Class 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 The People.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 6th Lesson The People

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is sex-ratio calculated?
Answer:
Sex ratio can be calculated with the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

Question 2.
As 2011 Census, the population has increased to 121 crores approximately in India. Write any two reasons for it.
Answer:

1. Early marriages.
2. Illiteracy.
3. Superstitions.
4. Advancement in Medical Science.

Question 3.
Give the main reason for decreasing the death rate during the last decade in India.
Answer:

1. Decline in the death rate is due to effective control of dreadful epidemic diseases through the advancement of medical technology and the health-care delivery system.
2. Spread of education, development of science and technology and effective use of the resources have given greater scope and prospects for sustainability.

Question 4.
Observe the following table and answer the questions a, b, c and d.

Male, Female Literacy rate in India.

Year	Female Literacy	Male Literacy	Literacy rate
1961	15.35%	40.45%	28.30%
1971	21.97%	45.96%	34.45%
1981	29.76%	56.38%	43.57%
1991	39.29%	63.13%	52.21%
2001	54.67%	75.26%	64.84%
2011	65.46%	82.14%	74.04%

(a) By what percentage is male literacy more than that of female in 2011?
Answer:
Male literacy is more than that of female in 2011 is 16.68%.

(b) What information does the above table give us?
Answer:
The above table gives us the information about male and female literacy rate in India during 1961 – 2011.

(c) In which period is the literacy rate increased more?
Answer:
The literacy rate increased more during the period 1991 – 2001.

(d) How do you understand female literacy?
Answer:

1. When compared with male literacy, female literacy rate is low.
2. In 1961 female literacy is very low. But it is an increasing level. During 1991 – 2001 female literacy is highly increased.

Question 5.
Observe the given bar graph and answer the questions.

(a) What does the above graph tell about?
Answer:
The above graph tells about India Population – Sex Ratio (1951 – 2011).

(b) What does the change in sex ratio show when compared with 1991 year to that of 2011 year ?
Answer:
The sex ratio is increased (929 to 940)

(c) What do you mean by sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

(d) Mention the reason behind the low female population in India.
Answer:

1. Gender discrimination
2. Illiteracy
3. Lack of Medical facilities
4. Not providing nutritious food.
5. Parental attitude

Question 6.
What processes influence the change in population size?
Answer:
The processes that influence the change in population size are

1. births
2. deaths
3. migrations

Question 7.
Observe the following table and answer questions a and b.
Census 2011 – Data related to literacy rate in Kerala and Bihar

Rank	State	Literacy rate	Male literacy rate	Female literacy rate
1	Kerala	94%	96%	92%
2	Bihar	64%	73%	53%

(a) What is table about?
Answer:
The table is about literary rate in Kerala and Bihar considering census 2011.

(b) Mention one reason for low literacy rate among the women.
Answer:
Reasons for low literacy rate among the women:

• Following traditions and conventions
• Less priority to girl education

Question 8.
How much percent of the working people in India are in the unorganised sector?
Answer:
Ninety-two percent of the working people in India are in the unorganised sector.

Question 9.
What is important regarding population study?
Answer:
It is important to understand population numbers, its distribution and characteristics that provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating the other aspects.

Question 10.
What does the Census of India provide?
Answer:
The Census of India provides us with infor-mation regarding the population of our country.

Question 11.
What is a census?
Answer:
A census is a procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population.

Question 12.
Who collects the census?
Answer:
A central government institution, the Census of India, organizes the collection and record¬ing of this information.

Question 13.
What does the age structure of a population refer to?
Answer:
The age structure of a population refers to the number of males and females in different age groups in a country.

Question 14.
How can we group the population of a nation?
Answer:
The population of a nation is generally grouped into three broad categories:

1. Children (Below 15 years),
2. Working-age (15-59 years),
3. Aged (Above 59 years)

Question 15.
Who gets retirement pension?
Answer:
Those who work and retire in organised sector may get retirement pension.

Question 16.
What is sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

Question 17.
What does the sex ratio indicate?
Answer:
The sex ratio indicates a hidden form of discrimination.

Question 18.
What does medical research show?
Answer:
Medical research shows that given similar circumstances girl children survive much better than boys.

Question 19.
What does the census show regarding child births? Give reasons for that.
Answer:
The census shows that in the age group 0-5, the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys. This can only happen if there is some discrimination in their care and nutrition otherwise the physical chance of survival is better for girls.

Question 20.
Which tend towards unequal sex ratios? Give reason for that.
Answer:
Regions that have unequal gender relations that favour the males and discriminate against the females tend towards unequal sex ratios. This can happen even though they have high incomes.

Question 21.
Give an example of the state which has positive sex ratio.
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 22.
What are the reasons for female foetus infanticide?
Answer:
Due to the preference for male children parents may decide to abort female child before birth. Many adults consider female children as a burden.

Question 23.
Write about women’s education.
Answer:
Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women. There is definitive evidence that women’s literacy and schooling reduce child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.

Question 24.
Who is treated as literate?
Answer:
According to the Census of 2011, a person aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.

Question 25.
What is literacy?
Answer:
Literacy: Literacy is key for socio-economic progress.

Question 26.
Write an account of literacy rate.
Answer:
At independence in 1947,12% of the population was literate. In 2001, it was 64.84%.lt grew to 74.04% by 2011. However, the 2011 Census shows that there is a wide disparity in literacy rates for men (82.14%) and women (65.46%).

Question 27.
Write the equation of population change.
Answer:
Population change (absolute numbers) = (Population at later date) – (Population at earlier date)

Question 28.
Write the equation of population change in a place.
Answer:
Population change in a place = (number of births + number of in-migrants) -(number of deaths + number of out-migrants). A positive number means the population has increased by that number. A negative number shows it has decreased by that number.

Question 29.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year.

Question 30.
What is death rate?
Answer:
Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year.

Question 31.
What is the change in birth rate and death rate at present?
Answer:
There has been the rapid decline in death rates but till recent times, birth rates were not decreasing substantially.

Question 32.
Why did the famines decline after 1900?
Answer:
After 1900 famines declined because of famine relief, movement of grain, ration shops and an active public voice in a democracy.

Question 33.
Why are some children forced to work?
Answer:
Some children are forced to work because of economic conditions.

Question 34.
Why does the population size change?
Answer:
The population is dynamic. The numbers, distribution and composition of the population are always changing. This is because of the interaction of the three processes:

1. births,
2. deaths and
3. migrations.

Question 35.
What is the change in population size? How it can be expressed?
Answer:
The change in the size of a population is the difference in the number of inhabitants of a country/territory during a say during the last ten years. Such a change can be expressed in two ways, (1) as absolute numbers, or (2) as a percentage change.

Question 36.
Write some reasons for population growth in India.
Answer:

1. High birth rate
2. Low death rate
3. Improvement in medical facilities.
4. High fertility rate in young couples.
5. A decline in fancies
6. Illiteracy.

Question 37.
What are the factors that influence population densities in states like Assam?
Answer:
Assam and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.

Question 38.
Why do the plains have very high density of population?
Answer:
The northern Plains and the plain in the south have, high to very high population, densities, because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph.
A distressing aspect of gender bias in India that shows little sign of going away is the preference for boys over girls. One of the worst manifestations of this pro-male bias is the relatively high mortality rates of girls compared with boys. Many families consider female children as a burden. Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women.
“Due to the difference in sex ratio, what would be the impact on society ?” Explain.
Answer:

1. Female population will decrease.
2. In future male population may not get marriages.
3. Family system may collapse.
4. Gender bias may increase in the society.
5. The problem of criminality in our society will increase.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given question.
India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq km. Densities vary from 904 persons per sq km in West Bengal to only 13 persons per sq km in Arunachal Pradesh.
What are the reasons for high population density in West Bengal and low population density in Arunachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. West Bengal is located in fertile deltas of River Ganga.
2. It supports agriculture and industrial development and suitable for living.
3. Arunachal Pradesh is in hilly terrain and covered by snow in vast areas.
4. So, it is not suitable for human habitation and have low density of population.

Question 3.
“Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population. In 1951 there were 946 females per 1000 males in India. In 1991 there were 929 per 1000 males and 933 in 2001 and 940 in 2011 respectively.”
Draw a table based on the information given below:
Answer:

S.No.	Year	Sex ratio
1.	1951	946
2.	1991	929
3.	2001	933
4.	2011	940

Question 4.
Study the following graph and answer the given questions.
a) In which year, the highest sex-ratio was recorded?
Answer: 1951.
b) Identify the reasons for low sex-ratio in India.
Answer:

1. Gender Bias.
2. Superstitions

Question 5.
People often talk of population growth in alarmed tones. Why?
Answer:

1. It population increases, availability of infrastructural facilities will become less.
2. It may also leads to food shortage.
3. Deforestation and global natural destruction is one of the problem.
4. A huge population causes huge demands like foods, water, clothes etc. As per the population growth the trees were cut down for construction of the house and factories.
5. Due to this natural resources will be depleted.

Question 6.
Write your observations about the population growth in india, from the graph given below:
Answer:
I observed the following reasons:

1. Population census have been taken for every 10 years.
2. From the year 1921 onwards population increases very highly due to the following reasons.
   1. Improved medical facilities.
   2. Declination of the impact of famines.

The other factors which are responsible for high growth rate of population:

1. Contact with western nations, in particular Great Britain, brought with it western medicine.
2. The infant mortality rate dropped.
3. The life expectancy rose.
4. As the largest democratic nation in the world, India has been unable to force population controls.
5. High fertility rate due to early marriages.
6. Some religious superstitions, etc.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:

1. The bar graph is about male, female sex ratio of India.
2. It gives the sex ratio in 1991, 2001 and 2011.
3. Sex ratio is increasing from 1991 to 2011.
4. The sex ratio in India is a cause of concern. Ever since independence, it has been constantly decreasing and with 940 in 2011 it is also alarming.

Question 8.
Prepare two slogans on ‘Control of popula-tion growth’.
Answer:

1. Slogan should reflect the theme of controlling population growth.
2. Slogan should be divided around two equal halves.

Examples:

1. More Population – More problems.
2. Control the Population – Enjoy nature.
3. Small family – Happy family.
4. Reduce the crowd – Have a better future.

Question 9.
Give some examples of gender discrimination.
Answer:
Women and girls in particular face unequal opportunities for education and development. In the most basic needs of nutrition, child care and health also they are discriminated against – they get less of these things than males. This can happen even within the same family. This discrimination is not always obvious. Nor is it accepted.

Question 10.
What is rate or pace of population increase?
Answer:
The rate or the pace of population increase is important. It is studied in per cent per annum, e.g.: a rate of increase of 2 per cent per annum means that in a given year, there was an increase of two persons for every 100 persons in the base year. This works like compound interest. This is referred to as the annual growth rate. India’s population has been steadily increasing.

Question 11.
Describe the categories of the working population.
Answer:
The Census of India, groups the working population into four categories. Cultivators are farmers, who farm or supervise the land that they own or take on rent. Agricultural labourers are those who work on another’s farm for wages in cash or kind. Workers in household industries would be those who are manufacturing or repairing some product at home such as dehusking of paddy, bidi workers, potters, weavers, repair of footwear, manufacture of toys, matches, etc. Other workers would be those who are employed in factories, trading, casual labour and all other occupations.

Question 12.
Why did the birth rate remain high for such a long period?
Answer:
One set of reasons has to do with what has happened in the past. If in the overall population the percentage of young people is high, then in the coming years they would grow up, get married and have children. The total number of such children added would be high because we began with a population with a large number of young people.
The other reason is the number of children that couples wish to have. This in turn is related to how many children survive, what social security people have and the preference of male child in society.

Question 13.
Prepare a rough bar diagram using the following information.

Area	Haryana	Punjab	A.P	Kerala	USA
Sex Ratio	870	880	970	1040	1050

Answer:

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
The Census of India provides us with information regarding the population of our country. A’ census is the procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population. Once in ten years information is collected about all people living in India. The people who do this survey go from house to house and find out the number of people living in every house in every village,town and city. This census provides us with a lot of information such as how old people are, their occupation, houses, education, religion, etc. The Registrar General & Census Commission of India, organises the collection and recording of this information.
Answer:
A census is the procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population. It is a regularly occurring and official count of a particular population. In India this information is collected once in ten years. This census provides us a lot of information. The census is conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commission of India.

Question 15.
It is noted that within India certain parts like Kerala have a positive sex ratio. How can you appreciate it?
Answer:

1. Kerala have a positive sex ratio while some other states are extremely biased against women.
2. Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women.
3. Women’s literacy and schooling reduce child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.
4. As Kerala worked on these front, remaining states need to follow its footsteps.

Question 16.
“Over population creates many problems” Do you support this statement? Write in your own words.
Answer:

1. The number of non-working people increases.
2. Per capita income decreases with increase in population.
3. Production has to be increased to provide facilities like houses, educational institutions, health centres, transport, etc., to the increasing population.
4. There is a danger of occurrence of famine if sufficient food is not produced.

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following of questions based on the graph given below.

1. From which year did the population increase continuously?
   Answer:
   From the year 1921 the population increased continuously.
2. What is the present population of India?
   Answer:
   The present population of India is 121 crores.
3. In which decade is the population growth less?
   Answer:
   The population growth is less in the decade 1911-21.
4. For how many years is the census being taken in India?
   Answer:
   The census is being taken in India for ten years once.

Question 2.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions that given below.

1. How many times census was taken up after independence ?
   Answer:
   7 times.
2. What do you mean by sex ratio ?
   Answer:
   Sex ratio is the number of females per every 1000 males in the population.
3. Give two reasons for low sex ratio.
   Answer:
   1. Traditionally our society is male-dominated. Gender discrimination is one cause.
   2. Women are getting inequal opportunities for education and development.
4. In which year the sex ratio is better ?
   Answer:
   1951

Question 3.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.

1. What does the above graph explain?
   Answer:
   It explains the Sex ratio of India from 1951 to 2011.
2. In which year, the least sex ratio is recorded ?
   Answer:
   The least sex ratio recorded in 1991.
3. How was the sex ratio calculated?
   Answer:
   The sex ratio is calculated as the number of females per 1000 males in the population.
4. How many times the female number is recorded more than 935?
   Answer:
   3 times.

Question 4.
Study the graph and answer the following.

1. In which year, did the population decrease?
   Answer:
   1921
2. For how many years, census have been held regularly?
   Answer:
   10 years
3. Why was the population of India increasing after independence?
   Answer:
   Improved medical facilities
   Declination of the impact of famines.
4. What problems would arise with the population explosion?
   Answer:
   1. Stress on environment.
   2. Unemployment.
   3. Scarcity of resources.
   4. Lock of food.

Question 5.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.
In India, 103 female babies are born as against 100 male babies. However, more female babies die than the male babies. The census shows that in the age group 0-5 years, the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys. This can only happen if there is some discrimination in their care and nutrition because otherwise the physical chance of survival is better for girls.
Answer:
More female babies are born, yet at the age of 0-5 years the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys.
The following reasons give us why the sex ratio has been declining.

1. Most of the women are illiterate, so they are unable to realise the importance of a girl child.
2. Most of the families in India are patriarchal, so men dominate the women and force them to abort against for a girl child.
3. Most of the families give importance for a boy child to increase their clan.
4. Even though they have high income, parents give less importance for girl child in all spheres.

Question 6.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.

1. Which year has the least number of females?
   Answer:
   In the year 1991, the number of females is least.
2. What do you mean by Sex ratio?
   Answer:
   The number of females per 1000 males is called sex ratio.
3. Since 1951, what changes do you observe in Sex ratio?
   Answer:
   During 1951-1971 the sex ratio is decreasing whereas 1991 onwards it has been increasing gradually though the literacy rate in 1951 is low, the sex ratio is high.
4. What is to be done to prevent a decrease in female number?
   Answer:
   Concept of equality between male and female is to be developed by organizing campaigns.
   • The laws related to pre-natal diagnostic tests should be brought out.
   • They should be implemented in true spirit.

Question 7.
What is the influence on society when female percentage decreases in sex ratio?
Answer:
Influence on society when female percentage decreases in sex ratio:

1. Marriage related problems.
2. Crimes related to sexual assault increase.
3. Kanyasulkam may revive.
4. Gender discrimination reduces.
5. Mankind struggles to survive.
6. Population decreases.
7. Family relations may be affected
8. Human relations get disturbed.
9. Importance to women – increased.

Question 8.
Plot the below information on a bar-graph. Write your observation.
Table : India Population: Sex Ratio 1951 – 2011

SI. No.	Year	No. of females for 1000 males
1.	1951	946
2.	1961	941
3.	1971	930
4.	1981	934
5.	1991	929
6.	2001	933
7.	2011	943

Answer:

1. The above graph explains the Sex Ratio of India from 1951 to 2011.
2. During 1951 -1971 the Sex Ratio is decreasing whereas in 1991 onwards it has been increasing gradually though the literacy rate in 1951 is low, but the Sex Ratio is high.
3. The least Sex Ratio recorded in 1991.
4. The female ratio is very low in India due to gender discrimination, illiteracy, lack of medical facilities, not providing nutritious food, parental attitude etc.

Question 9.
Read the given paragraph and comment.
We often hear people talk of population growth in alarming tones. These people are often literate and talk about others not benefitting because there are too many people who have to share very few resources.
Answer:
According to the given paragraph, the population growth affects many ways people should aware of this and the literate people talk about the benefits share of resources is not balancing. Very few people are using more resources whereas many people are using very less resources.
Countries like USA are using more natural resources though its population is less than 5% of the world population. In India, it is less than 16% of the population of the world is using less natural resources. In India population is steadily increasing. If population increases in this way, one day India would be the first in world population. Population is not a curse to the country development, it is a boon for the development of the country. People in any country can be divided into three categories. They are skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled. The Government has to utilise the services of the skilled for the nation’s development. The semi skilled should be made skilled. The unskilled should be provided with some training and so they would be doing some sort of productive work which would be strengthening Gross Domestic Product. Equal distribution of resources should be the target of the Government. The underdeveloped countries should focus on improving the qualities of work force. So population is not a problem. It’s a boon.

Question 10.
Observe the population pyramids and answer the questions.

a) What are group in India has the largest percentage of people?
b) What is the total percentage of the population in the 90 and above age group?
c) What is the total percentage of the population between 0-14 age group?
d) Based on the population pyramid given above, how do you think.the population of the India will grow? Will it grow quickly or slowly? Why?
Answer:
a) 10-14 years.
b) 0.1 % .
c) 4.7 + 4.7 + 4.9 + 4.3 + 4.3 + 4.4 = 27.3
d) Quickly. Because young pouplation currently is high in number. So for future the population of the India will grow.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
The third component of population change is migration. Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal (within the country) or international (between the countries). Internal migration does not change the size of the population but influences the distribution of population within the nation. Migration plays a very significant role in changing the composition and distribution of the population.
Answer:

1. Migration is the third component of population growth.
2. Migration plays a significant role in changing the composition and distribution of the population.
3. Migration is the movement of people from one region to another.
4. Migration is both internal and international.
5. Internal migration does not affect the size of the population but changes the composition of the population.
6. Internal migration includes movement of people from rural to urban and from urban to rural.
7. Whereas international migration changes the size of the population.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.
Think of various ways in which the government should have special schemes for different groups. Examples could be midday meal schemes; Anganwadi programmes, etc. Why are they necessary?
Answer:

1. The given paragraph focuses on special schemes suggestive for the sake of the poor and the needy people.
2. According to my opinion the midday meal scheme came out with the initiation of the Su¬preme Court of India.
3. Many of the poor students are not attending schools in the afternoon. Their parents may go to fields for work.
4. As the people are poor many programmes are to be taken up. In many of the schools it is not functioning well.
5. They should be provided with sufficient mechanism so as to make them lead their lives with satisfaction.
6. Whatever the programme or scheme taken up, it should be worked out in a right way with the true spirit.
7. The objective is not fulfilled in many of the schemes.
8. How many schemes are running is different from how they are running. So implementation is important.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women. There is definitive evidence that women’s literacy and schooling reduces child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.
Answer:

1. It is very important to educate the girls. Their literacy and schooling should be increased so as to bring social change with regard to discrimination against women.
2. My comments on this paragraph are that the village people are mostly illiterates and they don’t want to send their daughters to schools and colleges for education.
3. In this decade, we observe that many of the parents in villages changed their notions and started sending them even to cities and towns and encouraging in getting higher education.
4. An educated mother can take care of both male and female child in a better way.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.
Why did the birth rate remain high for such a long period? One set of reasons has to do with what has happened in the past. If in the overall population, the percentage of young people is high, then in the coming years they would grow up, get married and have children. The total number of such children added would be high because we began with a population with a large number of young people. 
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the young people are more in number and in due course of time, they get married and have children.
2. This adding of population is going on over the period.
3. There are so many reasons for high birth rate in our country.
4. Early marriages also cause for population growth. The family planning programmes are not successfully implemented.
5. They understand that they may not provide sufficient food, clothes, education and health facilities to their children.
6. Awareness programmes should be initiated among the people.
7. People also should participate in the campaign. Everyone should take responsibility. Increase in population is not the problem of the nation but it affects the lives of the people.

Question 15.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.

1. What is the graph about?
   Answer:
   This graph is about sex ration of Indian Population during 1951-2011.
2. In which year is the least sex ratio recorded?
   Answer:
   The least sex ratio is recorded in 1991.
3. How often does the Census take place?
   Answer:
   Once in ten years.
4. How many times it is recorded less than 940?
   Answer:
   It is recorded four times (1971,1981,1991,2001).
5. What do you mean by sex ratio?
   Answer:
   Sex ratio is the number of females per one thousand males in the total population.
6. From which year onwards is sex ratio constantly increasing?
   Answer:
   It is increasing constantly from 1991.
7. In which year the ratio is high?
   Answer:
   The ratio is high in 1951.

Question 16.
Observe the graph and describe it.
Answer:

1. The above graph depicts the fertility rate in India.
2. The fertility rate is nothing but total births per women.
3. The fertility rate in India has been decreasing.
4. That means the number of children a family wants is decreasing.
5. In 1961, the fertility rate was 5.9 that means an average women is likely to bear five to six children.
6. Now the outlook is completely changed.
7. The present fertility rate as per 2011 census is 2.7.

Question 17.
What are the steps to be taken restrict the overgrowth of population in India?
Answer:
The following are the steps to be taken to restrict the over growth of population in India :

1. Family planning measures should be implemented by the government.
2. Child marriages must be stopped.
3. Education should be provided to all women in the country.
4. Family planning counselling centres must be maintained.
5. Newly married couples should wait at least three years to get children.
6. They should maintain 3 years gap between two children.

Question 18.
“Over population creates many problems”. Do you support this statement? Write in your own words.
Answer:

1. The number of non-working people increases.
2. Per capita income decreases with increase in population.
3. Production has to be increased to provide facilities like houses, educational institutions, health centres, transport, etc. to the increasing population.
4. There is a danger of the occurrence of famine if sufficient food is not produced.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Aila super cyclone affected the Delta Region.
   Answer: Sunderban
2. Capital of Lakshadweep Islands.
   Answer: Kavaratti
3. The density of population is very high in this state.
   Answer: Bihar
4. The density of population is very low in this state.
   Answer: Arunachal Pradesh
5. The highest populous state.
   Answer: Uttar Pradesh
6. The lowest populous state.
   Answer: Sikkim
7. Sardar Sarovar dam is constructed on.
   Answer: Narmada River
8. The capital of Tamilnadu.
   Answer: Chennai
9. Cardamom hills.
10. The capital of West Bengal.
    Answer: Kolkata

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 15 National Liberation Movements in the Colonies.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by “Pan Africanism”?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea that promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 2.
Write down the ill effects of reckless oil extraction in Nigeria.
Answer:

1. Environment got polluted.
2. The Mangrove forests have been destroyed.
3. Crops have been destroyed through contamination of ground water and soils.
4. Local fish production was declined.

Question 3.
Mention any two reasons for not establishing sustainable Democracy in Nigeria.
Answer:

1. Civil War
2. Military Rule
3. Support of Multi-National Oil Corporations

Question 4.
Why was the Civil war started in Nigeria?
Answer:
The Civil war was started in Nigeria because a just and democratic balance could not happen. Soon Civil war started in Nigeria. The corruption of rulers and Multi-National Oil Corporations suppressed human rights in Nigeria.

Question 5.
Why did America interfere into the Vietnam war?
Answer:
America interfered into Vietnam war because it was worried that communists would become powerful in Vietnam.

Question 6.
What were the twin tasks of Nigerian nationalists?
Answer:
The twin tasks of Nigerian nationalists were:

1. Fighting the British
2. Unifying the diverse and conflicting ethnic group of Nigeria.

Question 7.
Why did US intervene in the Vietnam War?
Answer:
With the help of the Ho Chi Minh government in the north, the NLF fought for the unification
of the country. The US watched this alliance with fear. Worried about communists gaining power, it decided to intervene decisively, sending in troops and arms.
(OR)
To arrest the spread of Communism from Vietnam, US intervene in the Vietnam war.

Question 8.
How did the oil extraction affect agriculture in Nigeria?
Answer:
Spills destroy crops and aqua culture through contamination of the ground water and soils.

Question 9.
Oil spillage from oil wells in Nigeria had several impacts on its ecosystem. Write any two such impacts.
Answer:

1. Large tracts of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil have been destroyed.
2. Spills destroy crops and aquaculture through contamination of the groundwater and soils.
3. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and a sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water. (any two)

Question 10.
Who was Ken Saro Wiwa?
Answer:
Ken Saro Wiwa was an eminent human rights activist and environmentalist and was executed by the military government despite international protests.

Question 11.
Who is regarded as the founder of Modern China?
Answer:
Sun Yat-sen is regarded as the founder of modern China.

Question 12.
When was a republic established in China?
Answer:
The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic was established in 1911 under Sun Yat-sen who is regarded as the founder of modern China.

Question 13.
Who ruled China at the turn of the 20th century?
Answer:
The emperors of the Manchu dynasty ruled China at the turn of the 20th century.

Question 14.
What was the programme of Sun-Yat-sen?
Answer:
The programme of Sun Yat-sen was called the three principles – (San min chui)
San means – nationalism
Min means – democracy
Chui means – socialism

Question 15.
Who were called warlords?
Answer:
Regional military powers of China were called warlords. China came to be controlled by them.

Question 16.
What happened on 4th May 1919 in China?
Answer:
On 4th May 1919, an angry demonstration was held in Beijing to protest against the decisions of the Versailles peace conference.

Question 17.
What was called the May Fourth Movement?
Answer:
Despite being an ally of the victorious side led by Britain, China did not get back the territories seized from it by Japan. The pro-test became a movement, called the “May- Fourth Movement”.

Question 18.
What emerged as major forces striving to unite China and bring stability?
Answer:
The Guomindang and the Chinese Commu¬nist Party emerged as major forces striving to unite the country and bring stability.

Question 19.
Where was the social base of Guomindang?
Answer:
The Guomindang’s social base was in urban areas.

Question 20.
When was Peking University established?
Answer:
Peking University was established in 1902.

Question 21.
What were the four virtues that the women had to cultivate?
Answer:
Chastity, appearance, speech, and work.

Question 22.
What was the practice of foot-binding?
Answer:
Foot-binding was a cruel practice of not allowing women to have fully grown feet.

Question 23.
Who invaded China in 1937?
Answer:
Japan invaded China in 1937.

Question 24.
When had the CCP (Chinese Communist Party) been founded?
Answer:
The CCP had been founded in 1921, soon after the Russian Revolution.

Question 25.
Why did Lenin go on to establish the Comintern?
Answer:
Lenin went on to establish the Comintern in March 1918 to help bring about a world government that would end exploitation.

Question 26.
Who emerged as a major CCP leader?
Answer:
Mao Zedong.

Question 27.
Where can Mao Zedong’s radical approach be seen?
Answer:
Mao Zedong’s radical approach can be seen in Jiangxi, in the mountains, where they camped from 1928 to 1934, secure from Guomindang attacks.

Question 28.
What was the three-fold strategy of the French?
Answer:

1. Improving irrigation network.
2. Encouraging landlords and
3. Facilitating the marketing of agricultural produce.

Question 29.
Who was called ‘colons’?
Answer:
The French citizens living in Vietnam were called colons.

Question 30.
Who established Vietnam Cong San Dang (the Vietnamese Communist Party)?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh established Vietnam Cong San Dang.

Question 31.
Who took power in North and South Vietnam?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh and the communists took power in the north.
An old emperor took power in the south who was soon ousted by Ngo Dinh Diem.

Question 32.
How was the new era of land reforms after 1954 in North Vietnam?
Answer:

1. After 1954 a new era of land reforms was started in North Vietnam.
2. The land of the landlords was confiscated and distributed among the land-hungry landless peasants and poor peasants.

Question 33.
What is Agent Orange and why is it so-called?
Answer:
Agent Orange is a defoliant plant killer, so-called because it was stored in drums marked with an orange band.

Question 34.
Name some chemical weapons used by the US.
Answer:

1. Napalm
2. Agent Orange and
3. Phosphorous Bombs

Question 35.
Explain the formation of Nigeria.
Answer:
The country we know as Nigeria today was actually created by the British by bringing together distinct regions inhabited by different tribal groups around the Niger river system.

Question 36.
How is the region of river Niger?
Answer:
The region of river Niger is one of the most populous countries of Africa, which has been suffering from different kinds of colonial rule.

Question 37.
Expand NNDP.
Answer:
The Nigerian National Democratic Party.

Question 38.
Expand A.G.
Answer:
Action Group.

Question 39.
When did Nigeria become independent?
Answer:
Nigeria became independent on 1st October, 1963.

Question 40.
When did Nigerians elect a democratic government?
Answer:
Nigerians elected a democratic government in 1999.

Question 41.
When was oil discovered in the Niger Delta?
Answer:
Oil was discovered in 1950s in the Niger Delta.

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about the May Fourth movement in China.
Answer:

1. On 4th May 1919, an angry demonstration was held in Beijing to protest against the decisions of the Versailles peace conference.
2. Despite being an ally of the victorious side led by Britain, China did not get back the territories seized from it by Japan.
3. The protest became a movement, called the “May Fourth Movement”.
4. The revolutionaries called for driving out of foreigners, who were controlling the country’s resources, to remove inequalities and reduce poverty.

Question 2.
Study the map given below and answer the question that follows.
How were the British able to implement their ‘divide and rule’ policy in Nigeria?
Answer:

1. There are three major tribal groups in Nigeria.
   1. Hausa-Fulani,
   2. Yoruba,
   3. Igbo.
2. The British were able to implement the divide and rule policy in Nigeria by encouraging competition and conflict among these three groups.

Question 3.
How did the education system in Vietnam contribute to the emergence of nationalist ideas?
Answer:

1. In Vietnam, teachers and students did not blindly follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. While teaching, Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticized what was stated.
3. The students were inspired by patriotic feelings.
4. The primary objective of the students who went to Japan for modern education was to drive out the French from Vietnam.

Question 4.
Why does the oil spillage from oil wells have a major impact on the ecosystem?
(OR)
What are the environmental problems faced by independent Nigeria?
Answer:

1. Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem.
2. Large tracts of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil have been destroyed.
3. Spills destroy crops and aquaculture through contamination of the groundwater and soils.
4. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and a sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water.
5. Offshore spills, which are usually much greater in scale, contaminate coastal environments and cause a decline in local fish production.

Question 5.
What is the impact of over-extraction of oil in Nigeria?
Answer:
Destruction of mangrove forests destroyal of :

1. Ecosystem
2. Crops
3. Agriculture
4. Soil
5. Water contamination
6. The decline in fish production
7. Cause for cancer

Question 6.
Explain the ‘Pan Africanism’.
(OR)
What do you know about Pan Africanism?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea that promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 7.
Observe the below map and answer the following questions.

1. Which country colonized Nigeria?
Answer:
The country of Nigeria was colonized by the British.

2. South-eastern Nigeria was dominated by which tribe?
Answer:
The South-Eastern part of Nigeria is dominated by Igbo tribes.

Question 8.
How can you appreciate the role of teachers in the Emergence of Vietnamese Nationalism?
Answer:
I appreciate the teachers by the following reasons.

1. Blindly they did not follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. Teachers quietly modified the text and criticized what was stated.

Question 9.
Based on the chart given below answer the question.
Which aspect of the Communist approach do you think led to Mao’s victory? Explain.
Answer:
Strong due to promised land reform for peasants.
The above aspect introduces equality among all and distributes the lands to landless poor confiscated from rich landlords.
With this programme majority of people enjoy their own lands and lived happily without pressure.

Question 10.
What do you know about Chiang Kai-shek?
Answer:
After the death of Sun, Chiang Kai-shek emerged as the leader of the Guomindang as he launched a military campaign to control the ‘warlords’, regional leaders who had usurped authority and to eliminate the communists. He sought to militarise the nation. The people, he said, must develop a ‘habit and instinct for unified behavior’.

Question 11.
What were the evil practices against women in China?
Answer:

1. Practice of foot-binding.
2. The subordination of women and
3. Equality in marriage
4. Four virtues:
   1. Chastity,
   2. Appearance,
   3. Speech and
   4. Work and
   5. Length of hemlines were also prescribed

Question 12.
What were the two crises faced by rural China?
Answer:
Rural China faced two crises:

1. Ecological, with soil exhaustion deforestation and floods and
2. A socio-economic one caused by exploitative land-tenure systems, indebtedness, primitive technology and poor communications.

