Class 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 6 Progressions Ex 6.3 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 6th Lesson Progressions Exercise 6.3

10th Class Maths 6th Lesson Progressions Ex 6.3 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the sum of the following APs:
i) 2, 7, 12,…, to 10 terms.
Answer:
Given A.P: 2, 7, 12, …… to 10 terms
a = 2; d = a₂ – a₁ = 7 – 2 = 5; n = 10
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]
∴ S₁₀ = \(\frac{10}{2}\)[2 × 2 + (10 – 1)5]
= 5 [4 + 9 × 5]
= 5 [4 + 45]
= 5 × 49
= 245

ii) -37, -33, -29,…, to 12 terms.
Answer:
Given A.P: -37, -33, -29,…, to 12 terms.
a = -37; d = a₂ – a₁ = (-33) – (-37) = -33 + 37 = 4; n = 12
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]
∴ S₁₂ = \(\frac{12}{2}\)[2 × (-37) + (12 – 1)4]
= 6 [-74 + 11 × 4]
= 6 [-74 + 44]
= 6 × (-30)
= -180

iii) 0.6, 1.7, 2.8,…, to 100 terms.
Answer:
Given A.P : 0.6, 1.7, 2.8,…. S₁₀₀
a = 0.6; d = a₂ – a₁ = 1.7 – 0.6 = 1.1; n = 100
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]
∴ S₁₀₀ = \(\frac{100}{2}\)[2 × 0.6 + (100 – 1)1.1]
= 50 [1.2 + 99 × 1.1]
= 50 [1.2 + 108.9]
= 50 × 110.1
= 5505

iv) \(\frac{1}{15}\), \(\frac{1}{12}\), \(\frac{1}{10}\),…, to 11 terms.
Answer:
Given A.P: \(\frac{1}{15}\), \(\frac{1}{12}\), \(\frac{1}{10}\),…, S₁₁
a = \(\frac{1}{15}\); d = a₂ – a₁ = \(\frac{1}{12}\) – \(\frac{1}{15}\) = \(\frac{5-4}{60}\) = \(\frac{1}{60}\); n = 11
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]

2. Find the sums given below =:
i) 7 + 10\(\frac{1}{2}\) + 14 + …. + 84
Answer:
Given A.P : 7 + 10\(\frac{1}{2}\) + 14 + …. + 84
a = 7; d = a₂ – a₁ = 10\(\frac{1}{2}\) – 7 = 3\(\frac{1}{2}\) and the last term l = a_n = 84
But, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
∴ 84 = 7 + (n – 1) 3\(\frac{1}{2}\)
⇒ 84 – 7 = (n – 1) × \(\frac{7}{2}\)
⇒ n – 1 = 77 × \(\frac{2}{7}\) = 22
⇒ n = 22 + 1 = 23
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l) where a = 7; l = 84
S₂₃ = \(\frac{23}{2}\)(7 + 84)
= \(\frac{23}{2}\) × 91
= \(\frac{2093}{2}\)
= 1046\(\frac{1}{2}\)

ii) 34 + 32 + 30 + … + 10
Answer:
Given A.P: 34 + 32 + 30 + … + 10
a = 34; d = a₂ – a₁ = 32 – 34 = -2 and the last term l = a_n = 10
But, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
∴ 10 = 34 + (n – 1) (-2)
⇒ 10 – 34 = -2n + 2
⇒ -2n = -24 – 2
⇒ n = \(\frac{-26}{-2}\) = 13
∴ n = 13
Also, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
where a = 34; l = 10
S₁₃ = \(\frac{13}{2}\)(34 + 10)
= \(\frac{13}{2}\) × 44
= 13 × 22
= 286

iii) -5 + (-8) + (-11) + … + (-230)
Answer:
Given A.P: -5 + (-8) + (-11) + … + (-230)
Here first term, a = -5;
d = a₂ – a₁ = (-8) – (-5) = -8 + 5 = -3 and the last term l = a_n = 10
But, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
∴ (-230) = -5 + (n – 1) (-3)
⇒ -230 + 5 = -3n + 3
⇒ -3n + 3 = -225
⇒ -3n = -225 – 3
⇒ 3n = 228
⇒ n = \(\frac{228}{3}\) = 76
∴ n = 76
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
where a = -5; l = -230
S₇₆ = \(\frac{76}{2}\)((-5) + (-230))
= 38 × (-235)
= -8930

Question 3.
In an AP:
i) Given a = 5, d = 3, a_n = 50. find n and S_n.
Answer:
Given :
a = 5; d = 3;
a_n = a + (n – 1)d = 50
⇒ 50 = 5 + (n – 1) 3
⇒ 50 – 5 = 3n – 3
⇒ 3n = 45 + 3
⇒ n = \(\frac{48}{3}\) = 16
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₁₆ = \(\frac{16}{2}\)(5 + 50)
= 38 × 55
= 440

ii) Given a = 7, a₁₃ = 35, find d and S₁₃.
Answer:
Given: a = 7;
a₁₃ = a + 12d = 35
⇒ 7 + 12d = 35
⇒ 12d = 35 – 7
⇒ n = \(\frac{28}{12}\) = \(\frac{7}{3}\)
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₁₃ = \(\frac{13}{2}\)(7 + 35)
= \(\frac{13}{2}\) × 42
= 13 × 21
= 273

iii) Given a₁₂ = 37, d = 3 find a and S₁₂.
Answer:
Given:
a₁₂ = a + 11d = 37
d = 3
So, a₁₂ = a + 11 × 3 = 37
⇒ a + 33 = 37
⇒ a = 37 – 33 = 4
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₁₂ = \(\frac{12}{2}\)(4 + 37)
= 6 × 41
= 246

iv) Given a₃ = 15, S₁₀ = 125, find d and a₁₀.
Answer:
Given:
a₃ = a + 2d = 15
⇒ a = 15 – 2d ……… (1)
S₁₀ = 125 but take S₁₀ as 175
i.e., S₁₀ = 175
We know that,

⇒ 35 = 2 (15 – 2d) + 9d [∵ a = 15 – 2d]
⇒ 35 = 30 – 4d + 9d
⇒ 35 – 30 = 5d
⇒ d = \(\frac{5}{5}\) = 1
Substituting d = 1 in equation (1) we get
a = 15 – 2 × 1 = 15 – 2 = 13
Now, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
a₁₀ = a + 9d = 13 + 9 × 1 = 13 + 9 = 22
∴ a₁₀ = 22; d = 1

v) Given a = 2, d = 8, S_n = 90, find n and a_n.
Answer:
Given a = 2, d = 8, S_n = 90
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]

⇒ 90 = 2n [2n – 1]
⇒ 4n² – 2n = 90
⇒ 4n² – 2n – 90 = 0
⇒ 2(2n² – n – 45) = 0
⇒ 2n² – n – 45 = 0
⇒ 2n² -10n + 9n – 45 = 0
⇒ 2n(n – 5) + 9(n – 5) = 0
⇒ (n – 5)(2n + 9) = 0
⇒ n – 5 = 0 (or) 2n + 9 = 0
⇒ n = 5 (or) n = \(\frac{-9}{2}\) (discarded)
∴ n = 5
Now a_n = a₅ = a + 4d = 2 + 4 x 8
= 2 + 32 = 34

vi) Given a_n = 4, d = 2, S_n = -14, find n and a.
Answer:
Given a_n = a + (n – 1) d = 4 ……. (1)
d = 2; S_n = – 14
From (1); a + (n – 1) 2 = 4
a = 4 – 2n + 2
a = 6 – 2n
Given a = 2, d = 8, S_n = 90
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[a + a_n]
-14 = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[(6-2n) + 4] [∵ a = 6 – 2n]
-14 × 2 = n (10 – 2n)
⇒ 10n – 2n² = – 28
⇒ 2n² – 10n – 28 = 0
⇒ n² – 5n – 14 = 0
⇒ n² – 7n + 2n – 14 = 0
⇒ n (n – 7) + 2 (n – 7) = 0
⇒ (n – 7) (n + 2) = 0
⇒ n = 7 (or) n = – 2
∴ n = 7
Now a = 6 – 2n = 6 – 2 × 7
= 6 – 14 = -8
∴ a = – 8; n = 7

vii) Given l = 28, S = 144, and there are total 9 terms. Find a.
Answer:
Given:
l = a₉ = a + 8d = 28 and S₉ = 144 But,
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
144 = \(\frac{9}{2}\)(a + 28)
⇒ 144 × \(\frac{2}{9}\) = a + 28
⇒ a + 28 = 32
⇒ a = 4

Question 4.
The first and the last terms of an A.P are 17 and 350 respectively. If the common difference is 9, how many terms are there and what is their sum?
Answer:
Given A.P in which a = 17
Last term = l = 350
Common difference, d = 9
We know that, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
350 = 17 + (n- 1) 9
⇒ 350 = 17 + 9n – 9
⇒ 9n = 350 – 8
⇒ n = \(\frac{342}{9}\) = 38
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₃₈ = \(\frac{38}{2}\)(17 + 350)
= 19 × 367 = 6973
∴ n = 38; S_n = 6973

Question 5.
Find the sum of first 51 terms of an AP whose second and third terms are 14 and 18 respectively.
Answer:
Given A.P in which

Substituting d = 4 in equation (1),
we get a + 4 = 14
⇒ a = 14 – 4 = 10

Question 6.
If the sum of first 7 terms of an AP is 49 and that of 17 terms is 289, find the sum of first n terms.
Answer:
Given :
A.P such that S₇ = 49; S₁₇ = 289
We know that,

Substituting d = 2 in equation (1), we get,
a + 3 × 2 = 7
⇒ a = 7 – 6 = 1
∴ a = 1; d = 2

∴ Sum of first n terms S_n = n².
Shortcut: S₇ = 49 = 7²
S₁₇ = 289 = 17²
∴ S_n = n²

Question 7.
Show that a₁, a₂ …,a_n, …. form an AP where a_n is defined as below:
i) a = 3 + 4n
ii) a_n = 9 – 5n. Also find the sum of the first 15 terms in each case.
Answer:
Given a_n = 3 + 4n
Then a₁ = 3 + 4 × l = 3 + 4 = 7
a₂ = 3 + 4 × 2 = 3 + 8 = 11
a₃ = 3 + 4 × 3 = 3 + 12 = 15
a₄ = 3 + 4 × 4 = 3 + 16 = 19
Now the pattern is 7, 11, 15, ……
where a = a₁ = 7; a₂ = 11; a₃ = 15, ….. and
a₂ – a₁ = 11 – 7 = 4;
a₃ – a₂ = 15 – 11 = 4;
Here d = 4
Hence a₁, a₂, ….., a_n ….. forms an A.P.

ii) a_n = 9 – 5n
Given: a_n = 9 – 5n.
a₁ = 9 – 5 × l = 9 – 5 = 4
a₂ = 9 – 5 × 2 = 9 – 10 = -1
a₃ = 9 – 5 × 3 = 9 – 15 = -6
a₄ = 9 – 5 × 4 = 9 – 20 = -11
Also
a₂ – a₁ = -1 – 4 = -5;
a₃ – a₂ = -6 – (-1) = – 6 + 1 = -5
a₄ – a₃ = -11 – (-6) = -11 + 6 = -5
∴ d = a₂ – a₁ = a₃ – a₂ = a₄ – a₃ = …. = -5
Thus the difference between any two successive terms is constant (or) starting from the second term, each term is obtained by adding a fixed number ‘-5’ to its preceding term.
Hence {a_n} forms an A.P.

Question 8.
If the sum of the first n terms of an AP is 4n – n², what is the first term (remember the first term is S₁)? What is the sum of first two terms? What is the second term? Similarly, find the 3^rd, the 10^th and the n^th terms.
Answer:
Given an A.P in which S_n = 4n – n²
Taking n = 1 we get
S₁ = 4 × 1- 12 = 4 – 1 = 3
n = 2; S₂ = a₁ + a₂ = 4 × 2 – 2² = 8 – 4 = 4
n = 3; S₃ = a₁ + a₂ + a₃ = 4 × 3 -3² = 12 – 9 = 3
n = 4; S₄ = a₁ + a₂ + a₃ + a₄ = 4 × 4 – 4² = 16 – 16 = 0
Hence, S₁ = a₁ = 3
a₂ = S₂ – S₁ = 4 – 3 = 1
a₃ = S₃ – S₂ = 3 – 4 = -1
a₄ = S₄ – S₃ = 0 – 3 = -3
So, d = a₂ – a₁ = l – 3 = -2
Now, a₁₀ = a + 9d  [∵ a_n = a + (n – 1) d]
= 3 + 9 × (- 2)
= 3 – 18 = -15
a_n = 3 + (n – 1) × (-2)
= 3 – 2n + 2
= 5 – 2n

Question 9.
Find the sum of the first 40 positive integers divisible by 6.
Answer:
The given numbers are the first 40 positive multiples of 6
⇒ 6 × 1, 6 × 2, 6 × 3, ….., 6 × 40
⇒ 6, 12, 18, ….. 240
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₄₀ = \(\frac{40}{2}\)(6 + 240)
= 20 × 246
= 4920
∴ S₄₀ = 4920

Question 10.
A sum of Rs. 700 is to be used to give seven cash prizes to students of a school for their overall academic performance. If each prize is Rs. 20 less than its preceding prize, find the value of each of the prizes.
Answer:
Given:
Total/Sum of all cash prizes = Rs. 700
Each prize differs by Rs. 20
Let the prizes (in ascending order) be x, x + 20, x + 40, x + 60, x + 80, x + 100, x + 120
∴ Sum of the prizes = S₇ = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
⇒ 700 = \(\frac{7}{2}\)[x + x + 120]
⇒ 700 × \(\frac{2}{7}\) = 2x + 120
⇒ 100 = x + 60
⇒ x = 100 – 60 = 40
∴ The prizes are 160, 140, 120, 100, 80, 60, 40.

Question 11.
In a school, students thought of plant¬ing trees in and around the school to reduce air pollution. It was decided that the number of trees, that each section of each class will plant, will be the same as the class, in which they are studying, e.g., a section of Class I will plant 1 tree, a section of Class II will plant 2 trees and so on till Class XII. There are three sections of each class. How many trees will be planted by the students?
Answer:
Given: Classes: From I to XII
Section: 3 in each class.
∴ Trees planted by each class = 3 × class number

∴ Total trees planted = 3 + 6 + 9 + 12 + …… + 36 is an A.P.
Here, a = 3 and l = 36; n = 12
∴ S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₁₂ = \(\frac{12}{2}\)[3 + 36]
= 6 × 39
= 234
∴ Total plants = 234

Question 12.
A spiral is made up of successive semicircles, with centres alternately at A and B, starting with centre at A, of radii 0.5 cm, 1.0 cm, 1.5 cm, 2.0 cm, … as shown in figure. What is the total length of such a spiral made up of thirteen
consecutive semicircles? (Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\))

[Hint: Length of successive semicircles is l₁, l₂, l₃, l₄,….. with centres at A, B, A, B,…, respectively.]
Answer:
Given: l₁, l₂, l₃, l₄,….., l₁₃ are the semicircles with centres alternately at A and B; with radii
r₁ = 0.5 cm [1 × 0.5]
r₂ = 1.0 cm [2 × 0.5]
r₃ = 1.5 cm [3 × 0.5]
r₄ = 2.0 cm [4 × 0.5] [∵ Radii are in A.P. as aj = 0.5 and d = 0.5]
……………………………
r₁₃ = 13 × 0.5 = 6.5
Now, the total length of the spiral = l₁ + l₂ + l₃ + l₄ + ….. + l₁₃ [∵ 13 given]
But circumference of a semi-cirle is πr.
∴ Total length of the spiral = π × 0.5 + π × 1.0 + ………. + π × 6.5
= π × \(\frac{1}{2}\)[l + 2 + 3 + ….. + 13]
[∵ Sum of the first n – natural numbers is \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)
= \(\frac{22}{7} \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{13 \times 14}{2}\)
= 11 × 13
= 143 cm.

Question 13.
200 logs are stacked in the following manner: 20 logs in the bottom row, 19 in the next row, 18 in the row next to it and so on. In how many rows are the 200 logs placed and how many logs are in the top row?

Answer:
Given: Total logs = 200
Number of logs stacked in the first row = 20
Number of logs stacked in the second row = 19
Number of logs stacked in the third row = 18
The number series is 20, 19, 18,….. is an A.P where a = 20 and
d = a₂ – a₁ = 19 – 20 = -1
Also, S_n = 200

400 = 41n – n²
⇒ n² – 41n + 400 = 0
⇒ n² – 25n – 16n + 400 = 0
⇒ n(n – 25) – 16(n – 25) = 0
⇒ (n – 25) (n – 16) = 0
⇒ n – 25 (or) 16
There can’t be 25 rows as we are starting with 20 logs in the first row.
∴ Number of rows must be 16.
∴ n = 16

Question 14.
In a bucket and ball race, a bucket is placed at the starting point, which is 5 m from the first ball, and the other balls are placed 3 m apart in a straight line. There are ten balls in the line.

A competitor starts from the bucket, picks up the nearest ball, runs back with it, drops it in the bucket, runs back to pick up the next ball, runs to the bucket to drop it in, and she continues in the same way until all the balls are in the bucket. What is the total distance the competitor has to run?
[Hint: To pick up the first ball and the second ball, the total distance (in metres) run by a competitor is 2 × 5 + 2 × (5 + 3)]
Answer:
Given: Balls are placed at an equal distance of 3 m from one another.
Distance of first ball from the bucket = 5 m
Distance of second ball from the bucket = 5 + 3 = 8 m (5 + 1 × 3)
Distance of third ball from the bucket = 8 + 3 = 11 m (5 + 2 × 3)
Distance of fourth ball from the bucket = 11 + 3 = 14 m (5 + 3 × 3)
………………………………
∴ Distance of the tenth ball from the bucket = 5 + 9 × 3 = 5 + 27 = 32 m.
1st ball: Distance covered by the competitor in picking up and dropping it in the bucket = 2 × 5 = 10 m.
2nd ball: Distance covered by the competitor in picking up and dropping it in the bucket = 2 × 8 = 16 m.
3rd ball: Distance covered by the competitor in picking up and dropping it in the bucket = 2 × 11 = 22 m.
………………………………
10th ball: Distance covered by the competitor in picking up and dropping it in the bucket = 2 × 32 = 64 m.
Total distance = 10 m + 16 m + 22 m + …… + 64 m.
Clearly, this is an A.P in which a = 10; d = a₂ – a₁ = 16 – 10 = 6 and n = 10.
∴ S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]
∴ S₁₀ = \(\frac{10}{2}\)[2 × 10 + (10 – 1)6]
= 5 [20 + 54]
= 5 × 74
= 370 m
∴ Total distance = 370 m.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Chemistry Solutions 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers

Review of Your Previous Knowledge

Question 1.
Which property do you think of while suggesting the remedy from a problem of acidity?
Answer:
Neutralization Property. Antacid tablets neutralise acidity.

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11,7 and 9 respectively, which solution is : (AS1)
a) neutral
b) strongly alkaline
c) strongly acidic
d) weakly acidic
e) weakly alkaline
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration.
Answer:
Solution – pH Value
A → 4
B → 1
C → 11
D → 7
E → 9
a) Solution ‘D’ is neutral
b) Solution ‘C’ is strongly alkaline
c) Solution ‘B’ is strongly acidic
d) Solution ‘A’ is weakly acidic
e) Solution ‘E1 is weakly alkaline
∴ Increasing order of Hydrogen ion concentration : C < E < D < A < B.

Question 2.
What is a neutralization reaction? Give two examples. (AS1)
Answer:
Neutralization reaction : When acid reacts with base, forms its salt and water. This reaction is called a neutralization reaction.
Examples :

Equation: HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O
ii) Acetic Acid + Sodium Hydroxide → Sodium Acetate + Water
Equation : CH₃COOH + NaOH → CH₃COONa + H₂O
Formula : Acid + Base > Salt + Water

Question 3.
What happens when an acid or base is mixed with water? (AS1)
Answer:
When an acid or base is mixed with water it changes into dilute acid or dilute base.
(OR)
Dilute acid or dilute base will be formed when an acid or base is mixed with water. Mixing an acid or base with water results in decrease in the concentration of ions (H30+/ OH-) per unit volume. Such a process is called dilution and the acid or base is said to be diluted.

Question 4.
Why does tooth decay start when the pH of mouth is lower than 5.5? (AS1)
(OR)
Does the pH change tooth decay? Explain.
Answer:

1. Tooth enamel is the hardest substance in the body.
2.  It doesn’t dissolve in water but corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5.
3. It happens due to the bacteria which produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth.

Question 5.
Why does not distilled water conduct electricit? (AS2)
Answer:

1. Distilled water does not contain impurities.
2. It is also extremely weak electrolyte.
3. So it does not dissociate into ions.
4. It does not have charge carriers.
5. Because of that it does not conduct electricity.

Question 6.
Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus to red whereas hydrochloric acid does. Why? (AS1)
Answer:
1. Dry hydrogen chloride gas is not an acid. Because it does not produce H⁺_(aq) ions. Hence it can’t turn blue litmus into red.
2. Hydrochloric acid is an aqueous solution. So it can produce H⁺_(aq) ions. Hence it can turn blue litmus into red.

Question 7.
Why pure acetic acid does not conduct electricity? (AS1)
Answer:
The reasons for pure acetic acid does not conduct electricity are :
i) Acetic acid is a weak acid.
ii) It gives fewer H₃O⁺ ions.

Question 8.
A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk. (AS2)
a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
Answer:
1. By adding a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk, the milkman keeps the milk unspoiled for little more time than usual time.
2. As the pH value increases the milk turns to slightly alkaline.

b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Answer:

1. Curd form from the milk by the action of Lactic acid produced by bacteria in the milk.
2. If milk man add Baking soda (NaHCO₃) to the milk it neutralise acid, which is produced by the bacteria.
3. Excess acid is required to change the milk as curd.
4.  It takes long time.

Question 9.
Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why? (AS2)
Answer:
Storing of Plaster of Paris :

1. Plaster of Paris is a white powder.
2. It easily absorbs water in air and forms hard gypsum.
3. So, it should be stored in a moisture-proof container.

Question 10.
Fresh milk has a pH of 6. Explain why the pH changes as it turns into curd.
Answer:
1. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. Hence it is a weak acid.
2. To turn the milk as curd, we have to add yeast in the form of some curd. The fermentation takes place during this process and lactose changes in lactic acid and the pH decreases as milk sets as curd.

Question 11.
Compounds such as alcohols and glucose contain hydrogen but are not categorized as acids. Describe an activity to prove it. (AS3)
(OR) (Activity – 7)
Write an activity to show that the solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character even though they are having Hydrogen.
(OR)
Write an activity which proves acids are good conductors of electricity.
(OR)
The acidity of acids is attributed to the H+ ions produced by them in solution explain the above statement with an activity.
List out the material for the experiment to investigate whether all compounds containing Hydrogen are acids or not and write the experimental procedure.
Answer:
List of the material required :

1. Glucose
2. Alcohol
3. Dil. HCl
4. Dil-H₂SO₄
5. Beaker
6. Connecting wires
7. 230 voltage AC supply
8. Bulb
9. Graphite rods.

Procedure :

1. Prepare glucose, alcohol, hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid solutions.
2. Connect two different coloured electrical wires to graphite rods separately as shown in figure.
3. Connect free ends of the wire to 230 volts AC plug.
4. Complete the circuit as shown in the figure by connecting a bulb to one of the wires.
5. Now pour some dilute HCl in the beaker and switch on the current.

Observation :
The bulb starts glowing.

Repetition:
Repeat activity with dilute sulphuric acid, glucose and alcohol solutions separately.

Observation :

1. We will notice that the bulb glows only in acid solutions.
2. But the bulb does not glow in glucose and alcohol solutions.

Result:

1. Glowing of bulb indicates that there is flow of electric current through the solution.
2. Acid solutions have ions and the movement of these ions in solution helps for flow of electric current through the solution.

Conclusion :

1. The positive ion (cation) present in HCl solution is H⁺.
2. This suggests that acids produce hydrogen ions H⁺ in solution, which are, responsible for their acidic properties.
3. In glucose and alcohol solution the bulb did not glow indicating the absence of H⁺ ions in these solutions.
4. The acidity of acids is attributed to the H⁺ ions produced by them in solutions.

Question 12.
What is meant by “water of crystallization” of a substance? Describe an activity to show the water of crystallisation. (Activity – 16) (AS3)
Answer:
Water of Crystallization : Water of crystallization is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt in its crystaline form.
Ex : CuSO₄ • 5H₂O.
It means that five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate.

Activity to show the water of crystallization :

1. Take a few crystals of copper sulphate in a dry test tube and heat the test tube.
2. We observe water droplets on the walls of the test tube and salt turns white.
3. Add 2 – 3 drops of water on the sample of copper sulphate obtained after heating.
4. We observe, the blue colour of copper sulphate crystals is restored.

Reason :
1. In the above activity copper sulphate crystals which seem to be dry contain the water of crystallization, when these crystals are heated, water present in crystals is evaporated and the salt turns white.

2. When the crystals are moistened with water, the blue colour reappears.
Removing water of crystallization

Question 13.
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid is added to test tube A, while acetic acid is added to test tube B. Amount and concentration of both the acids are same. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why? (AS4)
Answer:
1. The volatility of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is more than that of hydrochloric acid.
2. But HCl solution has more strength than acetic acid.
3. Hence magnesium ribbon in test tube A will react more vigorously than in B.
4. So fizzing occurs more vigorously in test tube ‘A’.

Question 14.
Draw a neat diagram showing acid solution in water conducts electricity. (AS5)
(OR)
Draw a neat diagram which shows acids contains H⁺ ions.
(OR)
Draw a neat diagram showing how does dilute HCl solution conduct electricity.
Answer:

Question 15.
How do you prepare your own indicator using beetroot ? Explain. (AS5)
Aim : To prepare own indicator.
Materials required :
1) Beetroots-2 or 3
2) Knife
3) Bowls
4) Water
5) Spoon
6) Mixy
7) Orange juice

Procedure:
1) Take the beetroots and peel them with the help of a knife. (Firstly wash them).
2) Chop them into pieces.
3) Put those pieces into a mixy jar and make a paste.
4) Add some water to the paste. Now filter this and collect only juice from this.

Observation and Result:
1) Now add 5 to 6 drops of this juice, (beetroot juice (indicator)) to orange juice (5 to 6 drops) and mix it.
2) We can see the colour changes. This indicates the presence of acidic nature in orange juice.

Question 16.
How does the flow of acid rain into a river make the survival of aquatic life in a river difficult? (AS7)
(OR)
What are the harmful effects of acid rain?
Answer:
1) Acid rains are combination of carbonic acid, sulphuric acid and nitric acid with rain water.
2) The pH of acid rain is less than 5.6.
3) Living organisms can survive only in a narrow range of pH change.
4) When acid rain with pH value less than 5.6, flows into rivers, it lowers the pH of river water.
5) Due to less pH, the river water becomes acidic and hence the aquatic life in such rivers becomes difficult.

Question 17.
What is baking powder? How does it make the cake soft and spongy? (AS7)
Answer:
1) Baking Powder:
Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda (NaHCO₃) and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid. COOH (CHOH)₂ COOH

2) Chemical reaction :
When baking powder is heated or mixed in water, the following reaction takes place.
NaHCO₃ + H⁺ → CO₂ + H₂O + Sodium salt of acid.

3) Carbondioxide produced during the reaction causes bread or cake to rise making them soft and spongy.

Question 18.
Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda. (AS7)
(OR)
Write the chemical formulae for washing soda and Baking soda and give their uses.
(OR)
Write any four uses of washing soda.
Answer:
Uses of washing soda (Na₂CO₃.10H₂O) :
1) Washing soda (sodium carbonate) is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
2) It is used in the manufacture of sodium compounds such as borax.
3) Sodium carbonate can be used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes.
4) It is used for removing permanent hardness of water.

Uses of baking soda (NaHCO₃ 10H₂O) :
1) Baking soda (Sodium hydrogen carbonate) is used for faster cooking.
2) Baking powder (a mixture of baking soda and a mild acid) is used in preparation of cakes.
3) Sodium hydrogen carbonate is also an ingredient in antacids.
4) It is also used in soda – acid, fire extinguishers.
5) It acts as a mild antiseptic.

Fill in the Blanks

1. i) ………………….. taste is a characteristic property of all acids in aqueous solution.
ii) Acids react with some metals to produce ………………….. gas.
iii) Because aqueous acid solutions conduct electricity, they are identified as …………………..
iv) Acids react with bases to produce a ………………….. and water.
v) Acids turn methyle orange into ………………….. colour.
Answer:
1. i) Sour
ii) hydrogen
iii) electrolytes or conductors
iv) salt
v) red

2. i) Bases tend to taste ………………….. and feel ………………….. .
ii) Like acids, aqueous basic solutions conduct ………………….., and are identified as ………………….. .
iii) Bases react with ………………….. to produce a salt and
iv) Bases turn phenophthalein into ………………….. colour.
Answer:
2. i) bitter, soapy (slippery) to touch
ii) electricity, electrolytes
iii) acids, water
iv) pink

Match the following :

a) Plaster of Paris	1) CaOCl2
b) Gypsum	2) NaHCO3
c) Bleaching powder	3) Na2CO3
d) Baking soda	4) CaSO4.½H2O
e) Washing soda	5) CaSO4.2H2O

Answer:
3. a – 4,
b – 5,
c – 1,
d – 2,
e – 3.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The colour of methyl orange indicator in acidic medium is
A) yellow
B) green
C) orange
D) red
Answer:
D) red

2. The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in basic solution is
A) yellow
B) green
C) pink
D) orange
Answer:
C) pink

3. Colour of methyl orange in alkali conditions
A) orange
B) yellow
C) red
D) blue
Answer:
B) yellow

4. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
A) 1
B) 4
C) 5
D) 10
(OR)
If a solution converts red litmus into blue colour, then its pH value is …………….. .
A) 1
B) 4
C) 5
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

5. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky, the solution contains …………….. .
A) NaCl
B) HCl
C) LiCl
D) KCl
Answer:
B) HCl

6. If a base dissolves in water, by what name is it better known?
A) neutralization
B) basic
C) acid
D) alkali
Answer:
D) alkali

7. Which of the following substances when mixed together will produce table salt?
A) Sodium thiosulphate and sulphur dioxide
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
C) Chlorine and oxygen
D) Nitric acid and sodium hydrogen carbonate
Answer:
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide

8. What colour would hydrochloric acid (pH = 1) turn universal indicator?
A) Orange
B) Purple
C) Yellow
D) Red
Answer:
D) Red

9. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
A) antibiotic
B) analgesic
C) antacid
D) antiseptic
Answer:
C) antacid

10. What gas is produced when magnesium is made to react with hydrochloric acid?
A) hydrogen
B) oxygen
C) carbon dioxide
D) no gas is produced
Answer:
A) hydrogen

11. Which of the following is the most accurate way of showing neutralization?
A) Acid + base → acid-base solution
B) Acid + base → salt + water
C) Acid + base → sodium chloride + hydrogen
D) Acid + base → neutral solution
Answer:
B) Acid + base → salt + water

10th Class Chemistry 1st Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 25

Question 1.
Is the substance present in antacid tablet acidic or basic?
A. The substance present in antacid tablet is basic.

Question 2.
What type of reaction takes place in stomach when an antacid tablet is consumed?
mrearx
A. Neutralization reaction takes place in stomach when an antacid tablet is consumed.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 26

Question 3.
You are provided with three test tubes containing distilled water, an acid and a base solution respectively. If you are given only blue litmus paper, how do you identify the contents of each test tube?
Answer:
I know that acid turns blue litmus to red. With the help of this test I can find the acid. Distilled water and base don’t do so. Thus I identify each.

Question 4.
Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? How will you test for the presence of this gas?
Answer:
Usually acids generate hydrogen gas on reacting with metals.

Test: When a burning splinder is brought near to the collected gas (H₂), it puts off with a pop sound.
This test proves that the gas is H₂.

Question 5.
A compound of a calcium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle ; turns lime water milky. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Answer:
Equation is : CaCO₃ + 2 HCl → CaCl₂ + CO₂ + H₂O

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 30

Question 6.
Why do HCl, HNO₂ etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Answer:
HCl, HNO₃, etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solutions as they liberate H⁺ ions. But alcohol and glucose don’t liberate H⁺ ions. So, they do not show acidic character.

