crowded. In the junction we lit a fire. We, all our neighbourhood, threw the foreign cloths and all the foreign goods into the fire. The fire brightened the sky. We gave our slogan ‘Vande Mataram’ and it sounded as ‘Om’. Our eyes were flooded with tears. The light of the fire revealed our attitude towards freedom to the world. Our anger frightened the British.

We decided to attain freedom even by sacrificing our lives.

“Vande Mataram”
“Vande Mataram”

Question 2.
If authorities do not agree to the just requests of people, what do you think the people should do? (Textbook Page No. 126)
Answer:
The requests should be not only just but also legal. If the authorities do not agree, one should oppose them democratically and attain them.

Question 3.
During that period there were massive movements of people who opposed the war
and asked their governments to cease fighting with other countries and restore peace. Do you think it was correct? (Textbook Page No. 127)
Answer:
Yes, I think it was correct.
The reason:
India had no rivalry with Germany or its alliance. We were appealing and fighting with the British to quit India. So it seemed jovial to fight for them. So I think it was correct.

Question 4.
Do you know of any association in your village or town which discusses problems faced by all the people (not just of one caste or community)? What do they discuss? What suggestions do they have for solving those problems? Discuss some examples in the class. (Textbook Page No. 122)
Answer:
Yes, we have one such association in our village. It is ‘Mytri Sangham’. It has its members from all the levels and categories. This association looks after the law and order in our village. They conduct discussions at the time of critical problems. They intimate the issues to police authorities in time. If the people fail to receive, protection or just, they would question the authorities also.

Their suggestions: If the enemy is strong and foolish, we should make him to listen to our words with our own tricks. Later we should gather our own majority. Then only we should fight with him.
e.g.: A tiger puts three steps backward when it starts its trial for hunt. That is the technique.

Question 5.
Find out more about the First World War and its impact on the lives of ordinary people. (Textbook Page No. 127)
Answer:
We can say that World War – I broke out between the capitalists and communists. It continued for nearly 5 years. All the nations with its people took part in it. More than 10,000,000 people lost their lives. 6,500,000 were injured. 6,000,000 were missed. Many nations suffered a lot. Whole world shivered with the feeling of insecurity.

Question 6.
Why did the early nationalists believe that the British were responsible for the poverty and famines in India? (Textbook Page No. 124)
Answer:
Early nationalists were educated and intellectuals. They studied the economic impact of the British rule. They understood that the British was draining the Indian wealth in many ways.
e.g.: Enabling cheap selling of British goods in India and retraining Indian crafts and industries.
So they believed that the British were responsible for the poverty and famines in India.

Question 7.
Why do you think the early nationalists did not want to re-establish the rule of the old kings of India? Would it not have been better than the British rule? (Textbook Page No. 124)
Answer:
Yes. It would not have been better than the British rule.
Reasons:

1. Early nationalists treated India as a nation. Old kings divided India into small kingdoms.
2. The British rule was like hot pan, the old kings’ was like stove.
3. Many old kings were foreigners. ‘Swadeshi’ was their goal.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining

8th Class Social Studies 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Create a flow chart showing the visit to the underground mining.
Answer:

Visit to a mine
↓
Seeking permission
↓
Meeting safety officer
↓
Taking safety kit
↓
Report at muster point for online registration
↓
Getting into Hollage, Bell signal
↓
Mine shaft
↓
Coal seam
↓
Dolomited walls
4
Reaching face
↓
Ready for blasting, blasting
↓
Observing the blasted area
↓
Transport through conveyor belts
↓
Trucks & trains
↓
Sent for sale

Question 2.
Create a table to classify major health challenges; precautions; and care taken towards protecting mine workers as follows: 1. While working in the mines 2. While being employed.
Answer:
The people, who work in mines, mainly have a chance of getting lung problems, knee pains and eyesight. There is a chance of occurring accidents also.
While being employed they may get diseases according to the nature of their work, e.g.:

1. Throat problems to teachers.
2. eyesight and joint pains to drivers.
3. backbone pains to coolies.

There is a chance of mental problems to workers who work with tension and stress. Doing pranayama, meditation, and walking etc., are some steps to be followed by them.

The workers in mines should wear mask (nasal), shoes, gloves. The machines in the mines should be checked daily, properly and thoroughly.
Doctors and oxygen cylinders should be in reach.

Question 3.
Janaki is currently a farm labourer. She wants to become a miner. Can you explain what changes will occur in her nature of work; employment scenario; health risks etc.
Answer:
Nature of work: “Janaki, now you are working in green fields, and in pleasant situation. Here you are working during day time. But in mines it is too dangerous and in shift system. Night shift may be a hurdle to you. When compared to farm work, mining work is difficult.”

Employment scenario : “Janaki, to get a job in mines is difficult. You will be selected as a daily labour. You have to go to a long distance, where the mine is located. Even though both are in the agriculture sector, the nature of works is totally different. Sometimes you have to prepare for a blast also.”

Health problems: “Janaki, working in mines is a health hazard. You should work in dust. You should wear helmet, gloves and socks/shoes. Your life might be at risk, if any accident occurs.” “Please think yourself in all the angles and take a decision. Have a nice time. All the Best”.

Question 4.
Narrate the difference in requirement of labour in mine while using machines and human labour.
Answer:
If the mines are not provided with machines, human labour is needed more. If they are provided with machines, vice-versa, e.g.: In recent past the coal in mines was taken to lifts in trolleys. At present it is through conveyor belt. Because of the usage of machines, the percentage of recruitments in mines is decreased.

Question 5.
How has been the contribution of mining to economy identified in this chapter?
Answer:
India is underdeveloped country immediately after independence. These mines yield income to the government and also get royalty, when the mines were given to others. So I think this is the contribution of mining to economy.
(Note: The bove given answer is an example. Students can write the minerals found in their own districts by seeing the map.)

Question 6.
See the map of Andhra Pradesh showing minerals in this chapter and identify the minerals found in your district.
Answer:
Our district is Kurnool Lime stone is available in our district.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph under the heading. To whom do the minerals belong’ and answer the following:

Minerals usually occur deep in the earth. They in fact do not belong to any particular owner but belong to all people of the country and have to be used in everyone’s interest. That is why all mineral wealth of a state is considered the property of the government. The government uses the minerals keeping in mind the interests of all people of the country.

The minerals do not belong to any particular person but they belong to all people. How do you justify?
Answer:
Minerals usually occur deep in the earth. The things which we get from the earth is property of government. They, in fact, do not belong to any particular owner but belong to all people of the country and have to be used in everyone’s interest. So government uses the minerals by keeping this in view.

Question 8.
Look at the image below. There are two different statements made by two different people. What aspect of mining are they talking about?
Answer:
We cannot live because of minerals: This person lost his land, house etc., for these mines. So he said this.
We cannot live without minerals: This person took the land for mine on lease. So he said these words.

Question 9.
How are minerals helping the country in development?
Answer:

1. There are different types of resources, who supports to a country’s development.
2. Human resources take a vital role by the usage of natural resources.
3. Mineral resources is the most precious transfer for the economy.
4. Extraction of minerals is a good source of employment opportunities.
5. Many basic minerals are necessary to run industries.
6. Minerals are useful for the development of agricultural sector.
7. Minerals are also help to develop transport facilities.

Question 10.
Prepare a table showing different minerals and their uses.
Answer:

Minerals	Uses
1) Aluminium	Transportation, packaging, building, electrical and machinery.
2) Copper	Construction, electrical & electronic products, transportation equipment, roofing, chemical & pharmaceutical machinery and alloys etc.
3) Gold	Jewellery adarts, dentistry and medicine, in medallions and coins etc.
4) Iron ore	Manufacture of steels of various types, magnets, high frequency cores etc.
5) Silver	Coins, medals, electrical & electronic devices, industrial application etc.

8th Class Social Studies 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can you think of some mineral which renews itself and we can help to increase it? (Textbook Page No. 63)
Answer:
Underground water renews itself. We can help to increase it in the following ways.

1. Rainwater harvesting pits should be dug.
2. Trees also increase underground water, so trees should be grown.
3. The excess water in fields should be collected in a pond and makd them to absorb in the ground.
4. Unused drainage canals can be modified to increase recharge.

Question 2.
Can you think of some source of energy which will not diminish with our use of it which will keep renewing itself even if we don’t do anything? (Textbook Page No. 63)
Answer:
Air.

Question 3.
Classify the following natural objects into renewable and non-renewable resources. Put a tick (✓) against those which are minerals and cross (✕) which are not minerals.
Bamboo, Coal, Sea water, Mud, Ants, Sand, Iron Ore, Diamond, Trees, Petroleum, Grass, Air, Marble rock, Fishes, Well water, Sunshine.

Renewable resource	Non-renewable resource	Minerals
Bamboo		✕
	Coal	✓

Answer:

Renewable resource	Non-renewable resource	Minerals
Bamboo		✕
	Coal	✓
Sea water		✕
	Mud	✕
Ants		✕
	Sand	✕
	Iron ore	✓
	Diamond	✓
Trees		✕
	Petroleum	✓
Grass		✕
Air		✕
	Marble rock	✕
Fishes		✕
	Well water	✕
Sunshine		✓

Question 4.
Can you classify the following minerals into metallic, non-metallic and energy source? (Textbook Page No. 64)

Metallic	Non- metallic	Energy Source
Iron ore

Answer:
Iron ore, bauxite (aluminum ore), coal, copper ore, limestone, gypsum, mica, groundwater petroleum, rock salt, sand, gem stones.

Metallic	Non- metallic	Energy Source
Iron ore	Coal	Coal
Bauxite	Limestone	Petroleum
Copper	Ground water
	Petroleum
	Rock Salt
	Sand
	Gem stones
	Gypsum
	Mica

Question 5.
How does the government use the minerals?
Answer:

1. In 1970s the government took over all the mines.
2. Then it owned and operated most of the mines and sold the minerals to various factories or traders or exported them.
3. The income thus received by the government is being spent on developmental activities of the people.

Question 6.
a) Discuss the pros and cons of allowing private companies to mine our minerals.
b) How do you think they can be regulated?
c) How do you think can the environmental concerns can be taken care of? (Textbook Page No. 68)
Answer:
a) Pros: A New National Mineral Policy was announced in 1993, and the government allowed private companies to lease mines and operate them. The companies were to pay a royalty to the government for the minerals they extracted and sold. In this way the govern¬ment could retain regulatory control over the mining, get income from them and at the same time encourage private companies to invest money and bring in new technologies.
Cons: On the other hand, there has also been uncontrolled mining by the private companies far in excess of the permits given to them and disregard for environmental and safety measures. Excess mining means that more quantity is mined than is sustainable on a long term. It also means that the minerals are taken away by companies without paying royalty to the government – thus the people to whom the minerals really belong to do not get anything. It can also be environmentally very harmful.

b) Mines should be under the control of the government. If they are given to others, there should be the supervision of higher officials and local people.

c) Preference should be given to the mining people, who are interested in underground mining. The pit and the mound of rubble which is created should be properly disposed of.
Necessary steps should be taken to control the sand pits.

Question 7.
If all people of the country are the real owners of the mineral resources, how can we ensure that they are used for the benefit of all? (Textbook Page No. 68)
Answer:
The income received through this should be spent on developmental activities of transport facilities, health facilities, and other subsidies to the people.

Question 8.
Do you think the generations to come, that is our children and our grand children too should be able to use these resources? How can we ensure that they are available to them too and not exhausted? (Textbook Page No. 68)
Answer:
I think so. Our future generations too should be able to use these resources.
We should invent and use substitutes. The usage of minerals should be minimised.
Then we can ensure the future generations.

Question 9.
Can you imagine a world in which we cannot run motors or trains? (Textbook Page No. 63)
Answer:
If the trains and cars are not invented, that would be different. But when we cannot run motors or trains, it seems critical. The distance on the globe would increase.

Question 10.
Look at the following pictures and guess which of them is open cast mine, underground mine and drill mining for oil. (Textbook Page No. 66)

Answer:
(i) Drill mining for oil
(ii) Open cast mine
(iii) Underground mining

Question 11.
a) Can you name these instruments? (Textbook Page No. 69)

Answer:
Yes. Helmet, Lanthern, Safety belts etc. are the instruments in safety kit used in coal mines.

b) What is the use of the stick?
Answer:
The stick is used to check the blasted place in the mine by tapping.

c) Why is there a light on the helmet?
Answer:
It is too dark in the mine. To see the forth covering area there is a light on the helmet,

d) Did you identify the lamp in the picture? What purpose does it serve?
Answer:
Yes. Its a Lantern. T1 lantern is used in mines. Lantern gives indications of dangers like leakage of poisonous gases etc.

Question 12.
Find out about the uses of Barytes from the box given in page 64. Why do you think demand for Barytes is increasing? (Textbook Page No. 73)
Answer:
Barium obtained from Barytes is used for industrial and medical purposes. Barytes is used in drilling deep holes for petroleum and natural gas.
Nowadays, extracting these petroleum and natural gas is increased. The industrial sector is also developed. So the use of Barytes is also increased.

Question 13.
a) Describe what is happening in the following figure.

b) How many people do you think would be employed for this operation?
c) Can you see the collection of underground water in the top left corner of the picture? What will happen to this water?
Answer:
a) The truck is being loaded with Barytes by using crane.
b) 10 to 15 people may be needed for this.
c) This may be absorbed in the ground or may be pumped to another place.

Question 14.
If there is mining activity in your area, find out about the people who work and live there and also about how it affects the environment around it. Also find out how many people benefit from it. (Textbook Page No. 66)
Answer:
My father, Sri M. Rama Chandra Rao, is working in G.M’s office SCCL in Bhupalpalli, Bhupalpaili mandal near Parakal, Warangal district. Here are 6 underground mines and one open cast. The population of Bhupalpalli is 70,000 to 80,000. Out of these 60% to 70% belong to the families of SCCL. Here the mines were inaugurated by our ex -Chief Minister, late Sri N. T. Rama Rao in 1989. The names of these mines are like ‘Kakatiya Incline I, II, III, V, VI, VII etc. SCCL has a sentiment regarding number IV. So they never use ‘4’. The number of trees is very less here. Summers are too hot. No crops are found while we travel from Parakala to Bhupalpalli. If we take Kakatiya Incline -1 as our example, there are 2000 workers and official staff in this. SCCL takes necessary steps like plantation etc., to protect environment. In this district mines are only in Bhupalpalli.

Question 15.
a) How do you think this dilemma can be resolved?
b) Is it fair to produce coal at a low price when it causes the loss of livelihood, lands and damages the environment? (Textbook Page No. 73)
Answer:
a) We should invent and use the substitutes for the production of electricity, e.g.: Sea water, sunlight etc.
b) This is not fair. Due to this we feel no difference between the public sector and private sector.

Question 16.
Compare the mining in the coal belt with the mining in Mangampeta. What are the similarities and what are the differences? (Textbook Page No. 75)
Answer:
Similarities:

1. Both are minerals.
2. Both are under government supervision.
3. Detonators are used for blasting purpose in both the places.
4. For quality, the minerals are collected from deep layers.
5. Necessary steps are taken for the safety of the workers.

Differences:

Mining in coal belt	Mining in Mangampeta
1) These are extended in a large area – 4 districts.	1) These are at only one place – Mangampeta.
2) These are of 2 types – underground mines and open cast.	2) These are open cast.
3) The employees are in thousands.	3) The employees are in hundreds.
4) Men only work in these mines.	4) Both men and women work in these mines.
5) These were working prior to independence.	5) These were started in 1967.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps

8th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the school atlas carefully by looking at various thematic maps.
Answer:
Self-exercise.

Question 2.
Do you think the use of maps has changed between the time of ancient Greeks and now? In what way is it similar and different?

	in ancient Greece	Now
Similarities
Differences

Answer:
Yes, I think so.

	In ancient Greece	Now
Similarities	They tried to make the maps accurate with the help of longitudes and latitudes.	The maps are very accurate and detailed with the help of satellites.
Differences	Maps were made to help the sailor.	Maps are used extensively for planning, development of countries.

Question 3.
Many people believe that making of maps by the Colonial powers was a more powerful tool for exploitation and control of the colonies than guns. Do you agree? Why?
Answer:
Yes, 1 agree with the given statement.
The reasons are –

1. When European powers coionised the entire continents like North and South Americas, Africa, Australia and Asia they needed to know about the places, their climate, crops, mineral resources and about the people living there.
2. They sent scientific expeditions consisting of map makers and others to explore the different parts of the world and prepare maps.
3. These teams fought their way into interiors of continents crossing mountains, deserts and rivers, fighting local peoples to get the necessary information. ,
4. This information and the maps enabled the colonial powers to establish their rule over these areas and also exploit their resources.

Question 4.
In what ways were the maps prepared by the British different from the one made by Ptolemy or Idrisi?
Answer:

British maps	Maps of Ptolemy or idrisi
1. They prepared maps to establish their rule over the areas and .also exploit their resources.	1. They prepared their maps for their kings and their interests.
2. These maps give more information of their colonies.	2. These maps give more correct information of Europe and nearby countries.
3. These are relevant to present day maps.	3. They show their continents in the centre of the earth.
4. These show the north towards the top of the map.	4. Al-Idrisi’s map shows the south towards the top of the map.