Question 13.
What was the massive effort to spread literacy?
Answer:
A massive effort for setting up adult peasant schools to spread literacy and political education was undertaken along with the land reforms. This was also accompanied by the setting up of primary schools for both young children and adults in all the villages.

Question 14.
Why did the standard of living for the peasant’s decline in Vietnam?
Answer:
The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber plantations owned by the French and few Vietnamese elites. Bonded labour was widely used in the rubber plantations. The French did little to industrialize the economy. In the rural areas landlordism, spread and large landlords took over the lands of small peasants and made them work as tenant farmers. As a result, the standard of living for the peasants declined.

Question 15.
What were the conditions of the peasants in Vietnam who rented the land of landlords?
Answer:
The peasants who rented the land of landlords had to pay rent in both share of produce and also by working on the fields and homes of the landlords and also pay different kinds of taxes imposed at will by the landlords. This forced them to borrow rice and money from the landlords and push them further into debt bondage.

Question 16.
Why did the Vietnamese students go to Japan in early 20th century?
Answer:
In early 20th century, Vietnamese students went to Japan to acquire modern education. For many of them, the primary objective was to drive out the French from Vietnam, overthrow the puppet emperor and re-establish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French.

Question 17.
What was the impact of the Great Depression of the 1930s?
Answer:
The Great Depression of the 1930s had a profound impact on Vietnam. The prices of rubber and rice fell, leading to rising rural debts, unemployment, and rural uprising. The French put these uprisings down with great severity, even using planes to bomb demonstrators.

Question 18.
What were the challenges faced by the New Republic of Vietnam?
Answer:
The new republic faced a number of challenges. The French tried to regain control by using the emperor, Bao Dai, as their puppet. Faced with the French offensive, the Vietminh were forced to retreat to the hills. After eight years of fighting, the French were defeated in 1954 at Dien Bien Phu and over 16000 French soldiers and officers were taken, prisoners.

Question 19.
Write about China at the turn of the 20th century.
Answer:
At the turn of the 20th century, China was ruled by emperors of the Manchu dynasty, which had become powerless to defend the interests of China vis a vis the western colonial powers. These powers had carved out their ‘spheres of influence’ in different parts of China and had forced the emperors to give them economic and political concessions like low import taxes, immunity from Chinese laws, maintaining armed forces, etc. Both the common people and administrators of the empire were unhappy with this state of affairs. There were several revolts by the people and attempts at reform by the administrators.

Question 20.
Why did the Guomindang fail?
Answer:

1. The Guomindang, despite its attempts to unite the country, failed because of its narrow social base and limited political vision.
2. A major plank in Sun Yat-sen’s programme – regulating capital and equalizing land was never carried out because the party ignored the peasantry and the rising social inequalities.
3. It sought to impose military order rather than address the problems faced by the people.

Question 21.
‘Mao was unlike other leaders’ – Why?
Answer:

1. Mao stressed the need for an independent government and army.
2. He had become aware of women’s problems and supported the emergence of rural women’s associations.
3. He promulgated a new marriage law that forbade arranged marriages, stopped purchase or sale of marriage contracts and simplified divorce. So Mao was unlike other leaders.

Question 22.
Write about the Peoples Republic of China government.
Answer:

1. The Peoples Republic of China government was established in 1949.
2. It was based on the principles of the ‘New Democracy’, an alliance of all social classes opposed to landlordism and imperialism.
3. Critical areas of the economy were put under government control.
4. Once in power the CCP carried out large-scale land reform measures which meant taking away the land of landlords and distributing them among poor peasants.
5. The new government also managed to enact laws to protect women, their rights and the abolition of polygamy.
6. This enabled women to assume new roles and enjoy equal status vis a vis men in various
   fields.

Question 23.
Read the paragraph and answer the following question.

The Great Depression of the 1930s had a profound impact on Vietnam. The prices of rubber and rice fell, leading to rising rural debts, unemployment and rural uprising. The French put these uprisings down with great severity, even using planes to bomb demonstrators.

Why did the fall in price of rice lead to the rise of rural indebtedness?
Answer:

1. Two-thirds of the rice production in Vietnam is exported.
2. By that time it was the third-largest exporter of rice in the world.
3. Great depression of 1929-30 has a great negative impact on Vietnam.
4. The prices of Rice and Rubber has fallen drastically and there is rise in rural indebtedness.

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the reforms implemented after the formation of democracy in China?
Answer:

1. The Peoples Republic of China was based on the principles of the ‘New Democracy’, an alliance of all social classes opposed to landlordism and imperialism.
2. Critical areas of the economy were put under government control.
3. They carried out large scale and reform measures.
4. They took away the land of landlords and distributed among poor peasants.
5. The new government also managed to enact laws to protect women, their rights and abolition of polygamy.
6. This enabled women to assume new roles and enjoy equal status vis a vis men in various fields.

Question 2.
Explain the role of schooling played in Vietnam national movements.
(OR)
Explain the role of education in the national movement by taking Vietnam as an example.
Answer:

1. The teachers did not blindly follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. While teaching, Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticised what was stated.
3. Students fought against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent the Vietnamese from qualifying for white-collar jobs.
4. They were inspired by patriotic feelings and the conviction that it was the duty of the educated to fight for the benefit of society.

Question 3.
Explain the policies followed by the French in Vietnam.
Answer:

1. French colonial rule influenced all aspects of Vietnamese life.
2. The French were keen to develop Vietnam as an exporter of rice.
3. They improved irrigation net work by building canals.
4. They encouraged landlords and facilitated marketing of agricultural produce.
5. The French did little to industrialise the economy.
6. Vietnamese peasants became entrenched in a cycle of debt.
7. There was no access for all to get good education.
8. All the higher education was in French only.

Question 4.
How were the Land reforms implemented in China?
Answer:
Land reforms of China.

1. Land reforms were launched in 1950-51.
2. The major steps involved were,
   1. Identification of all village inhabitants.
   2. Confiscation of all village lands and redistribution of land lord’s land and other productive property.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

Racism became common in the British colonial empire in late 19th and early 20th centuries. Educated Africans were excluded from the civil service, and there was discrimination against African entrepreneurs. At the same time, the authorities from ruling country gave control to the tribal chiefs and elite and promoted them.

Answer:
The given paragraph is about Racial Discrimination between the Black and the White people. It is related to Africa. One more point is that tribal chiefs were given control and the government promoted them.

Nigeria is an African country. It was a colony of the British. The British created Nigeria by bringing together different regions around the Niger river system where people of different tribes lived.

Before bringing all together, they faced many problems. Hausa-Fulani, Igbo and Yoruba tribes were there. Due to long years of missionary activity, many people still practice tribal religious beliefs.

The British implemented their divide and rule policy. A section of the people were educated and developed. If all the people were united in Nigeria, then the British would face the problem. The British always wanted to divide the Vietnamese based on colour or religious practices. That Was what the Britishers followed in India to divide Indians. All the Indians came together and fought against the British. Then the Britishers encouraged the Muslims to form a separate party for Muslims. They emphasised that Indian National Congress was the party of Brahmins and of upper caste. Gradually Hindus and Muslims were separated and so the national movement was weakened.

Now all the Independent countries should give equal opportunities to all and equality is to be maintained. There will be no racial discrimination at any level.

Question 6.
“America was very cruel in the Vietnam war” – Comment.
Answer:

1. America behaves very wild manner on Vietnam.
2. America with the fear of Communism to stop the spread of Communism in Vietnam, it declared war on Vietnam.
3. It uses chemical bombs and weapons like Agent Orange – B 52s. and Napalm.
4. Agent Orange destroyed plants & trees and made the land barren for a long time.
5. Phosphorous bombs – destroyed many villages and decimated jungles.
6. Civilians died in large numbers.
7. Thousands of troops were used by America.
8. Due to cruelty of America, America got agitation from world wide and from their mother land also.
9. Finally, America made a peace settlement and withdrawn from the war.

Question 7.
Answer the questions with the help of the given information.
a) Which nation was ruled by the Manchu Dynasty?
Answer:
China was ruled by the Manchu dynasty.

b) Who is considered as the ‘founder of modern China’?
Answer:
Sun-Yat-Sen was regarded as the founder of modern China.

c) Who was an eminent Human Rights activist and environmentalist of Nigeria?
Answer:
Ken – Saro- Wiwa was an eminent Human Rights activist and environmentalist of Nigeria.

d) What is meant by the Pan Africanism?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea which promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 8.
Read the given paragraph and write your Opinion.

The coastal environment of Nigeria has been disturbed because of reckless oil extraction by foreign oil companies. Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem.

Answer:
The given paragraph emphasises that the coastal environment of Nigeria has been disturbed because the oil companies extracted more than their share. It is talking about the consequences of over spillage of oil.

Over spillage of oil has various negative consequences:
Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem. Large areas of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil, have been destroyed. This is mainly because oil is stored in the soil and re-released annually. Around 5-10% of Nigerian mangrove ecosystems have been destroyed either by clearing or oil. Spills destroy crops and aqua culture through contamination of the groundwater and soil. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water. Even if there is no immediate health effect of this water contamination, it can cause cancer in the long term. Offshore spills, which are usually much bigger in scale, contaminate the coastal environments and cause a decline in the local fish production.

If the same is continued the whole world be affected. Oil is a natural resource. So natural resources are to be saved.

Question 9.
“The United States approach in Vietnamese’s struggle was brutal.” Do you agree with this statement? Why? Why not?
Answer:
“Yes, I agree with this statement. Because:

1. Until 1950’s Vietnamese were under the control of French.
2. And in some years it was under control of Japan.
3. People were suffered with high rents and taxes.
4. They did not get proper food also.
5. Ho-Chi-Minh’s idea land distribution in North Vietnam provide something to them and they lived happily.
6. So the North Vietnam peasants fulfilled their long cherished dream.
7. At the same manner South Vietnam people also wished that reforms introduced in that area and established Communism and get happy life.

Conclusion: But America brutally declare war on them to fulfill its desire.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph given below and answer the questions.

Agent Orange: The Deadly Poison

Agent Orange is a defoliant, a plant killer, so called because it was stored in drums marked with an orange band. Between 1961 and 1971, some 11 million gallons of this chemical was sprayed from cargo planes by US forces. Their plan was to destroy forests and fields, so that it would be easier to kill if there was no jungle cover for people to hide in. Over 14 percent of the country’s farmland was affected by this poison. Its effect has been staggering, continuing to affect people till today. Dioxin, an element of Agent Orange, is known to cause cancer and brain damage in children and according to a study, is also the cause of the high incidence of deformities found in the sprayed areas.
The tonnage of bombs, including chemical arms, used during US intervention (mostly against civilian targets) in Vietnam exceeds that used throughout the Second World War.

a) What is Agent Orange ?
Answer:
Agent Orange is a defoliant, a plant killer.

b) How does Agent Orange affect the children?
Answer:
Agent Orange causes cancer, brain damage and deformities in children.

c) Why did they destroy forests and fields?
Answer:
That it would be easier to kill if there were no forests and fields cover for people to hide in.

d) Do you think America was justified in using chemical weapons and civilian population and forests?
Answer:
No, it was not justified.

Question 11.
What do you know about the administration of Chiang Kai-shek?
Answer:

1. Chiang was a conservative and he encouraged women to cultivate the four virtues of ‘chastity,
   appearance, speech and work’ and recognize their role as confined to the household.
2. He also tried to suppress the trade union movement to encourage factory owners.
3. The Guomindang was failed because of its narrow social base and limited political vision.
4. A major plank in Sun-Yat-sen’s programme – regulating capital and equalising land – was never carried out because the party ignored the peasantry and the rising social inequalities.
5. It sought to impose military order rather than address the problems faced by the people.

Question 12.
How was the French education system in Vietnam?
Answer:

1. The French colonisers like the British were convinced that the people of the colony were uncivilised and the objective of their rule was to bring the benefits of modern civilisation. Education was seen as one way to civilize the ‘natives’.
2. The French needed an educated local labour force but they feared that education might create problems.
3. Once educated, the Vietnamese may begin to question colonial domination.
4. Even though Vietnamese language was taught in the primary level, all higher education was in French.
5. Only the Vietnamese elite -comprising a small fraction of the population – could enroll in the schools and only a few among those admitted ultimately passed the school-leaving examination.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic established in 1911 under Sun Yat-sen (1866-1925) who is regarded as the founder of modern China. He came from a poor family and studied in missionary schools where he was introduced to democracy and Christianity. He studied medicine but was greatly concerned about the fate of China. He studied the problems of China and worked out a programme of action. His programme was called the Three Principles (San min chui). These were: “nationalism”- this meant overthrowing the Manchu who were seen as a foreign dynasty, as well as other foreign imperialists; “democracy” or establishing democratic government; and “socialism” regulating industries and land reforms to distribute land to the landless peasants. Even though the Manchu dynasty was overthrown and a republic was declared, the republican government led by Sun-Yat-sen could not consolidate itself. The country came to be controlled by regional military powers called “warlords”.

a) Why was Sun Yat-sen regarded as the founder of modern China?
Answer:
Because he established a republic in China by overthrowing the Manchu empire.

b) What were the Three Principles?
Answer:
San min chui (Nationalism, Democracy, Socialism)

c) What is meant by Nationalism here?
Answer:
Nationalism meant overthrowing the Manchu who were seen as foreign dynasty as well as other foreign imperialists.

d) What is meant by Socialism?
Answer:
Regulating industries and land reforms.

e) Who were war lords?
Answer:
The regional military powers were called warlords.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Japan attacked and occupied much of China between 1937 and 1945. They tried to impose a barbaric colonial militaristic rule over China which had a disastrous impact on the Chinese society and economy. Both Guomindang and CCP now tried to join forces to fight Japanese occupation. After the surrender of Japan to the US in August 1945, Guomindang and CCP engaged with each other in an all out warfare for control over China. Eventually CCP was successful in establishing its rule over mainland China while Guomindang was forced to set up its government on the island of Taiwan.

a) How was the Japanese rule over China?
Answer:
It was a barbaric colonial militaristic rule.

b) Name the two political parties.
Answer:
Guomingdang and CCP.

c) To whom did Japan surrender?
Answer:
Japan surrendered to the US.

d) Which party was successful?
Answer:
The CCP was successful.

e) Which party established rule in Taiwan?
Answer:
The Guomindang.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

The French were keen to develop Vietnam as an exporter of rice and for this purpose they adopted a threefold strategy – improving irrigation network, encouraging landlords and facilitating marketing of agricultural produce like rice and rubber. The French began by building canals and draining lands fa the Mekong delta to increase cultivation. The vast system of irrigation works – canals and earthworks – built mainly with forced labour, increased rice production and allowed the export of rice to the international market. Vietnam exported two- thirds of its rice production and by 1931 had become the third largest exporter of rice in the world. This was followed by infrastructure projects (roads and railways) to help transport goods for trade, move military garrisons and control the entire region. Construction of a trans- Indo-China rail network that would link the northern and southern parts of Vietnam and China was begun.

a) Why were the French keen to develop Vietnam?
Answer:
Because it was an exporter of rice.

b) What was the other crop?
Answer:
Rubber plantations.

c) Which Delta was developed?
Answer:
The Mekong Delta was developed.

d) exported two-thirds of its rice production.
Answer:
Vietnam.

e) Who developed Vietnam?
Answer:
The French developed Vietnam.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

This phase of struggle with the US was brutal. Thousands of US troops arrived equipped with heavy weapons and tanks and backed by the most powerful bombers of the time – B52s. The wide spread attacks and use of chemical weapons – Napalm (a deadly bomb which caused intense damage to humans), Agent Orange (which destroyed plants and trees and made the land barren for a long time), and phosphorous bombs – destroyed many villages and decimated jungles. Civilians died in large numbers.

a) Which struggle was brutal?
Answer:
The struggle with the US was brutal.

b) What were B52s?
Answer:
B52s were powerful bombers.

c) What was “Napalm’?
Answer:
It was a chemical weapon.

d) Which was used on forest areas?
Answer:
Agent Orange was used on forest areas.

e) How were phosphorous bombs?
Answer:
They destroyed many villages and decimated jungles, civilians died in large numbers.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Nigerian nationalism had the twin task of fighting the British and also welding the. very diverse and conflicting ethnic groups. The national movement was stronger in the more developed south rather than in the north and this created a north-south divide. Even in the south, nationalism was plagued by ethnic conflict between the Yoruba and the Igbos. By the 1950s these three regions also had their own anti-colonial movements led by regional parties: the conservative Northern People’s Congress (NPC) in the north; the National Council for Nigeria and the Cameroons (NCNC) in the east, and the Action Group (AG) in the west.

a) What were the two tasks?
Answer:

1. Fighting the British
2. Welding the very diverse and conflicting ethnic groups.

b) In which region was the national movement stronger?
Answer:
It was strong in south.

c) What were the two tribes?
Answer:
Yoruba and Igbos.

4) Expand NPC.
Answer:
Northern People’s Congress.

e) Expand AG.
Answer:
Action Group.

Question 18.
Read the passage and answer the following question.
The effect of the war was felt within the US as well. Many were critical of the government for getting involved in a war that they saw as indefensible.
How do you appreciate the role of the people of the USA in ending the war?
Answer:

1. Vietnam was a small country.
2. The USA was very brutal in the war.
3. It used even chemical weapons.
4. The effects of the war was felt within the US as well.
5. When youth were drafted for the war, the anger spread.
6. People opposed the war.
7. They questioned the government’s policy.
8. Finally the people were instrumental in ending the war.
9. A peace settlement was signed in Paris in 1974.

Question 19.
Read the following text and interpret it.

Pan Africanism

Pan Africanism is an idea which promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe. This unity was to be used not only to fight colonialism and racial discrimination, but also to build unity among tribes and communities inhabiting the continent based on principles of equality, social justice and human dignity. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah, a freedom^ghter from Ghana.

Answer:

1. Africa was colonized by the European imperialistic powers and different tribes were residing in Africa.
2. The European powers plundered the resources of Africa both the mineral and agricultural resources.
3. Slave trade was also carried in this region.
4. Pan Africanism promoted the idea of the unity of all the Africans.
5. It helped them to fight against colonization and racial discrimination.
6. Pan Africanism has a higher sphere and it breaks the limits of nationalism.
7. It unites all the tribes living on the continent based on the principles of equality, social justice and human dignity.

Question 20.
Locate the following on the outline map of the world.

1. China
2. USA
3. Vietnam
4. France
5. Nigeria
6. Russia

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of world.
1) The third largest exporter of rice in the world.
Answer: Vietnam

2) These country people were called colons.
Answer: France

3) Manchu dynasty rule this country.
Answer: China

4) Yoruba people are belongs to this country.
Answer: Nigeria

5) America used agent orange on this country.
Answer: Vietnam

6) Washington

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Coordination – The Linking System Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 5th Lesson Coordination – The Linking System

10th Class Biology 5th Lesson Coordination – The Linking System Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Fill In the missing sections In the following flow-chart.

Answer:

Question 2.
Do you think body’s team work maintains functioning of our body? Justify your answer with an example.
Answer:

1. Yes. Body’s team work maintains functioning of our body.
2. All our functions are carried out by an effort of several systems working together.
3. The human body has a set of systems which regulate the internal environment and strive to give our cells the necessary condition as they need to function.
4. We cannot use only the skeletal system or muscular system.
5. To do any function several other systems also have their own roles to play.
6. The pathway involving the way that our organs tissues and cells pickup signals from their surroundings and respond to them that triggers different functions in our body as well as by our body.
7. When all the organs and organ systems work as a unit then the organism will survive.
8. For example our eyes, ears, legs should coordinate with each other when crossing the road. Otherwise we may met with an accident.

Question 3.
Give an example of coordination in your body where both hormonal and nervous controls function together.
Answer:

1. Several functions in our body are controlled by nerves, while many others are controlled by hormones.
2. When we are afraid, the rate of heart beat increases, the breath rate will be faster, blood pressure increases, the hair on the body becomes errect and we get goose bumps.
3. We might not observe our pupil dilation, skin becomes more sensitive. We come to normally only after we reach a safe spot.
4. The various actions of the body are controlled by hormones and coordinated by nervous system.
5. In these type of conditions nervous system and endocrine system work together to bring about control and coordination.
6. Another example for nervous and hormonal coordination. When the mother feeds the baby, the baby sucks the nipple for milk. This information is send to the brain by sensory nerve. Brain orders the pituitary gland to release the hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin helps in the ejection of milk from the mammary glands.

Question 4.
Consider that you are passing by a garbage disposal area and you immediately
cover your nose. Arrange the events below in a logical order by marking them from 1 to 5 to trace the events that happen in the nervous system from detection of foul smell (stimulus generation) to covering your nose (response).
i) At the end of the axon, electrical impulse releases chemicals.
ii) Stimulus received by the dendrites of a neuron sets off chemical reaction that creates an electrical impulse.
iii) Electrical impulse transmitted through cell body and axon.
iv) The chemicals cross the synapse and reach the next neuron. Similarly, the electrical impulse crosses several neurons.
v) Finally, the impulse is delivered from neuron to the gland that helps in recognition of the foul smell and muscle cells that help in covering the nose.
Answer:
The following events occur in nervous system for detecting foul smell of garbage, ii, iii, i, iv, v

Question 5.
What is a Synapse? How is it useful in transfer information?
Answer:

1. Definition: Synapse is a functional region between two neurons where information from one neuron is transmitted or relayed to another neuron.
2. Through synaptic region is with minute gaps it does not have any protoplasmic connection between them.
3. Information is passed from one nerve cell to the other through these gaps either in the form of chemical or electrical signals or both.

Question 6.
Distinguish between
a) Stimulus and Response
b) Afferent and Efferent nerves
c) Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
d) Receptor and effector
Answer:
a) Stimulus and Response

Stimulus	Response
1. It is the cause or change in organism’s surroundings that causes the organism to react	1. It is the act done by the organism.
2. Stimulus can not be always controlled especially external stimuli.	2. It could be controlled.
3. Stimulus could be of any magnitude.	3. The response could never go beyond the highest capability of an organism.
4. Response can not determines the stimulus.	4. Stimulus determines the response.

b) Afferent and Efferent nerves

Afferent nerves	Efferent nerves
1. Nerves coming from receptors or sense organs are called afferent nerves.	1. Nerves that carry impulses from brain or spinal cord are called efferent nerves.
2. These are also called sensory nerves.	2. These are also called motor nerves.
3. Sensory nerves carry information from sensory organs like ears, eyes, from brain or spinal cord.	3. The motor nerves carry impulses to effector nose, tongue and skin to brain and organs (muscles) and are responsible for the movement of hands and legs.
4. These are incoming nerves.	4. These are outgoing nerves.

c) Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system :

Central nervous system	Peripheral nervous system
1. It consists of Brain and spinal cord.	1. It consists of nerves that arise from brain and spinal nerves.
2. Both of them have nerve cells and glial cells.	2. It has 43 pairs of nerves. Among them 12 pairs are cranial nerves and 31 pairs are spinal nerves.
3. Brain and spinal cord are continuous with each other.	3. Cranial nerves take their origin from brain and spinal nerves take their origin from spinal cord.
4. Brain and spinal cord receive infor­mation.	4. The cranial nerves carry information to the sense organs and spinal nerves from organs to spinal cord.
5. Central nervous system coordinates all neural functions.	5. These supply information required for the movement of the muscles.

d) Receptor and effector:

Receptor	Effector
1. The sense organs which are made up of cells called receptors.	1. Muscles or tissues which are linked with nerves are called an effector.
2. Receptors respond to stimulus.	2. Effectors are the organs that produce response.
3. These send information to central nervous system.	3. They follow the commands of central nervous system.
4. These are connected to sensory organs.	4. These follow the motor nerves.
5. Nervous system sense the changes inside and outside the body through receptors.	5. Effectors receive messages from brain or spinal cord through motor nerves.

Question 7.
How does phototropism occur in plants?
Answer:

1. Bending of plants towards light is called phototropism. (Photo = light) (tropism = movement)
2. For example a creeper which is growing near the window bend towards sunlight.
3. Auxins are the phyto hormones which are present at the tip of the shoot respond the plant to bend towards sunlight.

Question 8.
Give an example and explain how plants may immediately respond to a stimulus.
Answer:

1. The plant responding to stimulus is mimosa pudica is the example.
2. Mimosa pudica leaves have pad like sweelings at the base are called PULVINI.
3. Here cells contain water and large intercellular spaces. Due to water pressure pulvini hold the leaf errect.
4. When we touch the leaves, an electrical impulse is generated due to plant hormone.
5. Because of this hormone water in the pulvini cells which are closer to the leaf vein migrate to other side’of the cells.
6. Then pulvini loss its fitness hence leaves become fold. After 20 to 30 minutes water comes back leaves become errect.

Question 9.
Suggest an experiment to show how roots grow away from light in most plants.
Answer:
Aim: To prove that roots grow away from light in most plants.
Material required: Glass jar, Bean seed.
Procedure:

1. A plant jar is taken and filled with mud.
   
2. A bean seed is sown just adjacent in the inner wall of the jar.
3. So that it is easy to observe the growth of root and shoot.
4. After 4-5 days the germination of the seed is observed.
5. Keep the jar in the sunlight. We observe the growth of roots and shoot.
6. Finally the jar is tilted to keep the growing plant horizontally.
7. After the growth of 4-5 days, tilt the glass jar and keep the plant horizontally.

Observation: It is observed that the roots extends downwards to the earth that is away from the sun light and the shoot grows towards sunlight.
Conclusion: By the above experiment it is proved that roots grow towards gravity (earth) away from sun light.

Question 10.
Give an example to show how hormones can influence visible changes in your body.
(OR)
What are the effects of hormones on human beings?
Answer:

1. Endocrine glands secrete chemical substances called Hormones directly into blood.
2. Hormones act on the cells of other organs and increase or decrease the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
3. The external features by which the males and females can be distinguished are called secondary sexual characters.
4. Testosterone in males and estrogen in females promotes the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
5. For example, if a dog chases us, our nervous system stimulate the adrenal glands to secrete more adrenaline hormone into our body.
6. When we are afraid, the rate of heart beat increases, the breath rate will be faster, blood pressure increases, the hair on the body becomes errect.
7. All these changes occur due to the production of Adrenaline hormone.

Question 11.
How does a neuron differ from an ordinary cell in structure? Write notes.
Answer:

Neuron (Nerve cell)	Ordinary cell
1. It is the longest cell in our body.	1. Generally cells are round or oval shaped.
2. It belongs to only nervous system.	2. These are the structural units of body.
3. Nerve cell has three parts: 1. Cyton 2. Axon 3. Dendrites	3. Commonly divided as 1. Cytoplasm and 2. Nucleoplasm
4. These cells carry impulses to brain and spinal cord.	4. Involve in metabolic activities.
5. These are not regenerated.	5. The cells have cell division and replace the death cells.
6. Nerve cells end with dendrites.	6. These cells do not have end points.
7. Some nerve cells are covered with lipid coat.	7. Generally these are covered with plasma membrane.
8. Nissl granules are special character of nerve cells.	8. These cells do not have Nissl granules.

Question 12.
Is the structure of neuron suitable for transmission of impulses? Analyse.
Answer:

1. Yes. The structure of neuron is suitable for transmission of impulses.
2. Neurons are the functional units which receive and process information and generate responses.
3. Cell body is the centre for all the synthetic activity of the neuron.
4. Dendrites arise from the cell body receive information from other neurons and carry this information to the cell body.
5. The axon or nerve fibre gives out several branches that end in nerve terminals. These make connect with the dendrites or the axons of another neuron.
6. Myelinated sheath prevents the leakage of electrical currents from axon. Myelinated axons conduct impulses much faster than unmyelinated axons.

Question 13.
Man is the most intelligent animal. What could be the fact that helped us to reach such a conclusion?
Answer:

1. Man is the most intelligent animal in animal kingdom.
2. This is possible by well development of brain and its marvellous function.
3. Human brain has abilities to learn from concepts.
4. It understands, applies logic and reason.
5. The brain also recognizes patterns and comprehends ideas.
6. The human brain has ability in making plans, solving problems, making decisions and retaining information.
7. Man is the only animal who uses language to communicate.
8. Intelligence enables humans to experience and think.
9. It has also consciousness and self-awareness.

Question 14.
The axon of nerve cell in hand is shorter than the axon of nerve cell in leg. Do you support this statement? Why?
Answer:

1. Yes, I support the above statement.
2. The axon of nerve cell in hand is shorter than the axon of nerve cell in leg.
3. The sciatic nerve is the large nerve in humans and animals. It begins in the lower back and runs through the buttock and lower limbs.
4. Sciatic nerve present in the leg is the largest and widest single nerve in the human body. It measures about 1 mt in length.
5. Usually the length of leg is more in size than hand. Hence the axon of nerve cell in hand is shorter than the axon of nerve cell in leg.

Question 15.
Organs respond to the external stimulus by a fraction of second. How do you feel about such controlling mechanism of human body?
Answer:

1. Organs responding for the external stimuli by a fraction of second are due to reflex action.
2. Reflex actions are very important as they save us from painful or dangerous stimuli.
3. Reflex actions or reflexus are fast, immediate automatic and involuntary responses of the body.
4. They help in the body as they save us from painful or dangerous stimuli.
5. Reflexes occur without our thinking.
6. Brain is not involved in the execution of several reflexes.
   Ex: Withdrawing our hand when we touch hot subject.

Question 16.
State whether the following actions are voluntary action, reflex action or conditioned reflex.

1. Blinking
2. Cleaning the table
3. Playing on the key board
4. Salivating when food is put in the mouth
5. We close our ears when we hear unbearable sound

Answer:

1. Blinking: Involuntary action or reflex action.
2. Cleaning the table: Voluntary action.
3. Playing on the keyboard: Conditioned reflex.
4. Salivating when food is put in the mouth: Involuntary or Reflex action.
5. We close our ears when we hear unbearable sound: Involuntary or reflex action.

Question 17.
What will happen to the potted plant kept near window in the room?
(OR)
Draw a diagram of a plant showing phototropism. Explain why plants possess such type of response.
(OR)
A plant which grows near a window bends towards sun light. Write the reason for it.
Answer:

1. The potted plant which is kept near the window in the room, grows towards light.
   
2. Auxins acts on bending of stem of show a response to the sun light.
3. More auxin collects on the light illuminated side of the stem. So cells on that side grow faster.
4. On opposite side cells grow slow to make the stem bend.
5. Auxins are the plant hormones responsible for the growing of the stem towards light.
6. Auxins are synthesized at the tip of the stem (meristematic tissue).
7. Bending of the plant towards light is called phototropism.

Question 18.
What happens if all the functions of the human body are controlled only by brain?
Brain controls all the functions of the human body. Comment on it.
Answer:

1. If all actions of the human body are controlled by brain, our body will get harm in dangerous situations.
2. Some actions may be delayed and our brain could not conduct reflex actions, which require immediate action to a stimulus.
3. For example, when we touch a hot object, we require an immediate response to save our hand. If the brain controls this action, the time taken will be more and our hand will burn.
4. So, it is controlled by spinal cord, the response will be quick, and we may escape the danger.
5. Nerves can not reach the every corner of the body, whereas hormones of endocrine glands can do that.
6. So it’s not good that all functions are controlled by brain.

Question 19.
If you visit a doctor, what doubts you would like to clarify about pancreas?
Answer:

1. What is pancreas?
2. Where is pancreas located in our body?
3. Why is it called mixed gland?
4. What is the exocrine part of pancreas?
5. What is the endocrine part of pancreas?
6. What are the cells that secrete hormone insulin?
7. What is the function of insulin?
8. What happens if required amounts of insulin is not produced?
9. What are the symptoms of diabetes?
10. How can diabetes be controlled?

Question 20.
Take a small potted plant. Cover base portion of the plant tightly and hang the part upside down. Observe the plant for a week. Based on your observation how can you support phototropism?
Answer:
Aim: To prove that phototropism is a character that is carried by stem.

Apparatus: Potted plant, a strong small rope.
Procedure : Take a small potted plant. Cover the base portion of the plant tightly so that the plant along with soil do not fell down. Now take a rope and hang the potted plant upside down to a support firmly.
Observe the plant after a week.
Observation: We observe that the end of the stem which is upside down takes ‘U’ turn and grows towards light.
Conclusion: Phototropism is a response of plants towards light. That the stem grows towards light that is negatively to gravitation. Auxins are responsible for phototropism.

Question 21.
Take a cock feather touch smoothly at different parts of your body. Findout which portion of the body has high sensation. Is this similar during sleeping ? Prepare a report on it.
Answer:
Aim: To prove that our body shows high sensation in different parts.
Apparatus : Cock feather.
Procedure: Take a cock feather. Touch smoothly at different parts of our body with the cock feather.
Observation : It is observed that some of the body parts like palms of hands and soles of feet there is less sensation than the other body parts because the skin is thick. Some other parts where the skin is thin, the sensation is more.
Report: The nerve endings are situated in the skin. These nerve endings are responsible for the sensation of the body.

Question 22.
What procedure you follow to understand the effect of plant growth hormones (in agar medium) in the terminal portion of the tip of stem (coleoptile)?
Answer:
Aim: To show the growth of Avena coleoptile involves a chemical substance.
Apparatus: Oat seedlings (Avena sativa), coleoptile, a slice of agar, a sharp blade. Procedure:

1. Take some oat seedlings.
2. Their coleoptile tips are cut off.
3. Place the tips on a slice of agar and leave them for about an hour.
4. Cut the agar into small blocks and place a block on one side each stump of the decapitated plants.
5. The plants were kept in the dark during the entire experiment.
6. Observe the plants after one hour.