Question 7.
While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
Answer:
1) If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns.
2) The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 33

Question 8.
What will happen if the pH value of chemicals in our body increases?
Answer:
When pH value of chemicals in our body increases then the body will effect by some problems. They are
1) Digestion problems raise in the stomach.
2) pH changes as the cause of tooth decay.

Question 9.
Why do living organism have narrow pH range?
Answer:
Because increasing acidity is thought to have a range of possibly harmful consequences such as depressing metabolic rate and immune response in some organisms and causing coral bleaching

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts Activities

Activity – 1

Question 1.
Observe the change in colour in each case and tabulate the results in the table.
Answer:
Procedure:
1) Collect the following samples from the science laboratory ;
i) Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
ii)Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄)
iii) Nitric acid (HNO₃)
iv) Acetic acid (CH₃COOH)
v) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
vi) Calcium hydroxide[Ca(OH)₂]
vii) Magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)₂]
viii) Ammonium hydroxide(NH₄OH)
ix) Potassium hydroxide (KOH)
2) Prepare dilute solutions of the respective substances.
3) Take four watch glasses.
4) Put one drop of the first solution in each one of them and test the solution as follows.
i) Dip the blue litmus paper in the first watch glass.
ii) Dip the red litmus paper in the second watch glass.
iii) Add a drop of methyl orange to the third watch glass.
iv) Add a drop of phenolphthalein to the fourth watch glass.

Observation :
Observe the respective colour changes and note down in the chart below.

1. What do you conclude from the observations noted in the above table? (AS1)
Answer:
Conclusion : Acids turn blue litmus to red and bases turn red litmus to blue. Acids turn phenolphthalein to colourless and bases turn pink. Acids turn methyl orange to red and bases turn methyl orange to yellow.

2. Identify the above sample as acidic or basic solution. (AS4)
Answer:
Acids : HCl, H₂SO₄, HNO₃, CH₃COOH.
Bases : NaOH, KOH, Mg(OH)₂, NH₄OH, Ca(OH)₂.

Activity -2

Question 2.
What are Olfactory indicators? Write an activity to prove them.
(OR)
What is the name given to a substance which identifies an acid or base by virtue of smell? Write an activity to prove the fact with an example.
Answer:
Olfactory Indicators : There are some substances whose odour changes in acidic or basic media. These are called olfactory indicators.
Activity :
Aim : To check the olfactory indicator.
Required materials :
1) Onions
2) Knife
3) Plastic bag
4) Clean clothes.

Procedure :
1) Take some onions and finely chop them.
2) Put the chopped onions in a plastic bag along with some clean cloth.
3) Tie up the bag tightly and keep it overnight in the fridge.
4) Then remove onions from fridge and add some base. We observe it loses its smell. Observation : Check the odour of the cloth strips.

Result: It is used as the basic indicator.

LAB ACTIVITY Reaction of Acids with metals

Question 3.
Write an experiment showing the reaction of acids with metals. (AS3)
(OR)
Ramu added acid to active metal then what is the gas which has been liberated. What are the apparatus required to prove the experiment. Write the experimental acitivity.
(OR)
Write the required material and experimental procedure for the experiment, “Hydrochloric acid reacts with ‘Zn’ pieces and liberates H₂“.
Answer:
Aim : To show the reaction of acids with metals.

Required Materials :

1. Test tube
2. Delivery tube
3. Glass trough
4. Candle,
5. Soap water
6. Dil. HCl
7. Zinc granules
8. One holed rubber stopper
9. Retard stand

Experimental procedure :

1. Take some zinc granules in a test tube and arrange the test tube to the retart stand.
2. Fix a delivery tube to the rubber stopper and immerse the second end of the delivery tube into the soap water.
3. Add about 10 m/ of dilute hydrochloric acid to Zn granules and fix rubber stopper to the test tube.
4. Evolved gas forms bubbles in soap water.
5. Bring a lightened candle near to the gas bubbles. We can observe the burning of gas bubble with pop sound.

Result: We can conform that the evolved gas is hydrogen.
Chemical reaction:
Acid + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen
2Hcl_(aq) + Zn_(s) → Zncl_2(aq) + H_2(g)

Additional Experiment :

• Repeat the above experiment with H₂SO₄ and HNO₃.
• We observe the same observation of the HCL experiment.

Conclusion : From the above activities we can conclude that when acid reacts with metal, H₂ gas is evolved.

Activity – 3 Reaction of Bases with metals

Question 4.
Write an activity to show the reaction of bases with metals.
(OR)
Write an activity which proves certain bases produce hydrogen gas when they react with metals.
Answer:
Aim : To show the reaction of bases with metals.

Required Materials :

1. Test tube,
2. Delivery tube
3. Glass trough
4. Candle
5. Soap water
6. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) Solution
7. Zinc granules
8. One holed rubber stopper

Procedure :

1. Set the apparatus as shown in figure.
2. Take about 10 ml of dilute Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution in a test tube.
3. Add a few granules of zinc metal to it.
4. We will observe formation of gas bubbles on the surface of granules.
5. The gas will pass through delivery tube evolved from soap solution as bubbles.
6. Bring burning candle near the gas filled bubble.
7. The gas in the bubble puts off the candle with pop sound.

Result: The evolved gas is hydrogen.

Chemical reaction :
Base + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen

Note : It is better to use cone. NaOH solution for this reaction.

Activity – 4 Reaction of carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates with Acids

Question 5.
Write an activity to show that all metal carbonates and hydrogen carbonates react with acids to give a corresponding salt. (AS3)
Answer:
Aim : To show that all metal carbonates and hydrogen carbonates react with acids to give a corresponding salt.

Required Materials :

1. Two test tubes
2. Sodium Carbonate (Na₂CO₃)
3. Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate (NaHCO₃)
4. Two holed rubber stopper
5. Thistle funnel
6. Stand
7. Dilute hydrochloric acid
8. Delivery tube
9. Calcium Carbonate (in a test tube)

Procedure :

1. Take a test tube A with 0.5 gm of sodium carbonate.
2. Close the test tube A with two holed rubber cork.
3. Insert a thistle funnel through one hole and insert a delivery tube through the other hole.
4. Pour 2 ml of dilute HC/ to the test tube A.
5. Do the same as above with test tube B with sodium hydrogen carbonate.

Observation :
Carbon dioxide is released from test tube A and B. Passing CO₂ gas through Ca(OH)₂ solution

Chemical Reaction :
Na₂CO_3(s) + 2 HCl_(aq) → 2 NaCl_(aq) + CO_2(g) + H₂O_(l)
Metal Carbonate + Acid → Salt + Carbon dioxide + Water

NaHCO_3(s) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + CO_2(g) + H₂O_(l)
Metal Hydrogen Carbonate + Acid → Salt + Carbon dioxide + Water

Result : All metal carbonates and hydrogen carbonates react with acids to give a corresponding salt.

Activity – 5 Neutralization reaction

Question 6.
Write an activity to find the change of colour in the reaction of an acid with a base (Neutralization) reaction. (AS3)
(OR)
Explain neutralization reaction with an activity.
Answer:
Aim : To test the change of colour in the reaction of an acid with a base.

Required Materials :

1. 2 ml of dilute NaOH (Sodium Hydroxide) solution.
2. Phenolphthalein indicator solution.
3. dilute HCl (Hydrochloric) solution.

Procedure :

1. Take about 2 ml of dilute NaOH solution in a test tube.
2. Add two drops of phenolphthalein indicator solution.

Observation (i) :

1. It turns to red or pink colour.
2. It shows that NaOH is a base.

Experiment (1) : Add dilute HCl solution to the above solution drop by drop.
Observation (ii) : Pink colour disappears due to the reaction of NaOH (base) with HCl (acid).

Experiment (2) : Now add one or two drops of NaOH to the above mixture.
Observation (iii) : Pink colour reappears on adding NaOH.
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O
base + acid → salt + water
Result: This reaction is called a neutralization reaction.

Activity – 6 Reaction of metallic oxides with acids

Question 7.
Write an activity to show that metal oxide reacts with acid is a neutralization. (AS3)
(OR)
How can you prove metallic acids are basic in nature?
Answer:
1) Take a small amount of copper oxide (CuO) in a beaker.
2) Add dilute HCl slowly while stirring.
3) Copper oxide dissolves in dilute HCl and the solution becomes blueish green colour due to the formation of copper (II) chloride.

Equation : Metal oxide + Acid → Salt + Water
Result: This reaction is same as the reaction of base with acid, (neutralization)

Question 8.
Write an activity to show that non-metallic oxide reacts with base is a neutralization.
Answer:
1) Take a small amount of calcium hydroxide (base).
2) Add CO₂ into it.
3) Salt and water are produced.
Equation : Non-metallic oxide + Base → Salt + Water
Result: It is a neutralization reaction.

Question 9.
Repeat the activity – 7 using alkalis such as sodium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide solutions, etc. instead of acid solutions.
i) Does the bulb glow?
Answer:
Yes, the bulb will glow.

ii) What do you conclude from the results of this activity?
Answer:
Basic solutions are also good conductors of electricity due to released OH^– ions.

iii) What happens to an acid or a base in aqueous solution?
Answer:
Acids produce H⁺ ions and bases produce OH^– ions in aqueous solutions.

iv) Do acids produce ions only in aqueous solution?
Answer:
Yes.

Activity – 8

Question 10.
Do acids produce ions only in aqueous solution? Prove it. (AS3)
(OR)
Acids produce ions only in aqueous solution. Justify your answer with an activity.
Answer:
Procedure :

1. Take about 1.0 g of solid NaCl in a clean and dry test tube.
2. Add some concentrated sulphuric acid to the test tube. .

Observation :

1. A gas comes out of the delivery tube.
2. If we test the gas with dry and wet blue litmus paper, there is no change in colour.

Chemical equation : 2 NaCl_(s) + H₂SO_4(l) > 2 HCl + Na₂SO_4(s)

Conclusion :

1. We can conclude that dry HCl gas (hydrogen chloride) is not an acid.
2. Because we have noticed that there is no change in colour of dry litmus paper.
3. But HCl aqueous solution is an acid because wet blue litmus paper turned into red.

Activity – 9 Reaction of water with acids or bases

Question 11.
Write an activity to show that dissolving of an acid in water is an exothermic process (or) endothermic process. (AS3)
(OR)
What do you observe when water is mixed with acid or base?
Answer:
Experiment :

1. Take 10 ml water in a beaker.
2. Add a few drops of concentrated H₂SO₄ to it and swirl the beaker slowly.
3. Touch the base of the beaker.
4. The base is hot.
5. Do this experiment with other concentrated acids like HCl, HNO₃ Result: This is an exothermic process called dilution.

Activity -10 Strength of acid or base

Question 12.
Write an activity to know whether the acid is strong or weak. (AS3)
Answer:

1. Take dilute HCl in a beaker.
2. Close it with a cardboard and introduce two different colour electrical wires through the holes made on it.
3. Connect a bulb and make the connection as shown in the figure.
4. Do the same replacing dilute HCl with dilute CH₃COOH (acetic acid).

Observation :
The bulb glows brightly in HCl solution, while the bulb’s intensity is low in acetic acid solution.

Result:
More ions are present in HCl solution which is a strong acid than in CH₃COOH solution which is a weak acid.

Activity – 11

Question 13.
Test the pH value of solution given in table. Record your observations. What is the nature of each substance on the basis of your observations?
Answer:

Activity – 12

Question 14.
Write an activity to check the colour change in dilute HCl and antacid solution in addition of methyl orange. (AS3)
Answer:
Procedure :

1. Take dilute HCl in a beaker.
2. Add two to three drops of methyl orange indicator to it.
3. The solution colour turns to red.
4. Now take the same solution and mix antacid tablet powder.

Observation :
Check the colour change.

Result:
The colour of the solution turns to light yellow.

Chemical equation:
2 HCl + Mg(OH)₂ → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O

Activity – 13

Question 15.
How can we test the pH value of the soil? (AS3)
Answer:

1. Take about 2g of soil in a test tube.
2. Add 5 ml water to it.
3. Shake it well.
4. Filter the content.
5. Collect the filtrate in a test tube.
6. Add 2 drops of universal solution to it.
7. Observe the colour.
8. Compare the colour with strip colour on the bottle and find the pH value.
9. In this way we can test the pH of the soil.

Activity – 14

Question 16.
Write the formulae of the following salts and classify them as families based on radicals.
Potassium Sulphate, Sodium Sulphate, Calcium Sulphate, Magnesium Sulphate, Copper Sulphate, Sodium Chloride, Sodium Nitrate, Sodium Carbonate and Ammonium Chloride. (AS4)
Answer:

Name of the Salt	Formula
1. Potassium Sulphate	K2SO4
2. Sodium Sulphate	Na2SO4
3. Calcium Sulphate	CaSO4
4. Magnesium Sulphate	MgSO4
5. Copper Sulphate	CuSO4
6. Sodium Chloride	NaCl
7. Sodium Nitrate	NaNO3
8. Sodium Carbonate	Na2CO3
9. Ammonium Chloride	NH4Cl

Sodium family : Na₂SO₄, NaCl, NaNO₃, Na₂CO₃, etc.
Family of chloride salts : NaCl, NH₄Cl, etc.
Family of sulphate salts : K₂SO₄, Na₂SO₄, CaSO₄, MgSO₄, CuSO₄, etc.
Family of carbonate salts : Na₂CO₃ MgCO₃ CaCO₃, etc.

Question 17.
Identify the acids and bases from which they are obtained. (AS4)
Answer:

Name of the Salt	Parent Acid	Parent Base
1. Potassium Sulphate	Sulphuric Acid	Potassium Hydroxide
2. Sodium Sulphate	Sulphuric Acid	Sodium Hydroxide
3. Calcium Sulphate	Sulphuric Acid	Calcium Carbonate
4. Magnesium Sulphate	Sulphuric Acid	Magnesium Hydroxide
5. Copper Sulphate	Sulphuric Acid	Copper Hydroxide
6. Sodium Chloride	Hydrochloric Acid	Sodium Hydroxide
7. Sodium Nitrate	Nitric Acid	Sodium Hydroxide
8. Sodium Carbonate	Carbonic Acid	Sodium Hydroxide
9. Ammonium Chloride	Hydrochloric Acid	Ammonium Hydroxide

Activity – 15 pH of Salts

Question 18.
Collect the salt samples like sodium chloride, aluminium chloride, copper sulphate, sodium acetate, ammonium chloride, sodium hydrogen carbonate and sodium carbonate. Dissolve them in distilled water. Check the action of these solutions with litmus papers. Find the pH using pH paper (universal indicator. Classify them into acidic, basic or neutral salts. Identify the acid and base used to form the above salts. Record your observations in table. (AS4)
Answer:

Salt	pH	Acid	Base	Neutral
Sodium Chloride	7	–	–	✓
Aluminium Chloride	7	–	–	✓
Copper Sulphate	< 7	✓	–	–
Sodium Acetate	> 7	–	✓	–
Ammonium Chloride	< 7	✓	–	–
Ammonium Chloride	> 7	–	✓	–
Sodium Carbonate	> 7	–	✓	–

 

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 2 Ideas of Development.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development

10th Class Social 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State reason for protesting against the establishment of Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Kudankulam people have protested on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
2. They also want their coast and country protected from the radio active peril.

Question 2.
Why did the people oppose the establishment of Kudankulam Nuclear Power project in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
On the grounds of safety, security and livelihood, the people protested against the project.
(OR)
To protect their cost from radio active peril people opposed it.

Question 3.
Observe the following table and answer the questions a, b, c and d.
Answer:

Country	H.D.I. Ranking 2012	Average Life Span in 2012	Average years of Schooling
Norway	1	81.3	12.6
America	3	78.7	13.3
Sri Lanka	92	75.1	9.3
China	101	73.7	7.5
India	136	65.8	4.4
Bangladesh	146	69.2	4.8
Pakistan	146	65.7	4.9
World Average	–	70.1	7.5

a) Which two countries have more average schooling years?
Answer:
Norway, America.

b) Which two Asian countries have better HDI rank than that of India?
Answer:
Srilanka, China.

c) Which countries are lacking behind to the average life expectancy of World?
Answer:
India, Bangladesh, Pakistan.

d) What are the reasons for having less average schooling in India, Bangladesh and Pakistan?
Answer:
The reasons for having less average schooling in India, Bangladesh and Pakistan are

1. Poverty,
2. More rural population,
3. No awareness with regard to literacy.

Question 4.
In the context of development, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are conflicting. Give one example for this.
Answer:
Example – 1: To get more electricity industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people such as the tribals who are dis-placed.
Example – 2: A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work. But brother may not like this.

Question 5.
What idea is the poster promoting?

Answer:
Importance of Education.

Question 6.
State any two goals of development other than income.
Answer:
Equal treatment, freedom, security and respect from others.

Question 7.
What is HDI?
Answer:
The index developed for comparing coun¬tries for measuring human development is called HDI (Human Development Index). It generally includes income, educational levels and health status of the people.

Question 8.
What is per capita income?
Answer:
Per capita income is “the total income of the country divided by its total population”.

Question 9.
Expand IMR.
Answer:
Infant Mortality Rate.

Question 10.
Which organization publishes HDR?
Answer:
UNDP publishes Human Development Report.

Question 11.
What is the main criteria for comparing the development of different countries?
Answer:
The main criteria for comparing the development of different countries are per capita income, life expectancy, average years of schooling, expected years of schooling, etc.

Question 12.
What is health?
Answer:
Health means a state of couple soundness – physical and mental.

Question 13.
Why do people look at a mix of goals?
Answer:
People look at a mix of goals for development.

Question 14.
Why are dams opposed?
Answer:
Dams are opposed because they will disrupt the lives of the people and submerge their own lands.

Question 15.
How are the women who work outside the homes?
Answer:
Women who work outside the homes are economically independent and self¬confident.

Question 16.
What is adult literacy rate?
Answer:
The rate of percentage of people aged 15 and above, who can understand, read and write a short and simple statement in their regional languages is known as adult literacy rate.

Question 17.
What is the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries?
Answer:
Average income is the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries.

Question 18.
Explain the calculation of BMI.
Answer:
BMI can be calculated by dividing the total weight of a person by the square of his height.

Question 19.
What is educational development?
Answer:
Education attained by the people of a country on an average basis is referred as educational development.

Question 20.
What isthe percentage of population living in the rural India?
Answer:
70% of the Indian population is living in rural India.

Question 21.
What is Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
The rate at which children in a country die within an age of 0-1 year is known as “Infant Mortality Rate.”

Question 22.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
Land, Labour, Capital and Enterprise are the four factors of production.
Technology is also added to the factors of production.

Question 23.
How is the standard of living measured?
Answer:
Standard of living is measured by real GDP per capita.

Question 24.
What is development?
Answer:
Development refers to progress or improvement in lifestyle.

Question 25.
What is PDS?
Answer:
PDS is a system to distribute ration to the poor at a reasonable rate through govern¬ment ration shops. PDS – Public Distribution System.

Question 26.
A girl from a rich urban family has some development goals for her. State any one such goal.
Answer:
She can get as much freedom as a boy has.

Question 27.
Write any one advantage of public facilities.
Answer:
It develops national feelings and a sense of collective responsibility. Reduces expenditure.

Question 28.
What is NAR?
Answer:
Net Attendance Rate: Out of the total num¬ber of children in age group 6-17, the per¬centage of children attending schools.

Question 29.
Which is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing coun¬tries?
Answer:
Income is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing countries.

Question 30.
Which is not a useful measure for comparison between countries?
Answer:
Total income is not such a useful measure for comparison between countries.

Question 31.
What are called developed countries?
Answer:
The rich countries, excluding countries of West Asia and certain other small countries, are generally called developed countries.

Question 32.
Why, in some areas, children, particularly girls are not able to achieve secondary level schooling?
Answer:
Due to social restrictions imposed on girl child i.e., gender bias.

Question 33.
Why have some states lesser Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Some states have a lesser Infant Mortality Rate because they have adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities.

Question 34.
What is the major consideration of Himachali women?
Answer:
One major consideration is that many Himachali women are themselves employed outside the home and hence show lesser gender bias.

Question 35.
How are the women who work outside the homes?
Answer:
Women who work outside the home are economically independent and self-confident.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you learn from the schooling revolution in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Both the government and the people of Himachal Pradesh were keen on education.
2. They started many schools.
3. They made sure that education was largely free.
4. They allocated a good share to education in the government budget.
5. They tried to ensure that the schools had all the facilities.
6. Most of the students enjoy their schooling experience.

Question 2.
People generally do not like to work in unorganised sector. Why?
Answer:

1. Unorganised sector is largely outside the control of the government.
2. Rules and regulations are often not followed.
3. Jobs are not regular.
4. Jobs are low paid.
5. It is difficult to avail the leaves.
6. No provision for paid leave.
7. Job is not secure.
8. Working conditions are generally poor.
9. No safety measures followed in work places.
10. Health hazards would be there.
11. No insurance
12. No welfare schemes.

Question 3.
Give examples of the criterion for the measurement of human development.
Answer:
The examples of the criterion for the measurement of human development:

1. Per capita income
2. The education levels of people and health status.
3. Standard of life of the people
4. Availability of electricity
5. Transportation
6. Sanitation facilities
7. Expected years of schooling
8. Average years of schooling, etc.
   Ex: Sri Lanka, one of our neighbours is much ahead of India in every respect.

Question 4.
What are the different indicators in which development is measured? Which one do you agree with ?
Answer:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling 4) Expected years of schooling
4. Life expectancy at birth 6) Health status
5. Employment status 8) Equal distribution
6. I agree with all the above things because those are useful for measuring the complete development.

Question 5.
Give examples for different persons can have different developmental goals.
Answer:

Category of persons	Developmental goals
Landless rural labourers:	More days of work and better wages, quality education for their children, no social discrimination.
Prosperous farmers:	Higher support prices for crops, should be able to settle their children abroad.
Farmers who depend only on rains for growing crops:	Adequate rainfall.
Urban unemployed youth:	High salaried jobs
An Adivasi from mining fields :	To protect their livelihoods.
Persons from fishing community in the coastal area.	Good weather and a good catch of fisher.

Question 6.
What do the people desire other than income?
Answer:
People desire the following other than income.

1. Equal treatment
2. Freedom
3. Security
4. Respect from others.

Question 7.
Prepare a pamphlet on making mahila mandals active in villages.
Answer:
Mahila Mandals are voluntary service organizations that work for the betterment of women in the villages of India. To better their life the village women should have their say in the active involvement of Mahila Mandals’ activities. Active Mahila Mandals can be found In many villages. Suggestions to make Mahila Mandals active in the villages:

• First priority should be given to girl education and to eradicate illiteracy.
• Vocational training and credit facilities to women for self-employment should be provided.
• Mahila Mandals should collectively work for the betterment of women who need nutrition, education and family welfare.
• They should help the women in immunization of children, small savings, provision of bathrooms, women crafts centres and balwadis.
• They should work towards the elimination of discrimination, inequality, intolerance, and violence-both, within and outside the home.
• They should have comparatively high involvement in social life and village politics.

The government should provide basic equipment and stationery, etc. to the Mahila Mandals. It should create awareness among women regarding the Mahila Mandals.

Women empowerment leads to a strong nation.

Copies: 2000

Surya Printers.

Question 8.
What is Development ? Why do different people have different developemntal goals? Explain with two Examples.
Answer:
Meaning of Development:

1. Growth plus change is called development. .
2. All the persons may not have the same notion of development or progress.
3. Each one of them seeks different things.
   Examples:
   i) A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work.
   ii) To get more electricity, industrialists, may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced as the tribals.

Question 9.
Create a few slogans on promoting girl education.
Answer:

1. Girl with education – helpful to the family.
2. Educate a girl – she educates a family.
3. Encourage girl education – save the nation.
4. An educated girl – serves the nation well.
   (Students can sit together and discuss to prepare a few slogans of their own.)

Question 10.
Observe the following table and prepare a paragraph on it.
Answer:
Progress in Himachal Pradesh
The comparison across two different years is indicative of development that has happened. Clearly, there has been greater development in schooling and spread of education in Himachal Pradesh than India as a whole. Though there is still a lot of difference in the average levels of education among boys and girls, i.e., across genders, there has been some progress towards greater equal¬ity in the recent years.

Question 11.
Why was it necessary for government to run schools in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:
The rich children can get the education in private sector schools. But the majority of Indian chil¬dren are enrolled in the government schools. Education has also been made free for children from 6 to 14 years of age or up to VIII class under the R.T.E. Act 2009. So, it was necessary for government to run schools in Himachal Pradesh.

Question 12.
‘Human development is the essence of social development’ – Explain.
Answer:

1. Human development focuses on the people.
2. It is concerned with the well-being of the people, their needs, choices and aspirations. All these help in building a right kind of society.
3. It is all about the enlarging or widening the choices for the people. It is the building of human capabilities, such as education, information and knowledge, to have opportunities of livelihood.
4. Human development focuses on the expansion of basic choices.

Question 13.
‘Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well.’ Explain.
Answer:

1. Even though per capita income is high in many states, education and health facilities are still lacking.
2. Money or high per capita income cannot buy a pollution-free environment or good health.
3. Money cannot buy peace and democracy.

10th Class Social 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the following table and answer the questions that given below.
(a) What do you mean by literacy rate?
Answer:
The number of literates per every 100 persons in the population is known as literacy rate.

(b) In which state the net attendance is highest?
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh.

(c) What could be the reason for the highest, Literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Both the government of Himachal Pradesh and the people of the state were keen on education.
2. The government started schools and made sure that education was largely free, or costs very little for parents.
3. Further, it tried to ensure that these schools had at least the minimum facilities of teach¬ers, classrooms, toilets, drinking water, etc.

(d) In which state the IMR is least?
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph :
“In many parts of the country, girls’ are still given less priority by parents compared to boys.”
Comment on the gender bias in India.
Answer:

1. Ours is a male-dominated society.
2. Female literacy rate is low.
3. Women who work outside their homes are less in number.
4. Traditionally, in our society, women have less involvement in social life.
5. Because of all these reasons, gender bias is still continuing.
6. This is a hurdle for the development of society.
7. Boys and girls should be treated equally.

Question 3.
“We should be able to integrate environmental concerns with the idea of progress”. Explain.
Answer:

1. We must show concern on environmental issues while achieving development.
2. The environmental source function will deplete while using the sources in a speedy way.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit, it will cause long-term damage to the environment.
4. The big projects may harm bio-diversity.
5. Use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in modern agriculture leads to a big loss to the environment.
6. The fuel used as a part of industrial development causes a lot of air pollution.
7. Ground water levels are being depleted.
8. Deforestation is being occurred.
9. The rights of low-income countries, future generations also should be viewed.

Question 4.
Plot the below information on a bar graph. Write your observation.

SI. No.	State	Literacy rate (%)
1.	Punjab	77
2.	Himachal Pradesh	84
3.	Bihar	64

Answer:
Observation:
As Himachal Pradesh has high literacy rate, it can be considered as developed state.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and comment.
In many parts of the country, girls’ education is still given less priority by the parents as compared to boys’ education. While girls may study for a few years, they may not complete their schooling.
Answer:
According to this paragraph two things are clearly mentioned that there is a gender bias with regard to giving education to boys and girls among the people of the country and the second one is only the Himachali Pradesh Government is concentrating on girl education.
My opinion on these two issues is that the gender bias was there once in the society. As there is a vast awareness in the parents they send their daughters to the schools in many places. Even a rickshaw puller also wants to make his daughter study in a school.
He hopes his daughter becomes a professional. The parents are interested to send their children to English medium schools irrespective of their income and status. It shows their interest. A little bit fear about girls is there among them because of other reasons. They are afraid of the safety of their daughters. Just like in Himachal Pradesh other states are also spending much amount on education and schooling. It is accepted that the Himachal Pradesh state has taken the step earlier. I don’t say that other states are not taking steps to improve the conditions of schools for providing good education for the girls.
It is a sensitive issue and it is to be taken seriously to bring awareness among people to make their daughters admit in schools and the governments should consider the problems of girls in schools. Sufficient toilets and other facilities are to be provided so as to enroll all the girls in schools.

Question 6.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.
Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2013

Country	Per capita  Income in $	Life Expectancy at birth (Years)	Average years of schooling	Expected years of schooling	Human Development Index (HDI) rank in the world
Sri Lanka	5170	75.1	9.3	12.7	92
India	3285	65.8	4.4	10.7	136
Pakistan	2566	65.7	4.9	7.3	146
Myanmar	1817	65.7	3.9	9.4	149
Bangladesh	1785	69.2	4.8	8.1	146
Nepal	1137	69.1	3.2	8.9	157

1. Which country stands ahead of India in all aspects in HDI ?
   Answer:
   The country Sri Lanka stands ahead of India in all aspects in HDI.
2. Mention the aspects that are considered in making Human Development Index.
   Answer:
   1. Percapita income
   2. Literacy Rate
   3. Average years of schooling
   4. Expected years of schooling
   5. Life expectancy at birth
   6. Health status, etc. are the aspects considered in making Human Development Index.
3. Name the country that has the lowest per capita income.
   Answer:
   The country Nepal has the lowest per capita income.
4. Give two suggestions for the improvement of the rank of India in HDI.
   Answer:
   1. Education should be improved and more skill development centres should be established.
   2. The poor and needy people should be provided cheap and better health facilities.

Question 7.
Observe the given table and analyse the HDI data of India and its neighbours.
Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2016

Country	Per capita income in $	Life expectancy at birth	Literacy rate	Human Development Index (HDI)
Sri Lanka	10,789	74.9	92.6	70
India	5,663	68.3	74.04	131
Pakistan	5,031	66.2	60.0	148
Myanmar	4,943	65.9	93.1	146
Bangladesh	3,341	71.6	61.5	140
Nepal	2,337	69.6	64.7	144

Answer:
The given table is about Human Development data of India and some of the neighbouring countries pertaining to 2016. In this table per capita income in dollars, life expectancy at birth and literacy rate are considered and HDI Ranking is given. In per capita income Sri Lanka stands high and in the same of life expectancy but in literacy Myanmar is better than Srilanka. Pakistan is very poor in literacy rate and so Bangladesh. These countries do not show interest on literacy. In over all ranking Srilanka stands well, Pakistan’s ranking is least. Countries should concentrate on what (the people need proper medication, medical facilities to the poorer people, wide availabiltiy of
104,108 services are essential in rural areas. In Telangana to some extent these services are provided. Each one teach one programme is to be maintained so that all people will be literated. Schooling should be strengthened. Per capita income should be spent on Health facilities and education. Priorities are to be set first and proper planning for its implementation is essential. So that countries can be developed.

Question 8.
Read the text and interpret it.
The ongoing protest over the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project in theTirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu is one such conflict. The government of India set up the nuclear power plant in this quiet coastal town of fisher folks. The aim is to generate nuclear power to meet the growing energy needs of the country. The people in the region have protested on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
Answer:

1. The Government of India is going on with the Nuclear Power Project of the Kundankulum.
2. The aim of the project is to generate nuclear power to meet the growing energy needs of the people.
3. The fisher folks of this area are protesting against the project on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
4. Hence the ideas on development are different for different people.
5. Development for one may not be the development for other.
6. Here the ideas on development of government is conflicting with the interests of the local people.

Question 9.
Read the following text and state your opinion on it.

Human Development Report

When we realise that even though the level of income is important, it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criteria but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Punjab, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita Income.

