Class 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 19 Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000

10th Class Social 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand the term AIADMK.
Answer:
All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazagam.

Question 2.
Give any two examples for Regional Political parties.
Answer:
TDP, YSRCP, JANA SENA, TRS, AIADMK, DMK, etc.

Question 3.
Which welfare schemes initiated by N.T. Rama Rao are still continuing with some changes in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Mid-day meal scheme in government schools.
2. Sale of rice at subsidy rates to the poor.

Question 4.
Identify at least any two states presently ruled by regional parties in India on the given Indian political map.
Answer:

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Telecom revolution?
Answer:
The contribution of Telecom Revolution:
A network of telephonic communication in the country using satellite technology increased.

Question 6.
Mention any two initiations of N.T. Rama Rao.
Answer:

1. Sale of rice at Rs. 2/- kg
2. Mid day meal scheme in government schools.
3. Liquor prohibition

Question 7.
Write about the 73rd amendment of the constitution.
Answer:
73rd amendment: The 73rd constitutional amendment created institutions of local self government at the village level and so Gram Panchayat, Mandal Parishad and Zilla Parishad are formed.

Observe the table given below and answer the questions 8 & 9.
Results of Telangana State Assembly and Parliament Elections – 2014

S.No.	Name of the Party	Assembly Seats won	Parliament Seats won
1.	T.R.S.	63	11
2.	Congress Party	21	2
3.	T.D.P.	20	2
4.	Others	15	2
	Total	119	17

Question 8.
Name the two parties that secured more than 15 Assembly seats.
Answer:
Parties that secured more than 15 Assembly seats.

1. TRS
2. Congress Party
3. T.D.P

Question 9.
Why did TRS secure more seats in 2014 elections?
Answer:
TRS secured more seats in 2014 elections because it played a key role in Telangana agitation.

Question 10.
What is meant by the Coalition government?
Answer:
During the time of General Election to the Assembly and Lok Sabha, no party gain the majority to form the government at the centre or state at that time. Two or more than two political parties come together to form a single government.
(OR)
A number of national and regional parties had to come together to form governments at the centre.

Question 11.
Name some non-political movements.
Answer:
Environmental movements, the feminist movement, civil liberties movement, literacy movements.

Question 12.
Which became powerful motors of social change?
Answer:
A number of non-political movements emerged and became powerful motors of social change.

Question 13.
Which parties decided to merge together and form the Janata Party?
Answer:
The Congress, Swatantra Party, Bharatiya Jan Sangh, the Bharatiya Lok Dal and the Socia¬list Party decided to merge together and form the Janata Party.

Question 14.
Who supported the Janata Party?
Answer:
The DMK, the SAD and the CPI (M) chose to maintain their separate identities but supported the Janata Party in a common front against the Congress.

Question 15.
Who played an important role in bringing together all the anti-Congress and anti-Emergency parties?
Answer:
Senior leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan and Acharya JB Kriplani played an important role in bringing together all the anti-Congress and anti-Emergency parties to fight the elections.

Question 16.
What was the argument of the Janata Party regarding the dismiss of nine state governments?
Answer:
The Janata Party argued that the Congress party had lost its mandate to rule in the States as it had been defeated.

Question 17.
Which created a bad state in A.P.?
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh, the frequent change of Chief Ministers by the central Congress leadership and the imposition of leaders from above created a bad taste.

Question 18.
Who moved to Assom and Bengal?
Answer:
The Bangladeshis moved to Assom and Bengal.

Question 19.
Name some communities of Assom.
Answer:
Bodos, Khasis, Mizos and Karbis.

Question 20.
Who was Bhindtanwale and what was his demand?
Answer:
Bhindranwale, the leader of the group of militant Sikhs began to preach separatism and also demanded the formation of a Sikh State- Khalistan.

Question 21.
What did the militants try?
Answer:
The militants tried to impose an orthodox life code on all Sikhs and even non-Sikhs of Punjab.

Question 22.
Who made a declaration in April 1986?
Answer:
In April 1986, an assembly at the Akal Takht, made a declaration of an independent state of Khalistan.

Question 23.
Where were the militants engaged in?
Answer:
The militants were also engaged in large scale kidnapping and extortion to raise funds for their work.

Question 24.
How were the methods used by the govern¬ment for the suppression of militancy in Punjab?
Answer:
The Government used very harsh methods for the suppression of militancy in Punjab, many of which were seen as a violation of. Constitutional rights of citizens.

Question 25.
What did Rajiv Gandhi begin?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi began a peace initiative in Punjab, Assam and Mizoram and also in the neighbouring country of Sri Lanka.

Question 26.
What is called the telecom revolution?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi initiated what is called the ‘telecom revolution’ in India which speeded up and spread the network of telephonic communication in the country using satellite technology.

Question 27.
What had been under dispute for some time regarding Babri Masjid?
Answer:
Some sections of the Hindus had begun a campaign for building a temple for Lord Rama in Ayodhya in the place of Babri Masjid.

Question 28.
What is the speciality of Elections held in 1989?
Answer:
The issue of corruption in administration and in political circles became the main plank of the election campaign for non-Congress political forces in the next elections held in 1989.

Question 29.
What is Policy Paralysis?
Answer:
Policy Paralysis means the coalition could not implement any policy which called for serious change for fear of withdrawal of support by one or the other partners.

Question 30.
Which was the first coalition to be re-elected?
Answer:
The UPA was the first coalition to be re-elected.

Question 31.
Who led the Left Front Government in West Bengal in 1977?
Answer:
Jyoti Basu of CPM led the Left Front Government in West Bengal in 1977.

Question 32.
On what did the Operation Barga depend?
Answer:
Operation Barga depended heavily on collective action by the share croppers and Panchayati Raj Institutions thus avoiding bureaucratic delays and domination of the landowning classes.

10th Class Social 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.

The Government used very harsh methods for the suppression of militancy in Punjab, many of which were seen as a violation of the constitutional rights of citizens. Many observers felt that such violations of constitutional rights and human rights were justified.as the constitutional machinery was on the edge of collapse due to militant activity.
Express your views on the information given above.

Answer:
There was a threat to the integration of the Indian nation due to the militancy in Punjab. If the government had not taken such actions, the map of India would be different today. So I think the government was correct.

Question 2.
Read the given data to answer the questions.

A) Which were the parties that participated in the governments of the National Front and United Front and supported the government from the outside?
Answer:
To National Front: CPM, CPI, and BJP.
To United Front: CPM.

B) Mention the name of the party that participated in the above three governments.
Answer:
J.K.N.C.

Question 3.
Based on the information given below, answer the following questions.

End of Emergency and formation of Janata party government under Morarji Desai and Charan Singh	1977
Formation of Congress government led by Indira Gandhi	1980
Formation of TDP	1982
Operation Blue Star and assassination of Indira Gandhi	1984
Rajiv Gandhi Accords with H.S. Longowal on Punjab and AASU on Assam.	1985

a) Name the first non-Congress party which formed the government at the centre.
Answer:
Janata Party is the first non-Congress party which formed the government at the centre.

b) Who is the founder of Telugu Desam Party?
Answer:
Nandamuri Taraka Rama Rao (NTR) is the founder of Telugu Desam Party.

Question 4.
Which are the newest states of India, when they created?
Answer:

State	Year of formation
1. Uttaranchal / Uttarkhand	2000
2. Jharkand	2000
3. Chattisghar / Chattisghad	2000
4. Telangana	2014

Question 5.
Read the table and answer the given equations.

Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi and government led by Congress party with P.V. Narsimha Rao as P.M.	1991
Economic liberalization	1990
Demolition of Babri Masjid	1992
National Front Government with Deve Gowda and I.K. Gujral as P.M.s	1996
NDA government led by A.B. Vajpayee	1998

a) Which party won in 1996 elections and formed government?
Answer:
National Front.

b) Name the Coalition Governments mentioned in the above table.
Answer:
National Front and NDA Governments.

Question 6.
Write about people’s welfare schemes started by present Governments.
Answer:

1. Supply of rice at the cost of Rs. 1 per Kg to the white ration cardholders.
2. Pensions for the old age people and widows.
3. Free textbooks, uniforms and Midday meal scheme in government schools.
4. Housing schemes for the poor people.
5. Health scheme for the poor people.
6. Fees reimbursement to the poor for higher education, etc.

Question 7.
Read the following text and answer the questions given below.