Observation :

1. Within one hour a distinct bending away from the side on which the agar block was placed is observed.
2. Agar block that had not been contact with coleoptile doesn’t show any bending.
   

Conclusion : The coleoptile tip exerted its effect by means of a chemical stimulus such as an electrical impulse. This chemical stimuls came to be known as auxin.

Question 23.
Collect information on the actions controlled by spinal cord by using reference books from your school library.
Answer:
Spinal cord:

1. Spinal cord is a long and cylindrical structure. It passes through vertibral column extending all along the dorsal surface of trunk.
   
2. Vertebrae of the vertebral column protects the spinal cord.
3. The spinal cord has two major functions, a) carrying information b) coordinating reflexes.
4. It receives sensory information through the afferent nerves from the sensory receptors throughout the body and send them to the brain.
5. It also carries information from the brain through efferent fibres to the muscles and glands.
6. It coordinates reflexes without the involvement of the brain.

Thus the spinal cord has both communicative and integrative functions.

Reflex actions:

1. Excepting the sensory and motor functions spinal cord controls some other important function also. These are called as reflex actions.
2. The spinal cord does not take any assistance from the brain. Reflex actions are automatic, unlearned, involuntary and in born responses.
3. Therefore these actions are suddenly in nature and have a purpose of protecting the individuals or his / her organs from sudden danger.

Question 24.
Read the following sentences and compare with endocrine glands.

Pheromones are chemical substances secreted by organisms. These act as chemical signals secreted by exocrine glands. Pheromones are used as signals by the members of same species. Honey bee secretes pheromones that attract other bees to the location of food.
Answer:

Pheromones	Secretions of Endocrine glands (or) Hormones
1. Pheromones are chemical substances secreted by organisms.	1. Hormones are chemical substances secreted by endocrine glands.
2. These act as chemical signals.	2. These are the chemical messengers.
3. Pheromones are used as signals by the members of same species.	3. Hormones change or control the metabolic activities in the organisms.
4. Honey bee secretes pheromones that attract other bees to the location of food.	4. Hormones help for growth, and stimulated organs’ function.

Question 25.
Collect the information about cranial nerves, spinal nerves from internet or from your school library.
Answer:
Spinal cord :

1. Spinal cord is a long and cylindrical structure passing through the vertebral column.
2. The vertebrae (back bones) of the vertebral column protect the spinal cord from injuries.
3. From the sides of spinal cord, 31 pairs of nerves take their origin one from each side and supply branches to various parts of the body.
4. Basic function of spinal cord is to act as a relay station – receiving information from various parts of the body parts below the head and send this information to the brain.
5. Similarly, it receives information from brain and sends this information to other parts of the body.
6. In addition to this, spinal cord also plays a major role in the RFELEX ACTIONS.
7. The message received from the sensory nerve is passed into spinal cord. It is analyzed by the INTER NEURON present in the spinal cord and response is given. It is conveyed to the effector organ through motor nerve. The effector organ shows the response.
8. Thus spinal cord saves us from dangerous stimuli through it’s REFLEX ACTIONS.

Question 26.
Draw a picture representing connection between dendrite – dendrite, axon – dendrite. Why do they connect like that?
Answer:

1. The nerve cell is the structural and functional unit of nervous system.
   
2. It consists of more than 100 billion of them, which communicate with each other in a specific manner.
3. Dendrites of one nerve cell connects to the other or to the axons of another nerve cell through connect points called as a synapse.

Question 27.
Draw a neatly labelled diagram of Brain and write few points how it is protected.
Answer:
Protection of Brain :

1. Brain is present in the hard bony box called CRANIUM.
   
2. It is covered by three layers called MENINGES.
3. The space between the inner layer is filled with fluid called cerebrospinal fluid,
4. It serves a shock-absorbing medium and protects brain against shocks/ jerks along with the meninges and cranium.

Question 28.
You are walking in the traffic suddenly you heard a loud sound. How does coordination take place in this situation among respected organs? Draw a block diagram to explain this situation.
Answer:

Question 29.
Make a model of neuron using suitable materials.
Answer:
Required materials: A chart, twine thread, fevicol, sticker.

Question 30.
Observe different actions performed by your classmate for a period of 45 minutes. Out of these actions which are controlled by voluntary and involuntary pathways?
Answer:
Voluntary actions:

1. Standing
2. sitting
3. laughing
4. drinking
5. moving
6. clapping
7. carrying books
8. reading
9. writing
10. talking

Involuntary actions:

1. Blinking of eyes
2. swallowing
3. breathing
4. listening etc.

Question 31.
Its very interesting to watch a creeper entwining its tendril to the support. Is not it? How do you express your feelings in this situation?
(OR)
Plants also respond to external stimuli. How do you feel about this?
Answer:

1. A very interesting thing in plants is movement of tendrils.
   
2. All plants show positive response to phototropism.
3. But creepers like cucumber, bittergourd the stem is weak and thin. Hence plant cannot grow erect.
4. Tendrils play a vital role to make the plant erect. Tendrils are thin thread-like growth on the leaves or stems of climbing plants.
5. They grows towards support and wind around them.
6. This type of response to make contact or touch is called thigmotropism.
7. Nature only finds it’s way to grow and survive on the earth.

Question 32.
Hormones are released at a specific place, specific time for a specific function. Prepare a cartoon on the hormones with a nice caption.
Answer:

Fill in the blanks.

1. The largest region of the brain is ———–.
2. A point of contact between two neurons is ———–.
3. ———– phytohormone is responsible for cell elongation and differentiation of shoots and roots.
4. Thyroxine is responsible for ———–.
5. Gibberellins and auxins promote growth in plants while absciscic acid arrests the same. Some situations are discussed here. State which hormones would be needed and why?
   a) A gardener wants large dahlias, he should use along with nutrients and other things ———– hormone.
   b) In a dwarf plant the branches have to be thickened one would use the ———– hormone.
   c) Seeds are to be stored a long time ———– hormone can help.
   d) Cutting the apex or tip of plants so that there are several lateral buds ———– hormone can be used.
   e) The part of the brain that helps you in solving puzzles is ———–.

Answer:

1. cerebrum
2. synapse
3. Auxin
4. General growth rate and metabolic rate
5. a) Auxin b) Gibberellin c) Absciscic acid d) Cytokinins e) Cerebrum

Choose the correct answer.

1. A person has loss of control on emotions, which part of brain stops its function ? [ ]
   A) Cerebrum
   B) Diencephalon
   C) Mid brain
   D) Cerebellum
2. Leaf movement in mimosa helps to [ ]
   A) Reduce photosynthesis
   B) Protect from grazers
   C) Releasing phytohormones
   D) Regulate its growth
3. Diabetes is related to this gland. [ ]
   A) Thyroid
   B) Pancreas
   C) Adrenal
   D) Pituitary

10th Class Biology 5th Lesson Coordination – The Linking System InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 95

Question 1.
What helps us to respond to such signals?
Answer:
There is a sequence of events that bring about responses. They start from detecting changes in environment.

Question 2.
Why does the living body respond to such signals?
Answer:
The ability to react to particular stimulus in a particular situation must be of great importance in ensuring the survival of the organism.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 96

Question 3.
What did Galen conclude after his observations?
Answer:
After the observations of his patient, Galen a Greek physiologist concluded that nerves were of two types – those of sensation and those of action.

Question 4.
Why do you think Galen drew such a conclusion?
Answer:
According to Galen the blow in the neck of his patient had damaged the nerves of sensation but had not affected its action. Then Galen concluded that nerves were of two types.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 98

Question 5.
Which organ of our body was the detector and which was the effector in Activity -1?
Answer:
In Activity -1, Eye was the detector and fingers were the effector.

Question 6.
What do you think that the information carried on the afferent and efferent nerves?
Answer:
The information carried by afferent nerve is “scale is falling”.
The information carried by the efferent nerve is “to hold the scale”.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 99

Question 7.
What other effectors would act under these circumstances?
Answer:

1. Withdraw our hands, when our fingers touch a hot object.
2. Closing eyes when bright light is focussed on eyes.
3. We sneeze when something enters the nose.
4. We cough when inhaled dust or some other circumstances.

Question 8.
What does this tell us about the association nerves?
Answer:
The sensory nerves in the spinal cord makes connections with other neurons in the grey matter. These neurons are called association neurons or interneurons. The association neurons process the information and generate responses.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 100

Question 9.
Think of any action and try to make a sketch of reflex arc.
Answer:

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 102

Question 10.
According to you what would be the function of the spinal cord?
Answer:
Functions of the spinal cord :

1. Spinal cord sends information received from different parts of the body to brain.
2. Also it sends the information to various parts received from brain.
3. Spinal cord also play a major role in reflex actions.

Question 11.
Are all functions of our body under direct control of the brain and spinal cord? Why do you think so?
Answer:
Yes. All the functions of our body are under direct control of the brain and spinal cord. The 43 pairs of peripheral nervous system associated with brain and spinal cord plays an important role in disposing our body functions.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 103

Question 12.
Which root according to you gets signals from afferent nerves?
Answer:
The dorsal root of the spinal cord gets signals from afferent nerves.

Question 13.
What do you think the end of these nerves act at the muscular end?
Answer:
At the ends of these nerves can involuntarily control several functions of regions like internal organs, blood vessels, smooth and cardiac muscles and is called an autonomous nervous system. It has voluntary control of muscles of some areas of skin and the skeletal muscle.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 104

Question 14.
To which organs of the body do the nerves go from the ganglions near the vertebral column?
Answer:
The organs like heart, lungs, stomach, intestines, urinary bladder, kidneys, hand fingers of the body, the nerves go from the ganglions near the vertebral column.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 105

Question 15.
What are the organs that receives nerves starting from the brain?
Answer:
Eye, mouth, tongue, salivary glands are the organs receives nerves starting from the brain.

Question 16.
Which are the organs whose activities are influenced by the sympathetic nervous system?
Answer:
Eye – pupil, heart, lungs, blood vessels, sweat glands, digestive tract, kidneys, penis are the organs influenced by the sympathetic nervous system.

Question 17.
Which are the organs whose activities are influenced by the parasympathetic system?
Answer:
Stomach, intestines, salivary glands, reproductive organs, etc., are influenced by para sympathetic system.

Question 18.
What do you understand about the functions of parasympathetic nervous system?
Answer:
Parasympathetic nervous system slows down the body functions such as feed & breed, rest & digest, sexual arose, lacrimation, urination, defecation and digestion.

Question 19.
What do you understand about the functions of sympathetic nervous system?
Answer:
Sympathetic nervous system speeds up the body functions. Dilates pupil, heart – increases rate, force of contraction, lungs dilates, blood vessels contraction, etc. are the functions controlled by sympathetic nervous system.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 107

Question 20.
Have you ever observed the duration of anger?
Answer:
The duration of anger will be sometimes ten minutes or fifteen minutes or according to the situation.

Question 21.
Why does anger come down?
Answer:
Anger is always short lived factor. Increased levels of adrenalin are responsible for anger. When the levels of adrenalin in the blood come down slowly. We came to normal state.

Question 22.
What may happen if anger persists for a longer period?
Answer:
If anger persists for longer time, regular metabolic activities are disturbed.

Question 23.
What will happen if it is continued for longer periods of time?
Answer:
The sugar levels in the blood rise than normal level. Blood pressure increases, burning sensation in the heart, stomach upsets are the some of the abnormal conditions may happen.

10th Class Biology 5th Lesson Coordination – The Linking System Activities

Activity – 1

Holding a falling stick.
Answer:
Take a long scale or stick at least around V2 meter. Keep your fingers in holding position. Ask your friend to hold the stick / scale near the end and let the other end be suspended between your fingers.
Let there be a very small gap around a centimeter between your thumb and stick/scale and fore finger. Now let you friend allow it to fall. Try to hold it.

1. Could you hold it exactly at the point where it was suspended between your fingers?
   Answer:
   No. I cannot hold it exactly at the point.
2. How far up was this point from the end suspended between your fingers?
   Answer:
   2 cm up (nearly at the end of the scale).
3. Why did this happen?
   Answer:
   Because it is the sudden action. To hold it fastly. The exact point went up.
4. How fast do you think the process was?
   Answer:
   The process was so fast in a fraction of a second.
5. What makes this kind of communication possible?
   Answer:
   Rapidity of response indicates an efficient communication system linking those parts that pick up stimuli that trigger a response by the nervous system.

Activity – 2

Observe the permanent slide of nerve cell or neuron under microscope and try to find out its parts. Compare with the following diagram.
Answer:
Structural unit of the nervous system is the nerve cell or neuron. Neuron is highly specialised cell. Neurons carry impulses or messages. New nerve cells are not produced to replace the damaged or destroyed nerve cell. A neuron has three parts. They are

1. cyton
2. axon and
3. dendrites

1. The cyton:

1. It is also called the cell body.
2. It has a large and round nucleus.
3. In the cytoplasm of the cyton, nissl granules are present.

2. Axon:

1. It is the long and cylindrical process that arises from the cyton.
2. In some nerve cells, axon is surrounded by a layer of fatty material known as myelin sheath.
3. The myelin sheath is not continuous throughout length of the axon.
4. It is broken at regular intervals.
5. These broken spots are called as nodes of Ranvier.

3. Dendrites: Arise from the cyton they are much branched, when compared to axon.

Activity – 3

What is knee jerk reflex?
Answer:
Cross the legs, in a seated position, so that the lower half of the uppermost leg hangs freely over the other. Strike the area below the knee cap sharply, while firmly grasping the front part of the thigh with the other hand. Note the changes in shape of the thigh muscles.

1. What changes do you observe in the thigh muscle?
   Answer:
   The thigh muscles get contracted and becomes short.
2. What do we call this type of response?
   Answer:
   This type of responses are called involuntary actions. Such type of actions in the body are carried by without our involvement and our knowledge.
3. What do we call the action of kicking a foot ball?
   Answer:
   Kicking of a foot ball is a voluntary action’ These actions are within our control.
4. How is the knee jerk action takes place?
   Answer:
   In the knee jerk action a nerve pathway was involved.
   v) Do you think most of the functions in our body go about in an involuntary manner? Why ? Why not ?
   Answer:
   Most of our body functions are done without the involvement of our knowledge. For example, heart beating, respiration, digestion, etc., are the involuntary actions which are carried by our body.

Activity – 4

Touch the leaves of Mimosa pudica (athipathi, touch me not) plant and observe the response of leaves.

1. Are they folding?
   Answer:
   When the leaves of Mimosa are touched the leaves get folding. Touching the leaves is the stimulus and folding is the response.
2. In which direction the folding of the leaves take place?
   Answer:
   The folding of the leaves take place inward direction.
3. Give some examples of situations in plants responding to a certain stimulus.
   Answer:
   Examples: The sun flower turning to the direction of sun, the bending response of the plant when it is kept in the dark. Some of leaves of the trees opens at the day time and closes after sun set.
   Phototropism of stem and geotropism of roots, hydrotropism of roots of plants growing towards water and thigmotropism where the creepers like cucumber, bitter – gourd takes the help of tendrils and wind around the support are some of the examples of response to stimulus in plants.

Activity – 5

Take a glass jar and fill with soil. Sow a bean seed near the wall of the jar. After 4 – 5 days you will notice seed germination. Keep the jar under the sun. Observe how root and shoot grows. Then tilt the glass jar and keep the plant horizontally. Observe the direction of the root and shoot growth for more than a week.

1. Does the shoot take a horizontal tilt after a week?
   Answer:
   After a week the shoot takes a horizontal tilt.
2. Which side of the shoot may have grown more and which side less to bring about this effect?
   Answer:
   The shoot grown more towards the light and less where light is not falling.
3. Do you find any difference in the shape of epidermal cells?
   Answer:
   The straight portions of the epidermal cells shows no bending but the bending portions of epidermal cells shows bending.
4. Who performed experiments on phototropism?
   Answer:
   Charles Darwin and his son Francis Darwin performed some experiments on phototropism.
5. What did they do in their experiment?
   Answer:
   Charles Darwin and his son Francis Darwin performed experiments on phototropism. They covered the terminal portion of the tip of stem (coleoptile) with a cylinder of metal foil. Exposed the plant to light coming from the side.
6. What did they observe by that experiment?
   Answer:
   They observed that the bending towards the light (characteristic) of the seedling did not occur. If light was permitted to penetrate the cylinder bending occurred normally.
7. What did Charles Darwin and his son Francis Darwin state on their experiment?
   Answer:
   They stated that when seedlings are freely exposed to a lateral light some ‘influence’ is transmitted from upper to the lower part causing the material to bend.
8. What are the experiments of F.W. Went and how did he succeeded in separating ‘influence’ from the plant?
   Answer:
   F.W. Went cut off coleoptile tips from oat seedlings. He placed the tips on a slice of agar and left them for about an hour.
   He then cut agar into small blocks and placed a block on one side each stump of the decapitated plants. They were kept in the dark during the entire experiment. Within one hour he observed a distinct bending away from the side on which agar block was placed.
9. How did Went come to know about auxin?
   Answer:
   Went interpreted these experiments as showing that the coleoptile tip exerted it’s effect by means of chemical stimulus rather than a physical stimulus such as an electrical impulse.
   This chemical stimulus came to be known as auxin. In this way the first plant hormone auxin was discovered by F.W. Went.
10. What is the meaning of auxin in Greek?
    Answer:
    The Greek word auxin means to increase.

 

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 9 Rampur: A Village Economy.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the main factor of production in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
The main factor of production in the agriculture sector is land.

Question 2.
Why were usually men paid more wages than women for the same work?
Answer:

1. Because ours is a male-dominated society.
2. Women are paid less wages because of gender bias.

Question 3.
Write any two aspects of Rampur village’s economy which you like.
Answer:

1. In Rampur no land is left idle.
2. The non-agricultural sector also developed.
3. Due to the development of the transport sector, other sectors of the economy also developed.

Question 4.
What is multiple cropping?
Answer:
To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the same year is called multiple cropping.

Question 5.
What are the main non-farm production activities taking place in your region?
Answer:

1. Transportation
2. Dairy farming
3. Brick making
4. Carpentry
5. Basket making
6. Poultry
7. Shopkeeping
8. Fishing, etc.

Question 6.
Who are called as labour force?
Answer:
Labour force: People, in the age group of 15 – 59 are labour force, (or)
People who are employed are called labour force.

Question 7.
How do the small farmers procure the capital needed for farming?
Answer:
The small farmers procure the capital needed for farming by borrowing money from

1. Large farmers
2. Moneylenders
3. The traders who supply various inputs for cultivation.

Question 8.
Create a slogan on the importance of agriculture.
Answer:
Without agriculture – there is no future.
No farmer-No food.

Question 9.
Which is the main production activity in villages across India?
Answer:
Farming is the main production activity in villages across India.

Question 10.
Name any two non-farming activities in Rampur village.
Answer:
Small scale manufacturing, dairy farming, transport services, etc.

Question 11.
Who owns the majority of land in Rampur village?
Answer:
80 upper-caste families own the majority of land in Rampur village.

Question 12.
What educational facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has two primary schools and one high school.

Question 13.
What health facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has a primary health centre run by the government and one private dispensary where the sick are treated.

Question 14.
What is the main aim of production?
Answer:
The main aim of production is to produce goods and services required by the people.

Question 15.
What is a marketable surplus?
Answer:
The difference between the quantity of output that a farmer produces during a year and the quantity that he keeps with himself for his own and family’s consumption is called a marketable surplus.

Question 16.
Who are small farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own less than 2 hectares of land are known as small farmers.

Question 17.
Who are the medium farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own more than 2 hectares and less than 10 hectares of land are called medium farmers.

Question 18.
Who are large farmers?
Answer:
The farmers who own more than 10 hectares of land are known as large farmers.

Question 19.
What is the basic constraint in raising farm production?
Answer:
Land area under cultivation is the basic constraint in raising farm production because it is fixed and scarce.

Question 20.
What is the minimum wage rate for a farm labourer?
Answer:
The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is Rs. 60/- per day.

Question 21.
Which is the most abundant factor of production?
Answer:
Labour is the most abundant factor of production.

Question 22.
What do medium and large farmers do with their earnings from surplus farm produce?
Answer:
A part of the earning from surplus farm produce is saved and kept for buying capital for the next season. Another part may be utilized for lending to small farmers who require a loan.

Question 23.
How did the spread of electricity help the people of Rampur?
Answer:
a) Electricity helped farmers in running tubewells in the fields.
b) It is also used for carrying out various small scale business in the village.

Question 24.
What are the sources of irrigation?
Answer:

1. Canals
2. Tubewells
3. Tanks and
4. Rains.

Question 25.
What is fixed capital?
Answer:
Tools, machines and buildings are called ‘fixed’ capital because these can be used in production for several years.

Question 26.
What is working capital?
Answer:
Raw materials and money form part of working capital. The capital which is used for production is known as working capital.

Question 27.
Classify the capital investment on various items in production.
Answer:
There are two types of capital investments in production.

1. Physical or fixed capital
2. Working capital

Question 28.
Name the items/factors that are needed for production.
Answer:
There are four factors of production. They are:

1. land 2
2. labour
3. capital and
4. organisation.

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the aims and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers?
Answer:
The aims and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers:

1. Some more days of work.
2. Still better wages.
3. Better education to their children in the local govt, schools.
4. No social discrimination.
5. Chances of leadership activities, etc.

Question 2.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. 87% of the farmers are small farmers are holding only 48% of the cultivated land.
2. 13% are the medium and large farmers.
3. There is unequal land distribution in India.

Question 3.
Convert the information given below into a pie-chart (rough diagram). Write your observation.

Type of farmers	Percentage of cultivated area
Small farmers	48%
Medium and large farmers	52%

Answer:
Cultivated Area

Observation: While a major part of the land (52%) is under control of medium and large farmers, minor part of land (48%) is under the control of small farmers.

Question 4.
Write a letter to the Tahasildar (MRO), explaining the problems faced by the farmers because of famine.
Answer:

Kalyandurg,
Date : xx xx xxxx.

To,
The Tahsildar,
Mandal Revenue office,
Anantapur

Sub: Problems faced by farmers due to famine – request for write off old loans.

Respected Sir,

I am from Kalyandurg I would like bring to your notice the following one and for favourable help. The rains are very less in the before year. So, crops left much loss. The farmers get into debt. They can’t repay the loans. They need money for purchasing seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and to cultivate the land. It will be highly difficult to get a loan again from bank.

Hence, I request you place it in front of the government, write – off the old loans and give them the new loans. I hope you provide immediate help to the farmers without loss to them to grow the crop this year.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
x x x x x

Question 5.
Mention the factors of production.
(OR)
Explain any one factor of production.
Answer:
Land: An area of ground, especially when used for a particular purpose such as farming or building; A necessary factor for production.
Labour: Workers especially people who do practical work with their hands.
Working capital: The requirement of raw material and money which are used up in the production cycle.
Fixed capital: Physical Capital = Tools, machine and buildings, which are not used up or consumed immediately in the production process.
Knowledge: It is essential to use all the above in a meaningful way to produce some goods or services.

Question 6.
Today, why is there a need for expansion of non-farm activities in rural areas?
Answer:
Nowadays farming is not providing regular employment to rural people and they are not getting sufficient income also. That’s why the expansion of non – farm activities in rural areas is needed. Nowadays people with some amount of capital can set up non-farm activities.

It requires very little land. Banks provide loans to self-employment purpose. People can get market facilities to sell their goods. Neighbouring towns and cities provide more demand to village goods.
Ex: Milk, jaggery, broomsticks etc.

Question 7.
How do the farmers get their capital for agriculture?
Answer:
For capital, farmers face many troubles. They get their capital by borrowing from large farmers and village money lenders. They take loans from traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. They get from banks also but very less and rare.

Question 8.
What can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in the villages?
Answer:

1. At present, non-farm production activities engage less number of people in villages.
2. Many things can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in the villages.
3. It is important to see that loan available to people, who are interested in setting up non-farm production activities, at low rate of interest.
4. It is good to have markets where these goods and services produced can be sold.
5. To connect more and more villages to towns and cities through good roads.
6. As these require little land and some capital, entrepreneurs should be encouraged.

Question 9.
Describe the work of a farmer with 1 hectare of land.
Answer:

1. The farmer with 1 hectare of land is considered as a small farmer.
2. He usually keeps large share of production for household needs.
3. He does not have much saving for capital.
4. When he thinks of inputs expenditure, he may borrow money from large farmer or moneylender.
5. In case of borrowing from large farmer, he not only pays high rate of interest but he is also forced to work as a labourer in the large farmer’s fields.
6. In case of borrowing from money lender, he has to pay high rates of interests.

Question 10.
Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, modern farming methods like the use of fertilizers, pesticides, high yielding variety of seeds, power-driven tubewells of irrigation, latest tools and implements like tractors, harvesters, threshers, etc. require more inputs which are manufactured in industry.

Question 11.
Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?
Answer:

1. It is very important to increase the area under irrigation because it is not wise to depend on monsoon rains which were uncertain and erratic.
2. To increase production we have to bring more area under irrigation.
3. It helps us to improve the farming pattern or adopt modern farming methods in those areas.

Question 12.
Give the characteristics of Rural industries.
Answer:

1. Rural industries are small scale manufacturing units.
2. They involve very simple production methods.
3. The output is very small.
4. The work is usually carried out by the members of the family.
5. The work is carried out at home and not in workshops.
6. The profits earned are also less.

Question 13.
Explain ‘Multiple Cropping’ in your own words.
Answer:

1. Growing more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as multiple cropping.
2. It is the most common and traditional practice to increase production on a given piece of land.
3. All farmers in Rampur grow at least two main crops.

Question 14.
Which changes have taken place in the way of farming practised in India?
Answer:

1. Traditional seeds have been replaced by HYVS.
2. Natural manures were replaced by chemical fertilizers.
3. Use of pesticides.
4. Use of farm machinery.
5. Use of tubewells for irrigation, instead of Persian wheels.

Question 15.
“Excessive use of chemical Fertiliser and pesticides declines the Fertility of land”.
Give your opinion on this.
Answer:

1. Experience shows fertility of the land is declining due to overuse, excessive use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides.
2. The situation of water is equally alarming.
3. Underground water tables have fallen rapidly across the country.
4. The use of natural resources also not always been judicious while increasing production.

Question 16.
“Labour in an essential item for production”. Read the statement and interpretate.
Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Question 17.
The expenditure on tools, machines and buildings is called as physical capital. Ex¬plain why.
Answer:

1. The expenditure on tools, machines and building is called physical capital.
2. They are not used up or consumed immediately in the process of production.
3. They help to produce goods over many years.
4. They require some repair and maintenance so that they remain useful and can be used year after year.
5. That is why they are called fixed or physical capital.

Question 18.
Ground-level waters are rigorously declining nationwide. Suggest some alternatives.
Answer:

1. Underground water levels are deteriorating at a faster rate throughout India.
2. To conserve water schemes like a watershed, soaking pit, check dams, afforestation, bund construction, etc., should be taken up.
3. Digging borewells should be allowed only for drinking water but not irrigation.
4. Farmers should look for alternate crops which use lesser water.

Question 19.
Name some Dairy activities in your area.
Answer:

1. Many families in my region are engaged in milk production.
2. Various types of grass, maize, bajra, etc., is used to feed the cattle.
3. Two tradesmen established milk collection and storing points.
4. Family labour and especially women take care of the rearing of animals.

Question 20.
Explain the business tactics of a small businessman in your area.
Answer:

1. Once Mr. Venkateswara Rao organised a cloth business in my region.
2. At the beginning, he used to wander every household to sell cloths and collects money weekly.
3. By conducting his business reliably and supplying quality items he became popular.
4. Later he set up his own business firm and till date it is running well.

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Based on the pie chart and the particulars given below, answer the questions.

1. Which kind of houses are more in Rampur Village?
   Answer:
   Huts and thatched houses are more in Rampur village.
2. In which category does 60% of Rampur village belong?
   Answer:
   60% of Rampur village belong to the poor class.
3. State approximately, the number of middle-class people in Rampur village.
   Answer:
   25% people of Rampur belong to the middle class.
4. Which category of people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks?
   Answer:
   Rich people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks.

Question 2.
Read the table given below and answer the following questions.

Workers	Ploughing	Sowing	Weeding	Transplanting	Harvesting	Winnowing	Threshing	Picking Cotton
Male	214	197	215	–	164	168	152	–
Female	–	152	130	143	126	124	118	136

1. What are the works done only by male workers?
   Answer:
   Ploughing.
2. What are the works done only by female workers?
   Answer:
   Transplanting, Picking cotton.
3. In which works, the wages are different for male and female?
   Answer:
   Sowing, Weeding, Harvesting, Winnowing, Threshing.
4. What are the reasons for paying less wages to female workers than male workers?
   Answer:
   The concept existing in the society is that, the women do less work than men.

Question 3.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the non – farm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is essential item in production.

Conclusion: If government provides loans to landless labour for agriculture purpose, motor pumpsets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in the agricultural sector.

Question 4.
Mention the factors of production and explain any two of them.
Answer:

1. The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we want.
2. There are four requirements for the production of goods and services.

They are:

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital – (a) Physical or fixed capital (b) Working capital
4. Knowledge and enterprise

1. Land: The first requirement is land, and other natural resources such as water, forests, minerals.
It is a free gift of nature and it is neither created nor destroyed.
2. Labour: It is a factor which helps in production. There are three types of labour – skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled. Some production activities require highly educated workers to per¬form the necessary task. Other activities require manual work. Each worker provides the labour necessary for production.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Data refers to the land cultivated by farmers).

Type of farmers	Size of plots	% of farmers	% of cultivated area
Small farmers	Less than 2 hectares	87%	48%
Medium and Large farmers	More than 2 hectares	13%	52%

Answer:

1. The given data refers to the land cultivated by farmers.
2. As per the data, 87% of the total farmers, i.e. small farmers are cultivating only 48% of the total land.
3. The remaining 13% of the farmers are medium and large farmers. They are cultivating the remaining 52% of the land.
4. This indicates that there is no equal distribution of land among farmers.
5. I opine that the distribution of cultivated land is unequal in India.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The land is the most crucial factor necessary for farm production. Land area under cultivation, however^practically fixed. In Rampur, since 1921 there has been no expansion in land area under cultivation. By then, the nearby forests had been cleared and some of the wastelands in the village Were converted to cultivable land. There is no further scope to increase agriculture production by longing new land under cultivation.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that land is essential for agriculture.
2. The cultivable land is not expanding.
3. In some areas a few forest lands are cleared and the waste land is being converted to agriculture land. There is no other way of expansion of land.
4. My opinion is that the issue discussed in this paragraph is correct. The basic factor of production is land.
5. The population is increasing day by day.
6. The food grain production is not increasing or expanding in proportion to the population. It is the time for searching for new ways of increasing the production of food grains.
7. Green revolution is also to be encouraged.
8. Rampur village is a model for us.
9. In conclusion I would like to say that there is much land without irrigation.
10. Due to some other reasons like power cut, lack of capital, non-availability of ground water the farmers are not able to involve in farm activities.
11. The government should concentrate on these issues and try to solve them so as to increase the cultivable land and increase the food grains.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Most small farmers have to borrow money to arrange for the working capital. They borrow from large farmers or the village moneylenders or the traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. The rate of interest on such loans is very high. They are put to a great distress to repay the loan.

Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, small farmers in villages take loans from the moneylenders.
2. They don’t have sufficient capital for farming activities.
3. As they are charged a high rate of interest, they are put to distress.
4. This is the real situation of small farmers.
5. I do agree with this. My comments on this paragraph are as follows.
6. Generally, large farmers have sufficient capital for next crop.
7. Small farmers depend on others for loans.
8. The government should concentrate on providing a loan facility to the small farmers without collateral.
9. Farmers’ cooperative societies are to be encouraged.
10. Minimum facilities and needs are to be identified and fulfilled.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

There is often a loss inform activities, especially when crops are damaged because of floods, pests, etc. The other risk is sudden fall in price of agricultural produce. In such situations, farm¬ers find it difficult to recover the working capital they had spent.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given it is clearly understood that when there is a natural hazard like floods or pests the farmer’s life will be in risk.
2. In those conditions, they hardly survive.
3. Many of the farmers commit suicide because of this situation.
4. Farmers normally desire to grow more food grains.
5. They hope the yield must be more. They spend much on agriculture.
6. They depend on moneylenders for loans. Sometimes they take loans from banks also. They have to pay all these loans when the yield comes. Due to the pests, floods or drought, they don’t have money to pay the loans or for their survival.
7. Many a time, they commit suicides.
8. When they face this type of situation the government should give them a helping hand.
9. They should be saved from losing their lives.
10. New schemes should be launched for the sake of farmers who lose because of these natural hazards.

Question 9.
From your field visit find out at what rate of interest do farmers borrow when they need money for inputs. Compare with interest charged by the bank.
Answer:

1. Farmers need money for inputs like seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and repair of tools, etc.
2. Small farmers cannot mobilise that money.
3. They borrow from medium and large farmers or moneylenders.
4. They charge higher rate of interest, usually 36% per annum.
5. Whereas banks provide crop loan to farmers.
6. But banks charge only 8% per annum.
7. Thus there is great variation in the rate of interest.

Question 10.
Groundwater levels are deplected dangerously day by day. If this is continued, what would be the consequences?
Answer:

1. The groundwater levels are depleted dangerously day by day.
2. Excessive use of groundwater for irrigation and industrial purposes has resulted in a decrease of groundwater levels.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. We will face the problem of scarcity of water.
5. Water will not be available for domestic purposes also.
6. Hence we should not over-extract water from tube wells.
7. Water should be allowed to sink into the ground.
8. Under any cost we should conserve groundwater for future generations.