Answer:

1. The income is not the correct criteria to measure the level of development.
2. Most of the time it hides disparities.
3. So we begin to think of another criterion.
4. There could be a long list of criteria.
5. We selected some such as “health and education”.
6. Health and Education indicators were used to compare Punjab and Kerala.
7. Human Development Report was published by UNDP.
8. The countries were compared on the basis of the education levels of the people, health status and per capita income.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
If you get a job in afar off place, you would try to consider many factors, apart from income.
This could be facilities for your family, working atmosphere or opportunity to learn. In another case, a job may give you less pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of security. Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job security and also leave no time for your family. This will reduce your sense of security and freedom.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph, people give preference to income as well as facilities.
2. They also want to spend time with their families.
3. They need job security and freedom. It is not possible in all the cases.
4. Many workers from India are migrating even to foreign countries for getting work so as to earn something for their livelihoods.
5. Some people are working in cities like Hyderabad by keeping their families at their hometowns.
6. They are losing the opportunity of spending their time with their families. Their living conditions are also not good.
7. Many of them are leading sedentary life. In some cases pay is less but job is secure. In some other cases payment may be high but job security is not there.
8. Whatever it is, I am coming to the conclusion that there are many factors that affect livelihoods.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
When we looked at Individual aspirations and goals, we found that people not only think of better income but also have goals such as security, respect of others, equal treatment, freedom, etc. In mind. Similarly, when we think of a nation or a region, we may, besides average income, think of other equally important attributes.
Answer:

1. This paragraph is about the aspirations and goals of the individuals.
2. The people want their income and they want to be treated well.
3. Though the wages are well and good, they don’t want to be ill-treated.
4. Everyone in the society wants to live with dignity which our Constitution promises.
5. Many of the labourers are now looking towards prestige.
6. Some states in our country are getting more per capita income but they are lacking in providing other facilities to the people.
7. Nowadays schooling is very importing to its children.
8. For nations and states the literacy rate, net attendance rate, infant mortality rate are also considered in its development.
9. They have to provide schools, pollution-free atmosphere, unadulterated medicines, to its people for better living.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
In many parts of the country, girls’ education is still given less priority by parents compared to
boys’ education. While girls may study for a few classes, they may not complete their schooling.
A welcome trend in Himachal Pradesh is the lower gender bias. Himachali parents have ambitious educational goals for their girls, just as for their boys.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph two things are clearly mentioned that there is a gender bias with regard to giving education to boys and girls among the people of the country.
2. Only the Himachali Pradesh Government is concentrating on girl education.
3. My opinion on these two,issues is that the gender bias was there once in the society.
4. As there is a vast awareness in the parents they send their daughters to the schools in many
   places.
5. Even a rickshaw puller also wants to make his daughter study In a school.
6. He hopes his daughter becomes a professional.
7. The parents are interested to send their children to English medium schools Irrespective of their income and status.
8. It is a sensitive issue and it is to be taken seriously to bring awareness among people to make their daughters admitted in schools and the governments should consider the problems of girls in schools.
9. Sufficient toilets and other facilities are to be provided so as to enroll all the girls In schools.

Question 13.
Table: Read the following table and answer the following questions.
Some Comparative data of Selected States

state	IMR per 1000 (2006)	Literacy rate (%) {2011)	Net Attendance Rate (2006)
Punjab	42	77	76
Himachal Pradesh	36	84	90
Bihar	62	64	56

1.  What does the table tell us?
   Answer:
   The table tells us about some comparative data of selected states.
2. What are the three states compared here?
   Answer:
   The three states compared are Punjab, Himachal Pradesh and Bihar.
3. What does IMR mean?
   Answer:
   IMR means Infant Mortality Rate.
4. Which state ranks best in literacy rate?
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh ranks best in literacy rate with 84%.
5. What is the Net Attendance Rate of Bihar in 2006?
   Answer:
   The Net Attendance Rate of Bihar in 2006 is 56.
6. What is the position of Punjab in 2011 with regard to literacy rate?
   Answer:
   The position of Punjab in 2011 with regard to literacy rate is next to Himachal Pradesh.
7. What is literacy rate?
   Answer:
   Literacy rate is that the percentage of literate people in the 7 and above years age group.
8. Why is the number of children below the age of 6 not considered for counting of Net Atten¬dance Rate?
   Answer:
   The children below the age of 6 do not go to school.
9. Which state ranks first when we consider the above data ?
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh ranks first.
10. How do you say Bihar is an underdeveloped state ?
    Answer:
    Bihar has high infant mortality rate i.e., 62. It has less literacy rate and Net attendance rate i.e., 64 and 56 respectively. Hence we can say Bihar is a backward state.

Question 14.
Study the table given and answer the following questions.
Table: Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2013

Country	Per Capita Income in $	Life expectancy at birth (Years)	Average years of schooling	Expected years of schooling	Human Develop­ment Index (HDI) rank in the world
Sri Lanka	5170	75.1	9.3	12.7	92
India	3285	65.8	4.4	10.7	136
Pakistan	2566	65.7	4.9	7.3	146
Myanmar	1817	65.7	3.9	9.4	149
Bangladesh	1785	69.2	4.8	8.1	146
Nepal	1137	69.1	3.2	8.9	157

1. What is the table about?
   Answer:
   The table is about some data regarding India and its neighboring countries for 2013.
2. What is the life expectancy at birth in India?
   Answer:
   The life expectancy at birth in India is 65.8 years.
3. What components are considered in this table?
   Answer:
   The components considered in the table are per capita income, life expectancy at birth, aver¬age years of schooling, expected years of schooling and HDI.
4. Which country ranks best in HDI?
   Answer:
   Sri Lanka ranks best in HDI with 92nd rank.
5. Which country is lacking in expected years of schooling?
   Answer:
   Pakistan is lacking in expected years of schooling.
6. Per capita income is shown in some symbol. What does it mean?
   Answer:
   The symbol given means dollar.
7. Which country has the lowest average years of schooling?
   Answer:
   Nepal has the lowest average years of schooling.
8. What is the per capita income of India ?
   Answer:
   The per capita income of India is $ 3,285.
9. What is the lowest life expectancy at birth in the table?
   Answer:
   65.7 years is the lowest life expectancy at birth in the table.
10. What is the difference between expected years of schooling and average years of schooling
    for India?
    Answer:
    The difference between expected years of schooling and average years of schooling for India is 6.3 years.

Question 15.
By studying the given map answer the following questions.

1. Name two countries which have low income.
   Answer:
   Zimbabwe and Kenya are the two countries with low income.
2. Which two countries have very high income?
   Answer:
   USA and Canada are the two countries which have very high income.
3. Name two countries with high income.
   Answer:
   Brazil and Russia are the two countries with high income.
4. Which two countries have medium income?
   Answer:
   India and Egypt are the two countries which have medium income.

Question 16.
Prepare a pamphlet on Promoting Girl Education.
Answer:

PROMOTING GIRL EDUCATION

Girls and boys in the society are equal but many of the parents give less importance to girl education compared to boys. This treatment of girls and boys in different ways is called gender bias. Some parents feel that boy is income and girl is expenditure. After marriage also the in-law’s family of the bride normally gives very less importance to her education. This is the wrong notion that the people have. It is to be removed.
The notion is to be changed. Many women have come forward to discharge their duties in political, educational and administrative areas. They are proving that they can do everything. In education also many girls are getting good results and ranks. Their number in civil services and other competitive examinations is rapidly increasing. If a girl is educated, she can manage her family herself well.
She can educate her children.
Many women now are district collectors or police officers and administrative officers and a few banks are being run under the leadership of female authorities. Many departments are under their control. For many years it has been a custom that the women have to work at kitchen but it is disproved, if they were given choice to do something they can do it as we expected.
All the parents should send their daughters to schools to study. They should be given an opportunity to show their intellect. All the parents should understand that their notion is to be
changed and think positively about their daughters’ future.

Question 17.
Write a paragraph after reading the table.
Answer:
Comparison of two countries

Name of the country	Monthly incomes of citizens in 2014 (in Rupees)
Country A	1	II	III	IV	V	Average
	9,500	10500	9,800	10000	10200	10,000
Country B	500	500	500	500	48000	10,000

According to this table in the country ‘A’, all the five persons are earning mostly equal monthly income. In the country ‘B’ the first four persons are earning only five hundred each but the fifth person is earning forty eight thousand rupees per month. If you are the fifth one it is OK but if you are one among the first four it will be worst to live in. If we consider the average, it will be the same as ten thousand per person per month. In these two countries the country A has more equitable distribution of income.
In many countries more income is there with a few persons. Many people in the countries are poor. They don’t have minimum amount of income for their livelihoods. In the above table the average income of the two countries is the same but in B it is not equally distributed. The Gross Domestic Product is to be distributed among the people of the country that means the poor also have to get their share in the country. The gap between the poor and the rich is to be removed and so the society of equality emerged.

Question 18.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu.
   Answer:
   Kudankulam
2. Schooling Revolution took place in the state.
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh
3. Draw the Indian standard time.
   Answer:
   82 1/2° E longitude.
4. Sahyadri Range.
5. Islands in Bay of Bengal.
   Answer:
   Andoman & Nicobar
6. Locate any one of Hill station.
   Answer:
   Nainital
7. River which is flowing through a rift valley.
   Answer:
   Narmada
8. The Hill Station located near Nilgiris.
   Answer:
   Ooty
9. The largest river in South India.
   Answer:
   Godavari
10. The largest river in India.
    Answer:
    Ganga

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Respiration – The Energy Releasing System Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 2nd Lesson Respiration – The Energy Releasing System

10th Class Biology 2nd Lesson Respiration – The Energy Releasing System Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Distinguish between
(a) Inspiration and Expiration
(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
(c) Respiration and Combustion
(d) Photosynthesis and Respiration
Answer:
(a) Inspiration and Expiration:

Inspiration	Expiration
1. It is also called inhalation.	1. It is also called exhalation.
2. The air or water is taken into the respiratory organ.	2. The air or water is sent out of the respiratory organ.
3. It is an active process.	3. It is a passive process.
4. Rib cage moves forward and outward.	4. Rib cage moves downward and inward.
5. Diaphragm contracts and becomes flattened.	5. Diaphragm relaxes and becomes original dome shaped.
6. Increase in volume of thoracic cavity.	6. Decrease in volume of thoracic cavity.
7. Air pressure in lungs is less than the atmospheric pressure.	7. Air pressure in lungs is greater than the atmospheric pressure.

(b) Aerobic respiration and Anaerobic respiration:
(OR)
Respiration is energy-producing process in the organisms. It takes place both in the presence and absence of oxygen. Laxmi said there are some differences between the two processes. How do you support her?
Answer:

Aerobic respiration	Anaerobic respiration
1. It takes place in the presence of oxygen.	1. It takes place in the absence of oxygen.
2. In aerobic respiration, complete oxidation of glucose takes place.	2. In anaerobic respiration, the glucose molecule is incompletely oxidised.
3. End products are CO2 and water.	3. End products are either ethyl alcohol or lactic acid and CO2.
4. Lot of energy is liberated (38 ATP).	4. Relatively small energy is liberated (2 ATP).
5. It occurs in plant’s and animal’s cells.	5. Occurs in many anaerobic bacteria and human muscle cells.
6.	6.
7. It has two stages – Glycolysis and Krebs cycle.	7. It has two stages – Glycolysis and Fermentation.

(c) Respiration and Combustion:
(OR)
Even though both are oxidation processes, combustion and respiration are different in many aspects. Explain those differences.
(OR)
Combustion and respiration are oxidative processes but still there are differences between them. What are they?
(OR)
Write the differences between respiration and combustion.
Answer:

Respiration	Combustion
1. It occurs in living cells.	1. It is non – cellular.
2. Oxidation of food materials especially glucose to carbon dioxide and water is called respiration.	2. When sugar burns CO2 and water are produced and energy is released as heat. This process is called combustion.
3. Oxidation of sugar molecules occurs at the body temperature of an organism.	3. Heat is to be supplied for the sugar molecule to burn.
4. The energy is released in several stages.	4. The energy is released at once as heat.
5. Several intermediate substances are formed.	5. No intermediate substances are formed.
6. Enzymes are required for oxidation.	6. Enzymes are not required for combustion.
7. Respiration occurs in the presence of water.	7. Combustion occurs in the absence of water.
8. It is a controlled process.	8. It is an uncontrolled process.
9. Energy is stored in ATP in the body.	9. Energy is not stored and is released into the atmosphere.

(d) Photosynthesis and Respiration:

Photosynthesis	Respiration
1. Occurs only in all plants and photo­synthetic bacteria.	1. Occurs in all living organisms.
2. Takes place in the presence of sunlight.	2. Takes place throughout day and night.
3. A plant can survive without performing photosynthesis for few days.	3. No organism can survive without respiration for few minutes even.
4. In plants, only few cells perform photosynthesis.	4. All living cells in an organism perform this process.
5. Raw materials are C02 and water.	5. Uses carbohydrates and oxygen.
6. Oxygen is liberated.	6. Carbon dioxide is released.
7. It occurs in chloroplast.	7. It takes place in cytoplasm and mitochondria.
8. Adds weight to the organism.	8. Decrease weight of the organism.
9. It is an anabolic process.	9. It is a catabolic process.
10.	10.

Question 2.
State two similarities between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Similarities between aerobic and anaerobic respiration:

1. Both are catabolic processes.
2. Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration takes place in all cells.
3. Energy is released in both the processes.
4. CO₂ is the end product of both processes.
5. First stage of both respiration is glycolysis.
6. Respiratory substances in both processes are glucose, fatty acids and amino acids.

Question 3.
Food sometimes enters the wind pipe and causes choking. How does it happen?
Answer:

1. Pharynx is the common passage of both air and food.
2. From here air enters into trachea and food enters into oesophagus.
3. Pharynx is connected to larynx through glottis a slit like opening.
4. A cartilagenous flap called EPIGLOTTIS act as a lid over glottis and prevents food from entering into trachea during swallowing.
5. Any food particles enters the trachea it causes chocking.
6. Sometimes the food particles are forced back by cough.

Question 4.
Why does the rate of breathing increase while walking uphill at a normal pace in the mountains? Give two reasons.
Answer:
The rate of breathing increases while walking uphill at a normal pace in the mountains.

1. It is because as we go up the hill above sea level the concentration of oxygen is greatly reduced. So we have to breathe more to get required amount of oxygen.
2. While walking uphill a lot of oxygen is used by our body to release energy from glucose.
3. This leads to lack of oxygen in the cells.
4. We take in oxygen when we breathe.
5. Hence to increase the amount of oxygen intake there is an increase in breathing rate during walking uphill.

Question 5.
Air leaves the tiny sacs in the lungs to pass into capillaries. What modification is needed in the statement?
Answer:

1. Gaseous exchange takes place within the lungs by diffusion from the alveoli to blood capillaries and vice versa.
2. The carbondioxide in the blood is exchanged for oxygen in alveoli.
3. This sentence may be modified as “Air that contains oxygen reaches the tiny sacs in the lungs to pass into capillaries.

Question 6.
Plants photosynthesize during daytime and respire during the night. Do you agree to this statement? Why? Why not?
Answer:

1. No, I do not agree with this statement. Plants photosynthesize during daytime only and respire during the daytime as well as night time also.
2. During daytime when photosynthesis occurs in the presence of sunlight. Oxygen is produced. The leaves use some of this oxygen for respiration and the rest diffuses into air.
3. During daytime CO₂ produced by respiration is all used up in photosynthesis by leaves.
4. At night time no photosynthesis occurs and oxygen diffuses into leaves to carryout respiration.

Question 7.
Why does a deep sea diver carry oxygen cylinder on his/her back?
Answer:

1. When we go deep into the sea, the oxygen level decreases. Oxygen is in dissolved state in water.
2. Humans are adapted for utilizing oxygen in gaseous state. They cannot use dissolved oxygen for breathing.
3. Only aquatic animals like fish can utilize the dissolved oxygen for breathing using gills.
4. Human beings have lungs for respiration. Therefore, sea divers have to carry oxygen cylinders in their back so as to receive oxygen.
5. If they do not carry them, they do not get oxygen and there is a chance even to die.

Question 8.
How are alveoli designed to maximise the exchange of gases?
Answer:
The human lungs have been designed to maximise the exchange of gases as follows.

1. The interior of lung is divided into millions of small chambers called alveoli.
2. The presence of millions of alveoli in the lungs provide a very large surface area.
3. If all alveoli of our lungs are spread out they will cover an area of nearly 160 m².
4. Availability of large surface area maximises the exchange of gases.

Question 9.
Where will the release of energy from the glucose in respiration take place? Mala writes lungs, while Jiya writes muscles. Who is correct and why?
Answer:

1. Respiration is the process of releasing energy from the breakdown of glucose.
2. Respiration takes place in every living cell, all the time.
3. All cells need to respire in order to produce the energy that they require.
4. During respiration the release of energy from the glucose takes place in muscles but not in lungs.
5. So Jiya is correct. The energy is released from the muscle cells during respiration. Only gaseous exchange takes place in lungs.

Question 10.
What is the role of epiglottis and diaphragm in respiration?
Answer:
Epiglottis:

1. Epiglottis, a flap like muscular valve controls movement of air and food towards their respective passages.
2. Epiglottis is partly closed when we swallow food and it opens more widely when we take a breath and air enters the lungs.
3. Epiglottis allows air pass through the larynx and the respiratory system.
   

Diaphragm :

1. The diaphragm in the respiratory system is the dome shaped sheet of muscle that separates the chest from the abdomen.
2. When the diaphragm contracts during inhalation it flattens out a bit. This results in the enlargement of the volume of the chest cavity.
3. This reduces the pressure in the lungs and air enters into lungs from outside the body.
4. During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and assumes its dome shape. This change increases the pressure on the lungs and squeezes the air through the nose to the atmosphere.
   

Question 11.
How does gaseous exchange take place at blood level?
Answer:

1. Lungs are made up of several thousands of small chambers called alveoli.
2. Within the alveoli, exchange of gases take place between the gases inside the alveoli and blood.
3. Blood arriving in the alveoli has higher CO₂ concentration which is produced during respiration by the body cells.
4. At the same time air in the alveoli has a much lower concentration of CO₂ and this allows the diffusion of CO₂ out of the blood and to alveolar air.
5. Similarly blood arriving in the alveoli has a lower oxygen concentration while air in the alveoli has a higher oxygen concentration.
6. Therefore oxygen moves into the blood by diffusion.
   

Question 12.
Explain the mechanism of gaseous exchange at bronchiole level.
Answer:

1. the trachea (wind pipe) is divided into two tubes called BRONCHI. As there are two lungs each bronchus (singular) enters the lungs on the same side.
2. In the lung, the bronchus divides into smaller and smaller branches called BRONCHIOLES which enters into each alveoli.
3. When oxygen from outside reaches the alveoli through bronchioles and the carbondioxide from alveoli moves out.
4. The inhaled air from outside enters into bronchioles through nostrils → nasal cavities → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchus.
5. The exhaled air from alveoli enters bronchioles → pharynx → nasal cavities → nostrils → outside.
   

Question 13.
After a vigorous exercise or work we feel pain in muscles. What is the relationship between pain and respiration?
Answer:

1. We obtain energy by oxidation of glucose molecule.
2. In the absence of oxygen (anaerobic respiration) glucose is converted to latic acid.
3. During vigorous exercise oxygen gets used up faster in the muscle cells that can be supplied by blood.
4. When oxygen supply is inadequate the muscles use energy released during the anaerobic breakdown of glucose.
5. The anaerobic respiration by muscles bring about partial breakdown of glucose to form lactic acid.
6. The accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles causes muscular pains or cramps.

Question 14.
Raju said, “Stems also respire along with leaves in plants”. Can you support this statement? Give your reasons.
Answer:
Yes. I support the statement of Raju that stems also respire along with leaves in plants.
The reasons are

1. The stems of herbaceous plants have stomata.
2. So the exchange of respiratory gases in the stems of herbaceous plants takes place through stomata.
3. The oxygen from air diffuses into the stem through stomata and reaches all the cells for respiration.
4. The carbon dioxide released during respiration diffuses out into the air through the stomata.
5. In woody stems the bark has lenticels for gaseous exchange. Through lenticels, oxygen diffuses in and carbon dioxide diffuses out into the air.
   

Question 15.
What happens if diaphragm is not there in the body?
Answer:

1. The lungs cannot draw in air or push it out by themselves. The chest wall muscles and the diaphragm helps the lungs in moving air into and out of them.
2. If diaphragm is not there in the body, we would not be able to breathe.
3. The diaphragm is the major muscle in the process of respiration.
4. It separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities.
5. In the absence of diaphragm, the relaxation and contraction of the chest wall muscles do not take place and thereby inspiration and expiration become difficult that leads to death of the person.

Question 16.
If you have a chance to meet pulmonologist, what questions are you going to ask about pulmonary respiration?
Answer:
If I have a chance to meet pulmonologist, I would like to ask the following questions:

1. What is pulmonary respiration?
2. What is the organ involved in pulmonary respiration?
3. What is the name of blood vessel that brings deoxygenated blood to lungs?
4. What is the name of the blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
5. Out of the two lungs which one is larger than the other?
6. What type of diagnostic test will be performed to assess the function of lungs?
7. What is pulmonary edema? How does it occur?
8. Can all the diseases of the lungs be cured permanently?

Question 17.
What procedure do you follow to understand anaerobic respiration in your school laboratory?
(OR) (Lab Activity)
Write the procedure and observations of the experiment which you have conducted in your laboratory to prove that CO₂ and heat are evolved during anaerobic respiration by using yeast.
(OR)
How do you prove that carbon dioxide is released during anaerobic respiration?
(OR)
How do yeast cells convert glucose solution to CO₂ and ethyl alcohol?
Answer:
Aim : To prove that CO₂ is released during anaerobic respiration.
Apparatus: Thermos flask, splitted corks, thermometer, wash bottle, glass tubes, liquid
paraffin, glucose solution, yeast cells, bicarbonate solution.
Procedure:

1. Remove dissolved oxygen from glucose solution by boiling it for a minute and then cooling it without shaking.
2. Now add some yeast to the glucose solution and fix a two-holed rubber stopper to the flask.
3. The supply of oxygen from the air can be cut off by pouring a 1cm layer of liquid paraffin into the mixture through the holes.
   
4. Insert one end of the thermometer into the thermos flask. See the mercury bulb of thermometer keep inside the solution.
5. Arrange for any gas produced by the yeast to escape through a wash bottle containing bicarbonate solution or lime water as shown in the figure.
6. Add a few drops of diazine green (Janus Green B) solution to the yeast suspension before you pour liquid paraffin over it.
7. The blue diazine green solution turns pink when oxygen is in short supply around it.
8. Warm the apparatus to about 37° F in order to speed up the test.
9. Keep the apparatus undisturbed for one or two days.

Observations :

1. After two days it can be observed that lime-water of the wash bottle turns into milky white precipitate.
2. Increase in temperature in thermometer.
3. Alcohol smell given off from the flask.

Result: These observations indicate that yeast cells respire anaerobically converting glucose solution into CO₂, ethyl alcohol and release heat energy.

Question 18.
What are your observations in the combustion of sugar activity?
Answer:
Observations in the combustion of sugar:

1. When sugar is heated, first it melts, chars and later burns producing flames.
2. When sugar is combusted, carbon dioxide and water are produced.
3. Energy is also released in the form of heat and it released at once.
4. We cannot control the combustion of sugar.
5. Intermediate products are not formed.
6. We can combust sugar in the absence of water and enzymes.
7. When combustion of sugar, heat energy is released into the atmosphere and we cannot store it for further use.

Question 19.
Collect information about cutaneous respiration in frog. Prepare a note and display them in your classroom.
(OR)
How does frog respire with the help of skin?
Answer:

1. Respiration through skin is called cutaneous respiration.
2. In frog, skin is an additional or secondary or accessory respiratory organ.
   
3. Skin is a very important respiratory organ in both on land and water.
4. One-third of the total oxygen taken up by frog is through the skin.
5. Frog also keeps its skin moist. Frog skin has a large number of mucous glands which secrete mucous onto the surface of the skin.
6. The mucous layer retains water and reduces evaporation of water from body.
7. To keep the skin wet and moist frogs jump into water very frequently.
8. Frog skin is supplied with a large number of blood vessels which help in absorbing oxygen from the water.
9. The carbon dioxide produced during to respiration, diffuses out into the water through the blood vessels present in the skin of the frog.

Question 20.
Collect information about respiratory diseases (because of pollution, tobacco) .and discuss with your classmates.
Answer:
Respiratory diseases because of pollution:

1. Irritation of eyes, nose, mouth and throat.
2. Headaches and dizziness.
3. Respiratory symptoms such as coughing and running nose.
4. Respiratory and lung diseases including
   a) Asthma attacks
   b) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
   c) Reduced lung function
   d) Pulmonary cancer caused by a series of carcinogen chemicals that through inhalation
   e) Mesothelioma: A particular type of lung cancer, usually associated with expo¬sure to asbestos (it usually occurs 20 – 30 years after the initial exposure)
   f) Pneumonia: Infection of lungs caused by bacteria.
   g) Bronchitis: It is inflammation or swelling of bronchial tubes.
   h) Emphysema: It is a lung condition in which tiny air sacs in lungs alveoli fill up with water.

Respiratory diseases due to tobacco :

1. Chronic bronchitis: A long term inflammation of the bronchi is characterized by coughing.
2. Lung cancer: An abnormal continuous multiplication of cells that can result in tumors in the lining of the bronchi.
3. Emphysema: A chronic lung condition that affects the air sacs in the lungs characterized by shortness of breath, coughing, fatigue, sleep and heart problems.

Question 21.
What is the pathway taken by air in the respiratory system? Illustrate with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
The path way taken by air in the respiratory system:
Nostrils → Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchus → Bronchioles → Alveolus → Blood.

1. Nostrils : Air enters the body through the nostrils.
2. Nasal cavity: Air is filtered and its temperature is also brought close to that of the body.
3. Pharynx: It is the junction of respiratory and digestive system. Epiglottis – a flap like muscular valve controls movement of air and food towards their respective passages.
4. Larynx: Also called voice box. This stiff box contains vocal cords. When air passes out of the lungs and over vocal cords, it causes them to vibrate. This produces sounds on the basis of our speech, song etc.
5. Trachea: This is also called wind pipe. It channels air to lungs.
6. Bronchi: Trachea at it’s lower end divides into two bronchi one leading to each lung.
7. Bronchioles: The bronchi further divided into smaller and smaller branches called bronchioles.
8. Alveoli: Clusters of air sacs called alveoli in the lungs which are very small and numerous. The gaseous exchange takes place here as blood capillaries take up oxygen and expel CO₂.
9. Blood: It carries oxygen, to each and every cell of the body and collects CO₂ from them.
   

Question 22.
Draw a block diagram showing events in respiration. Write what you understood about cellular respiration.
Answer:
Events in respiration :

Cellular respiration :

1. All living cells must carry out cellular respiration.
2. Oxidation of glucose of fatty acids releasing energy takes place in cells, hence it is called cellular respiration.
3. It can be in the presence of oxygen that is aerobic respiration or in its absence that is anaerobic respiration (fermentation).
4. Cellular respiration in prokaryotic cells like that of bacteria occurs within the cytoplasm.
5. In Eukaryotic cells cytoplasm and mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration.
6. The energy released in cellular respiration is stored in a special compound called ATP.
7. ATP is utilised for carrying out other functions in the cell.

Question 23.
How do you appreciate the mechanism of respiration in our body?
Answer:

1. Respiration is essential for life because it provides energy for carrying out all the life processes which are necessary to keep the organism alive.
2. The energy that is obtained from respiration is used to build the organism by way of cell growth, reproduction and cell repair, etc.
3. All systems in living beings need energy to survive.
4. Respiration helps to expel out the toxic carbon dioxide out of the cells. This CO₂ will be utilised by the plants to produce food materials through the process of photosynthesis.
5. The respiratory system goes into operation from the movement of our birth and works without ever stopping as long as we live our breath continues.
6. During exhalation, the vocal cords in the larynx vibrate to produce sounds and help in speaking as we like.

Question 24.
Prepare an article on anaerobic respiration to present school symposium.
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration :

1. Respiration that occurs without oxygen is known as anaerobic respiration.
2. It is present in primitive organisms and muscular cells in higher animals.
3. Alcohol, CO₂ and H₂O are end products in this process.
4. 

Merits:

1. In the absence of oxygen it is good process.
2. Mechanism is simple.
3. Suitable to microorganisms

Demerits:

1. Provides less energy
2. Not suitable to higher animals

Question 25.
Prepare a cartoon on discussion between haemoglobin and chlorophyll about respiration.
Answer:
Discussion between haemoglobin and chlorophyll about respiration:

Haemoglobin: Hello good morning chlorophyll. How are you?

Chlorophyll: Very good morning haemoglobin. I am fine.

Haemoglobin: I am also doing well. Let me know something about you.

Chlorophyll: I am a green coloured pigment present in leaves of plants.

Haemoglobin: How many types of chlorophylls are there ?

Chlorophyll: We are four types i.e., chlorophyll – a, chlorophyll – b, chlorophyll – c and chlorophyll – d.

Haemoglobin: May I know your job in leaves?

Chlorophyll: Yes. Why not? I am an essential factor required to prepare food through the process of photosynthesis in plants.

Haemoglobin: Oh! You are participating in the process of preparing food materials by green plants.

Chlorophyll: Now tell me about your presence.

Haemoglobin: I am present only in animal cells. That too in the red blood cells of the blood. The red colour of the blood is due to my presence.

Chlorophyll: Then tell me about your function in respiration?

Haemoglobin: During respiration, I carry oxygen to the cells in the body tissues.

Chlorophyll: How are you able to do this?

Haemoglobin: I have an oxygen binding element iron. It binds oxygen on four corners of it. I form oxy-haemoglobin with oxygen in the lungs.

Chlorophyll: What happens to the digested food in the cells?

Haemoglobin: In cells, oxygen breakdown the glucose molecule into C02 and H20 releasing large amount of energy. Around 38 ATP molecules are produced.

Chlorophyll: What is the use of this energy?

Haemoglobin: This energy is utilised by the cell to carry other functions.

Chlorophyll: Thank you haemoglobin. You have taught me everything about respiration. In our next meeting we will discuss another topic.

Haemoglobin: Thank you chlorophyll for your interest and patience.

Fill in the blanks.

1. Exhaled air contains ———– and ———–.
2. A flap like muscular valve controls movement of air and food is ———–.
3. Energy currency of the cell is called ———–.
4. Lenticels are the respiratory organs that exist in ———– part of the plant.
5. Mangrove trees respire with their ———–.

Answer:

1. carbon dioxide, water vapour
2. Epiglottis
3. ATP (Adenosine Tri Phosphate)
4. stem
5. aerial roots

Choose the correct answer.

6. We will find vocal cords in [ ]
A) Larynx
B) Pharynx
C) Nasal cavity
D) Trachea
Answer: A

7. Cluster of air sacs in lungs are called [ ]
A) Alveoli
B) Bronchi
Answer: A

8. Which of the following is correct ? [ ]
i) The diaphragm contracts – volume of chest cavity increased
ii) The diaphragm contracts – volume of chest cavity decreased
iii) The diaphragm expands – volume of chest cavity increased
iv) The diaphragm expands – volume of chest cavity decreased
A) i B) i and ii C) ii and iii D) iv
Answer: A

9. Respiration is a catabolic process because of [ ]
A) Breakdown of complex food molecules
B) Conversion of light energy
C) Synthesis of chemical energy
D) Energy storage
Answer: A

10. Energy is stored in [ ]
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Ribosomes
D) Cell wall
Answer: B

10th Class Biology 2nd Lesson Respiration – The Energy Releasing System

Activity – 1

How do you test the presence of water vapour and heat in the exhaled air?
Answer:

1. Keep your palm around an inch away from your nose.
2. Feel you breathing out.
3. Do not remove your palm until you have finished the activity.
4. Breathe steadily for 1 – 2 minutes.
5. Now take a piece of any fruit.
6. Chew and before swallowing it keep the fingers of the other palm on your neck, now swallow it.

Questions:

1. What did you notice? What happens to your breath as you try to swallow?
   Answer:
   We cannot swallow while breathing. We usually stop breathing when we swallow food.
2. What is helping you to swallow without deflecting it to the windpipe?
   Answer:
   Epiglottis is helping me to swallow without deflecting food to the windpipe.

Activity – 2
Write an experiment to observe changes during combustion of sugar.
(OR)
What are your observations in combustion of sugar activity.
Answer:
Aim: To observe changes during combustion of sugar.
Apparatus: Wooden stand, test tubes, rubber stopper, delivery tube, glucose or sucrose powder, lime water, spirit lamp.
Procedure:

1. Take a small amount of glucose in a small test tube.
2. Arrange the apparatus as shown in the figure.
3. Heat the test tube until the glucose catches fire.
   

Observations :

1. In the initial stage the glucose becomes liquid.
2. Later it turns to black colour after catching fire.
3. In this process carbon dioxide and water are produced.
4. Energy is released as heat.
5. The carbon dioxide released changes lime water to milky white.

Conclusion:

1. From this experiment, we can conclude that carbon dioxide, water and heat are produced during combustion of glucose in the laboratory.
2. The carbon dioxide changes lime water to milky white in nature.

Activity – 3

How can you prove that carbon dioxide is evolved during respiration?
(OR)
Write the experimental procedure and draw the arrangement of apparatus to show that CO₂ is evoloved in respiration.
To understand that CO₂ is evolved during respiration, what experiment you have performed in your laboratory? Explain the procedure.
(OR)
Write an experiment to prove that CO₂ is released during respiration.
Answer:
Aim: To prove that CO₂ is released during aerobic respiration.
Apparatus: Two wide mouthed plastic or glass bottles, germinating seeds, dry seeds, two small injection bottles or beakers with lime water.