Question 5.
Read the text the “Use of maps in our times” and answer the following question:

As we saw above, maps were made and used for a variety of purposes: for trade, sailing, for conquests and colonising and for fighting wars. In our own times maps are used extensively for planning, development of countries. This requires planners to identify the problems faced by a region and its resources etc. This is done with the help of maps. For example, we can make a map of regions which have very little drinking -water. We can compare this map with maps showing water resources – rainfall, groundwater and rivers. Based on this comparison we can decide what is the best way to make drinking water available to all the people of the region – by sinking tube wells, or building dams across streams or making tanks (cheruvus) or bringing water from distant places in large pipes. Similarly, we can plan agricultural development, setting up new industries, building roads, hospitals and schools with the help of maps.

What are the various purposes for which maps are used in our times?
Answer:

1. In our own times maps are used extensively for planning and development of countries.
2. We can plan agricultural development, setting up new industries, buildings, roads,
   hospitals and schools with the help of maps.
3. Maps are also used by companies to plan their business work.

Question 6.
Prepare a few questions to know about different types of maps.
Answer:

1. How many kinds of maps are there?
2. What are different kinds of maps?
3. What are thematic maps?
4. What are political maps?
5. What do the physical maps show?
6. Which kind of maps show information about the climate of an area?
7. What are road maps?

8th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In what ways do you think the sailors influenced the making of maps in early times?
(Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
The sailors travelled widely and wrote down descriptions of the land and people and their histories they saw or heard about. They prepared maps based on these travels and descriptions. Though these maps have not survived, historians have tried to recreate them with the help of their descriptions.

Question 2.
Do you think this free access to maps is a good thing? Why? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
No, I do not think so. Any government has to maintain secrecy in access to maps. Otherwise it helps the enemies. But at present satellite images reveal every place on the earth.

Question 3.
If someone wants to choose an appropriate place to set up a hospital, what kind of maps would be useful to her? Make a list.
Answer:

1. Map showing hospitals
2. Map showing laboratories
3. Map showing scanning centres
4. Map showing ill-health
5. Map showing bus routes
6. Map showing train routes and
7. Map showing blood banks.

Question 4.
Can you suggest how maps can be used to plan setting up new schools and colleges? What different kinds of maps would have to be studied for this? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
One has to observe the following matters to establish educational institutions.

1. School going children or college going youth.
2. Up locations of their schools and colleges.
3. Their distances
4. Area/land for establishing the institution.
5. Their financial status for fees determination, etc.

For this one has to Study

1. Population map
2. Residential area map
3. Transport map
4. Water facilities map, etc.

Question 5.
Find out about the lives of some of the great explorers like David Livingstone, Stanley, Amundsan, etc. Find out who sponsored their expeditions and why? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
a) David Livingstone: 19-3-1813 to 1-5-1873 – Scotland – UK – Explored Africa. Sponsored by London Missionary Society.
To develop trade and spread of Christianity
b) Sir Henry Morton Stanley : 28-1-1841 to 10-5-1904 – Denbigh – Wales – UK. Sponsored by New York Herald – To find David Livingstone.
c) Roald Amundsan: 16-7-1872 to 18-6-1928 – Borge – Ostfold – Norway.
Sponsored by Belgian Antarctic expedition – To discover the South pole.
d) Alfonsa – De – Albuquerque: 1453 to 16-12-1515 – Portuguese Sponsored by King Manuel I of Portugal.
To establish Portuguese colonial empire in the Indian Ocean.

Question 6.
Why do you think the map makers place their own country in the middle of the map? (Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
The map makers in the olden days were mostly depended on the books written by sailors. They were really patriots. They thought that their country was centre of the world and most important in the world. So they placed their own country in the middle of the map.

Question 7.
Why do you think the colonial powers invested so much money to prepare detailed maps? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
The information from the maps and map makers enabled the colonial powers to establish their rule over their colonies and also exploit their resources. So the colonial powers invested so much money to prepare detailed maps.

Question 8.
Why do you think maps are useful to armies in times of war? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
Maps were also in great demand during times of war as armies and airforces needed them.
They use strategy maps to illustrate an organization’s vision, mission, overarching strategies and key goals and initiatives.

Question 9.
Can you guess why? Can you locate India and Srilanka (which was shown much bigger that it is)? (Textbook Page No. 4)
Answer:
Peninsular India is-pushed into the northern India in Al Idrisi’s map. The coast has become more east-west aligned. The Deccan is surrounded on two sides of coasts running North- South ending in sharp point, Cape Comorin.
Sri Lanka is shown much bigger than it is. So it is not easy to locate India and Sri Lanka in Al Idrisi’s map. But I will try.
Note: To read this map we should turn it upside down.

Question 10.
Can you identify India, Arabia and Africa in map (Map of Da Ming Hun Yi Tu of China)? (Textbook Page No. 5)
Answer:
In this map India, Arabia and Africa were mapped from an Indian Ocean perspective. They are mis-shaped. They are on the bottom of left side of the map.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government

8th Class Social Studies 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Why were the first elections difficult to conduct? List as many reasons as you can.
Answer:
An Election Commission was set up to conduct the elections in a free and fair manner. Making arrangements for the first elections was a large and complex task. First, a house-to-house survey was carried out to register the eligible voters.

People who contested elections belonged to political parties or were Independents. Election Commission gave a symbol to each of these candidates. These symbols were painted on the ballot boxes in which the votes had to be cast. The voters had to put their ballot paper into the box of the candidate they wanted to vote for. Screens were set up so that the voting (ballot) was secret.

Over 2,24,000 polling booths were set up across the country. Over 25,00,000 steel ballot boxes were made. Nearly 62,00,00,000 ballot papers were printed. About 10 lakh officials supervised the polls. Nearly 17,500 candidates had contested the elections across the coun¬try. Finally, 489 people were elected to the first Lok Sabha. The elections were conducted in a fair, free, impartial and orderly manner, with very little violence.
So we can say that the first elections were a large and complex task.

Question 2.
Why do you think elections need to be free and fair?
Answer:
The winners in the elections are the writers of our future. So the elections should not be influenced by any issue. They should be free and fair.

Question 3.
For which of the following subjects can laws be made by the Members of Parliament, which by the state assembly, and which can be made by both: agriculture, railways, village hospitals, police, posts and telegraph, electricity, factories?
Answer:

1. Agriculture – State
2. Railways – Centre
3. Village hospitals – State
4. Police – State
5. Posts and telegraph – Centre
6. Electricity – State and Centre both
7. Factories – State and Centre both

Question 4.
Name the two houses of the Parliament. Draw a table to show the similarities/ differences between them on the following aspects: term, number of members, more or less powerful, election process, voting for the President.
Answer:
There are two houses in the Parliament – Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Similarities / Differences

Aspect	Lok Sabha	Rajya Sabha
1) Term	5 years	6 years
2) No. of members	545	250
3) More or less powerful	More powerful	Less powerful
4) Election process	Direct	Indirect
5) Voting for the President	All the elected members have the right	All the elected members have the right

Question 5.
In the 2009 Parliamentary Elections, no single party won a majority. How was the government formed? Discuss with the help of your teacher and write a paragraph.
Answer:
The ‘Like-minded Parties’ who won in the elections formed as a Front ‘UNITED PROGRESSIVE ALLIANCE’. This front formed the government. In this Front INC has a majority.

Question 6.
Who is responsible for making the laws that are applicable for the entire country?
Answer:
Parliament is responsible for making the laws that are applicable for the entire country.

Question 7.
There are some gaps in the information given in the Table below. Discuss with your teacher to find the missing information and fill in the blanks.

Position	Who elects	Length of term	Eligibility (min. age, residence, etc)
MLA		5 years
MP Lok Sabha			Minimum age: 25 years
MP Rajya Sabha
Chief Minister	Members of each state majority Party
Prime Minister			Must be an M.P.
President			Minimum age: 35 years

Answer:

Position	Who elects	Length of term	Eligibility (min. age, residence, etc)
MLA	Voters in state	5 years	25 years; must be a resident of the state.
MP Lok Sabha	Voters in country	5 years	Minimum age: 25 years, must be a resident of the country.
MP Rajya Sabha	MPs, MLAs of all states	6 years	30 years; must be a resident of the nation
Chief Minister	Members of each state majority Party	5 years	25 years; must be a resident of the state. Must be an M.L.A.
Prime Minister	Majority of the members in the Lok Sabha	5 years	25 years; must be a resident of the nation. Must be an M.P.
President	MLAs, MPs of both the houses (Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha)	5 years	Minimum age: 35 years, Must be a resident of the nation.

Question 8.
Do you think the parties should be made to put up more women candidates for elections? Why?
Answer:
Nowadays women are participated in all activities along with the men equally. They also thinking globally.
Parties should be made to put up more women candidates for elections in order to promote women’s participation in the electoral process. Women, too can express their problems and get them discussed.
A number of countries are exploring measures that may increase women’s participation in government at all levels, from the local to the national.

Question 9.
Following is a study of women’s representation in Parliament houses including that of India and other nations:
Based on the above information write an essay analysing the following aspects:
i) Is there an adequate representation of women in our legislative houses?
ii) How is the idea of representation important to the idea of democracy?
iii) What solution can be achieved for the above? How will you address this issue if you are member of the Parliament? How do you think have certain countries achieved better representation of women in Parliament?
Answer:
i) No.
ii) ‘Democracy’ means people’s government. So the idea of representation is important.
‘People’s means ‘all the nation’, but not only one.
iii) Encouraging women in politics is the only solution for this.
If I were the parliamentarian I support reservations for women in the houses of law and solve this problem. I think certain countries have achieved better representation of women in Parliament in this way.

Project

When the Parliament is in session, listen to the news on the radio or television or look in the newspapers and make a list of the events that take place. Write a page on any issue discussed in the Parliament, or draw a picture of the scene in Parliament when it is being discussed.
Answer:
The issue is belongs to separation of Telangana state. Separate Telangana state bill was introduced in the Loksabha. There was a long discussions and debates conducted in the Loksabha.

On the basis of petitions of Telangana people the government was decided to separate the Telangana people from A.P State. But in the Parliament majority of members were not accepted. During this time the members of the house joined together and conducted voting among them. And this was introduced in the Rajyasabha also and conducted voting in that house and was the final decision taken about the separate Telangana state.

8th Class Social Studies 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you think are the advantages of having a Parliamentary form of government in which the government members are answerable to the Parliament? (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
Advantages:

1. It is faster and easier to pass legislation.
2. Power is more divided.
3. Easy to remove the executive.
4. It feels more responsibility.

Question 2.
Should the Parliament only make laws and not control the government in its functioning? Discuss in the class. (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
There should be government control on laws made by government. Otherwise the implementation of it will be questionable. So the condition is framed.

Question 3.
Can you identify the basic difference between Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha? (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
The basic difference is –
The election for the Lower House or Lok Sabha is direct election.
The election for the Upper House or Rajya Sabha is indirect election.

Question 4.
Discuss the meaning of the following with your teacher. (Textbook Page No. 166)

1. Candidate
2. Constituency
3. Ballot
4. EVM
5. Election campaign
6. Election Commission
7. Voters’ List
8. Procedure of voting
9. Free and fair elections

Answer:

1. Candidate: The person who contests in the election.
2. Constituency: States and Union territories are divided into constituencies.
3. Ballot: The paper which is used in election for voting. It contains the symbols of the contestants.
4. EVM: Electronic Voting Machine.
5. Election campaign: The constants request the voters to vote for them. This procedure is called election campaign.
6. Election Commission: It is an independent institution which conducts free and fair elections.
7. Voters’ list: A list with the names of voters.
8. Procedure of voting: The voters give their votes secretly.
9. Free and fair elections: The elections in which the voters give their vote without any influence or pressure.

Question 5.
Discuss with your teachers and parents to learn about how elections are conducted today. (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
At present the elections are conducted peacefully and in a democratic way.
Elections:

Nowadays, the elections are conducted in a procedure as mentioned above.

Question 6.
Write down some differences between the first elections and elections held today – ballot box and sheets, age of voting.
Answer:

Subjects	First Elections	Present Elections
1) Ballot Box	used sealed iron boxes.	using electronic voting machines.
2) Ballot papers	used printed ballot papers.	votes are printed and recorded in EVMs.
3) Age of voting	21 years	18 years.

Question 7.
Recall the laws about which we studied last year. Find out the new laws that are being discussed in state legislative houses and Parliament during their last meeting. (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:

1. Establishment of women courts,
2. If any minor, aged 16 years, is accused in sexual harassment cases, he should be trailed by the criminal court instead of Juvenile courts.

These two bills, are discussed by the Parliament during the last meeting.

Question 8.
Correct the false statements: (Textbook Page No. 166)

1. The President and the Vice-President are both elected by the same set of people.
2. Every voter in India elects the President.
3. All the MLAs of the Vidhan Sabha of Andhra Pradesh participate in the election of the President.
4. All the MLAs of all the Vidhan Sabhas and Delhi and Pondicherry and all the MPs of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha elect the President.

Answer:

1. The MLAs of all the states and the members of both houses of the Parliament elect the President. Both the houses of the Parliament elect the Vice-President.
2. Every voter, who participated in election, elects the President indirectly.
3. Correct statement.
4. The MLAs of all Assemblies and the elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha elect the President.

Question 9.
Which of the following is correct about formation of government? (Textbook Page No. 170)
A) Party or coalition that has support of the President forms the government.
B) Party/Coalition with most number of seats forms the government.
C) Party or coalition with more than half the seats forms the government.
D) Election Commission selects the party that will form the government.
E) The person who has won with the largest number of votes in the Lok Sabha election will be the Prime Minister.
Answer:
‘B’ is correct.

Question 10.
Azhar feels that it is better to give more powers to Rajya Sabha because they are mostly wiser people belonging to different political parties.
Mumtazfeels Rajya Sabha should not be given any more powers because they are not directly elected by people. What do you think about their feelings ? (Textbook Page No. 164)
Answer:
I support both the arguments. The thoughts of wiser people are always to be supported. So they should be given more powers. Likewise it is true that they are not elected by the people directly. So we should elect the wise people directly in election.

Question 11.
Can you think why the following illustration has Parliament on one side and people on the other ?
Answer:
The population of the country and the number of members of Parliament are in proportionate. If there is no support of the people, the parliament would be weakened. So it is shown like that.

Question 12.
How many Lok Sabha elections have been held? (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
16 Lok Sabha elections have been held.

Question 13.
A survey showed that among the uneducated and poor, the percentage of people who voted in 1996 was 61 %. However, it was only 53% among graduates. What could be the reasons for this difference? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
The winners in the elections are doing no favour to the people. They are interested in improving their financial balances, assets and developing their personal relations. This may be the feeling of the graduates.

Question 14.
Find out about some important policies and laws made by the Parliament. Make a presentation about it in the class. (Textbook Page No. 161)
Answer:
The important laws made by the Parliament:
1) The Dowry Prohibition Act -1961
2) The Prevention of Terrorist Activities Act – 2002.

Procedure relating to any ordinary bill in the Union Parliament
↓
First reading/introduction stage
↓
Second reading/Discussion stage
↓
Third readingA/oting stage
↓
Bill in the other house
↓
In case deadlock between the two houses – A joint-session of both houses
↓
President approval
↓
Act

Question 15.
Find out if there are other kinds of government where the government is not answerable to the Parliament or legislature. (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
Monarchial and dictatorial form of governments are not responsible to the Parliament or legislature.

Question 16.
See the map and tables given in Text book P.No. 163 and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 164)

1. What is the number of Lok Sabha Constituencies in your state and two neighbouring states?
2. Which states have more than 30 Lok Sabha Constituencies?
3. Why do so many states have such large number of Constituencies?
4. Why are some Constituencies small in area while others are very big?
5. Are the Constituencies reserved for the SCs and STs evenly spread all over the entire country or are there more in some areas?

Answer:

1. In our state Andhra Pradesh: 25
   Telangana: 17
   Tamilnadu: 39
2. Bihar, Maharashtra, Tamilnadu, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
3. The population is high in many states. So the Constituencies are also high.
4. Some Constituencies are large and some are small in accordance with the population and extent they have.
5. Schedule castes are spread all over the country equally.
   Schedule tribes are there more in some areas.

Question 17.
Who is the Lok Sabha member from your area? Name a few other MPs from your state or neighbouring states. Find out which political parties they belong to. (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
The Lok Sabha member from our area: Kesineni Srinivas (Nani) – TDP.
Names of a few other M.P.s from our state :

1. Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju – TDP
2. Maganti Venkateswara Rao (Babu) – TDP
3. Nirmala Sitharaman – BJP
4. Y. Avinash Reddy – YSRCP

Question 18.
Find out the symbols used by different political parties
Answer:

1. Congress Party – ‘Hastam’
2. BJP – Lotus
3. BSP – Elephant
4. Communists – Hammer, Sickle/Kanki, Sickle
5. TRS – Car
6. T.D.P. – Cycle

Question 19.
Collect the photos of the current ones of the following and paste in the given boxes. (Textbook Page No. 170)
Answer:

Question 20.
Who is the current Prime Minister? Can you name a few earlier Prime Ministers?
Answer:
Our present Prime Minister is Hon’ble Dr. Narendra Modi. (Textbook Page No. 170)
Some of our earlier Prime ministers :

1. Dr. Manmohan Singh
2. Sri Atal Bihari Vajpai
3. Sri Rajiv Gandhi
4. Smt. Indira Gandhi
5. Sri Lai Bahadur Sastry
6. Sri Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 21.
Find out if there are any ministers from your state in the current Central government. (Textbook Page No. 170)
Answer:
Sri P. Ashok Gajapathi Raju – Minister of Civil Aviation.