Question 11.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of Maharashtra
   Answer:
   Mumbai
2. The birth place of river Godavari.
   Answer:
   Triyambak
3. The birth place of river Krishna.
   Answer:
   Mahabaleswar
4. Santal tribal people are in this state.
   Answer:
   Odisha
5. Uttar Pradesh
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Jammu & Kashmir
9. Assam
10. Tripura

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Reproduction – The Generating System Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 6th Lesson Reproduction – The Generating System

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction – The Generating System Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Why do fish and frog produce a huge number of eggs each year?
Answer:

1. External fertilisation occurs in fish and frog.
2. The female lays a vast number of eggs in water and male releases some millions of sperms on to them in water.
3. Eggs may be carried to a long-distance by water currents or they may be eaten by predators.
4. So fertilisation is a chance factor and controlled by nature.
5. Fertilisation occurs externally hence it is inevitable to give rise to vast number of eggs by fish and frog.

Question 2.
Give examples and explain what is meant by external fertilisation?
Answer:

1. Fusion of the male and female gametes is called fertilisation.
2. The fertilized egg (ovum) is called zygote.
3. If the fertilisation occurs outside the body of the female organism then it is called external fertilisation.
4. External fertilisation is seen in fish, frog and earthworm, etc.

Question 3.
Write the differences between
a) Grafting – Layering b) Stamen – Carpel.
Answer:
a) Differences between Grafting and Layering.

Grafting	Layering
1. Grafting is a technique of inserting a part of one plant into another plant in such a way that the two will unite and continue their growth.	1. Stems that form roots while still attached to the parent plants are called layers. Propagating the plants in this method is known as layering.
2. Two plants of the same species are required for grafting.	2. Only one plant is required for layering.
3. Grafting helps to pressure and perpetuate varieties that cannot reproduce by vegetative method.	3. In layering we can propagate the plant varieties which are required by us.
4. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.	4. In layering the plant already has desirable characters is propagated.
5. The two plants stock and scion and joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant.	5. The common practice in layering is to injure the portion to be layered by notching, cutting, girdling.
6. Ex: Mango, apple, guava, etc.	6. Ex: Jasmine, rose, grapevine, etc.

b) Differences between Stamen and Carpel.

Stamen	Carpel
1. Male reproductive organ of the flowering plant.	1. Female reproductive organ of the flowering plant.
2. It has two parts – anther and filament.	2. It has three parts – style, stigma and ovary.
3. Stamen produces pollen grains.	3. Carpel produces ovule.
4. Pollen grain contains the male gamete.	4. Ovule contains the female gamete ovum or egg.

Question 4.
Describe the mode of fertilization in plants with a diagram.
Answer:

1. Fertilisation is the process of fusion of male and female gametes.
2. For the fusion of male and female gametes pollen grains have to reach the surface of the stigma. This is called pollination.
3. Pollen grains received by the stigma germinate and give rise to pollen tubes. Only one pollen tube finally reaches the embryo-sac.
4. This tube will have two male nuclei, which migrate to the tip of the pollen tube at the time of fertilization.
   
5. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle and discharges the two male gametes into its embryo-sac.
6. One male nucleus (n) or (gamete) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form a diploid (2n) zygote. This is first fertilisation.
7. The other male nucleus (n) or (gamete) reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) and fuses with it to form the endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization in the embryo-sac.
8. Thus double fertilisation occurs in embryo-sac which is unique in flowering plants.

Question 5.
What are the different modes of asexual reproduction? Cite them with examples.
Answer:
Asexual reproduction takes place by six different methods. They are:

1. Fission
2. Budding
3. Spore formation
4. Regeneration
5. Fragmentation and
6. Vegetative propagation.

1. Fission: Single-celled organisms split into two equal offsprings or more offsprings. Ex: Paramoecium, bacteria.

2. Budding: A growth on the body as a bud grows to form identical copy of parent. Ex: Yeast.

3. Spore formation : Spores are produced in the sporangium.
Ex : Rhizopus, mucor, bacteria, ferns and mosses.

4. Regeneration :
a) Ability of organisms to give rise to new individual organisms from their body parts.
b) That is if the individual is some how cut or broken up into many pieces, many of these pieces grow into separate individuals.
Ex: Hydra and Planaria.

5. Fragmentation:
a) In multicellular organisms with relatively simple body organisation breaks up into smaller pieces upon maturation.
b) These pieces of fragments grow into new individuals.
Ex: Flatworms, Spirogyra, moulds, lichens.

6. Parthenogenesis: In the process generally the female gametes or ova develop into zygote without fertilization.
Ex : Bees, ants and wasps.

7. Vegetative propagation: When a vegetative part like stem, root and leaf can produce a new organism it is called vegetative propagation. It is of two types.
a) Natural propagation:
Bryophyllum Dahlia, Carrot, Radish
b) Artificial propagation:
i) Layering: Eg: Nerium, Guava, Orange, Rose
ii) Cutting: Eg: Rose, Hibiscus, Sugarcane
iii) Grafting: Eg: Sapota, Guava, Mango, etc.

Question 6.
In what ways does sexual reproduction differ from asexual one? State at least three reasons.
(OR)
What are the differences between sexual and asexual reproduction?
Answer:

Sexual reproduction	Asexual reproduction
1. Two parents are required.	1. One parent is needed.
2. Gametes are formed.	2. Gametes are not formed.
3. Fertilization takes place.	3. Fertilization does not take place.
4. Zygote is formed.	4. Zygote is not formed.
5. New characters are formed.	5. New characters are not formed but only through mutation.
6. Meiosis takes place.	6. Meiosis does not take place.
7. Found in higher animals.	7. Found in lower animals.
8. Support to evolution process.	8. Supports evolution but not frequently.
9. Takes several months to complete.	9. Takes very short period to complete.

Apart from the above differences Sexual and Asexual reproduction differs in the following ways:

1. The unit of reproduction in sexual reproduction is gamete whereas in asexual repro-duction it may be whole parent body or bud or a fragment or a single somatic cell.
2. Sexual reproduction need more time to complete and it is less time in asexual reproduction.

Question 7.
How are sperm cells adapted for their function?
Answer:

1. Sperm cell is adapted to its function by carrying genetic information to an egg.
2. Its body consists of four parts :
   1. Head
   2. Neck
   3. Middle piece and
   4. Tail.
3. Sperm has a streamlined body that allows it to move quickly.
4. Nucleus is present in the head.
5. Special structure on the head called acrosome helps in penetrating the ovum during fertilisation.
6. The head of sperms also contain enzymes to breakdown and digest the zone on the egg through which it penetrates and fertilise it.
7. Large number of mitochondria are present in the mid-region, so it is able to produce a lot of energy in order to operate tail.
8. Its tail allows it to swim towards the egg for fertilisation.

Question 8.
The menstrual cycle prepares the uterus for a fertilised egg. How long is an average menstrual cycle from start to finish?
Answer:

1. The cycle of changes that occur in the female reproductive system is called menstrual cycle.
2. The average menstrual cycle from start to finish is 28 days long.

Question 9.
When the foetus is growing inside the uterus it needs nutrients? What provides these nutrients?
Answer:

1. When the foetus is growing inside the uterus it needs nutrients for its growth and development.
2. These nutrients are provided by the mother’s blood through a special structure called placenta.
3. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother.
4. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy and becomes an important structure for nourishment of the embryo.
5. The foetus is connected to placenta in mother’s body through umbilical cord.

Question 10.
Which type of substances are absorbed by foetus from the mother?
Answer:

1. The digested food from the mother travel through the mother’s blood stream and exchange to the blood stream of the foetus through the placenta.
2. In addition to ingested food the mother’s body continuously breakes down muscles, fat and bones.
3. Releasing proteins, fat and calcium to the mother’s blood that can be absorbed through the placenta to provide nutrients to the foetus.
4. Some hormones also transfer to baby.

Question 11.
What is the job of Amniotic sac?
Answer:

1. The amniotic sac is a bag of fluid inside a women’s womb (uterus) where the embryo and foetus develops and grows.
2. The cavity within the amnion becomes filled with fluid called amniotic fluid.
3. The embryo or unborn baby floats and moves in the amniotic fluid.
4. Amniotic sac and amniotic fluid give protection against minor mechanical injury.
5. This fluid also provides a stable temperature and assists in maintaining a consistent body temperature for the unborn child.

Question 12.
What are the advantages of sexual reproduction?
(OR)
What are uses of sexual reproduction?
Answer:
Advantages of sexual reproduction:

1. Sexual reproduction promotes diversity of characters in the offsprings by providing genetic variation.
2. It plays an important role in the origin of new species have different characters.
3. This genetic variation leads to the continuous evolution of various species to form better and still better organisms.
4. Sexual reproduction influences in diversity of characters in offsprings.
5. It helps to maintain the continuty of organisms.
6. It leads to new generation to tolerate adverse or diseased conditions.
7. It helps the spreading of population to new areas.

Question 13.
How does reproduction help in providing stability to population of species?
Answer:

1. The reproduction is directly linked to the stability of the population of species because it helps in replacing the lost or aging population with the new population and thus ensures the survival of the species.
2. The process of reproduction ensure continuity of life on earth.
3. In the absence of reproduction one particular species will disappear with time.
4. Reproduction induces variations in the population which help the population to tide over adverse environmental conditions and adapt to changing environment.
5. Reproduction also helps to generate copies of individuals which are suited to a particular environment.

Question 14.
Write the differences between mitosis and meiosis.
Answer:

Mitosis	Meiosis
1. It occurs in somatic cells.	1. It occurs in germ cells.
2. Nucleus divides only once.	2. Nucleus divides twice.
3. Two daughter cells are formed.	3. Four daughter cells are formed.
4. Daughter cells are diploid.	4. Daughter cells are haploid.
5. It occurs more frequently.	5. It occurs less frequently.
6. Daughter cells form somatic organs.	6. Daughter cells form gametes.
7. There is only one prophase, one metaphase one anaphase and one telophase.	7. There are two of each phase and five sub-phases in prophase -1.
8. Number of chromosomes are not changed in the daughter cells.	8. Number of chromosomes are reduced to half.
9. Chromosome number doubles at the beginning of each cell division.	9. Chromosome number is not doubled. It doubles after the end of first meiotic division.
10. No crossing over in chromosomes.	10. Crossing over occurs chromosomes.
11. Equation division.	11. Reduction division.

Question 15.
What happens to the wall of the uterus during menstruation? (OR)
What changes occur in the wall of the uterus during menstruation?
Answer:

1. During the early stage of menstruation the cells in the wall of uterus increase in number by repeated mitotic divisions.
2. The inner lining of uterus becomes thick and soft with lot of blood capillaries in it.
3. These changes in the uterus are necessary because in case the ovum released by the ovary gets fertilised by the sperm, then the uterus has to keep this fertilised ovum for further development and supply it with food and oxygen etc.
4. If fertilisation does not occur the additional growth of the uterus is detached and expelled along with some amount of blood.

Question 16.
“All unicellular organisms undergo only mitotic cell division during favourable conditions” – Do you support this statement? Why?
Answer:

1. Unicellular organisms undergo mitotic cell division not only during favourable conditions but also in unfavourable conditions.
   So I don’t support the given statement.
2. When the organism finds favourable conditions it deserves to perform division called Fission. Ex: Amoeba.
3. Sometimes scarcity of food or to save it life, some organisms undergo mitotic cell division.
4. Organisms like paramoecium undergo a type of sexual reproduction called conjugation during unfavourable conditions.

Question 17.
What would be the consequences if there is no meiosis in organisms that reproduce sexually?
(OR)
What happens if Meiosis does not take place in reproductive cells?
Answer:

1. If meiosis did not occur, a fusion of gametes would result in a doubling of the chromosomes for each successive reproduced generation.
2. For example, in case of man egg cells and sperm cells like other cells must contain 46 chromosomes.
   
3. This results in the formation of abnormalities in each generation.
4. If meiosis did not occur, there is no genetic variation in the offsprings produced by random fusion of the gametes.
5. New characters will not appear in the offsprings.
6. The process of evolution will be stopped.

Question 18.
Vicky’s father wants to grow a single plant having two desirable characters colourful flowers and big fruits. What method will you suggest to him and why?
Answer:

1. I will suggest the method of grafting to him.
2. Grafting enables us to combine the most desirable characteristics of two plants into a single plant with colourful flowers and big fruits.
3. By grafting method, a very young scion can be made to flower and produce fruits fast when it is grafted to the stock.
4. Vicky’s father can grow one of the two plants as stock and second plant can be graft to some of its branches as scions.
5. Then he can get the plant with both the desirable characters.

Question 19.
Uproot an onion plant and take a thin section of its root tip. Stain it and observe under the microscope. Draw as you see and identify the stages of the cell division.
Answer:

Question 20.
Visit a nearby village and collect information on how farmers grow sugarcane, flowering plants like chrysanthemum, primerose and vegetables like stem tubers, plump gourd (dondakaya), etc. Make a report and present in class.
Answer:
Report on growing methods of various plants :

Plant name	Growing method
Sugarcane	Stem bits with nodes called seed pieces or sets can be planted horizontally in the farrows.
Chrysanthemum	It propagates often by means of suckers (the basal shoot). But some farmers grow these using seeds or the transplanted nursery plants.
Primerose	These are generally grown using cuttings. Its root ball should be cut vertically making sure that each half has at least 2 plant stems.
Potatoes	These are the stem tubers. The nodes on the potato are called eyes which sprout out and grow into a new plant.
Plumpgourd	These have tubers just below the ground which on cutting and planting in soil can give rise to new plants.

Question 21.
Collect the information from school library or using internet what vegetative methods are followed in your district as well as in your state to propagate various plants of economic importance. Represent it with a graph.
Answer:
Vegetative methods followed in our district as well as in our state to propagate various plants of economic importance.
I) Natural vegetative propagation: In this method of vegetative propagation, a part of the plant which may be stem, root-leaf or flower gets detached from the body of the mother plant.

1. Vegetative propagation: Roots of radish, carrot, dahlia develop adventious buds which grow into leafy shoots.
2. Vegetative propagation by stems: Stolons – Vallisneria, offsets – Eichhornia, Rhizome – Banana, Ginger Bulbs – Alliumcepa (Onion); Corn – Colacasia; Tuber – Potato.
3. Vegetative propagation by leaves: Bryophyllum.
4. Vegetative propagation by modified flowers (Bulbils): Agave.

II) Artificial vegetative propagation: Certain flowering plants have the capacity to develop a part of their somatic body into a new independent plant. In artificial vegetative propagation such plants are identified and special techniques are applied to obtain new independent plant.

1. Cutting (Stems): Sugarcane, Roses, Hibiscus, Citrus plants.
2. Cutting (Root): Lemon, Tamarind.
3. Layering: Jasmine, Strawberry, Gooseberry.
4. Grafting: Rubber, Apple, Pear, Citrus, Mango, Guava.
5. Propagation by tissue culture technique: Lily, Rose, Magnolia, Fern, Banana for micropropagation, a small amount of tissue from a suitable part of the parent plant is excised and grown on a nutrient medium under aseptic conditions.

Question 22.
Make a flow chart to show the cell cycle and explain cell division describing different stages of mitosis.
Answer:

Different stages of mitotic cell division:

Stage	Description
1) Prophase	Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes. Chrormisomes split length ways to form chromatids, connected by centromeres. Nuclear membrane breaks down.
2) Metaphase	Chromosomes move to spindle equator, centromeres attached to spindle fibres. Centromeres split, separating the chromatids.
3) Anaphase	Spindle fibres attached to centromeres contract, pulling chromatids towards poles.
4) Telophase	Chromatids elongate, become invisible. Nuclear membranes form round daughter nuclei. Nucleus divides into two and division of cytoplasm starts.
5) Cytokinesis	Cytoplasm divides to form two daughter cells.

Question 23.
Draw neat labelled diagrams of male and female reproductive systems of plant.
Answer:

Question 24.
Observe the following part of flowering plant and prepare a note.
Answer:
The given diagram is the structure of ovule which is present in the ovary (carpel) of plant.

1. An ovule is an egg shaped structure attached by a stalk (Funicle) to the inner side of the ovary.
2. Depending upon the species of plant involved, an ovary may have one, two, several or even hundreds of ovules.
   
3. At the centre of each ovule is a microscopic embryo sac filled with food and water.
4. The embryo-sac is composed of gametophyte cells.
5. The majority of flowering plants have an embryo sac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.
6. They are one egg (female gamete), two synergids, one central cell (secondary nucleus) and three antipodals.
7. Central cell contains two nuclei, they are called polar nuclei.

Question 25.
Prepare a flow chart to explain the process of sexual reproduction in plants
Answer:

Question 26.
Draw a neat labelled diagram to explain plant fertilisation. Write few points on Pollen grain.
Answer:

Pollen grains:

1. Pollen grains develop in anther.
2. Anther consists of spore-forming tissue. Some of the cells in the spore-forming tissue develop as pollen mother cells.
3. Each pollen mother cell undergoes meiosis to form four daughter cells which develop into pollen grains
4. Pollen grains are haploid (‘n’) and are otherwise known as microspores or male gametes.
5. They contain only one set of chromosomes (‘n’).
6. The study of pollen grain is called palynology.
7. During pollination pollen grains are dispersed by wind and insects.
8. Pollen grains are formed in large numbers. They are light in weight and are easily carried by wind currents.

Question 27.
How will you appreciate cell division that helps in perpetuation of life?
Answer:

1. Perpetuation means continuation of life.
2. The perpetuation of life is based on the cell division.
3. Both mitotic and meiotic divisions are very essential for perpetuation of life.
4. In unicellular organisms, the mitotic cell divisions form the entire organisms.
5. Mitotic division is essential for all types of asexual reproductions.
6. In sexually reproducing organisms meiotic cell division helps in formation of gametes with haploid number of chromosomes which fuses to form diploid zygote during fertilization.
7. Zygote further divides by mitosis again and grows into an embryo and then to offspring.
8. Thus both mitotic and meiotic cell divisions play a key role in perpetuation of life. Without cell division, there is no perpetuation of life.

Question 28.
What precautions will you take to keep away from various sexually transmitted?
Answer:
Precautions to be taken to keep away from various sexually transmitted diseases:

1. Avoid sex with any one who has genital sores, a rash, discharge or other symptoms.
2. The only time unprotected sex is a safe if the partners have sex only with each other.
3. I use latex condoms every time 1 participate in sex. I use it for the entire sex act.
4. I avoid sharing towels or under clothing.
5. I wash genital organ before and after intercourse.
6. I will get a vaccination for hepatitis B. This is a series of three shots.
7. I will get tested for HIV for every six months.
8. I will not drunk or take drugs. Under these conditions, I may fail to have safe sex.
9. I consider that not having sex is the only way, sure way to prevent sexually transmitted diseases.
10. Sexual act is supposed to be an act between husband and wife. Hence I will not participate in sex before marriage.
11. When I grow up and get married, I will be upright and faithful to the life partner and will not behave immorally.
12. Hence as a student I will concentrate on studies and create activities to achieve success in life.

Question 29.
Conduct a seminar on child marriages and foeticide.
Answer:
child marriages can also be defined as “any marriage carried out under the age of 18 years and involves the girl who is physically, psychologically, mentally and physiologically immature”.

Causes of Child marriages :

1. Poverty in the families due to unemployment.
2. Illiteracy among people.
3. Ignorance of consequences of child marriages.
4. Strong superstitions among people about child marriages.
5. Religious and traditions are also responsible for occurance of child marriages.

Steps to prevent Child marriages:

1. By creating awareness among the people about the ill effects of child marriages.
2. By educating the people especially in rural areas of backward districts.
3. By providing employment opportunities to all the people.
4. Performing live plays, skits and stage shows to create enlightenment among the rural illiterate women about the pathetic future of kids who are forced to get married.

Foeticide:

1. Foeticide is the illegal practice of killing a foetus. Female foeticide is prevalent in our country as a major social evil.
2. Some kinds of complications in pregnancy can also demand surgical termination of pregnancy after 8 weeks of conception.
3. This is where the abortion is legal and doctors may have to suggest for discontinuous of pregnancy for the sake of health of the mother. However the technique of surgical termination is misused by some people by getting rid of the unborn child.
4. Abortion of foetus is an act of murder. God is the author of life and nobody should have right to take it.

Choose the correct answer.

1. The part of the female reproductive system produces the eggs [ ]
A) Ovary
B) Epididymis
C) Cervix
D) Fallopian tube
Answer: A

2. The term that we use to describe a sperm cell fusing with an egg cell [ ]
A) Fragmentation
B) Fermentation
C) Fertilisation
D) Fusion
Answer: C

3. Which part of the male reproductive system produces (human) the sperm cells ? [ ]
A) Vas deference
B) Epididymis
C) Seminiferous tubules
D) Scrotum
Answer: C

4. How does the sperm break through the egg cell membrane? Choose the option you think is right.   [ ]
A) Tears a hole in the membrane
B) Dissolves the membrane with chemicals
C) Bites through the membrane with teeth
D) Squeezes through gaps in the membrane
Answer: B

5. Why are egg cells larger than sperm cells? Choose the option you think is right. [ ]
A) Egg cells have more cells in them
B) Have food store to help growth after fertilisation
C) Have thicker cell membranes
D) Have larger nuclei
Answer: B

6. Which of these things will affect the way a foetus grows? Choose the option you think is right. [ ]
A) Chemicals in cigarette smoke
B) Alcohol
C) Drugs
D) All of the above
Answer: D

7. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the human life cycle? Choose the right option. [ ]
A) Babyhood, childhood, adolescence, adulthood
B) Childhood, babyhood, adulthood, adolescence
C) Adolescence, babyhood, adulthood, childhood
D) None of the above
Answer: A

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction – The Generating System InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 117

Question 1.
How do you think bacteria were dividing to form curd?
Answer:
Curdling indicates that the increase in number of bacteria by fission.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 118

Question 2.
How do you think this process (parthenogenesis) happens?
Answer:
This process occurs by the development of female gamete or ovum directly develops into zygote without fertilisation.

Question 3.
What about animals?
Answer:

1. Normally the fertilized ovum (zygote) develops into a young one. But the unfertilized ovum also develops into a young one generally the male.
2. The process of development of young ones from unfertilized ovum is called parthenogenesis.
3. In this process sperms develop by mitotic division whereas ova develop by meiotic division.
4. This strange kind of reproduction occurs in animals like bees and wasps.

Question 4.
Is regeneration can also be known as a type of fragmentation? Do you agree? Why? Why not?
Answer:

1. Yes. I agree that regeneration could be also called as a type of fragmentation. Because in both cases pieces or parts from the body of the organism can develop into a new individual.
2. Fragmentation and regeneration occur in multicellular animals.
3. Fragmentation occurs in organisms with relatively simple body organisation.
4. Whereas regeneration occurs in organisms with fully differentiated body organisation.

Question 5.
Which type of fission would produce larger colonies in less period of time. Why?
Answer:
Multiple fission would produce larger colonies in less period of time because more number of daughter cells are formed by multiple fission.

Question 6.
Which mode of asexual reproduction provides maximum scope of choice of desirable characters?
Answer:
Parthenogenesis provides maximum scope of choice of desirable characters.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 120

Question 7.
What are the characters that would you like to select?
Answer:
The characters that I would like to select are plant with large number of fruits which are big in size and taste sweet with less or no seeds.

Question 8.
What mode of propagation would help you to produce the plants with selected characters?
Answer:
Mode of propagation that would help me to produce the plants with selected characters is grafting.

Question 9.
Whether they reproduce by budding or fission or fragmentation, organisms are copies of their parents. Is it true? Why ?
Answer:

1. Yes, it is true that organisms reproduced by budding or fission or fragmentation are copies of their parents.
2. Because budding or fission or fragments are not the methods of sexual reproduction.
3. No gametes were formed or fused in these methods.
4. Exchange of chromosomes or crossing over do not take place. Hence the offsprings produced are similar to their parents.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 122

Question 10.
Do you find any similarities between rhizopus and fern spores and sporangia?
Answer:

1. Both rhizopus and fern reproduce asexually through spores.
2. In both the spores are microscopic, unicellular bodies produced in the sporangia.

Question 11.
What about mushrooms, how do they grow? Discuss in your class.
Answer:
Fungi grow from the fragmentation of hypae. They also form buds which are bulged from out side of cells which detaches after division of the nucleus. A special reproduc¬tive sac called sporangium produces asexual spores which are released outside. Fun¬gal sexual reproduction includes plasmogamy, Karyogamy and gametangia.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 123

Question 12.
Think why testis are located outside the abdominal cavity?
Answer:
The testis are located outside the abdominal cavity because the temperature required for proper functioning of spermatogenesis is generally 2 to 3 degrees less than the body temperature,

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 127

Question 13.
What function do you think is served by petals and sepals?
Answer:

1. Calyx consists of sepals give protection to the flower particularly in bud condition.
2. Corolla consists of bright coloured petals and are useful in attracting insects for pollination.

Question 14.
Draw the diagram of the flower that you collect and label the parts shown and write their functions.
Answer:
Functions of flower parts:

1. Calyx: Consists of sepals – protects flower in bud conditions.
2. Corolla: Consists of coloured petals – helps in pollination.
3. Androecium: Consists of stamens – produce male gametes pollen grains,
4. Gynoecium: Female reproductive part – produce ovules inside the ovary. Stigma receives pollen grain.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 128

Question 15.
How does the male reproductive cell fertilise the female reproductive cell in flowers of such plants (pea plants)?
Answer:

1. In self pollinated plants anthers are usually present above the stigma.
2. Pollen from the anthers drop on the stigma.
3. A process that takes place as the flowers close for the night,
4. And sometimes occurs before they are completely developed and ready to open.
5. At the time of pollination slightest movement of the flower’s petals stimulate the stamen to dislodge its pollen and transfer it to the near by stigma in pea plant.
6. Pollination usually occurs before the flower is fully open, .

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 129

Question 16.
How many nuclei are present in the pollen grain?
Answer:
Pollen grain has two nuclei. One is called a tube cell and the another is generative cell.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 131

Question 17.
Which floral part may be seen in a fruit?
Answer:
Sometimes calyx may remain with fruit.

Question 18.
How cotyledons are useful for the plant?
Answer:

1. The cotyledons digest and absorb the endosperm.
2. They make the stored food available for the growth of the epicotyl and hypocotyl.
3. The cotyledons of some flowering plants, digest, absorb, and store the foods from the endosperm as the ovule is maturing into a seed. Eg: beans
4. As a consequence, the cotyledons become greatly enlarged because of stored food and the endosperm disappears more or less completely.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 137

Question 19.
What differences do you find in mitosis and meiosis? Write in a tabular form.
Answer:

Mitosis	Meiosis
1. It occurs in somatic cells.	1. It occurs in germ cells.
2. Nucleus divides only once.	2. Nucleus divides twice.
3. Two daughter cells are formed.	3. Four daughter cells are formed.
4. Daughter cells are diploid.	4. Daughter cells are haploid.
5. It occurs more frequently.	5. It occurs less frequently.
6. Daughter cells form somatic organs.	6. Daughter cells form gametes.
7. There is only one prophase, one metaphase one anaphase and one telophase.	7. There are two of each phase and five sub-phases in prophase -1.
8. Number of chromosomes are not changed in the daughter cells.	8. Number of chromosomes are reduced to half.
9. Chromosome number doubles at the beginning of each cell division.	9. Chromosome number is not doubled. It doubles after the end of first meiotic division.
10. No crossing over in chromosomes.	10. Crossing over occurs chromosomes.
11. Equation division.	11. Reduction division.

Question 20.
What would happen if the gametes do not have half the chromosome number as the skin parent?
Answer:

1. Daughter cells formed in meiosis are gametes.
2. These gametes have half of the chromosomes in number as the parent,
3. If the gametes do not have half of the chromosomes in number as the parent, when they fuse, they form zygote with double the number of chromosomes when compared to parent cell.
4. If it continues, cells in the offspring will have thousands of chromosomes within few generations.
5. If the chromosome number increases in a species it leads to the formation of abnormalities.

Question 21.
How would it affect the progeny formed by sexual reproduction?
Answer:
If the progeny have thousands of chromosomes in them, it results in formation of abnormalities in each generation.

Question 22.
Why did the government of India fixed the legal marriage age of boys (21 years) and girls (18 years)?
Answer:

1. Government of India fixed legal marriage age of boys as 21 years, and girls as 18 years.
2. This is because teenage mothers are not prepared mentally or physically for motherhood.
3. Early marriage and motherhood cause health problems for the mother and child.
4. It may also cause mental agony, as teenage mother is not ready for responsibilities of motherhood.

Question 23.
Do you feel that it is a social responsibility to control birth after having one or two children?
Answer:

1. Yes, it is a social responsibility of every individual to control birth after having one or two children.
2. If we don’t control birth after having one or two children, population will grow rapidly.
3. If the population increases we will not be able to provide all the facilities such as education, medicine, employment etc., to all the people.
4. It shows impact on the economic conditions of the family and the society.
5. The quality of life will decrease.

Question 24.
What do you understand by the term ‘Healthy Society’?
Answer:

1. If all the people in a society are in the state of complete physical, mental and social well being, then the society is said to be healthy society.
2. To be in a healthy society, every one in the society should take care of their own personal hygiene and cleanliness of the surroundings.
3. Avoiding child marriages, unprotected sex and creating awareness among the people regarding adverse effects of these are very essential to form a healthy society.

Question 25.
Will you encourage child marriage? Why?
Answer:

1. No. I will never encourage child marriage.
2. This is because, the sexual act always has potential to lead to pregnancy.
3. In case of child marriage, the age of girls is less than 18 years and so they are not prepared mentally or physically for motherhood.
4. If they got pregnancy the health of them and their child will be affected.

Question 26.
How does HIV is transmitted?
Answer:
Hiv is transmitted by unsafe sexual contacts, using infected devices,infected blood
transfusion, from an infected mother to child, etc.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 138

Question 27.
Social discrimination against AIDS patients is also a social evil. Can you support this? Why?
Answer:

1. Yes, I will support this statement.
2. The persons suffering from HIV/AIDS are shown lot of social discrimination in the society.
3. This happens even with their own family members.
4. This is due to lack of awarness among public about spreading of disease, illiteracy misconception about AIDS.
5. If everyone knows how it will not spread they will treat HIV + ves with love and effection.
6. HIV +ves are patients. It will spread through sexual contact, blood transfusion, mother to child and not with other modes.
7. Hence they can live with us without any discrimination they need our love and family support.
8. If anybody shows discrimination, it is definitely a social evil.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 140

Question 28.
Do you think you have moral right to kill a foetus?
Answer:
No, I don’t think that we have moral right to kill a foetus. It is our social responsibility to protect the foetus.

Question 29.
Why doctors are prohibited to do sex determination through ultrasound scanping for pregnant women?
Answer:
Knowing the sex of foetus inside mother’s womb is a severe crime as per the acfmade by government. Ultrasound tests are mend to know the growing condition of the foetus and also to see whether it is suffering with severe ailments. By knowing the sex of the foetus, if it is female, people are ready for aborting it. This leads to reduction in male female ratio in the country. That’s why doctors are prohibited to do sex determination through ultrasound scanning for pregnant women.

10th Class Biology 5th Lesson Reproduction – The Generating System Activities

Activity – 1

Formation of bacterial colony in milk.
Answer:

1. Take a tea spoon full of curd and mix it thoroughly with around tea spoon full of (half of the glass) luke warm milk in a bowl.
2. Take another tea spoon full of curd and mix it with 30 tea spoon full of cold milk in another bowl,
3. Cover both the bowls and note the initial time.
4. Keep observing every hour to see whether curd has formed.
5. Curdling indicates that the increase in number of bacteria.
6. Note the time taken for formation of curd in both the bowls.

• Does it take the same time to form curd in both the bowls?
  Answer: No. Formation of curd in the bowl containing luke warm milk takes nearly 5 – 6 hours. In the second bowl in which cold milk is present no curdling took place.
• What does the time taken to form nearly 30 times the size of the bacterial colony indicate?
  Answer: Time taken to form nearly 30 times the size of the bacterial colony indicates how fast bacteria are growing.

Activity – 2

Examine Rhizopus or common mould under Microscope.
(OR)
Write the materials required and the procedure followed by you to observe Rhizopus in the lab.
(OR)
Write the procedure which you follow to observe bread-mould Sporangium m your laboratory. What precautions do you take during the activity?
(OR)
Suneetha wanted to observe Rhizopus on the piece of bread,
(i) Suggest the apparatus needed. (ii) Write the procedure to be followed.
Answer:
Aim: To grow and examine rhizopus or common mould.
Materials required: Bread, plastic bag, plain glass slide, cover slip, water, eye dropper, disposable gloves, compound microscope.
Procedure to grow mould:

1. Take a soft bread and leave it in the open for about an hour so it is exposed to contaminants in the air.
2. Place the bread in a plastic bag, sprinkle water over it, so it is damp and seal the bag living some air inside.
3. Check on the piece of bread every few days and add more water if it is becoming dried out.
4. We can find whitish thread like growth with masses of black, gray and green fine dotted structures, the black dotted structure is that of bread mould.
5. A good sample of mould may take up to two weeks to form.
6. Using this mould make a slide and observe under the microscope.