The Congress returned to power in 1980. The Congress immediately paid back the Janatb in the same coin by dismissing the Janata and non-Congress governments in nine States. The Congress was victorious in all the States except Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.

A) Which party ruled before 1980s?
Answer:
Janata Party.

B) In which two states, the Congress party was defeated?
Answer:
Tamilnadu and West Bengal.

Question 8.
Prepare a table by classifying the given political parties into National and Regional Parties. “BJP, YSRCP, TDP, CPM, CPI, DMK, Congress-1, AGP”.

National parties	Regional parties

Answer:

S.No.	National Parties	Regional Parties
1.	Bharatiya janata Party	DMK
2.	Congress -1	TDP
3.	CPI	AGP
4.	CPM	YSRCP

Question 9.
Based on the information given below, answer the following questions.

Election and formation of Janata Dal government with VP Singh and Chandrasekhar	1989
Decision to implement Mandal Commission recommendation	1989
Ram Janmabhoomi Rath Yatra	1990
Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi and government led by Congress party with P.V. Narsimha Rao as P.M.	1991
Economic Liberalization	1990
Demolition of Babri Masjid	1992
National Front Government with Deve Gowda and IK Gujral as PMs	1996
NDA government led by AB Vajpayee	1998

i) Who was the Prime Minister at the time of demolition of Babri Masjid?
Answer:
P.V. Narasimha Rao.

ii) Give two examples of the Coalition government.
Answer:

1. Janata Dal government.
2. National Front government.
3. National Democratic Alliance (NDA).

Question 10.
Sometimes coalition governments cause ‘Policy Paralysis’. Do you agree with this statement?
Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement. The coalition could not implement any policy which called for serious change for fear of withdrawal of support by one or the other partners.

Question 11.
“Coalition Governments cause political instability.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Sometimes no single party wins a majority of seats to form a government of its own. In such the situation, a number of political parties come together and form coalition governments.
2. A common agreement between these parties has to be arrived at, but this is not so easy.
3. Different parties put pressure on the government for their different interests.
4. The government cannot implement any policy for fear of withdrawal of support by one or the other partners. The governments become instable.
5. This is called policy paralise which is frequent in the coalition government.

Question 12.
What are the situations that paved to strengthen the regional parties in present days?
Answer:
The situations that paved to strengthen the regional parties

1. Regional aspirations – regional movements.
2. Intermediate castes strengthening – gaining political power.
3. To gain political power.
4. Defections and corruption.

Question 13.
Write the main reasons for Assam movement.
Answer:

1. Demand for autonomy.
2. Protest against the domination of Bangladesh.
3. Migration from Bangladesh.
4. Fear of losing their cultural roots.
5. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of outsiders.
6. No preference in employment for locals.

Question 14.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Table: Seat share of various Political parties in 2014 (lok Sabha)

S.No.	Political patty	Won Seats
1	Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)	282
2	Indian National Congress (INC)	45
3	Telugu Desam Party (TDP)	16
4	Telangana Rashtra Samithi (TRS)	11
5	Left parties [CPI + CPI (M)]	10

Answer:

1. In 2014 General elections BjP got with 282 seats and form the largest party and form the government also.
2. Indian National Congress got only 45 seats.
3. Left parties CPI + CPI (M) joined together got 10 seats.
4. The Regional parties like TDP 16 seats 8i TRS 11 seats gained In Lok’Sabha elections.

Question 15.
What are the important changes that occured in India between 1975-85?
Answer:
Many changes occurred In India between 1975-85. Some of them are:

1. Emergency was declared by smt. Indira Gandhi as she was asked to quit her Prime Minister post by Allahabad high court.
2. Janatha Government came into power in 1979.
3. Congress Party came to power in the elections after Janatha govt, failure.
4. Non-political movements like environment movements, feminist movements, civil liberties movement and literacy movements came up.

Question 16.
At present, what is the necessity of coalition politics?
Answer:
In the present multiparty system in India it is impossible for any single party to win a majority of seats and form a government of its own but in 2019 elections BJP has won the election as single party. It went as coalition.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.

In Andhra Pradesh, the frequent change of Chief Ministers by the central Congress leadership and the imposition of leaders from above created a bad taste. There was a feeling that the Andhra Pradesh leadership was not getting respect from the national Congress leadership. This was perceived as an insult to the pride of the Telugu people. N.T. Rama Rao(NTR), popular film actor, chose to take up this cause. He began the Telugu Desam Party (TDP) on his 60th birthday in 1982. He said that the TDP stood for the honour and self respect of the Telugu speaking people (Teluguvari atma gauravam). He argued that the state could not be treated as a lower office of the Congress party.

Answer:

1. The Congress government frequently changed the Chief Ministers.
2. The Congress was not giving respect to Andhra Pradesh leadership.
3. The TDP was formed for the honour and self-respect of the Telugu speaking people.
4. He introduced welfare schemes like midday meals to government schools, liquor prohibition and the sale of rice for Rs. 2/- per kg.
5. These populist measures helped the TDP sweep the 1982 elections.
6. TDP emerged as a strong regional party, and challenged the Congress domination.

Question 18.
What are the effects of changes of the Telecom Revolution on the Human lifestyles.
Answer:

1. Telecom Revolution is the result of privatization of Telecommunications.
2. Number of industries invested in telecommunications.
3. “Mobiles” and Smart phones have created sensation.
4. They reduced the distance between the buyers and sellers.
5. Every family has a mobile in India.
6. Telemarketing is a creative innovation.
7. Smartphones have internet access and due to that internet facility is accessible to villagers through telephones.

Question 19.
What was Operation Blue Star?
Answer:

1. Sikhs became militant in Punjab under Bhindranwale.
2. People belonging to non-Sikhs were subjected to communal attack.
3. Sikh separatist groups hid in the Golden Temple.
4. Army had to intervene to vacate the campus.
5. This was called ‘Operation Blue Star’.

Question 20.
What factors influenced central government to use armed forces to reduce tensions in Assam?
Answer:

1. Three factors influenced the use of armed forces in the North Eastern Region.
2. Firstly, it was a sensitive border area adjacent to China, Mynmar and Bangladesh.
3. Secondly, rebel groups demanding separation from India, procured arms from outside.
4. Thirdly, they indulged in large-scale ethnic violence against minority communities.
5. The government thought this was the only way to bring about peace in the area.

Question 21.
Read the given information.

Now answer the following questions.
a) Which party was included in “Governing parties” in all the above coalition governments?
Answer:
Jammu & Kashmir National Conference (JKNC)

b) Which party gave support to NDA government?
Answer:
TDP.

c) Which party gave support to National Front and United Front from outside?
Answer:
CPM.

Question 22.
What did the emergence of competitive alternatives ensured?
Answer:
The emergence of competitive alternatives ensured that Indian voters could always exercise a reasonable choice. This also allowed many different political viewpoints and sectional interests to become active in state level and national politics.

Question 23.
How was the rule of the first non-Congress government?
Answer:
The Janata Party had come to power promising a restoration of democracy and freedom from authoritarian rule. However, the disunity among the partners had a serious effect on the governance and its rule is most often remembered for internal squabbles and defections. The factional struggle in the party soon culminated in the fall of the government within three years leading to fresh elections in 1980.

Question 24.
What happened whenever there was any political instability?
Answer:
Whenever there was any political instability or natural calamity in the neighbouring country, thousands of people moved into the State creating huge discomfort for the locals. The local people felt that they would lose their cultural roots and soon be outnumbered by the ‘outsiders’.

Question 25.
What was there besides culture and demographics?
Answer:
Besides culture and demographics, there was also an economic dimension. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of non-Assamese communities. The major resources of the State, including tea and oil were again not benefitting the locals.

Question 26.
What was the dominant thrust of the movement?
Answer:
The dominant thrust of the movement was that Assam was being treated as an “internal colony” and this had to stop. The main demands were that the local people should be given greater preference in employment, the “outsiders” should be removed and the resources should be used for the benefit of the locals.

Question 27.
Which has led to violent attempts of ethnic cleansing in Assam?
Answer:
Too much emphasis on ethnic identities had a negative impact on other communities of Assam like the Bodos, Khasis, Mizos and Karbis. Many of them too demanded autonomous status. They began to assert themselves and wanted to drive out people of other communities from their areas.

Question 28.
What did Punjab claim?
Answer:
It laid claims to the new capital city of Chandigarh which remained a union territory directly administered by the Centre. Punjab also claimed more water from Bhakra Nangal dam and greater recruitment of Sikhs in the army.