1. Take two wide mouthed glass bottles.
2. Keep germinating bengal gram seeds in one bottle and dry seeds in another bottle.
3. Keep two small beakers with lime water in each glass bottles.
4. Close the glass bottles tightly.
5. Keep both the sets undisturbed for one or two days.
   

Observation:

1. After two days it can be observed that lime water of the beaker placed in the bottle containing germinating seeds turns into milky white.
2. And the lime water kept in the glass bottle containing dry seeds do not change its colour.
   Result: It indicates that germinating seeds liberated carbon dioxide which turns lime
   water into milky white.

Activity – 4

Explain the procedure you have adopted in your school to prove that heat is liberated during respiration. What result we will get, if you perform this experiment with dry seeds?
(OR)
Write the procedure you have followed to observe “heat is evolved during respiration” in your laboratory. What precautions did you take during the activity?
Answer:
Aim: To prove that heat is liberated during respiration.
Apparatus: Two Thermos flasks, two thermometers, two rubber corks, dry seeds, germinating seeds.
Procedure:

1. Take a handful of moong or bazra seeds.
2. Soak the seeds in water a day before experiment.
3. Keep these soaked seeds in a cloth pouch and tie with a string tightly.
4. Next day collect the sprouts / germinated seeds from the pouch in a thermos flask and take dry seeds in another thermos flask.
5. Remove the lid and prepare a cork through which you can bore a hole to insert thermometers into two flasks in such a way that the bulb of the thermometer should dip into the germinating and dry seeds.
6. Close the thermos flasks with tight fitting rubber corks.
7. Record the initial temperature in both the flasks and record it for every two hours for at least 24 hours.
   

Observation: Constant increase in the temperature is observed in thermometer placed in the germinating seeds.
Result: Hence it is proved that germinated seeds respire and liberate heat which is responsible for increase in the temperature.
Questions:

1. Make a graph by using your observations.
   Answer:
   
2. Is there any increase in temperature?
   Answer:
   Yes, there is increase in temperature.
3. Does the temperature increase steadily or does it abruptly increase at a time of the day?
   Answer:
   The temperature in the thermometer increases steadily.
4. Where does the heat come from?
   Answer:
   The sprouting or germinating seeds respire and liberate heat.

10th Class Biology 2nd Lesson Respiration – The Energy Releasing System InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 25

Question 1.
Can it be said that Priestly’s experiment helped us to find out more about composition of air? How?
Answer:
Yes, Priestly’s experiments helped to find out the composition of air when burning of charcoal, carbon dioxide is produced which is the one of the composition of air done by Lavoisier.
Another experiment with phosphorus done by Lavoisier was cleared that a gas which is the respirable air that is helped in burning was oxygen also a component of air.
Lavoisier proved experimentally that carbon dioxide and oxygen were the components of air. Lavoisier confirmed the experiments of Priestly about the gases present in the air.

Question 2.
What gas was produced by combustion according to Lavoisier?
Answer:
The gas produced by combustion is carbon dioxide.

Question 3.
What did Lavoisier find out about air from his experiments?
Answer:
A fixed air carbon dioxide and respirable air oxygen which helped in burning were liberated during his experiments.

Question 4.
What conclusion can be drawn from Lavoisier’s experiments?
A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are the compositions of air.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 26

Question 5.
Which gas do you think is Lavoisier talking about when he says chalky acid gas?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 6.
Which gas according to Lavoisier is respirable air?
Answer:
Oxygen.

Question 7.
What steps in the process of respiration does Lavoisier mention as an inference of his experiments?
Answer:
Lavoisier mentioned that there were two steps in the respiration.
1. Inspiration: Breathing oxygen.
2. Expiration: Eliminating carbon dioxide from lungs.

Question 8.
It is a common observation that our breath is warmer than the air around us ; does respiration have anything to do with this?
Answer:
Our exhaled air is warmer than the air around us because heat is liberated during respiration.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 27

Question 9.
What does this experiment indicate?
Answer:
This experiment indicates that carbon dioxide is liberated during respiration.

Question 10.
Which gas turns lime water milky?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 11.
Which gas do you think might be present in greater quantities in the air we breathe out as compared to air around us?
Answer:
Nitrogen (78%) is present in greater quantities in the air.

Question 12.
We are also aware of the fact that water vapour deposits on a mirror if we breathe out on it; where does this water vapour come from in Exhaled air?
Answer:
Water vapour is liberated during respiration.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 29

Question 13.
Why are we advised not to talk while eating food?
Answer:

1. When we are eating food, epiglottis helps to avoid food entering into trachea.
2. If we talk while we eat food, there is a chance of food entering into trachea and causes choking.
3. As a result irritation and inflammation takes place in the respiratory tract.
4. So we are advised not to talk while eating.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 30

Question 14.
What is the role of diaphragm and ribs in respiration? Are both active in man and woman?
Answer:

1. Diaphragm and ribs are helpful the chest cavity to increase or decrease the volume for inspiration and expiration in respiration.
2. Diaphragm plays a major role in men and ribs play a major role in mechanism of respiration.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 31

Question 15.
What can be concluded from this?
Answer:
All movements of breathing is controlled by nerves leading from the brain.

Question 16.
What happens during the process of breathing?
Answer:
During the process of breathing, the patterns of breathing show a great range for they are coordinated with moment by moment needs of the body for supply of oxygen and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 17.
Which gas needs to be removed from our body during exhalation? Where does the extra amount of gas come from?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide needs to be removed during exhalation. The extra amount of gas comes from the breakdown of glucose to release energy in the mitochondria. Carbon dioxide gas is released here.

Question 18.
What is the composition of inhaled air?
Answer:
Inhaled air contains oxygen -21%, C09 – 0.03%, Nitrogen – 78%.

Question 19.
When exhaled air is compared with inhaled air, is there any difference in composition?
Answer:
Yes, there is a difference between inhaled air and exhaled air.
The difference is

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 32

Question 20.
Why does the amount of oxygen vary between exhaled and inhaled air?
Answer:
Because some amount of oxygen will be utilised during cellular respiration in the body. Hence the difference in amount of oxygen occurs.

Question 21.
What has raised the percentage of carbon dioxide in exhaled air?
Answer:
CO₂ is released from all the cells in the body in respiration and is added to the exhaled air.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 34

Question 22.
Do cells of alveoli or lungs also require oxygen to carry out cellular respiration? Why / Why not?
Answer:

1. Alveoli are made of squamous epithelium tissue which is very thin and elastic
2. Alveoli are so thin that oxygen can pass from air-filled alveoli to R.B.C inside the vessels.
3. Simple squamous epithelial cells function as mediators of filtration and diffusion. As these cells are living tissue they also need oxygen.
4. This is done through the exchange of gases in the alveoli.

Question 23.
After undergoing strenuous exercise we feel pain in muscles, does adequate oxygen reach the muscles?
Answer:
No. Adequate oxygen does not reach the muscles.

Question 24.
What is being formed in the muscles?
Answer:
Lactic acid.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 42

Question 25.
In which set does the colour change faster? Why?
Answer:
In the set which has germinating seeds the colour changes faster. Because CO₂ is formed faster in aerobic respiration.

Think and Discuss

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 29

Question 1.
What will happen if the respiratory tract is not moist?
Answer:

1. If the respiratory tract is not moist the dirt particles in the inhaled air will not be removed from air in the nasal cavities and reaches lungs and create problems to lungs.
2. The temperature of the inhaled air is brought close to that of the body for the smooth passage in the respiratory tract. If it is dry, it is not possible.
3. If the surface dries out, gas exchange will happen at a very reduced rate since fast moving gaseous oxygen molecules do not efficiently cross the alveoli membrane.
4. The reduced gas exchange is most likely not enough to support blood oxygenation for vital functions of the body.
5. Hence respiratory tract should be moist for smooth exchange of gases.

Question 2.
Are both lungs similar in size?
Answer:
No. Right lung is slightly bigger than left lung.

Question 3.
Why are alveoli so small and uncountable in number?
Answer:

1. The pouch-like air sacs at the ends of the smallest bronchioles are called alveoli.
2. The walls of the alveolus are very thin and they are surrounded by very thin blood capillaries.
3. It is in the alveoli that gaseous exchange takes place.
4. There are millions of alveoli in the lungs. The presence of millions of alveoli in the lungs provides a very large area for the exchange of gases.
5. And the availability of large surface area maximises the exchanges of gases.

 

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 11 Food Security.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 11th Lesson Food Security

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the two ways which you would suggest for the eradication of malnutrition among the children?
Answer:
My suggestions:

1. Sufficient food should be given to children.
2. Children should be given nutritious food with low cost.

Question 2.
What is the active role of the judiciary in implementing food security in India? How is this role useful to children?
Answer:
In recent time, the Indian Judiciary also has become pro-active in ensuring food security. Through judicial verdict on court cases filed by non-governmental organizations, the Supreme Court directed all the state governments and central government to provide Mid-day-meals to all the young children studying in schools. The court also set up monitoring mechanisms and provided suggestions for better Implementation.

Question 3.
What is meant by Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
Answer:

1. MSP: Minimum Support Price is a form of market intervention by the Govern¬ment of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fail in farm prices.
2. With this price the government procures food grains through the FCI.

Question 4.
Give any two examples for ‘Nutricereals.
Answer:
Examples for the Nutri-cereals are

1. Jowar,
2. Ragi,
3. Bajra.

Question 5.
Give any two examples, which give vitamins.
Answer:
Fruits, Leafy vegetables, sprouts, unpolished rice, etc.

Question 6.
Expand the term F.C.I.
Answer:
Food Corporation of India.

Question 7.
What is the reason for providing mid-day meals in government schools?
Answer:

1. To increase the literacy rate in India and enroll more children in schools.
2. To provide one meal for all the poor young children studying in government schools.

Question 8.
Write any two reasons for better implementation of the Public Distribution System in southern states.
Answer:
A universal Public Distribution System is there in southern states. Specific cards are issued to the needy people. Low cost foodgrains are available for them in the ration shops.

Question 9.
What is the need of food security?
Answer:
Food security is needed for various purposes. The main purpose of food security is ‘no person should go to bed with an empty stomach’.

Question 10.
Which caused large scale starvation deaths in pre-independent India?
Answer:
In pre-independent India, famines – situations of extreme scarcity of food, were a common cause of large-scale starvation deaths.

Question 11.
What was the loss of the Bengal famine?
Answer:
The Bengal famine in 1943-45, took away about 3 to 5 million people lives in and around Bengal, Assam and Orissa.

Question 12.
Why did the famines occur in Indian history?
Answer:
The famines occurred in Indian history because food grains supply was not organized by the rulers.

Question 13.
Name some organizations through which government today ensures food security.
Answer:
Ration shops and Anganwadis.

Question 14.
What is an important requirement of food security?
Answer:
Producing a sufficient amount of foodgrains is an important requirement of food security.

Question 15.
What are the results of this method?
Answer:
Soil degradation and depletion of groundwater resources.

Question 16.
How is the availability of foodgrains per person per day estimated?
Answer:
It is estimated as follows:
Availability of foodgrains per person per day = (Availability of foodgrains for the year T population)/ 365

Question 17.
What do consumers need?
Answer:
Consumers need a diverse food basket and a balanced diet.

Question 18.
What can farmers do to increase their incomes?
Answer:
Farmers producing foodgrains can go in for crop diversification in order to increase their incomes.

Question 19.
Give any one reason for farmers’ distress and even suicides.
Answer:
The conversation of food grain fields into cash crops such as cotton in Andhra Pradesh during the last two decades.

Question 20.
What do the nutritionists suggest?
Answer:
Nutritionists suggest that every person in India should eat 300 gms of vegetables and 100 grams of fruits in a day whereas per person availability of these food materials 180 and 58 gms respectively.

Question 21.
What do farmers require?
Answer:
Farmers require support in terms of inputs and market opportunities for diversification to other food items. They may have to. be supported and guarded against market risks that they face in the new situation.

Question 22.
Why may the foodgrain production come down?
Answer:
Since resources are diverted to non-food grain uses, foodgrain production may come down.

Question 23.
What is something to be worried about for India’s food security?
Answer:
The decline in the level of per capita availa¬bility of food grains is something to be worried about for India’s food security.

Question 24.
How are the national average calorie levels?
Answer:
The national average calorie levels in both rural and urban areas are below the needed calorie requirements.

Question 25.
What are used to examine the nutritional status of children?
Answer:
To examine the nutritional status of children, simple but accurate measurements of height and weight are used.

Question 26.
Why is buffer stock created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stock has been created to meet any exigencies. The buffer stock can be utilized in case of drought or flood or any natural calamity.

Question 27.
What are Fair price shops?
Answer:
The ration shops which come under the PDS are called fair price shops.

Question 28.
Write short notes on MSP.
Answer:
MSP means Minimum Supportive Price. The FCI procures foodgrains and other farm produce by giving MSP for their produce. This ensures farmers of a minimum guarantee for their produce.

Question 29.
How many grams of vegetables and fruits every person eat a day?
Answer:
Every person in India should eat 300 grams of vegetables and 100 grams of fruits in a day.

Question 30.
Today what are called as “nutri-cereals”?
Answer:
The coarse cereals like jowar, ragi, bajra, etc., are today called as nutri-cereals.

Question 31.
What is meant by PDS system?
Answer:
PDS system means the government supplying low-cost foodgrains to people with ration cards.

Question 32.
What is meant by Nutrition Food?
Answer:
Nutritious food is that food that provides for energy, growth and capacity to remain healthy and fight illness.

Question 33.
How is BMI derived?
Answer:
BMI = Weight in legs/height in meters squared.

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called the National Food Security Act to legalize people’s right to food. What do you suggest to implement this Act?
Answer:
My suggestions:

1. Subsidy rice should be given to the people of the low-income group.
2. More rice should be given to very poor people.
3. Dal, oil, tamarind and jaggery, etc. also should be supplied to these people through PDS.
4. MDM scheme should be implemented with more efforts.

Question 2.
Our country could not achieve self-sufficiency in the production of foodgrains even today. Illustrate your reasons.
Answer:

1. Foodgrain production is not proportional when compared to the rate of population growth.
2. There is no proper water management.
3. Farmers are following traditional methods.
4. Fragmentation of landholdings.
5. Improper manuring and low application of fertilizers.

Question 3.
State any two defects, which you find in the organization of the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. Selling with higher prices.
2. Cheating in the process of weighing.
3. Selling ration goods in the black markets.
4. Ineligible candidates holding white cards.
5. Only few days distribution is following.

Question 4.
If the food grain production is affected because of natural calamity, in what ways can the Government ensure higher availability of food grains?
Answer:

1. The FCI releases the buffer stock.
2. By bringing supplies from other areas.
3. Through a universal PDS system, low-cost food grains would be available.
4. The Anthyodaya Cardholders are entitled to get 35 Kgs. of food grains per month per family.

Question 5.
“The Supreme Court of India directed to all the state governments and central government to provide mid-day-meal to the children studying in all schools.”
Prepare a pamphlet on better implementation of the Mid-day-meal program.
Answer:
Pamphlet on Mid-day-meal programme.

1. Foodgrains available in local areas are to be used.
2. Follow the menu regularly that meets the need of nutritional requirements of the children.
3. Cooking in clean and hygienic environment.
4. Involvement of staff and children for effective implementation.

Question 6.
Appreciate the benefits of the Mid-day meal programme implemented in Government schools.
Answer:

1. It ensures food security.
2. It provides nutritious food.
3. It helps to increase net attendance rate.

Question 7.
Write suggestions to avoid food waste in Mid-day meal in your school.
Answer:

1. Meals cooked should be tasty and healthy.
2. Children should be educated on the consequences of food wastage.
3. Teachers should supervise the programme.

Question 8.
Observe the bar diagram and answer the questions.
a) What percentage of people in rural India are consuming more calories than are required?
Answer:
20%
b) What is the reason for consuming less calories than are required in rural India?
Answer:

1. The major reason for low-calorie intake is the lack of purchasing power of the people.
2. People don’t have adequate incomes to buy food.
3. The reasons are poverty, unemployment, etc.

Question 9.
What are the measures you suggest for improving the present public distribution system?
Answer:
Suggestions:

1. Provide ration cards only to the poor and vulnerable groups.
2. Check every month whether they are rationed in an effective manner or not.
3. Quantity supplied by the government should be increased.
4. Remove the fake cards.

Question 10.
Analyze a week’s food habits of your family. And write how it impacts on Agriculture sector and the environment.
Answer:
Family food habits:

1. Rice and redgram, vegetables, milk, curd, eggs, etc.
2. For breakfast – idly, dosa, chapati, etc.
3. Sometimes some members take non-vegetarian food.

Impact on agriculture:

1. For increase of food grains and vegetables production farmers are using pesticides and fertilizers. Due to this soil loses its fertility.
2. For increasing of milk production farmers follow artificial methods. Those methods cause harm to animals.

Impact on the environment:

1. Excessive use of chemicals causes water, air pollutions.
2. Bio-diversity is effected very highly.
3. Deforestation.

Question 11.
Write a letter to the concerned officer for the proper implementation of the Public Distribution System in your area.
Answer:

Siricilla.
31st March 2017.

To
The Tasildar,
Mandal Revenue Office,
Siricilla.

Sub: PDS – irregular functioning of ration shop in our locality – Request for take action to regularize the functioning of the shop -reg.

Respected sir,

I am from Subhashnagar, Siricilla. I would like to bring the following to your notice and favourable action. The ration shop under the Public Distribution System running in our locality is not functioning well.

In our locality the ration shop is always kept closed. Many cardholders come eager to get their commodities. As the shop is closed they return scolding the government and the dealer. They are going to open market and purchase their commodities there. They lose the wages for that day also. Very often the shop is open but not all the commodities are given. Sometimes they are collecting more prices. Kerosene is being sold in open market.

Hence I request you to take necessary action to regulate the functioning of the ration shop and make it useful to the rural poor people. By doing so, the real purpose of PDS is served. I hope you take immediate and favourable action.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
………………….
………………….
………………….

Question 12.
Prepare a pamphlet to bring awareness among the people on food security in India
Answer:
Pamphlet

Food Security in India

National Food Security Act 2013 legalizes the people’s right to food. According to this Act White, Pink, Anthyodaya cards are distributed to the needy on identification. Free cooked meal for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children 1-5 in Anganwadi is supplied.

Many ration shops are not open on proper timings. There will be no display of prices list and the stock of commodities. The card holders come to ration shops, and as they are closed, they get back to their home without commodities. They lose their wages for that day also. The shop dealers are diverting commodities to other shops in the market. Many times it is seen in newspapers and channels but no change is found with the dealers.

Mid day meals in schools is also like that. The minimum quantity of pulses and oil are not used. The watery curries are served. No one cares about it.

People should get aware about this. Many non Government organizations are working for the benefit of society. The government should organize a campaign about this.

No. of copies
5000

Published by
Society for people

Question 13.
What is the position of India’s per capita availability of foodgrains compared to other countries?
Answer:

1. India’s per capita availability of foodgrains in 2010-11 was 463 grams.
2. It was very low when compared to the same of countries in Europe (700grams) and USA (850 grams).
3. Since resources are diverted to non-foodgrain uses, food grain production has come down.
4. The decline in the level of per capita availability of foodgrains is something to be worried about for India’s food security.
5. To avoid this, the policy of the government should aim to increase the production of foodgrains and other types of food simultaneously.

Question 14.
Read the passage and answer the question.

The State and Central Governments procure nearly one-third of foodgrains from farmers. These food grains are distributed to people through various mechanisms. In recent times, government agencies are procuring more foodgrains than what is required to meet the public distribution system. If government stocks keep increasing year after year, less is available (see year 2011 in Table on foodgrain availability). The government has been criticized that it is not distributing these foodgrains to the needy people. Sometimes, governments also exported these foodgrains to other countries.

Do you support this, when a large section of people within the country are not able to access to food grains?
Answer:

1. The state government should procure foodgrains to distribute through PDS at lower prices.
2. Needs of our people are to be considered.
3. So I do not support the concept of exporting foodgrains to foreign countries.
4. Instead, the foodgrains should be kept available to the needy of our country.

Question 15.
Read the passage and answer the question

“The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency (BMI<18.5) among men was about 35%, while overweight/obesity (BMI >25) was 10% …….
“About 35% of adult women had chronic energy deficiency andl4% were overweight/obese.
The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency was highest in the States of Odisha, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh, followed by 33-38% in Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal…”

How is this related to food security?
Answer:

1. The above information says that 35% of adult women had chronic energy deficiency.
2. The prevalence of CED in our state is between 33% and 38%.
3. The above information proves that people do not have access to good food.
4. Hence “food security” should be implemented to avoid chronic energy deficiency.

Question 16.
How is food security ensured in India?
Answer:
Food security is being ensured in India by using the following methods:

1. By improving production
2. By maintaining buffer stock
3. By the Public Distribution System.

Question 17.
What has to be done in order to increase the per hectare yield of a crop?
Answer:

1. In order to increase the per hectare yield of a crop, necessary inputs have to provided in a judicious manner.
2. One way is to expand irrigation but use water in a manner so that this vital resource is shared and made available to all.
3. Modern methods of farming are to adopted.

Question 18.
Which have led to a continuous but unsustainable increase in the yield levels?
Answer:
Some scientists and people working in the field of agriculture report that the way rice and wheat are cultivated in India by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides have led to a continuous but unsustainable increase in the yield levels.

Question 19.
How is the availability of foodgrains for the year estimated?
Answer:
It is estimated as follows.
Availability of foodgrains for the year = Production of foodgrains during the year (production – seed, feed and wastage) + net imports (imports-exports)-change in stocks with the government (closing stock at the year end – opening stock at the beginning)

Question 20.
Write your comments on the Food Security Bill.
Answer:
The Food Security Bill promises to alleviate hunger and guarantee very cheap food to India’s poor people. But there are concerns it has not been properly thought through and become unsustainable.
Under the programme everyone who qualifies for the subsidy will be entitled to 5 kg in total of rice, wheat, etc. The government intends to use the PDS for delivering subsidies to the poor.

Question 21.
Write your comments on P.D.S.
Answer:
The Public Distribution System (PDS) has helped in stabilizing food prices and making food available to consumers at affordable prices. It has helped in avoiding hunger and famine by supplying food from surplus regions of the country to deficient regions. The share of PDS in the consumption of rice and wheat has risen steeply. I think this PDS is working effectively throughout the nation.

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the given paragraph and answer the question.

Studies indicate that Southern states of India have a good record in the public distribution system. Notably, these are the states that have followed a universal PDS system which means that low cost food grains would be available to all. This Is in contrast to other states where poor families have been Identified and foodgrains are sold to at different prices to poor and non-poor. Even among the poor, the very poor have different entitlements, or guarantees for access.

Interpret the relation between the PDS and food security.
Answer:

1. People get food grains at reasonable prices through public distribution system.
2. The government ensures it through Food Corporation of India.
3. The Government should take suitable measures to reduce lapses in distribution and ensures benefit to the target groups.
4. The various concepts of PDS like Anganwadis. Mid-day meals and fair price shops etc., provide food security to the different low income groups.

Thus there is a close relation between the PDS and food security.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

“While Indian Parliament enacts various laws such as National Food Security Act and implements schemes such as Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) in recent times, the Indian Judiciary also has become pro-active in ensuring food security. Through Judicial verdict as court cases filed by non-governmental organizations, the Supreme Court directed all the state governments and central government to provide mid-day meals to all the young children studying in schools.

Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called ‘the National Food Security Act1 to legalise people’s Right to Food.
2. It applies to approximately 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. Every person of low income families is entitled to 5kgs of foodgrains per month at subsidised rates.
4. The poorest families are entitled to 35 kgs of foodgrains.
5. For a few years, the central government supply rice, wheat and millets for Rs. 3/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 1/- respectively.
6. If the government is not able to arrange foodgrains, It will give cash for the people to buy food grains.
7. Providing free cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children aged 1-6 coming to anganwadis and mid-day meals for children aged 6-14 years in schools.

Question 3.
Observe the given table and answer the question that follows.
Crop Production (Kilograms per Hectare)

Crop	1950 – 1951	2000 – 2001
Paddy	668	1901
Wheat	655	2708
Pulses	441	544
Oilseeds	481	810
Cotton	88	190
Jute	1043	2026

Write an analysis on the yielding trends of different crops.
Answer:

1. The above table explains the crop production in 1950-51 and 2000-2001 kgs per hectare.
2. Paddy production increases highly, wheat production also increased. Pulses production increased 100 kgs only. Oil seeds production increased double. Cotton production also increased double. Jute production also increased.

Due to Green Revolution, crop production increased gradually within the 50 years. Among the all wheat & paddy production increased because of both are benefited with Green Revolution. Food grain production also increased.

Question 4.
How far is ‘Food Security’ required today in India?
Answer:
Due to the increase of more population food security Is need nowadays. The following factors are responsible.

1. Per person availability of food grain has actually not rise but declined in the recent years.
2. Most people are in fact consuming fewer calories than required. This gap is severe for the poorest.
3. Lack of employment or with low salaries majority of people are not able to purchase require food grains.
4. In some areas PDS system is not working properly.
5. A large section of people are malnourished, even when we have adequate food in the country.
6. Majority of children and adults as being underweight in a chronic way.

On above issues food security is need today.

Question 5.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Per person availability of food grains in India

Year	Population (in millions)	Food grains production (in million tonnes)	Per person availability per day (grams)
1951	361	50.8	395
1961	439	82	469
1971	548	108.4	469
1991	846	176.4	510
2011	1210	232.07	454

Answer:
Table Analysis:

1. In 1951 the population of India was 361 million and the food grains production was 50.8 million and 395 grams of food grains were available to a person per a day.
2. The population increased in 1961. It was 78 million. At the same time food grains production increased 32 million tons. The availability of food grains per person per a day was 469 grams.
3. In 1971,1991 and 2011 the population increased. At the same time the food grains production also increased. But in 1961,1971 the availability of food grains was the same; not increased.
4. From 1991 to 2011 the availability of food grains decreased due to floods, famines, natural calamities. More population was also another cause.

Till 1991 the population, food grains production and availability of food grains per person per day increased. But in 2011 only the population and food grains production increased. Availability of food grains drastically decreased.

The first requirement for a country is to be able to produce food grains for the whole population. Per person availability of food grains should be sufficient and also increasing over the years. From the information given above, it is evident that per person availability of food grains is decreasing since 2011.

So Government should take necessary measures in this regard. It should encourage farmers to produce more food grains. There should be control on exports also. Sometimes local people suffer for food grains but the government exports the food grains to other countries to import what they need. It is the minimum duty of the welfare government to keep food grains available to its people that to especially the poor.

Question 6.
Analyse how the Public Distribution System provides access to food to the poor?
Answer:
It is a joint responsibility of central government, state government and union territory administration to ensure the smooth functioning of the PDS.

While the responsibility of central government is to procure, store and transport it from purchase points to central godowns, the responsibility of state government and union territory administrations is to lift these commodities from the central godowns and distribute them to consumers through the network of fair price shops. FCI procures and distributes foodgrains, to provide subsidized food to the poor to mitigate regional inequalities through moving the surplus food to deficit areas and to stabilize agricultural prices.

The universal coverage of PDS was replaced by Targeted Real Public Distribution System in 1997 in order to achieve the objective of food security through sale of foodgrains to APL householders at economic cost and confirming the food subsidy bill toward the identified BPL families whose number crossed 97 million families in 2007.

Access to food through Public Distribution System :

1. National Food Security Act legalizes people’s right to food.
2. It is applicable to 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. PDS ensures the availability of foodgrains to the poor at subsidized rates.
4. Antyodaya cardholders are entitled to get 35 kgs of foodgrains (rice or wheat) per month per family.
5. Every person of low-income families is entitled to 5 kilograms of foodgrains per month at subsidized rates.
6. 75% of people living in rural areas purchase foodgrains through PDS.
7. 50% of the urban population purchases foodgrains through PDS.
8. PDS helps in maintaining the nutrition status of the people.
9. Studies indicate that the southern states of India have a good record in PDS.

Question 7.
What would be the impact of the availability of other food items and food security?
Answer:

1. It is said that there is a change in consumption pattern with people demanding more fruits, vegetables, milk, meat, poultry and fisheries.
2. This is a good sign for the consumers as well as producers.
3. Farmers producing foodgrains can go in for crop diversification in order to increase their incomes.
4. Farmers require support in terms of inputs and market opportunities for diversification to other food items.
5. Over the years, although there has been increasing in the production of other food items, it is not sufficient to meet the minimum dietary requirements.
6. The policies should aim at increasing food crop production and other food items simultaneously.
7. It will fill the gap and make food security more viable.

Question 8.
What are the salient features of Food Security Bill?
Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called ‘the National Food Security Act’ to legalise people’s Right to Food.
2. It applies to approximately 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. Every person of low-income families is entitled to 5kgs of foodgrains per month at subsidised rates.
4. The poorest families are entitled to 35 kgs of foodgrains.
5. For a few years, the central government supply rice, wheat and millets for Rs. 3/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 1/- respectively.
6. If government is not able to arrange foodgrains, it will give cash for the people to buy foodgrains.
7. Providing free cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children aged 1-6 coming to anganwadis and mid-day meals for children aged 6-14 years in schools.

Question 9.
Why do we require food? How do we classify the food that we consume?
Answer:

1. Food is required by the body for all its functions for energy, growth and the capacity to remain healthy and fight illness.
2. The food that we consume is normally classified as –
   1. Carbohydrates: that provide energy, through wheat, rice, ragi, jo war, oils, sugar, fats, etc.
   2. Proteins: that help growth and regeneration of body tissues through beans, dais, meat, eggs, rice, wheat, etc.
   3. Vitamins: that provide protection and ensure the working of many vital systems of the body through foods such as fruits, leafy vegetables, sprouts, unpolished rice, etc.
   4. Minerals are required in small quantities for many important functions such as iron and blood formation. This is provided through green leafy vegetables, ragi, etc.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
It is also important to ensure that soil and other natural resources are not damaged or depleted in the process. Some scientists and people working in the field of agriculture report that the way rice and wheat are cultivated in India – by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides – have led to a continuous but unsustainable Increase in the yield levels. In fact, these methods have led to soil degradation and depletion of ground water resources. If this continues, we may soon come to a situation that yields start falling rather than going up.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that improper usage of chemical fertilizers and insecticides causes for damage of cultivable soil and depletion of ground water levels.
2. If these methods are followed continuously there will be no ground water resources.
   My comments on this paragraph are as follows:
3. The population is growing day by day.
4. Cultivable land is not increasing in that proportion.
5. The food grain production is to be increased.
6. A part of green revolution it has become compulsory for the farmers to use fertilizers and pesticides to grow more crops.
7. Instead of using chemical fertilizers, the farmers should use go for organic farming.
8. Compost is to be encouraged. Multiple cropping is also one alternate.
9. Cultivable land is to be expanded by changing the wastelands as farming lands.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

If a country is to able to produce food grains for the whole of its population this would be considered as the first requirement. How do we measure whether if there is food for all ? Whether this food reaches families would be examined later. We are at first estimating what is available. This means that per person (or per capita) availability of foodgrains in the country should be sufficient and also increased over the years. Is the increase in foodgrain availability really happening?

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph every country should produce the foodgrains how much it needs.
2. Every country should examine two things.
3. The first one is how much foodgrains are produced in the country and the second one is how it is reaching to the people.
4. Many countries don’t concentrate on this sensitive issue.
5. It is very primary thing to look into the matter of food grain production and its availability.
6. When the production is less than the need or demand, automatically the prices go up.
7. Government should encourage the farmers to produce more foodgrains.
8. There should be control on exports also.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

It Is said that there Is a change In consumption pattern with people demanding more fruits, vegetables, milk, meat, poultry and fisheries. This Is a good sign for the consumers as well as producers. Consumers need a diverse food basket and a balanced diet. Farmers producing food grains can go In for crop diversification In order to increase their Incomes.

Answer:

1. The paragraph says that the people demand different types of food like vegetarian and non-vegetarian food.
2. Taking this type of food is a good sign.
3. By utilizing this diverse food, the people maintain good health.
4. Where Is a lot of gap between the production of foodgrains and its availability.
5. The pattern mentioned in this paragraph is good for health but the problem is its availability.
6. The access of food is very less when it is compared to the Nutritionists suggestions.
7. In Agriculture, there is a shift from food crops to commercial crops.
8. Many farmers are concentrating on commercial crops.
9. Consequently, there will be scarcity of foodgrains.
10. Food grains are to be grown to what extent it is necessary.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

The national average calorie levels In both rural and urban areas are below the needed calorie requirements. Also, the consumption of calories has gone down between 1983 and 2004. This Is shocking since as we have seen our economy Is growing at a rapid rate. Production of goods and services has Increased many times.