Question 22.
Identify few important ministries and government.
Answer:

Important ministries	Their incharges
1) Defence	Rajnath Singh
2) Agriculture	Narendra Singh Tomar
3) Finance	Nirmala Sitharaman
4) External affairs	Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
5) Home affairs	Amit Shah
6) Communication and Information Technology	Ravi Sankar Prasad
7) Railways	Piyush Goyal
8) Prime Minister	Narendra Modi
9) Women and Child Development	Smriti Zubin Irani

Question 23.
If you had been living at that time, which side would you have agreed with? Would you have considered it a good idea for India to try to have universal adult franchise and conduct elections? Give reasons. (Textbook Page No. 165)
Answer:
If I had been living at that time, I would have agreed with the optimists. There may be some obstacles to any positive work. We should not deviate from it. So I would have considered it a good idea for India.

Question 24.
Why were the first elections a large and complex task”? (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
Refer answer (1) In Improve your learning.

Question 25.
Why should the voting be secret? (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
To maintain the self-confidence in the voters, the voting should be secret.

Question 26.
Why do you think it is important to look at the percentage of people who cast their votes? What does it tell us? (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
It shows the confidence of people in elections and also the pattern of voting. So it is important.

Question 27.
Why do you think many eligible voters vote? Discuss the possible reasons. (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
Many of the voters are less interested or uninterested in the election procedure. They feel that whoever may be the winners, the living conditions of the voters remain the same. So many eligible voters did not vote.

Question 28.
What were the opinions expressed by different people at the time of the first elections? (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
Some people said, “The elections are ‘a leap in the dark’, not suitable for a country like India. India is a caste-based society in which many people do not accept the idea that everyone is equal. So it won’t be possible to have a democratic election.”

There were other people who were very hopeful. They said, “Indians have participated in the National Movement to gain freedom from the British. They want to elect a government of their own choice. They want the government to work towards creating a society where every¬one is treated equally. They also want the government to improve the living conditions of the people. Thus everyone should have an equal opportunity to elect a government of their choice.” To such people, the elections were ‘an act of faith’.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 8 Heredity.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 8th Lesson Heredity

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How did you get the characters from your parents and grandparents?
Answer:
By Genes

Question 2.
Why man is called a moving museum of vestigial organs?
Answer:

1. The organs which are not useful in animals are called ‘vestigial organs’. There are nearly 180 vestigial organs in human beings,
2. Hence, human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

Question 3.
Observe the given Flow-chart and answer the question.
Who decides the sex of the baby – mother or father? How?
Answer:
Father decides the sex of the baby.
Mother has XX chromosomes. Father has ‘XY’ chromosomes. Y chromosome is determining factor. So father is responsible.

Question 4.
What examples you will give to prove that Lamarckism is not correct?
Answer:
August Weismann, tested the theory proposed by Lamarck by experiments on rats. He removed tails of parental rats. He observed for twenty two generations but still off springs are normal with tails.

Question 5.
Which chromosomes determine the sex in human beings?
Answer:
Allosomes or Sex chromosomes. They are xx (girls) and xy (boys).

Question 6.
Why do we call appendix as a vestigial organ?
Answer:

1. Vestigial organ is the organ of our body which is smaller and simpler than those in related species they have lost their original function.
2. Appendix is highly developed in ruminants which helps in the digestion of cellulose. But, in human beings the cellulose is eliminated as undigested food. Hence in human beings appendix has no role in cellulose digestion. So, we call it as a vestigial organ.

Question 7.
What are variations?
Answer:
Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.

Question 8.
Who is known as father of genetics?
Answer:
Gregor Johann Mendel is known as father of genetics.

Question 9.
Why Mendel has chosen garden pea plant as material for his experiments?
Answer:
Pea plant has following advantages.

1. Well defined characters
2. Bisexual flowers
3. Predominently self fertilization
4. Early hybridization
5. Annual plant.

Question 10.
What are the vitamins present in pea plant?
Answer:
The vitamins present in pea plant are ‘A, C, E, K and B’.

Question 11.
What is F₃ generation?
Answer:
F₃ generation represents the offsprings produced from the individuals of F₂ generation.

Question 12.
What is a factor?
Answer:
The determining agent responsible for each trait is called a factor.

Question 13.
WTiat is law of dominance?
Answer:
According to Mendel, among a pair of alleles for a character, only one expresses itself in the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other. This is known as law of dominance.

Question 14.
What is phenotype ratio?
Answer:
The characters which can be seen is known as phenotype and their ratio is called phenotype ratio.

Question 15.
What is the phenotype ratio in F₁ generation of monohybrid cross?
Answer:
The phenotype ratio in F₁ generation of monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.

Question 16.
What is genotype ratio?
Answer:
The genetic makeup of an individual with reference to a specific character under consideration is called genotype and their ratio is called genotype ratio.

Question 17.
What is the genotype ratio in F₂ generation of monohybrid cross?
Answer:
The genotype ratio in F₂ generation of monohybrid cross is 1 : 2 : 1.

Question 18.
What are genes?
Answer:
Genes are the factors which are responsible for characters or traits of an organism. These are the units of heredity that are transferred from a parent to offspring. These are small segments of DNA on a chromosome.

Question 19.
What is an allele?
Answer:
The pair of genes which are responsible for character is called allele.

Question 20.
What are homozygous alleles?
Answer:
If an organism has two copies of the same allele for example TT or tt it is homozygous for that trait.

Question 21.
What are heterozygous allele?
Answer:
If an organism has one copy of two different alleles for example Tt, then it is heterozygous.

Question 22.
What is law of independent assortment?
Answer:
In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters (traits), the factors for each pair of characters assorted independently of the other pair. This is known as “Law of independent assortment”.

Question 23.
Wliat is the law of segregation?
Answer:
The law of segregation states that every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a randomly selected copy of only one of these to its offspring.

Question 24.
What are heritable traits?
Answer:
Traits that may be passed on from one generation to the next are called as heritable traits.

Question 25.
What is heredity?
Answer:
The process of acquiring characters or traits from parents is called heredity.

Question 26.
What is inheritance?
Answer:
The process in which traits are passed from one generation to another generation is called inheritance.

Question 27.
What is genetic drift?
Answer:
Change in the frequency of genes in small populations is called genetic drift.

Question 28.
Who was the first person to propose the theory of evolution?
Answer:
Jean Baptist Lamarck was the first person to propose the theory of evolution.

Question 29.
What are acquired characters?
Answer:
The characters developed during the lifetime of an organism are called acquired characters.

Question 30.
What is inheritance of acquired characters?
Answer:
Lamarck proposed that the acquired characters are passed to its offsprings i.e., to next generation. This is known as inheritance of acquired characters.

Question 31.
Who wrote the book “principles of geology” of evolution?
Answer:
The book “principles of geology” of evolution was written by Charles Lyell.

Question 32.
What is micro evolution?
Answer:
Small changes within the species is known as micro evolution.

Question 33.
What is macro evolution or speciation?
Answer:
The process of evolution through which new species are going to be formed is known as speciation or macro evolution.

Question 34.
The double helix structure of DNA was discovered by?
Answer:
James Watson and Francis Crick discovered the double helix structure of DNA.

Question 35.
What are autosomes?
Answer:
Chromosomes whose number and morophology do not differ between males and females of a species are called autosomes.

Question 36.
What are allosomes?
Answer:
The chromosomes that determine sex of the organism are called allosomes.

Question 37.
What is meant by survival of the fittest?
Answer:
According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, nature only selects or decides which organism should survive or perish in nature. This is the meaning of survival of the fittest.

Question 38.
Write the expanded form of DNA.
Answer:
The expanded form of DNA is Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid.

Question 39.
What is the basis of evolution?
Answer:
Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolution.

Question 40.
What are analogous organs?
Answer:
The organs which have similar appearance and functions but have different structure and origin. Ex : Wings of a butterfly, bat and a bird.

Question 41.
What is embryology?
Answer:
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from egg to adult stage.

Question 42.
What is Palaeontology?
Answer:
The study of fossil is called Palaeontology.

Question 43.
How palaeontologists determine the age of fossil?
Answer:
Palaeontologists determine the age of fossil by using carbon dating method.

Question 44.
Where do scientists collected fossil of dinosaurs?
Answer:
Scientists collected fossils of dinosaurs from Yamanapalli in Adilabad district in Telangana State.

Question 45.
What are connecting links?
A. The organisms which bear the characters of two different groups are called connecting links.

Question 46.
Which organism is recognised as the connecting link between aves and reptiles?
Answer:
Archeopteryx is recognised as the connecting link between aves and reptiles.

Question 47.
What is human evolution?
Answer:
Human evolution is the evolutionary process leading upto the appearance of modern human beings.

Question 48.
How do variations occur?
Answer:
Variations develop during reproduction in organisms. Sexual reproduction and errors in DNA copying lead to variations in offspring in a population.

Question 49.
What is divergent evolution?
Answer:
The evolutionary process through which homologous organs develop is called divergent evolution.

Question 50.
What is convergent evolution?
Answer:
The evolutionary process through which analogous organs develop is called convergent evolution.

Question 51.
What are vestigial organs?
Answer:
Organs which are not useful in animal are called vestigial organs.

Question 52.
Who proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characters?
Answer:
Jean Baptist Lamarck proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characters.

Question 53.
Who proved that the bodily changes which may occur due to environment won’t be passed to its offsprings?
Answer:
Augustus Weisemann proved that the bodily changes which may occur due to environment won’t be passed to its offsprings.

Question 54.
How the study of fossil is considered significant?
Answer:
The study of fossil is considered significant because

1. Fossils provide direct evidence of past life and
2. Fossils provide convincing proof of organic evolution.

Question 55.
What are the nitrogen bases present in DNA?
Answer:
The nitrogen bases present in DNA are adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine.

Question 56.
How do embryological studies provide evidence for evolution?
Answer:
The similarities in embryonic development reinforce the idea of evolution from common ancestors. The sequence of embryonic development in different vertebrates shows similarities.

Question 57.
Why Mendel selected garden pea plant for his experiments? Give a reason.
Answer:
Mendel selected garden pea plant for his experiments as these can be self pollinated.

Question 58.
What is the evolutionary significance of the fossil archaeopteryx?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx serves as a connecting link between birds and reptiles. It is the fossil evidence to show that birds have evolved from reptiles.

Question 59.
How does the creation of variation in a species ensure survival?
Answer:
The creation of variations in a species enable them to adapt according to the changes and the new needs thus they will enable the survival of the species.

Question 60.
Define evolution.
Answer:
Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which takes place in the primitive organisms over millions of years in which new species are produced.

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write Phenotypic and Genotypic ratio of table given at side.
(OR)
Write the Phenotypic and Genotypic ratio when heterogygous (Yy) pea plant is hybridised with the same kind of plant.
(OR)
Write the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of Mendel’s cross-pollination experiments in pea plants with heterozygous yellow seeds (Yy) with that of the same type, i.e., Yy.
Answer:
Phenotypic ratio -3:1
Genotypic ratio -1:2:1

Question 2.
Define and explain Variations with examples.
Answer:
Variations: Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.
(OR)
Differences among living beings are called variations.
Ex:

1. Earlobes in some humans are free and in others attached.
2. Colour of eyes (cornea) in some people are blue and in others black.
3. Colour of skin is black or white.

Question 3.
“Human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs”. How can you support this statement?
Answer:

1. During the course of evolution, some organs remain in organisms. For example, appendix in the digestive system.
2. In human beings it has no role to play in the process of digestion.
3. But in herbivores like rabbit appendix play important role.
4. Such type of organs which are not useful in animal are called vestigial organs.
5. There are nearly 18 vestigial organs in human beings.
6. For example pinna, hair on skin, mammary glands in man, etc.
7. That’s why human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

Question 4.
Fill the given table and write the genotypic ratio basing on table.

Answer:

The genotypic ratio is 1: 2: 1

Question 5.
Who decides the sex of the baby, mother or father? Explain with a flow chart.
(OR)
Draw a flow-chart showing the sex determination in human beings.
Answer:
Father decides the sex of the baby.

Question 6.
Define the terms phenotype and genotype.
Answer:
Phenotype: The observable properties of an organism that are produced by the interaction of the genotype and the environment. These characters can be seen.
Genotype: The genotype is the genetic make-up an individual usually with reference to a specific characteristic consideration.

Question 7.
What questions you will ask a palaeontologist about fossils?
Answer:

1. What are fossils?
2. How do they preserve?
3. What can be the actual remains?
4. How do they form?
5. What do we call the study of fossil?
6. Can you tell some examples of fossils?
7. How do the palaeontologists determine the age of fossils?
8. What are dinosaurs and ketosaurs? In which years they belong?
9. Where did they collect the fossil of dinosaurs? What is the length of this fossil?
10. Where did they preserve the fossil of dinosaurs?

Question 8.
How does the embryological evidences support that Evolution has taken place?
Answer:
Evidences:

1. Remarkable similarities in the Embryos of different animals from fish to man.
2. Tadpole of frog resembles the fish more than the frog.
3. Life history of every individual exhibits the structural features of their ancestors.
4. The resemblance is so close at an early stage, it is difficulty to distinguish one embryo from other.

Question 9.
Observe the checker board and answer the following questions.
i) Write phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross.
ii) How many heterozygous plants are present in the checker board?
Answer:
i) Phenotypic ratio 3 : 1
ii) Two heterozygous plants – (Yy, yY)

Question 10.
What happens if there is no evolution?
Answer:

1. Evolution is a continuous and comprehensive process.
2. If it does not take place, there is no formation of new species.
3. Variations do not take place and hence desirable traits are not developed.
4. All the Earth would be with the primitive species without any changes.

Question 11.
If you cross a plant with pure yellow seeds (YY) with a plant with pure green seeds (yy), what would be the colour of the seeds in F₂ generation? Show in a checker board.
Answer:
All pea plants are yellow in F₁ generation on self pollination in F₁ generation.
In F₂ generation, we can observe that 75% are yellow seed producing pea plants and 25% are green ones.
Hence the phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1 the genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1

Question 12.
If you meet a historian to clarify your doubt on ‘Man has first born in African conti¬nent’, what type of questions will you ask him / her?
Answer:

1. What is human evolution?
2. When were early man like forms appeared on land?
3. When did the fossil of the homosapiens appeared on earth?
4. Where did the early man lived?
5. Where can we trace the earliest members of the human race homosapiens?
6. When do some of our ancestors left Africa?
7. How the residents of Africa migrated to other places?
8. Why did the residents of Africa migrated to other places?
9. Are all humans evolved from single ancestor?

Question 13.
What is the difference between Phenotype and Genotype?
Answer:

Phenotype	Genotype
1. The characters which can be seen is known as phenotype.	1. The genetic make up of an individual is known as genotype.
2. We can’t determine the internal factors by phenotype.	2. Genotype itself is the indication of internal factors.
3. It tells about only the dominating characters which express externally.	3. It tells about both dominant and recessive characters present within.
4. The phenotype ratio in monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.	4. The genotype ratio in mono-hybrid cross is 1 :2 : 1.

Question 14.
What are the differences between homozygous and heterozygous ?
Answer:

Homozygous	Heterozygous
1. It refers to having two identical alleles for a single trait.	1. It refers to having two different alleles for a single trait.
2. For example, for long pea plant homozygous combination is ‘TT’	2. For example, for long pea plant heterozygous combination is ‘Tt’
3. On self pollination homozygous plants produce homozygous plants only.	3. On self pollination heterozygous plants produce homozygous dominant, heterozygous dominant and homozygous recessive plants in 1: 2 :1 ratio respectively.

Question 15.
How do traits get expressed according to Mendel?
Answer:

1. Mendel hypothesised that each character or trait is expressed due to a pair of factors or alleles.
2. Now these alleles are known as genes.
3. Gene is made up of a segment of DNA which provide information of protein.
4. Protein is needed for biochemical process.
5. If the proteins work efficiently, the traits get expressed in better way.
6. Thus genes control the traits or characters.

Question 16.
What is speciation? How it occurs?
Answer:

1. Origin of new species from existing one is called speciation.
2. It may occur due to a) mutations and b) natural selection.

Question 17.
What is sex chromosome? Name the two types of sex chromosomes. Mention the chromosomes present in male and female?
Answer:

1. The chromosome which determine the sex of a person is called sex chromosome.
2. The two types of sex chromosomes are X chromosome and Y chromosome.
3. Sex chromosomes in male is XY.
4. Sex chromosomes in female is XX.

Question 18.
Write a short notes on the law of “inheritance of acquired characters”.
Answer:

1. Law of inheritance of acquired characters was proposed by Jean Baptist Lamarck.
2. He thought that the characters acquired by an organism in its life time are passed to its offsprings.
3. He thought that at same point of time in the history, the size of giraffe was equal to that of deer.
4. Due to shortage of food material on the ground and lower branches of trees giraffes started stretching their necks.
5. Because of continuous usage of neck, after several generations giraffes obtained longer necks.
6. Such characters that are developed during the lifetime of an organism are called acquired characters.

Question 19.
Write a short notes on the theory of “Natural selection”.
Answer:

1. The theory of natural selection was proposed by Charles Darwin.
2. This theory states that nature only selects or decides which organism should survive or perish in nature.
3. The organisms with useful traits will survive.
4. The organisms having harmful traits are going to be perished or eliminated from its environment.