Question 29.
Write about the resolution of Akali Dal.
Answer:
The Akali Dal had passed a set of resolutions in 1978 during the Janata Party rule in the centre, calling upon the central government to implement them. Its most significant demand was to amend the Constitution to give more powers to the states and ensure greater decentralisation of powers.

Question 30.
What happened after Rajiv Gandhi’s entrance?
Answer:
After Rajiv Gandhi became the Prime Minister, he held talks with SAD and entered into an agreement with Sant Langowal, the SAD president. Though fresh elections were held in Punjab and SAD won them, the peace was short-lived as Langowal was assassinated by the militants.

Question 31.
What did Rajiv Gandhi say in his speech?
Answer:
In a famous speech Rajiv Gandhi said that out of every Rupee spent on the poor barely 15 paise reaches them I It highlighted the fact that despite huge increases in development expenditure, the story of the poor remained the same.

Question 32.
Which factors influenced the central government to use armed forces to reduce tensions in Assam?
Answer:

1. Three factors influenced the use of armed forces in the Northeastern region.
2. Firstly, it was a sensitive border area adjacent to China, Myanmar and Bangladesh.
3. Secondly, rebel groups demanding separation from India, procured arms from outside.
4. Thirdly, they indulged in large scale ethnic violence against minority communities.
5. The government thought this was the only way to bring about peace in the area.

Question 33.
What was meant by liberalization?
Answer:

1. It meant a lot of things put together like the drastic reduction of government expenditure, reducing restrictions and taxes on imports, etc.
2. It proved for reducing restrictions on foreign investments in India and allowed foreign countries to set up companies in India.
3. It is required to the opening of many sectors of the economy to private investors.
4. It brought in foreign goods and Indian businessmen were forced to compete with them.
5. It had many positive and negative impacts on India.

Question 34.
“One of the greatest weakness was undoubtedly the low priority given to primary education and public health”. Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The post-Independence era is marked with less priority to education and health.
2. The optimum development of country depends mostly on the education and health levels of the population of it.
3. It further forms part of Human Development Indicators also.
4. So, I suggest more priority should be given to education and health now.

Question 35.
Read the given information.

In 1992 government led by P.V. Narasimha Rao passed an important amendment to the Constitution to provide local self-governments a Constitutional Status. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment created institutions of local self government at the village level while the 74th Constitutional Amendment did the same in towns and cities. These were path-breaking amendments. They sought to usher in for the first time, office bearers at the local level elected on the basis of universal adult franchise. One-third of the seats were to be reserved for women. Seats were also reserved for scheduled castes and tribes.

Answer the following questions.
a) Which constitutional amendment created institution of local self-government?
b) According to which amendment general elections were conducted in towns and cities?
c) How many seats are reserved for women in local bodies?
Answer:
a) 73rd Constitutional Amendment created institutions of local self-governments for villages.
b) According to 74th Constitutional Amendment general elections were conducted in towns/cities.
c) 1/3 seats were reserved for women in local self-government elections.

Question 36.
“Do you think that the reservations will promote the social development” ? Express your ideas.
Answer:

1. Reservations will definitely promote social development.
2. Scheduled castes and tribes were drowtodden and suffered in the social stature for centuries.
3. To develop themselves and to question the injustice they meted out, reservations will of great help.
4. Reservations both in education, jobs, and legislature help them.

Question 37.
Imagine and write the main reasons for the continuation of anti Hindi movement in Tamil Nadu till today.
Answer:

1. DMK in Tamil Nadu believed the passage of Official Languages Act, 1963 was an attempt to first Hindi on the rest of the country.
2. They started a statewide campaign protesting the imposition of Hindi.
3. They organised strikes, dharnas, burning effigies, Hindi books as well as pages of constitution.
4. Still there is same feeling in Tamil Nadu.

Question 38.
“Some people think that Social Welfare Schemes do not reach eligible persons”. Express your suggestions.
Answer:

1. Despite all the attention to development in the country, much of it did not reach the real beneficiaries.
2. Despite huge increases in development expenditure the story of the poor remained the same.
3. The main reasons were political and beaurocratic corruption.
4. Enlistment of various beneficiaries also plagued by officialdom and political pressures.

Question 39.
“India needed to adapt itself to the new technologies emerging in the world, especially computer and telecommunication technologies”. Comment.
Answer:

1. Technologies like computer and communication technology are thursting the world.
2. It is believed that we should also adopt them without fail.
3. With initiatives of Rajiv Gandhi now called ‘Telecom Revolution1 was introduced in India.
4. With the help of satellite technology communications spread widely and extensively.
5. Everyone has access to mobile phones, the internet, email, facebook, Twitter, etc.

10th Class Social 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the text given and answer the questions.

Panchayati Raj & 73rd, 74th Amendment

In 1992, Government led by P.V. Narasimha Rao passed an Important amendment to the Constitution to provide Local Self Governments a Constitutional status. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment created Institutions of local self-government at the village level, while the 74th Constitutional Amendment did the same in towns and cities. These were pathbreaking amendments. They sought to usher in for the first time, office bearers at the local level elected on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise. One-third of the seats were to be reserved for women. Seats were also reserved for scheduled castes and tribes. The concerns of the State governments were taken into account and it was left to the States to decide on what functions and powers were to be developed to their respective local self-governments. Consequently, the powers of local self-governments vary across the country.

i) What is Local Self Government?
Answer:
The Government that formed by the people at the village, town and city level to solve the local needs is Local Self Government.

ii) Which government recognised the Constitutional status of Local self Government?
Answer:
P.V. Narasimha Rao or Congress Government.

iii) What does the 73rd Constitutional Amendment say?
Answer:
Creation of Local Self government at the village level.

iv) 1/3 of seats were to be reserved for women in Local Self Governments. Comment.
Answer:
Women need political equality and they should Involve actively In the Local Governments.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Liberalization measures brought in foreign goods and forced Indian business to compete with global manufacturers. It also led to the setting up of industries and business by foreign companies in India. However, it also meant a lot of hardship for the common people as the government was forced to cut subsidies to the people and as many factories closed down due to Influx of cheap foreign goods. This also led to privatization of many public amenities tike education, health, and transport and people had to pay high prices to private service providers.

Write your opinion on the consequences of liberalization.
(OR)
What are the consequences of economic Liberalization?
Answer:

1. India was drawn into the world market.
2. Liberalization paved the way to telecom revolution.
3. Liberalization forced Indian business to compete with global manufactures.
4. The government was forced to cut subsidies which results a great loss to people and local industries.
5. It also led to the privatization of many public amenities like education, health and transport.
6. It led to globalization.
7. The policies of liberalisation have been of advantage particularly to well of sections only.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of regional parties in Democracy.
Answer:

1. Multi-party system which includes national parties and regional parties strengthens the democracy.
2. Regional parties reflect the spirit of the federalism.
3. Regional parties have good understanding of the problems and needs of the respective states.
4. They focus mainly on the development of their states.

Question 4.
Telecom revolution has brought several changes in human life nowadays. Explain them.
Answer:
Changes brought by the telecom revolution:

1. Saves time
2. Fast communication
3. Online services
4. Prosperous life
5. Addiction
6. Obesity
7. Cost of living increased
8. Affected human relations

Question 5.
Read the paragraph given below and interpret.

India was forced to open up and ‘liberalise’ its economy by allowing free flow of foreign capital and goods Into India. On the other hand, new social groups asserted themselves politically for the first time, and finally, religious nationalism and communal political mobilisation became Important features of our political life. All this put the Indian society into great turmoil, we are still coming to grips with these changes and adapting ourselves to them.

Answer:

1. Liberalisation means relaxation of previous government restrictions usually in areas of social and economic policy.
2. The twentieth century ended with India’s drawing into the world free market.
3. India was forced to open up and liberalise its economy. It allowed free flow of foreign capital and goods into India.
4. On the other hand, India seemed to have a thriving democracy in which voices of different sections of the population were making themselves heard and in which divisive and communal political mobilisation was threatening to destroy social peace.
5. It had stood the test of time for over fifty years and had built a relatively stable economy and deeply rooted democratic politics.
6. It still had not managed to solve the problem of acute poverty and gross inequality between castes, communities, regions and gender.