Answer:

1. This paragraph tells us that the people in rural and urban areas are not taking sufficient calories intake in their diet.
2. It is surprising that the economy is growing but calorie intake Is decreasing.
3. Production is increasing but consumption Is decreasing.
4. According to the reports of nutritionists it is clearly understood that the people are not consuming as per requirements.
5. Irrespective of caste, religion, region and gender the rich people take more than requirement but the problem is with the poor people.
6. Government should take new steps to help the poor people.
7. The PDS functioning should be made correct.
8. Quality commodities are to be provided at cheaper prices.

Question 14.
Write a letter to the Tahsildar about irregular functioning of ration shop in your area.

Tadepalli,
Date : xx xx xxxx

To
The Tasildar,
Mandal Revenue Office,
Tadepalli

Sub: PDS – irregular functioning of ration shop in our locality – Request for take action to regularize the functioning of the shop -reg.

Respected sir,

I am from Prakashnagar, Tadepalli. I would like to bring the following to your notice and favourable action. The ration shop under the Public Distribution System running in our locality is not functioning well.

In our locality the ration shop is always kept closed. Many cardholders come eager to get their commodities. As the shop is closed they return scolding the government and the dealer.

They are going to open market and purchase their commodities there. They lose the wages for that day also. Very often the shop is open but not all the commodities are given. Sometimes they are collecting more prices. Kerosene is being sold in open market.

Hence I request you to take necessary action to regulate the functioning of the ration shop and make it useful to the rural poor people. By doing so, the real purpose of PDS is served. I hope you take immediate and favourable action.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
………………….
………………….

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 4 Climate of India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 4th Lesson Climate of India

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Deforestation happens in all areas in India. Suggest two remedies to stop deforestation.
Answer:

1. Control over cutting of forests.
2. Effective implementation of WALTA Act.

Question 2.
What is the reason for October heat?
Answer:
Reasons for October heat: High temperature, high humidity.

Question 3.
The rise of 2°C in average temperature results in a rise of one meter in sea level by early next century. Write any two slogans on the control of global warming.
Answer:

1. Grow trees – save the earth.
2. Avoid plastic bags – encourage cloth bags.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Western Disturbances?
Answer:
Cyclonic depressions coming from Mediterranean sea are called Western disturbances.

Question 5.
Observe the map of India and answer the following question.

Mention the names of any two states in which the average temperature of January is 10°C.
Answer:

1. Jammu Kashmir
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Sikkim
6. Arunachal Pradesh

Question 6.
In which monsoon season does the Coromandel coast receive less rainfall?
Answer:
The Coromandel coast receives less rainfall in the South-west monsoon season.

Question 7.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) When do monsoons reach Maharashtra?
Answer:
On June 10th monsoons reach Maharashtra.
b) When do monsoons reach Kerala?
Answer:
On June 1st monsoons reach Kerala.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Why do winds always blow towards low-pressure regions?
Answer:

1. In low-pressure regions temperature is high and evaporation is more.
2. Warm air rises, so cool air replaces it.

b) When do the south-west monsoons blow in India?
Answer:
Beginning of June, July.

Question 9.
Write down the reason for the low temperature in India in the months of December and January.
Answer:

1. Pleasant and clear sky
2. Low humidity 3) Angle of incidence

Question 10.
Mention any two actions that you would take if you were the officer, to prevent deforestation.
Answer:

1. I would strictly implement the existing forest laws.
2. I would bring awareness among the people on the need for the protection of forests.

Question 11.
Why does Coromandel Coast get high rain¬fall during North-east monsoons?
Answer:
Coromandel coast gets high rainfall during Northeast monsoons, because of cyclones and depression. The low pressure conditions of North-western India move far south.

Question 12.
“An international effort to form an agreement whereby all countries try to reduce their emission of greenhouse gases has so far not been achieved.” What is the reason for this disagreement among the countries of the world?
Answer:
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities and developing countries say that their economic development will be seriously damaged if they don’t burn fossil fuels.

Question 13.
Which refers to weather?
Answer:
The state of atmospheric conditions over an area at a particular time refers to weather.

Question 14.
What are the elements of weather and climate?
Answer:
The elements of weather and climate are :

1. temperature
2. atmospheric pressure,
3. wind,
4. humidity and
5. precipitation.

Question 15.
What are called climatographs?
Answer:
The pattern of the elements of weather and climate for a place can be shown using pictures called climographs or climatographs.

Question 16.
What do climographs show?
Answer:
Climographs show average monthly values of maximum temperature, minimum temperature and rainfall for a given place.

Question 17.
What are called climatic controls?
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls.

Question 18.
What are the factors that are influencing climate and weather?
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

Question 19.
Name some hill stations.
Answer:
Shimla, Gulmarg, Nainital Darjeeling, Kodaikanal and Udagamandalam.

Question 20.
Which is the coldest month in India?
Answer:
January is usually the coldest month. Day temperature sometimes drops below 10°C in several parts of the country.

Question 21.
Which areas enjoy a moderate climate?
Answer:
The coastal areas enjoy a moderate climate as the temperature remains well above 20°C.

Question 22.
How is India during winter?
Answer:
During winter, the weather is generally pleasant with clear sky, low humidity and cool breeze.

Question 23.
What are called ‘Loo’?
Answer:
The northern plain of India experiences dry and hot winds called ‘Loo’.

Question 24.
What are the two branches of the south-west monsoon?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 25.
Which is more powerful in these two gases – Methane or Carbon dioxide?
Answer:
Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think that, the effects of climate change may be felt by all countries?
Answer:

1. The effects of climate change like global warming, increase of mean sea level, degradation of Ozone layer, etc. are not limited to one particular country.
2. No country can escape from the negative impacts of climate change. Hence the effects of climatic change may be felt by all countries.

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) In which state, the south-west monsoon enter first?
Answer:
Kerala.
b) When do the south-west monsoons reach Gujarat?
Answer:
June 15.

Question 3.
Suggest some measures to reduce global warming.
Answer:
Measures to reduce global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of the burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal, the use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.

Question 4.
Observe the following figure and answer the questions given below:

1. What is the relation between atmospheric pressure and winds?
   Answer:
   The winds blow from a high-pressure area to low pressure area.
2. Which monsoon winds are mainly responsible for the bulk of Indian rainfall?
   Answer:
   South-West Monsoon.

Question 5.
Classify the seasons according to Indian calendar and write the months
Answer:

Seasons	Months according to the Indian calendar
Vasantha	Chaitra – Vaishaka
Grishma	Jyestha- Ashadha
Varsha	Sravana – Bhadra
Sharad	Aswayuja – Karthika
Hemantha	Margashira – Pushya
Shishira	Magha – Phalguna

Question 6.
Write briefly about South-West monsoons.
(OR)
Describe the Monsoon mechanism in India.
Answer:

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘onset’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to western ghats and northeast India except in Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the coramandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 7.
Keeping the warning of scientists in mind warming.
Answer:
To minimise the Global warming quarrying, mining are to be reduced and afforestation should be increased. Burning of coal should be decreased. Fossil fuel burning is also de-creased electronic appliances usage should be minimised so as to minimize the global warming.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the questions.

a) Identify the onset of the monsoon shown in the map below.
b) When does this monsoon reach Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
a) South-West Monsoon,
b) 15th June.

Question 9.
Fill the following table. It contains factors that influence climate and weather. Use words like higher/lower, closer/farther.

Factors	Impact on weather Higher/Lower	Closer/Farther
a) Latitude		Closer to equator and has more rainfall
b) Relief	Even though place Y is closer to the equator because of its higher altitude it experiences low temperatures.

Answer:

Factors	Impact on weather Higher/Lower	Closer/Farther
1. Latitude	Higher latitudes cause temperature’s decrease. Lower latitudes cause increase in temperatures.	Closer to the equator and has more rainfall.
2. Relief	Even though place V is closer to the equator because of its higher altitude it experiences lower temperatures,	Closer to the equator does not affect much If the elevation of relief is more,

Question 10.
Study the following map and answer the questions that follow.

a) Which states experience high average temperature in January?
Answer:
Kerala and Tamil Nadu experience high average temperature in January.
b) What is the average temperature experienced by the North-eastern states in January?
Answer:
The North-eastern states experience 15°C average temperature in January.

Question 11.
What is the relation between the temperature of a location and insolation?
Answer:
The temperature of the atmosphere at a particular place near the Earth’s surface depends upon the insolation (heat from sun rays) received at that location. This is more intense in the low latitudes than in the high latitudes. As we move away from the equator towards the poles, the average annual temperature decreases.

Question 12.
Read the paragraph and answer the question that follows.
“In India, the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. There-fore this region has higher average temperature than the northern part, this is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi, India is situated roughly between 8° and 37PN latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical tone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.”
Why is the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi?
Answer:
In India the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. Therefore this region has a higher average temperature than the northern part. This is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi.

Question 13.
Explain the latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
India is situated roughly between 8° and 37° N latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical zone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.

Question 14.
What are called western disturbances and what do they cause?
Answer:
Cyclone depressions coming from Mediterranean Sea called Western Disturbances and cause low to moderate rainfall over northern India. This rainfall is boon to the wheat crop which is generally cultivated in ‘Rabi’ season.

Question 15.
What is the effect of north-east trades on India?
Answer:
India lies in the trade wind belt of Northern Hemisphere – north-east trades blow over India from land to sea and are therefore dry. However, some amount of rainfall occurs on the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu from these winds, as they pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal while crossing it.

Question 16.
Write about ‘mango showers’ in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 17.
What is known as “Onset of monsoon”?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves northward. Both the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as ’Onset of monsoon1.

Question 18.
What is known as “October heat”?
Answer:
October-November is a period of transition from a hot wet condition to dry winter condition. The retreat of the monsoons is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the con¬ditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as October heat.

Question 19.
Write about the Indian traditional seasons.
Answer:
In the Indian tradition, a year is divided into six two-monthly seasons. This cycle of seasons that the people in north and central India follow is based on their practical experience and age-old perception of weather phenomena. There is a slight variation in the timing of the seasons between northern and southern India.
The seasons are

1. Vasantha
2. Grishma
3. Varsha
4. Sharad
5. Hemantha
6. Shishira.

Question 20.
What is called Greenhouse effect?
Answer:
Keeping us warm is one of the most impor¬tant things that the atmosphere does for us.
It is like a light, but effective, blanket envelo¬ping Earth. The atmosphere traps a lot of the solar energy that reaches. Earth by preventing it from totally escaping back into space. This is called the Greenhouse effect.

Question 21.
What is called AGW?
Answer:
Earlier cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities. Hence, the current global warming trend is called AGW (Anthropo-genic Global Warming anthropogenic means caused by humans).

Question 22.
What does climate refer to?
Answer:
Climate refers to such conditions over a large area and follows a similar general pattern over many years. What has been the general conditions, year after year, over thirty years or more, gives us the climate.

Question 23.
Explain the word ‘monsoon’.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

Question 24.
Read the following paragraph and comment on ‘bursting monsoon’.
“Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.”
Answer:
It is the sudden onset of rainfall in the first week of June. Around the time of arrival of monsoon, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as burst of monsoon.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Indian agriculture depends completely on the monsoon.” Describe the cycle of the monsoon patterns.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during the olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area at approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘on set’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to Western ghats and Northeast India except in the Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 2.
Observe the following Climographs and answer.
a) Why is there a difference between the rainy season of Chennai and Jaipur?
Answer:
Jaipur receives rainfall by the South-West monsoons.
Chennai receives rainfall by the North-East monsoons.

b) In which month is the highest temperature recorded in Jaipur?
Answer:
May.

c) Among these two, which area gets the highest rainfall?
Answer:
Chennai.

d) Both the areas are rain shadow regions. Is it? How would you justify it?
Answer:
Yes. In the South-West monsoon season Jaipur and Chennai areas are rain shadow regions.
(OR)
No. Only in the South-West monsoon season Chennai is rain shadow region. But not in North-East monsoon.

Question 3.
Read the given para and answer the question given below.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Read the text given above and comment on the climate change.
Answer:

1. The drastic changes in climate influence the life on Earth.
2. The raise in average temperature leads to the raise in sea levels.
3. The habitations in coastal areas will be drowned.
4. People may lose their livelihood.
5. Unexpected changes may occur in rainfall.
6. Droughts and floods may occur.
7. Agriculture will be influenced.
8. Climate change happens at a global level and therefore, it affects all of us.

Question 4.
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities that add greenhouse gases to the atmosphere. Is this justified? Explain your opinion.
Answer:
This is justified because activities that increase greenhouse gases are increased. The net effect is that these gases lead to the depletion of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere.
When the ozone layer is depleted what happens is that radiation pertaining to ultraviolet rays reaches the earth’s surface and this radiation may cause cancer.
OR
It is not justified because

1. Developing countries argue that the developed countries have developed by burning fossil fuels.
2. They also argue that they cannot develop without burning fossil fuels.
3. They also want the developed countries to show alternative sources for their development.

Question 5.
Analyze the relationship between the population density and geographical conditions of a particular area.
Answer:

1. India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world.
2. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq. km.
3. Densities vary from 1102 persons per sq. km. in Bihar to only 17 persons per sq. km. in Arunachal Pradesh.
4. Assom and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities.
5. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.
6. The Northern plains and Kerala in the south have high to very high population densities because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW (Anthropogenic Global Warming; anthropogenic means caused by humans) is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming:

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisher folk.

Measures to minimize the influence of the global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.
5. Release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere should be reduced.

Question 7.
Name the factors influencing climate. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls. These include:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

1. Latitude:

1. Intensity of temperature depends on the latitude. It is more intense in lower latitudes than at higher latitudes.
2. In India, the southern part lies in the tropical zone, closer to the equator; it has a higher average temperature than that in the northern part.
   Ex: The climate of Kanyakumari is different from that of Delhi.

2. Land-water relationship:

1. The water bodies absorb and lose heat more slowly than land.
2. Due to this the formation of land and sea breezes influence the climate of coastal region. Ex: As Visakhapatnam is on the seashore, it is cooler than Guntur which is not on the seashore.

Question 8.
Observe the following graph and analyze it.
Answer:

1. This climograph shows the details of Mean Maximum Temperature, Mean Minimum Temperature and Mean Rainfall of Chennai.
2. Chennai receives 38°C to 28°C maximum temperature during the year.
3. It receives 20°C to 28°C minimum temperature during the year.
4. The wettest months for Chennai are October and November.
5. It is because it receives rainfall during the retreat of the southwest monsoon or during the north-east monsoon.
6. The driest month for Chennai is February / March and the rainfall for the month is 15 mm.
7. The hottest months for Chennai are May and June.
8. Chennai has a moderate climate with 38°C as the highest and 20°C as the lowest temperature.
9. The weather in Chennai is mostly hot and humid.
10. The close proximity of ocean and equator makes the climate and weather in Chennai relatively
    consistent with less variation in the seasonal temperature.

Question 9.
Classify the monsoon winds in India and explain them.
Answer:

Monsoon winds

Climate of country is determined by various factors like Latitude, Relief, Land water relationship and upper air circulation. Climate in India is influenced by monsoons. The Arab traders named the term monsoon. The monsoons in the tropical area are strong as low pressure forms here. The Southeast monsoon winds from the Southern hemisphere carry moisture as they flow over the Indian ocean and towards the equatorial low-pressure zones.
After crossing the equator, these winds deflect towards the low pressure formed in the Indian sub-continent. The heating of land creates low pressure on the land mass of Indian sub-conti¬nent, especially over central India and the Gangetic plain. Along with this, the Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated and causes strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at above 9 kms altitude.

They then flow as the southwest monsoon. The Indian peninsula divides them into two branches – the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch. The Bay of Bengal branch strikes the Bengal coast and the southern face of the Shillong plateau. Then, it gets deflected and flows westward along the Gangetic valley. The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves north ward. Both the branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as the ‘onset of monsoon’. They gradually spread over the entire country in four to five weeks. The bulk of annual rainfall in India is received from south-west monsoon. The amount of rainfall is very high along the west coast due to the Western ghats, and in north-east India due to the high peaked hills. Tamil Nadu coast (Coromandel), however, remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

The low pressure conditions which once prevailed over north-western India move far South to the centre of the Bay of Bengal by early November. During this period,cyclonic depressions are common which originate over the Andaman area. These tropical cyclones are often very destruc¬tive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, Krishna and Cauveri are their targets. No year ever goes disaster-free. Occasionally, these tropical cyclones visit Sundarbans and Bangladesh too. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coramandel Coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 10.
“Human activities are the main cause for global warming” comment.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming :

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisherfolk.

Question 11.
Observe the graph and answer the question below
a) In which longitude does Chennai lie?
b) What are the elements of climate shown in this graph?
c) What are the warmest months in Chennai?
d) Give a reason for Chennai experiencing the highest rainfall in the months of October and November.
Answer:
a) 80.3° East.
b) Temperature and rainfall.
c) May and June.
d) During South – West Monsoon Chennai is the Rainshadow region. But during the time of North-East monsoon due to depression in Bengal, Chennai also have low pressure, that’s why Chennai receives high rainfall in the months October – November.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on human activities with regard to the industrial revolution.
Earlier, cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities.
Answer:

1. The issue discussed in this paragraph is that the industrial revolution causes for many changes related to the atmosphere. Warming is increased over the period.
2. Human activities are the reasons for these changes.
3. Heating is gradually increasing because of human activities like using of vehicles, plastic, refrigerators, cell phones and releasing of industrial effluents.
4. Deforestation is also one of the major reasons.
5. The trees are helpful in maintaining the weather cool.
6. More and more green house gases are released due to industrialization.
7. Development and modernization should not become the hurdle to the human life.
8. The pollution and damage to the nature affect human life.
9. So human beings should think of their activities keeping the future in mind.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on the effect of deforestation.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the Anthropogenic Global Warming is increasing and it is affecting the climate change.
2. If it is not stopped there will be a threat to the next coming generation.
3. The main focus is there on deforestation.
4. In our country major portion of employment is from agriculture.
5. For leading a better life, everyone is trying to exploit the nature.
6. The farmers are cutting the trees for making agricultural implements and for the construction of houses.
7. Many other people are also cutting trees for making various types of furniture.
8. I suggest the government to take necessary steps to control deforestation.
9. For that various awareness programmes are to be taken up.
10. Necessary acts are to be implemented in a right way.

Question 14.
Read the following text and interpret it.
More recently, scientists are discovering large volumes of methane under the frozen tundras of the far northern latitudes (mainly in the vast expanses of northern Russia). As global tem¬perature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperatures. In turn, this causes even more ice to melt, releasing even more methane, and so on. Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.
Answer:

1. Global warming has been increasing.
2. As global temperature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more.
3. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperature.
4. Methane is even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a green house gas.
5. Then it is our responsibility to reduce global warming.
6. This global warming leads to climatic changes.
7. Hence human activities that lead to global warming are to be reduced.

Question 15.
Look at the picture and answer the following questions.

a) Which latitude is passing through the centre of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer is passing through the centre of India.

b) Which part of India lies in the tropical zone ?
Answer:
Southern India lies in the tropical zone.

c) Which part of India lies in the temperate zone ?
Answer:
Northern India lies in the temperate zone.

d) Which part of India experiences higher average temperatures? Why?
Answer:
South India experiences higher average temperature as it is close to the equator.

e) What conclusion can you draw from the above picture?
Answer:
The temperature decreases as we move away from the equator.

Question 16.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) In which state south-west monsoons enter first in India?
Answer:
In our country the south-west monsoons enter Kerala first.

b) Into which state do the south-west monsoons enter on 15 July?
Answer:
The south-west monsoons enter Rajasthan on 15 July.

c) In which state there is no effect of south-west monsoons in India?
Answer:
In our country, the south-west monsoons are ineffective in Tamil Nadu.

d) Which parts of India experience the onset of the south-west monsoon first?
Answer:
Kerala and the north-east states of India, Tripura and Mizoram.

e) Which Indian region remains mostly dry during the south-west monsoon season ?
Answer:
Coramandel coast of Tamil Nadu remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow region of the Arabian sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 17.
Study the given climograph and answer the questions that follow.
a) Where is Hyderabad located?
Answer:
Hyderabad is located on the 17.4° North Latitude and 78.5° East Longitude.

b) What is the mean maximum temperature recorded in Hyderabad?
Answer:
38°C.

c) In which month does it rain maximum in Hyderabad?
Answer:
In August.

d) Which is the coldest month in Hyderabad?
Answer:
December.

Question 18.
Observe the below picture and answer the following questions.
a) In which direction are the winds blowing?
Answer:
Winds are blowing from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas.

b) During which month the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
During July the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent.

c) Which areas experience low pressure during January?
Answer:
Oceans around Indian subcontinent experience low pressure.

d) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of January.
Answer:
Retreating monsoons (or) Northeast monsoons.

e) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of July.
Answer:
South-west monsoons.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of India.
   Answer:
   New Delhi
2. Capital of Arunachal Pradesh.
   Answer:
   Itanagar
3. The Dam which is on the Tungabhadra River.
   Answer:
   Tungabhadra
4. Darjeeling
5. The river-based port in India.
   Answer:
   Kolkata
6. The capital of Rajasthan.
   Answer:
   Jaipur
7. The old fold mountains of India.
   Answer:
   Aravalis
8. This latitude divided the India into two equal parts.
   Answer:
   Tropic of Cancer
9. The highest peak in Western Ghats.
   Answer:
   Anaimudi
10. Jaintia Hills.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 16 National Movement in India–Partition & Independence.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why did the Indian soldiers join the INA?
Answer:
The Indian soldiers were against to the British government. They were motivated by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose and joined the INA to fight against the British.

Question 2.
What was the wish of the Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS?
Answer:
The Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS wished to unite all Hindus; overcome the divisions of caste and sect and reform their social life.

Question 3.
Who was the Prime Minister that abolished Privy Purses?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi.

Question 4.
What is the two-nation theory?
Answer:
Partition of India based on religions – Hindus and Muslims is called two-nation theory.

Question 5.
Write any two differences between the Russian Revolution (1917) and the Indian freedom movement.
Answer:

Russian Revolution	Indian Freedom Movement
1. Against Tsar Nicholas – II	1. Against the British
2. Demanded Peace and bread	2. Struggle for freedom
3. Two phases	3. Three phases
4. Against liberals and aristocrats	4. Against the foreign rule

Question 6.
This map depicts an event of India’s struggle for Independence. What could be that event?

Answer:
This is the incident that happened on the partition of India.

Question 6.
Observe the following table. It has certain events shown by letters
Write the suitable ENGLISH LETTER for each event listed above in the boxes against each on the timeline.

Answer:

Question 7.
“India is a secular state.” Justify this statement by giving two examples.
Yes, India is a secular state. There is no state religion.
Example

1. Every Indian has right to follow, propagate and conduct processions on the basis of religion.
2. The constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.

Question 8.
Expand RSS.
Answer:
Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh.

Question 9.
How was the name “Pakistan” coined?
Answer:
The name “Pakistan” or “Pakistan” was derived from Punjab, Afghan, Kashmir, Sindh and Baluchistan and was coined by a Punjabi Muslim student at Cambridge, Choudhry Rehmat Ali.

Question 10.
What was the policy followed by the British in India?
Answer:
The British followed the policy of “Divide and Rule”.

Question 11.
Expand “NWFP”.
Answer:
North-West Frontier Province.

Question 12.
Name the Muslim majority states of the British in India.
Answer:
Punjab, NWFP, Sindh, Baluchistan and East Bengal.

Question 13.
Which princely states experienced peasant revolt against ruling zamindars?
Answer:
Travancore and Hyderabad peasants revolted against ruling zamindars.

Question 14.
Who were keen to retain the empire in India?
Answer:
The conservatives were keen to retain the empire for as long as it was possible.

Question 15.
Who were more willing to help Indians attain freedom?
Answer:
The labour party was more willing to help Indians attain freedom.

Question 16.
What was the Congress demand?
Answer:
The Congress also demanded that an immediate national government should be set up at the centre.

Question 17.
How did Congress argue?
Answer:
The Congress argued that Hindus and Muslims were not people of two different nations but part and parcel of one Indian nation.

Question 18.
Who was sent to India in 1942?
Answer:
Sir Stafford Cropps.

Question 19.
What was called privy purse?
Answer:
The government of the princely states was taken over and the princes were given pension funds called privy – purse to meet their personal expenses.

Question 20.
Did Gandhiji agree with the plants of Bose to form INA? Why?
Answer:
Gandhiji did not agree with the plants of Bose and felt that the Japanese cannot be the liberators of India.

Question 21.
What did the Congress expect before World War – II?
Answer:
The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the fascists but not giving India full freedom.

Question 22.
Who was the Prime Minister in Britain at the time of the war?
Answer:
At the time of the war, Britain had an all-party government headed by Prime Minister Winston Churchill of the Conservative Party.

Question 23.
Who were keen to retain the empire in India?
Answer:
The Conservatives were keen to retain the empire for as long as was possible.

Question 24.
Who were more willing to help Indians attain freedom?
Answer:
The Labour Party was more willing to help Indians attain freedom.

Question 25.
What did Congress also demand?
Answer:
The Congress also demanded that an immediate national government should be set up at the Centre.

Question 26.
Why did the British object Congress demand?
Answer:
The British objected to this by saying that they had to also protect the interests of several other communities in India.

Question 27.
Why had the government had given itself special war time powers?
Answer:
The government had given itself special war time powers to maintain law and order to be able to focus on winning the war.

Question 28.
How were the special war time powers?
Answer:
Anyone who opposed the government could be jailed without much delay and kept imprisoned for a long time without going to court. Freedom of speech was also curtailed.

Question 29.
Who was sent to India in 1942?
Answer:
sir Stafford Cripps.

Question 30.
Where were the independent governments proclaimed?
Answer:
In several districts, such as Satafra in the west and Medinipur in the east, “independent” governments were proclaimed.

Question 31.
Who won the World War-ll?
Answer:
The Allied powers.

Question 32.
What happened on 18th February 1946?
Answer:
On 18th February 1946, the guards or Ratings of the Royal Indian Navy in Bombay harbour came out on hunger strike to protest against bad food and behaviour of their British officers.

Question 33.
Who was the head of Naval Central Strike Committee?
Answer:
M.S. Khan.

Question 34.
What happened on 30th January 1948?
Answer:
Less than six months after independence, the Father of the Nation fell to three bullets while going out for his all-religion prayer in the evening of 30 January 1948.

Question 35.
How many princely states were there in India?
Answer:
There existed around 550 princely states which enjoyed different levels of sovereignty but were under British paramount power.

Question 36.
What happened in Travancore and Hyderabad?
Answer:
In Travancore and Hyderabad peasants were revolting with arms against the ruling zamindars.

Question 37.
Name the three princely states which joined the Indian Union in the next two years to 1947.
Answer:
Kashmir, Hyderabad and Junagadh.

Question 38.
Who was the famous leader of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Mohammad Ali Jinnah was the famous leader of the Muslim League.

Question 39.
What was Gandhiji’s third major movement against British rule?
Answer:
Gandhiji’s third major movement against British rule was Quit India Movement in 1942.

Question 40.
Did Gandhiji agree with the plans of Bose to form INA? Why?
Answer:
Gandhi did not agree with the plans of Bose and felt that the Japanese cannot be the liberators of India.

Question 41.
Who wrote ‘Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara’?
Answer:
The Urdu poet Mohammad Iqbal was the writer of ‘Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara’.

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“India is a land of many religions and many races and must remain so.” Comment.
Answer:

1. India is a land of many religions and many races.
2. Even though, it is continuing as a democratic secular state.
3. It gives protection to all the citizens irrespective of their religions.
4. All citizens have equal rights.

Question 2.
Write about the Indian National Army formulated by Subhash Chandra Bose.
Answer:

1. When the British were defeated by Japan, some Indian soldiers were captured as prisoners by Japan.
2. Subhash Chandra Bose raised the Indian National Army with these soldiers.
3. Later other Indians also joined the army including many women.
4. INA fought against the British for almost three years.
5. Finally INA was defeated by the British army.

Question 3.
Which qualities do you like in Mahatma Gandhi? Why?
Answer:
Qualities of Mahatma Gandhi:

1. Truthful,
2. Non-violence,
3. Simplicity.

Question 4.
Which qualities of Sardar Patel do you like the most? Why?
Answer:
The qualities that I like the most in Sardar Patel are:

1. Patriotism
2. Commitment

Question 5.
Explain the causes that led to partition of India?
Answer:

1. Anti-thinking of the Muslims and their communalism.
2. Activities of the Muslim League.
3. Congress’s policy of Appeasement.
4. Communal reaction.
5. Congress policy of strengthening India.
6. Formation of weak Pakistan in the minds of Indian leaders.
7. Development transfer of power. 8) Provisions of the Indian Independent Act.
8. British’s policy of divide and rule. 10) Mount Batten Plan.

Question 6.
What was the political picture in India in 1939?
Answer:
When the war started in 1939, most of the provinces of Indian were governed by Congress ministries. The British government had accepted the principle that the right to rule themselves must be given to Indians to an extent.

Question 7.
Write about the Govt, of India Act 1935.
Answer:
The Government of India Act was passed in 1935 by the British Parliament. According to this, elections may be held in provinces and governments may be formed by parties that won in the elections.

Question 8.
Why did the British object the Congress’s demand of full freedom?
Answer:
By objecting they implied that Congress did not represent all Indians, like Muslims. They also implied that Congress may be ignoring the interests of many Indians and the British were required to protect these interests.

Question 9.
Why did all Congress ministries resign in October 1939?
Answer:
The Congress was upset at the obstinacy of the British and decided to walk out of the provincial governments. All Congress ministers resigned in October 1939 after having come to power in 1937.

Question 10.
Write about the Muslim League.
Answer:
This was a party formed in 1906. Till 1930, it mainly represented the interests of Muslim landlords of UP and did not have much mass support. It had demanded that the British should create separate seats in all councils for which only Muslims would vote.

Question 11.
What was the agreement of the Muslim League?
Answer:
The Muslim League had argued that since the majority people in many areas were Hindus, more Hindus are likely to get elected to councils to and Muslims will find it difficult to protect their interests in government. But, if a certain number of seats were reserved for Muslims for which only the Muslims population of an area would vote, the Muslim members reaching the councils will be able to raise the concerns of Muslims.

Question 12.
Where was the Muslim League popular and weak?
Answer:
The Muslim League was popular in the United Provinces, Bombay and Madras. However, it was quite weak in the three provinces from which Pakistan was to be carved out just ten years later, viz. Bengal, the NWFP and Punjab. Even in Sind it failed to form a government.

Question 13.
How could the League create the impression that the Congress was basically a Hindu Party and did not want to share power with Muslims?
Answer:
The League pointed out many issues and blamed Congress of insensitivity. The Congress refused to form a coalition government with the League in the United Provinces where it too had won many seats. The Congress had banned its members from taking membership of the League Congress members could be members of the Hindu Mahasabha before. But this was also banned from 1938, only after objections were raised by Muslim Congressmen like Maulana Azad. The League could thus create the impression that the Congress was basically a Hindu party and did not want to share power with the Muslims.

Question 14.
Write about the Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS.
Answer:
The Hindu Mahasabha and the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) were engarged in active mobilisation. These organisations wished to unite all Hindus, overcome the divisions of caste and sect and reform their social life. They also gave out the message that India was the land of the Hindus who were in a majority. Many Congressmen were also impressed with the activities of these organisations.

Question 15.
Who coined the name Pakistan?
Answer:
The name Pakistan or Pak-stan was coined by a Punjabi Muslim student at Cambridge, Choudhry Rehmat Ali. In pamphlets written in 1933 and 1935, this young student desired a separate national status for this new entity.

Question 16.
What did the resolution demand?
Answer:
On 23 March 1940, the League moved a resolution demanding a measure of autonomy for the Muslim majority areas of the subcontinent. This ambiguous resolution never mentioned partition or Pakistan. However, in later years it came to be called the Pakistan Resolution.

Question 17.
What were the dreams of different sections from 1940 to 1946?
Answer:
From 1940 to 1946, the League was able to convince Muslim masses of the benefits and need for a separate nation. Peasants could think of state where Hindu zamindars and moneylenders did not exploit them. Traders, businessmen and job seekers could think of a state where competition from Hindu traders, businessmen and job seekers would not be there. There would be freedom for the Muslim elite to run the government the way they wanted.