Question 20.
Write briefly about “Survival of the fittest”.
Answer:

1. Variations which are useful are retained, while those which are harmful are removed.
2. In a population where there is a struggle, the “fittest” will be survived.
3. Nature favours only useful variations.
4. Each species tends to produce large number of offspring.
5. They compete with each other for food, space, mating and other species.
6. In this struggle for existence, only the fittest can survive. This is called survival of the fittest.
7. Over long period of time this leads to formation of new species.

Question 21.
How are new species evolved?
Answer:

1. Sexual reproduction and errors in DNA copying leads to variations in offspring in a population.
2. Organisms contain variations that help to adapt to its environment going to be survived more efficiently.
3. But in the same population, the organisms which contain the trait which may not help to adapt in its environment may be perished or eliminated slowly.
4. These small changes within the population due to variations is called micro evolution.
5. When organisms of the same species with variations are separated by some cause for long years, lot of variations may take place in these species.
6. These accumulated variations make them unable to mate and produce new offsprings.
7. Thus new species form and this is known as speciation or macro evolution.

Question 22.
Write a brief note on homologous organs.
Answer:

1. Homologous organs are the organs which perform different functions but have similar structure and origin.
2. For example forelimb of a whale (swimmer), bat (flyer), horse (runner), mole (digger) and man (grasping).
3. If we carefully observe the anatomy of all these animals, they have a common pattern in the arrangement of bones.
4. Even though their external form and functions are different, they are similar internally.
5. Thus it indicates that all the vertebrates have evolved from a common ancestor.

Question 23.
What are fossils? Write a short note on their formation.
Answer:

1. Fossils are evidence of ancient life forms or ancient habitats which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Fossil evidence is typically preserved within sediments deposited beneath water and land.
3. They can be actual remains of once lived such as bones or seeds or even traces of past event such as dinosaurs foot print or ripple marks on a pre-historic shore.
4. Usually when organisms die, their bodies will be decomposed and lost.
5. But sometimes the body or at least some parts may be in an environment that does not let it decompose completely.
6. For example if a dead insect get caught in mud, it will not decompose quickly and the mud will eventually harden and retain the impression of the body parts of insect.
7. All such preserved traces of living organisms are called fossils.

Question 24.
How would you appreciate Jean Baptist Lamarck for his contribution to the biology?
Answer:

1. Jean Baptist Lamarck was the first person to propose the theory of evolution.
2. He proposed that the acquired characters are passed to its offspring i.e., to next generation.
3. This is known as inheritance of acquired characters.
4. For example elongation of neck and forelimbs in giraffe.
5. Even though this theory was disproved, his contribution to biology was appreciable because it changed the belief of the people of olden days that the organisms on the earth have not undergone any change.

Question 25.
How did August Weisemann disprove the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters” proposed by Lamarck? (OR)
What example will you give to prove that Lamarckism is not correct?
Answer:

1. August Weisemann, tested the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters” proposed by Lamarck by an experiment on rats.
2. He removed tails of parental rats.
3. He observed its offsprings which have normal tails.
4. He has done it again for twenty two generations but still offsprings are normal with tails.
5. He proved that the bodily changes are not inherited. So they won’t be passed to its offspring.
6. Thus he disproved the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters”.

Question 26.
Some organisms or species adapt better and survive in a community of organisms. Why do you think this may happen?
Answer:

1. This may happen due to the variations posessed by the organisms which are suitable to that habitat.
2. The variations that help the organism to collect food to escape from their enemies, increase the chance of survival for the organism than the other organisms.
3. In general, variations come during sexual reproduction or mutation.
4. If the variations are useful, that organisms can adapt better and survive.
5. These organisms can be selected by the nature.

Question 27.
What do you understand about pure breeds?
Answer:

1. Pure breed is that expresses the selected character over several generations.
2. A pure breed will have both the factors of the same type.
3. It means all the pure breeds are homozygous.
4. All the gamates produced by them will have same type of factor.
5. Pure breed on self pollination will give pure breed again.

Question 28.
What do you understand about F₁ generation?
Answer:

1. F₁ generation or first filial is the offspring of first generation parents.
2. Cross pollination of pure breeds will give F₁ generation.
3. All the individuals produced in F₁ generation are heterozygous.
4. Only the dominant characters are expressed in this generation.

Question 29.
What are the differences between F₁ generation and F₂ generation of mono hybrid cross?
Answer:

F1 generation	F2 generation
1)   F1 generation or first filial is the offspring of first generation parents. 2)    Cross pollination of pure breeds will give F1 generation. 3)    All the individuals produced in F1 generation are heterozygous. 4)    Only the dominant characters are expressed in this generation. 5)    All the individuals produced in F1 generation are same, both phenotypically or genotypically.	1)     F2 generation is the offspring of second generation parents. 2)     Self or cross-pollination of F1 generation will give F2 generation. 3)     Individuals produced in F2 generation may be homozygous or heterozygous. 4)     Homozygous recessive plants express recessive characters. 5)     In F2 generation individuals, the phenotype ratio is 3:1 and the genotype ratio is 1 : 2 : 1.

Question 30.
What are the differences between monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross ?
Answer:

Monohybrid cross	Dihybrid cross
1) In monohybrid cross only one pair of contrasting characters are taken into consideration. 2) In monohybrid cross, the phenotype ratio of F2 generation individuals is 3:1. 3) In monohybrid cross, the genotype ratio of F2 generation individuals is 1:2:1.	1) In dihybrid cross two pairs of contrasting characters are taken into consideration. 2) In dihybrid cross, the phenotype ratio of F2 generation individual is 1:2: 1. 3) In dihybrid cross, the genotype ratio of F2 generation individuals is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

Question 31.
Write a short note on fossils of dinosaurs, ketosaurs collected in Telangana state.
Answer:

1. A rare and magnificient fossil of the dinosaurs, ketosaurs were collected in Yamanapalli in Adilabad district of Telangana district.
2. They belong to the lower jurassic age going back to about 160 million years.
3. This fossil has 14 meters length and 5 meters height.
4. This fossil is preserved in BM Birla Science Centre. Hyderabad.

Question 32.
Write a short notes on vestigial organs.
Answer:

1. During the course of evolution some organs remain in organisms, even though they don’t have any work to do.
2. For example appendix in the digestive system of human beings has no role to play in the process of digestion.
3. But in herbivores like rabbit appendix plays important role.
4. Such type of organs which are not useful in animal are called “vestigial organs”.
5. There are nearly 180 vestigial organs in human beings such as pinna, hair on skin, mammary glands in human, etc.
6. That’s why human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fossils are the precious evidences preserved by the nature to help us knowing about ancient life forms. Write the information you collected about fossils.
Answer:

1. Fossils are the evidences of ancient life forms or ancient habitates which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Fossils provide information about what lived in the past.
3. Palentologists determine the age of fossils by using carbon-dating method.
4. They convey us about genetic condition, heredity characters through inactive chromosomes which are present in them.
5. They give a detailed information about their diet, life styles, shape of body, etc.
6. Fossils provide the information about how species have changed across long periods of the earth history.

Question 2.
a) If a sperm with ‘X’ chromosome fertilizes with an ovum with ‘X’ chromosome, what will be the gender of the baby?
b) Who determines the sex/gender of the baby, mother or father?
c) Is it correct to blame the mother for giving birth to a baby girl?
d) Are all our characters resembles our parents?
Answer:
a) Female
b) Father
c) Not correct
d) No, some variations occur.

Question 3.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions. Vamsi and Priya are newly married couple. They want to give birth to a male child.

a) Draw a probable diagram showing transfer of chromosomes from parents to give birth to male child.
Answer:
b) Who determines the sex of the baby? How can you say ?
Answer:
Father (Vamsi) determines the sex of the baby. Because the chromosome ‘Y’ that determines male sex is present in males.

Question 4.

i) What does the given flow chart indicate?
Answer:
Sex determination in human beings

ii) What will happen if the sperm containing ‘X’ chromosomes fertilises the ovum?
Answer:
Baby will be a girl

iii) Who decides the sex of the baby – Mother or Father?
Answer:
Father

iv) How many pairs of chromosomes are present in off-spring?
Answer:
23 pairs

Question 5.
Write a brief note on Homologous and Analogous organs.
Answer:
Homologous organs: Organs which are structurally similar but functionally different are known as “Homologous organs”.
Forelimbs of a whale – swimming
Wings of a bat – flying
Forelegs of cheetah – running

Analogous: Organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as “Analogous organs”.
Eg : Wings of a bird – flying
Wings of a bat – flying

Question 6.
Observe the flow – chart and answer the following.
i) What does the flow – chart represent?
Answer:
The flow – chart represents a monohybrid hybridisation between a pure breed Tall (T) and a pure breed dwarf (t) plants resulting first filial generation. On self pollinating with F₁ generation the new breed have any combinations of T, t came in F₂ generation.

ii) What is the phenotype characters in F₁ generation?
Answer:
In the phenotypic characters in F₁ generation all are dominant that is (T) Tall,

iii) What is the Genotype, Phenotype ratio of F₂ generation?
Answer:
Genotype ratio in F₂ generation is 1 : 2 : 1
Phenotype ratio in F₂ generation is 3 : 1

iv) What laws of inheritance did you understand by this flow – chart?
Answer:
understand that i) the law of dominance ii) law of segregation proposed by Mendel.

Question 7.
Write the Darwin’s theory of evolution in a nutshell.
Answer:

1. Any group of population of an organism has variations and all members of group are not identical.
2. Variations maybe passed from parent to offspring through heredity.
3. The natural selection over abundance of offspring leads to a constant struggle for their survival in any population.
4. Individuals with variations that help them to survive and reproduce tend to live longer and have more offsprings than organisms with less useful features.
5. The offsprings of survivors inherit the useful variations, and the same process happens with every new generation until the variation becomes a common feature.
6. As the environment changes, the organism within the environment adapt and changes to the new living conditions.
7. Over a long period of time, each species of organism can accumulate so many changes that it becomes a new species, similar to but distinctly different from the original species. All species on the earth arise in this way.
8. Evolution is a slow and continuous process that involves several thousands of generations.

Question 8.
What are Mendel’s laws of inheritance? What are the reasons to choose pea plant for his experiment?
Answer:
Mendel’s Laws of inheritance:

1. Law of Dominance : Among a pair of closely related ‘alleles’ or factors, only one expresses itself. In the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other. This is called as Mendel’s Law of dominance.
2. Law of Segregation : The law of segregation states that every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait that each parent posses a randomly selected copy only one of these to its off-spring.
3. Law of Independent assortment : In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters (traits), the factors for each pair of characters assort independently of the other pairs. This is known as ‘Law of Independent assortment’.

Mendel has chosen garden pea as material for his experiment because:

1. It has well developed characters.
2. It is a bisexual flower.
3. Predominently self pollinating.
4. Suitable for cross pollination.
5. It is an annual plant.

Question 9.
What is Phenotype and Genotype? Explain them with the help of Mendel’s Monohybrid cross.
Answer:
Phenotype: Expression of visible character of an individual is called phenotype.
Genotype: Genetic constitution of an individual for any character is called Genotype or Probable nature of factors is known as genotype.
Cross Pollinating a pure breed of yellow coloured pea seeds (YY) and green coloured pea seeds (yy) give F₁ generation. All pea seeds were yellow in F₁ generation. So, yellow colour is phenotype. ‘Yy’ is genotype of all pea seeds in F₁ generation.

F₂ Generation : Self pollination of F₁ pea plants (Yy)

Phenotype Ratio is 3:1 Genotype Ratio is 1:2:1.

Question 10.
Explain in brief any two evidences of Evolution.
Answer:
Some of the evidences of evolution are

1. Homologous and analogous organs
2. Evidences from embryology and
3. Evidences from fossils.

I. Homologous and analogous organs :

1. Organs which have common fundamental anatomical plan and similar embryonic origin, whatever varied functions they may perform are regarded as homologous organs.
2. For example forelimb of a whale, wing of bat, leg of leopord, claw of mole and hand of man.
3. They indicate that all the vertebrates are evolved from common ancestor.
4. Organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as “Analogous organs”.
5. For example wings of bats and wings of birds.
6. The designs of the two wings, their structure and components are different but they look similar because they have a common use for flying but their origin is not common.

II. Evidences from embryology:

1. There are remarkable similarities in the embryos of different animals from fish to man.
2. The resemblance is so close that at an early stage even an experienced embryologist would find difficulty to distinguish one embryo from the other.
3. This strengthens the view of the existence of a common ancestor from which all these have evolved.

III. Evidences from fossils:

1. Fossils are evidences of ancient life forms or ancient habitats which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Palaeontologists determine the age of fossils by using carbon dating method.
3. These fossils provide evidences of presence of extinct animals like dinosaurs and how the evolution occurred on the earth, etc.

Question 11.
Observe the given flow-chart and answer the following questions:

i) Name the chromosomes that determine the sex of an individual.
Answer:
Y Chromosome of father.

ii) Show given information in the form of Checker Board.
Answer:

iii) In this situation, which principle of Mendel is applicable?
Answer:
Law of dominance

iv) “Mother determines the sex of the baby”. Is this statement correct or not? Why?
Answer:
The statement is not correct. Because the sperm of father that carries Y chromosome fertilize with ovum of mother that contains X chromosome the resultant will be XY – Male baby.

Question 12.
Keep in mind Mendel’s experiments and write what you know about the following concepts?
a) Pure breed b) Phenotype c) Genotype d) Alleles
Answer:
a) Pure breed: These are the plants that expresses a selected character over several generations. Such plants according to Mendel were pure breed for that character.

b) Phenotype: The characters which can be seen is known as phenotype. We cannot determine the internal factors by phenotype. It tells about only the dominating char-acters which express externally. The phenotype ratio in monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.

c) Genotype: The genetic make up of an individual is known as genotype. Genotype itself is the indication of internal factors. It tells about both dominant and recessive characters present within. The genotype ratio in monohybrid cross is 1 : 2: 1.

d) Alleles: Alleles are corresponding pairs of genes located at specific positions in chromosomes. Together they determine the genotype of their host organism. Every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a rondomly selected copy of only one of these to an offspring. The offspring then receives its own pair of alleles for that trait one each from both parents.

Question 13.
Competition among organisms, variations, natural selection survival of the fittest.
Which theory explains all these aspects? Describe them in a orderly manner.
Answer:

1. Competition: Every living organism in this world reproduces itself. The rate of multiplication and existence of organisms are more or less common for all living things. But the food supply and space remain unchanged, in other words they are limited. Under these conditions, there is a competition among the organisms to fulfil their needs of food and space. This is known as struggle for existence. It may be interspecific, intraspecific and the environment factors.
2. Variations: Every organism has its own specific characteristic and relationship with its environment. The variability caused by variations may be large or small. Large variations are known as macro variation and small variations called micro variations. Variations may be favourable or harmful. Those with useful variations survive while the others perish.
3. Natural selection: The organism with favourable variations are best adapted to the environment in which they live. They have a better chance of survival and perpetuation of race. This principle is called natural selections.
4. Survival of the fittest: Variations which are useful are retained, while those are harmful are lost. In a population where there is a struggle, the fittest will be survived and the less adjusted will be perished. This is known as the elimination of the unfit.

Question 14.
What is genetic drift? Explain how it provides diversity in the population.
Answer:

1. Changes in the frequency of genes in small populations, due to accidents is known as “Genetic drift”.’
2. Let us consider a colour variation occurred in red colour beetles which are living on green coloured leaves of bushes.
3. It results in “blue” colour beetles instead of ‘red’ colour beetles and passed its colour to its progeny.
4. Initially in the population, there are few blue beetles, but most are red.
5. Imagine at this point, an elephant comes by and stamps on the bushes where the beetles live.
6. This kills most of the beetles but by chance a few beetles survived are mostly blue.
7. Again the beetle population slowly increases, but in the beetle population most of them are in blue colour.
8. Thus genetic drift provides diversity in the population.

Question 15.
Have the apparent groups of human beings (races) evolved differently?
Answer:

1. No, there is no biological basis to the notion of human races. All humans are a single species.
2. Regardless of where we have lived for the past few thousand years, we all came from Africa.
3. The earliest members of human species, Homosapiens, can be traced there.
4. Our genetic footprints can be traced back to our African roots.
5. A couple of hundred thousand years ago, some of our ancestors left Africa while others stayed on.
6. While the residents spread across Africa, the migrants slowly spread across the planet.
7. They did not go in a single line. They went forwards and backwards, with groups, sometimes separating from each other, even moving in and out of Africa.
8. Like all other species on planet, they had come into being as an accident of evolution, and were trying to live their lives the best they could.

Question 16.
How would you appreciate Gregor Johann Mendel’s contribution to the genetics?
(OR)
Why Gregor Johann Mendel is considered as the father of genetics?
Answer:

1. Gregor Johann Mendel worked on the problem of how variations were passed from one generation to the other.
2. As he was a monk, he did his experiments with interest in the garden of the monastery.
3. He worked for over seven years after which he presented conclusions from his experimental data in a form of a detailed research paper.
4. Mendel made many careful observations of pea plants and asked himself questions about what he observed and then planned and designed experiments to find the answers.
5. He had worked on nearly 10,000 pea plants of 34 different varieties choosing 7 distinguishing forms of characters.
6. His experimental outcomes gave the idea how the variations were passed on from one generation to another.
7. He was an exemplary person for his observation, planning, patience and experimental skills.
8. His efforts to know the secrets of nature was really appreciable.