Procedure to make a slide:

1. Place a drop of water in the centre of the slide, using an eye dropper if you have one, or the tip of a clean finger.
2. Using a tooth pick, scrape some of the mould off, and place it on the drop of water.
3. Take the coverslip and set it at an angle to the slide so that one edge of it touches the water drop.
4. Then carefully lower it over the drop, so that the coverslip covers the specimen without trapping air bubbles underneath.
5. Use the corner of a tissue paper or blotting paper to blot up any excess water at the edges of the coverslip.
6. View the slide with a compound microscope, starting with a low objective.

Observations:

1. The common bread mould plant consists of fine thread like projections called hyphae and thin stems having knob like structures called sporangia.
2. Each sporangium contains hundreds of minute spores.

Precautions:

1. This should not be done by those with allergies to mould or with severe asthma.
2. Avoid opening the plastic bag as much as you can.
3. If you touch the bread, be sure to thoroughly wash your hands afterwards.

Activity – 3

Observation of pollen grain.

1. Take a slide and put a few drops of water on it.
2. Take any flower like hibiscus, tridax, marigold, etc. Tap the anther over the drop of water.
3. We will see small dot like structures in water. These are pollen grains.
4. Take permanent slide of pollen grain from your lab.
5. Also see a permanent slide of pollen grain from our lab.
6. Observe under a microscope. We will make a drawing of what we observe and compare with the given diagram.

Observation: Pollen grain germinates only on stigma. Pollen grain consists of two to three cel Is surrounded by a protective wall in Angiosperms. In gymnosperms the pollen grain consists of several living cells.

Activity – 4

Seed germination.
Answer:

1. Soak a few groundnut or bengal gram (chana) seeds overnight.
2. Drain the excess water and cover the seeds with wet cloth. Leave them for a day.
3. Keep sprinkling water at regular intervals so that they do not dry up.
4. Open the seeds carefully and observe the parts.

Observation: The seed is germinated i.e., the seed embryo is developed into seedling plumule which grows into plant.

Activity – 5

Observe different stages of mitotic cell division. (OR)
Describe various stages of mitosis with the help of neat diagrams.
Answer:

1. Take permanent slides which shows different stages of mitotic cell division from your lab kit.
2. Observe carefully under microscope.
3. Draw diagrams what you observe, and compare your observations with the following chart.

Stage	Description
1. Prophase	Chromosomes contract, spiral and become visible even in light microscope and nucleoli become smaller (material to chromosomes). Chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids, connected by centromeres. Nuclear membrane disappears. Centrosome, containing rod-like centrioles, divides and forms ends of spindle (probably animal cells only). (Note : No pairing of chromosomes as in meiosis).
2. Metaphase	Chromosomes move to spindle equator, spindle fibres attached to centromeres.
3. Anaphase	Centromeres split, separating the chromatids. Spindle fibres attached to centromeres contract, pulling chromatids towards poles.
4. Telophase	Chromatids elongate, become invisible, (replication at this stage to become chromosomes). Nuclear membranes form round daughter nuclei. Cell membrane pinches in to form daughter cells (animals) or new cell wall material becomes laid down across spindle equator (plants). Nucleus divides into two and division of cytoplasm starts.

 

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Indian Rivers and Water Resources.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. What are the twin sources of ‘Ganga’?
Answer:
The twin sources of Ganga are:

1. Bhagirathi,
2. Alakananda

Question 2.
Why are the Himalayan rivers called perennial?
Answer:
Himalayan rivers are called perennial because they flow throughout the year.

Question 3.
Suggest two activities that can be taken up so that the groundwater can be restored.
Answer:
The following activities are suggested to restore the ground water.

1. Check dams,
2. Percolation tanks,
3. Loose boulder structures,
4. Plantations on forest lands and roadsides etc. (Any two you can write).

Question 4.
What are the tributaries of the Indus river?
Answer:
The tributaries of the Indus river are the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej.

Question 5.
Name any two tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej.

Question 6.
What are the two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India?
Answer:
The two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India are

1. The Arabian sea branch
2. The Bay of Bengal branch

Observe the map given and answer questions 7 and 8.

Question 7.
Name the two rivers that flow into the Arabian sea.
Answer:
The rivers that flow into the Arabian sea are

1. Sabarmati
2. Mahi
3. Narmada
4. Tapati

Question 8.
Through which states, river Tungabhadra flows?
Answer:
River Tungabhadra flows through Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh

Question 9.
Observe the map and answer the questions below?

a) Which river is shown in the map?
b) Which state does the river form a delta?
Answer:
a) River Godavari
b) Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10.
What are the three physiographic units of the drainage of India?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas
2. The Peninsular Plateau and
3. The Indo-Gangetic plain

Question 11.
Divide the Indian drainage system on the basis of its origin.
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers.
2. The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
Name the three Himalayan rivers. (OR)
Mention the three principal river system to which the Himalayan Rivers belong.
Answer:

1. The Indus
2. The Ganges
3. The Brahmaputra

Question 13.
Which rivers are perennial? Write the reason.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers are perennial. This is because the rivers are supplied on rainfall as well as the melting snow.

Question 14.
Where does the Indus originate? What is its route?
Answer:
The Indus originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near lake Manasarovar. It follows a north-westerly course through Tibet.

Question 15.
Where does the Indus enter India?
Answer:
It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 16.
What do the water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

Question 17.
What is the significance of ‘Devaprayag’?
Answer:
Bhagirathi and Alakananda join at ‘Devaprayag’ to form the Ganga.

Question 18.
Where does the Brahmaputra rise?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra in Tibet rises from the snout of the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Manasarovar.

Question 19.
Where does the Brahmaputra enter India?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra enters in a great loop southwest through Arunachal Pradesh in India, first as Siang and then as Dihang.

Question 20.
What are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra?
Answer:
The Dibang and the Lohit are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Question 21.
Where do the peninsular rivers originate?
Answer:
The peninsular rivers the Krishna, the Godavari and the Cauveri originate in the Western Ghats. The Mahanadi originates in the Vindhya Satpura ranges.

Question 22.
Which is the largest peninsular river system?
Answer:
The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system.

Question 23.
What is the source of the river Godavari?
Answer:
The source of the Godavari is in the Triambak plateau near Nasik in Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal.”

Question 24.
Write the ‘inflow’ as a formula?
Answer:
Inflow = Precipitation + Surface flow + Groundwater flow.

Question 25.
What is called evaporation?
Answer:
The turning of water into vapour is called evaporation.

Question 26.
What is called transpiration?
Answer:
Living things give off water into the atmosphere through their breathing process, this is called transpiration.

Question 27.
What is called evapotranspiration?
Answer:
The total amount of water added to the atmosphere from both evaporation and transpiration is called evapotranspiration.

Question 28.
When would the surface flow increase?
Answer:
The surface flow would increase during the monsoon months.

Question 29.
How does the water reach the root zone of crops?
Answer:
Water reaches the root zone of crops either through rainfall or some process of irrigation.

Question 30.
Which kind of water is the vital need?
Answer:
Water used for drinking, cooking, washing, cleaning and for animals is vital need.

Question 31.
Name the surface storages.
Answer:
Tanks, ponds, lakes, etc. are the surface storages.

Question 32.
What is the question that we face today about the groundwater?
Answer:
The question that we face today is the depletion of groundwater storage and tendency not to care about the availability for future generations.

Question 33.
What are the two parts of the Tungabhadra basin?
Answer:

1. The upper and middle catchment in Karnataka and
2. The lower portion of the catchment in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 34.
Which water is available to us?
Answer:
The annual flows and stocks that recharge wells and tubewells is the water that is available for us.

Question 35.
When can the mining water be done?
Answer:
The mining water can be done only in extreme drought situations and replenished in good rainfall years.

Question 36.
How are the low portions of the Tungabhadra basin characterized in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
They are characterized by low rainfall and drought.

Question 37.
What is the result of the encroachment of public land for cultivation?
Answer:
It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.

Question 38.
What is the result of the rampant felling of trees and mining activity?
Answer:
Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna.

Question 39.
Why did the Tungabhadra basin lose its water storage capacity?
Answer:
With the accumulation of silt due to mining, dust, soil erosion, debris the Tungabhadra Dam lost its water storage capacity.

Question 40.
How is water shared?
Answer:
Water is shared based on agreements between state governments.

Question 41.
What is the result of industrialization and urbanization?
Answer:
While increased industrialization and urbanization have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution, especially by industrial units.

Question 42.
Why do the interstate disputes arise between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka?
Answer:
Interstate disputes between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka arise due to the trans-boundary nature of the river.

Question 43.
Where is Hiware Bazar located?
Answer:
Hiware Bazar is located in the Ahmednagar district in Maharashtra. It is situated on the eastern side of the Sahyadri mountain ranges that run north-south and separate Konkan, the coastal region, from the rest of Maharashtra.

Question 44.
Expand CCT.
Answer:
Continuous Contour Trenches.

Question 45.
Why were CCTs dug?
Answer:
The CCTs were dug on the hill slopes to arrest the erosion of soil, harvest water and encourage growth of grass.

Question 46.
Name some water harvesting structures.
Answer:
Check dams, percolation tanks and loose boulder structures.

Question 47.
Name the four bandis.
Answer:

1. Kurhad bandi
2. Charai bandi
3. Nasbandi
4. Nashabandi

Question 48.
What are the other bans which were added later?
Answer:

1. The ban on borewells for irrigation,
2. Growing sugarcane and banana and
3. Selling one’s own land to any outsider.

Question 49.
Why do the farmers in Hiware Bazar keep rainfall data meticulously?
Answer:
They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 50.
What happens when there is so much extraction of water?
Answer:
When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.

Question 51.
What laws and regulations are needed for water consumption?
Answer:
Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that, Panchayati Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 52.
Which judgments illustrate the confusion over our laws today?
Answer:
The judgments in the case of Perumatty Gram Panchayat in Kerala and Coca Cola company illustrate the confusion over our laws today.

Question 53.
What do water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Himalayan rivers are perennial, which means these rivers are filled with water throughout the year.
What are the two reasons that they are called perennial rivers?
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers are perennial rivers as a result of the melting of ice and glaciers.
2. During rainy season they depend on rainfall.

So they are filled with water throughout the year.

Question 2.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) What is the River Ganga called in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Padma.
b) On the banks of which River is Kolkata situated?
Answer:
River Hooghly. (Hugly)

Question 3.
Create two slogans on water conservation or the importance of water. (OR)
Write two slogans to bring awareness on saving of water in consumption.
Answer:
a) Save water – Save future.
b) Without water – there’s no future.
(Students can create a few of their own)

Question 4.
What were the conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under Adarsh Gram Yojana?
Answer:
The conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under the Adarsh Gram Yojana are

1. Kurhad bandi – ban of felling trees
2. Charai bandi – ban of free grazing
3. Nasbandi – family planning
4. Nashabandi – ban on liquor
5. Shramadan – voluntary physical labour.

Question 5.
Categories the drainage system based on its origin.
Answer:
On the basis of the origin, the drainage system in India is categorized into

Question 6.
Suggest measures to be taken to conserve water.
Answer:
Measures to conserve water:

1. Check dams
2. Percolation tanks
3. Loose boulder structures
4. Plantation

Question 7.
Give a few suggestions for the betterment of groundwater level in Telangana in the present situation.
Answer:

1. All people should maintain rainwater harvesting pits.
2. They should construct and maintain check dams. The government should take responsibility.
3. Continuous contour trenches are to be built up.
4. Silt is to be removed every year from the tanks.
5. Plantation should be taken up seriously.
6. Digging of deep borewells should be avoided.

Question 8.
Even in years of continuous drought, there was no drinking water shortage in Hiware Bazar.
What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

1. The main thing is the social control over groundwater extraction and no bore-wells usage for irrigation, no water-intensive crops like sugarcane.
2. Water for irrigation was taken only through dug wells.
3. They also worked out certain thumb rule type of things like if they get good rainfall, then they can take full rabi crop; if the rainfall is less, then they bring down the area under rabi crop etc.
4. They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 9.
As a student, how do you save water in your house and in your school?
Answer:

1. Make it a classroom activity to check for leaks regularly.
2. Install rainwater tanks.
3. Fix any leaking taps, toilets.
4. Raise awareness of the importance of water.

Question 10.
Create a poster on water importance.
Answer:

WATER IS LIFE

Water has been important for people for thousands of years. Without water there would be no life on earth.
We use water in our houses for cooking, bathing and washing the dishes. Water is used to grow food. In many dry areas farmers must bring water to the fields through canals and expensive irrigation systems.

Industries and factories also use water. Fruits and vegetables must be cleaned before they can be processed and sold in supermarkets. Water is used for cooling in many areas, for example in steel production.

Many countries around the world use water to produce energy. Power stations burn coal which turns water into steam. Countries with many mountains and rivers use the power of water to produce electricity.

Water is important for our free time. People enjoy themselves at seaside resorts or on cruise trips.

Transportation was at first carried out on waterways. Ancient civilizations traded goods across the Mediterranean Sea. Today oil, coal, wheat and other products are transported on waterways.

Question 11.
Write about the drainage of India.
Answer:
The drainage of India has evolved and adjusted itself with the evolution of the three physiographic units:

1. the Himalayas
2. the Peninsular plateau and
3. the Indo- Gangetic plain. On the basis of its origin, the drainage system in India can be broadly divided into two categories,
   i) The Himalayan rivers and ii) The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
“Rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people” – Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The river system provides irrigation, potable water, cheap transportation, electricity and livelihoods for a large number of people all over the country and to rural areas.
2. This easily explains why nearly all the major cities of India are located by the banks of rivers.
3. Several major rivers along with their tributaries make up the river system of India.
4. So rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which place has the water level gone down in your area? What are the reasons for the reduction of water levels according to your opinion?
Answer:
The water level has gone down in many of our areas. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture. If groundwater is not available, there will be many problems.
My opinion is that because of modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used. Very deep borewells cause for drawing out water from the ground. Water has become a source of business. Many multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles. Water conservation is also a major issue and it is taken as a serious one.

Question 2.
Explain any four river systems of India in the prescribed table form.

Sl No.	Nameof the River	Origin or Birth place	Direction of Flow	Tributaries	Flow through which States

Answer:

Question 3.
Today underground water is the main source of water for people. When there is so much extraction it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore one can’t allow individual land owners to extract as much water as they wish from the land. There should be some restrictions.
Do you agree, with this? Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement.

1. Water should be treated as a common pool resource.
2. There are no boundaries in the flowing water underground.
3. Land ownership should not be applied to underground water.
4. Drinking water should be the first priority as well as a human right.
5. Panchayat Raj Institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 4.
“The current laws about groundwater in many states are both outdated and inappropriate. They were developed at a time when groundwater was a marginal source of water. Today shallow and deep tubewells have the potential to draw a lot of water.”
Write your comment on the judicious way of using and equal distribution of groundwater and suggest few measures in this regard.
Answer:

1. Today underground water is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects the stock of water that would be available to future generations.
3. Therefore the landowners cannot be allowed to extract as much as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions.
4. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn through tube wells on the land.

Question 5.
“Usage of water without keeping in view about the future leads to non-availability of underground water for future generations.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. So individual land owners should not be allowed to extract as much water as they wish.
5. There should be some restrictions.
6. The relation between the land ownership and the extraction of water should be delinked.
7. They only the restrictions will be implemented properly.
8. Groundwater should be treated as a common pool resource.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
What is required are laws and rules to recognize that water is common flowing resource? Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that Panchayat Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.
Answer:
In my opinion.

1. Groundwater benefits a wide range of people and the environment.
2. But there are number of threats to the sustainability of this natural resource, which are compounded by a lack of understanding it.
3. Groundwater is often seen as a resource that can be drawn on when surface water is scarce.
4. Due to over use of groundwater the quality of water is deteriorating.
5. If the people drink that polluted water, they will get diseases.
6. Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right.
7. So, the Panchayat Raj institution think about water is common flowing resource at the same time these institutions have control on groundwater for the sake of future generations and provide it equitable manner.
   Example: In Kerala, Perumatti grama panchayat, the Panchayat Raj institution give first priority to drinking water and next will give importance to Cocacola company. Here, the people’s health is most important.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, this is the major source of water for people. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore, one can’t allow individual landowners to extract as much water as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn from the underground system through tube-wells on the land.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the main source for people.
2. But excessive extraction of the groundwater is more effect to not only present people but also future generations.
3. But there are no appropriate laws to regulate the usage of the groundwater resources.
4. All the present laws were designed when the usage was minimum.
5. The owner of the land is not the owner of the groundwater beneath his land.
6. A link should be designed between the land ownership and control.
7. The government should control the individuals in using underground water resources.

Question 8.
Explain the use of water in the river basin of Tungabhadra.
Answer:

1. River water of Tungabhadra is shared by Karnataka, Telangana and the Andhra Pradesh States.
2. Approximately 80% of rural area people are dependent on agriculture with Tungabhadra water.
3. In some areas people constructed storage tanks based on Tunghabhadra water.
4. Surface flows by canals that carry water from dams built along Tungabhadra in other areas.
5. More land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
6. There are 27 large industries and 2543 small industries are depend on Tungabhadra water.
7. It provides supply of drinking water to neighbour areas.
8. Improved standard of living for some.
9. Disputes also arised between Karnataka and Andhra on the base of availability of water.

Question 9.
Explain the Himalayan river systems.
Answer:

Himalayan River Systems

The Indus system, The Ganga system and the Brahmaputra system come under the Himalayan river systems:

1. The Indus System: The Indus originates in Kailash range near Manasarovar. It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir. The Ravi, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Beas and the Sutlej are its tributaries.
2. The Ganga System: The Ganga is formed joining Bhagirathi with Alakananda which join at Devaprayag. It has large number of tributaries.
3. The Brahmaputra System: The Brahmaputra rises from Kailash range near Manasarovar. It covers Tibet, and joins Arunachal Pradesh in India. It has different names in different places and is known as the Brahmaputra. The Dibang and the Lohit are its tributaries.

Question 10.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.
Regulation is not easy. This is also because for some resources like water, electricity, oil, natural gas, etc. consumption by one person or a sector affects what is available for others. In fact, in a number of states, the answer to falling water tables has not been to address the issue itself. State governments have thus often chosen to increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of groundwater possible.
Answer:
The given paragraph says that the regulation of natural resources like water, natural gas, etc. is not easy. Gradually water table is decreasing. Governments increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of ground water possible.

My interpretation is that water, electricity, oil and natural gas are essential for all people. These are to be used in control. Whatever we use should be useful to the next coming genera¬tion. Natural resources are sustainable. They can be useful to all generations. Water is an essen¬tial commodity. It is the people who decide the future. For a few decades we have been observ¬ing that more groundwater is being pumped out. Sinking water is gradually decreasing. In forests also water is not available. So monkeys, leopards are coming to villages. Deforestation is increased. Quarrying is also increased. Clouds are coming but they are not giving rain. Temperature is increasing day by day. People should understand the need of the future and act accordingly. Per head consumption is increasing drastically. Water conservation is an essential one. Not only human beings, birds, animals, plants also depend on water. Water harvesting pits are promoted at every house. Water shed programs are to be taken up. Every drop of water should be caught perfectly and saved with proper proposals. Government concentrates on the conservation of water to make the next coming generation happy.

Question 11.
“India is heading towards water scarcity.” Trace the possible solutions to tackle this problem.
Answer:

1. Construction of multi purpose projects and canals.
2. Solving river water disputes quickly.
3. Inter-basin transfer of water.
4. Measures to raise the underground water table.
5. Rainwater harvesting.
6. Watershed development.
7. Avoiding pollution of water bodies.
8. Preventing the wastage of water.
9. Interlinking of Rivers.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and state your opinion on it.
Encroachment of public lands for cultivation is common. It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover. Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna. Inflows of groundwater depend on the tree cover in the catchment areas. Inadequate tree hover leads to water run-off as surface flow without getting a chance to recharge the underground system. Moreover, this also causes flash floods. If we wish to be fair to both the rainfed and canal irrigated regions, we must adopt a different plan for water conservation and a system of sharing water.
Answer:

1. In recent years public land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
2. The felling of trees and other mining activities threatened flora and fauna.
3. The inadequate free cover leads to water run off.
4. There is less chance for recharging groundwater.
5. It causes flash floods.
6. The felling of trees threatened flora and fauna.
7. Hence we must be alert and adopt a different plan for water conservation.

Question 13.
Read the para and answer the following questions.
Let us see the dispute over water use between the Perumatty Grama Panchayat in Kerala and the Coca Cola Company. The Panchayat decided not to renew the license for extraction of water because of the lowering of the water table in neighbouring areas. There was also decreasing water quality to the extent that the local government primary health centre had concluded that the water was not fit for drinking. The issue was brought to the courts and is now pending in the Supreme Court as on January 2014. The two decisions given by the judges in Kerala gave two opposing views of groundwater regulation. The first judge found that groundwater is a public resource meant for all, and that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive exploitation. Additionally the judge made the link that drinking water is a priority. The second judge took a completely different perspective and asserted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater. These two contradictory decisions illustrate the confusion over our laws today.
Answer:

1. The para is an example of the confusion over our laws today.
2. The Coca Cola company was extracting more and more underground water.
3. This was reducing the groundwater levels and the water is getting polluted.
4. The issue was brought to the court.
5. Two judges gave contradicting judgments.
6. The first judge stated that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive
7. The second judge insisted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater.
8. Hence we can conclude that there should be some clarity regarding the laws relating to ground-water.
9. The laws are outdated and inappropriate.
10. There should not be any contradiction regarding public interest.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
During the fast two decades there has been an increasing trend in the number of small towns and industrial areas. This has made the competing demands for water more complex. While increased industrialization and growth of urban areas have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution especially by industrial units.
Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, it is clear that urbanization leads to water problems.
2. Another point is that some people are leading prosperous life whereas many poor people are facing the problems of pollution.
3. In my opinion, in this modern age urbanization has become mandatory.
4. People from villages are coming to cities and towns for different reasons.
5. Education for children, medical facilities and different livelihoods are the needs of the rural people.
6. As they come to cities and towns they face the problems of basic need like food, water, shelter and cloth.
7. In conclusion I don’t say that urbanization is not necessary but the problems of the poor migrants also should be considered.
8. At industries and working cites water facility is to be provided.
9. In all the areas protected water supply is necessary.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your comment on it.
Over the past few decades groundwater has become the main source, especially for domes¬tic use and agriculture. This tremendous increase in the use of groundwater has significant impact on water availability and access to it.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater level is the crucial one to all the people.
2. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture.
3. If groundwater is not available there will be many problems.
4. My opinion is that because of the modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used.
5. Very deep bore wells cause for drawing out water from the ground.
6. Water has become a source of business many Multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles.
7. Every individual should think about the importance of water as it is useful to all people.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
Current laws on groundwater use are inappropriate because the basic links between access to groundwater and land ownership on which these rules are based are flawed. Since groundwater has to be extracted from the land above, a link was established between land ownership and control.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the current laws are not appropriate and there is no link between accesses to groundwater and land ownership.
2. Proper laws are to be made and implemented otherwise there will be a mass problem of water.
3. I would like to comment on this paragraph that current laws are not being implemented in a right way.
4. The government should have true spirit of implementation of laws. There are so many laws made in the time of the British rule.
5. After independence these would have been modified or changed according to the present needs or new laws according to the situations and necessities have to be made time to time. This was not done.
6. The government should take necessary action to bring in new laws and they should be implemented in a right way.

Question 17.
People are facing the problem of water scarcity in all the areas. It may be there in your locality also. Write a note on the condition of water scarcity that you recently observed.
Answer:

1. Scarcity of water has become a common problem everywhere.
2. People of all corners are facing the same problem.
3. They purchase even two glasses of water by paying twenty or twenty five rupees.
4. Human activities like deforestation, using plastic, cement and concrete roads are a few rea¬sons for the depletion of groundwater level.
5. Deforestation leads to low rainfall.
6. Rainwater is not percolated properly because of two reasons.
7. By constructing small check dams, it is better to store the water and so it could be useful to restore the groundwater.
8. Then it will be expected that drinking water is available.

Question 18.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Mention any two tributaries of river Ganga.
Answer:
Gandak, Ghagra, Gomati, Son, Betwa, Chambal, Yamuna are the tributaries of river Ganga. (Any two can be written)
b) River Brahmaputra joins a river before joining into Bay of Bengal. What is the name of the river?
Answer:
The river in which the Brahmaputra joins is the Ganga.
c) Two countries are sharing the water of the river Teesta. What are the two countries?
Answer:
India and Bangladesh.
d) Which river is called ‘Padma’ in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Ganga.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Brahmaputra river
2. Drainage area of Indus river
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. The project on Sutlej river
   Answer: Bhakra Nangal
5. The river which is parallel to river Narmada.
   Answer: Tapti
6. The lake which in between Krishna and Godavari rivers.
   Answer: Kolleru
7. Locate Hiware Bazar.
8. Konkan Coast.
9. The Coast of Tamilnadu
   Answer: Coromandel
10. Capital of Madhya Pradesh.
    Answer: Bhopal

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 14 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What does the term “Great Depression” signify?
Answer:

1. There was a worldwide economic decline triggered by a decline in demand and fall in prices. It was called “Great Depression”.
2. The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939.

Question 2.
Read the following map and answer the question.
Name any one country that shared land boundary with India and not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
Nepal, Tibet, Bhutan.

Question 3.
What was your opinion on Hitler’s treatment of the Jews in Germany?
Answer:
The treatment of Hitler towards Jews is very cruel and unjust.

Question 4.
Mention the important aspects of “New Deal”.
Answer:

1. Relief to the victims of depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions.
3. Steps to ensure economic recovery.

Question 5.
Write any two consequences of economic depression.
Answer:

1. Decline in demand and fall in prices.
2. Massive unemployment.
3. Decline of real incomes of ordinary people.

Question 6.
Write any two economic reforms of Hitler.
Answer:
Hitler’s Economic Policies:

1. Hitler banned all strikes.
2. He reduced tax burden on people.
3. He established war industries.
4. He created employment opportunities.

Question 7.
Write about collective farming.
Answer:

1. In U.S.S.R all small and large farmers were forced to join collective farms.
2. These farms were united and mechanised farming was introduced and the produce was divided among the members.

Question 8.
How did Hitler get all powers to sideline Parliament?
Answer:
Hitler got all powers to sideline parliament by passing the Enabling Act.

Question 9.
What was the intention of the Communist Party of India for helping Britain during the Second World War?
Answer:
The Communist Party of India helped Britain during the Second World War as the Nazis attacked on the soviet union. Intentionally the communists helped Britain.

Question 10.
What was the ‘New Deal Policy’ of Franklin D. Roosevelt?
Answer:
Relief to the victims of depression.
Reform of financial institutions and steps to ensure Economic Recovery by undertaking large public works.

Question 11.
Who was the leader of Bolsheviks in Russia?
Answer:
Lenin was the leader of Bolsheviks in Russia.

Question 12.
What was the major incidence occurred in 1924 in Russia?
Answer:
Union of Soviet Socialistic Republic was established.

Question 13.
Who became the leader of Russia after Lenin in 1924?
Answer:
Stalin.

Question 14.
Enlist Indians that were inspired by communism.
Answer:
M.N. Roy, Tagore and Nehru.

Question 15.
Name the book written on the violation against the opposition in Russia and who wrote it.
Answer:
George Orwell wrote his famous satire “Animal farm” to highlight how the ideals of Russian Revolution were compromised in USSR.

Question 16.
What were the famous “3 Rs” of New Deal Policy?
Answer:
The famous “three Rs” of New Deal are …

1. Relief to the victims of depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions.
3. Recovery of the economy.

Question 17.
What happened to Germany after World War – II?
Answer:
Eventually, Germany was divided into

1. German Democratic Republic of Germany (GDR).
2. Federal Republic of Germany (FRG).

Question 18.
Where were the Nazi generals put to trial?
Answer:
The leaders and Nazi generals were captured and put to trial in the famous “Nuremberg trials.”

Question 19.
Name the organization formed after World War – II to establish peace.
Answer:
United Nations Organization.

Question 20.
Enlist the countries that got independence by 1950.
Answer:
India,. China, Indonesia, Vietnam, Egypt, Nigeria, etc.

Question 21.
What were the super powers emerged after 1945?
Answer:
The USA and the USSR.

Question 22.
What was “Socialistic camp”?
Answer:
Eastern Europe and China together came to be known as “the Socialistic camp.”

Question 23.
Why did the common people not want the war?
Answer:
Fatigued by military reserves and upset at economic shortages, the common people did not want the war.

Question 24.
Who led Bolsheviks?
Answer:
Vladimir Lenin led the Bolsheviks.

Question 25.
Why could full peace not return to Russia after October Revolution?
Answer:
Full peace could not return to Russia, as the liberals decided to continue the war to preserve the honour of their land.

Question 26.
Expand the USSR.
Answer:
The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics.

Question 27.
When did the Great Depression begin?
Answer:
The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the Second World War began.

Question 28.
Who was the President during the Depression?
Answer:
Franklin Delano Roosevelt.

Question 29.
What was the ‘New Deal’?
Answer:
It was a programme created by the US to help the Americans and the economy.

Question 30.
What were ‘Three Rs’?
Answer:
The Three Rs are:

1. Belief to the victims of Depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions and
3. Steps to ensure economic Recovery.

Question 31.
What else was introduced in the US?
Answer:
The Social Security system was introduced.

Question 32.
What is meant by Social Security system?
Answer:
It is a permanent system of universal retirement pensions, unemployment insurance, and welfare benefits for handicapped and needy children in families without father present.

Question 33.
Why did Germany face severe crises of the war?
Answer:
German economy faced severe crises after the war as it was saddled with the burden of paying war damages, etc.

Question 34.
Which act of the German government resulted in unheard of inflation?
Answer:
The German government began to print currency notes on a large scale and this resulted in unheard of inflation.

Question 35.
How did Hitler mobilise his supporters?
Answer:

1. Hitler mobilized his supporters on the promise of establishing the racial supremacy of Aryan Germans over the world and by targeting minority communities like Jews as the main cause of all problems.
2. He also guaranteed employment to people.

Question 36.
How did Hitler attack communism and capitalism?
Answer:
Hitler attacked communism and capitalism terming both of them as Jewish conspiracies and promised to build a strong state which would counter both.

Question 37.
How did he appeal to the middle class?
Answer:
Hitler appealed especially to the middle class which felt threatened by capitalism and the Great Depression and at the the same time was opposed to working-class movement led by the Communists and Socialists.

Question 38.
Name the security forces in Germany.
Answer:
Regular police in a green uniform and the SA or the Storm Troopers, Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads), criminal police and the Security Service (SD).

Question 39.
What was Auschwitz?
Answer:
Auschwitz was a killing centre.

Question 40.
Why were Soviet forces welcomed all over Eastern Europe?
Answer:
Soviet forces were welcomed all over Eastern Europe as liberators from the hated Nazi rule and eventually captured Berlin, the capital of Germany.

Question 41.
What happened to Hitler and his close associates?
Answer:
Hitler and his close associates committed suicide to avoid being captured and tried.

Question 42.
Who sentenced the Nazis?
Answer:
The Nuremberg Tribunal sentenced only eleven leading Nazis to death.

Question 43.
What were the two super powers?
Answer:
The USA and the USSR.

Question 44.
What did Hitler promise?
Answer:

1. Hitler promised employment for those looking for work and a secure future for the youth.
2. He promised to weed out all foreign influences and resist all foreign ‘conspiracies’ against Germany.

Question 45.
Who laid way for planned economic development in Russia?
Answer:
Stalin in 1928.

Question 46.
What were the policies of Stalin?
Answer:
Stalin followed a twin policy of rapid industrialization and collectivization of agriculture.

Question 47.
Name Indian Leaders who were inspired by the Russian Revolution.
Answer:
M.N. Roy, Tagore and Nehru were inspired by the Russian Revolution.

Question 48.
What does the book “Animal Form” mention about?
Answer:
The book highlighted, how the ideals of the Russian Revolution were compromised in USSR.

Question 49.
What was the Enabling Act?
Answer:
The Act was passed in 1933. This act established a dictatorship in Germany.

Question 50.
Who was the famous economist of Hitler?
Answer:
Hjalmar Schacht.

Question 51.
Expand GDR and FDR.
Answer:
G.D.R – German Democratic Republic.
F.D.R – Federal Republic of Germany.

Question 52.
What happened to Germany after World War – II?
Answer:
Germany was divided into two portions.

1. The Eastern Part – GDR.
2. The Western Part – FDR.

Question 53.
Which countries came under “the socialist camp”?
Answer:
Russia along with the Eastern European countries and China came under the socialistic camp.

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

“In fact, the second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the Great Depression. Far from the theatres of war, the industries and agriculture of USA prospered and achieved full employment and high productivity. In Harry Truman’s words, “We have emerged from this war as the most powerful nation in the world.”

How do you think the Second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery from the Great Depression? Write your comment.
Answer:
The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the World War-II began. There was a sudden fall in the American stock market.

This effected almost all the nations in the world. Roosevelt, the US President, announced ‘The New Deal which promised Relief to the victims of Depression. However, the real break came from the outbreak of war when state expenditure on armies and armaments suddenly increased giving a big boost to factory production and demand for farm produce. Thus the Second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery from the Great Depression.

Question 2.
Observe the given timeline chart and answer the following questions.

a) How do you think the victory on Auschwitz and liberation by the Soviet Union led to an easy success for the Allied nations?
Answer:
After the liberation of Auschwitz the Allied got victory in Europe. So I can say so.

b) What were the main incidents which occurred in 1941 in world’s history?
Answer:

1. Germany invaded the USSR.
2. Mass murder of the Jews begins.
3. The United States joins the Second World War.

Question 3.
Observe the given map and answer the questions:
a) What is Dutch East India called now?
Answer:
Indonesia

b) Which Chinese region was under the control of Japan?
Answer:
Manchuria

Question 4.
Write any two effects of great depression.
Answer:

1. Increase in unemployment.
2. Fall in prices.
3. Closure of industries.
4. Decrease in the purchasing capacity of the people.