Question 6.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Summary of the 2014 -Indian General Elections

Party	Alliance	Votes(%)	Seats
BJP	NDA	31%	282
INC	UPA	19.31%	44

Answer:
The given table describes the summary of the 2014 general elections in India. In the given table two parties that is Bharatiya Janata Party and the Indian National Congress are compared. It is not only the party comparison but their alliances are also mentioned. The Bharatiya Janata Party alliance is National Democratic Alliance whereas the United Progressive Alliance is related to Indian National Congress. In these elections the NDAgot 31% of the votes whereas the UPAgot 19.31%. If we observe the seats, the BJP with its alliance won 282 whereas the INC won only 44. These elections are very crucial because the voter strongly rejected the pre-independence party which ruled India since 1947. For a long time it was a single largest party to win the seats in Lok sabha. The voters cleverly gave mandate to the Bharatiya Janata Party with the hopes that their future may be changed. The BJP announced the Prime Ministerial candidate, Narendra Modi in advance. He achieved and succeeded in Gujarat as Chief Minister. So the voters accepted him as Prime Minister also. They believed him. Congress lost faith of the people because of its failures. During Congress period there was a lot of corruption, scams and nepotism, etc. Many of the Congress members of Parliament were in court cases. Rajiv Gandhi himself declared that corruption is highly established in India. If the Bharatiya Janata Party with its alliance work for the development of the country, definitely they will win the next coming 2019 elections. So the party should keep this in mind and work in that direction.

Question 7.
Explain the effects along with the reasons for the emerging era of coalition politics.
Answer:
Reasons for the emergence of coalition era of politcs:

1. Multi party system
2. No single party securing required majority.
3. Significance of regional parties increased.
4. Congress party gradually lost people’s mandate after 1960s.

Effects:

1. No political stability
2. Isolating the ideologies
3. Giving importance to party’s interest at the cost of nation’s interest.
4. Coming to power in spite of securing less mandate.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The twentieth century closed with India which was drawn into the world market, India which seemed to have a thriving democracy in which voices of different sections of the population were making themselves heard and in which, divisive and communal political mobilisation were threatening to destroy social peace. It had stood the test of time for over fifty years and had built a relatively stable economy and deeply rooted democratic politics. It still had not managed to solve the problem of acute poverty and gross inequality between castes, communities, regions and gender.

Answer:
The given paragraph depicts about divisive and communal politics. These may destroy the social peace. After independence in India, stable government continued for 30, 40 years and unstability began. Main problem of solving poverty and inequalities with regard to caste, region is not yet solved.

My opinion is that the politics are only vote bank based. Sometimes the political leaders are there behind the communal riots. To throw out some Chief Minister of the same party, their party leaders encourage these riots. Caste based politics are shown at the time of tickets given to party candidates. Caste unions, and the caste group heads are distributed money to lure them to get their votes. Some constituencies are fixed for some religion because of their dominance in number. It is really a threat to democracy. Holy places of worship are also in some cases used to spread communal message. That destroys social peace.
My suggestion is that people should get awarness about this and act accordingly.

Question 9.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
The trend of Coalition Governments, 1989 – 2004

S.No.	Coalition	Duration	Governing parties	Supporting parties
1.	National Front	1989 – 90	JD, DMK, AGP, TDP, JKNC	CPM, CPI, BJP
2.	United Front	1996 – 98	JKNC, TDP, TMC, CPI, AGP, DMK, MGP	CMP
3.	National Democratic Alliance	1998 – 2004	JDU, SAD, TMC, AIADMK, JKNC, BJD, Shiva-Sena	TDP

Answer:

1. The given table is about the trend of Coalition Governments during the period of the years from 1989 to 2004.
2. The details of three coalition governments and their duration, etc. are given in the table.
3. During 1989-1990 Janata Dal-led National Front formed the government. The governing parties in this government were JD, DMK, AGP, TDP, JKNC. CPM, CPI and BJP supported this government.
4. United Front formed the coalition government during 1996-1998. JKNC, TDP, TMC, CPI, AGP, DMK, MGP were the governing parties in this government. CPM supported this government.
5. During 1998-2004 BJP-led National Democratic Alliance formed the government. The governing parties in this government were JDU, SAD, AIADMK, JKNC, TMC, BJD and Shiva Sena. TDP rendered support to the NDA government.
6. The 1990s were years of very significant change in the post-Independence India.
7. With the transformation to a competitive multi-party system, it became near impossible for any single party to win a majority of seats and form a government of its own.
8. Since 1989, all governments that had formed at the national level have been either coalition or minority governments.

Question 10.
Explain about Assam movement in detail.
Answer:

Assam movement:

It is the struggle between Assamese and non-Assamese. These non-Assamese were none other than the people of Bangladesh. The youth of Assam formed All Assam Students Union (AASU) and was in the forefront of agitation. It led a number of strikes, agitations and marches to remove the so called outsiders. The problem of outsiders is not a cultural one but of economic issue. Every country or state wants to protect their cultural roots. The Assamese were most of them, Hindus and the outsiders were Muslims. The local people were afraid of their cultural roots.
Now they affect the trade and so the livelihoods of the locals had been in trouble. It is not only the problem of Assam, it happens at many states. Outsiders dominate a few areas of business and so the locals lose opportunities. In Assam the locals were not given priority or preference in employment. This was the demand of the Assamese. Gradually these demands led to communal polarisation as most of the outsiders are from Bangladesh Muslims. The movement between the Assamese and outsider Muslim led to form an idea of anti Indian stand.

Central Government took initiation and went on for talks for three years. An agreement was signed by the central government and the students union. In the next elections Assam Gana Parishad (an offshoot of AASU) came to power.

In conclusion, the formation of Bangladesh erstwhile Pakistan was taken place on the basis of religion. One’s religion can be given respect by all but it led to many disturbances. The Muslims, the outsiders of Assam occupied most of the areas of trade and business and there was distress and disappointment among the Assamese. The outsiders would have settled in Bangladesh only. They wanted their country to be separated and still they are coming to India illegally. Recently both the Prime Ministers of India and Bangladesh sat together and solved a few problems. If any problem arises, they should sit together and problems can be solved.

Question 11.
Prepare an album by collecting the photos of Prime Ministers of India and write their specialities.
Answer:

Question 12.
You may notice how simple and genuine demands of the people of Punjab were hijacked by religious and anti-national extremists. What steps do you think would have prevented this?
Answer:

1. The simple and genuine demands of Punjab were
   a) the contribution of state was ignored
   b) received unfair bargain when it was created
   c) capital remain UT
   d) more water from Bhakra Nangal and
   e) greater recruitment of Sikhs in the army.
2. Akali Dal government was dismissed by Congress.
3. A series of untoward incidents increased distance between Sikhs and the central government.
4. Militant Sikhs demanded separate state.
5. They occupied Golden Temple, then Congress used army to vacate.
6. A fallout led to the assassination of Indira.
7. Rioting in Delhi against Sikhs was followed.
8. Later Langowal made an agreement with centre but was killed by militants.
9. Militants engaged in extortion and kidnapping and lost faith of the people

Question 13.
Understand the table and answer the following questions.
Some opposition parties of 1970’s

SI.No.	Name of the party	Place of Activity	Ideologies
1.	BLD-Bharatiya Lok Dal	Uttar Pradesh	Special attention to Indian farmers
2.	Congress (O)	Entire India	Conservative section opposed policies of Indira Gandhi
3.	CPI (M) Communist Party of India (Marxist)	West Bengal, Tripura, Kerala, and remained states	Radical land reforms, trade unionism, socialist policies
4.	DMK – Dravida Munnetra Kazagam	Tamil Nadu	1. Greater autonomy and powers to state 2. Fiercely opposed Hindi in the state
5.	Jan Sangh	Northern States	A Hindu nationalist party
6.	SAD – Shiromani Akali Dal	Punjab	1. Great autonomy to states 2. Organised around Gurudwaras

a) Which political party fiercely opposes Hindi in the state ?
Answer:
DMK is the party which opposes Hindi in the state.

b) What is the place of activity for Jan Sangh?
Answer:
Jan Sangh is active in Northern States.

c) What is the ideology of CPI (M)?
Answer:
The ideologies of CPI (M) are radical land reforms, trade unionism and socialist policies.

d) Where is the political party which shows special attention to farmers, active ?
Answer:
The political party, which shows special attention to farmers is active in Uttar Pradesh.

e) Which party is of semireligious nature?
Answer:
SAD – Shiromani Akali Dal is of semireligious nature.