Question 17.
What are the hypothesis assumptions and outcomes of Mendel’s experiments with pea plants?
Answer:
Regarding his experiments with pea plants, Mendel hypothesised that

1. Characters were carried as traits and an organism always carried a pair of factors for a character.
2. The distinguishing traits of the same character were present in the population of an organism.
3. The traits shown by the pea plants must be in the seeds that produced them.
4. The seeds must have obtained by the traits from the parent plants.

His assumptions made to explain his observations are:
Assumption 1: Every pea plant has two ‘factors’ which are responsible for producing a particular property or trait.
Assumption 2: During reproduction one ‘factor’ from each parent is taken to form a new pair in the progeny.
Assumption 3: One of these will always dominate the other if mixed together.

Laws made from his experiments:

1. Law of Dominance: Among a pair of alleles for a character, only one expresses itself in the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other.
2. Law of Segregation: Every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a randomly selected copy of only one of these to its offspring.
3. Law of Independent Assortment: In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters the factors for each pair of characters assorts independently of the other pairs.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam

8th Class Social Studies 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Make simple questions based on each section of the chapter (Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam) and ask one another. Check if the answers are correct.
Answer:

1. What is Khudkasht?
   Answer:
   It means self-cultivated land.
2. Who introduced the Permanent Settlement of Tax and when?
   Answer:
   Cornwallis introduced this in 1793.
3. What happened if the Zamindars could not pay the tax?
   Answer:
   They became defaulters.
4. What are ‘ceded’ districts?
   Answer:
   Bellary, Ananthapur, Kurnool and Kadapa.
5. Who built the Prakasam Barrage?
   Answer:
   Sir Arthur Cotton.
6. Based on how many years, the Ryotwari war fixed?
   Answer:
   20, 30 years.
7. When was the American Civil War started?
   Answer:
   In 1861.
8. What was the forced labour without payment called?
   Answer:
   Vetti
9. What were the forms of income did the Zamindars expect from farmers?
   Answer:
   Ghee, milk, vegetables, gur, grass/straw, cowdung cakes etc.
10. With what did they compensate the old landlords in Hyderabad state?
    Answer:
    They paid ‘Rusum’, an annual payment.
11. Write an example for severe famine.
    Answer:
    Ganjam Famine.
12. Write the names of any two peasant movements.
    Answer:
    The Deccan riots of 1860s, Rampa fituries, Moppila agitations etc.

Question 2.
Compare the condition of tenant farmers before freedom and farmers of today. What differences and similarities do you find?
Differences:
Sometimes the tenant farmers could not pay the rent and deserted the lands. They borrowed loans from moneylenders. If they could not repay their loans on time, the moneylenders went to court to get their land auctioned to recover the loan money. The rent was 3 to 7 times more than its revenue.
The farmers of today are fixing and paying rents in a proper method. In time of need they borrow money from the banks.
Similarities:
Their conditions are pitiable in both periods. The owners of the lords are not working for the developmental activities. The cultivators are becoming permanent debtors.

Question 3.
During the freedom movement, the zamindars normally supported the British. Can you explain why?
Answer:
The policies of zamindars created a gap between them and their people. They earned more assets in the British reign. So they normally supported the British during the freedom movement.

Question 4.
What role did the moneylenders play in the lives of the peasants? In what way do you were they think supported by the British government?
Answer:
Farmers borrowed loans many times from moneylenders to pay revenues. If they could not repay their loans on time, the moneylenders also went to court to get their land auctioned to recover the loan money.

Due to this British rule, for collecting land revenue, many peasants fell into deep debt trap. The moneylenders became richer and richer as more and more peasants came under their grip.

The British government did not show any interest in the welfare of the farmers as it showed in collecting revenue. Thus the moneylenders were supported by the British.

Question 5.
What were the similarities and differences between the Doras and the Zamindars of Awadh?
Answer:
Differences :

1. Doras were under the Nizam’s rule. Zamindars were under the British rule.
2. Doras paid revenue collection to Nizam, but Zamindars paid to the British.
3. Doras illtreated their tenants and farmers, Zamindars made them suffer only economically.

Similarities :

1. Both suffered the peasantry.
2. Both had large fields.
3. They were independent in others’ rule.

Question 6.
What kind of measures did the British take to improve agriculture? Did it have the desired impact? Give your reasons.
Answer:
Some British administrators believed that it is the duty of the government to invest in large scale irrigation works. They built anicuts and canals. They recognised the ownership of the land. They fixed the revenue per acre by taking the yield, prices, market conditions, crops etc., into consideration.

Before the cultivation they made necessary advances to the ryots to purchase seeds, implements, bullocks and to repair old wells or dig new ones. This proved very effective and that year saw a bumper crop and good revenue collection. So I think their approach was right.

Question 7.
How did the Ryotwari settlement also give rise to landlordism?
Answer:
Even in the Ryotwari areas the land revenue was fixed at a very high level. Unlike in the Zamindari areas it was fixed for twenty to thirty years. After expiry of the tenure period the revenue was revised, taking the changed conditions into consideration. The land revenue was so high that in the beginning it had to be collected by force. Soon however as prices rose faster than the land revenue and the ryots found it more profitable to employ tenants to cultivate their lands and receive rent from them.

Soon the Ryotwari area too was full of landlords who rented out their lands to helpless tenants for very high rents. The tenants had to pay rent that was three to seven times more than the land revenue paid by the ryots to the government. (That is if a ryot paid Rs.100/- as land revenue for a piece of land to the government, he was able to get Rs. 300/- to 700/- from the tenants for the same land.) As a result they too did not have any interest in investing in improving agriculture, but only in renting it out at higher and higher rates.
Thus the Ryotwari settlement also gave rise to landlordism.

Question 8.
Why were famines caused under British rule? Do you think it was because of failure of rains or floods?
Answer:
The rains and floods caused one or two famines during the British rule. Most of the famines occurred due to their dictatorial rule. They exported food grains in the famines. They had no interference when the merchants created artificial scarcity by hoarding food grains. They didn’t work for the welfare of the people in India. So the famines were caused.

Question 9.
In what way can a government help to prevent famines even in times of crop failure?
Answer:
A government can help even in times of crop failure :

1. by supplying agricultural products from the areas of surplus.
2. by providing water facilities.
3. by postponing the E.M.Is of their loans.
4. by drying and storing the surplus crop.

Question 10.
Imagine that you are giving a representation to a British Government Enquiry committee. Write down the grievances of tenant farmers in the form of an appeal.
Answer:

Memorandum

13-07-1845.

Sir,

Being Indians, we are ashamed of paying more rents for our own lands. Peasants, landlords and zamindars are not interested in any developmental activities. So we have no irrigation facilities and others. We are not able to get even common yield. The revenue system introduced by the British government is not favourable to us. The rents are increasing day by day. At present they are seven times more than the revenue. Our assets are ready to be auctioned. So we request you to handle the situation carefully keeping all these things in view. Once again we request you to improve our living standards.

Thanking you,

Yours obediently,
Andhra Pradesh Tenant Farmers Association

Question 11.
Locate the following in the given India map.

1. Ganjam
2. Awadh
3. Hyderabad
4. River Godavari

Answer:

Question 12.
Read the paragraph under the heading ‘Countless Collections, Cesses and Payments’ and answer the following:
How are we paying the taxes nowadays?
Answer:
Now-a-days we are paying some taxes directly govt, through its related department. Some other taxes are paid indirectly.

Project

Question 1.
Make teams of five students and interview five elders of the village to know about how things were during the British days. At least two of them should be women, and at least one person should be from the artisans. Talk to them at length and prepare detailed reports about what they have to say.
Report
Answer:
Britishers developed India according to their needs. They were selfish in this attitude. Some people supported and some opposed them. During the colonial period some gained some lost. We were treated as second class civilians in our own motherland. Women were uplifted with the introduction of women education, abolition of child marriages and widow re-marriages. But the handicrafts were suppressed. The introduction of motors and machines caused this. They are still in the same situation. On the whole the British rule caused mixed results.

Question 2.
Find out about famines in your area. What did people do in those times?
Answer:
Our area is located in Chittoor district. There is a great famine in recent year. It is caused due to lack of rainfall and crop failure. In these times people are migrated due to lack of rainfall and crop failure to urban areas in search of livelihood. These people mostly worked as daily – wage labourers, watchmen in colonies, apartments and shops. Some of them also engaged in granite and construction industry on the city’s outskirts.

Question 3.
Find out about families that migrated to distant places like Kuwait, Saudi Arabia from your area.
Answer:
Ours is a Village in Kadapa district in Andhra Pradesh. Once many people worked in our fields. But many of them went to Saudi and Kuwait for household and industrial works. They earned good incomes there and increased their assets here. We can say that the rich people in our area are mostly the migrated ones.

8th Class Social Studies 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Did the Zamindar own all the lands of the villages in the Mughal times? (Textbook Page No. 111)
Answer:
No. They owned some of the village lands. They had the power to collect revenue from the villagers. Rest of the land was owned by peasants and others.

Question 2.
What did the Zamindars do for the Mughal government and what did they get in return? (Textbook Page No. 111)
Answer:
The Zamindars collected the revenue from the peasantry on behalf of Mughal emperors. In return they received a share of revenue collected. Sometimes they also had right to collect some small local taxes.

Question 3.
How the changes would have affected the position of the farmers who tilled the land for several generations? (Textbook Page No. 113)
Answer:

1. This settlement inadvertently converted all the peasants into the tenants.
2. Since rent collected was much higher than the revenue, the cultivators could not pay and sometimes deserted the lands. These were the affects.

Question 4.
What is the difference between revenue and rent? (Textbook Page No. 113)
Answer:
Revenue: Tax on land which is paid to the zamindars or government.
Rent: Amount paid to the owners of the land for using and cultivating it.

Question 5.
In what ways did the government invest in agriculture during the early British rule? Do you think it could have been done by farmers themselves? (Textbook Page No. 115)
Answer:

1. The Britishers made necessary advances to the ryots to purchase seeds, implements, bullocks and to repair old wells or dig new ones.
2. They constructed anicuts & canals.
   It could not have been done by farmers themselves.

Question 6.
How did the land revenue lead to peasants losing their lands to the money lenders? What would the money lenders have done with the land? (Textbook Page No. 114)
Answer:
The peasants were forced to work on the zamindars’ fields and many peasants could not cultivate their own fields properly. They could not improve their fields. Their plight can be seen in a government report written in 1878. The report says that the peasants do not try to dig well on their lands or irrigate it, nor do they try to bund their fields or dig drains or use fertilisers. “They do nothing to improve their land because they fear they can be evicted from their land at any time. If they improve their farming, the zamindar immediately increases the share he takes from them. But the zamindars also prevent the peasants from improving their fields because they are afraid that the peasants would then start asserting their rights over the land.”

Question 7.
In what forms did the zamindars take away the produce of the tenants? (Textbook Page No. 118)
Answer:

1. The peasants were forced to do ‘Vetti’ in the lands of zamindars.
2. The zamindars also tried to extract as much money as they could from the peasants under a variety of pretexts.
3. The peasants also had to regularly supply ghee, milk, vegetables, gur, straw, cow dung cakes etc., free of cost to zamindar’s house.
   Thus they paid in form of labour, cash and kind.

Question 8.
How did the position of the revenue collectors change in the Nizam state? (Textbook Page No. 119)
Answer:
In the Hyderabad State under the Nizam rule there were many forms of subordinate chieftaincies like Jagirdars, Samsthanamdars and Inamdars which ruled like independent chiefs. They collected revenue from the lands under them, and gave a small part to the Nizam as ‘peshkash’ and kept the remaining with them. They were also responsible for the administration of their areas.

The large landlordsrwere called ‘Doras’. The Doras lived in large fortified houses called ‘gadi’ and had a large retinue of servants and soldiers. They had vast lands cultivated by tenants and also lands directly cultivated with forced labour. They acted as village money lenders too. They also had judicial powers over the entire village. They settled all village disputes and were usually partisan towards the upper castes.
Thus their position was raised to higher cadre.

Question 9.
How was a ‘dora’ different from an ordinary landlord? (Textbook Page No. 119)
Answer:
The large landlords were called Doras. They had a large retinue of servants and soldiers. Ordinary landlords were under the control of these ‘doras’. Landlords should follow the orders of ‘Doras’. This is the difference between them.

Question 10.
Do you think the Zamindars would have helped the independent cultivators in any way? Give reasons for your answer. (Textbook Page No. 112)
Answer:
Zamindars were acted as mediaters during Mughal period and helped the cultivators. But during the British they didn’t help the cultivators. As a result in the long run, the zamindars also suffered and became defaulters. Numerous zamindaris were sold off at auctions organised by the East India Company. Anyone who failed to pay the revenue, lost his zamindari.

Question 11.
How do you think it was possible for the zamindars to keep increasing their incomes without increasing investment in the land? (Textbook Page No. 114)
Answer:
The prices of grains in the market rose and cultivation slowly expanded. This meant an increase in the income of the zamindars but no gain for the Company as it could not increase the revenue demand that had been fixed permanently. Even then the zamindars did not have an interest in improving the land. Some had lost their lands in the earlier years of the settlement; others now saw the possibility of earning without the trouble and risk of investment. As long as the zamindars could give out the land to tenants and get rent, they were not interested in improving the land.

Question 12.
Who do you think would have benefited from the Ryotwari Settlement – the farmers, the landlords or the British? Give reasons. (Textbook Page No. 116)
Answer:
The landlords would have benefited from the Ryotwari settlement.
Reasons:

1. There was an increase in the number of landlords in the Ryotwari area.
2. They showed much interest in giving their lands on rents rather than cultivation.

Question 13.
Compare these actual outcomes with what you had predicted. How similar or different was it? (Textbook Page No. 116)
Answer:
I think that the conditions of the cultivators may get improved with the Ryotwari system. But my prediction goes on wrong. Farmers became as landlords and the tenants as coolies.

Question 14.
Why do you think the ryots not invest in improving agriculture or extending agriculture? (Textbook Page No. 116)
Answer:
The prices rose faster than the land revenue and the ryots found it more profitable to employ tenants to cultivate their lands and receive rent from them. So they did not invest in improving agriculture or extending agriculture.

Question 15.
Imagine and describe the condition of the landless tenants of the ryots. (Textbook Page No. 116)
Answer:
The landless tenants had to pay the revenue and the rent many times more than their yield. They had no chance to develop their fields or to invest on it. They had to approach moneylenders to meet their expenditure. If they could not repay their loans on time, the moneylenders also had to go to court to get their land auctioned to recover the loan money.

The agricultural prices were determined by the international market. As a result the tenants had to bear more losses. If they cultivated cash crops, it would have resulted in scarcity of food. As a result, they had to desert the lands. Many people migrated to South Africa, Mauritius, Fiji and other distant places as coolies during ‘Ganjam Famine’.

Question 16.
Discuss the changes in the lives of traditional crafts persons and village artists. (Textbook Page No. 118)
Answer:
Traditional crafts persons are adding technology to their tradition. As the prices are high, there is no demand for their products. Village artists had enjoyed the encouragement of the Kings and Zamindars. Now they lack it. So their lives are in worse condition.

Question 17.
Why do you think it was necessary to defeat the palegars before the Ryotwari Se ttlement could be introduced? (Textbook Page No. 115)
Answer:
Palegars resisted the imposition of British rule and indulged in constant war and looting. They had armed followers. Identifying the orizinal land owners was very difficult. So they should be subdued first. I think law and order should be restored before the Ryotwari settlement.

Question 18.
If you live in the ‘Ceded Districts’, find out about the palegars who fought with the British. (Textbook Page No. 115)
Answer:
Mahy wars were broken out between Palegars and the British from 1798 to 1805. First war was fought between Veerapandya and the British in 1799. Second main war was fought between a group of Palegars and the British. After a long andexpensive campaign-the-British finally defeated the revolting Palegars of whom many were beheaded and hanged while others were deported to the Andaman Islands. Of the Palegars who submitted to the British some of them granted Zamindari status, which had only tax collection rights and disarmed them completely.

Question 19.
Who ultimately profited from production for export market and why? (Textbook Page No. 117)
Answer:
Peasants very often borrowed money from moneylenders in order to pay land revenue. As usually the peasants borrowed money from them for the production so as to do export market. As the demand was reduced, they incurred losses. They suffered a lot as they could not earn enough to pay back the loans they had taken. The moneylenders became richer and richer as more and more peasants came under their grip.

Question 20.
Have you heard of any similar rapid rise or decline in prices of any agricultural produce in our own times? Find out about its impact on the farmers. (Textbook Page No. 117)
Answer:
In recent past, there was an increase in the prices of rice and red gram. Later they were reduced by the government. Peasants grew some crops thinking of high profits. If the demand fell, they would get losses that year.

Question 21.
Why do you think the zamindars kept the soldiers and small forts? (Textbook Page No. 112)
Answer:
Zamindars had some villages under their control. They were the mediators between the rulers and the ruled. They had much income also. So they lived in small forts. To protect their people from thefts and attacks, to collect revenues they needed soldiers. So they maintained them.

Question 22.
Who do you think gained the most from the ‘Permanent Settlement’- the British Government, the zamindars or the peasants? Give your reasons. (Textbook Page No. 113)
Answer:
The Zamindars gained most from the ‘Permanent settlement’.
Reasons:

1. The zamindars paid only 10% of prefixed revenue. They did not pay the surplus collection to the British.
2. Peasants had to pay more revenue. Those who could not pay the revenue, lost their land. They changed as tenant farmers.