Question 5.
Read the below paragraph.

“This earth is not allotted to anyone nor is it presented to anyone as a gift. It is awarded by providence to people who in their hearts have the courage to conquer it, the strength to preserve it, and the industry to put it to the plough. A vigorous nation will always find ways pf adapting its territory to its population size.”

Do you think world should belong to those who have power and strength alone – Comment.
Answer:

1. No. I don’t think like that.
2. The world belongs to all. All are equal by birth.

Question 6.
“Constitution is a living and changing document.” Would you agree with it? Justify it.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with it.
2. Our constitutional makers are aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. So they provided an opportunity to amend laws.

Question 7.
Observe the Map and answer the questions given below:

1. Name any two countries which were not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
India, Nepal and Tibet.

2. Dutch East Indies was the former name of which country?
Answer:
Indonesia.

Question 8.
What will be the consequences of the World War that may happen after the Second World War?
Answer:
The consequences of the World War that may happen after the Second World War are

1. Huge loss of life on the earth
2. Destruction of properties
3. Increase of environmental damage
4. The existence of life becomes difficult

Question 9.
What were the changes brought about by Russian revolution of 1917 in the Russian Society?
Answer:

1. The immediate change was the elimination of the democratic provisional councils called Soviets in various larger cities.
2. Under Bolshevik rule Russia got out of World War-II.
3. A Socialist system was imposed on the country which all but the smallest businesses were taken over by the government.
4. Land was redistributed to peasant farmers and food distribution was temporarily improved.
5. Soon though, many people became disenchanted with the Bolsheviks and the Russian Civil war broke out in 1918 and lasted until 1920.

Question 10
Observe the map and answer the questions.

1. Mention any two countries that were NOT under Japanese control.
Answer:
India, Tibet, Nepal, Mongolia, U.S.S.R. (any two)

2. Which part of the Ocean did Japan dominant in 1942?
Answer:
North Part of Pacific Ocean.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

“With this began a great experiment of building a country without exploiters like feudal lords, Kings or capitalists. The USSR tried to build a society that was industrialized and modern and yet did not have inequality or exclusion of people on basis of birth, gender, language, etc.”

Answer:

1. The Soviets under the leadership of Bolsheviks seized power from the provisional government in 1917.
2. Peace could not be established as civil war lasted from 1918-20.
3. Finally the USSR was established in 1924.
4. This was an experiment as there was no place for feudal lords, kings or capitalists.
5. The USSR tried to establish a society where there was no scope for inequality or exploitation on the basis of birth, gender, language, etc.
6. Socialism was established and gave a big’ blow to the capitalistic world.

Question 12.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.

1. Mention any two countries which are not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
India and China are not under the control of Japan.

2. Mention any two places which are under f ‘ the control of Japan and lying on its western side.
Answer:
Korea and Manchuria.

Question 13.
What do you know about Tsarist Russia?
Answer:
Tsarist Russia was vast landmass spread over two continents and making it a Euro Asian Power. It had the third-largest population in the world, viz. 156 million, after China and India. It comprised of several nations like the Russia, Ukraine, Uzbekistan, .’Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Turkomania, etc.

Question 14.
What was the first Russian revolution of 1917?
Answer:
On March 8th 1917, around 10,000 women of the capital, St Petersburg, took out a procession demanding ‘Peace and Bread’. Workers joined them in this protest. Unnerved at the protest in the capital, Tsar Nicholas II ordered the army to suppress the demon¬strators, even by firing at them. Instead, the soldiers joined the demonstrators. In just two days, the situation went so much out of hand that the Tsar abdicated and non-aristocratic Russians made a Provisional government. This was the first Russian revolution of 1917 and it was called the March Revolution.

Question 15.
“The October Revolution was not spontaneous” – Why?
Answer:
A bigger revolution was made later in October 1917 and it was not spontaneous. The liberals and aristocrats, who ruled Russia after the abdication of the Tsar, decided to continue the War to preserve the honor of the fatherland. Fatigued by military reverses and upset at economic shortages, the common people did not want the War. They began organizing themselves in councils which were called Soviets. Such Soviets of soldiers, industrial workers, and also people in rural areas were the expression of com-mon people’s power which was channelized by a group of Russian Communist party called Bolsheviks.

Question 16.
Why were Bolsheviks able to win the confidence of the Soviets?
Answer:
Bolsheviks were able to win the confidence of the Soviets because they took up the demand for immediate and unconditional peace, nationalization of all land and its redistribution to the peasants and control over prices and nationalization of all factories and banks.

Question 17.
What effect did the war have, on the industry of Russia?
Answer:
Russian industries were very few numbers and the country was cut off from other suppliers of industrial goods by German control of the Baltic sea. Industrial equipment disintegrated more rapidly in Russia than elsewhere in Europe. By 1916 railway, lines began to breakdown. Able-bodied men were called up to the war. As a result, there were labour shortages and small workshops producing essential commodities were shut down.

Question 18.
Discuss briefly the Five-Year Plans.
Answer:

1. A process of centralized planning was introduced by Stalin in 1928. Officials assessed how the economy could work and set targets for a five-year period, on this basis they made five-year plans.
2. The government fixed all prices to pro-mote industrial growth during the first two plans. (1927-32, 1933 – 38)
3. Centralised planning led to economic growth.

Question 19.
Appreciate the role of Lenin in the Revolu¬tion and his economic policy.
Answer:

1. Vladimir Lenin played an important role in the Russian Revolution of 1917.
2. He led the revolutionaries after the fall of the war.
3. The Bolshevik party put forward clear policies to end the war.
4. He transferred land to the peasants and advance the slogan ‘All power to the Soviets’.
5. These were the real objectives of the Russian Revolution and he fulfilled them. So, Lenin’s name has become inseparable from the Russian Revolution.

Question 20.
Write any two conditions which led to the Russian civil war in 1918-1920.
Answer:

1. The Russian army began to break up after the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution. Soldiers who were mostly peasants wished to go home for the land and desert.
2. Supporters of private property among ‘Whites’ took harsh steps with peasants who had seized land.

Question 21.
How can you say that the experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world including India?
Answer:
The experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world who were committed to the ideals of equality and national liberation. A large number of them now became communists and tried for a communist revolution in their countries. Many of them like MN Roy, Tagore and Nehru were inspired by it even though they did not agree with many aspects of communism like suppression of opposition political parties.

Question 22.
Describe what happened to Germany after its defeat in the First World War.
Answer:

1. World War -1, ended with the Allies defeating Germany and the Central Powers in November 1918.
2. The Peace Treaty of Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating treaty.
3. Germany lost its overseas colonies, a tenth of its population, 13 percent of its territories, 75 percent of its iron and 26 percent of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.
4. The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its power. Germany was forced to pay compensation amounting to 6 billion.

Question 23.
Explain the role of women in Nazi Germany.
Answer:

1. According to Hitler’s ideology, women were radically different from men.
2. The democratic idea of equal rights for men and women was wrong and would destroy society.
3. While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and steel-hearted, girls were told that they bad to become good mothers and rear pure-blooded Aryan children.

Question 24.
Explain the rallies of Nazis.
Answer:
Hitler devised a new style of politics. He understood the significance of rituals and spectacle in mass mobilization. Nazis held massive rallies and public meetings to demonstrate the support for Hitler and instill a sense of unity among the people. The Red banners with the Swastika, the Nazi salute, and the ritualized rounds of applause after the speeches were all part of this spectacle of power.

Question 25.
Write about the Enabling Act.
Answer:
On 3 March 1933, the famous Enabling Act was passed. This Act established a dictatorship in Germany. It gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree. All political parties and trade unions were banned except for the Nazi Party and its affiliates. The state established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.

Question 26.
Explain the condition of the people of Germany after the famous Enabling Act passed.
Answer:
People could now be detained in Gestapo torture chambers, rounded up and sent to concentration camps, deported at will or arrested without any legal procedures. The police forces acquired powers to rule with impunity.
These powers were used to arrest and torture millions of political activists, trade unionists and people of minority communities and build a state of unprecedented horror and fear.

Question 27.
What happened in the far east with the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
In the far east with the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki Japan surrendered to the USA. US armies occupied Japan but keeping in the sentiments of Japanese allowed the Japanese Emperor to continue. But it built a Constitutional Monarchy like in England. Japan was to be ruled by the elected government responsible to the Parliament (DIET).

Question 28.
Name the Indian leaders inspired by the USSR Communist regime.
Answer:

1. The experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world who were committed to the ideals of equality and national liberation.
2. Many of them like Manavendra Nath Roy, Rabindranath Tagore, and Jawaharlal Nehru were inspired by it even though they did not agree with many aspects of communism like suppression of opposition political parties, etc.

Question 29.
How was the economic revival planned after World War II?
Answer:

1. There were many economies that collapsed after World War II.
2. The USA came up with the Marshall Plan to fund the economic revival of West European countries.
3. The USSR came up with a package for the revival of East European countries.

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note on the measures taken by the USSR under the great depression.
Answer:

1. USSR was not integrated with the international market.
2. It had a planned economy.
3. The state decided what and how much has to be produced.
4. This enabled them to maintain a balance between demand and supply.

Question 2.
A) Locate and Label any four of the permanent members of United Nations Security Council on the World map given.
Point out the following countries on the World map given.
B) 1) Portugal 2) Nigeria S) Chile 4) Japan
Answer:
Question 3.
Explain the rise of Nazism in Germany.
Answer:

1. German economy was the worst hit by the Great Depression.
2. This economic crisis created deep anxieties and fears in people.
3. Hitler and his Nazi party used this situation in an intelligent manner.
4. Hitler, by his words and passion, moved the people.
5. He promised them to construct a strong Germany in all aspects.
6. He devised a new style of politics and attracted people.
7. As a result of this, the Nazi Party has become the largest party by 1932.
8. By passing the Enabling Act in 1933, Hitler became the dictator of Germany. Nazi government had become most powerful.

Question 4.
Answer the questions with the help of Time-line chart.

1. What was the immediate cause for the Second World War?
Answer:
Invasion of Poland by Germany.

2. When did the United States enter into the World War – II?
Answer:
Dec. 8, 1941

3. The Weimar Republic belongs to which country ?
Answer:
Germany

4. Write any two important incidents occurred in 1941.
Answer:
Germany invades the USSR Mass murder of the Jews begins The United States joins Second World War

Question 5.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below:

1. Which was the first country that established the socialist government in the world?
Answer:
Russia (OR) USSR.

2. Why did the Civil war occur in Russia?
Answer:
Civil war was broke out between Bolshevik group and White army for establishment of Socialism and political monarchism, ecomonic capitalism. Bolsheviks were favour to Socialism and White group was favour to Economic capitalism.

3. What were the Russian emperors called?
Answer:
Tzars.

4. Name the international organization which was formed to promote socialist ideology.
Answer:
Formation of Comintern (Third international at Moscow in 1919).

Question 6.
Russian revolution brought in many changes in their society. What were they? And what challenges did they face?
Answer:
Changes in the Russian Society:

1. The immediate change was the elimination of the democratic provisional councils called Sovi¬ets in various larger cities.
2. Under Bolshevik rule Russia got out of World War – II.
3. A Socialist system was imposed on the country which all but the smallest businesses were taken over by the government.
4. Land was redistributed to peasant farmers and food distribution was temporarily improved.
5. Soon though, many people became disenchanted with the Bolsheviks and the Russian Civil war broke out in 1918 and lasted until 1920.

Challenges they faced:

1. Famines
2. Resistances
3. Low standards of living
4. The Great Depression
5. Unemployment
6. Lack of educational facilities
7. Cheap public health care, etc.

Question 7.
What were the agricultural reforms of Joseph Stalin in the USSR?
Answer:

1. After the death of Lenin in 1924 Stalin emerged as the leader of the Communist Party.
2. The USSR began a programme of planned economic development with its Five Year Plans in 1928.
3. This pursued a twin policy of rapid industrialization and collectivization of agriculture.
4. The USSR under the leadership of Joseph Stalin tried to end small peasant production by forcing all small and large farmers to surrender their lands and join “Collective Farms” and share the products.
5. Farmers worked together and the produce was divided among the members of the farms.
6. After an initial period of decline, agricultural production soon rose and helped the USSR to also build its industries on an unprecedented scale.
7. All industries were owned by the state which did not allow a free-market system.
8. An extended schooling system developed, and arrangements were made for factory workers and peasants to enter universities.

Question 8.
What are the impacts of the great economic depression in the USA?
Answer:
Impacts of the great economic depression in the USA:

1. The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the Second World War began.
2. In this period decline in demand and fall in prices.
3. The decline in demand led to closure of factory production which in turn meant further de-cline in the purchasing power of people.
4. It initially began with a stock market collapse in the U.S.A., but before long affected almost every country.
5. As many as 25% Americans were unemployed.
6. This in turn caused a collapse of prices (up to 60%) for agricultural produce causing pauperisation of millions of farmers and stopping of cultivation.
7. It had devastating social consequences sharply increasing poverty, desolation, homelessness, etc.
8. F.D. Roosvelt who became the President of the US announced “the New Deal” policy to re-cover America from Great Depression.

Question 9.
What are the consequences of the World Wars?
Answer:
The World Wars had a long-lasting impact on the politics, society and economy of the world.
These can be enumerated as follows:

1. Enormous human cost: The first consequence of the wars was widespread deaths and injuries. Many persons who were under forty years of age died.
2. Democratic principles asserted : The two wars also brought home the dangers of having un-democratic governments and greatly strengthened the case for democratisation of power.
3. New balance of power: With World War I the German, Austro-Hungarian, Russian and Turk-ish empires came to an end. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.
4. New international organisations After World War I, the League of Nations was formed to resolve disputes peacefully and the United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II.
5. Enfranchisement of women : After a long struggle for political right like right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your interpretation.
“USSR, started a great experiment of building a country without exploiters like feudal lords, kings or capitalists. The USSR tried to build a society that was industrialized and modern and yet didn’t have inequality or exclusion of people on the basis of birth, gender, language, etc.”
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that USSR has established a country with equality.
2. There are no exploiters, no dominants and no sufferers.
3. Though if followed industrialisation and modern technology and updated life, it didn’t have no inequality in any form.
4. It is the real spirit of socialism.
5. A country with equality and modern development is never expected in any country but it happened in USSR at that time.
6. In any country, we can see some sort of discrimination.
7. In some countries, discrimination is seen in the form of colour, i.e. the Blacks and the Whites.
8. In our country, some castes are treated as high castes and some other castes as low.
9. Boys are sent to higher education whereas the girls are not sent because of various reasons like safety and security.
10. Many countries have mentioned in the preamble of their constitutions that they give impor¬tance to equality and there will be no discrimination in any form.
11. In conclusion, I would say that every country should maintain equality.
12. The downtrodden should be uplifted.
13. A country with equal treatment is always an ideal one to all the nations.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your interpretation.
“The Nazi’s police powers were used to arrest and torture millions of political activists, trade unionists and people of minority communities, especially the Jews. They did all this to build a state of horror and fear”.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph conveys about the cruel policy of the Nazi soldiers.
2. Hitler arrested and tortured millions of German political leaders and activists, trade union leaders.
3. Minorities were also targeted.
4. This situation created a horrible state under the leadership of Hitler in Germany.
5. When Hitler won the elections of 1932 he brought the Enabling Act and many special forces like Gestapo, protection squads, security services besides different troopers.
6. These forces worked brutally and created horror and fear among the people.
7. Hitler did not allow any political party or trade union to work out.
8. He instructed all the people to follow the Nazis.
9. There was no peace.
10. He treated the Jewish people as his enemies.
11. Everyone criticized Hitler mainly because of his cruel treatment with the Jewish people.
12. The whole Germany was horrified of his activities.
13. In conclusion, I feel that Hitler’s activities are unlawful and undemocratic.
14. Nowadays all the countries are moving towards democratic governments.
15. All the countries should concentrate on literacy rate and so various programmes are to be taken up and implement strictly.
16. So that there will be no scope for such situation in any country.

Question 12.
What are the situations that led to strengthening Nazism in Germany?
Answer:
The situations that led to strengthening Nazim in Germany:

1. The burden of paying war-damages.
2. Inflation increased.
3. The economy was worst hit by depression.
4. Unemployment increased.
5. Savings of the people diminished.
6. Small businessmen were ruined.
7. Big businessmen were in a crisis.
8. Organized workers could manage to survive.
9. Peasants were affected by fall in agricultural prices.
10. Women were unable to feed their children.
11. No stable rule.

Question 13.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analysing it.

Answer:
Annual National Defence Expenditure

1. The table shows that the annual defence expenditure of great countries Britain and Germany has been increasing since 1933.
2. In the year of 1939, the expenditure increases because of the armament race, protection from enemies why because already they tasted the World War -1.
3. The government of these countries also helped to them to spend more money on defence. Ag-gressive nationalism also created proud of their country and desire of superiority in the world and also responsible to more expenditure on defence.
4. Million dollars spend for defence only during the period of 1933 to 1939.
5. At present some countries also spend more money on defence because of enemies. If every country realise and maintain friendly relations with other countries, and they spend million dollars for peace and development of poor people, automatically the world peace will de¬velop and every person live with without fear of war and tension in the world.

Question 14.
Observe the following Bar-graph and analyse it.
Answer:

1. The given bar graph is about the Explosive Production of two developed industrialised countries of West, i.e. Britain and Germany during World War-1.
2. Both countries belonged to two enemy groups or blocks.
3. In 1914 the explosive production of Britain and Germany is 4 tonnes and 8 tonnes respectively.
4. From that year onwards the production increased on a large scale in both the countries.
5. The difference is that the explosive production is less for Britain when compared to Germany in 1914.
6. But this situation reversed in 1917. The explosive production of Britain increased by over 45 times, i.e. from 4 tonnes to 184 tonnes during the years from 1914 to 1917 whereas the production of Germany increased by approximately 18 times, i.e. from 8 tonnes to 140 tonnes for the same period.

Question 15.
Explain briefly about the consequences of the World Wars.
Answer:
The World Wars had a long-lasting impact on the politics, society and economy of the world.
These can be enumerated as follows:

1. Enormous human cost: The first consequence of the wars was widespread deaths and injuries. Many persons who were under forty years of age died.
2. Democratic principles asserted: The two wars also brought home the dangers of having un-democratic governments and greatly strengthened the case for democratisation of power.
3. New balance of power: With World War I the German, Austro-Hungarian, Russian and Turkish empires came to an end. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.
4. New international organisations: After World War I, the League of Nations was formed to resolve disputes peacefully and the United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II.
5. Enfranchisement of women: After a Jong struggle for political right like right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.

Question 16.
Observe the poster and answer the questions.
a) Which country issued this poster?
b) What was the purpose of this poster?
c) What does the Swastika in the poster stand for?
d) During which war was this poster was published?
Answer:
a) U.S.A issued this poster.
b) War bonds were offered by the U.S.A. Government for purchase by the public to fulfill the military operations and other expenditure in times of war.
c) The three young children, apprehensive and fearful, as they are enveloped by the large dark arm of swastika shadow.
(OR)
Simply, Germany is going to occupy the U.S.A also.
d) This war bonds poster was published during the time of second World War.

Question 17.
Describe the course of Russian Socialist Revolution.
Answer:

1. Russian socialist revolution in 1917 took place in two phases – March 1917 and November 1917.
2. 10,000 women took procession demanding ‘Peace and Bread’ and supported by many later.
3. In just two days Tsar Nicolas II abdicated throne and provisional government was set up in search 1917.
4. It wished to continue the war and economic shortage was not addressed.
5. Soviets (the councils of peasants, workers and soldiers) were organised by Bolshevik leader Lenin.
6. They seized political power from provisional government.
7. They took steps to end the war and redistributed land.
8. They made control over prices and nationalized industries, banks, etc.
9. They suppressed the long-drawn civil wars.
10. By 1924, the USSR – Union of Soviet Socialist Republics was formed.

Question 18.
Give an estimate of the world at the end of first half of the 20th century.
Answer:

1. The first half of the 20th century ended with the nightmare of Hiroshima and Nagasaki and with the hopes generated by the founding of the UNO.
2. The Second World War ended with the ending of large colonial empires of Britain, France, Japan, Italy and Germany.
3. By 1950, countries like India, China, Indonesia, Vietnam, Egypt, Nigeria etc. became independent.
4. Britain which was the most powerful country now became a secondary power.
5. Two new superpowers emerged on the World scene : the USSR and the USA.
6. The USSR, which bore the main burnt of Hitler’s war and faced enormous destruction, gradually rebuilt its economy.
7. Its victory however, greatly enhanced its prestige in the world and it was now joined by the entire Eastern Europe and China to form a large ‘Socialist Camp’.

Question 19.
Observe the timeline chart and answer the following questions.

1. When and how were the foundation for socialism laid?
Answer:
The foundations for socialism were laid between 1850¬1880 due to debates over socialism.

2. How many revolutions took place in Russia?
Answer:

1. Revolution of 1905 .
2. The February Revolution of 1917 and the October revolution of 1917.

3. Did the peace establish in Russia after 1917?
Answer:
No, civil war broke out between 1918-20.

4. What do you mean by collectivization?
Answer:
The land was collected and farmer worked together and shared the produce. This was collectivization.

Question 20.
Locate the following points in the world map.

1. St. Petersberg
2. Moscow
3. Kyrgyzstan
4. Ukraine
5. Uzbekistan
6. Tajikistan
7. Kazakistan
8. Turkomania

Answer:

Question 21.
Observe the following map.

Answer the following questions after reading the map.

1. Which neighbouring country of India was occupied by Japan?
Answer:
The neighbouring country of India that was occupied by Japan was Burma.

2. What is Dutch East India called now ?
Answer:
Dutch East India is now called ‘Indonesia’.

3. Most of the area under control of Japan is a part of which ocean?
Answer:
Most of the area under the control of Japan is a part of Pacific Ocean.

4. Which Chinese region was under the control of Japan ?
Answer:
Manchuria was the Chinese region that was under the control of Japan.

5. Was Mongolia under the control of Japan in 1942?
Answer:
No. It was not under the control of Japan in 1942.

Question 22.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Stalingrad

2. In 1939 Germany attacked on this country
Answer:
Poland

3. St. Petersberg

4. This country faced more destruction due to releasing atom bombs by America
Answer:
Japan

5. Capital of Poland
Answer:
Warsaw

6. Capital of Austria
Answer:
Vienna

7. Corsica Island

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 12 Sustainable Development with Equity.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. How does the Green Revolution lead to an increase in food grains?
Answer:

1. Use of high yielding varieties.
2. Improvement of irrigational facilities.
3. Use of new methods of cultivation.
4. Use of pesticides and fertilisers.

Question 2.
What is the main theme of Rachel Carson’s book ‘Silent Spring’?
Answer:
The impact on birds and human beings of spraying DDT for mosquito control.

Question 3.
What is the aim of Chipko movement?
Answer:
The main aim of Chipko Movement is to protect forests.

Question 4.
Write any two slogans on the environmental protection.
Answer:

1. Save the environment, save life.
2. Save the nature to save the future.
3. Go green and eliminate the global warming.

Question 5.
Write one main characteristic of organic farming.
Answer:
In organic farming the farmers use local resources including on-farm biological processes. Pest predators available them. Micro-organisms which make nutrients more accessible to the plants. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used only for animal manure.

Question 6.
What is HDI as a measure of development?
Answer:
As a measure of development, HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.

Question 7.
Which expands the meaning of development?
Answer:
HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of education and health.

Question 8.
Which are central to the production process?
Answer:
Many naturally existing substances like land, water, minerals and ores, products from trees and animals are central to the production
process.

Question 9.
What does the overuse of ground water imply?
Answer:
Over use of ground water implies that the stock of groundwater is being depleted. Very rapidly the ground water has been falling to lower and lower levels.

Question 10.
Which are central to modern development?
Answer:
Irrigation and power have been produced and both are central to modern development.

Question 11.
What is called NBA?
A. The resistance to Sardar Sarovar and other
dams with similar consequences in the Narmada valley has taken the form of a social movement. It is called Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA).

Question 12.
“It is unjust to ask the poor people”
What is it?
Answer:
We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities. It is unjust to ask poor people to bear the cost of development.

Question 13.
Which governments banned chemical fertilizers and pesticides?
Answer:
The Sikkim government and Uttarakhand government.

Question 14.
When did the Chipko movement start and where?
Answer:
The Chipko movement started in the early 1970s in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand.

Question 15.
Expand HDI.
Answer:
Human Development Index.

Question 16.
What is meant by “Water Recharge”?
Answer:
Water Recharge means the percolation of water into the ground to be extracted.

Question 17.
Write about Chipko Andolan?
Answer:
Chipko means embrace the villagers hugged the trees saving them interposing their bodies between them and the contractor’s axes.

Question 18.
What are the natural resources to use in production?
Answer:
Natural resources used in production are land, water, and minerals, forests, etc.

Question 19.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Question 20.
What are the activities to take up through an alternative Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Alternate PDS advocates the practice of millets, establishment of community grain bank, issue of cards and ensuring food security in the village.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the table which shows the growth in the extraction of some key-minerals in India.
Answer:
Extraction of minerals in a thousand Tonnes

Minerals	1997-1998	2008-2009
Bauxite	6,108	15,250
Coal	2,97,000	4,93,000
Iron ore	75,723	2,25,544
Chromite	1,515	3,976

After your observation, what do you think about the environmental loss of such rapid growth of mining.

1. Ground water pollution would increase.
2. Temperatures would increase.
3. Air pollution would increase near the mining areas.
4. Water storage capacity would decrease due to soil erosion.
5. Extreme burning of coal leads to ozone depletion.
6. Accidents may occur due to heavy mining.
7. People may face natural calamities like earthquakes.

Question 2.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone – now and for generations to come.

Question 3.
How does organic farming promote bio-diversity?
Answer:

1. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used in organic farming.
2. Only echo friendly farming techniques are used.
3. Methods like crop rotation, using compost and use of Local resources are used.
4. Number of crops are produced in farms instead of one or two crops.

Question 4.
Write two slogans on enlightening people regarding “environment protection”.
Answer:
Slogans on Environment Protection.

1. Grow plants – Get oxygen
2. Avoid plastic bags – Promote cotton bags.

Question 5.
What are the aspects taken as indicators to measure Human Development?
Answer:
Indicators of development:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling
4. Expected years of schooling
5. Life expectancy at birth
6. Health status
7. Employment status
8. Equal distribution

Question 6.
Create two slogans to prevent Global warming.
Answer:

1. All be nice – Save the ice
2. Global warming – Not charming
3. Protect Mother Earth – It protects all

Question 7.
Identify the importance of the environment in the development of a nation.
Answer:
The development has to be achieved at any cost. Growth in GDP and modern industrial development are necessary, it is argued, for raising the living standards of people and reducing poverty. Since modern industrial and agricultural development are intensive in use of natural resources including energy, depletion of resources and pollution of the environment is to be expected. It is a sacrifice that has to be borne for higher growth. Once high economic growth and prosperity is achieved, pollution and environmental degradation can be handled. One can spend money and clean up the air and rivers, drink bottled water and build cars that are fuel efficient. After all this is the route the developed countries have taken.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of ‘Sustainable Development’.
Answer:

Importance of Sustainable Development

The development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.

The present scenario is quite adversary. There is no such feeling of future generations and their needs. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on. If we do not consider this, how the next generations survive that everyone should think of.

To what extent the natural resources we need to that extent only we should use. This concept is to be spread among the people.

Government should take up awareness programmes on this issue. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts. In some areas multinational companies have taken up the lands and pumping out the water and selling them. How does the government give permission to such companies which lead to fall down of ground water level? Government should think about this and take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 9.
Why is it necessary to focus on sustainable development now a days?
Answer:
Focus on sustainable development nowadays is compulsory to meet the needs of the present as well as future generations. We have to provide better quality of life for everyone. Conservation of fertility of soil is also essential for future crops. Factory emissions are to be prevented to make the air and water pure.

Question 10.
Differentiate between the environment’s ‘Source function’ and ‘Sink function’.
Answer:
Differences between the Environment’s source function and Sink function.

Source function	Sink function
1. The sectors of the economy are dependent on natural resources in various degrees.	1. It is (environment) to absorb and render harmless the waste and pollution from various activities.
2. The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an environment’s source function.	2. Unwanted byproducts of production and consumption say exhaust gases from combustion, water used to clean products, discarded packaging and goods no longer wanted are absorbed by the environment.

Question 11.
How is environmental protection linked with our lifestyle?
Answer:
Our life style is linked with environment protection. We should be habituated to use organic productions. We should avoid plastic. Use renewable energy sources. Reducing quarrying and deforestation to zero. Industrial waste should be disposed in a proper manner. Public transport with compressed Natural Gas is to be encouraged. Radiating devices are to be minimized.

Question 12.
On what does the primary sector depend?
Answer:
In primary sector activities – agriculture, mining, quarrying – and in the manufacturing and energy sector, production is hugely dependent on natural resources. The other sectors of the economy too are dependent on natural resources in various degrees.

Question 13.
What is environment’s source function?
Answer:
The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an “environment’s source function”. This function is depleted as resources are consumed or pollution contaminates the resources.

Question 14.
What is another function that the environment provides?
Answer:
There is another function that the environment provides. It is to absorb and render harmless the waste and pollution from various activities. Unwanted by-products of production and consumption say exhaust gases from combustion, water used to clean products, discarded packaging and goods no longer wanted are absorbed by the environment. This is as important as the source function.

Question 15.
What does the ‘sink function’ describe?
Answer:
The “sink function” describes an environment’s ability to absorb and render harmless waste and pollution. When waste output exceeds the limit of the sink function, long-term damage to the environment occurs.

Question 16.
What happened in the past fifty years?
Answer:
In the past fifty years of economic development, both these functions of the environment have been overused. This has been said to affect the carrying capacity of the environment, i.e., the capacity of the environment to support economic production and consumption in the future.

Question 17.
What is modern development for people who have been displaced? Why?
Answer:
For people who have been displaced modern development has been unjust and destructive. Because they have lost access to their greater resource, the local environment. Without the local environment, their lives would be reduced to nothing.

Question 18.
How are environmental movements?
Answer:
While each of these movements has slightly different contexts, they are essentially demanding the rights of the local communities over the environment. Chipko movement acted to prevent the cutting of trees and reclaim their traditional forest rights that were threatened by contractors. Narmada Bachao Andolan has stood for the rights of the people over land, forests and river.

Question 19.
What is the impact on the environment that the use of pesticides and chemicals?
Answer:

1. The excessive use of pesticides and chemical fertilizer exhibit a negative impact on society.
2. Environment cannot absorb harmful substances than a limit.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit the sink function limit, danger occurs to the environment.
4. It pressures on environment’s ability to provide different resources for production.

Question 20.
Is it correct to take HDI (Human Development Index) as a measure of development?
Answer:

1. As a measure of development HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.
2. The idea of development hardly limited to production of goods and services.
3. Rapid expansion of production and income coexist with malnutrition and lack of education and health.
4. HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of health and education.

Question 21.
A high % workforce in low-paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only a select groups. Read this and interpretate?
Answer:

1. In India 90% of workforce is in the unorganized sector, where the conditions of working are not encouraging at all.
2. Incomes of both self employed and wage workers in unorganized sectors are generally low and at times pitiably so.
3. With, such a high percentage of the workforce is low paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only to select groups.

Question 22.
Construction of big dams “leads to environmental problems”. Read this and interpretate.
Answer:

1. They disrupt the lives and livelihoods of lakhs of people.
2. Many people lose their access to local environment.
3. Many people drop from a state of self – sufficiency to scarcity.
4. They were at times made to depend on external forces.
5. Many lose their needs without access to the environment.
6. Rich biodiversity and treasure of knowledge is lost which comes traditionally.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How does the lifestyle of people influence the environment? What are your suggestions to protect the environment ?
Answer:
Influence:

1. There is a strong bondage between the lifestyle of human kingdom and environment.
2. Environment fulfills many of our needs.
3. There are various ways in which our lifestyles of people influence the environment.
4. The people of a region lives according to their environment. Their traditions, cultures, festivals, etc. are based on their environment.

My Suggestions:

1. Natural resources should be used limitedly.
2. Forests should not be cut down. We should take care of them.
3. Industrial wastes should be recycled.
4. The establishment of industries which release more pollution should be restricted.
5. People should be enriched with the knowledge of environment.

Question 2.
Observe the following Graph diagram.
Write a brief note on the inequality in India based on the graph.
Answer:

1. 3 million households with annual income above Rs. 17 lakh are classified as rich.
2. 31 million households with annual income between Rs. 3.4 to Rs. 17 lakh are classified as middle class.
3. 71 million households income is between Rs. 1.5 to Rs. 3.4 lakh classified as aspirers.
4. 135 million lakhs classified as deprived.
5. In our country, more than 90% of the people are in unorganised sector.
6. It clearly says that the rich are becoming more rich, whereas the poor remain poor.
7. There is inequality in holding wealth as well as opportunities.
8. Wide inequalities in incomes and opportunities across people cannot be the basis for a just society.

Question 3.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.

It is also important to realize that not only do people lose out as they are removed from their local environments, equally, the environment is denuded of Its rich biodlverslty as the traditional knowledge is lost along with the people.