Question 14.
What were the implications of 1977 general elections?
Answer:

1. It was a historical election for democracy.
2. The Congress party was defeated at the national level for the first time.
3. Janata Party became victorious and tried to consolidate itself.
4. It dismissed nine Congress governments in states.
5. It argued that Congress had lost its mandate to rule in the states as it had been defeated.
6. Its stand somewhat proved correct by the results.
7. Except Tamil Nadu and West Bengal, Janata Party came to power in states.
8. The disunity among the partners had a serious effect on governance.
9. The government fell within three years.
10. It led to fresh elections in 1980.

Question 15.
Why was the public sympathy to Punjab militant Sikhs declined?
Answer:

1. They formed armed attachments and engaged in terrorist activities.
2. They clashed with police and other religious groups.
3. Those who were not confirmed to militant approved behaviour were killed.
4. There were civil casualities in derailing trains, exploding bombs, etc.
5. They were engaged in kidnapping, extortion to raise funds.
6. All this gradually alienated them from masses and even Sikhs.
7. Over a period, public sympathy declined rapidly.
8. Peace was finally returned to Punjab by the end of 1990s.

Question 16.
‘Coalition governments induce political instability’ – Elucidate.
Answer:

1. Since 1989, all governments at national level were coalition/minority governments.
2. A number of national and regional parties had come together.
3. So political ideologies and programmes of all parties had to be accommodated.
4. A common agreement had to be arrived at.
5. No party could pursue extreme agendas.
6. They needed to tone down their approaches.
7. It caused considerable instability.
8. Many coalitions did not last their full time.

Question 17.
How do political parties reap on communal polarisation? Provide an example.
Answer:

1. The Hindus are led by Bharatiya Janata Party.
2. In the year 1984 LokSabha elections they won only 2 seats.
3. It made great strides when it took up the Ayodhya issue.
4. It decided to campaign for the building of a temple at the site of mosque.
5. It claimed that was the birthplace of Lord Rama.
6. L.K. Advani in 1990, led a ‘Rath Yatra’ from Somanath to Ayodhya.
7. This campaign was accompanied by intense communal polarisation.
8. It caused a large number of communal conflicts.
9. In 1991 General elections BJP’s strength went up to 120.
10. It was then Rajiv was killed and sympathy wave followed the Congress, still, BJP withstood it.

Question 18.
What is meant by liberalisation?
Answer:

1. It means a lot of things put together.
2. It proposes drastic reduction of government expenditure.
3. It asks for reducing restrictions and taxes on import of foreign goods.
4. It provides for reducing restrictions on foreign investments in India.
5. It is required to the opening of many sectors of the economy to private investors.
6. It brought in foreign goods and forced Indian business to compete with them.
7. It allowed foreign countries to set up companies in India.
8. Common people suffered with cut of subsidies.
9. Many factories were closed down due to influx of cheap foreign goods.

Question 19.
Study the timeline given below and answer the following questions.
a) Who was the Prime Minister that initiated peace agreements with Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi initiated peace agreements with Sri Lanka.

b) Which government tried to implement Mandal Commissions report?
Answer:
Janata Dal government tried to implement Mandal Commissions report.

c) Name two important incidents occurred during the period of P.V. Narasimha Rao.
Answer:
Economic liberalization and the demolition of the Babri Masjid took place during the period of P.V. Narasimha Rao.

d) When was Indira Gandhi assassinated?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi was assassinated in 1984.

e) Who were the Prime Ministers of National Front Government?
Answer:
Deve Gowda and I.K. Gujral were the Prime Ministers of the National Front Government.

f) Who were the Prime Ministers of Janata Dal Government?
Answer:
V.P. Singh and Chandrasekhar were the Prime Ministers of Janata Dal Government.

g) Who led the Congress party after the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi?
Answer:
P.V. Narasimha Rao led the Congress party after the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi.

h) Who led the NDA government?
Answer:
A.B. Vajpayee led the NDA government.

i) When was the NDA Government formed?
Answer:
NDA formed the government in 1998.

Question 20.

Read the following information and answer the questions.

Some opposition parties of 1970s

BLD – Bharatiya Lok Dal – A party which was formed of socialists who called for special attention to Indian farmers, based mainly in Uttar Pradesh.

Congress (O) – The conservative section of the Congress which had opposed the policies of Indira Gandhi.

CPI (M) – Communist Party of India (Marxist)-a party with a national presence, which strove for radical land reforms, trade unionism and socialist policies.

DMK – Dravida Munnetra Kazagam – a party based mainly in Tamil Nadu which sought greater autonomy and powers for the state.

Jan Sangh – A Hindu nationalist party largely confined to the northern States.

SAD – Shiromani Akali Dal – a party based in Punjab catering specially to the Sikhs and organised around Gurudwaras. It therefore had a semi-religious character. It was also in favour of greater autonomy to the States.

a) Which party fought for autonomy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Dravida Munnetra Kazagam fought for greater autonomy in Tamil Nadu.

b) Which party showed special attention to Indian farmers mainly in UP?
Answer:
Bharatiya Lok Dal showed special attention to farmers mainly in U.P.

c) Name the regional party of Punjab.
Answer:
Shiromani Akali Dal is the regional party of Punjab.

d) Name one Hindu nationalist party.
Answer:
“Jan Sangh” is one Hindu nationalistic party.

e) Which opposed the policies of Indira Gandhi?
Answer:
Congress (O) – The conservative section of the Congress opposed the policies of Indira Gandhi.

f) What was the main aim of SAD?
Answer:
It sought for greater autonomy to Punjab.

g) Which party was confined to North India only?
Answer:
Jan Sangh was confined to North India only.

Question 21.

Read the following passage and interpret it.

Panchayati Raj & 73rd, 74th amendment

In 1992 government led by P.V. Narasimha Rao passed an important amendment to the Constitution to provide local self-governments a Constitutional Status. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment created institutions of local self government at the village level while the 74th Constitutional Amendment did the same in towns and cities. These were path-breaking amendments. They sought to usher in for the first time, office bearers at the local level elected on the basis of universal adult franchise.

One-third of the seats were to be reserved for women. Seats were also reserved for , scheduled castes and tribes. The concerns of the State governments were taken into j account and it was left to the States to decide on what functions and powers were to be devolved to their respective local self governments. Consequently, the powers of local self governments vary across the country.

Answer:

1. In 1992 P.V. Narasimha Rao s government passed the important amendments of 73rd and 74th.
2. The 73rd amendment created institutions of local self governments at the village levels.
3. The 74th amendment created institutions of local self-governments at the town and city levels.
4. They are path-breaking as the office bearers at the local level are elected on the basis of universal adult franchise.
5. Seats are reserved for women and Scheduled Castes and Tribes too.
6. Powers were devolved to their respective local self-governments.
7. Hence we can say that these two amendments were path-breaking.

Question 22.
On the outline map of India locate the On the outline map of India locate the following.

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Assom
3. Punjab
4. Tamil Nadu
5. West Bengal
6. Uttar Pradesh
7. Nagaland
8. Mizoram
9. Bihar
10. Gujarat
11. Maharashtra
12. Ayodhya

Answer:

Question 23.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Madagascar Island
2. Nigeria
3. Holland
4. Amsterdam
5. Brazil
6. Jordan
7. Israel
8. Spain
9. Palestine
10. Bangladesh

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 8th Lesson Heredity

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What are variations? How do they help organisms?
Answer:

1. Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.
2. Variations develop during reproduction in organisms.
3. Variations are passed from parent to offspring through heredity.
4. Beneficial variations are selected by the nature in evolution.
5. Variations increase the survival chance of the organisms.
6. These variations help the organisms to adapt to their environments.
7. For example, green colour in the beetles is a variation that gave a survival advantage to the beetles as they cannot be seen by the crows.
8. Some variations do not help organisms to survive. For example, colour variation occurs in red beetles and some blue beetles are produced instead of red beetles as they are eaten by crows easily.

Question 2.
One student (researcher) wants to cross pure tall plant (TT) with pure dwarf (tt) plant, what would be the Fj and F2 generations? Explain.
Answer:

1. Pure tall plant has both the factors of the same type ‘TT’.
2. Pure dwarf plant has both the factors of the same type ‘tt’.
3. When a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), all the offsprings in Fj generation are tall (Tt).
4. So all the plants are heterozygous tall, as ‘T’ is the dominating factor.
   