Question 23.
In what ways did the zamindari system fail in the objectives with which the British had introduced it? (Textbook Page No. 114)
Answer:

1. Zamindars did not develop the lands.
2. They did not invest on lands.
3. Land revenue is very high.
4. There were no exceptions at the time of famines and crop failures.
5. East India Company frequently changed the zamindars in auctions.
6. The Zamindars were interested in their earning but not in constructive ideas and works.
7. Some landlords and moneylenders got profited.
   Due to these reasons the Zamindari system failed in the objectives.

Question 24.
When the ‘Permanent Settlement’ was introduced, there was no detailed lanjd survey. Why do you think was it needed for the ‘Ryotwari Settlement’? (Textbook Page No. 115)
Answer:
As the Zamindars were middlemen, the Britishers could not get proper income. Peasants suffered a lot from lack of developmental activities. So the British planned to collect revenue directly from the peasants by providing various facilities. So the detailed land survey is needed for the ‘Ryotwari Settlement’.

Question 25.
Why did the high revenue rates prevent zamindars and farmers from improving agriculture? (Textbook Page No. 117)
Answer:
As they paid heavy rates of rents and revenue from their income, they were not able to improve agriculture. They used the remaining amounts for their household purposes.

Question 26.
Why did the war in America lead to increase in prices of cotton in India? (Textbook Page No. 117)
Answer:
In 1861, there was Civil war in America and British factories turned to India for supply of cotton. As a result cotton prices soared high.

Question 27.
Why do you think the peasants were not willing to invest in their lands? (Textbook Page No. 118)
Answer:
They had no funds to invest in their lands. They had fear that they could be evicted from their land at anytime. If they improved their forming, the Zamindars immediately increased the share he took from them. But the Zamindars also prevented the peasants from improving their fields because they were afraid that the peasants would then start asserting their rights over the land.

Question 28.
Among all forms of exploitation, the peasants hated ‘vetti’ the most? Can you explain why? (Textbook Page No. 119)
Answer:
During the colonial period the peasants were forced to do ‘vetti’ on the personal land of the landlords. The soldiers would even catch peasants walking on the road and force them to do vetti in the zamindar’s fields.

1. Many peasants could not cultivate their own fields properly.
2. They could not improve their fields.
3. They could not earn incomes.
4. This was an inhumane activity.
   So the peasants hated ‘vetti’.

 

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them

8th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning
Question 1.
Do you agree with the following statements? Give reasons for your agreement or Contradiction.
a) The notion of private property is important to protect the forest.
b) All forests need to be protected by human beings.
c) Over the centuries most people living on earth have reduced their dependence on forest for their livelihood.
Answer:
a) I agree with this statement. They were sent out of their homes and they lost that ‘ours’ feeling.
b) I agree with this statement. The trees and human beings are interdependent. So all forests need to be protected by human beings.
c) Yes, I agree with this. Many other kinds of employment and business opportunities were created on the earth. So the dependence on forests is reduced.

Question 2.
Create a timeline to show the major changes in use of forest over centuries. It may be necessary to look at your textbooks from previous classes.

Event	Changes affecting tribal life	Impact on forest
Emergence of agriculture
Arrival of the colonial rulers
Government rules

Answer:

Event	Changes affecting tribal life	Impact on forest
1. Emergence of agriculture	Due to this the tribals changed their traditional foods, and began to cultivate crops like cereals, grains etc.	Due to this tribals started shifting or podu cultivation. Forest land changed as agricultural land, but they took care to ensure the regeneration of animals and trees.
2. Arrival of the colonial rulers	After their arrival the tribals lost their control and rights over the forests. The laws restricted the customary rights of tribals and uses of forests. They became homeless.	Forests were under the control of Britishers and Forest Department. The land was handed over to farmers and zamindars. Britishers consumed much wood as the industries were developed.
3. Government rules	Things did not really change for the better of the tribal people even after independence. The govt, continued to follow the British forest policy. As a result of these policies the condition of the tribal people continued to worsen.	In 1988, the government declared National Forest Policy. The primary task is to associate the tribals in the protection and regeneration of forests. This led to Joint Forest Management (JFM). Next the Parliament passed Forest Rights Act in 2006 and resto­red the tribals rights on forests. At last the forests came into the hands of tribals.

Question 3.
Based on the details given in the above text, or from what you already know about the forests, compare the type of forest that is closest to your area of living on the following aspects.

Density of trees	Types of trees found	Special features of trees

Answer:
Ours is a Maredumilli village in East Godavari district. Our forest is as follows.

Density of trees	Types of trees found	Special features of trees
650 to 750 trees per acre	1) Maredu	– called as Bilwavriksh; favourite of Lord Shiva.
	2) Peepal	– favourite of Lord Vishnu. It has more electromagnetic power.
	3) Neem	– It is a form of energy. We treat it as ‘Amma’.
	4) Amla	– Medicinal plant (Lord Vishnu).
	5) Teak	– Hard wood; used for household purpose.
	6) Devdar	– It is descended directly from ‘Devlok’.
	7) Sal	– Hard wood; favoured by Vishnu; best for construction.

Question 4.
Observe the map of forests in Andhra Pradesh and find out which district (s) has/have the maximum forest covered area?
Answer:
Visakhapatnam, East Godavari, Srikakulam and Prakasam districts have the maximum forest covered areas in our state.

Question 5.
A few children in a school participated in Vanamahotsavam programme and they planted some saplings. How do you respond to this?
Answer:
I appreciate this action very much. The children’s participation in this brightens the future of the country. But they should take care of their plants till they grow.

Question 6.
Read the paragraph under the heading ‘Forests of Andhra Pradesh’ and answer the question:
You read about some of the important kinds of forests in our state But how large are our forests? Are they increasing or decreasing? Let us find out. About 64,000 sq kilometres of the state are declared as forest by the government. This is about 23% of all land in the state.

However, all this is not really forested as only about 16% of our land has tree cover to qualify as forest. This means that is about 7% of our forest lands are open grounds and with very few trees. Even this forest cover is dwindling due to felling, encroachment, mining etc. Every year about one hundred sq kilometres of forests are lost in our state
What suggestions do you have for increasing the forest cover in our state?

Answer:

1. Government should adopt social forestery scheme.
2. Plantations should be taken in bare lands in forests.
3. Consumption of forest products should be minimised.
4. Renewable sources of energy should be invented.
5. Forests should be protected from illegal activities.
6. Awareness should be created about the necessity of forests among the common people.
7. Plantations should be taken in the area of used up mines.

Question 7.
Locate the various places mentioned below different photographs of forests given in this chapter in an Atlas. What similarities and differences can you find among them?
Answer:
Similarities & Differences

Name of the Forest	Physiographic conditions	Location	Trees
1. Evergreen Forests	Regions which get very high rainfall and also have a very warm climate.	Equatorial regions or regions like Kerala and Andamans in India have evergreen forests. We do not have such forests in our state.	Dense forests with a very large variety of trees. Jamun, canes, bamboos, kadam etc. are some characteristic trees.
2. Decidious Forests	These grow in regions when it rains in only some months and is warm and dry during most of the year.	Most of the forests of our state fall in this catageory.	Vegi, Ageisa maddi, Billu Neem, Teak, Velaga, Yepi, Buruga and Moduga etc.
3. Thorny Forest	These grow in very dry areas with little rainfall and high temperatures.	These are located in Y.S.R. Kadapa, Chittoor Anantapur districts in our state.	Babul (Thumma) Balusu, Regu, Sandal Neem etc.

Question 8.
What are the differences between Ever green forests and Deciduous forests?
Answer:
Difference between Evergreen forests and Deciduous forests:

1. Evergreen forests: Evergreen plants in evergreen forests have leaves or needles that stay on the plant throughout all of the seasons. This does not mean that the needles or leaves never die or fall off. It means that when they do, they are replaced by new ones and the plant is never without greenary.
2. Deciduous forests: Deciduous trees in deciduous forests lose their leaves flow September onwards, with some trees, this is accompanied by stunniodelus autumn colours. This happens at different points throughout the autumn, depending upon, the species of tree and weather at the point that this occurs.

Question 9.
Observe the pictures and write a comment.

Answer:
Tragically, human beings operate under the belief, that they have the right to do what they please to animals.
On the earth, the plant kingdom and the animal kingdom appeared first, before human kingdom. But now the later occupied more land on the earth. So the forests and wild life are to be protected.
Additional Information:

Mineral kingdom
↓
Plant kingdom
↓
Animal kingdom
↓
Human kingdom

8th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
You have read about forests and people living forests in the previous classes. Can you recall some of them and talk about people who live in the forests? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
“Good morning all of you. Forests are lifeline of the lives. The area of forest should be 33% of the area of any country. But in India it is 23% only. These figures show our critical condition. Adivasis are 8% of our total population. Approximately 60% of them live in forests. They lead their lives in the lap of nature. Their traditions, customs, religious rituals, groups, agriculture – in every issue, they are different from others. Their welfare is our welfare. Save trees, they save us. Thank you one and all”.

Question 2.
What is a forest? There can be many ways of defining a forest. Write a definition of forests. Then discuss jointly in the class and write down points which seem to be correct to most students. (Textbook Page No. 50)
Answer:
A large tract of land covered by trees is called a forest.
Definitions:

1. A forest is best defined as an ecosystem or assemblage of ecosystems dominated by trees and other woody vegetation.
2. A place where the environment is covered from all sides with trees and wildlife means.

Correct points:

1. It is ecosystem.
2. It is dominated by trees.
3. There are another woody vegetations also.
4. Its place is covered with trees, from all sides.
5. There is wildlife also.

Question 3.
Find out how the mangrove trees adapt to the special conditions of sea coasts.
(Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:
Mangroves, like desert plants have special adaptations for growing in low moisture and high salt conditions.
One special strategy for coping with high concentrations of salt is special salt – excreting glands on leaves.
Another is exclusion of salt from entering roots with water uptake. They have specialised aerial breathing roots known as pneumatophores.

Question 4.
You may remember reading about Equatorial forests in Nigeria. What are the main differences between the forests of Andhra Pradesh and the Equatorial forests? (Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:

Forests of equatorial regions	Forests of Andhra Pradesh
1. These are extended on either side of the equator.	1. These are only to the north of the equator.
2. These are highly densed.	2. These are less densed.
3. The ground is wet and swampy.	3. The ground is semi wet and semi dry.
4. More species are found here.	4. Limited species are found here.
5. These are not fit for transport facilities.	5. These are fit for transport facilities.

Question 5.
Do you think there is any difference between a plantation of Eucalyptus trees or tea shrubs and a forest? Discuss in the class. (Textbook Page No. 57)
Answer:
Forest trees grow in both height and breadth. The diameter at the top should be more or less equal to its height.
Eucalyptus trees are long, but at the top they are not broad enough. The plantations in tea estates are grown upto a height of 3 to 4 feet. Otherwise, it will be useless. So I think there is a difference between these three varieties.

Question 6.
What was the difference between the protection of forests by the tribal people and by the Forest Department? (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
Tribals treated the forest as their mother. Their birth, life, death-every event was in the laps of forests. They felt no difference between them and forest. So they didn’t cause any harm or loss to the forests. In agriculture also they took necessary safety measures.

But the Forest Department officials usually belonged to distant and rich communities. They regarded the tribal people as ignorant and dangerous. They had no positive feeling about the forests.

This is the difference between protection of forest by the tribal people and by the Forest Department.

Question 7.
Can each of you draw a picture of a forest and compare them? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
In some pictures the forests are dense.
In some pictures there are gaps between tree trunks.
In some pictures some plain ground is visible in the forest.

Question 8.
Write a caption on the above cartoon in the contest of forest. (Textbook Page No. 50)
Answer:

1. “More usage makes us stand on the edge of a blade”.
2. “In front, there is crocodiles’ festival”. (Jovial cartoon)

Question 9.
Do you think it is important to have forests ? What will happen if all the forests are cleared and used up for growing crops, building factories or mines or houses for people to live ? Can’t we live without forests? Discuss in your class. (Textbook Page No. 51)
Answer:
Both plant and human kinds are interdependent. We cannot live or lead life on the earth without forests. We breathe in O₂ and breathe out CO₂ and the plants vice-versa. 1/3 of the total land on the earth should be covered with trees or forests. Otherwise it leads to natural disasters.

Question 10.
“Every year about 100 sq. km of forests are lost in our state” – Is this a satisfactory situation? Discuss in your class. (Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:
No, this is not a satisfactory situation. This affects our biodiversity, rainfall and soils etc. We can say this as critical condition.

Question 11.
Discuss in the class which way would have been better. (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
It would have been better if the tribal people left alone to lead their traditional lives in the forests. Our government also followed the British policy which was not fair.

Question 12.
In what way do you think it (Forest Right act) makes up for the injustice done to the tribal people in the past 200 years?
Answer:
The act confers on forest dwellers and other traditional users of forests, their traditional rights over the forest and also title to lands they use. If implemented properly, this act can be used to undo the wrongs done to the tribal people for generations.

Question 13.
Discuss this in the class – do you think it is the correct way to redress the wrongs done to the tribal people? How will it help in protecting the forests? What other steps need to be taken for this? (Textbook Page No. 61)
Answer:
I think this is the right way to redress the wrongs done to the tribal people. They are the children of the forests and they alone can protect them. But there should be some supervision on them to avoid the usage of forest products for commercial purpose. If they are provided with some minimum needs this could be controlled.

Question 14.
Some of you may be familiar with a nearby forest – its trees, plants, animals, rocks, streams, birds and insects. Describe to the class the forest in detail and what you do there. (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
Ours is Maredumilli in East Godavari district. Our village is itself in a forest. This is on Bhadrachalam road. We are in the lap of nature’s beauty. Bamboo, Peepal, Neem, Amla, Teak, Sal etc., are the main trees here. Coffee and rubber plantations are also here. We can see wild animals also rarely. Different birds, colourful flies make us happy. Visitors from different places come here to enjoy the nature. We collect and eat the tubers, fruits, honey. If they are excess, we will take them to our nearest town to sell them. With these earnings we take our grains and cereals from the town.

Question 15.
Have you ever been to a forest to collect firewood, leaves or fruits and tubers? Tell everyone in the class about it and also make a list of all the things people in your area collect from the forests. How are they used? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
We live in Salur, Salur mandal in Vizianagaram district. My father Ramachandra Rao works in Private company Once we planned for ‘Chandi Homam’. We had to collect ‘Samidhalu’ (dry sticks of sacred trees) from the nearest forest. My friends and I went to the forest. We collected Peepal’s, Bilwa’s samidhalu. During that time we were afraid very much.
The people of this forest collect honey, medicinal plants, tree barks, amla, gum, tamarind etc., from the forest. They use them as their food and sell the unused in the nearest towns.

Question 16.
Our folk tales and Puranas and stories repeatedly mention forests. Can you relate in the class some such stories about the forests ? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
Ramayana and Mahabharata are the two great epics of our country. These two tell us about the ‘Aranya vasa’. This is the story of Ramayana. After the announcement of ‘Rama Pattabhishekam’, Kaika sent him to forests for 14 years. Rama went to the forest of ‘Dandakaranya’ with his brother Lakshmana and wife Sita. It is in Bastar district in central India. As the forest is known for this ‘Dandana’ (punishment), it got its name Dandakaranya. He lived there for a few years. When Ravana took away Sita with him, Rama went to Lanka to kill him. Later he killed Ravana in the war and returned to ‘Ayodhya’ after 14 years of exile.

Question 17.
Many forests are sacred and are worshipped by the people. Some forests are famous as the abode of some gods and goddesses. Find out about them and tell everyone in the class about them. (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
At the end of ‘Dwapara yuga’ all the rishis and sages went to ‘Lord Brahma’. They requested ‘Brahma’ to suggest them a ‘sacred’ place to continue their further penance and to save themselves from the effect of ‘Kali’. Then Brahma took a sacred wheel and rolled it down on the earth and said wherever that wheel stopped, that would be the place. It stopped in ‘Naimisha’ which was in between Panchala and Kosala kingdoms. At present it is Sitapur, in Uttar Pradesh. It is on the banks of ‘Gomathi’ river. Now it is famous with its name ‘Naimisaranya’. This story is mentioned in Mahabharatha, Siva Purana etc.

Question 18.
Look at the map of Andhra Pradesh given on the showing the distribution of forests. Find out if your district has any forest and if yes, what kind of forest. (Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:
Ours is East Godavari district. We have mangrove forest in our area.

Question 19.
Find out from your elders about their experience of CFM and also Social Forestry projects. (Textbook Page No. 60)
Answer:
Madras Forest Act was introduced in 1882 and later it was changed as A.P. Forest Act 1882. Again another act was introduced in 1915. Other forest policies and rules were declared in 1956, 1967, 1970 and 1971. Joint Forest Management (J.F.M.) was introduced in 1990. It was changed as Community Forest Management (C.F.M) in Telangana. While this programme helped to bring together the Forest Department and the local communities, it only forced the tribal people to give up their earlier podu lands for forest regeneration. During the same time, several Tiger Sanctuaries were established in the forests to protect wild life.

In 1976 government introduced Social Forestry Scheme. Its aim was taking the pressure off the forests making use of unused and fallow land. These should be afforested. With the introduction of this, government formally recognised the local communities right to forest resources.

Question 20.
Which is the nearest forest area from your village or town ? Find out why this area still has tree cover and has not been converted into fields or habitations or mines. (Textbook Page No. 51)
Answer:
Ours is Maredumilli village in East Godavari district. It is situated on a hill top. Rampachodavaram is very very near to us. These two are forest areas. These two stood independent in the British period also. Most of the area was under the control of tribals. No minerals were found in this area.