Answer:

The largest of the dams constructed is the Sardar Sarovar, which floods more than 37,000 hectares of forest and agricultural land, displacing more than half a million people and destroying some of India’s most fertile land. The project has devastated human lives and bio-diversity by inundating thousands of acres of forest and agricultural land. A disproportionate number of those being displaced are Adivasi’s and Dalits.

Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs which otherwise they would have to pay for.
As they lose access to environment either because of displacement, or because the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest sufferers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Question 4.
Write a letter to your district collector on the problems of environment in your area.
Answer:

Anandnagar Colony,
Visakhapatnam,
Date: xxxxxxxxx.

To,
The District Collector,
Visakhapatnam District,
Visakhapatnam.

Respected Sir,

I am Srinivasa Rao, the resident of Gajuwaka. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about problems of environment in our local area.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to take proper effective measures wherever polluted industries are there and they should be shut down and minimise polluted plying vehicles and reduce the release of greenhouse gases.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………
…………………………

Question 5.
Study the table given below and answer the questions.
Growth in Extraction of Some Key Minerals in India (in thousand tonnes)

a) What do the particulars of above table tell about?
Answer:
Growth in extraction of some key minerals in India

b) In comparison to other minerals, which one is not being extracted more than double in 2008-09?
Answer:
Coal is not being extracted more than double in 2008 – 09.

c) What might be the reasons for increase in mining?
Answer:

1. Number of industries increased.
2. Using machinery in mining.
3. Consumption of minerals increase.
4. Greed of human beings.

d) What do you think would be the environmental and human costs of such rapid growth in mining?
Answer:

1. Sustainability of minerals
2. Diversion in the direction of river flow
3. Causes for floods.
4. Extinction of forest cover.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
We are already experiencing the negative consequences of rapid economic growth on several fronts – the problem of groundwater and pesticides being two stark examples. We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities.

1. The idea of development has been contested through problems of environment.
2. The groundwater levels fell rapidly and groundwater recharge is also not to the expected level.
3. Fertilizers made the soil less fertile and ever increasing costs to farmers.
4. Industrialisation has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened.

My Opinion: Always we should be able to integrate enviromental concerns with the idea of progress, along with issues of equity and justice. We have to find an environmentally sustainable pathway out of poverty.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph, understand and write your opinion on it.

While industrialisation has brought a lot of material comforts, at least to some, it has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened and now even the climate is being disrupted. This pattern of growth clearly cannot continue.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph :

1. Industrialisation in the world has brought a lot of material comforts for humans to lead a happy life.
2. Man has invented from small pin to big plane with these metals obtained by mining.
3. But at the same time the minerals are reducing in their quantity because man’s short sighted ness.
4. As a result of man’s greediness the natural resources such as metals and fossil fuels are declin-ing and threatening our planet to fell in danger.
5. Because of over use of these resources, climatic changes are going on with the depletion of ozone layer damage and environment degradation.

I conclude that this type of growth does not create sustainable development to the planet and further it becomes unjustifiable in degrading our environment.

Question 8.
How would the rapid extraction of natural resources effect the future development prospects?
Explain.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this statement.
2. We are extracting minerals and natural resources rapidly.
3. Modern industrial development and agricultural development are intensive in use of minerals and natural resources.
4. If this extraction goes on like this, the mineral deposits and natural resources will be depleted.
5. The extent of our current use of minerals and natural resources is such that the chances of future generations to have access to their fair share of scarce resources are endangered.
6. Moreover, the consequences in terms of impacts on the environment may induce serious damages that go beyond the carrying capacity of the environment.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

Recent data on the status of groundwater resources in India suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. Nearly one-third of the country is pumping out more groundwater than what goes in as recharge. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years, which points to an alarming rate of extraction.

Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater resources are decreasing as we are overusing it.
2. Maximum of water is pumped out from deep layers.
3. Recharging is less and pumping is more.
4. In future it will become a major problem to all people.
5. The rate of extraction of water is dangerous for our existence.
6. Extraction of groundwater doesn’t affect the particular area where the extraction is going on but it affects all surrounding areas also.
7. The depth of the bore wells is increasing day by day.
8. There should be a change in the human attitude.
9. Our behavior should be environment friendly.
10. We should not over use ground water.
11. Deep wells should be discouraged.
12. Plastic usage should be prohibited.
13. The government should take stringent action against the people who do not follow these conditions.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

This pattern of development is in direct contrast to what sustainable development stands for Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone-now and for generations to come.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development.
2. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.
3. The present scenario is quite adversary to the paragraph. There is no such feeling of future
   generations and their needs.
4. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on.
5. The government should take up awareness programmes on this issue.
6. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts.
7. The government should think about this take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

For most rural communities, the link between the environment and the lives of the people is very strong. Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs (like food, firewood, fodder, economically valuable articles, etc.) which otherwise they would have to pay for. As they lose this access to environment either because of displacement, or the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest losers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given here, the rural people are attached with environment for their food and other commodities.
2. When there is a displacement they don’t have this facility of getting commodities.
3. These poor people suffer a lot when the environment is destroyed and polluted.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that many a time it is happening in many places.
5. When displacement takes place, the forest dwellers have to face many problems.
6. They don’t have sufficient food and land for cultivation.
7. They don’t get loans as they are new to the money lenders of that place.
8. The government should think about the troubles of these people when they are asked to move from their living places.
9. I am not opposing to construct dams and projects but the displacement should not lead to troubles.
10. Alternate arrangements should be made keeping their problems in mind.

Question 12.
Locate the following points in the Indian map provided.

1. Mumbai
2. Hyderabad
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Gujarat
5. Tamil Nadu
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Uttar Pradesh
9. River Narmada
10. Sardar Sarovar Project
11. Andhra Pradesh
12. Delhi.

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 8 People and Migration.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 8th Lesson People and Migration

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are Kopis?
Answer:
Kopis are conical huts made of bamboo mats and poles.

Question 2.
Write any one reason for international migration.
Answer:
Education and Employment are the main reasons for international migration.

Observe the graph below and answer questions 3, 4.

Question 3.
Which social background people are migrating more?
Answer:
OBC are migrating more.

Question 4.
What is the reason for short term migration?
Answer:
The reason for short term migration in rural areas is distress caused there.

Question 5.
Draw a rough pie chart to represent the information given in the table.
Population Expansion in Urban Regions 2001 – 2011

Causes	%
Natural Increases	44%
Expansion of Urban Area	32%
Migration	24%

Answer:

Question 6.
How does migration arise?
Answer:
Migration arises out of various social, economic or political reasons.

Question 7.
How can we identify a person as a migrant?
Answer:
For identifying a person as a migrant, two criteria are used by the centres :

• birthplace
• last usual place of residence.

Question 8.
What is the most common reason for male migration?
Answer:
Employment or seeking employment is the most common reason for male migration.

Question 9.
Give some other reasons for migration.
Answer:
Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities for studies, loss in business, family, friends, etc. are also some other reasons for migration.

Question 10.
Where do the urban migrants have to work?
Answer:
Most urban migrants have to work in the unorganised sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 11.
Which has been recognised as a natural response?
Answer:
For some people from rural areas moving to cities and towns to work in industry and other service activities have been recognised as a natural response to increase their in¬come and for better family prospects.

Question 12.
Why do migrants continue to live as daily workers?
Answer:
The migrants from rural to urban are not able to find jobs in the organised sector and therefore there’s no job security and decent income that they were aspiring for. They continue to live as daily workers.

Question 13.
Why is the number of seasonal migrants underestimated in India?
Answer:
The number of seasonal migrants is underestimated in India due to limitations in the definition of the term ‘migrant’ used in national surveys.

Question 14.
What is the Emigration Act, 1983?
Answer:
The Emigration Act, 1983 is the Indian law governing migration and employment of Indians abroad.

Question 15.
What are living areas of the sugarcane cutters?
Answer:
The Kopis are cramped together and bullocks are parked in front. Animals and humans live together in congested conditions.

Question 16.
Who are the rural seasonal migrants?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low-income households, dalits and Adivasis.

Question 17.
Where do rural seasonal migrants work?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants work in agriculture and plantations, brick kilns, quarries, construction sites and fish processing.

Question 18.
Who have a long history of migrating?
Answer:
Male from Saora tribals have a long history of migrating to work in Assam plantation, Munda and Santhal men migrate to work in mining sites in Odisha.

Question 19.
Which depend on migrant workers?
Answer:
Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers.

Question 20.
“It is also common to see migrants”
What is it?
Answer:
It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in their petty businesses and casual labour.

Question 21.
What is the economic condition of the seasonal migrants?
Answer:
Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Question 22.
What did the N.C.R.L. find?
Answer:
The National Commission of Rural Labour in its reports in 1990s found that uneven development and regional disparity triggered and accelerated seasonal migration.

Question 23.
How do the migrant labourers spend?
Answer:
Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair price shops at their workplaces.

Question 24.
Why do they suffer from health problems?
Answer:
As they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Question 25.
Name some health problems from which they suffer.
Answer:
Bodyache, sunstroke, skin irritation and lung diseases.

Question 26.
Why are migrants not able to access various health and family care programmes?
Answer:
Migrants are not able to access various health and family care programmes as they do not belong to the organised sector.

Question 27.
Do the migrant workers have maternity leave?
Answer:
No, they do not have maternity leave.

Question 28.
Which leaves a deep impact on migrants?
Answer:
Exposure to a different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmosphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 29.
What does migration allow?
Answer:
Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets. It is also common to find migrant families buying house, land, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.

Question 30.
How do some migrants migrate regularly?
Answer:
Some migrants might take up jobs in the destination, acquire skills required in the destination area, become aware of how to get regular jobs and migrate regularly or permanently.

Question 31.
How many kinds of migrations are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are two kinds of migrations.
They are:

1. Internal migrations
2. International migrations.

Question 32.
Where do the skilled Indians migrate?
Answer:
The skilled Indians migrate to the U.S.A., the U.K., Canada, Germany, Norway, Japan and Malaysia.

Question 33.
What is the second type of international migration?
Answer:
The second type of international migration is unskilled and semi-skilled workers migrating to oil-exporting countries of West Asia on temporary contracts.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When males leave their families, this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

What is the effect on girls if the head of the family migrates?
Answer:
When the head of the family migrates, the burden of the family falls on the woman. She has to work, earn and lead the family. As she works outside of the house, the girl children should take care of the younger children and elder people in the home, So they are becoming dropouts.

Question 2.
What do you suggest to overcome the problems of foreign migrants?
Answer:

1. The government should take care of their security i.e., the embassies.
2. They should not believe on unauthorized intermediators.
3. Legal documents should be verified properly.

Question 3.
Do you think migrants are trouble makers? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes. I think migrants are trouble makers.
2. The migrants may not be provided with proper facilities by the government.
3. The migrants may question for proper facilities in the long course.
4. If the migrants begin to fight for their identity, then the trouble will start.
   Ex: Tamil people in Sri Lanka.

(OR)

1. No. I think migrants are not trouble makers.
2. Generally migrants go for their livelihood.
3. Therefore no scope to fight for domination.
4. Migrants won’t trouble anybody because they won’t fight for identity and domination.
   Ex: Sugarcane cutters in Maharashtra.

Question 4.
What are the problems faced by migrant labourers from villages to cities?
Answer:

1. They have to face the problem for proper shelter and settlement.
2. They may require references for jobs.
3. As they have to work in the unorganised sector, they would have neither job security nor any incentives.
4. They have to spend more on food.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes.

In urban areas, what are the common sectors of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment? Give examples.
Answer:
In urban areas the unorganised sector is the common sector of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment.

Question 6.
List out the reasons why the people have been migrating from your area.
Answer:
The following are the reasons for the people migrating from my area :

1. Marriage is one of the most common reasons for female migration.
2. Employment or seeking employment is another reason for males to migrate.
3. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place, better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds etc. is the other causes for migrating.

Question 7.
What are the reasons for migration?
Answer:

1. Migrations can happen due to many reasons.
2. Females reported marriage as the most common reason.
3. Males migrate on employment or seeking employment opportunities.
4. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place is one reason.
5. Better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds are some other reasons for migration.

Question 8.
Create a pamphlet on “Prevention of Migration”.
Answer:

PREVENTION OF MIGRATION

Reasons: When families migrate, they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Migratory pressures on communities of origin can be related social and economic distress. They can be linked to environmental degradation as well as natural man made hazards and they can be due persecution on conflict and violence. By supporting disaster preparedness and building resilence at the community level.

Conclusion: Why should we prevent means reduce the problems. National societies contributing to elevating pressures that can induce people to migrate against their will and desire.

Question 9.
How does the gender bias effect when the women work outside of the home nowadays?
Answer:
Before the rise of large scale industrialization, home and workplace were one and the same. But now the disparity between men and women in the workplaces is a common issue.

Workers acknowledge gender discrimination is possible in modem organizations, but at the same time maintain their workplaces to be gender-neutral.

Women are facing a high degree of gender bias when it comes to their career. There is a general perception that women are less capable than men in matters of business and decision making.

It is often a strenuous struggle for a woman not just to her mettle but also to make a deserving way to the top. Career goals of women are considered less important compared to male counterparts. The disparity is also seen in the wages and salaries also. Thus the relationship is negative.

Question 10.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. The above pie diagram is about the social background of short term migrants.
2. OBC and ST account for 40% and 23% of the migrants respectively.
3. Most of the OBC are skilled in making some items.
4. So they produce the articles and migrate to cities to sell their products.
5. SC people are benefited by the schemes provided by the government and their share is less.

Question 11.
‘Most children of migrant families become drop-outs.’ Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree that children become dropout if the parents are migrants.
2. When families migrate, children also accompany their parents.
3. They cannot get admission in schools in their parents workplace without transfer certificate.
4. Schools in their native place refuse to take them when they come back.
5. When parents migrate, the elder child especially the girl child, has to take care of the younger siblings.
6. Due to the above reasons, the children become dropouts.

Question 12.
Why are Embassies set up?
Answer:
Embassies set up by the Indian Government in different countries are expected to follow the legal procedures and protect the welfare of the international migrants as given in the Emigration Act.

Question 13.
Which depends upon the needs of rural family members?
Answer:
Remittances – money sent by migrants from their destination – are an important means of supplementing, or generating additional incomes for the rural family. The amount of remittances and the pressure to remain in the urban areas depends upon the needs of rural family members.

Question 14.
Why do migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas because they want to safeguard their rights over land and homestead. Families left in rural areas are important for most urban migrants. In feet, it is the family which decides whether their family member should migrate or not.

Question 15.
Write about Sugar belt.
Answer:
The seven districts in western Maharashtra- Nasik, Ahmadnagar, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur and Sholapur – comprise the”sugar belt” which extends into Surat(Gujarat) in the north and Belgaum(Karnataka) in the south. Five districts of the arid Marathwada region – Beed, Jalgaon, Ahmadnagar, Nasik and Jalna – send out labour to this sugar belt for six months every year for sugarcane harvesting.

Question 16.
Why do people migrate from rural areas?
Answer:
People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities, inadequate income available in rural employment. They also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services.

Question 17.
Why do many families have residences at both the ends?
Answer:
Many families have residences both at their origin- (native place) and at the destination. They shift between the two depending on work and seasons. The migration does not necessarily involve the movement of all members of the family, and often the wife remains in the rural area.

Question 18.
Why do migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas so that potential migrants can engage in the rural-based job search. In most cases, migration is a survival strategy for many families.

Question 19.

Estimate the rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow, Kolkata and Delhi.
Answer:

1. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow = 2 lakhs
2. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Kolkata = 2 lakhs
3. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Delhi = 6 lakhs

Question 20.
From which states in migrations are high? Give reasons.
Answer:
Migrations are high from states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Kerala. Western Uttar Pradesh and Delhi are industrially developed.

Question 21.
Read the above graph and answer the following questions.

1. In the Decade of 1961-71 the urban population of India is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 1961 – 71 is 31 million.
2. At the end of 2001-11 decade the urban population is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 2001 -11 is 91 mn.
3. How many times did the urban population increase from 1961-71 decade to 2001-11 decade?
   Answer:
   The urban population increased from 1961 – 71 to 2001 -11 is by 3 times.

Question 22.
Graph: Social Background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08

Read the given Pie diagram and answer the following questions.

1. How much per cent of STis migrated in 2007-08?
   Answer:
   ST’s constitute 23% of the migrated in 2007 – 08.
2. Which is the maximum migrated class In 2007-08? what is its percentage?
   Answer:
   The maximum migration is from the class of OBCs and it is 40%.
3. In which class we notice minimum migrants?
   Answer:
   The minimum migrants are there from others which is 18%.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the meaning of international migration? Identify the reasons and consequences of it.
Answer:
Migration of the people from one country to another country due to various reasons is called “international migration”.
Reasons:

1. For higher education
2. For better employment opportunities
3. For business needs Consequences:
4. Financial conditions of the migrant families improve.
5. They are able to pay back loans and buy assets.
6. Changes occur in their lifestyle.
7. Brain drain has become a major hazard to the progress of the country’s economy.

Question 2.

When families migrate, children accompanying their parents do not have creche facilities. Grown-up children are not able to continue their studies at their parents’ new workplaces. Schools in their native place refuse to take them again when they come back. They finally become dropouts. When males leave their families this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

“Most of the children of migrant families become dropouts” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Yes, it is true. When families migrate most of the children of migrant families become dropouts.
2. At the place of migration, creche facilities are not available for the children.
3. Even if there are such facilities poor families cannot afford them.
4. Sometimes even schools are not available at migrant places.
5. Schools in their native places refuse to take them again when they come back.
6. This is damaging their interest in studies.
7. Young girls in migrant families often required to take care of their siblings.
8. Now – a – days government schools are admitting such students.
9. But even then, they are lagging behind in their studies.
10. Special training should be given to them during the holidays.

Question 3.
Write your reflections on the vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia.
Answer:
Vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia :

1. At times, migrant workers are not paid their salaries, recruitment agents cheat prospective workers or collect more than the prescribed fees for their role in getting work for workers abroad.
2. Employers also terminate the job contract before its expiry, change the employment contract to the disadvantage of migrant workers.
3. Pay less than the agreed salary and freeze fringe benefits and other perks.
4. They often force workers to do overtime without making additional payments and deny permission to keep one’s own passport.
5. Indian migrant workers seldom lodge any complaint against their foreign employers for the fear of losing their jobs.

Question 4.
Observe the given pie chart and answer the question that follows:
Write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:
This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.

Normally in population, the number of people from other backward classes is more. It is also observed in rural areas. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases they have no lands. Recently the trend is changing. Due to some welfare schemes, they are also leading a better life. The percentage of others is also nearly equal to the scheduled castes. Their migration purpose may be different. Many of these migrants work in unorganized sector like, construction work, brick industries, selling plastic goods and vegetables or in casual work.

The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused. Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the nonfarm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Conclusion : If government provide loans to landless labour for Agriculture purpose, motor pump sets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in agricultural sector.

Question 6.
Write down the advantages and disadvantages of the people when they migrate.
Answer:

1. Urban migrants have plenty of opportunities for education and acquire new skills and take us new jobs effectively.
2. Thus they earn more incomes.
3. Remittances are an important means of supplementing or generating additional income for rural families.
4. Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets.
5. Migrant families buy house, land, gold, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.
6. Majority of migrants either remit or bring back savings.
7. Thus their purchasing power increases.

Disadvantages:

1. Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair prices shops.
2. They live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions.
3. They suffer from health problems and are prone to disease.
4. They do not have creche facilities.
5. Grown up children are not able to continue their studies at their parent’s new workplaces.
6. Exposure to different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmo¬sphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 7.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Migrations in India [Census 1991-2001]

Migration by place of birth	Census 1991 (excluding J & K in millions)	Census 2001 (including J & K in millions)	Variation (%) 1991-2001
Total population	838.5	1028.6	21.5
Total migrations	229.8	307.1	32.9
Migrants from within the districts	136.2	181.7	32.6
Migrants from other districts of state	59.1	76.8	29.5
Migrants from other states in India	27.2	42.3	54.5
Migrants from other countries	6.9	6.1	(-) 11.6

Answer:
Table Analysis:
According to 1991 & 2001 census,

1. The total population in 1991 was 838.5 million excluding J & K. At the same time in 2001 it was 1028.6 million including J&K. There was a variation of 21.5% growth in the population.
2. Total migrated people in 1991 were 229.8 million and they were in 2001, 307.1 million. There was 32.9% variation from 1991 to 2001.
3. Migrants from within the districts in 1991 were 136.2 million and in 2001 were 181.7 million. The variation is 32.6%.
4. Migrants from other districts of the state in 1991 were only 59.1 million and in 2001 were 76.8 million. The variation is 29.5%.
5. In 1991 migrants from other states in India were 27.2 million and in 2001 they were 42.3 million. The variation is 54.5%.
6. Migrants from other countries were 6.9 million in 1991. This number reduced to 6.1 million in 2001. Hence, the variation is (-) 11.6%.

From the above information, it is evident that the total migrations increased from 1991 to 2001. Migrants within the district and migrants from other districts of the state increased. Because of employment, facilities and education also increased.
Some areas are not developed, that’s why people are migrating from one place to other places.

Conclusion: Finally from the above information we understand that migrants from other countries to India decreased. So we understand that foreigners are not preferring to migrate India because of lack of resources and employment and low paid salaries.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

The men drive the carts to the factory where they might have to wait in queue for several hours before they get to offload the cane. The women, meanwhile, walk several kilometres back to the settlement. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.

How far is the household work done by the women in these circumstances justified?
Answer:

1. Both men and women work in the sugarcane fields.
2. The cane piles are tied into bundles, carried on the head by men and women.
3. Men drive the carts to the factories.
4. After doing heavy work on cane fields, women walk several kilometres back to the settlement.
5. Then they have to perform household work.
6. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.
7. But the wage paid to the women is less when compared to the men.
8. Hence we can conclude this discrimination is not justified on any grounds.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better servicing. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the people migrate to urban areas as there is no sufficient work in rural areas.
2. They expect high income from urban areas but they settle in unorganized sector.
3. They also have no job security and they face many problems.
4. My opinion is that nowadays every individual want high income for their families.
5. The people are ready to go anywhere for that.
6. They are forcibly settling in the unorganized sector.
7. Some of them don’t find even daily wages.
8. In conclusion I suggest the government to take care of these labourers of the unorganized sector and launch new schemes for these migrants.

A large section of rural workers migrate for a short duration and particularly due to distress caused in rural areas. They are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low Income households, dalits and adivasis.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given, it is understood that most of the labourers migrating from rural areas to urban areas are from marginalized families.
2. Their income is low and they are SCs and STs.
3. They come to cities and towns in distress.
4. My opinion is that most of the dalits and adivasis have no agricultural lands. They are agricul¬tural labourers working in others fields.
5. When they find no work in some peculiar seasons they migrate to urban areas.
6. Especially the adivasis are still leading their lives based on the forest produce.
7. I suggest the government to take up new initiatives for the sake of these low-income groups. MNREGA programmes should be launched in needy areas.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers. It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in other petty businesses and casual labour. A large section of such migrants are from tribal communities and from drought-prone areas of the state. Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that different activities in urban areas depend on migrant workers.
2. Drought is also one of the reasons for migration. Many of the migrants are from tribal communities. They have no lands and so they are very poor.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that it is true the many of the migrants are working on construction sites and they are in the unorganized sector.
4. They don’t find work on all the days.
5. When there is a work they get wages. Many a time they spend their time waiting for work.
6. I conclude by saying these unorganized sector people are to be identified.
7. Special schemes are to be designed and launched. They should be provided with work but not simply financial help.
8. Banks should provide loans without collateral and so they can survive for themselves.

Question 12.

Prepare a paragraph on the above pie chart.
Answer:

1. This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others.
2. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.
3. Normally In population, the number of people from other backward classes is more.
4. It is also observed in rural areas.
5. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases, they have no lands.
6. The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places.
7. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused.
8. If Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 13.
Draw and locate the following.

1. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Amaravathi.
2. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Krishna, East & West Godavari districts.

Answer:

Question 14.
In the following map, estimate the urban migration to Delhi from UP and Bihar.

Answer:

1. Approximately 2 lakh persons migrated from Bihar to Delhi.
2. Approximately 4 lakh persons migrated from UP to Delhi.

Question 15.
In the following map, estimate the rural to urban migration from Karnataka to AP.

Answer:
Approximately 0.5 lakh persons migrated from Karnataka to AP.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 17 The Making of Independent India’s Constitution.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments?
Answer:
The Federal form of the constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments.

Question 2.
Observe the following bar diagram which shows amendments of the Constitution from 1950 to 2013.

a) In which decade were the lowest amendments made?
Answer:
The lowest amendments were made in the decade 1951 – 60.

b) How many amendments were made between 1950 – 2013?
Answer:
Ninety-nine amendments were made between 1950 – 2013.

Question 3.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both center and state?
Answer:
Federal Constitution.

Question 4.
Which preamble reflects the desire for Peace?
Answer:
Japan

Question 5.
What provisions made by the constitution to facilitate social change?
Answer:
Abolition of untouchability and Reservations.

Question 6.
Write the features of the Federal system.
Answer:

1. Dual policy,
2. Separation of powers

Question 7.
What are the two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution are

1. A single Judiciary
2. Uniformity in civil and criminal laws.
3. All India Civil Services.

Question 8.
Write any two similarities between the Indian and the Japanese Constitutional preambles.
Answer:

1. Sovereign Power
2. Democracy
3. Liberty
4. Justice
5. Faith

Look at the Graph below and answer the questions No. 9 and 10.
Graph – 99 Constitutional Amendments made between 1950 and 2013

Question 9.
In which period, more Constitutional amendments were made?
Answer:
More constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 10.
Why were there less Constitutional amendments during 1951-60?
Answer:
The Constitutional amendments during 1951-60 were less because

1. Initial period of the Constitution implementation.
2. More problems were not arised.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “the Republic”?
Answer:
Any country, where the head of the state is not on hereditary but any elected or nominated person is called the Republic.

Question 12.
Which two words were added to our Preamble?
Answer:
Socialistic and secular.

Question 13.
When was Constitution Assembly formed?
Answer:
In 1946.

Question 14.
Write any four basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

Question 15.
Which word was left undefined in our Constitution?
Answer:
“Untouchability” was left undefined in our Constitution.

Question 16.
What is the Population of India and the Constitution was prepared?
Answer:
400 million.

Question 17.
Which set out the main social system before the government?
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy set out the main social system before the government.

Question 18.
When were the first elections held in Nepal?
Answer:
In 1959, the first elections were held in Nepal under a new constitution issued by King Mahendra.

Question 19.
Who presented the draft of the Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar presented the draft of the Constitution before the C.A in 1948.

Question 20.
Expand IAS, IPS.
Answer:
IAS: Indian Administrative Service IPS: Indian Police Service.

Question 21.
Which is a formidable document? What does it contain?
Answer:
The Draft constitution is a formidable document. It contains 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Question 22.
From when major changes in the constitution made?
Answer:
Major changes in the constitution were made during 1970s.

Question 23.
How is the process of making a Constitution?
Answer:
The process of making a Constitution is a process of debate, discussion, ironing out differences and working out a framework acceptable to all conflicting opinions.

Question 24.
When was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 following the election to the provincial assemblies.

Question 25.
How were the Constituent Assembly members elected?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly members were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial assemblies.

Question 26.
How many SC members are represented in the Assembly?
Answer:
26 members.

Question 27.
Expand CA.
Answer:
Constituent Assembly.

Question 28.
Write about ‘Drafting Committee’.
Answer:
A ‘Drafting Committee’ was set up under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar and its task was to prepare the final draft taking in account all view points.

Question 29.
When was the Constitution adopted?
Answer:
The Constitution was finally adopted by the CA on 26th November 1949 and it came into force on 26th January 1950.

Question 30.
Which are recorded as the proceedings of CA?
Answer:
The speeches on the draft Constitution before CA are recorded in the proceedings of C.A. of India.

Question 31.
What are the two principal forms of the Constitution?
Answer:
The two principal forms of the Constitution are known to history – one is called Unitary and the other Federal.

Question 32.
Name some codes.
Answer:
The Civil Procedure Code, Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code, the Evidence Act, Transfer of Property Act.

Question 33.
How were IAS/IPS appointed?
Answer:
They were appointed through UPSC.

Question 34.
Who criticised in CA debates?
Answer:
Maulana Hasrat Mohani, Damodar Swarup Seth.

Question 35.
What was the cause of untouchability?
Answer:
The caste system was the cause of untouchability.

Question 36.
Define Untouchability.
Answer:
Untouchability is a social practice which discriminates people on caste basis.

Question 37.
How many members were there in ‘Drafting Committee’ of the Constitution?
Answer:
There were 7 members in the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

Question 38.
Who were the members of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami, B.R. Ambedkar, K.M Munshi Mohammad Saadula, B.L.Mitter and D.P. Khaitan were the seven members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two differences between Presidential system of Government and Parliamentary system of Government.
Answer:

Presidential System	Parliamentary System
1. The President is the chief head of the executive.	1. The President is the chief head of the state but not the executive.
2. The President has under him secretaries incharge of different departments.	2. The President has under him ministers in charge of different departments.
3. The President is not necessarily bound by the advice of his secretaries.	3. The President is generally bound by the advice of his ministers.
4. The President can dismiss any secretary at any time. Eg: America	4. The President can not do so. Eg: India

Question 2.
Write the four main features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Main features of Indian Constitution:

1. Written Constitution
2. Rigid and flexible Constitution
3. Parliamentary type of democracy
4. Single citizenship
5. Unitary and federal features.

Question 3.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:

1. The Supremacy of the central polity.
2. The absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 4.
Write the role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in preparing the draft Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. On 29th August 1947 the Drafting Comm¬ittee was appointed Dr.Br. Ambedkar as the Chairman long with 6 other members assisted by a Constitutional Advisor.
2. He studied the constitutions of the other nations and incorporated in Indian constitution which are suitable to Indian people.
3. He stressed on the importance of removal of untouchability and uplifting the depressed classes.
4. He conveyed a meeting with all the communities of the society and drafted a broad constitution.

Question 5.
List out the constitutional provisions that facilitate social change.
Answer:
Constitutional provisions that facilitate social change:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Protection to the minority community.
4. Directive principles of state policy.
5. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
6. Liberty, equality and Justice.

Question 6.
Make a Bar graph based on the below information.

Years	1951-60	1961-70	1971-80	1981-90	1991-2000
Constitutional Amendments:	7	15	22	22	16

Answer:

Question 7.
What are the double purposes of a Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution has a double purpose:

1. Outlining the role and rights of citizens and the structure and powers of the government and its organs like executive, legislature, judiciary, etc;
2. Indicating the nature of future society which has to be built by the joint efforts of the state and the society.

Question 8.
Who prepared the Constitution of India and how?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was prepared and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. This was the culmination of the long struggle of the Indian people for freedom from British colonial rule.

Question 9.
How were the members from the princely states elected?
Answer:
The members from the princely states were not elected at all and were decided through consultation with the concerned princely states. Such a decision was taken keeping in view the special situation that had arisen due to intense political activity on the eve of freedom and mounting tensions among the people.

Question 10.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution are:

1. the supremacy of the Central Polity [the word polity means a system of government or political organization] and
2. the absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 11.
How is a Federal Constitution marked?
Answer:
Federal Constitution is marked:

1. by the existence of a Central polity and subsidiary polities side by side, and
2. by each being sovereign in the field assigned to it. In other words, the Federation means the establishment of a Dual Polity [dual system of government central and state].

Question 12.
How can we call the Draft Constitution a Federal Constitution?
Answer:
The Draft Constitution is Federal Constitution in as much as it establishes what may be called a Dual Polity. This Dual Polity under the proposed Constitution will consist of the Union at the Centre and the States at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.

Question 13.
Write about Indian citizenship.
Answer:
“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with a single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….”

Question 14.
What are the three means adopted by Indian. Constitution?
Answer:
The means adopted by the Draft Constitution are three

1. a single judiciary,
2. uniformity – in fundamental laws, civil and criminal, and
3. a common All-India Civil Service Jo main important posts.

Question 15.
What is one important aspect of social engineering? What was the reason for this?
Answer:
One important aspect of social engineering is the problem of the right of minorities. The sad experience of suppression of Jewish minority in Nazi Germany weighed in the minds of the Constitution makers. They decided to give special protection to the minority community so that they don’t feel marginalised by the majority.

Question 16.
How can the articles be amended?
Answer:
Amending the articles in the Constitution can be initiated only by the Parliament. And it needs the approval of 2/3rd members in both the houses of parliament – Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha. And some articles may be amended only with acceptance (or ratification) from the state legislature as well. It is further necessary that the President of the ” country also approves the new amendment bill like other laws.

Question 17.
Read the passage and interpret it.

“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….

Answer:

1. We adopted our Constitution by referring other Constitutions and after having a number of debates on the principles.
2. We adopted unitary but federal governments.
3. Hence ours is a dual polity.
4. But the citizens will have only one citizenship, unlike the USA where dual citizen¬ship exists.
5. We have same rights in all the states of India no matter in what state he resides.

Question 18.
“The Draft Constitution is a formidable document. It contains 315 Articles and 8 Schedules. It must be admitted that the constitution of no country could be found to be so bulky as the draft constitution” Is there need for division of Constitution into articles and Schedules?
Answer:

1. There is dire necessity to divide constitution into schedules and articles.
2. Such formidable document without proper division cannot easily read and understood.
3. Information related same matter is spread over articles.
4. Articles are compounded into schedules.