5. On self pollination of these F₁ generation plants the new breed can have any combination of T and t like TT, Tt, Tt or tt.
   
6. So in F₂ generation 75% of plants are tall and 25% of plants are dwarf. Thus the phenotype ratio is 3 : 1.
7. Among 75% of tall plants 25% are pure tall (TT) or homozygous tall, remaining 50% are heterozygous tall (Tt, tT).
8. The remaining 25% dwarf plants are pure or homozygous dwarf (tt).
9. So the genotype ratio is 1 : 2 : 1.

Question 3.
One experimenter cut the tails of parent rats, what could be the traits in offsprings? Do the daughter rats contain tails or not? Explain your argument.
Answer:

1. If the tails of parent rats were cut, their offsprings will have normal tails.
2. Daughter rats do not contain tails because the bodily changes are not inherited.
3. So the change would not be passed to their offsprings.
4. This was proved experimentally by Augustus Weisemann and rejected the theory ‘inheritance of acquired characters’ proposed by Lamarck.

Question 4.
In a mango garden a farmer saw one mango tree with full of mango fruits but with a lot of pests. He also saw another mango tree without pests but with few mangoes. But the farmer wants the mango tree with full of mango fruits and pests free. Is it possible to create new mango tree which the farmer wants? Can you explain how it is possible?
Answer:

1. Yes, it is possible to create new mango tree which one the former wants with full of mango fruits and pests free.
2. The former can cross two plants one with full of mangoes and pests and another plant with less mango fruits and without pests,
3. In F₁ generation he may get plants with full of mango fruits and without pests. Such plants are called hybrid plants.
4. The F₁ generation plants can be self pollinated and desired plants can be selected from the mixed population of F₂ generation.
5. The plant with desirable characters can be vegetatively propagated to get required number of plants.

Question 5.
ExplaIn monohybrid experiment with an example. Which law of inheritance can we understand? Explain.
Answer:

1. We can understand the law of inheritance with an example of monohybrid cross between pure yellow pea seeds with pure green pea seeds.
2. A pure breed (parental) yellow will have both the factors which denote them by ‘YY’ and pure breed (parental) green seed will have both the factors denote them by ‘yy’.
3. During reproduction one factor (genes) from each parent is taken to form a new pair in the progeny (off spring).
4. In F₁ generation all pea plants are Yellow.
   
5. F₁ generation pea plants are self pollinated.
6. In F₂ generation 75% of the plants produced were Yellow seeds and the remaining 25% produced were green seed. It can be represented as
   
   In F₂ generation the produced plants are YY, Yy; yY or yy.
   From the above example of monohybrid cross we can understand the following laws of inheritance.

1) When pure breed Yellow (YY) and green (yy) seeds were crossed, only Yellow seeds were expressed phenotypically in the F₁ generation. It indicates that Yellow seed character is dominent over green seed characters.
This is “LAW OF DOMINANCE”.

2) When F₁ plants are self pollinated each parent passes randomly selected allele (Y or y) of one of these factor to offsprings. This is segregation of alleles or genes during production of gametes.
This is “LAW OF SEGREGATION”.

Question 6.
What is the law of independent assortment? Explain with an example.
Answer:

1. In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters (traits), the factors for each pair of characters assorts independently of the other pairs. This is known as “Law of independent assortment”.
2. If pea plants with two different pairs of characteristics (eg. : Round / yellow and green wrinkled) are breed with each other, the F₁ progeny plants would have all round and yellow seeds.
3. This implies that round and yellow seeds are dominant characters over green and wrinkled seeds.
4. In F₂ progeny there would be some plants with round and yellow seeds and some with green and wrinkled seeds.
5. However, there would be some plants with mixed characters – yellow and wrinkled seeds and green and round seeds.
6. This depicts that round/wrinkled trait and yellow / green trait are inherited independent of each other (law of independent assortment).
   The following punnet square explains this.
   
7. The different combination of characters resulted from dihybrid cross.
   a) RRYY, RRYy, RrYy, RrYY, RRYy, RrYy, RrYy, RrYY, RrYy are having round and yellow seeds.
   b) RRyy, Rryy, Rryy have round and green seeds.
   c) rrYy, rrYy, rrYY have wrinkled and yellow seeds.
   d) rryy have wrinkled and green seeds.
8. From the result, it can be concluded that the factors for each character or trait remains separate and maintain its identity in the gametes. This is known as “Law of independent assortment”.

Question 7.
How does sex determination take place in human?
(OR)
Explain sex determination in humans with the help of flow chart.
Answer:

1. Each human cell contains 23 pairs (46) of chromosomes.
2. Out of 23 pairs, 22 pairs of chromosomes are called autosomes.
3. Remaining one pair is called allosomes or sex chromosomes.
4. There are two types of sex chromosomes – one is ‘X’ and the other is ‘Y’.
5. These two chromosomes determine the sex of an individual.
6. Females have two ‘X’ chromosomes in their cells (XX).
7. Males have one ‘X’ and one ‘Y’ chromosomes in their cells (XY).
   
8. All the gametes produced by women (ovum) will be with only X chromosomes.
9. The gametes produced by man (sperm) will be of two types, one with X chromosomes and other with Y chromosomes.
10. If the sperm carries X chromosome and fertilizes with the ovum, the resultant baby will have XX condition. So the baby will be a girl.
11. If the sperm carries Y chromosome and fertilises with the ovum, the resultant baby will have XY condition. So the baby will be a boy.

Question 8.
Explain Darwin’s theory of ‘Natural selection’ with an example.
(OR)
What do you understand by the term Natural selection? Write Darwin’s theory of evolution.
Answer:

1. Darwin proposed the theory of Natural selection.
2. Nature only selects or decides which organism should survive or perish in nature.
3. The organism with useful traits will survive and the organisms having harmful traits are going to perished or eliminated from its environment.
4. For example, a group of twelve red beetles live in a bush of green leaves.
5. They will grow their population by sexual reproduction.
6. So they generate variations in their population. Let us assume crows eat the red beetles more the population of red beetles slowly reduced.
7. Crows eat these red beetles and their population slowly reduces.
8. During this time a colour variation arises by the sexual reproduction.
9. So that there appears one beetle that is green in colour instead of red.
10. Moreover this green colour beetle passes its colour to its offsprings; so that all its progeny are green.
11. Crows cannot see the green coloured beetles on green leaves of the bushes and therefore crows cannot eat them.
12. The crows can see the red beetles and eat them as a result, there are more and more green beetles than red ones which decrease in their number.
13. The variation of green colour beetle gave a survival advantage to green beetles’ than red beetles. They were naturally selected.

Question 9.
What are variations? Explain with a suitable example.
Answer:

1. Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.
2. Often a new character in a group may lead to variations that are inherited.
3. If we observe parents and offsprings, there will be some similar features in the offspring of the parents.
4. At the same time we find differences between parents and offspring in their features.
5. These differences are an example of variations.
6. Variations are quite apparent among closely related groups of organisms.
7. If we take roses as an another example, we observe number of varieties in them.
8. But we can still find some characters similar to all plants.
9. Thus rose plants have similar physical features, at the same time they have differences in characters like flower colour, number of petals, leaf size, stem, spines, etc.
10. These differences in features are variations.

Question 10.
What variations generally have you observed in the species of cow?
Answer:
In the species of cow the following contrasting variations can be observed:

1. White coloured – spotted
2. Longhorns – short horns
3. Height – dwarf
4. Long-tail – short tail
5. Elongated face – stunted face
6. More milk giving – less milk giving, etc.

Question 11.
What are the characters that Mendel selected for his experiments on pea plants
(OR)
Write the seven pairs of contrasting characters in pea plant identified by Mendel and mention their traits.
Answer:
Mendel selected the following characters on pea plants for his experiment. They are:

Character	Description
1. Colour of the flower	1. Purple or white.
2. Position of the flower	2. Axial or terminal in position
3. Colour of the seed	3. Either yellow or green.
4. Shape of the seed	4. Either round or wrinkled.
5. Shape of the pod	5. Inflated and constricted
6. Colour of the pod	6. Yellow or green.
7. Length of the stem	7. Tall and dwarf.