Question 18.
Which was the ‘Quit India’ campaign?
Answer:
After the failure of the Cripps Mission, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch his third majority movement against British rule. This was the “Quit India” campaign, which began in August 1942.

Question 19.
What impressions did the victories of Japan create on the people in India?
Answer:
The victories of Japan against the Americans and Europeans created a strong impression on the people in India. Firstly, it seemed that the European colonialists would get defeated very soon. Secondly, Japan was an Asian country and could stand up against the European colonialists. Indians felt that they too can stand up and fight against Britain decisively. The myth of the racist superiority of the British was smashed.

Question 20.
How were the Indian people after World War – II?
Answer:
People were restless with food shortages, rationing of food, high prices, black marketeering and hoarding. Workers were angry about low wages. Railway and postal employees and other government employees were planning to go on India wide strike against prices.

Question 21.
What did the strike committee demand?
Answer:
The Naval Central Strike Committee was elected with M S Khan as its head. The strike committee demanded better food, equal pay for white and Indian sailors, the release of INA and other political prisoners, withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia.

Question 22.
What is the significance of the year 1946?
Answer:
The year 1946 was a year of strikes and work stoppages in factories and mills in many parts of the country. CPI and the Socialist parties were active in these movements. The countryside was also on the boil.

Question 23.
Why did the small and poor peasants start an agitation in Bengal?
Answer:
Agitation was started in Bengal by small and poor peasants who took land of the bigger landowners to cultivate. They demanded that their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less, that was given to them at that time. This was called the Tebhaga movement and was led by the Provincial Kisan Sabha.

Question 24.
Write about the Direct Action Day.
Answer:
The Muslim League decided that its demands cannot be met through discussions and it must ask people to come out on the streets. It decided on”Direct Action” for winning its Pakistan demand and announced 16 August 1946 as “Direct Action Day”. On this day, riots broke out in Calcutta, lasting several days and leaving several thousand people dead. By March 1947, violence spread to many parts of northern India.

Question 25.
Why didn’t Gandhiji celebrate the first Independence Day?
Answer:
Gandhiji moved amongst riot hit people, in camps and hospitals, spreading the message of peace and brotherhood. This was not the freedom and Swaraj he had worked so hard to achieve. The Father of the Nation fasted and did not celebrate on the first Independence Day.

Question 26.
Why did Congress organise individual satyagrahas through 1940 and 1941?
Answer:
Through 1940 and 1941, the Congress organised a series of individual satyagrahas to pressure the rulers to promise freedom once the war had ended.

Question 27.
Why did the British resort to the ‘Divide and Rule Policy’?
Answer:

1. The British were desperate with the Indian people revolting against their rule.
2. They looked for ways to punish Congress and weaken its hold over the people.
3. The British actively raised doubts about the right of Congress to represent the people of the country.
4. Then they followed “Divide and Rule Policy” more vigorously.

Question 28.
Write any features liked by you in Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

1. Gandhi took the national movement to masses.
2. Gandhiji all the time depended upon the weapons of Truth and Non – violence.
3. He worked for the welfare of Harijans.
4. He introduced the concept Satyagraha.

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Religions have been playing a prominent role since the partition of India.” Write your evidences.
Answer:

1. The growth of Muslim separation from the late 19th century and the rise of communal violence from 1920s to the virulent outbreaks of 1946-1947.
2. Muslims, as a religious community, comprised only 20% of the population and represented great diversity in economic, social and political terms.
3. From the late 19th century, some of its political elites in northern India felt increasingly threatened by British devolution of power. Due to this, the logic of numbers would mean the dominance of the majority Hindu community.

Question 2.
Do you think Indians should have felt grateful to the British government for the powers given by the act of 1935? Write your opinion.
Answer:
No, we need not have felt grateful to the British government for the powers given by the Act of 1935 because of the following reasons:

1. India is meant for Indians only.
2. We have right to freedom.
3. To British were forced by Indian freedom fighters.
4. That’s why the British passed the Act of 1935.

So we should be grateful to our national leaders and freedom fighters, not to the Britishers.

Question 3.
Write a brief note on the assassination of Gandhiji.
Answer:

1. Gandhiji was unhappy with the communal riots in north-western India and tried to calm the fears and anger of the people.
2. Yet, some sections of people were annoyed with Gandhi for his role in Indian politics.
3. They disturbed his all-religion prayer meetings many times.
4. An unsuccessful attempt on his life was made two days before his actual assassination.
5. Finally, less than six months after Independence, on the evening of 30th January 1948, Gandhi was shot with three bullets while going for his all-religion prayer meeting. As desired by him, before dying Gandhi reportedly said, ‘Hey, Ram’.
6. His assassin, Nathuram Godse ran off from the scene of the crime and was later arrested in Bombay.
7. He was once a member of Hindu Mahasabha and because of his actions, many became against this organisation.

Question 4.
Read the following text and interpret.

The British government, even without the consultation of the Congress government, decided that India will participate in the war. The Congress was torn in its mind over the question. Most Congress leaders were opposed to Hitler, Mussolini and the ideology of Fascism. They were determined to resist the Fascist drive to conquer other sovereign nations. The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the Fascists but not give (or at least promise) India full freedom.

Comment on the double standard role of the British.
Answer:

1. The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the Fascists but not giving India full freedom.
2. The British realised this but at the same time, it was hard for them to accept that they would really have to dismantle the empire they had built.
3. The British were willing to give Indian Dominion status under the British crown some time after the War, but the Congress wanted a promise of full freedom for India.
4. The British objected to this by saying that they have to also protect the interests of several other communities in India. With this they implied that the Congress did not represent all Indians, like Muslims.
5. They also implied that Congress may be ignoring the interests of many Indians. So, the British were required to protect these interests.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.

Agitation was started in Bengal by small and poor peasants who took land of the bigger landowners to cultivate. They demanded that their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less, that was given to them at that time. This was called the ‘Tebhaga’ movement and was led by the Provincial Kisan Sabha.

Do you support small and poor peasants’ demands? How?
Answer:
I do agree with the small and poor peasants demands because –

1. They demanded their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less.
2. Although they invested on the production of crops they did not get reasonable remuneration of share harvest.
3. They were forced to pay more land tenure. Due to this they faced more economic crises and failed to repay their debts.

Question 6.
How did the Indian National Army fight for Indian freedom? Explain.
Answer:

1. Subhash Chandra Bose recruited the prisoners of war, captured by Japan in the Indian National Army.
2. Later other Indians also joined in the Army including women.
3. Though Gandhi was not interested in encouraging INA for waging a war, Subhash Chandra Bose persisted in the path and led Indian soldiers to fight against the British.
4. With that intention he took help from Germany also.
5. Thousands of soldiers joined Indian National Army.
6. In view of the Britishers, the soldiers of INA were traitors but in view of the Indians they are National Heroes.
7. The INA soldiers sacrificed their lives for the sake of Indian Independence.
8. The British suppressed them.
9. Subhash Chandra Bose continued his struggle against the British for almost three years but unfortunately his army was defeated.
10. The British decided to court martial the soldiers of Indian National Army for being traitors to the army and hanging them to death in punishment.

Question 7.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

The initial victories of Japan against the Americans and Europeans created a strong impression on the people in India. Firstly, it seemed that the European colonialists would get defeated very soon. Secondly, Japan was an Asian country and could stand up against the European colonialists. Indians felt that they too can stand up and fight against Britain decisively.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph :

1. In my view, Japan a tiny nation defeated Russia in 1905 and China.
2. With this courage during Second World War in the initial period Japan was victorious against the allies.
3. By seeing this victory of Japan we got a strong impression that we Indians can decisively fight against our colonial masters.
4. We also thought that wherever European colonists occupied Afro-Asian countries would also liberate from the clutches of the colonists.
5. Japan an Asian country was against the Europian colonists. So India took an opportunity stand on the side of Japan and fought against dominance in India.
6. From this we can understand an example of Subash Chandra Bose who wanted to take support of Japanese to overthrow the British rule.

Question 8.
Explain the circumstances that arouse after the partition of India.
Answer:
Circumstances that arouse after the partition of India :

When India was divided, there was a problem of fear and threat among the Hindus and Muslims. Pakistan was separated as a new country and it was separated on the basis of religion. If Pakistan was separated on the basis of religion, all Muslims should go to Pakistan and all Hindus should be in Hindustan such discussions were also taken place but practically there were many problems for all this. This two religious people suffered of anger and hatred. Many were killed looted, and burnt each other. From Pakistan thousands of Hindus came to India as refugees. Many stayed on roads. Gradually they were settled relief camps. Insecurity feeling was developed among the Hindus and Muslims.

Question 9.
Look at the picture given below

Answer the following:
a) Identify the leader given in the picture.
b) Name the Military Organization that he formed.
c) State any two objectives of that organisation.
Answer:
a) The leader in the picture is Subhash Chandra Bose,
b) He formed India Nation Army a Military Organisation.
c) Objectives:

1. India’s independence was the utmost important.
2. Should take the help of the Japanese to throw out the British.

Question 10.
Appreciate the role of Subhash Chandra Bose.
Answer:

1. Subhash Chandra Bose was one of the greatest freedom fighters of India.
2. He wanted to take up the opportunity created by the difficulties of the British.
3. He believed that India’s independence was of utmost important.
4. For that he took the help of the enemies of the British, i.e., Japan and Germany.
5. Bose recruited “Prisioners of war” into his Indian National Army.
6. Bose continued in his chosen path though opposed by many.
7. His INA fought against the British for three years.
8. Though defeated, he has become immortal for his bravery.

Question 11.
Read the following para and comment on “Divide and Rule of British.”

Towards this end, the British government supported and encouraged the plans of the Muslim League and downplayed the importance of the Congress. It is in these years that the Muslim League and its leaders like M A Jinnah became more active in mass politics.

Answer:

1. The British were desperate with the Indian people revolting against their rule.
2. They wanted to finish Congress.
3. They looked for the ways to weaken its hold over the people of India.
4. They created doubt among Muslims and adopted and implemented their age-old policy of “Divide and Rule”.
5. They encouraged the plans of the Muslim League.
6. During early years “it” did not receive much support.
7. By 1937 and in 1946 elections it succeeded. .
8. The British followed “Divide and Rule” policy and they are successful in dividing India into two countries.

Question 12.
Read the letter of Gandhiji to Hitler and answer the following question.

LETTER TO ADOLF HITLER

HERR HITLER
BERLIN
GERMANY

DEAR FRIEND,
Friends have been urging me to write to you for the sake of humanity. But I have resisted their request, because of the feeling that any letter from me would be an impertinence. Something tells me that I must not calculate and that I must make my appeal for whatever it may be worth.

It is quite clear that you are today the one person in the world who can prevent a war which may reduce humanity to the savage state.

Must you pay that price for an object however worthy it may appear to you to be? Will you listen to the appeal of one who has deliberately shunned the method of war not without considerable success?
Any way I anticipate your forgiveness if I have erred in writing to you.

I remain,

Your sincere friend,
M. K. GANDHI

What was the appeal of Gandhi to Hitler?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji wrote the letter to Hitler for the sake of humanity.
2. Gandhiji thought that Hitler was the only one person who could prevent world war.
3. Gandhiji was saying that the price for the war however not worth the benefit that Hitler was expecting.
4. Gandhiji felt that Hitler should save the world from the disastrous war.

Question 13.
A few incidents of National movement are described here. Study them and answer the given questions.

Sl.No.	Year	Incident of Importance
1.	1939 October	Congress ministries in Provincial Assemblies resigned resenting the attitude of the British Government.
2.	1940-41	Congress decided to organize individual satyagrahas and get arrested to pressurize the British.
3.	1942	After the failure of Cripps Mission Gandhiji gave a Mantra ‘do or die’ in ‘Quit India’ Movement.
4.	1942	Subhash Chandra Bose, formed Indian National Army to fight the British to get Independence.
5.	1946	A strike was organised by the guards of Royal Indian Navy at Mumbai.

a) Who founded Indian National Army?
Answer:
Subhash Chandra Bose founded Indian National Army.

b) Which movement was organised after the failure of Cripps Mission?
Answer:
Quit India movement was organised after the failure of Cripps Mission.

c) When did the Congress ministries resign?
Answer:
The Congress ministries resigned in October 1939.

d) Which incident took place in the year 1946?
Answer:
A strike by Royal Indian Navy Guards at Mumbai was the incident took place in the year 1946.

e) When were individual satyagrahas organised?
Answer:
Individual satyagrahas were organised from 1940 to 1941.

Question 14.
Identify the following places related to National Movement in the given map of India.

1. Punjab
2. Sindh
3. Kashmir
4. Baluchistan
5. Bengal
6. Hyderabad
7. Junagadh
8. Assom
9. Afghan

Answer:

Question 15.
Locate the following in the given map of World.
1. Pakistan

2. This country ruled India for two hundred years
Answer: Great Britain

3. This country was ruled by Dutch people
Answer: Indonesia

4. This is called tear drop of Indian Ocean
Answer: Sri Lanka

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 13 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following bar diagram and answer the question.

How many persons were killed per 1000 people in wars in the 20th century?
Answer:
44.4

Question 2.
Observe the following bar-graph:

Between what years the armaments race was raised?
Answer:
1910-1914.

Question 3.
What was the immediate cause for the World War -1?
Answer:
Murder of Archduke franz Ferdinand of Austria by a Serbian fanatic.

Question 4.
With which countries did Bismarck make the Secret Alliances?
Answer:
Austria and Italy.

Question 5.
Write two slogans on the necessity of peace.
Answer:

1. Hate war – love peace.
2. Peace is civilization.

Question 6.
What is militarism?
Answer:
Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is a good way to solve problems.
“UN is a kind of world government based on four principles.”

Question 7.
What are the four principles?
(OR)
What are the four principles on which the UNO was founded?
Answer:

1. Preserve world peace,
2. Uphold human rights,
3. Respect international law and
4. Promote social progress.

Question 8.
Write two slogans against wars.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

(OR)
Write any two slogans against wars.
Answer:

1. Peace is angle, war is a ghost.
2. War is extensive, peace is priceless.
3. War wins land, peace wins people.
4. War kills people, peace build people.

Question 9.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions.
a) In which century, is the number of war deaths low?
Answer:
16th-century

b) Why is the number of war deaths high during 1900 -1999?
Answer:

1. Two World Wars.
2. Use of modern weapons like nuclear weapons, poisonous gases.

Question 10.
Mention any one condition laid in the Versailles Treaty.
Answer:
Conditions laid in the Versailles Treaty:

1. Economic conditions,
2. Territorial conditions.
3. Military cuts, restriction of naval strength.

Question 11.
Write two reasons for the failure of the League of Nations.
Answer:
Reasons for the failure of League of Nations are:

1. Super powers were not the members of the League.
2. The League failed to prevent Germany, Japan and Italy from attacking/waging war against other countries.
3. The member countries violated international agreements.

Question 12.
Observe the given table and answer questions (a) and (b).
Annual Expenditure on National Defence (Million Dollars).

	1935	1936	1937	1939
Britain	595	846	1263	1817
Germany	381	2600	3600	4400

a) Which country’s annual growth of national defence expenditure is more?
Answer:
Germany’s annual growth of national defence expenditure is more.

b) Write any two reasons for the increase of defence expenditure in Britain and Germany.
Answer:
Britain and Germany are rival countries. This led to secret Alliances, Arms race, Imperialism and always they are suspecting each other.

Question 13.
What was the reason for American entry into World War II?
Answer:
The main reason is Japan attacked on American Naval base Pearl Harbour. So America entered into World War II.

Question 14.
Certain military cuts were imposed by the Treaty of Versailles on Germany State any two cuts.
Answer:

1. Germany was asked to pull down its army strength to 100,000 from 900,000.
2. It was also asked not to have submarines and restrict its naval strength to six battle-ships of less than 10,000 tonnes and a dozen a torpedo boats and destroyers each.

Question 15.
Who called the 20th century “the Age of Extremes”?
Answer:
Eric Hobsbawm called the 20th century “the Age of Extremes”.

Question 16.
Which countries were developed as industrial countries at the beginning of the 20th century?
Answer:
Britain, USA, Germany, France, Italy, Japan etc.

Question 17.
Name the countries of Triple Entente.
Answer:
Russia, France and Britain.

Question 18.
Which countries were formed as Triple Alliance?
Answer:
Germany, Italy and Austria.

Question 19.
What do you mean by “Militarism”?
Answer:
Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.

Question 20.
Name two aggressive forms of Nationalism.
Answer:
Nazism in Germany and Fascism in Italy are the aggressive forms of Nationalism.

Question 21.
Enlist the empires that ended after World War – 1.
Answer:
The Austro Hungarian Empire, the Russian Empire, the Ottoman Empire, the German empire, etc. were the empires that ended after the First World War.

Question 22.
Name the territories handed over by Germany to France after World War – 1.
Answer:
Alsace and Lorraine.

Question 23.
How did the French break their isolation?
Answer:
The French broke their isolation by striking a mutual alliance with Russia in 1891 and after resolving irritants, with Britain in 1904.

Question 24.
What were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in a destructive mode?
Answer:
Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in destructive mode.

Question 25.
How was the world divided?
Answer:
The world was divided into the West which was experiencing economic growth and ‘the Rest’ whose acute backwardness was wors¬ened by colonial exploitation by the West.

Question 26.
What was the change in literacy levels?
Answer:
Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all.

Question 27.
Write down some results of the Great Depression.
Answer:

1. Massive unemployment
2. Economic breakdown
3. Two World Wars.

Question 28.
How was the world at the beginning of the 20th century?
Answer:
At the beginning of the 20th century, the world was divided into developed industrialised countries of the West and colonial countries of Asia and Africa.

Question 29.
What were the two rival blocks in the industrialised countries?
Answer:
Germany – Austria – Hungary Vs Britain – France – Russia.

Question 30.
Why was the First World War truly a world war?
Answer:
The First World War was truly a world war as virtually no country was left untouched by it from Japan and China in the East to the US in the West.

Question 31.
How did the First World War end?
Answer:
The First World War ended in the defeat of Germany and its allies and in the victory of Britain and France in 1918.

Question 32.
How did the Second World War end?
Answer:
The Second World War ended in the defeat of Germany and its allies but before it ended it had ravaged all the warring countries.

Question 33.
Who attacked on Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
The U.S. attacked on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

Question 34.
What was the second fact about the world during the period?
Answer:
The second fact about the world during this period is the division of the world into nation-states and grouping of these nations of the world into power blocks and the degeneration of these alliances into war camps.

Question 35.
What happened by the end of the 19th century?
Answer:
By the end of the 19th century, different nations of Europe entered into alliances with each other against other blocks. Two main blocks emerged – the Centre and the Entente or Allies.

Question 36.
Who led the two blocks in the Second World War?
Answer:
The Axis powers were led by Germany and the Allies led by Britain, the US and the USSR.

Question 37.
What were the three main long term factors which led to World War – 1?
Answer:

1. Aggressive nationalism
2. Imperialism
3. Secret alliances and militarism.

Question 38.
What were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in a destructive mode?
Answer:
Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in destructive mode.

Question 39.
Why did Bismarck enter into a secret alliance with Austria and Italy?
Answer:
After defeating France in 1870, Bismarck, the German Chancellor, decided to isolate it. To achieve this end, he entered into a secret alliance with Austria in 1879 and with Italy in 1882.

Question 40.
How did the French break their isolation?
Answer:
The French broke their isolation by striking a mutual alliance with Russia in 1891 and after resolving irritants, with Britain in 1904.

Question 41.
What is the result of the secret alliances?
Answer:
Instead of real peace, these alliances created an atmosphere of fear and ‘armed peace’ in Europe.

Question 42.
When did the British women get the right to vote?
Answer:
The British women got the right to vote in 1918.

Question 43.
Who participated in the Conference of Peace at Versailles?
Answer:
The five big victorious powers of the time viz. the USA, the UK, France, Italy and Japan participated in this conference.

Question 44.
Who were not invited to the conference?
Answer:
Socialist Russia and the vanquished powers were not invited to the conference.

Question 45.
Why was the League of Nations set up?
Answer:
The League of Nations was set up to prevent wars in the future.

Question 46.
How was the League of Nations hoped?
Answer:
The League of Nations was hoped that it would help eliminate wars through “collective security” and settle disputes between countries through arbitration or negotiation.

Question 47.
What were the two ideologies to which the workers turned?
Answer:

1. Socialism and
2. Communism.

Question 48.
Which empires were ended with the World War – 1?
Answer:
The Austro Hungarian empire, the Russian empire, the Ottoman Empire and the German empire, etc.

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the timeline given and answer the following questions.

Beginning of First World War on July 28	1914
Russian Revolution	1917
End of First World War	1918
Treaty of Versailles	1919
Formation of League of Nations	1919
Rise of Hitler in Germany	1933
Breakout of Second World War	1939
German invasion of USSR	1941
Formation of United Nations Organization	1945
End of Second World War in August	1945

a) When did the Russian Revolution take place?
Answer:
The Russian Revolution take place in 1917.

b) Which organisation was formed for peace after World War – II?
Answer:
United Nations Organisation.

c) What are the peace organizations formed after the two World Wars?
Answer:

1. League of Nations,
2. United Nations Organization.

Question 2.
Mention any two happenings of 20th century in support of calling it, “The Age of Extremes”.
Answer:

1. The Two world wars occurred in this age.
2. The world saw the Great Depression in the same period.
3. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights.
4. Women got right to vote firstly during this period.

Question 3.
Plot the information given below on a bar-graph :
The Armaments Race

Year	1880	1890	1900	1910	1914
Military Expenditure in Million Pounds	132	158	205	288	397

Answer:

Question 4.
Write your analysis on the graph given below.
Answer:

1. The above graph explains about Armaments Race from 1880 to 1914.
2. From 1880 to 1914 the military expenditure of the big powers were increased by over 300% i,e., from 132 million to 397 million.
3. Each and every country gave more importance to built more army to protect from their enemies.
4. The main theme of militarism is it is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and analyze the military expenditure in the World War-1 participant countries.

S.No.	Year	Military expenditure in million pounds
1.	1880	132
2.	1890	158
3.	1900	205
4.	1910	288
5.	1914	397

Observe the following graph and write a paragraph on the armament race.

Answer:

1. The graph shows that the military expenditure of the great countries has been increasing since 1880.
2. Military expenditure increases for every 10 years because of the armament race.
3. During 1914, the weapons were prepared on large scale and 397 million pounds were spent.
4. Since 1880 to 1914 the military experience increased in three folds.
5. Countries like Germany, Great Britain, Russia, Italy and France are some countries that spend more money on weapons.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and interpret. How can you justify “The women getting the right to vote was a big step”?

After a long struggle for political right like right to vote, British women got these rights in 1918. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services are necessary, with men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with confidence, being breadwinners, women began raising their voices for equality in all walks of life. Getting the right to vote was a big step in that direction.

Answer:

1. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services were necessary.
2. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and Schools,
3. Beginning with the confidence of being bread winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.
4. They established the ‘International Women’s Suffragist Movement’ organization in 1914 for right to vote,
5. After a long struggle for political right like right to vote-British women got them in 1918.
6. Getting the right to vote was a big st2ep towards equality in all walks of life,

Question 7.
Prepare a few slogans on the prevention of wars.
(OR)
Create two slogans on promoting peace.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet to creat awareness on the loss incurred due to wars.
Answer:
Pamphlet

Consequences of wars

Wars are occured because of conquering the world and with the aim of exploiting resources of other countries. Some time dominance is the aim spread of ism or ideology is also preceding to wars.

In olden days, if there was a war, only those participating in the war would die, but nowadays very dangerous, poisonous weapons are available. Ordinary civilians also die. In 1945 what ‘ happened In Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan. Still some people are facing the consequences.

My request to all the country heads not to clear a way to wars. Better sit together and go for a smoother solution and avoid dangers.

xxx
Publishers.

Copies – 2000.

Question 9.
Observe the timeline and answer the questions.

Beginlng of First World War on August 1	1914
Russian Revolution	1917
End of First World War	1918
Treaty of Versailles	1919
Formation of League of Nations	1919
Rise of Hitler In Germany	1933
Breakout of Second World War	1939
German Invasion of USSR	1942
Formation of United Nations Organization	1945
End of Second World War in August	1945

a) Which year did Russia withdraw from World War -1?
Answer:
Russia withdrew from the World War -1 In 1917.

b) When did Hitler invade Poland?
Answer:
Hitler invaded poland on 1st September, 1939.

Question 10.
Prepare a few slogans on the prevention of wars and the promotion of peace.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

Question 11.
The world was divided into “the West” which was experiencing economic growth and “the Rest” whose acute backwardness was worsened by colonial exploitation by the West.”
Read the above lines and interpret it.
Answer:

1. At the beginning of the 20th century, the world experienced two different blocks – the West and the Rest.
2. “The West” were all those countries like England, USA who were the leading industrial powers and they were experiencing economic growth.
3. “The Rest” were all the countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.
4. They experienced extreme backwardness.
5. That backwardness was worsened by the colonial exploitation of these countries by “the West”.
6. This colonization and imperialism later led to World Wars.

Question 12.
Read the passage and interpret it.

Aggressive nationalism
The ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse. It was the foundation of modern nation-states and the force behind the unification of Germany and Italy. But this ideology could also be used to create pride in one self and hatred against neighbours. This hatred was slowly building up in the 19th century between the states of Europe.

Answer:

1. Countries like Germany and Italy were unified in 1870.
2. Nationalism was an impulse behind unification.
3. Nationalism developed pride in them.
4. At the same time “it” developed hatred towards other nation.
5. This hatred led to aggressive farms like Nazism in Germany and Fascism in Italy.
6. They challenged other countries.
7. Finally, this aggressive nationalism led to World War II.

Question 13.
Study the timeline given and answer the following questions.

Begining of First World War on July 28	1914
Russian Revolution	1917
End of First World War	1918
Treaty of Versailles	1919
Formation of League of Nations	1919
Rise of Hitler in Germany	1933
Breakout of Second World War	1939
German invasion of USSR	1941
Formation of United Nations Organization	1945
End of Second World War in August	1945

a) What was the period of World War -1?
Answer:
The period of World War-1 was 1914-18 AD.

b) Name the organizations formed after the World Wars.
Answer:
League of Nations and UNO were formed after the World Wars respectively.

c) Who was responsible for World War – II?
Answer:
Hitler was responsible for World War – II.

d) What was the period of World War – II?
Answer:
The period of World War – II was 1939-45 AD.

Question 14.
Read the map and answer the following questions.
a) Name two countries that did not fall under the German Empire.
Answer:
Portugal, Spain, Turkey and Sweden.

b) Which country belonged to Allied block?
Answer:
England.

Question 15.
Discuss the death and destruction during two World Wars.
(OR)
Wars cause destruction. Prove it.
Answer:

1. World War I claimed 10 million men.
2. World War II claimed 22-25 million military casualties.
3. It also claimed 40-52 million civilian deaths.
4. It included 6 million Jews killed by Nazis.
5. It included 1,50,000 to 2,46,000 people were killed immediately by atom bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan by the USA.
6. The after-effects like leukaemia, cancer lingered on for decades.

Question 16.
Imperialism created much stress often leading to wars – Explain.
Answer:

1. As industrial capital developed in the European countries like Britain, Germany and US, they needed Markets for their products and access to raw materials.
2. As capital further accumulated in Banks and financial institutions, they looked for safe investment opportunities in colonies.
3. Thus by the end ofthe 19th century there was a race for colonies between the European powers.
4. The governments of these countries acted on behalf of their capitalists to increase their areas of influence and reduce the area under their competitors.
5. As new industrial powers (like Japan, Germany and Italy) emerged they wanted to re-divide the colonies but the old powers were not ready for this.
6. This created much stress often leading to wars.

Question 17.
What do you know about the Militarism?
Answer:

1. Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.
2. From 1880 to 1914, the military expenditure of the six big powers increased by over 300%.
3. Three things are noteworthy in the context of militarism. Each of these countries built massive standing armies, competed with each other in increasing their armaments and built a mindset among the people to support wars.
4. Large industrial complex producing arms emerged which constantly promoted the idea of using war as a solution to diplomatic problems.

Question 18.
How can you say that the League of Nations was failed?
Answer:
Even though it showed a lot of promise and much was expected of it, it failed eventually to prevent Germany and Italy from violating international agreements and attacking other countries. So the World War – II emerged. Hence we can say League of Nations was failed.

Question 19.
What is the change in colonies during and after the World War -1 and II?
Answer:
During the First World War, on the demand of their subjects, the colonialists accepted the principle that self-government is desirable in colonies. With the process of decolonization, after World War II, the colonies rose to independence and hundreds of new countries were born across Asia and Africa.

Question 20.
What were the changes in the map of world?
Answer:
With World War I the German, Austro- Hungarian, Russian and Turkish empires came to an end. The map of eastern and central Europe was redrawn on the basis of nationality, economic viability and military security. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.

Question 21.
Write about the UNO.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II. UN is a kind of world government based on four principles, viz. preserve peace, uphold human rights, respect international law and promote social progress. It works through organs like UNICEF, UNESCO, WHO, ILO, etc.

Question 22.
Explain the Enfranchisement of women.
Answer:
After a long struggle for political right like the right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. In the long protracted wars like the World Wars, industrial production and other services are necessary. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life. Getting the right to vote was a big step in that direction.

Question 23.
What was the immediate provocation for World War -1?
Answer:
The immediate provocation for World War – I was the murder on 28th June 1914 of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria by Serbian fanatic. Austria declared war on Serbia. As Serbia was with Allied Powers the Austrian attack on it led these powers to come to Serbia’s defence. Then the Central Powers, allied to Austria, also joined the war and this Marked the beginning of World War-1.

Question 24.
What was the immediate provocation for World War – II?
Answer:
The immediate provocation for World War II was the German tanks driving into Poland on September 1,1939. Hitler invaded Poland as punishment for refusing to hand over the port of Danzig to Germany. Polish territory lay between two parts of Germany. Hitler thought the takeover of Poland will also be a small military operation. But Poland had a defence pact with Britain which jumped on to the Polish side and France joined them a day later. This marked the beginning of World War II.

Question 25.
What was the policy of ‘appeasement’ of Hitler?
Answer:
The western capitalist countries like Britain were afraid of the Communist Revolution in other countries of Europe like Russia and initially encouraged Hitler and the Nazis of consolidating themselves to act as a buffer against Soviet Socialism. This was the policy of ‘appeasement’ of Hitler.

Question 26.
“The USA could not become a member of the League of Nations.” Why?
Answer:
The USA could not become a member as the US Congress refused to sanction the proposal of President Woodrow Wilson even though he was very active in the formation of the League.

Question 27.
Write about Industrial capitalism.
Answer:
Industrial capitalism had changed the way of many people earned their livelihood but only in the western countries. Some of these countries, especially Britain, were leading industrial powers but also held vast colonial empires, spread all over the world.

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the causes that lead to the two World Wars? (OR)
Write about the main reasons which are responsible for the two World Wars.
Answer:
I. Aggressive Nationalism:

1. The Ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse.
2. Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive Nazism in destructive mode.

II. Imperialism:

1. As new industrial powers (like Japan, Germany and Italy) emerged they wanted to redivide the colonies.
2. This created much stress often leading to wars.

III. Secret alliances:

1. Triple Alliance and Triple Entente made the European powers jealous and suspicious of one another.

IV. Militarism:

1. Each country built massive standing armies and competed with each other in increasing armaments.
2. They built a mindset among the people to support wars.

V. Arms Race :

1. The race for armaments and stock piling of war materials by all European coun¬tries created tensions in the world.

VI. The Treaty of Versailles :

1. World War I ended with the conference on Peace at Versailles in 1919.
2. To weaken Germany, the Treaty of Versailles imposed some territorial penalties and military cuts on its.
3. Failure of League of Nations was the an-other cause.VII. German challenge to vengeful domination : They wanted to recover the terri¬tories lost by them, in the Treaty of Versailles, restore German dominance over Central Europe and end the restrictions on German armaments.

VIII. Immediate causes:

1. The immediate cause of First World War was the murder of Ferdinand of Austria.
2. The immediate cause of Second World War was the Hitler attacked on Poland.