Question 21.
Due to historical factors and physical conditions, this remains as forest only.
a) Do you think it is possible for people to take care of forests and use them as well?
b) What would they have done if someone had tempted them to cut trees and sell them in the markets? (Textbook Page No. 56)
Answer:
a) It is possible. In present society many people are cultivating fruits and vegetables. They are protecting their gardens by selling the fruits and vegetables.
b) They definitely oppose and reject the suggestion. For ex: All their festivals are related to trees. Mamidi panduga, Gongura panduga, Mutyalamma panduga etc. They may cut a branch or some else but not the trees. They don’t cut their home.

Question 22.
List all the causes for the decline of forests in the last 200 years. Do you think Poducultivation was also responsible for this? Give your arguments. (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
Causes for decline of forests :

1. Agriculture
2. Cattle rearing
3. Mega projects
4. Fires
5. Logging
6. Mangroves and shrimp farming
7. Mining, oil and gas

We can say that ‘Podu’ is also one of the reasons. The tribals left their traditional food, and depended on crops. So the land in forests is changed as agriculture land.

Question 23.
Why do you think the tribal people were not able to pay the land revenue demanded by the government? (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
By one stroke of the government the tribal people were rendered homeless in their own homes. The government handed over these lands to zamindars and cultivators. The evicted tribal people had to work for these landlords. On the lands which the tribal people were to cultivate, they had to pay very high revenue. They had no habit or chance of saving money. So they were not able to pay the taxes.

Question 24.
Why do you think the government thought that forest was not important for tribal people’s development? (Textbook Page No. 60)
Answer:
I think that the government had lost its foresight and thought that forest was not important for tribal people’s development.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 10 Natural Resources.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 10th Lesson Our Environment

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Recently a new programme was launched in our state known as “Vanam – Manain”. Prepare any two slogans to promote the programme.
Answer:
a) Save forest, forest will save you.
b) Grow the plants and get the fresh air.

Question 2.
Suggest any two practices suitable to farmers with less water resources.
Answer:

1. Construction of percolation tanks (or) Soak pits
2. Irrigation techniques like drip irrigation and usage of sprinklers.

Question 3.
Why should we conserve forests? Give two reasons.
Answer:
a) Forests serve as lungs for the world. They purify the air and protect the earth from greenhouse effect and global warming,
b) Forests are rich habitats for plants

Question 4.
Ravi observed symbol on the plastic water bottle purchased by him. What does this symbol indicate? and animals.
Answer:
The symbol on the plastic bottle indicates that the bottle is made from recycled plastic and after its use it can be recycled.

Question 5.
Write any two suggestions for the conservation of biodiversity at your village.
Answer:

1. Protecting and preserving the natural habitats of birds and animals.
2. Replace the wood products with alternative sources.
3. Using Recycled products and following the 4’R Principle in day to day life.

Question 6.
Suggest any two activities to check soil erosion in your school.
Answer:

1. Observe the school ground after the rain.
2. Conduct a field project on soil erosion.

Question 7.
To create awareness on “Water conservation” in your locality, what slogan you will suggest?
Prepare two slogans on ‘Save Water’ propaganda.
Answer:
“Don’t Waste Water”.
“Save every drop”.
“Water is life”.

Question 8.
The symbol is there on the item you bought. What it instructs? (OR)
What does the given logo indicate? What does it mean?

Answer:
It is the Recycle logo. It indicates that the item we bought is prepared from recycled materials or the item can be recycled after use.

Question 9.
What happens if the forest area decreases rapidly?
Answer:
If the forest area decreases

1. It destroys wildlife habitat.
2. It increases soil erosion.
3. It releases green house gases into the atmosphere contributing to global warming.
4. It also harms people who relay on forest for their survival, hunting and gathering, harvesting forest products or using timber and firewood.

Question 10.
Write two activities which you are performing to save electricity.
(OR)
Write any two measures vou take in your home to reduce the consumption of electricity.
Answer:

1. We can reduce the consumption of electricity by putting off the fans and lights when there is no need.
2. We can use LED (Lighting Emitting Device) bulbs to save electricity.
3. To shut down laptops and computers when they are not in use.

Question 11.
Prepare two slogans on protecting non-renewable resources.
Answer:

1. Use Biofuel – Reduce Fossil Fuel.
2. Use alternative resources – Save the environment.

Question 12.
Write two examples for non-renewable resources.
Answer:
Examples for non-renewable resources are coal, petroleum and natural gas.

Question 13.
What is sustainable development? Is it needful for us?
Answer:
When we use the environment In ways that ensure we have resources for the future, It Is called sustainable development. It Is needed because development and conservation can coexist In harmony.

Question 14.
What are examples for natural resources?
Answer:
Examples for natural resources are water, soil, forests, flora, fauna, etc.

Question 15.
What are percolation tanks?
Answer:
Percolation tanks are normally earthen dams with masonry structures where water may overflow.

Question 16.
What are Kharif crops?
Answer:
Crops grown In the rainy season are termed as Kharif crops, e.g: Paddy, maize, millet and cotton crops.

Question 17.
What are Rabi crops?
Answer:
The crops that are grown only in winter season are generally called Rabi crops, e.g.: Wheat, Gram and Mustard.

Question 18.
What is the average fall of ground water level in Andhra Pradesh state during the period of 1998 – 2002?
Answer:
The average fall of ground water level In Andhra Pradesh state during the period of 1998 – 2002 Is 3 meters.

Question 19.
Which agency in villages of Warangal district helped in recharging wells that were being dried up?
Answer:
Centre for water solidarity (Secundrabad, T.S.) helped In recharging wells that were drying up In the villages.

Question 20.
Give examples for micro irrigation techniques.
Answer:
Drip irrigation, sprinklers are the examples for micro irrigation techniques.

Question 21.
Mow did the boundaries between the villages were fixed in ancient times?
Answer:
In ancient times village boundaries were decided upon a water shed (Land between water sources usually of two rivers or streams) basis fixed at the common point of the drainage system In between two villages by the expert farmers In the village.

Question 22.
Expand ICRISAT.
Answer:
International Crop Research Institute for Semi-Arid Tropics.

Question 23.
What is the other name for Sri Rama Sagar Project?
Answer:
Sri Rama Sagar Project also known as the Pochampadu project on the Godavari river,

Question 24.
What is the use qf planting Gliricidia on field bunds?
Answer:
Planting Gliricidia on field bunds help In strengthen them and make the soli nitrogen-rich.

Question 25.
What is the micro irrigation system that can reduce water consumption by 70%?
Answer:
Drip irrigation can reduce water consumption by 70%.

Question 26.
Who predicted that by 2025, 1.8 billion people will be living in countries or regions with absolute water scarcity ?
Answer:
The Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) of the united nations has predicted that by 2025, 1.8 billion people will be living in countries or regions with absolute water scarcity.

Question 27.
What happens if we use resources wisely?
Answer:
If resources are used wisely and efficiently they will last much longer. Through conservation people can reduce waste and manage natural resources wisely.

Question 28.
Give an example of country where restrictions on water usage were imposed.
Answer:
In Australia restrictions were imposed on activities like, watering lawns by using sprinkler systems, washing vehicles, using house pipes to clean paved areas, and refilling swimming pools.

Question 29.
Why are the natural resources used up quickly?
Answer:
The population of human beings has grown enormously in the past two centuries. Billions of people use up resources quickly as they eat food, build houses, produce goods and burn fuel for transportation and electricity.

Question 30.
What happens if we damage a forest resource?
Answer:
Harm to animals that may be forced to find new habitats. If we damage a forest resource indiscriminately the depletion of resources occur and we may have to face problem for water and timber in future.

Question 31.
What are the results of deforestation?
Answer:
Deforestation destroys wild life habitats and increases soil erosion and also releases green house gases into atmosphere, contributing to global warming.

Question 32.
How the people in China and Mexico recycle paper? (OR)
Give an example of recycling paper by the people. What is the use of recycling paper?
Answer:
People in China and Mexico reuse much of their waste paper, including writing paper, wrapping paper and card board.

Question 33.
How the soil is important for us ? How the soil is importane for us?
Answer:
Soil is vital to food production and also important to plants that grow in the wild.

Question 34.
What are the reasons for depletion of nutrients in soil?
Answer:
Poor farming methods, such as repeatedly planting the same type of crop in the same place cause depletion of nutrients in the soil.

Question 35.
What is biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity is the variety of living things that populate the Earth.

Question 36.
How are people speeding up the loss of biodiversity?
Answer:
Through hunting, pollution, habitat destruction, people are speeding up the loss of biodiversity.

Question 37.
How many plant species are being used by us for medicines world wide?
Answer:
We use between 50,000 to 70,000 plant species for medicines world wide.

Question 38.
What is selective harvesting?
Answer:
The practice or removing individual plants or small groups of plants leaving other plants standing to anchor the soil is called selective harvesting.

Question 39.
How are fossil fuels produced?
Answer:
The fuels that are produced from the remains of ancient plants and animals are called fossil fuels. They include coal, petroleum and natural gas.

Question 40.
What are the alternate sources of energy?
Answer:
The alternate sources of energy are sun, wind and water.

Question 41.
What are the other products made from petroleum?
Answer:
Plastic, synthetic, rubber, fabrics like nylon, medicines, cosmetics, waxes, cleaning products, medical devices, etc., are the other products made from petroleum.

Question 42.
Which plant’s seeds are used for the production of bio-fuel?
Answer:
Seeds from the Jatropa Curcas plant are used for the production of bio-fuel.

Question 43.
How does the mining method, Mountain Top Removal mining (MTR) devastate the environment?
Answer:
The mining method Mountain Top Removal mining devastate the environment. They destroy soil, plants and animal habitats.

Question 44.
In which country car manufacturers recycle many raw materials used in making automobiles?
Answer:
In Japan car manufacturers recycle many raw materials used in making automobiles.

Question 45.
In which country nearly one third of the iron produced comes from recycled automobiles?
A. In the United States, nearly one-third of the iron produced comes from recycled automobiles.

Question 46.
What does the Indian tradition teach us?
Answer:
The Indian tradition teaches us that all forms of life – human, animal and plant are so closely inter linked that disturbance of one gives rise to imbalance in the other.

Question 47.
Expand IUCN.
Answer:
IUCN stands for International Union for the Conservation of Nature.

Question 48.
How is IUCN planning to protect wild life and habitats?
Answer:
IUCN monitors the status of endangered wild life, threatened national parks and preserves.

Question 49.
What are the four R’s to save the environment?
Answer:
Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, Recover are the four R’s to save the environment.

Question 50.
How did Amritha Devi and her daughters protest against the king’s order?
Answer:

1. Amritha Devi and her daughters, followed by villagers, who clung to trees in the forest surrounding their village and laid down their lives to save them.
2. They protested against the king’s order to collect wood for the construction of his palace.

Question 51.
Write a method of soil conservation.
Answer:
One soil conservating method is called contour strip cropping. Several crops such as corn, wheat and clover are planted to alternating strips across a slope or across the path of the prevailing wind.

Question 52.
What is the rate of extinction by the estimation of the scientists?
Answer:

1. Scientists estimate that the current rate of extinction is 1,000 times the natural rate through hunting, pollution, habitat destruction.
2. Based on various estimates of the number of species on Earth, we could be losing anywhere from 200 to 1,00,000 species each year.

Question 53.
What is the need to protect biodiversity?
Answer:
We need to protect biodiversity to ensure plentiful and varied food sources. Biodiversity is important for more than just food because many plant species are being used for medicines.

Question 54.
Mention two ways in which water harvesting can be undertaken?
Answer:
The two ways by which water harvesting can be undertaken are

1. Capturing run off water from, rooftops.
2. Capturing run off water from local catchments.

Question 55.
On the basis of the issues raised in the chapter management of natural resources, what changes you in corporate in your lifestyle in a move towards a sustainable use of our resources?
Answer:
I would incorporate the maximum of four R’s i.e., reduce, recycle, reuse and recover in my lifestyle in a move towards a sustainable use of our resources.

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Rahul remarked that different human activities are responsible for global warming.
What might be the reasons for his statement?
Answer:

1. Deforestation.
2. Industrialisation and urbanization.
3. Conversion of agriculture lands into residential areas.
4. Home appliances like A/C, refrigerators, vehicle pollution.
5. Population explosion.

Question 2.
What steps do you take to improve natural resources?
Answer:

1. Motivate the people to conserve water.
2. Try to avoid wastage of water whenever possible.
3. Plantation in the vacant lands.
4. Educating the farmer regarding proper utilization of water for irrigation.
5. Encourage the people to recycle the water wherever possible.

Question 3.
Proper utilisation of natural resources is the way to show gratitude to our nation.
Can you support this statement? Give your argument.
Answer:

1. Natural resources of a nation influence its economical and social development.
2. Natural resources are freely available in nature and help in many activities and development of people.
3. The generation of natural resources take a lot of time.
4. They disappear by indiscriminate usage.
5. So proper utilization of natural resources is the way to show gratitude to our nation.

Question 4.
The humans are utilising natural resources indiscriminately. These resources are decreasing more rapidly. Guess what will be the consequences in future?
Answer:
Indiscriminate usage of natural resources causes the following consequences.

1. Reduction in rainfall
2. Drought will occur.
3. Atmospheric temperature becomes increase.
4. The rare species become extinct.

Question 5.
Write any four slogans on the conservation of natural resources.
Answer:
Slogans:

1. Waste water today – live in desert tomorrow
2. Practice eco-friendly methods.
3. Use natural resources judiciously.
4. Save nature – Save future.

Question 6.
There is an increase in the atmospheric temperature year by year. If it continues, guess and write what would be the consequences?
Answer:
If the temperature on earth increases, the consequences would be as follows.
a) All the glaciers and the frozen ice in the polar region start melting leading to rise in the sea water levels.
b) It results in the submergence of low lying coastal areas throughout the world. Millions of people of those areas would lost their homes.
c) Changes in rainfall patterns take place and it result in the occurance of droughts and decrease in crop production.
d) Global warming results in climate change which cause the breakout of climatic sensitive diseases like Malaria, Dengue, Diarrhoea, etc.

Question 7.
There is water scarcity in Ravi’s village during summer. He wants to conduct a rally to create awareness regarding conservation of water. Write any four slogans required to conduct this rally.
Answer:

1. Water is life.
2. Save water – Save a life.
3. Today’s rain water is tomorrow’s life saver.
4. No matter your occupation, water conservation is your obligation.

Question 8.
What steps you take to conserve the biofuels in your daily life?
Answer:

1. Development and usage of alternative energy resources in place of bio-fuels.
2. Minimise the usage of bio-fuels whenever possible.
3. Use public transport, ride by bicycle and walking regularly.
4. Use and purchase energy efficient appliances to save bio-fuels.

Question 9.
Why do we use fossil fuels judiciously?
Answer:

1. Fossil fuels were produced from the remains of ancient plants and animals.
2. They include coal, petroleum (oil) and natural gas.
3. We need to use fossil fuels judiciously because they are non – renewable resources.
4. We need to conserve fossil fuels so we don’t run out of them.
5. The pollution caused by them when burnt, to limit our fossil fuel use.
6. Future generations may not get these resources.
7. Balance in the nature will be disturbed.
8. Electricity production will be stopped.
9. Vehicles running with fossil fuels become useless.

Question 10.
Write two suggestions to create awareness on groundwater conservation.
Answer:

1. We need to adapt different methods to Improve the quality and increase the quantity of groundwater.
2. We should dig water harvesting pits for every house.
3. We should clean the silt, mud fill in tanks and ponds.
4. We should prohibit the establishment of borewells for extraction of groundwater for agricultural and Industrial use.
5. These measures will improve quality and quantity of groundwater.

Question 11.
What is the importance of 4R’s in achieving the goal of “Swachh Bharat”?
Answer:

1. Reduce the production of garbage.
2. Reuse the garbage for the production of manure and electricity.
3. Recycle the garbage by separating It as dry and wet garbage.
4. Recover the plants.

Question 12.
Suggest four measures to conserve fossil fuels.
Answer:
Measures to conserve fossil fuels:

1. Usage of alternatives to fossil fuel.
2. Minimise the usage of fossil fuel.
3. Walk, ride by bicycle and use public transportation whenever possible.
4. Purchase energy efficient appliances.
5. Turn off light and other electronics when you are not using them.

Question 13.
The indiscriminate digging of Borewells may result in what type of consequences in future?
Answer:

1. Due to over drilling of borewells and pulling out water by electric motors, the ground water level Is decreasing day by day.
2. It Is goes on without recharging, ground water becomes scarce.
3. It shows impact on agriculture and the productivity will decrease.
4. Fluorine levels In ground water will increase.
5. Sometimes, saline water may intrude Into the interior places of land and water becomes unfit for consumption.
6. Farmers have to drill the bore wells to more depths which Increase the losses for them.

Question 14.
Ramaiah made broad bed furrow around his field under employment guarantee scheme. Guess the reasons for if. If all the farmers of your village work together, will their water scarcity meet?
Answer:
The reason for Ramaiah making broad bed furrow around his field was, it is useful to conserve soil and water, fertilizer application weeding operations. It also conserves rain water.

The farmers are over coming the water scarcity by sharing water available in the village. They formed groups of farmer including large and small ones who would use the same water resource. Farmers were also motivated to use irrigation techniques like drip irrigation.