Question 19.
Express your opinion about elections were conducted to Constituent Assembly.
Answer:

1. Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 with members elected indirectly by the members of provincial assemblies.
2. Princely states representatives were identified with a consultation.
3. Provincial assemblies members were from general, Muslim and Sikh communities!
4. 26 Schedule Caste members were also elected.

Question 20.
Imagine and write what happened if every state in India having different laws.
Answer:

1. Up to a certain point, the diversity does not matter.
2. If diversity goes beyond a certain point creates chaos in states.
3. States become intolerant to citizens from other states.
4. What is correct in one state may not be correct if he moves to another state.

Question 21.
“Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyze it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals.
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, raising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed an emergency, which took Indian democracy back.
5. Hence too much centralization of power is not advisable.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the examples and explanations of the basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(OR)
Write about the basic principles of Indian Constitution.
(OR)
Write a short note on basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

1. Popular Sovereignty: India is externally free from the control of any foreign power and internally, it has a free government which is directly elected by the people and makes laws that govern the peopl# So it is the biggest country which is following Parliamentary Democracy System in the world.

2. Fundamental Rights: These are the basic human rights of all citizens. These rights apply irrespective of race, place of birth, religion, caste, creed or sex. These are enforceable by the courty subject to specific restrictions.

3. Directive Principles: These are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government. These provisions are not enforceable by the courts.

4. Cabinet Government: A Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

5. Secularism: Secularism is the basic structure of the Indian Constitution. The government respects all religions. It does not uplift or degrade any particular religion.

6. Socialism: The word ‘socialist’ was added to the preamble by the 42nd amendment. It implies social and economic equality.

7. Federalism: it is a system based upon democratic rules and institutions in which the power to govern is shared between national and state governments.

8. Judicial Independence: The Indian Judiciary is independent of the executive and legislative branches of government according to the Constitution.

Question 2.
How does the Parliamentary system of Government differ from the Presidential system of Government?
(OR)
How is the Parliamentary system of government is different from the Presidential system of government?
Answer:

The Parliamentary system of government	The Presidential system of government
1. The President is the head of the state but not of the executive.	1. The President is the Chief Head of the executive.
2. The President is the Normal Executive.	2. The President is the real executive.
3. The President is generally bound by the advice of the council of ministers.	3. The President is not bound by the advice of the council of ministers.
4. The President has no power to dismiss his ministers so long as they command a majority in parliament.	4. The President can dismiss any minister at any time.
5. The election procedure of the head of state is indirect.	5. The President elected directly by the people.

Question 3.
Describe the features of Indian Federalism.
Answer:
The features of Indian Federalism:

1. The supremacy of the constitution: The supremacy of the constitution means that both the Union and State governments, shall operate within the limits set by the constitution.
2. Written constitution The Constitution of India is the largest and most elaborate one, which discussed on several issues.
3. Division of powers: The Indian Constitution clearly described administrative powers into three lists viz. The Union List, The State List and The Concurrent Lists.
4. The supremacy of the Judiciary: As per the Constitution of India Judiciary is Independent and supreme. It can declare a contravenes law as unconstitutional.

Question 4.
Plot the below Information on a Bar graph (Rough diagram).

Period of time	Number of amendments made to Constitution
1951 -1960	7
1961 -1970	15
1971 – 1980	22
1981 -1990	22
1991 – 2000	16
2001 – 2013	17

Answer:

Question 5.
Analyse the graph about Constitutional amendments given below and write your observations.
Answer:

1. Least number of amendments are made in 1951-60.
2. The number of total constitutional amendments done in between 1951 and 2013 was 99.
3. Highest number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.
4. Equal number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions based on the below graph.

a) When did the Constitution come into force?
Answer:
January 26th 1950.

b) In which decade, the least number of amendments had done?
Answer:
1951-60.

c) Why does the Constitution need to be amended?
Answer:
According the changes in circumstances and policies, laws also should be changed.

d) How many Constitutional amendments had been done from 1951 to 1980?
Answer:
44.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) How many constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60?
Answer:
7 constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60.

b) In which period, maximum constitu¬tional amendments were made?
Answer:
Maximum constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

c) In which decades, equal amendments were made?
A. Equal amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

d) How many amendments were made up to 2013?
Answer:
According to the graph, 99 amendments were made up to 2013.

Question 8.
Our constitution has many provisions facilitating social change. How are they being implemented
Answer:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Directive principles of state policy.
4. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
5. Liberty, equality, Justice.

Question 9.
Observe the below Bar graph and analyse it.
Answer:
This graph is about the amendments made since the Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950 till 2013. The total amendments made were 99. Recently the Supreme Court cancelled the 99th amendment. During 1971-80 and 1981-90, the amendments number is high. Forty-four amendments were made during these two decades. The graph is given decade wise.

Our Constitution makers were aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. Thus it laid down the provisions for amending the laws and the articles in the Constitution as well. Some laws can be made with the approval of more than half the members in legislative houses. The amendments are made in the Parliament only. Some articles can be amended with the approval of both the Houses of Parliament, i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Some need ratification from the states. Finally, the amendments are approved by the President. Then the amendments come into force.

The amendment means to bring some change in existing law of the constitution. Generally, an amendment is necessary on the basis of public needs. In the initial years of our independence, the amendments are only 7. In the next decade, it went up to more than double. The period, 1971-80 and 1981-90 is crucial in Indian Politics. The emergency was declared by Indira Gandhi. Single Party domination was ended and Non-Congress governments came in to power. In 1984 Indira Gandhi was assassinated. From 1991 onwards again the number is decreased.

The constitution can be amended without breaking or spoiling the spirit or its basic principles. In the 1970s, two words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ are added into the Preamble of the Constitution. According to the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Keshavananda Bharati, some basic principles can not be changed.

Many a time Constitution is being changed only for the sake of political benefits. It is a criticism on amendments. The true spirit of the Constitution cannot be changed. Constitutional amendments are necessary for the public interest. There should be some benefit to the masses. Ambiguity and complexity should be avoided. About a hundred times the Constitution is changed, it means the original one is getting it shape changed.

Question 10.
How can you say that India is a Secular State?
Answer:
The following points prove India is a Secular country.

1. Secularism in the Indian context implies tolerance towards others beliefs and faiths.
2. In India there is no state religion.
3. No religion is given superior status.
4. Citizens are granted complete freedom in religious matter.
5. People are free to profess, practice and propagate any religion of their choice.
6. No religious instruction is imparted in any educational institution maintained out of public funds.
7. No political party is allowed to use religion or religious symbols in the election campaigns.
8. No discrimination is made in matters of public employment on the grounds of religion.
9. The religious tolerance is followed.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) Since the Constitution was adopted, how many amendments were made so far?
Answer:
So far there were 99 amendments made since the Constitution was adopted.

b) What was the period of minimum amendments?
Answer:
Minimum amendments were made during 1951 – 60.

c) How many amendments were made during 2001 – 13?
Answer:
17 amendments were made during 2001 -13.

d) How many amendments were made during 1961 – 70?
Answer:
15 amendments were made during 1961 – 70.

e) What is meant by constitutional amendment?
Answer:
Changing the laws and the articles from time to time is known as a constitutional amendment.

f) Why were the amendments less in 1951- 60?
Answer:
Constitution was newly formed and society did not change much and people were illiterate to anticipate any change.

Question 12.
Read the following para and comment on what the Constitution did for social change/change of society.

The Constitution thus has many provisions facilitating social change. You have read about the abolition of Untouchability. The best example of this is the provision for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Constitution. The makers of the Constitution believed that the mere granting of the right to equality was not enough to overcome age-old injustices suffered by these groups or to give real meaning to their right to vote. Special Constitutional measures were required to advance their interests. Therefore the Constitution makers provided a number of special measures to protect the interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes such as the reservation of seats in legislatures. The Constitution also made it possible for the government to reserve public sector jobs for these groups.

Answer:

1. The Constitution has many provisions for social change.
2. Abolition of untouchability is the first step.
3. This was achieved by providing reservations to SC and STs.
4. Thus the Constitution helped for the upliftment of the weaker sections.
5. The Constitution has in it “the Fundamental Rights” and “the Directive Principles of State Policy.”
6. The rights of minorities are also protected in our Constitution.
7. Hence, we can conclude that, the Constitution facilitates social change.

Question 13.
On the outline map of world, identify the following places.

1. Nepal
2. Japan
3. India
4. England
5. USA
6. Ireland
7. Russia
8. France
9. Switzerland
10. Canada

Answer:

Question 14.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.
1. This country’s constitution was completed in 2015.
Answer: Nepal

2. This country’s wishes for peace in its constitution.
Answer: Japan

3. This country’s constitution was the lengthiest written constitution in the world.
Answer: India

4. the U.S.A.

5. Taiwan

6. Any two British colonies.

7. Afghanistan

8. Bhutan

9. Nagasaki

10. Switzerland

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 India: Relief Features.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 1st Lesson India: Relief Features

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
According to the given table below, which area is the eastern side?

Date	Area: Imphal		Area: Dwaraka
	Sunrise	Sunset	Sunrise	Sunset
Jan 3	05.53	16.34	07.19	18.07

Answer:
According to the given table, Imphal is the eastern side.

Question 2.
What is the time In India when it is 8 am in London?
Answer:
The time is 1.30 pm in India when It is 8 am in London.

Question 3.
Which Indian islands are of volcanic origin?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands are of volcanic origin.
(OR)
Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.

Question 4.
Give examples for Himalayan hill stations.
Answer:
Examples for the Himalayan hill stations are

1. Simla
2. Mussoorie
3. Raniket
4. Nainital

Question 5.
Read the map given and answer the questions.

a) Name the latitude that divides India into two parts.
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer / 23°30′ Northern latitude.
b) On which longitude, is Indian Standard Time based upon?
Answer:
82°30′ Eastern longitude.

Question 6.
Mention any one difference between the physical features of the Andaman and Nicobar islands and the Lakshadweep.
Answer:

Andaman and nicobar Islands	Lakshadweep Islands
Stretched in Bay of Bengal Some of these are of volcanic origin	Stretched in Arabian Sea Coral origin

Question 7.
Mention any two differences between the Western and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Eastern ghats	Western ghats
Less height	More height
Not continuous ranges	Continuous ranges
No origin of rivers	Rivers originate
Highest peak is Aroma Konda	Highest peak is Anaimudi

Question 8.
Write any two unique features of Eastern Coastal Plain?
Answer:
Unique features of East Coastal Plain

1. East Coastal Plains are very wide.
2. The rivers which are flowing in this area are formed deltas.
3. These plains are agriculturally developed.
4. These Plains has lakes.

Question 9.
Name the landform from which the World originated.
Answer:
World originated from two giant lands namely Angara Land (Laurasia) and Gondwana Land.

Question 10.
What is the location of India?
Answer:
India is located between 8°4’ and 37°6′ north latitudes and 68°7′ and 97°25′ east longitudes.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “Doab”?
Answer:
The fertile land between two rivers is known as the Doab feature. ‘Do’ means two, ‘ab’ means water.

Question 12.
Name three parallel ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:
Three parallel ranges are there in the Himalayas. They are

1. the Himadri
2. the Himachal
3. the Shivalik.

Question 13.
Name the tributaries of Indus.
Answer:
The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej are the tributaries of Indus.

Question 14.
Name the tributaries of the Ganga.
Answer:
The Ghaggar, the Teesta, the Sone, the Kosi and the Yamuna are the tributaries of the Ganga.

Question 15.
Expand IST.
Answer:
Indian Standard Time.

Question 16
Expand GMT.
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 17.
What do you mean by “Dun”? Give one example.
Answer:
The valleys lying between the lesser Himalayas and Shivalik ranges are called “Duns’’, e.g. Dehra Dun.

Question 18.
Which continents of today were part of the Gondwana land?
Answer:
India, South Africa, Australia and South America were part of the Gondwana land.

Question 19.
Name three major divisions of the Himalayas from North to South.
Answer:

1. The Greater Himalayas or Himadri.
2. The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal.
3. The Shivaliks or Outer Himalayas.

Question 20.
Name the island group of India having a coral origin.
Answer:
Lakshadweep.

Question 21.
What is the peninsular plateau composed of?
Answer:
The peninsular plateau is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks

Question 22.
Identify the regional division of the Northern plains.
Answer:

1. Punjab plain
2. Ganga plain
3. Brahmaputra plain.

Question 23.
What are the relief features that are found in the Northern plains?
Answer:

1. Bhabar
2. Terai
3. Bhangar
4. Khadar

Question 24.
Which landform feature was a part of Gondwana land?
Answer:
Peninsular Plateau.

Question 25.
Which plateau lies between the Aravalis and the Vindhya range?
Answer:
Malwa Plateau.

Question 26.
Where are the Aravali hills located?
Answer:
The Aravali hills are located on the western and north-western margins of the peninsular plateau in Rajasthan.

Question 27.
What is Bhangar?
Answer:
Bhangar is the largest part of the northern plains and is formed by the oldest alluvium.

Question 28.
What is Khadar?
Answer:
The younger alluvium deposit is called Khadar.

Question 29.
What is a reef?
Answer:
A ridge of jagged rock formed from coral secretions and skeletons.

Question 30.
Name some kinds of reefs.
Answer:
Barrier reef, coral reef and fringing reef.

Question 31.
What was called Angara land?
Answer:
The northern part of Pangaea was called Angara land.

Question 32.
What are known as Purvanchal?
Answer:
The Himalayas in the north-eastern states are known as the Purvanchal hills.

Question 33.
Where is the Kanchenjunga peak?
Answer:
The Kanchenjunga peak is in Sikkim.

Question 34.
Which is the second highest peak in the Himalayas?
Answer:
K₂, in the Karakoram range, is the second-highest peak after Mount Everest.

Question 35.
Name the valleys in the Himachal range.
Answer:
Kangra, Kulu and Kashmir valley.

Question 36.
What are Duns?
Answer:
The longitudinal valleys between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks are known as Duns,
e.g.: Dehradun, Patli dun and Kotli dun.

Question 37.
Where is Bhabar located?
Answer:
Bhabar is located at the foot of the Shivaliks.

Question 38.
What are the two divisions in the Peninsular Plateau?
Answer:
Central Highlands and Deccan Plateau.

Question 39.
Which is the easternmost part of the central highlands?
Answer:
The Chotanagapur Plateau is the eastern-most part of the central highlands.

Question 40.
What is the other name of Ooty?
Answer:
Udagamandalam.

Question 41.
Which is a narrow coastal plain?
Answer:
The Western coastal plain is a narrow plain.

Question 42.
Name the Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
The Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauveri.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention the major relief divisions of Indian landmass.
Answer:
The relief divisions of Indian landmass can be divided into following groups :

1. The Himalayas
2. The Indo-Gangetic Plain
3. The Peninsular Plateau
4. The Coastal Plains
5. The Desert
6. The Islands

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below:
a) Name the two countries that share their land boundaries with India.
b) In between which latitudes, is India located?
Answer:
a) Pakistan, China, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar.
b) 8°4′ – 37°6′ Northern latitudes.

Question 3.
Observe the map given below and answer the following questions.
a) What is the distance between the eastern and western most points of India?
b) Name any two countries that share their boundaries with India.
Answer:
a) The distance between the eastern and the western most points of India is 2933 kms.
b) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, China and Bhutan.

Question 4.
Discuss the significant differences between the Himalayan Rivers and the Peninsular Rivers.
Answer:

The Himalayan Rivers	The Peninsular Rivers
1. The Himalayan Rivers are Perennial.	1. The Peninsular rivers are seasonal in nature.
2. They originated in Glaciers.	2. They originated in Western ghats and highlands.
3. Himalayan Rivers changes their way frequently.	3. These rivers has fixed course.
4. These rivers irrigate the northern plains.	4. These rivers irrigate the Deccan Plateau.
5. They made the northern plains fertile.	5. These rivers are straight.

Question 5.
Discuss the various islands in India.
Answer:

1. There are 2 groups of islands – Andaman and Nicobar Islands stretched in Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep Islands in the Arabian Sea.
2. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are volcanic origin.
3. The southernmost tip of India found in Nicobarlsland is called Indira point which was submerged during the 2004 Tsunami.
4. Lakshadweep Islands are of coral origin.
5. It is famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

Question 6.
Himalayas play a vital role in India’s development. How?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from Siberia and Central Asia.
2. They are reason for the monsoon type of climate in India.
3. Without the Himalayas India would have remained drier.
4. The rivers originating in the glaciers of the Himalaya are perennial and caused the economic growth of the northern plains.
5. The Himalayan valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
6. The rivers of the Himalayas for the formation of fertile.

Question 7.
How are the Himalayas divided regionally or on the basis of river valleys?
Answer:

1. Punjab Himalayas between rivers Indus and Sutlej.
2. Kumaon Himalayas between rivers Sutlejjind Kali.
3. Nepal Himalayas between rivers Kali and Teesta.
4. Assam Himalayas between rivers Teesta and Brahmaputra.

Question 8.
Look at the picture and comment on it.
Answer:
It is a sketch of different levels of vegetation in the Himalayas. There are 5 levels in that vegetation.
Level I: On the top of the mountains there is no vegetation.
Level II: On the hill slopes – there is only grass.
Level III: Next to the level II – this area is covered with conifers.
Level IV: Next to level III – this area is covered with broadleaf trees.
Level V: At the feet of the mountains. It is Terai with tree cover.

Question 9.
Write a short note on the Great Indian Desert.
Answer:
The Great Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravalli Hills.
The region gets scanty rainfall. Hence the climate is arid and vegetation is scanty. Luni is the only large river. Some streams appear during rainy season. Crescent-shaped duns are formed around in this area.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Describe any four of major relief divisions of Indian land mass.
Answer:
I. Himalayas:

1. To the north of India, Himalayan mountains extend from west to east at a length around 2400 Kms.
2. There are three parallel ranges viz. Himadri, Himachal and Shivaliks.

II. Indo-Gangetic Plains:

1. Indo-Gangetic Plain is formed with the interaction of the rivers Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
2. These fertile alluvial plains are suitable for agriculture.

III. Peninsular Plateau:

1. The Indian plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounding by the sea on the three sides.
2. It is broadly divided into two parts : Malwa plateau and Deccan plateau.

IV. Coastal Plains:

1. The Western coastal plain is extended between Western Ghats and Arabian Sea. The East coastal plain is extended between Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
2. These coastal plains are known locally by different names.
   Eg: Coast of AP – Circar Coast
   Coast of Kerala – Malabar coast etc.

V. Thar Desert:

1. Thar desert lies in the rain shadow region of Aravali mountains.
2. Luni is the only river in this region.

VI. Islands:

1. Andaman and Nicobar islands are in Bay of Bengal. They are of volcanic origin.
2. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea. They are of coral origin.

Question 2.
Explain the uses of Himalayas.
Answer:

1. Himalayas act as natural barriers on the northern side of India.
2. They protect India from the cold winds from Central Asia during severe winter
3. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains.
4. The himalayas are responsible for monsoon type of climate.
5. If there are no Himalayas, India will remain as a desert.
6. They are the origin for many perennial rivers.
7. They attract tourists from all over the world.
8. Himalayan rivers bring a lot of silt, making the northern plains very fertile.

Question 3.
Describe the Indian Islands.
Answer:

1. There are two groups of islands in India.
2. They are Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in Bay of Bengal.
4. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea.
5. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.
6. Lakshadweep islands are of coral origin.
7. Indira point, the southernmost tip of India is found in Nicobar Island.
8. Lakshadweep islands are famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

Question 4.
In what ways is the Indo-Gangetic plain different from the Peninsular plateau?
Answer:

Indo – Gangetic plain	Peninsular plateau
1. This plain area was formed due to deposition of sediments brought by rivers.	1. Plateau region was formed due to volcanic eruption.
2. It consists of alluvial soil.	2. It is mainly composed of the old crystalline, hard igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks.
3. It has fertile alluvial soils and flat surface.	3. It has a rugged surface.
4. It provides much irrigation facilities.	4. It also provides much irrigation facilities.
5. Plain regions have perennial rivers. ,	5. Plateau region does not have any perennial river.
6. Plains are rich in agriculture practice.	6. Plateau region is rich in mineral resources.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and comment on Indian climate and the Himalayas.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type of climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier.
Answer:

1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from the North that comes from Siberia.
2. Without the Himalayas, India would get cold temperatures in the winter months.
3. The Himalayas form a natural barrier that prevents monsoon winds from going further north.
4. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in the regions that are beyond the western ghats of India.
5. In its absence this region would have remained drier.
6. India would have been a tropical desert.
7. The Himalayas are the birthplace of so many rivers.
8. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.

Question 6.
How the Himalayas are influencing the climate of India and agriculture?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas are obstructing cold winds.
2. The Himalayas are reason for rains in summer.
3. They are cause for seasonal climate.
4. If there is no Himalayas the northern region becomes dry.
5. The flow of the Himalayan rivers, making the plains very fertile.

Question 7.
Write about the similarities and differences between East Coastal Plains and West Coastal Plains.
Answer:
Similarities :

1. They are the physical features of India. 2) They both lie in the southern part of India.
2. They both lie near to the coast.

Differences:

Eastern Coastal Plains	Western Coastal Plains
1. Eastern coastal plains is a belt of plain region lying towards the east between Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.	1. Western coastal plains is a belt of plain region lying towards the west between Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
2. Eastern coastal plains are comparatively wider.	2. This belt of plains is narrow in width.
3. Eastern coastal plains are very fertile because rivers like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery deposit their sediments during delta formation.	3. Western coastal plains are less fertile because no major river is engaged in sediment deposition.
4. Eastern plains receive comparatively lesser rainfall.	4. Western plains receive more rainfall.
5. From north to south, Eastern coastal plains are divided into Utkal coast, Sircar coast and Coramandal coast.	5. From north to south, Western coastal plains are divided into Konkan coast, Canara coast and Malabar coast.

Question 8.
Explain the differences between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats,
Answer:

Eastern Ghats	Western Ghats
1. The Eastern Ghats start from Bhuvaneswar in Odisha.	1. The Western Ghats start from Khandesh in Maharashtra.
2. They end at Nilgiris in the south.	2. They end at Kanyakumari.
3. They run parallel to some extent in the east coast.	3. They run parallel to the west coast.
4. They are nearer to the Bay of Bengal keeping away some distance.	4. They are nearer to the Arabian sea.
5. They have more number of gaps.	5. They have gaps.
6. They are less strongly built.	6. These are strongly built.
7. The coastal plain of the Eastern Ghats is wider than that of the Western Ghats.	7. The coastal plain of the Western Ghats is not as broad as that of the Eastern Ghats.
8. There are no dense forests in the Eastern Ghats when compared to those of the Western Ghats.	8. There are dense forests in the Western Ghats.
9. There are no rivers originating in Eastern Ghats.	9. The rivers Godavari and Krishna take origin in the Western Ghats.
10. The Eastern Ghats are dissected by rivers.	10. The Western Ghats are not dissected by rivers.
11. They have structural level and uniformity.	11. They have more rugged topography.
12. In Nilgiris they join the Western Ghats.	12. In Nilgiris they join the Eastern Ghats.

Question 9.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of The Indo-Gangetic Plain with that of The Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
The major physiographic divisions of India are :

1. The Great Himalayas,
2. The Northern Plains
3. The Great Indian Desert
4. The Peninsular Plateau
5. The Eastern and Western Coastal plains and
6. The Island Group

Question 10.
Prepare a table showing the particulars of different mountain ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:

Himalayan region	Peninsular region
1. The Himalayas are located in the northern region of our country.	1. The Peninsular region is located in the southern region of our country.
2. The Himalayas are young fold mountains.	2. The central Highlands are formed of low hills and plateaus.
3. Many great perennial rivers like the Indus, the Ganges and the Brahmaputra originate from the Himalayas.	3. Some great rivers like the Godavari, the Krishna, the Mahanadi, the Tapati and the Narmada originate from these hills.
4. These are formed of the sedimentary rocks.	4. The central highlands are formed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
5. They are formed at the edge of the Indo- Gangetic plain.	5. They are formed at the edge of the Deccan plateau.
6. Important hill stations like – Shimla, Mussorie, Darjeeling, Nainital are found on the Himalayas.	6. Udagamandalam, Araku – Harsley hills are hill stations found in the Peninsula plateau region.
7. There are three parallel ranges a) Himadri b) Himachal and c) Shivaliks.	7. They consist of two divisions – Central high lands, Deccan plateau.
8. They run in west – east direction in the form of an arch.	8. The plateau is tilted towards east.

Question 11.
What is the importance of the Himalayas?
Answer:

1. The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways.
2. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter.
3. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India.
4. The Himalayan rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers.
5. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.
6. There are famous hill stations like Simla, Mussorie, Nainital, Raniket, etc. covered by evergreen forests.
7. The valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
8. There are passes in the Himalayas which act as great exchange of culture and commerce.

Question 12.
Write about the coastal plains.
Answer:

1. The southern part of the peninsular plateau is bordered by narrow coastal strips along the Arabian Sea on the west and the Bay of Bengal on the east.
2. Western plain is uneven and broken by hilly terrain.
3. It is divided into 3 parts.
   a) Konkan coast-northern part comprising Maharashtra and Goa coast.
   b) The second is Canara Coast – the middle part includes coastal plain of Karnataka.
   c) The last part is Malabar coast – the southern part, mostly in the state of Kerala.
4. Bay of Bengal plains are wide and have large surface structure.
5. It stretches from Mahanadi in Odisha to Cauvery deltas in Tamil Nadu.
6. These coastal plains are known locally by different names as Utkal coast in Odisha, Circar coast in Andhra Pradesh and Coromandel coast in Tamil Nadu.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on its content.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as hornets protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier. The Himalayan Rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers and bring a fat of silt, making these plains very fertile.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, it is dearly understood that the Himalayas are useful to India in many ways.
2. It means that because of the Himalayas only there are fertile soils, sufficient rainfall, and perennial rivers and so it is useful to agriculture which is the backbone of our economy.
3. I agree with this paragraph because every point discussed here is correct.
4. The Himalayas are extending in the north of our country from Jammu Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh for about 2400 kilometers.
5. Automatically they stop the cold winds blowing from central Asia because our cultivable lands are in the south.
6. If the Himalayas were not there, India would become dry land or a desert.
7. Though we have many benefits from the Himalayas, the passes of the Himalayas caused for foreigners to invade our country and these helped in exchanging business and culture.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the condition of the area as well as people living there.
The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side afAravalis and receives very low amount of rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops. It occupies much of western Rajasthan. It has an arid climate with very law vegetation cover. Streams appear during the rainy season and disappear soon after. ‘Luni’ is the only river in this area. These internal drainage rivers fill into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
Answer:

1. This paragraph says that much of western Rajasthan is sandy and without adequate rainfall.
2. Without sufficient rainfall we can’t expect proper cultivation and production of crops.
3. Though Rajasthan ranks first in the area it has maximum desert area.
4. According to this paragraph, there are a few streams which can be seen during rainy season.
5. The unfortunate thing of the people living there is that the area is in the leeward side of the Aravali Mountains.
6. The southwest monsoons remain empty by reaching there.
7. My opinion is that the people should make a few changes in their livelihoods.
8. They should grow more crops during rainy season. It would be better for them to go for multiple cropping.
9. They grow food crops with the help of Indira Gandhi canal water irrigation.
10. Government should provide their commodities at subsidized prices.
11. Along with the Indira Gandhi canal, there should be many more schemes like that till their needs are fulfilled.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the geographical location of India.
The geographical location of India provides its vast diversity in climatic conditions. This has led to a variety of vegetation and life forms along with advantages for growing many kinds of crops. Its long coastline and location in the Indian Ocean enabled trade routes as well as fishing.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph, the geographical location of India is very prosperous.
2. India has ocean water on the three sides whereas the high Himalayan Mountains in the north.
3. These Himalayas give birth to various perennial rivers because of glaciers so as to grow more crops and this led to a variety of vegetation.
4. In my opinion, there are a few benefits as well as losses to the people living in coastal plains and hilly areas.
5. The coastal people face some drastic situations when there is a tsunami or cyclones.
6. The people living in hilly areas face the problem of landslides.
7. Nowadays global warming is increasing. It may lead to submerge of coastal cultivable lands.
8. People may face many problems.
9. Along with these problems they have the opportunity of maintaining foreign trade with the help of sea routes.
10. Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Mumbai and Cochin are some of the examples for the trade cen¬ters of sea routes.

Question 16.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

Ranges	Direction	Uaiaht	Speciality
Himadri	The Northernmost range	Above 6100 mts	Covered with snow Glacier are present Birth place of many rivers
Himachal	Situated to the South of Himadri	Between 3700­4500 mts.	Number of hill stations are located. Famous valleys like Kulu, Kangra are located.
Shivalik	The Southernmost range of the Himalayas	900-1100 mts.	Known as Jammu hills in Jammu and Kashmir and Mishmi hills in Arunachal Pradesh.
Purvanchal	The Easternmost range	Act as the Eastern boundary of India	Patkai hills, Naga hills Manipuri hills, Khasi hills and Mizo hills are part of the Purvanchal range.

Answer the following questions.

1. What are the names of the three Himalayan ranges?
   Answer:
   The three names of the Himalayan ranges are the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
2. Which of the ranges have hill stations?
   Answer:
   The hill stations are found in the Lesser Himalayan ranges.
3. Where do we find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun?
   Answer:
   We find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun in the valleys in between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
4. What is the difference in between the ranges of the Greater Himalayas and the Lesser Himalayas with regard to the composition?
   Answer:
   The Greater Himalayas are composed of ice and snow cover whereas the Lesser Himalayas are composed of highly compressed rocks.

Question 17.
Describe the formation and divisions of Indo-Gangetic plains.
Answer:

1. The interaction of three Himalayan rivers the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra and their tributaries resulted in the formation of great northern plain.
2. In the beginning it was a shallow basin later gradually filled with alluvial soil from these rivers.
3. The western part of Indo-Gangetic plains was formed by the Indus and its tributaries, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej flowing from the Himalayas.
4. Doab features dominate the fertile land between the two rivers.
5. The central part is known as Ganga plain extending from the rivers the Ghaggar to the Teesta. 6} The eastern part of the plain exists mostly in the Brahmaputra valley of Assom and the river
   Brahmaputra is mainly responsible for its formation.

Question 18.
Describe the vairous aspects of the peninsular plateau.
Answer:

1. The Indian Plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounded by the sea on three sides.
2. Large amounts of metallic and non-metallic mineral resources are found here.
3. Its topography is slightly tilted towards east.
4. Its two divisions are central high lands (Malwa plateau) and the Deccan Plateau.
5. The rivers here are not perennial.
6. The triangular landmass to the south of Narmada is called Deccan Plateau.
7. The structure of Western Ghats is continuous with a few passes as the gateways to the coastal plains.
8. The Eastern Ghats are not continuous.
9. One of the remarkable features of the peninsular plateau is black soils formed due to volcanic activity.

Question 19.
Write about the Thar desert.
Answer:

1. The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side of Aravalisand receives very low rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year.
2. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops.
3. It occupies much of western Rajasthan.
4. It has an arid climate with very low vegetation cover.
5. Streams appear during rainy season and disappear soon after.
6. Luni is the only river in this area.
7. The internal drainage rivers fall into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
8. Indira Gandhi canal is watering part of Thar desert.
9. Several hectares of desert land have been brought under cultivation.

Question 20.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.

1. Which hills are spread continuously from North to South?
   Answer:
   Western Ghats spread continuously from North to South.
2. Which Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers?
   Answer:
   Western Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers.
3. Which river flows westwards?
   Answer:
   The river which flows westwards is Narmada. (Tapti also)
4. Which plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali?
   Answer:
   Malwa plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali.
5. Where do the eastern and western Ghats join?
   Answer:
   The eastern and western Ghats join Nilgiris near Gudalur.
6. Which ocean is located in the south of India?
   Answer:
   The Indian Ocean is located in the south of India.
7. Which plateau is there in between Ms s and Chotanagpur plateau?
   Answer:
   Central plateau is there in between Malwa and Chotanagpur plateau.

Question 21.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.

1. Which is the standard meridian in India?
   Answer:
   82° 30′ Eastern Longitude is the standard meridian in India.
2. Name the latitude that moves from the centre of India.
   Answer:
   23% northern latitude moves from the centre of India. This is called Tropic of Cancer.
3. What is the distance between north and south tip of India?
   The distance between north and south tips is 3214 kms.
4. Mention the location of India.
   Answer:
   India is located in between the latitudes of 8°4′ and 37°6′ N and longitudes of 68°7′ and 97°25′ E.
5. Name any two frontier countries of India.
   Answer:
   Pakistan, China, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh and Nepal. ( any two can be written)
6. Which islands are located in the southeast corner of India?
   Answer:
   Andaman Nicobar islands are located in the southeast corner of India.

Question 22.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

• Locate the Highest plateau in the world.
  Answer: Tibet
• Capital of Himachal Pradesh.
  Answer: Simla
• Highest peak in India.
  Answer: Mt-K₂
• Locate the Hills in Arunachal Pradesh.
  Answer: Mishmi Hills
• This plateau has rich variety of mineral resources.
  Answer:
  Chotanagpur
• Rajmahal hills
  Triangular plateau.
  Answer:
  Deccan Plateau Circar Coast
• The southernmost tip of India.
  Answer:
  Kanya Kumari
• Mashy Swampy region of Gujarath.
  Answer:
  Rann of Kutch