Question 2.
What were the terms of the “Treaty of Versailles’? Explain at what extent it was caused for outbreak of the Second World War.
Answer:
Treaty of Versailles was an agreement between the victorious countries and Germany signed in 1919 after 1st World War.
Terms of Treaty of Versailles:

1. Territorial arrangements.
2. Military clauses
3. Economic clauses

Treaty of Versailles caused for outbreak of the Second World War:

1. The vanquished power Germany was not invited to the conference. Hence they thought the treaty was imposed on them, they had no respect responsibility for it.
2. The treaty aimed to weaken Germany in all aspects like – to return its colonies, reduce military, territorial penalties, huge war indemnity.
3. This created a reaction in Germany and wanted to recover the territories and restore German dominance over Europe.
4. Hitler’s invasion on Poland on Sept. 1st – 1939 gave rise to the cause of the 2nd World War.

Question 3.
Observe the following graph and answer the given questions.

a) How much was the military expenditure of great powers in 1914?
Answer:
397 Million Pounds

b) What are tripple entente countries?
Answer:
Russia, France and Britain.

c) State the allied powers.
Answer:
Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy.

d) How many times, the military expenditure, increased from 1880 to 1914?
Answer:
3 times

Question 4.
Observe the information given in the above graph (See Q.No. 3) and write few sentences by analysing it.
Answer:

1. In 19th century the military expenditure raised slowly.
2. But during the 20th century, it raised rapidly.
3. Before the First World War, the expenditure increased to its maximum level.
4. Within four years i.e., between 1910¬1914 the expenditure raised nearly by 109 million pounds.
5. In the decade of 1880-1890, the raise of expenditure was 26 million pounds only.

Question 5.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below:

1. What does the above graph explain?
   Answer:
   This graph explained about War related deaths from 1500-1999.
2. In which period, war related deaths were more?
   Answer:
   From 1900 -1999.
3. In which century, “deaths per 1000 people” were low?
   Answer:
   In 16th century
4. Give two suggestions to prevent wars?
   Answer:
   1. We can prevent wars by adopting a policy of mutual co-existence and respecting the sovereignty of other countries.
   2. Disputes between countries should be settled peacefully by talks.

Question 6.
How did the idea of Nationalism lead to the World Wars?
(OR)
How did the idea of Nation-states and Nationalism influence desire for war during 20th century?
Answer:
Nationalism is a belief, creed or political ideology that involves an individual identifying with or becoming attached to one’s nation.

1. The ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse.
2. It was the foundation of modern nation states.
3. But later it became aggressive nationalism.
4. It is used to create pride in oneself and hatred against neighbors.
5. Fascists in Italy tried to build images of victories with it.
6. Nazis of Germany mobilised Germans against other nations of Europe.
7. These incidents led to World War.
8. Thus, we can say the idea of nation-states and nationalism influenced the desire for war during World Wars.’

Question 7.
Observe the given Europe map and answer the following question.
List out the Axis Power group and Central Allies group.
Answer:

Axis Powers	Allied Powers
Austria	USSR
Germany	Romania
Turkey	Britain
Bulgaria	France
Italy	USA
Japan	Poland

Question 8.
What are the important developments that took place in the first half of the 20th century? Explain any two of them.
(OR)
“The 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.” – Justify.
Answer:

1. Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century ‘The Age of Extremes’.
2. Politically, the world saw shoots of democratic aspirations grow amidst the rise of Fascist domination which fostered ideologies of unquestioned power and hatred for other people.
3. Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all.
4. New forms of art like movies emerged.
5. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights unlocking the secrets of atom and life.
6. Women, who constitute half the world’s population, got their right to vote in this period, starting with the West.
7. Literally more than a hundred nations walked to independence and freedom across the world.
8. This was also an age of great experimentation as people strove to build socialist societies based on the principles of equality and fraternity or alternatively a liberal democracy based on political liberty and capitalist economy.
9. But the same period saw the “Great Depression” causing massive unemployment and economic breakdown and two World Wars in which millions died and the lives of many more millions were dislocated.
10. Hence, the 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.

Question 9.
Observe the below graph and answer the following questions.

1. In which year, the military expenditure was high? Why?
   Answer:
   In the year of 1914 the military expenditure was high because the year is the beginning of World War -1.
2. How would the armaments race impact the progress of a country?
   Answer:
   1. Armaments race was not only brought new technology into the world but also brushed a wave of nerves.
   2. It crease tension among the nations.
   3. Some countries developed very well with production and sale of arms, but some are destroyed by other nations with these arms.

Question 10.
What steps would you suggest to prevent these World Wars among the countries?
(OR)
Suggest some measures to protect World peace.
(OR)
Suggest measures to prevent wars between countries.
Answer:
To prevent World Wars, all the countries on the earth must follow the following steps.

1. The countries one and all should give up their attitude of aggressive nationalism.
2. Every country should be ready to disarmamentation of herself.
3. All the countries should promise to stop the usage of nuclear and chemical weapons.
4. Every country should be committed to development, not but to arms race.
5. Every country should respect the sovereignty and integrity of all other countries.
6. Every country should pledge not to interfere in the internal affairs of other countries.
7. Countries must negotiate or go to International Court of Justice in case of disputes, but not to resort to wars.

Question 11.
Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments. Justify the statement with the help of suitable examples.
Answer:
Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century ‘The Age of Extremes’.Politically, the world saw shoots of democratic aspirations grow amidst the rise of Fascist domination which fostered ideologies of unquestioned power and hatred for other people. Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all. New forms of art like movies emerged. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights unlocking the secrets of atom and life. Women, who constitute half the world’s population, got their right to vote in this period, starting with the West. Literally more than a hundred nations walked to independence and freedom across the world. This was also an age of great experimentation as people strove to build socialist societies based on the principles of equality and fraternity or alternatively a liberal democracy based on political liberty and a capitalist economy. But the same period saw the “Great Depression” causing massive unemployment and the economic breakdown and two World Wars in which millions died and the lives of many more millions were dislocated. Hence, the 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.

Question 12.
Observe the graph and answer the questions:
a) How many people die in wars in the 16th century?
b) From the graph, what is the trend of war deaths?
c) In which century highest number of war related deaths were recorded? Why?
Answer:
a) 1.6 million people were died in wars in 16th century.
b) Above graph explains trend of war death are gradually increasing.
c) In 20th century a highest number of war related deaths were recorded. Because two World Wars were held in that century only.

Question 13.
Read the paragraph and answer the following question.

To weaken Germany, the Treaty of Versailles imposed some territorial penalties and military cuts on it Firstly, Germans were asked to return their colonies in Africa occupied in the 1880s and European areas like Alsace and Lorraine which they occupied from France in 1871. Secondly, Germany was asked to pull down its army strength to 100,000from 900,000 during World War I.
It was also asked not to have submarines and restrict its naval strength to six battleships of less than 10,000 tonnes and a dozen torpedo boats and destroyers each.

Do you think the Second World War could have been avoided if the victorious powers had been more considerate towards Germany in 1919?
Answer:

1. The peace treaty after 1st World War imposed inhumane and humiliating terms on Germany.
2. Germans thought that the Treaty of Versailles was a diktat imposed on them.
3. Germans were asked to return colonies like Alsace and Lorraine.
4. Germans were asked to pull down its army strength to 1 lakh from 9 lakhs.
5. It was asked not to have submarines and restrictions were imposed on its naval strength.
6. These humiliating terms of Treaty of Versailles led to the rise of Hitler.
7. He recovered all the territories lost due to Treaty of Versailles.
8. Hence we can conclude that the Second World War could have been avoided if the victorious powers had been more considerate towards Germany.

(OR)

1. The Peace Treaty after First World War posed in-human and humiliating terms on Germany.
2. It definitely was one of the reasons for the Second World War.
3. But the victorious countries were more considerate towards Germany in 1919, would not have avoided the Second Warld War.
4. Countries like Germany, Italy and Japan were driven by Fascist superior feelings and wanted to have control over the world.
5. Keeping aside Germany, Italy and Japan joined the war only to serve their colonial interests and show the domination they enjoy the range of arms and military arrangements they have made, we cannot think of not happening of Second World War.

Question 14.
Study the following graph and answer the questions.
a) What does the above graph represent?
Answer:

1. The first bar column tells us the total number of deaths recorded during the century.
2. The 2nd bar column tells us the proportionate death due to wars.

b) Which century experienced decrease in the proportionate death rate?
Answer:
1700-1799 experienced a decrease in the proportionate death rate, i.e., from 11.2 in 1600-1699 to 9.7 in 1700-1799.

c) Why were the war related deaths high between 1900-1999?
Answer:
The world experienced two World Wars between 1900-1999. Hence the war-related deaths were high.

d) Compare 16th century with that of 20th century.
Answer:
Less than four people out of thousand died in the 16th century while it rose to 44.4 in the last century, i.e., nearly 4.5% of people died.

Question 15.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions.
a) What do you know from the graph?
Answer:
The graph shows that the military expenditure of the great countries has been increasing since 1880.

b) In which year were the weapons prepared in large scale?
Answer:
During 1914, the weapons were prepared in large scale.

c) Why did the expense on soldiers increase for every 10 years?
Answer:
The Governments spent much expenses on soldiers to increase their area of influence and to reduce the areas under their competitors.

d) What are the countries that spend more money on weapons?
Answer:
Countries like Germany, Great Britain, Russia, Italy and France were some countries that spend more money on weapons.

Question 16.
Observe the timeline chart and answer the following questions.
a) What was the immediate cause of World War-ll?
Answer:
Invasion of Poland by Germany was the immediate cause of World War-II.

b) When did the USA enter in World War – II?
Answer:
The USA joined the World War-ll on the 8th of December 1941.

c) Who was responsible for World War – II?
Answer:
Hitler, who became the Chancellor of Germany on 1933, was responsible for World War – II.

d) Why did mass murder of Jews take place in 1941?
Answer:
As the war proceeded the Nazi regime unfolded its horrible programme of building the racial supremacy of Germans by mass extermination of minority communities. Hence mass murder of Jews took place.

Question 17.
Write about the formation of UNO. On which principles it was based?
Answer:

1. After World War II United Nations Organisation was formed.
2. It was founded on 24 October 1945.
3. It is a kind of world government.
4. It was based on four principles viz.
   Preserve world peace, uphold human rights, respect international law and promote social progress.
5. It works through many organs.
6. It has played a major role in preserving world peace.

Question 18.
Describe women’s fight for Right to vote. (Or) Women were discriminated even in “Right to vote.” Justify.
Answer:

1. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services were necessary.
2. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools.
3. Beginning with confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.
4. They established ‘International Women’s Suffragist Movement organization in 1914 for right to vote.
5. After a long struggle for political right like right to vote-British women got them in 1918.
6. Getting the right to vote was a big step towards equality in all walks of life.

Question 19.
Eric Hobsbawm called 20th century as ‘The Age of Extremes’. How far do you agree with it?
Answer:

1. I do agree with his statement.
2. Politically, there were monarchies, Fascist dominations, colonies, democratic movements and independent countries in hundreds, during this period.
3. Scientifically, unlocked secrets of atom and life.
4. New forms of art, cinema emerged.
5. Women got right to vote.
6. Socialist societies, liberal democracies are formed.
7. Great depression caused mass unemployment and economic breakdown.
8. Millions died and many more millions dislocated in two World Wars.
9. World governments like United Nations were formed.
10. Thus, this is the ‘Age of Extremes’.

Question 20.
Locate the following countries on the outline map of world.

1. Austria
2. Serbia
3. Japan
4. China
5. USA
6. USSR
7. France
8. England
9. Germany
10. Italy
11. Hungary
12. Turkey
13. Bulgeria
14. Rumenia
15. India.

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.

1. The country is the responsible for World War -1.
   Answer: Germany
2. The capital or Russia.
   Answer: Moscow
3. The Treaty of Versailles was held in the country.
   Answer: France
4. The capital of America.
   Answer:
   Washington D.C.
5. This country declare war on Serbia.
   Answer: Austria
6. In 1948 UNO created a country for Jewish people.
   Answer: Israel
7. Angola
8. China
9. Egypt
10. Myanmar
11. New York

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 7 People and Settlement.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 7th Lesson People and Settlement

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which decade had the population of Delhi increased unusually? According to your opinion, what might be the main reason for the population increase?
Population of Delhi City

Year	Population (in lakhs)
1951	20
1961	35
1971	48
1981	68
1991	100
2001	120

Answer:
The population of Delhi increased mostly in the decades of 1981 and 1991.
I think the reasons are:

1. It is our national capital.
2. Its development.

Question 2.
Why do certain places attract more people as settlements? Mention the reasons.
Answer:
Water resources, security, employment opportunities etc.

Question 3.
What are called Mega cities?
Answer:
The cities having more than 10 million persons are Mega cities.

Question 4.
What is called a Metropolitan city? Give examples.
Answer:

1. A city having population between one million to 10 million is called a metropolitan city.
2. Examples: Chennai, Hyderabad and Ahmedabad.

Question 5.
State any two problems caused due to urbanization.
Answer:

1. Traffic problem will arise.
2. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
3. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
4. Air, water, sound pollutions are increased.

Question 6.
What do we have in a settlement?
Answer:
In a settlement, we have different kinds of activities – educational, religious, commercial, etc.

Question 7.
Why were the early humans called hunter-gatherers?
Answer:
Early humans hunted and gathered their food. That is why they were called hunter-gatherers.

Question 8.
The hunter-gatherers were nomads. Why?
Answer:
The hunter-gatherers were kept moving from place to place. This was in search of food-gathering food from plants and trees and hunting animals for meat, hide, and other uses.

Question 9.
What tools did they use initially?
Answer:
Initially they used the tools made of stone. With these tools they were able to hunt more effectively and efficiently.

Question 10.
What happened as agriculture progressed?
Answer:
As agriculture progressed, people organised their life around patterns observed in nature. They also had time to speculate on other things – the movement of heavenly bodies.

Question 11.
What kinds of places attracted settlements?
Answer:
Some basic concepts are to be understood for this. Those are

1. site
2. situation and
3. the history of the place.

Question 12.
What does site refer to?
Answer:
Site refers to the characteristics of the place – its topography, altitude, water characteristics (does it have lakes, rivers, underground water, etc.), types of soils, security, shelter from natural t forces, and so on.

Question 13.
Name any two cities which were developed by the colonial powers.
Answer:
Mumbai and Chennai.

Question 14.
Which kind of villages has the most vibrant markets and fairs?
Answer:
The villages that are best connected have the most vibrant markets and fairs.

Question 15.
What is called Urbanisation?
Answer:
People have been increasingly taking up non-agriculture work and living in cities and towns. This is called Urbanisation.

Question 16.
Name the three cities which accommodate more than 10 million people each.
Answer:
Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata.

Question 17.
What are the problems in urbanization?
Answer:
Though there has been an increase in urbanization, the necessity of providing basic infrastructure that can support this growth is missing, e.g.: roads, drainage, electricity, water and public facilities.

Question 18.
What are aerotropolis ?
Answer:
A new kind of settlement is occurring in many countries, including India. These settlements around c large airports are called Aerotropolis.

Question 19.
What are the facilities in an aerotropolis?
Answer:
Hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business conferencing, etc.

Question 20.
What are the comforts of people in aerotropolis?
Answer:
People can fly in, conduct their business with their counterparts right there, and fly out- with ail ‘ the comfort of a city, without the traffic and other problems.

Question 21.
Name some form of aerotropolises that are emerging in India.
Answer:

1. Kempegowda International Airport – Bengaluru
2. Indira Gandhi International Airport – Delhi
3. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport – Hyderabad

Question 22.
What are Towns?
Answer:
All the urban areas having a population between 5000 to 1 lakh are called Towns.

Question 23.
What are Hamlets?
Answer:
A group of houses within the revenue village are called Hamlets.

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘Though there has been an increase in urbanization, the necessity of providing basic infrastructure that can support this growth is missing.’
What is your opinion on the conditions of urban poor people?
Answer:
Due to urbanization, the people of surrounding villages are reaching the towns and cities. Many of them are working in the unorganized sector. As they are economically backward, they are settling in slum areas.
Usually, they are occupying government unorganized (porambok) areas for their residences. Govt, also building colonies for them. Ex: Vambey Colony
But the slum areas in which they are living are lack of water, sanitation and toilet facilities. Mostly they are living in unhealthy conditions.

Question 2.
Why has the population of Visakhapatnam grown significantly over the centuries?
(OR)
Taking into consideration the past history and the present timings, state the causes for the escalation of population in Visakhapatnam according to your observation.
Answer:

1. Over the decades, Visakhapatnam’s population has grown significantly.
2. Visakhapatnam is a port city.
3. It developed industrially.
4. Many people came for work and settled in Visakhapatnam.
   So the population increased in Visakhapatnam.

Question 3.
Answer the questions by studying the data given below.

Population of Visakhapatnam

Year	Population	% change
1951	1,08,042	+ 53.8%
1961	2,11,190	+ 95.5%
1971	3,63,467	+ 72.1%
1981	6,03,630	+ 66.1%
1991	7,52,031	+ 24.6%
2001	13,45,938	+ 78.97%
2011	20,35,690	+ 51.2%

1. In which decade, the change in the population percentage is less?
   Answer:
   1981-91
2. What are the reasons for increasing population in Visakhapatnam ?
   Answer:
   1. Visakhapatanm is a port city.
   2. Employment opportunities.
   3. Migration from other places.

Question 4.
Describe the adverse impacts of urbanisation on environment.
Answer:

1. Air pollution increases.
2. Climate changes occur.
3. Drainage problems arise.
4. Non degradable garbage accumulates.

Question 5.
Delhi is the second biggest city in the country. Explain the reasons for it.
Answer:

1. The city of Delhi can claim to have been central to many empires that rilled India.
2. When India gained independence, the city remained its capital.
3. Over the decades, the city has attracted people from all parts of India as they migrated in search of livelihood, jobs, etc.
4. As the capital of the country, with the Parliament and Central Government offices there are people from all parts living in the city.
5. Surrounding areas of Delhi are developed. ,
6. Establishment of industries in surrounding areas of Delhi.

Question 6.
Analyse the problems of Urbanisation.
Answer:
Urbanisation: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation. Causes of urbanisation:

1. Natural growth
2. Inclusion of rural areas and
3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of work¬ers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 7.
What is an Aerotropolis ? Mention any two advantages of an aerotropolis over other cities?
Answer:
An aerotropolis is an urban plan in which the layout, infrastructure and economy is centered on an airport, existing as an airport city.
(or)
The settlements which centered around large airports are called aerotropolis.
Advantages:

1. People can fly to conduct their business with their counterparts right there, and fly out – with all the comfort of a city.
2. Many facilities like hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business, conferencing, etc, are provided right there.
   People ead Settlement

Question 8.
What happened as the population increased?
Answer:
As population increased, there was more specialization – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade in them. Rulers began to encourage craftpersons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements, i.e., towns where people did not work in agriculture expanded.

Question 9.
What do you know about Visakhapatnam?
Answer:
Visakhapatnam has a long history. It was ruled by different dynasties during pre-colonial times. During the 19th century, the British and French fought a naval battle over this city. Coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there. These ports would enable export of raw materials to the colonizing country.

Question 10.
What happened in early settlement periods? Give an example.
Answer:
In early settlement periods, places which had favourable water supply and good protection from invasions were preferred. For example, Chhatrapati Shivaji built a fort in Pratapgad, Maharashtra. This site was chosen because of its altitude from where all the surrounding areas could be seen. This provided military security.

Question 11.
Describe an annual fair in villages.
Answer:
Some villages also host an annual fair which is a larger market along with many cultural elements. Many events are held including music, dance, theatre, etc. Both the weekly markets and such fairs are also important to plant and animal genetics in the area because local seeds and livestock breeds are traded here. These fairs also often result in intermarriage among people from different villages.

Question 12.
Why did most of the population increase in cities and towns take place?
Answer:
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only one-fifth of the growth is due to rural-to-urban migration.

Question 13.
What happened as settlements became larger?
Answer:
As settlements became larger, they also became more complex because there were more functions to be performed – food production was not the qjily cOncem.Within each settlement, people specialised in certain skills. Many goods were produced for the market and sold to traders who carried them to far off places.

Question 14.
What does situation describe? Give one example.
Answer:
Places do not exist in isolation. They are in some way connected to other places. Situation describes the connections with other places. For example Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India.

Question 15.
Why did the settlements become more and more complex?
Answer:
As settlements became more and more diversified in their characteristics, they also became more and more complex. Gradually, a network of places in a hierarchy has been formed.

Question 16.
How does urban India contribute to Indians economic development?
Answer:
Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities. There is no major growth of industrial output over the last few decades.

Question 17.
Give some examples of emerging aerotropolises. (International)
Answer:

1. Suvarnabhoomi International Airport (Bangkok, Thailand)
2. Dubai International Airport (Dubai, UAE)
3. Cairo International Airport (Cairo, Egypt)
4. London Heathrew Airport (London, UK)

Question 18.
Write down some problems of urbanization.
Answer:

1. The growing urban population has to be housed.
2. It needs water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and many other things.
3. Vehicle use Increases.

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find out the changes in your settlement during the past twenty years, and find out the reasons for this.
Answer:
During the past 20 years, In our area :

1. Population Increased.
2. Transportation facilities extended.
3. The area of agricultural land has decreased.
4. The residential and shopping area has Increased.
5. Slums formed.
6. Environmental pollution Increased.
   Migrations and urbanisation are the main reasons for all these changes.

Question 2.
Increasing urbanization is not just about greater opportunities for people and economy. It also results in many problems.
– Express your attitude on the consequences of urbanization.
Answer:
There are a lot of problems occurring In the urban areas. They are:

• Scarcity of space and housing problem
• Increase of air, water, soil pollution
• Shortage of food items
• Increase of Plastic waste
• Increase of slum areas
• Increase of traffic problem
• Increase of sewage problem
• Pressure on the environment

Urbanisation is one of the Indicators of development. The governments hive to take necessary precautionary measures to avoid the problems while Increasing of towns and cities. Otherwise It may lead even to under development.

Question 3.
Explain the expansion of agriculture and emergence of towns.
Answer:
As agriculture progressed, people organised their life around patterns observed In nature.
For example, the seasonal cycles, how to predict climatic conditions how to plan the timing of cropping practices etc. They also had time to speculate on other things – the movements of heavenly bodies.
As population Increased, there was more specialisation – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged, The number and variety of goods produced Increased and so did the trade In them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle In urban areas. Due to this towns were emerged.

Question 4.
‘Urbanisation results in environmental stress’ – Do you agree with this statement? Support your answer.
Answer:
Urbanization results in environmental stress -1 agree with this statement because.

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed In these places.
2. The decrease In rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of workers In rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are Increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are Increased.
7. The unemployment increases In urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 5.
Study the paragraph given below and answer the following questions:
A new kind of settlement Is occurring In many countries, Including India. These settlements are centred around large airports. Hence the name aerotropolis.

1. What is called a settlement?
2. What is located at the centre of an aerotropolis?
3. What facilities are provided in an aerotropolis?
4. Give two example of aerotropolises in India.

Answer:

1. The way we organise ourselves and our living spaces in a place Is called a settlement.
2. Airport.
3.  In an aerotropolis the airport functions as a city In Its own right. Many facilities like hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business conferencing etc. are provided.
4. (i) Bengaluru International Airport
   (ii) Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi) and
   (iii) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (Hyderabad).

Question 6.
Mention the challenges of Urbanization and suggest remedies.
Answer:
Urbanisation: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation.
Causes of urbanisation:

1. Natural growth
2. Inclusion of rural areas and
3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of workers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers is increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Remedies:

1. Controlling of migrations from villages to towns and cities.
2. Recycling of waste materials.
3. Provide more employment opportunities in villages.
4. Eradicate the use of plastic.

Question 7.
Give solutions to address the urbanization problems.
Answer:

1. Proper maintenance of sewage water.
2. Proper supply of drinking water.
3. Providing infrastructural facilities in rural areas.
4. Giving importance to Agriculture.
5. Establishing industries in rural areas to generate employment.
6. Widening of urban roads.
7. Strict implementation of rules to reduce pollution.
8. Co-ordination among different wings or departments.

Question 8.
What kind of places are attracted as settlements? Explain.
Answer:
Some places attract more people. There are many reasons for it. Some of them are:

1. Good transport facilities: These facilities reduce the journey time. Hence a place which has good transport facilities attract the people more.
2. Good living conditions: One cannot change his own environment. The place which has good sanitation. Public transport system. Pollution free environment naturally attract more people.
3. Education, job opportunities: Having good education gives a chance to take a good profession. The places which have good educational institutions and companies attract more people.
4. Other reasons: Availability of good health services, having basic needs like electricity, peaceful life style are some of the other factors contributing attracting people.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
As population Increased, there was more specialization-weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade In them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements i.e., towns, where people did not practice agriculture expanded.
Answer:
At the beginning the rulers encourage the crafts persons to settle in urban area. Slowly the facilities are increasing In urban areas. People who are not having land they are migrating to towns & cities and improve their living conditions. After some years industrials are established they left their occupations and joined in industries for better life.
Slowly town areas are increasing, population also increasing and the people who depends on agriculture Is also slowly decreasing. The share of agriculture in GDP also reducing. But In urban areas the people are facing so many problems.

Question 10.
How were the settlements begun and explain, why do they change?
Answer:
Settlements: For about 1.8 lakh years, early humans lived in bands as hunter gatherers. They didn’t practice agriculture. However owing to changes in ways of obtaining food some bands took to the deliberate method of production of food agriculture.

Basic concepts of settlements are site; situation and history of the place. With regard to site of a place, its topography, altitude, lakes, rivers, type of soil, security, shelter and so on will be observed. Places do not exist in isolation. Elevated place are useful to see the surroundings if anybody is approaching can be identified easily. Historical background is also an important one for people to decide to reside there.

For the sake of livelihoods and migration settlements change. Delhi was the capital for many dynasties for many years. People do not want to stay at their places in rural areas. The people suffer a lot at rural areas because of distress in agriculture. The formers also want to send their children to cities and towns for the sake of education and employment. Sometimes the rural people migrate to urban areas for livelihoods, jobs, or to settle in any constructive work. Many people in cities and towns choose seif employed work. Because of these reasons settlements have been changing.

Question 11.
Explain with examples, How Site, Situation and the History of a place plays a vital role in human settlement?
Answer:
To understand what kind of places attracted settlements, we need to look at these basic concepts.

1. Site
2. Situation
3. The history of the place.

Site: Site refers to the characteristics of the place – its topography, altitude, water characteristics types of soils, security, shelter from natural forces, and so on.

In early settlement periods, places which had favorable water supply and good protection from invasions were preferred. Ex: Chatrapathi Shivaji built a fort inPratapghad, Maharashtra. Situation: Situation describes the connections with other places.
For Example: Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India. The history of the place: Visakhapatnam has a long history. It was ruled by different dynasties during pre-colonial times coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
In fact, cities such as Mumbai and Chennai were further developed by the colonial powers to better exploit the natural resources of India. The fight for Visakhapatnam was for similar reasons. Visakhapatnam as we now know it, is made up of several other places. After the British took it over, its boundaries were redrawn several times and have been constantly expanding.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that when the British people came to India a few dries like Mumbai and Chennai were developed for the sake of exploiting our natural resources.
2. Visakhapatnam is also one of the cities developed like that.
3. Much development is seen in Visakhapatnam once it came under the control of the British.
4. My comments on this paragraph are that the colonial rulers concentrated on their profits and benefits but not the development of India.
5. They did the same in Africa and Asian countries.
6. I conclude with this suggestion that after Independence our rulers should have concentrated on the development of many cities and towns.
7. Now Visakhapatnam is expanding in all comers. Other cities also should be developed similar way.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
As populations increased, there was more specialization – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade in them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements, i.e. towns where people did not work in agriculture expanded.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph, it is understood that the increase in population leads to different professions.
2. Different goods and services are, produced. In cities and towns there is no agriculture but new sources of employment are seen.
3. My opinion on this paragraph is that many new sorts of livelihoods are started.
4. When there is a scope for new profession emerging, the people should acquire new skills based on the new technology.
5. When there is new profession, new goods or services are produced and so market changes its nature.
6. In conclusion I would like to say that when there is much demand one should understand the trend in the society and shift accordingly.
7. For better employment, people need skill. Though they are not educated enough, they should be skilled in some area.
8. In which profession they have skill, they should go for that.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret it.
Some villages also host an annual fair which is a larger market along With many cultural dements. Many events are held including music, dance, theatre, etc. Both the weekly markets and such fairs are also important to plant and animal genetics in the area because local seeds and livestock breeds are traded here. These fairs also often result in intermarriage among people from different villages.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given here the village fairs are very important. Many activities take place there.
2. They play very crucial and key role in the development of the villages and cultural exchanges.
3. Some entertainment programmes are also there.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that the village fairs are useful to the farmers but there is a problem of mediators.
5. Many of the remote villages are not connected to major villages.
6. They still face problems of roads and transportation.
7. Nowadays connectivity is the major theme.
8. It is considered internationally and many of the countries are trying to improve the connectivity.
9. At the village fairs it is necessary to provide various facilities to the farmers those who come from distant places.

Question 15.
Read the paragraph and write your opinion.
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. The population of these urban areas increased over time. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only one-fifth of the growth is due to rural -to – urban migration.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the natural growth within the urban areas is more as the expansion is going on around the cities and towns.
2. When a city or town expands the surrounding villages will be submerged in the city or town.
3. The migration from rural areas is very less.
4. My opinion is that it is not common in all the cities and towns. In some cities and towns it may be correct but in many areas the migrants are more in number.
5. They are coming from rural areas to urban areas. They have different reasons like livelihood, employment, children education, medical services for their chronic patients, dejection in agriculture and other.
6. When all these people came to cities and towns there will be many problems.
7. Government should take care of these problems and find solutions.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
How does urban India contribute to India’s economic development? Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities. There is no major growth of industrial output over the last few decades.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph it is clearly understood that service activities play a crucial and vital role in economic development.
2. The growth of industrial output is very less. It means service sector contributes more than that of the remaining sectors.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that we should think of this situation in India.
4. Normally in an economy, there are three sectors viz, agriculture, industrial and service sec-tors.
5. Many people depend upon agriculture in the past in our country but recently the scene in India is changing.
6. In conclusion, I would like to say that the government should encourage agriculture and indus¬tries also.
7. Many of the people working in service sector are in unorganized sector.
8. They should be taken care of.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
One of the impacts of increased urbanization is the use of materials that either do not degrade or take a long time to do so. This produces waste that has to be disposed off. Where do we put such waste? As urban areas expand, the waste is increasingly pushed to rural areas where they are either just dumped or taken to waste treatment plants.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given here, the effect of urbanization is in many ways. Collection and dumping of wastage and garbage has become a major issue.
2. The expansion of urban areas is increasing day by day. The dumping of waste leads to pollu¬tion in rural areas.
3. My opinion on this paragraph is that there are many reasons for migration and it leads to increasing in urbanization.
4. Many migrants live in temporary settlements and they don’t have shelters. These are not legal places where they live.
5. So they don’t come under regular dwellers of the city or town.
6. I suggest the officials that they arrange sufficient mechanism to collect the waste and poliu- tion free programmes are to be taken up.
7. Dumping in out skirts of towns and cities is not the solution but it creates new problem.
8. The collection is to be properly managed not to pollute the surroundings.

Question 18.
How are slums formed?
Answer:

1. There is growing population in the cities.
2. People who migrate to the city looking for work occupy land without necessary permission and build on it in the way they can afford with no help or facility from anyone.
3. In the plan these places may be demarked for a different purpose. Thus they won’t get the status of colonies.
4. These may not receive many public amenities. People here are poor.
5. Thus slums are formed.
6. When government evict the people from there, the compensation paid may not be sufficient.
7. Again they occupy new location without necessary permission and these slums go on increasing.

Question 19.
What kind of places attract settlement?
Answer:

1. To understand this, we need to look at these basic concepts:
   (i) site(ii) situation (iii) the history of the place.
2. Sites refer to the characteristics of the place its topography, altitude, water characteristics (the places with lakes, rivers, underground water, etc., types of soils, security, shelter from natural forces, and so on.
3. Shivaji chose Pratapgadh because of its altitude from where all the surrounding areas could be seen.
4. Situation describes the connections with other places.
5. Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India.
6. Coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there.

Question 20.
What are the problems of urbanization?
Answer:

1. Increasing urbanization is not only providing opportunities to people and more productivity J but also resulting in many problems.
2. The growing urban population has to be housed. 1
3. It needs water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and many other things. .
4. These result in environmental stress.
5. As vehicle use increases urban air pollution increases causing health problems and localized
   climate change.
6. Improper sewage disposal can also lead to greater threat of infectious diseases.
7. Use of materials that either do not degrade or take a long time to do so.
8. This produces waste that has to be disposed of.