Question 12.
In what way Mendel used the word ‘Traits’? Explain with an example.
Answer:

1. Trait is a separate variant of an organism.
2. Mendel hypothesized that characters were carried as traits.
3. An organism always carried a pair of factors for a character.
4. He also hypothesized that distinguishing traits of the same character were present in the population of an organism.
5. He assumed that the traits shown by the pea plants must be in the seeds that produce them.
6. The seeds must have obtained these traits from the parent plants.
7. The factors which are responsible for the character or trait of an organism, are now named as “genes”.
8. By all these we can assume that Mendel used the word ‘traits’ for indicating the variant of an organism expressed by a pair of factors or genes.
9. For example, height is a character of pea plant while the tallness is a trait expressed by a pair of factors either TT or Tt and dwarfness is another trait expressed by a pair of factors tt.

Question 13.
What are the differences that Mendel observed between parent and F₂ generation?
Answer:
Mendel identified the following differences between parent and F₂ generation.

Parent	F2 Generation
1. They are pure breeds.	1. They consist of mixed population.
2. They consist of homozygous alleles.	2. They consist of homozygous alleles in some plants and heterozygous alleles in some other plants.
3. They have some fixed characteristic features.	3. New combination of characters will appear.

Question 14.
Male is responsible for sex determination of baby – do you agree? If so write your answer with a flow chart.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with the statement that male is responsible for sex determination of baby.
2. There are two types of sex chromosomes in human beings, one is ‘X’ and other is ‘Y’.
   
3. Females have two ‘X’ chromosomes in their cells (XX) whereas males have one ‘X’ and one ‘Y’ chromosomes in their cells (XY).
4. All the gametes produced by woman (ovum) will be with only X chromosomes.
5. The gametes produced by man (sperm) will be of two types one with X chromosomes and other Y chromosomes.
6. If the sperm carrying X chromosome fertilizes the ovum, the resultant baby will have XX condition. So the baby will be a girl.
7. If the sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilizes the ovum, the resultant baby will have XY condition. So the baby will be a boy.
8. So the gamete produced by the male is the deciding factor for sex determination of the baby.

Question 15.
Write a brief note on analogous organs.
(OR)
What are analogous organs?
Answer:

1. The organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as ‘Analogous organs’.
2. Wings of birds and bats is the example for analogous organs.
3. The wings of bats are skin folds stretched mainly between elongated fingers.
4. But the wings of birds are a feathery covering all along the arm.
5. The designs of the two wings, their structure and components are different.
6. They look similar because they have common use for flying, but their origins are not common.
7. This makes the ‘analogous’ characteristics.
8. This type of evolution is called convergent evolution.

Question 16.
How do scientists utilise information about fossils?
(OR)
“Fossils are valuable material that nature had preserved to know about ancient organisms.” Write the information you have collected about fossils.
Answer:

1. Fossils are evidence of ancient life forms or ancient habitats which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. The scientific study of fossils is called ‘Palaeontology’.
3. Scientists utilise information about fossils to understand the evolutionary history of life.
4. This information is also useful to study ecology and environmental history, such as ancient climates.
5. This also helps to find out how old that certain layer of earth is.
6. This information is also utilized as indicators of possible fossil fuel deposits which are of great interest to humanity.
7. Thus scientists utilize the information on fossils to learn more about the earth’s past.

Question 17.
Mendel selected a pea plant for his experiments. Mention the reasons for the selection as these plants.
(OR)
Why did Mendel select the pea plant for his experiment? (OR)
Which characters in the pea plant are selected by Mendel, for his experiments?
What are the reasons for selecting pea plant by Mendel to conduct his experiments?
Answer:
Mendel chose the pea plant (Pisum sativam) for his breeding experiments for the following reasons.

1. It is sexually reproducing.
2. Flowers are bisexual.
3. Predominantly self-pollinated.
4. Predominantly self-fertilization.
5. Well developed characters.
6. Early hybridization.
7. It is an annual plant.
8. These plants have short maturity and can produce large number of seeds in a single generation.
9. Pea plants have short life cycle.
10. These plants can easy to grow either on the ground or in pots.

Question 18.
If the theory of inheritance of acquired characters proposed by Lamarck was true, how will the world be?
Answer:
If the theory of inheritance of acquired characters proposed by Lamarck was correct,

1. All the organisms which lost some of their body parts should give birth to the offsprings without the lost parts.
2. Rat which lost their tail should give birth to tail less rats.
3. A handicapped who lost their legs in an accident should give birth to babies v without legs.
4. A body builder’s children should be body builders.
5. But all these are not happening because bodily changes won’t be passed to its offspring.

Question 19.
Collect information on the inherited traits in your family members and write a note on it.
Answer:

1. My grandfather and father- had curling hair. I too have curling hair. So it’s an inherited trait in family.
2. My mother and I both have long noses which appear similar. It’s another inherited trait.
3. Eyes of my grandmother, my brother and mine are similar. It’s another inherited trait.
4. Ear lobes of my father, brother and mine are similar. This is another inherited trait.

Question 20.
With the help of given information write your comment on evidences of evolution.

Mammals have fore limbs as do birds, reptiles and amphibians. The basic structure of the limbs is similar, though it has been modified to perform different functions.

Answer:

1. The given information gives the evidences of evolution.
2. Mammals. birds, reptiles and amphibians all these have forelimbs which have similar basic structure.
3. But they are modified to perform different functions.
4. This indicates that all the vertebrates have evolved from a common ancestor. These organs are called homologous organs. This type of evolution is called divergent evolution.
5. In case of bat (mammal) and bird the designs of the two wings, their structure and components are different.
6. They look similar because they have common use for flying, but their origins are not common.
7. These organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as ‘Analogous organs’. This type of evolution is called “convergent evolution”.
8. There are remarkable similarities in the embryos of above mentioned animals even in their limb formation. These are called embryological evidences.

Question 21.
Collect information about carbon dating method. Discuss with your physical science teacher.
(OR)
Write about the carbon dating method from the information collected by you.
Answer:

1. Carbon dating is the method used to calculate the age of rocks, minerals or fossils.
2. The breakdown of radioactive isotopes of certain elements such as carbon, uranium and potassium takes place at a known rate. So the age of rock or mineral containing isotopes can be calculated.
3. Archaeologists use the exponential, radioactive decay of carbon 14 to estimate the death dates of organic material.
4. The earth’s atmosphere contains various isotopes of carbon, roughly in constant proportions.
5. These include the main stable isotope ¹²C and an unstable istope ¹⁴C.
6. Through photosynthesis, plants absorb both forms from carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
7. When an organism dies, it contains the standard ratio of ¹⁴C to ¹²C.
8. But as the ¹⁴C decays with no possibility of replenishment, the proportion of carbon 14 decreases at a known constant rate.
9. The time taken for it to reduce by half is known as the half-life of ¹⁴C, which is 5730.
10. The measurement of the remaining proportion of ¹⁴C in organic matter thus an estimation of its age.
11. As the half life of carbon – 14 is 5,700 years, it is useful for dating objects up (o about 60,000 years old.

Question 22.
Draw a checker board, show the law of independent assortment with a flowchart and explain the ratio.
Answer:

1. The phenotypic ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. i.e., 9 round and yellow seeds 3 round and green seeds, 3 wrinkled and green seeds and 1 wrinkled and green seed.
2. RRYY, RRYy, RrYy, RrYy, RRYy, RrYy, RrYy, RrYY and RrYy are round and yellow seeds.
3. RRyy, Rryy, Rryy are round and green.
4. rrYY, rrYy, rrYy are wrinkled and yellow.
5. rryy are wrinkled and green.

From the above result, it can be concluded that factors for each character or trait remains separate and maintains its identity in the gametes. Thus in the inheritance of more than one pair of characters, the factors for each pair of characters assort independently of the other pairs. This is known as “Law of independent assortment”.

Question 23.
Explain the process to understand the monohybrid cross of Mendel experiment with a checker board.
Answer:

Question 24.
Prepare a chart showing the evolution of man through ages.
Answer:

Question 25.
Nature selects only desirable characters. Prepare a cartoon.
Answer:
Nature selects only desirable characters

Question 26.
What is your understanding about survival of the fittest? Give some situations or examples that you observe in your surroundings.
Answer:

1. Nature favours only useful variations.
2. Each species tends to produce a large number of offspring.
3. They compete with each other for food, space, mating and other species.
4. In this struggle for existence only the fittest can survive.
5. When cat tries to catch some rats, the rats which can run fast and hide in its hole can survive and which is slow can become prey for the cat.
6. When we spray some insecticide on insects, most of them will die but few which can withstand that chemical will escape.
7. When a pest attacks our garden plants, most of them may die but Which can withstand the pest can survive.
8. When the dog tries to catch chickens, the chickens which will run fast and escape can survive but the slower ones will become food for the dog.