Question 15.
What are renewable sources and non-renewable resources?
Answer:
Renewable resources: Resources that can be replaced after they are used are called renewable resources.
Ex: Air, water and soil.
Non-renewable resources: Some other resources, cannot be replaced at all: Once they are used up they are gone forever and are called non renewable resources.
Ex: Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas (fossil fuels).

Question 16.
How do people waste natural resources?
Answer:

1. People often waste natural resources.
2. Animals are over hunted, forests are cleared, exposing land to wind and water damage.
3. Fertile soil is exhausted and lost to erosion because of poor farming practices.
4. Fuel supplies are depleted.
5. Water and air are polluted.
6. Water resources is indiscriminately used for crop growth.

Question 17.
How do people use the forest resources differently?
Answer:

1. The need to conserve resources often conflicts with other needs.
2. For some people, a forest area may be a good place to put a farm.
3. A timber company may want to harvest the area’s trees for construction materials.
4. A business company may want to build a factory or a shopping mall on the land.

Question 18.
What are die effects of deforestation?
Answer:

1. Deforestation destroys wild life habitats and increases soil erosion.
2. It also releases green house gases into the atmosphere, contributing to global warming,
3. Deforestation accounts for 15 per cent of the world’s green house gas emissions.
4. Deforestation also harms the people who rely on forests for their survival, hunting and gathering, harvesting forest products, or using the timber for firewood.

Question 19.
In your opinion What are the causes for soil erosion?
Answer:

1. Soil erosion is caused by poor farming methods such as repeatedly planting the same type of crop in the same place.
2. These methods deplete nutrients in the soil.
3. Soil erosion Is also caused by water and wind currents.
4. When farmers plough up and down hills, soil erosion occurs.
5. Overgrazing by cattle also causes soil erosion.
6. Natural floods causes the extensive damage to the top layer of the soil.

Question 20.
What is Biodiversity? Explain.
(OR)
What is the importance of biodiversity?
Answer:

1. Biodiversity is the variety of living things that populate the earth.
2. The products and benefits we get from nature rely on biodiversity.
3. We need to protect biodiversity to ensure plentiful and varied food sources.
4. Biodiversity is important for more than just food. For instance we use between 50,000 to 70,000 plant species for medicines world wide.

Question 21.
How can we use the fossil fuels carefully?
Answer:
We can use the fossil fuels carefully by taking the following measures.

1. Turn off lights and other electronics when we are not using them.
2. Purchase energy-efficient appliances.
3. Walk, ride a bicycle, if the distance is less.
4. Use public transportation whenever possible.
5. It is better to prefer public transport system like bus or train, instead of travel in personal vehicles.

Question 22.
Why the prices of aluminium and iron are expensive?
Answer:
Earth’s supply of raw material resources is in danger. Many mineral deposits that have been located and mapped have been depleted. As the ores for minerals like aluminium and iron become harder to find and extract, their prices go up.
This makes tools and machinery more expensive to purchase and operate.

Question 23.
What are the effects of mining?
Answer:

1. Many mining methods such as Mountain Top Removal mining (MTR) devastate the environment.
2. They destroy soil, plants and animal habitats.
3. Many mining methods also pollute water and air, as toxic chemicals leak into the surrounding ecosystem.

Question 24.
What did Smt. Indira Gandhi said, while launching the world conservation strategy in India on 6th March 1980?
Answer:
“The interest in conservation is not a sentimental one but the discovery of a truth well known to our ancient stages. The Indian tradition teaches us that all forms of life- human, animal and plant – are so closely inter-linked that disturbance in one gives rise to imbalance in the other” said by Smt. Indira Gandhi.

Question 25.
What are the steps taken by the government to conserve resources?
Answer:

1. Government enacts laws defining how land should be used and which areas should be set aside as parks and wild life preserves.
2. The government enforces laws designed to protect the environment from pollution, such as requiring factories to install pollution control devices and also provide incentives for conserving resources.

Question 26.
What is the necessity of sustainable management of natural resources? Out of the two methods reuse and recycle which one would you suggest to practice and why?
Answer:

1. Sustainable management of natural resources is necessary to Increase the over all life of natural resources specially non renewable resources and also to control the environmental pollution.
2. Both reuse and recycle are the good choice.
3. Reuse: If we reuse something then the cost of recycle will be saved.
4. Recycle: It is not necessary that each and everything can be reused, so after getting recycled the life of the resource will be enhanced.

Question 27.
“Burning fossil fuels is a cause of global warming”. Justify this statement?
Answer:

1. Fossil fuels are composed of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and sulphur.
2. When these are burnt they produce CO₂, H₂O, Oxides of Nitrogen and Sulphur.
3. Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels produces green house gases such as CO₂,
4. If huge amount of fossil fuels are burnt, It would produce high amount of CO₂ resulting intense global warming.

Question 28.
Can you suggest some changes in your school which would make it environment friendly?
Answer:
The changes that would make my school environment friendly are

1. Save energy by turning off lights that we are not using.
2. I will suggest to buy recycled paper for decoration and other purposes.
3. Use writing paper on both the sides.
4. Growing trees and plants all around the play ground.

Question 29.
What is the necessity of replenishment of forest? State four reasons.
Answer:
The replenishment of forest is necessary because of the following reasons.

1. It is used to conserve soil.
2. It provides shelter to wild animals.
3. It reduces atmospheric pollution.
4. It controls flood and increases frequency of rainfall.

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Forest is renewable resource. But, each year, the Earth loses about 36 million acres of forest. In this type of situation, what suggestions do you give to save forests from turning into non-renewable resources ?
Answer:

1. Forests are the lungs of the world. So I will suggest the following measures to save forests from turning into non-renewable resources.
2. Sustainable forestry practices for ensuing resources into the future.
3. Low impact logging practices, harvesting with natural regeneration in mind. Prevention of removing all the high value trees or all the largest trees from the forests. Recycling methods should be adopted.
4. Replace wood products with alternative sources.
5. Preventing forest fires.
6. Implementing methods like agro forestry, social forestry crop rotation, green plantation, etc. are essential.

Question 2.
What are four R’s? Explain how they help to conserve the environment?
(OR)
Write about the 4 ‘R’s needed for the protection and conservation of environment.
Answer:
By pursuing the maximum of four R’s i.e., Reduce, Reuse, Recycle and Recover, we can save the environment in an effective way.

1. Reduce : It means to use less, I would save electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and fans, prefer walking or cycling than using a vechicle, turn off the engine of car at red light, repair leaky taps and would not waste food.
2. Recycle: It means to collect used things like plastic, paper, galss and metal items and recycle these materials to make required things instead of synthesising or extracting fresh plastic, paper, glass or metal.
3. Reuse: It refers to use things again and again. For example instead of throwing away used envelops, they can be used by pasting new labels.
4. Recover: We should implement ‘recover’ to prevent environmental threat. For example when we cut trees to construct industries or roads for transportation, it is important to grow trees in another areas.

Question 3.
What steps you would like to follow on your part to conserve bio-diversity?
Answer:

1. Biodiversity is the variety of living things that populate the earth.
2. To conserve biodiversity we should avoid hunting.
3. Sustainable forest conservation methods should be followed.
4. I will actively participate Vana Mahosthavam programmes.
5. I will educate and encourage people and make them participate in conservation programmes.
6. Create awareness programmes in and around school.
7. Writing slogans and also make some posters about conservation of biodiversity
8. Judicious use of electricity wherever possible.
9. Finding out of various alternative sources of energy.
10. Plant the saplings in the habitat.
11. Encouraging of social forestry.

Question 4.
Observe the pie diagram showing water resources available in our state for agriculture and answer the given questions.
A) Which water resource is using more for agriculture?
B) What are the consequences of excess utilization of underground water?
C) Which water resource should be utilized for agriculture?
D) What are the alternative ways to increase the underground water resources?

Answer:
A) Ground water.
B) Underground water table will be depleted and scarcity of drinking water will arise.
C)

1. Tanks should be constructed to harvest with rain water.
2. Projects should be constructed across the rivers to store water that can be utilized for agriculture.

D)

1. Construction of rain water storage structures on large scale.
2. Constructing soaking or percolation pits.
3. Contour field bunding.
4. Recharge of wells by building dykes or barriers in the nalla.
5. Plantation in waste lands.
6. Adapting micro irrigation techniques.
   (Any two points you can write)

Question 5.
Forests are renewable resource. Write four sentences supporting this.
(OR)
“Forest is a renewable resource”. Do you agree? Justify.
Answer:

1. Forests are rich habitat for plants and animals. Forests serve as lungs for the world and a bed of nutrients for new fife to prosper.
2. Forest’s pure air protects the earth from green house effect by removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and converts it into oxygen.
3. Many fruits, medicines, dyes, sandle wood and bamboo is obtained from forest by local people.
4. Forest provide employment to large number of people and also help in generating revenue.

Question 6.
Observe the above table and answer the following questions.

Village	Type of Farmer	Income per acre on Crops
		Paddy	Cotton	Mirchi	Maize
A	Small	7,500	9,300	5,200	5,000
	Large	26,700	38,000	16,700	12,900
B	Small	7,200	8,750	4,900	5,100
	Large	32,900	42,000	18,400	13,700′

1. Which crop is most suitable to cultivate for small farmer in both the villages?
Answer:
Cotton, paddy

2. If you are a large farmer, which crop do you select to cultivate?
Answer:
Cotton, paddy, mirchi

3. What similarities you have identified in village A and village B?
Answer:
Small and large fanners cultivated same type of crop in both villages. Large farmer gets more income per acre on crops than small farmer in both the villages.

4. Which is the lowest income crop ?
Answer:
Mirchi.

5. Is there any relationship between production of crops and income ? How ?
Answer:
Commercial crops are good for income. Income may or may not related to production of crop. It depends upon demand of the market.

Question 7.
Read the given information and answer the following questions.

A survey was conducted in two villages, Vanaparthy and Vaddicherla of Warangal district in Telangana State. The first with no scarcity and the second with scarce groundwater. Well census was carried out in the villages in order to get a complete picture of well irrigation and its status as well as availability of water. There are no alternative sources of supply as against wells in Vaddicherla, where there is an existing tank that has been converted into a percolation tank, so that the water situation is much better in Vanaparthy.

i) Why did they conduct survey?
Answer:
A compartive study on available water resources irigation method in the Vaddicharla and Wanaparthi of Warangal Dist of Telangana State.

ii) What are irrigation resources in Telangana State?
Answer:
Lakes, wells, canals and ground water etc…,

iii) In which village, do you suggest drip irrigation?
Answer:
Vaddicherla.

iv) Why the water situation is much better in Vanaparthy village compared to Vaddicherla?
Answer:
Existing tank has been converted into a percolation tank.

Question 8.
Observe the Pie diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Identify the fossil fuels from the above diagram.
Answer:
Coal, natural gas, oils are fossil fuels.

ii) Why wastes should be considered as primary energy source in future?
Answer:
The fossil fuels may be exhausted in future. So we may be considered that wastes are primary alternative energy resources.

iii) Why can’t we depend on fossil fuels forever?
Answer:
We can’t depend on fossil fuels forever because fossil fuels are non-renewable resources.

iv) What are the alternatives for fossil fuels?
Answer:
Solar energy, wind energy, tide energy, nuclear energy, energy from waste materials.

Question 9.
Explain the importance and implementation of community based interventions and farmer based interventions for water management.
Answer:
Community based interventions:

1. For water harvesting, there is an urgent need to construct earthen and masonry dams. They help us to store rain water during rainy seasons. They are help in increasing the ground water table.
2. Construction of percolation pits and field bunding are very helpful in the harvesting every rain drop.
3. Open dry wells near nalla canal were recharged by building dykes or barriers in the nalla and maintaining the run – off rain water. The ground water is recharged by these community based interventions.
   Farmer based interventions:
4. Broad Bed Furrow (BBF) land form and contour planting methods are very useful to conserve soil, water and fertilizer application and weeding operations.
5. Planting Gliricidia, a leguminous plant adapted to grow in dry areas on field bunds to strengthen them and make the soil nitrogen rich.
6. Farmers were encouraged to use water resource jointly and irrigate land using micro irrigation methods like sprinklers and drip irrigation.

Question 10.
Explain the farmer based and community based interventions to conserve soil and water resources.
Answer:

Water Management	Collected information
Farmer based water management	1. Farmer based water management implemented individual fields were Broad Bed Furrow (BBF) land form and Contour Planting to conserve in situ soil and water. 2. Use of tropiculator for planting, fertilizer appli­cation and weeding operations. Planting Gliricidia on field bunds to strengthen bunds conserve rain water and supply nitrogen rich organic matter for in situ application to crops. 3. Farmers will obtain 250 kg more pigeon pea and 50 kg more maize per hectare using broad bed furrows and micro irrigation techniques.
Community based water management	1. Fourteen water storage structures (one earthen and 13 masonry dams) with water storage capac­ity of 300 to 2000 m3 were to be constructed in Kothapally village of Rangareddy district. 2. More than 250 rain harvesting structures such as checkdams mini percolation pits, sunken pits and gully plugs were erected in watershed throughout the topo – sequence. 3. Farmers were encouraged for water sharing methods. They formed groups of farmers including large and small ones who would use the same water resource. 4. Farmers have to motivated to use irrigation techni- quies like drip irrigation, sprinklers, etc. 5. Construction of soak pits will help to tap rain water optimally should carry out as community effort.

Question 11.
“The humans who were developed by using the natural resources, today has become the reason for destroying them”. Explain analytically.
Answer:
“The humans who were developed by using the natural resources, today has become the reason for destroying them” – This statement is absolutely true.

1. Primitive man lived in forests and hills. He used the natural resources for his livelyhood. He worshipped nature and used them wisely for his development.
2. After his development, he becomes greedy and using the natural resources indiscriminately and held responsible for their destruction.
3. To meet the needs of growing population, industrialization, urbanization, and huge constructive activities, man utilised natural resources Indiscriminately. At the same time, he did not planned for their revival.
4. But now he realised the importance of natural resources and taken up steps for their conservation. The concept of “Sustainable development” is being implemented in natural resource management.
5. He focussed on development of alternatives for fossil fuels, conservation of water and soil at community level and farmer based interventions.
6. Now he is so keen on conserving forests, wild life and biodiversity.
7. He is so cautious in minimising the utilization of natural resources by following 4’R principle in the day to day life [R – Reduce, R – Reuse, R – Recycle, R – Recover]
8. Now, he is adopting micro-irrigation methods like sprinklers and drip Irrigation to minimise the water usage in low water available areas.
9. He is very interested in following eco-friendly techniques, natural farming methods, using biofertilizers, vermicompost and natural pest control methods in place of toxic chemical pesticides.

Question 12.
The wells and tanks in your village become dry. Ground water levels decreased. Assume the causes for this. Will there be no water scarcity if all the farmers of your village work collectively?
Answer:
Causes for decreasing ground water levels:

1. Varying monsoon behaviour in recent years, there is a pressure on ground water utilization.
2. Indiscriminate tapping of ground water in our village by too much drilling and construction of deep tube wells and bore wells have resulted in over exploitation and depletion of ground water resources.
3. There will be no water scarcity if all the farmers of our village work collectively. Farmers in our village were encouraged to use water resource jointly and irrigate land using micro irrigation techniques. By using micro irrigation techniques farmers in our village obtained more crop yield. Farmers in our village follow the micro irrigation method i.e. drip irrigation and can reduce water consumption by 70% in our village.

Question 13.
Whom do you meet to collect the information of the methods of farmer based, community based water management? Prepare information table to note down your observation.
Answer:
I will meet officials of International Crop Research Institute for Semi – Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) located at Hyderabad to collect information of the methods of farmer based and community based water management.
I also collect information from Central Research Institute for Dry Land Agriculture (CRIDA), National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA), District Water Management Agency (DWMA) and M Venkatarangaiah Foundation (MVF) and NGO.
The information I gathered from these institutions is summarised below.
Information table:
For Information table See Q.No. 10 in 4 Marks.

Question 14.
Think that there is much scarcity of water for drinking and cultivation in your village. What advice do you give to prevent this?
(OR)
How do you overcome the problem of water scarcity in your village?
Answer:

1. Motivate the people to conserve water.
2. I will educate the people to avoid wastage of water whenever possible.
3. Construction of recharge pits in the house, school and in the open areas to increase the underground water level.
4. Planting trees wherever possible in the village particularly in the vacant lands.
5. Educate the farmers about the micro irrigation system like drip irrigation, sprin¬klers, etc.
6. Encourage the farmers to form groups to share available water among themselves.
7. Construction of percolation tanks in the low lying areas of the village.

Question 15.
What type of fossil fuels are used in your house? What measures do you take to conserve them?
Answer:
Fossil fuels are sources of energy for cooking, heating and burning in our households. Petrol and diesel are being used in our house for transport and running generators and water pumps.
Measures to be taken to conserve fossil fuels in my house :

1. I will put the food material to be cooked on the stove only after arranging all the things which are necessary for cooking.
2. By using pressure cookers 20% gas on rice and 41.5% on meat would be saved when compared to Other cooking means.
3. We must reduce the flame as soon as the boiling process starts in a pressure cooker. This process saves nearly 35% of fuel.
4. I will soak the food material before cooking. It saves 22% of fuel.
5. I will cook food in broad and low depth vessel.
6. I will keep lid on the cooking vessel. If not, it takes more time to cook.
7. For short distances to travel I will go by walk to save fuel for longer distance. I use public transport.
8. Encourage people to use solar water heater and solar cooker.