Question 21.
How did the settlements begin? Discuss.
Answer:

1. For about 1.8 lakh years humans lived in bands as hunter-gatherers.
2. They did not practise agriculture.
3. However owing to changes in obtaining food, some bands took to the deliberate production of food-agriculture, some 10,000 years ago.
4. It brought many changes in human lifestyles.
5. People did not have to travel over large areas to obtain food.
6. They could now increasingly stay in one place.
7. As hunter-gatherers, they were nomadic.
8. But as agriculturists, they were increasingly sedentary.
9. Thus the settlements began.

Question 22.
‘Delhi has grown in an unplanned manner.’ Do you agree with this statement?
Answer:

1. In 1951, the population of Delhi was only 20,00,000. Today it is more than 1,60,00,000. During the last 60 years it has grown 8 times.
2. Over decades its attracted people from all parts of India as they migrated in search of jobs and livelihood, etc.
3. As the capital of the country, with the parliament and central government offices, there are people from all parts living in the city.
4. Every city usually has a master plan to design and allocate different types of areas and Delhi had three such plans.
5. But they have not been implemented.
6. On one hand there is growing population in the city and on the other hand there is a long delay In planning and announcing how the areas are to be used.
7. In fact, Delhi has grown in an unplanned manner.

Question 23.
How does the urban settlements contribute to India’s economic development?
Answer:

1. Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities.
2. Most of the poor live in non metropolitan towns work in the unorganized sector.
3. Most of the public enterprises are either located in urban settlements or their surroundings.
4. Most of the state of art equipment is located in urban settlements.
5. Most of the Information Technology industries or parks are operating in urban areas.
6. The exports of many of these contribute a lot to GDP of our country.
7. Thus, the urban settlements contribute to India’s economic development.

Question 24.
Feel that you are living in urban area. Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner complain-ing about the urbanization problems arising due to migration and request to take necessary steps.
Answer:

Sainagar colony,
Vijayawada,
xx xx xxxx.

To
The Commissioner,
Vijayawada Municipal Corporation,
Vijayawada.

Respected sir,

I am Keshava Rao, the resident (H. No. ———–, ) of Bavajipeta. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about the urbanization problems in out locality for your kind consideration and necessary action.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and another waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, an unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to increase the number of workers and take necessary action to make city clean so as to maintain good health in our locality.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………,
………………………….

Question 25.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. The only river which is flowing through the Rajasthan State.
   Answer:
   Luni
2. The state which has Malabar coast.
   Answer:
   Kerala
3. The state which has Utkal coast.
   Answer:
   Odisa
4. The capital of India.
   Answer:
   Delhi
5. Godavari Delta.
6. Kaveri Delta.
7. Mahanadi Delta.
8. The Drainage area of the River Ganga.
9. Bhimbedka
   Answer:
   MP (Near – Bhopal)
10. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport.
    Answer:
    Hyderabad.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Transportation – The Circulatory System Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 3rd Lesson Transportation – The Circulatory System

10th Class Biology 3rd Lesson Transportation – The Circulatory System Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
What is transport system? How does this help to the organism?
(OR)
What is the importance of transport system in the organisms?
Answer:
Transport system: The system which transports the material that is needed to organism is called transport system or circulatory system.
Importance :

1. The system supplies O₂ to parts of the body and also recollects the CO₂ which is excretory product in life process.
2. It supplies food materials to all parts of the body.
3. Hormones can travel through circulatory system.
4. It also helps in regulation of body temperature.
5. It collects the waste materials from parts of the body.
6. It has antibodies to protect our body from pathogens.
7. It helps in maintaining osmatic pressure in the cells.
8. In plant it transports the water through xylem and food materials through phloem.

Question 2.
What is the relationship between blood and plasma?
(OR)
What are the differences between blood and plasma.
Answer:

	Blood	Plasma
1. Definition	Blood is the main body fluid that is responsible for transporting materials.	Plasma is the yellow liquid component of blood and constitutes 55% of the total blood volume.
2. Composition	It has liquid portion called plasma and soiled substances called blood cells.	It contains water (90%), proteins, nutrients, waste products, clotting factors, minerals and hormones.
3. Cells	It has R.B.C, W.B.C and thrombocytes	It does not have any cells.
4. Colour	Red in colour	It has straw – yellow colour.
5. Clotting factors	It has clotting factors known as fibrinogen, prothrombin.	After the clotting plasma turns into serum.

Question 3.
Which type of blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
(OR)
Which blood vessels carry blood from heart to body parts?
Answer:

1. The rigid vessels are called arteries which originate from the heart and supply blood to various organs in the body.
2. The largest artery is the aorta which arises from the left ventricle supplies oxygenated blood to all parts of the body except lungs.
3. The relatively smaller one is pulmonary artery supplies deoxygenated blood to lungs.
4. A pair of coronary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the muscles of heart.

Question 4.
What are the three main types of blood vessels in the body?
Answer:
The three main types of blood vessels in the human body are:

1. Arteries
2. Veins and
3. Capillaries.

Question 5.
Which is the largest artery in the body? Why is it big in size?
Answer:

1. The Aorta is the largest artery in the body.
2. It is big in size because it has to supply oxygenated blood from heart to various organs in the body from head to fingers and toes.

Question 6.
Which blood vessel carries blood for oxygenation?
Answer:

1. The PULMONARY ARTERY originates in the right ventricle. Outside the heart, it divides into two branches – RIGHT and LEFT PULMONARY ARTERIES.
2. They carry deoxygenated blood to right and left lungs for oxygenation.

Question 7.
Name the structures which are present in veins and lymph ducts and absent in arteries.
Answer:

1. The structures that are present in the veins and lymph ducts are VALVES.
2. These are absent in arteries.
3. They are one-way valves. If the blood moves in the opposite direction, the valves closed and avoid the backward flow of blood in veins and lymph ducts.

Question 8.
Answer:
What is the use of platelets?

1. Platelets help in clotting of blood at the site of injury thus it controls the loss of blood from the wound.
2. When blood flows out, the platelets release an enzyme called THROMBOK1NASE.
3. This acts on another substance called PROTHROMBIN converting it into THROMBIN.
4. Thrombin acts on FIBRINOGEN, converting it into FIBRIN.
5. The blood cells entangle in the fibrin fibres forming the CLOT.
6. 

Question 9.
Write differences between
a) Systole – Diastole
b) Veins – Arteries
c) Xylem – Phloem
Answer:
a) Systole – Diastole:

Systole	Diastole
1. Definition: It measures the amount of pressure that blood exerts on arteries when the heart is contracted.	1. It is the pressure that is exerted when the heart is relaxed.
2. Range: Its normal range is 60-80 mm Hg.	2. Its normal range is 90 – 120 mm Hg
3. Blood pressure: It represents the maximum pressure exerted on the arteries.	3. It represents minimum pressure in the arteries.
4. Blood vessels: They are contracted in this phase.	4. Blood vessels are relaxed in this phase.
5. Ventricles: Ventricles are contracted and they push the blood in this phase.	5. Ventricles are relaxed and filled with blood in this phase.

b) Veins – Arteries:

Viens	Arteries
1. Moves towards the heart.	1. Moves away from the heart.
2. Collects blood from body organs.	2. Distributes blood to the body organs.
3. Blood pressure in veins is low.	3. Blood pressure is high in arteries.
4. Valves are present.	4. Valves are absent.
5. Carry deoxygenated blood, except pulmonary vein.	5. Carry oxygenated blood except pulmonary artery.
6. Veins start in blood capillaries.	6. Arteries end in capillaries.
7. They can be seen subcutaneously.	7. They are deep seated.
8. They collapse when there is no blood in it or cut across.	8. They do not collapse when there is no blood in it.
9. Veins are further divided into venules.	9. Arteries are further divided into arterioles.
10. Veins are usually flattened or collapsed with thin walls.	10. They are round and relatively thick walled.
11. Veins have large lumen.	11. Arteries have small lumen.
12. Veins are bluish in colour.	12. Arteries are reddish in colour.
13. Veins show sluggish movement of blood.	13. Arteries show spurty movement of blood giving pulse.
14. If venous wall is injured, blood comes out, collects in a pool in a small area around vein.	14. If arterial wall is injured, the blood comes out like a fountain in a large area all around the artery.

c) Xylem – Phloem:

Xylem	Phloem
1. In plants water and mineral salts are transported by xylem tissue.	1. In plants food material is transported by phloem tissue.
2. Xylem consists of trachieds, vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma.	2. Phloem consists of sieve tubes, sieve cells, companion cells, phloem fibres and phloem parenchyma.
3. Only xylem parenchyma is living tissue.	3. Sieve tubes, sieve cells, companion cells and phloem parenchyma are living.
4. Trachieds, vessels, xylem fibres are dead tissues.	4. Phloem fibres are dead tissues.
5. Xylem gives mechanical strength to the plant.	5. Phloem does not give mechanical strength.
6. Conduction of water by xylem is unidirectional i.e., from roots to apical parts of the plant.	6. Food material conduction is bidi­rectional i.e., from leaves to storage organs or growing points and from storage organs to all growing parts of plants.
7. Xylem is star shaped.	7. Phloem is not star shaped.
8. Xylem occupies the center of the vascular bundle.	8. Phloem occurs on outer side of the vascular bundle.
9. Tubular with hard walled cells.	9. Tubular with soft walled cells.

Question 10.
Explain the way how plants get water by osmosis through root hairs.
(OR)
Explain the mechanism of entry of water into root hair by osmosis with the help of a diagram.
(OR)
Explain the process of water entry into the root hair in plants with the help of diagram.
(OR)
In plants, what is the role of root hair in the absorbtion of water and minerals from the soil?
Answer:

1. Root hair plays an important role in absorption of water by osmosis.
   
2. Root hairs grow out into the spaces between the soil particles and that the hairs are surrounded by moisture.
3. The Cytoplasm of the cells in root hairs is called cell sap. It has dissolved salts.
4. The cell sap of the root hair is more concentrated than that of the concentration of salt solution present in the soil.
5. The cell membrane of root hair acts as semi-permeable membrane.
6. It separates the cell sap from the salt solution of the soil.
7. Therefore water passes into the vacuole of the root hair by osmosis.
8. The entry of water dilutes the contents of the root hairs vacuole. So it becomes more diluted than the neighboring cells.
9. Water passes into the neighboring cell which becomes diluted, finally water enters the xylem vessels.
10. As there are vast number of root hairs and root cells involved, pressure in the xylem vessels develops which forces the water upwards.
11. This total pressure is known as root pressure.
12. Root pressure is not the main cause of movement of water in xylem but it is certainly one factor.

Question 11.
What is root pressure? How is it useful to the plant?
Answer:
The pressure exerted by the root hair while absorbing water from the soil is called root pressure.

1. Soil water concentration is more dilute than that of the cell sap in the root hair, therefore water passes into vacuole of the root hair by osmosis.
2. The entry of water dilutes the cell sap so it become more dilute than it’s neighbouring cells.
3. So, water passed into the neighbouring cell which in turn becomes diluted, finally water enters the xylem vessels.
4. As there are vast number of roots hairs and root cells involved, pressure in the xylem vessels develops which forces the water upwards.

Question 12.
Phloem is a food source for some animals. How can you justify the statement ?
Answer:

1. Certain mammals scratching the bark of trees to get the food stored in the phloem, especially during hard winters when food is scarce.
2. Voles do this to young saplings at ground level and rabbits can do much damage to older ones.
3. Aphids absorb so much sugar from the phloem that they cannot assimilate all of it and it passes out of the anus as a sticky syrup called honeydew.
4. Grey squirrels too do great damage particularly to beech and sycamore, and for this reason, in some parts it is impossible to grow these trees as a crop.

Question 13.
Read the given para and name the parts of heart.

We have observed that the heart is divided into four chambers by muscular structure. Any structure that divides two chambers is known as septum. Now let us try to name the septa present in the heart.

A) The septum that divides the two atria can be named as ———-.
Answer: Interatrial septum.

B) The septum that divides the two ventricles can be named as ———-.
Answer: Interventricular septum.

C) The septum that divides the atrium and ventricle can be named as ———-.
Answer: Interatrioventricular septum.

The holes that connect two chambers are called apertures. Let us try to name the apertures which connect the atria and ventricles.

D) The aperture that is connecting the right atrium and right ventricle can be named as ———-.
Answer: Right atrioventricular aperture.

E) The aperture that is connecting the left atrium and left ventricle can be named as ———-.
Answer: Left atrioventricular aperture.

Any structure that closes an aperture, and allows one way movement of materials is called valve. Now let us name the valves that are present in the chambers of the heart.

F) The valve that is present between left atrium and left ventricle can be named as ———-.
Answer: Left atrioventricular valve (Bicuspid or Mitral valve).

G) The valve that is present between right atrium and right ventricle can be named as ———-.
Answer: Right atrioventricular valve (Tricuspid valve).

Question 14.
If the valves in veins of the legs fail to stop the flow of blood, what could be the consequences of this failure?
Answer:

1. If the valves in veins of the legs fail to stop flow of blood, the blood accumulates in the veins and causes swelling or inflammation and more clotting.
2. Clotting can block or slow blood flow through the veins raising the blood pressure and possibly causing more damage.
3. The swelling of the veins also results in varicose veins and spider veins.
4. If varicose veins are untreated for long time, it leads to venous ulceration.

Question 15.
What will happen if cell sap of root hair cells contain high concentration of ions?
Answer:

1. The cell membrane of root hair is a semipermeable membrane. It allows the movement of molecules from low concentration to high concentration.
2. Cell sap of root hair cells contain high concentration of ions and salts than the water present around it in the soil.
3. As a result, water flows from the soil into cell sap of root hairs.
4. From the root hairs water pass from cell to cell by osmosis through the epidermis, root cortex, endodermis and reach the root xylem.

Question 16.
John prepared stethoscope with paper cup and plastic tube. Write down the procedure of preparation.
Answer:
Aim : To prepare a paper cup stethoscope
Apparatus: Three paper cups, plastic tube, scissors, T – bend and thread.
Procedure:

1. Take three paper cups and put a small hole in the bottom of the cups.
   
2. Take a T – bend and arrange it in the back side of one cup as hanging.
3. T – bend is connected to plastic pipe, by the two sides and arrange the paper cups.
4. Put the two upper cups at your ears and bottom one is on the friend’s chest.
5. Now you can hear the sound of heart beat.

Question 17.
How can you prove that the water is transport through the xylem?
Answer:
Aim: To observe the path of water through a plant.
Apparatus: Balsam plant, beaker, Eosine solution, stand.
Procedure:

1. A leafy green shoot of Balsam plant with a transparent stem is placed in Eosine solution (It is red dye resulting from the action of bromine).
   
2. After sometime red streaks appear in the stem and veins of leaves become red.
3. If a transverse section is cut through the root stem and leaf, the tissue that has been stained is xylem tissue.
4. This shows that water moves up the root into the stem and leaves in the xylem tracheids and vessels.
5. The other tissues remain in the same colour.

Conclusion: The xylem tissue is responsible for the upward movement of water through the plant.

Question 18.
What is your inference about experiments with aphids?
Answer:

1. Biologists studied about food transportation in plants with the help of aphids.
   
2. Aphids feed on the plant juices of young stems.
3. Aphid uses its long needle like organ proboscis to extract plant juices from phloem tissue.
4. The proboscis of the Aphid only penetrates up to a phloem sieve tube.
5. It is found experimentally that the contents of the phloem sieve tubes are under slight pressure the fluid slowly comes out from the cut end of the proboscis in the form of drops.
6. These drops were collected and analysed and it contain sugars and amino acids.
7. Aphids absorb so much sugar from the phloem that they cannot assimilate all of it and it excretes out of the body as sticky syrup called honey dew.

Question 19.
Collect information about blood pressure of your school teachers or your neighbours and prepare a report on their health problems.
Answer:

Name of the person	Blood pressure	Health condition
1. Mr. Vijay	120/80	Normal
2. Mrs. Kamala	125/85	Irritation, worried
3. Mr. Raju	140/90	Fear, easily getting anger, high irritation, tiredness.
4. Mrs. Chandu	110/70	Weakness, dizziness, fainting
5. Mr. Rama Rao	140/100	Dizziness, fainting

Question 20.
Draw a block diagram to explain single and double circulation. Write differences between them.
(OR)
What is single circulation and double circulation? Write differences between them with the help of diagrams.
Answer:

1. Single circulation: In a blood circulation the blood passes through the heart only once. This type of circulation is called single circulation and the heart is called single circuit. Ex: Fish
   
2. Double circulation: Blood passes twice through the heart. Once between heart and lungs and second time from heart to body parts. Such circulation is called double circulation and the heart is called double circuit heart.
   Ex: Frog and other higher animals.
   

3. Single Circulation	Double Circulation
   1. Found only in fishes.	1. Found in amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals.
   2. Blood passes only once through the heart to supply once to the body.	2. Blood passes twice through the heart to supply once to the body.
   3. Only deoxygenated blood passes through the heart.	3. Mixed blood (Oxygenated and deoxygenated) pass through the heart.
   4. It is less efficient in function as the oxygenated blood flows at a low pressure which decreases the rate of oxygen supply.	4. It is most efficient in function as the blood flows at a higher pressure which increases the rate of oxygen supply.

Question 21.
Prepare a block diagram showing from water absorption by roots to transpiration by leaf.
Answer:

Question 22.
What do you want to compare with the transportation in blood vessels in man?
(OR)
What can circulatory system in man be compared with?
Answer:
I compare the circulatory system in man with motor water system in our houses, as below.
Heart – motor                                        Blood vessels – pipes
Blood – water                                         Tank – body parts

Question 23.
How do you feel about transportation of water in huge trees?
(OR)
How do you appreciate the movement of water through xylem in tall trees?
Answer:

1. It is a wonder to see the transportation of water in huge trees.
2. It is surprising how the root pressure and the transportation pull are responsible for the water to reach such heights against the gravitation force.
3. It is a great mechanism evolved in the beautiful plants which give us pleasure.
4. We can really appreciate the creation done by God towards plants and their functions for mankind.

Question 24.
Prepare a cartoon on heart beating.
Answer:

Question 25.
After reading this lesson what precautions you would suggest to your elders about edema?
(OR)
What is edema? How it occurs? What are the precautions required not to be affected with edema?
Answer:
Precautions I would suggest to my elders about edema:

1. Edema is abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitium which is located beneath the skin or one or more cavities of the body.
2. Avoid sitting and standing for too long. It promotes fluid flow into the legs and feet.
3. Hence I suggest elders getting up and stretching the legs once in a while travelling long in bus and trains.
4. Leg exercise and feet moving and using leg muscles help pump excess fluids back to the heart.
5. People suffer with edema can keep the legs elevated above the level of heart for 30 minutes a day or 3 or 4 times a day.
6. Massage the edema effected area with firm pressure towards the heart which helps to move the excess fluid away from swelling.
7. Reducing the amount of salt in the diet may prevent swelling problems from reoccuring.
8. Avoid hot baths, hot showers when swelling occurs.

Choose the correct answer.

1. The term cardiac refers to which organ in the body? [ ]
   A) Heart
   B) Vein
   C) Lymph
   D) Capillary
   Answer: A
2. On which side of the human heart is low in oxygen? [ ]
   A) Left ventricle
   B) Right ventricle
   C) Left atrium
   D) Right atrium
   Answer: B & D
3. Which structures of the heart control the flow of the blood? [ ]
   A) Arteries
   B) Veins
   C) Valves
   D) Capillaries
   Answer: C
4. Which of the following opinions is correct? [ ]
   A) Ravi said xylem and phloem cells arranged one upon the other to form a tube like structure.
   B) John said xylem and phloem are not separate tube like structures.
   C) Salma said, xylem and phloem cells connect together to form tube like structure.
   D) Hari said because of its shape they said to be tube like structure.
   Answer: C
5. An aphid pierces its proboscis into the ———- to get plant juices. [ ]
   A) Xylem
   B) Phloem
   C) Cambium
   D) Vascular bundle
   Answer: B

10th Class Biology 3rd Lesson Transportation – The Circulatory System InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 57

Question 1.
Answer the following after reading the experiment conducted by William Harvey.

1. In which blood vessels valves are found? What do you think is the function of the valves in them?
   Answer:
   Valves are present in the veins. If the blood moves in one direction, the valves fold towards the walls of the vessel, so that the blood can pass without trouble. If the blood moves in the opposite direction, the valves close.
2. Why do subcutaneous blood vessels bulge on the side away from the heart when the hand is tied?
   Answer:
   When the hand is tied the blood which is passing away from heart is stopped. So the subcutaneous blood vessels bulge.
3. The deep seated blood vessels (the arteries) bulge on the side towards the heart when tied. What do you understand from it?
   Answer:
   The blood which is passing towards the heart is stopped so the blood accumulates in the blood vessels and they bulge.
4. There are valves in the heart between atria and ventricles. Is the purpose of valves in the veins and arteries same ?
   Answer:
   The valves between each atrium and its ventricles are one way valves. They allow the blood to flow from the atrium to the ventricle without any hindrance.
   The purpose is same, back flow of blood is stopped.
5. Arteries are deeply seated in the body? Whereas veins are superficial why?
   Answer:
   1. Arteries are deep seated to prevent them from any damage. As arteries carry oxygenated blood, a damage to them results in loss of the oxygenated blood.
   2. Arteries lie deeper in the body because it helps them to contain high pressure so that they can carry blood from the heart to all the body parts.
   3. Because the deeper the arteries are in the body, the warmer the blood is. The warmer the blood, the more oxygen the haemoglobin is able to carry.
   4. Veins are located superficially as the pressure inside them is very low and contain deoxygenated blood.
      Also their superficial location helps in efficient flow of blood in them by muscular contraction and relaxation in our body.

Question 2.
After reading the experiments by Harvey fill in the following table. Use the clues/ options given in the first column.
Answer:

Structure / Function	Artery	Vein
1. Thickness of walls (thick / thin)	Thick	Thin
2. Valves (present / absent)	Absent	Present
3. Capacity to retain shape when blood is absent (can retain / collapse)	Can retain	Can not retain
4. Direction of blood flow (heart to organs / body organs to heart)	Heart to organs	Body organs to heart
5. Pressure in the vessel (low / high)	High	Low
6. Type of blood transported (oxygenated / de-oxygenated)	Oxygenated (except pulmonary artery)	De-oxygenated (except pulmonary veins)
7. Type of blood carried by pulmonary artery (de-oxygenated / oxygenated)	Deoxygenated	–

Question 3.
How many times did your pointer touch body parts in fig – 11(a) and (b)?
Answer:
One time.

Question 4.
How many times did your pointer touch the heart in fig – 11(a) and (b)?
Answer:
a) One time
b) Two times

Question 5.
How many times did the pointer touch respiratory organs in fig – 11(a) and (b)?
Answer:
One time.

Question 6.
Why do our legs swell?
Answer:
After overnight journey, in sitting position without moving, we feel that our feet (the lower part of the legs) swollen. This is called edema.
Because the blood circulation becomes slow in the lower portion and causes swelling.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 64

Question 7.
Is there anything like that in plants which corresponds to circulatory system?
Answer:
Yes.
Vascular bundles are present in the plant parts which have xylem and phloem. These are responsible for the transportation of materials in plats.
Xylem transports water from roots to the leaves. Phloem transports food prepared by leaves to all the parts of the plant.

Question 8.
What is the mechanism behind this?
Answer:
Root absorb water due to Root Pressure and transpiration.

Question 9.
Are roots directly in contact with water?
Answer:
Yes. The root hairs are directly contact with water.

Question 10.
How is water absorbed?
Answer:
Water is absorbed due to Osmosis.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 66

Question 11.
Is there any increase in the water level?
Answer:
Yes. There is an increase in the water level.

Question 12.
What is the role of xylem?
Answer:
Water absorbed by roots is transported to all the parts of the plant by Xylem

Think and Discuss

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 58

Question 1.
Artery walls are very strong and elastic. Why?
Answer:

1. When the blood enters with a pressure into arteries the walls will stretch.
2. This enables the arteries to withstand the increase in the pressure, without bursting. So the walls of the arteries are very strong and elastic.

Question 2.
Why do we compare arteries like tree which divides into smaller and smaller branches?
Answer:

1. Arteries carry oxygenated blood to the tissues.
2. The largest aorta after comes outside of the heart, it divides into small branches called arteries.
3. These arteries still divide into small arterioles and supply oxygenated blood to the tissues which are present throughout the body.
4. It looks like a tree with smaller and smaller branches. So we compare arteries like tree.

Question 3.
The lumen size is bigger in vein when compared with artery. Why?
Answer:

1. Veins are generally large in diameter, carry more blood volume.
2. Arteries are general small in diameter when compared with veins.
3. The walls of veins are more thick when compared with the walls of arteries.
4. So the lumen’s bigger in vein when compared with artery.

10th Class Biology 3rd Lesson Transportation – The Circulatory System Activities

Activity – 1

How can you find your pulse rate?
Answer:
1) Keep your index and middle fingers on your wrist below the thumb as shown in the figure.
2) You feel something pushing your fingers rhythmically up and down.
3) Count the rhythm also called pulse rate per minute.
4) Now stand up and jog for one minute standing at the same place. Note the pulse for a minute.

Name of the person	Pulse rate per minute
	at rest	after jogging
Naganeeraj	72	80
Nagamani	70	81
Chandra Sekhar	71	79
Shabnum	74	84
Mani	72	83

a) What did you observe? Is the pulse rate same in both conditions?
Answer:
No the pulse rate is not same in both condition. There is increase in pulse rate after jogging for one minute.

Activity – 2

Now observe the pulse rate of students of your class.
Try to observe your pulse rhythm in other ways such as climbing stairs, running etc. Take your shirt button and insert a matchstick and place it on your wrist.

1. What did you find?
   Answer:
   We find the button placed on the wrist moves up and down rhythmically
2. When do you think that our pulse rate goes up?
   Answer:
   The pulse rate goes up, when we climb up stairs or run, etc.
3. What does the pulse rate show?
   Answer:
   There is a relationship between the pulse rate and the heart beat. The pulse rate shows the heart beat.

Activity – 3

How do you measure the Heart beat and pulse rate at rest?
Answer:

1. I will make a paper tube 10 inch long and one inch in diameter.
2. Keep one end of it on the chest of a friend on a point in the centre around 6 inches below from his or her neck.
3. I keep my ear at the other end.
4. Listen carefully and count the beats for a minute.
5. Also find my friend’s pulse rate. Then 1 will note down my observations at least 10 students of my class in the following.
   

   Name of the student	Heart beat at rest/minute	Pulse rate at rest/minute
   Eswar	72	72
   Venkateswar Rao	70	70
   Gopinath	69	69
   Yashwanth	71	71
   Srinivas	72	72
   Manasa	68	68
   Kamala	70	70
   Lakshmi	71	71
   Kavitha	69	69
   Latha	70	70

6. Observation: It is found that the heart beat and the pulse rate are same in every movement.
   Prepare histogram between persons and heart beat and pulse rate at rest as shown in the sample graph. Here (a) bar indicates heart beat,
   (b) bar indicates pulse rate.
   X-axis: Name of the student Y-axis: Heart beat, pulse rate per minute.
   

Activity – 4

Aim: Observation of the internal structure of the mammalian heart.
Material required: Since the structure of all the mammalian hearts is similar, we take the sheep’s or goat’s heart for our observation. For this, we need the following materials.
Material required: Freshly collected specimen of heart of sheep/goat from the butcher, soda straw, sharp and long blade/ scalpel, tray and a jug of water, dissection scissors and forceps.
Procedure: Before coming to the class wash the heart thoroughly so that, blood is completely drained from the chambers of heart.
Take the soda straws and insert them into the stumps of the blood vessels.
Note your observations as you proceed.

1. How many layers are covering the heart?
   Answer:
   Two thin, transparent layers are covering the heart.
2. What is the shape of the heart?
   Answer:
   Heart is a pear shaped structure, triangle in outline, wider at the anterior end and narrower at the posterior end.
3. How many large blood vessel stumps are attached to the heart?
   Answer:
   There are five large blood vessels attached to the heart.
4. Which end of the heart is broader and which end is narrow?
   Answer:
   The anterior end of the heart is broader and the posterior end is narrow.
   Observe the internal structure – observe the wall of the heart.
5. Is the thickness of the wall of the heart uniform throughout?
   Answer:
   No, the thickness of the wall of the heart is not uniform throughout. Atria are thin and ventricles are thick.
6. How many chambers are there in the heart?
   Answer:
   There are four chambers in the heart. They are right atrium, left atrium, left ventricle and right ventricle.
7. Are all the chambers of the same size?
   Answer:
   All the chambers of the heart are not of the same size. Left atrium and ventricle are smaller when compared to that of right atrium and ventricle.
8. What other differences could you observe between the chambers?
   Answer:
   Left auricle and ventricle are smaller than right auricle and right ventricle.
9. Do you find any specific observation in between two chambers?
   Answer:
   Yes, I can find some specific observation in between two chambers.
10. Are all the chambers connected to each other?
    Answer:
    No, only atria and ventricles are connected to each other.
11. How are they connected to each other ? How are they separated?
    Answer:
    Auricles are connected to ventricles by valves and are separated by septae (septum).
12. How many blood vessels are attached to the heart?
    Answer:
    Five blood vessels are attached to the heart.
    They are
    1. Aorta,
    2. Pulmonary artery,
    3. Pulmonary vein,
    4. Superior venacava,
    5. Inferior venacava.
13. Are all the blood vessels rigid? How many of them are rigid?
    Answer:
    The rigid blood vessels are called arteries. They are
    1. The largest artery Aorta
    2. Pulmonary artery – which carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs.
14. Do you think that the stiffness / rigidity of blood vessel is something to do with circulation?
    Answer:
    The walls of the arteries are stiff/rigid. They are made up of muscle fibre and are elastic. When heart pumps blood into the arteries, the blood enters with a pressure into the arteries. Their walls will stretch and this enables the arteries to withstand the increase in the pressure without bursting.

Activity – 5

Write your observation of blood flow in arteries and veins.
Answer:
a) Aim: Observation of blood flow in arteries and veins.
Procedure:

1. Sit on a table with one leg dangling and the other resting on it so that the back of one knee rests on the knee of the other.
2. After some time we feel the leg which is on top give a series of small movements with each heart beat.
3. Repeat it for a long time.

Observation: The blood flow reduces to the leg and so develop “pins and needles”.
Conclusion: The blood flow from arteries to legs slowed down results pins and needles.

b) Swing the arm round several times to fill the veins with blood, hold the arm vertically downwards and gently press your finger along a prominent vein – stroking it in the reverse direction to the blood flow.
Observation: We can see the swellings.
Conclusion: Veins have to carry blood from body parts to the heart. When the arm is hold tightly blood is stopped in the veins there forms swelling.

Activity – 6

How is water absorbed? Explain with an experiment.
Answer:
Aim: To show that water is absorbed by the root hairs.
Required material : Mustard seedlings, filter paper slide and cover slip, a drop of water, microscope, hand lens.
Procedure: We need to germinate some mustard seeds. Examine some mustard seeds which have been grown on wet filter paper. Observe the mass of fine threads coming from the root by using hand lens. These are root hairs through which water enters the plant.
Gently squash a portion of the root hair between the slide and cover slip in a drop of water and examine under a microscope.
Note the thinness of the walls of the root hairs. The water enters the root hairs and passes inwards from cell to cell until it gets into the xylem vessels. Osmosis plays an important role in this.
Observation: It is observed that water is present in the xylem vessels.
Conclusion: The root hairs absorbs water with mineral salts into the transport tissue called xylem vessels by the process of osmosis.

Activity – 7

What is root pressure? Explain with an experiment.
Answer:
Aim: To demonstrate root pressure in plants.
Apparatus : Potted plant with stem cut, rubber tube, glass tube, clamp.
Procedure:

1. Take a regularly watered potted plant and cut the stem portion 1 cm above the ground level.
   
2. Then connect a glass tube by means of a strong rubber tubing as shown in the figure.
3. The size of glass tube should be equal to the size of the stem.
4. Take care while joining tube and stem being bound tightly, water cannot escape from the tube.
5. Now pour some water in the glass tube until water level can be seen above the rubber tube.
6. Mark the level of water (M₁) in tube.
7. Keep your arrangement aside for 2 to 3 hours.
8. Then observe and mark the water level (M₂) in the tube.

Observation: There is increase in the level.
Result: The raise in the water level is due to the root pressure created in the plant.