Question 27.
Write a monologue on the evolution of a human to perform a stage show on the theatre day in your school.
Answer:

1. Hai, I am a human being. I am going to recall what had happened to me so far, how I had evolved, simply my journey from my origin to till now.
2. Nearly 1.6 – 2.5 million years ago, during the gelasian pleistocene period, I used to wander in the forest. It is belived that, I evolved from apes.
3. Between 1-1.8 million years ago, I gradually evolved into Homo erectus. I lived in this stage throughout most of the pleistocene. I used more diverse and sophisticated stone tools than my predecessors and it is belived that I travelled over oceans using rafts.
4. Around 1,00,000 – 40,000 thousand years ago I evolved into Homo sapiens neanderthalensis. I was stronger than present in those days. I made advanced tools. I had language to communicate.
5. Around 40 thousand years ago, I reached the present form of human being, the modern humans known as Homo sapiens. I learnt cultivation, construction of houses, cooking, etc. I had invented various things that help me to live comfortably.
6. But my journey did not stop. It is still continuing. Let us see what may happen? Where can I reach? What changes may come in me? Hope for the best.
   Thank you.

Fill in the blanks.

1. The process of acquiring change is called ———–.
2. Mendel’s experiment explains about ———–.
3. The four characters observed in the experiments on law of independent assortment are ———–.
4. If we cross pollinate red flower plant with white flower we will get percent of ———– recessive trait plants.
5. TT or YY, Tt or Yy are responsible for a ———– character.
6. Female baby having 23 pairs of autosomes at the age of 18 years, has ———– pair autosomes and ———– of sex chromosomes.
7. The population grows in ———– progression whereas food sources grow in ———– progression.
8. A goat which walks properly can’t live for a long time. According to Darwin, this represents ———–.
9. Forelimb of whale is for swimming whereas in horse it is used for ———–.
10. The study of fossils is called ———–.

Answer:

1. evolution
2. heredity
3. Round, wrinkled, yellow, green
4. 100
5. dominant
6. 22, one pair
7. geometrical, arithmetic
8. survival of the fittest
9. running
10. palaeontology

Choose the correct answer.

1. Which of the following is not a variation in rose plant?  [ ]
   A) Coloured petals
   B) Spines
   C) Tendrils
   D) Leaf margin
   Answer: C
2. According to Mendel, alleles are  [ ]
   A) Pair of genes , Responsible for character
   B) gene
   C) Production of Gametes
   D) Recessive factors
   Answer: B
3. Natural selection means  [ ]
   A) Nature selects desirable characters
   B) Nature rejects undesirable characters
   C) Nature reacts with an organism
   D) A, B
   Answer: A
4. Palaeontologists deal with  [ ]
   A) Fossilised Embryological evidences
   B) Fossil evidences
   C) Fossilised Vestigial organ evidences
   D) All
   Answer: D

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 166

Question 1.
How does evolution take place?
Answer:

1. Evolution takes place through the accumulation of new characters or variations in a species of organisms.
2. Accumulation of variations occurs only when new characters are passed on from one generation to other and much more new characters are added to the pre-existing once.
3. So this happens oVer a kirig period of time, sometimes several generations may pass.
4. Hence it happens in a slow and steady manner.
5. It is not just about change but producing something new and different.
6. It is about the formation of new species and their adaptation to their environments.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 168

Question 2.
Is variation all about apparent differences? Or is it about some subtle differences as well that we most often overlook?
Answer:

1. Variations are not always apparent differences.
2. Sometimes these may be subtle differences that we most often overlook.
3. When these subtle differences accumulate together they may become apparent.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 171

Question 3.
How do parent plants pass on their traits to the seeds?
Answer:

1. Every character or trait is controlled by a pair of factors called genes.
2. At the time of sexual reproduction, one factor or each trait will pass to the gametes.
3. By the fussion of male and female gametes zygote will form in which factors from both male and female parents get paired again.
4. This zygote will develop into seed in the later stages.
5. Thus parent plants pass on their traits to the seeds.

Question 4.
Will the seeds from tall plants always produce new tall plants?
Answer:

1. No. Tall plants may or may not produce tall plants again.
2. This is because tallness is a dominant character in most of the plants, especially in peas.
3. So tall plant may be homozygous tall (TT) or heterozygous tall (Tt).
4. If the parental plant is homozygous tall (pure breed), then they always produce new tall plants.
5. If the parental plant is a heterozygous tall plant, then they produce the tall and dwarf plants in the ratio of 3 : 1.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 175

Question 5.
What should be the percentage of each type of plants in F₂ generation produced in dihybrid cross between pea plants with yellow, smooth seeds and green wrinkled seeds?
Answer:

1. In F₂ generation of dihybrid cross between pea plants with yellow, smooth seeds and green wrinkled seeds, new plants will produce with the following combination.
   i) Round and yellow
   ii) Round and green and
   iii) Wrinkled and green iv) Wrinkled and yellow
2. They will produce in the ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 respectively.
3. So 56 (56.25%) of plants should be with round and yellow seeds. 19 (18.75%) of plants should be with wrinkled and yellow seeds. 19 (18.75 %) of plants should be with round and green seeds and 6% (6. 25%) of plants should be with wrinkled and green seeds.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 178

Question 6.
What will happen if the sperm containing X chromosomes fertilizes the ovum?
Answer:

1. If the sperm containing X chromosomes fertilizes the ovum which has X chromosome, the baby will have XX condition.
2. So the baby will be a girl.

Question 7.
Who decides the sex of the baby – mother or father?
Answer:
Father decides the sex of the baby.

Question 8.
Is the sex also a character or trait? Does It follow Mendels’ law of dominance?
Answer:

1. Yes, sex is also a character or a trait.
2. It has two contrasting characters male and female.
3. Male character is represented by a pair of allosomes ‘XY‘ (heterozygous).
4. In this, we can consider Y as dominant and X as recessive.
5. In this, recessive character is expressed only when it is homozygous recessive, i.e. female.
6. Homozygous dominant is not existing as reproduction occurs between male (heterozygous dominent XY) and female (homozygous recessive XX) only.
7. As X is not exhibiting its nature when Y is present along with it. it follows Mendel’s law of dominance.

Question 9.
Were all your traits similar to that of your parents?
Answer:

1. No, all my traits are not similar to my parents.
2. There are certain traits which differ from my parents.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 185

Question 10.
How does the evolution of organisms have taken place?
Answer:

1. Variations which are beneficial are selected by nature and passed from parents to offspring through heredity.
2. The same process happens with every new generation until the variation becomes common feature.
3. As the environment changes, the organism within environment adopts and changes to the new living conditions.
4. Over a long period of time, each species of organisms can acuumulate so many changes that it becomes a new species.
5. Thus evolution of organisms took place from common pre-existing ancestors.

Question 11.
Are birds and bats more closely related to each other than to squirrels or lizards?
Answer:

1. No, bats are mammals whereas birds belong to aves.
2. Squirrels are mammals and lizards belong to reptiles.
3. So bats and birds are not closely related to each other as they belong to two different groups.
4. Both bats and birds have wings.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 186

Question 12.
Do embryological evidences indicate that frogs have evolved from ancestors of fish?
Answer:
Yes the embryological evidences indicate that frogs have evolved from ancestors of fish.

Question 13.
Does the life history of every individual exhibit the structural features of their ancestors?
Answer:

1. Yes. The life history of every individual exhibit the structural features of its ancestors.
2. The resemblance is so close at an early stage.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 189

Question 14.
Think why did ancient human beings travelled from one place to other and how did they travelled?
Answer:

1. Ancient human beings travelled from one place to other in search of better living conditions such as availability of food, water shelter and other facilities.
2. They did not travel in a single line.
3. They went forwards and backwards with groups, sometimes separating from each other.
4. This travel is responsible for the formation of races.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 183

Question 15.
In a forest there are two types of deer, in which one type of deer can run very fast. Whereas second type of deer can not run as fast as the first one. Lions, Tigers hunt deer for their food. Imagine which type of deer are going to survive in the forest and which type of deer population is going to be eliminated? And why?
Answer:

1. Deer that can run fast can survive in the forest. Because they can escape easily from lions and tigers, when compared to second type.
2. Deer that run slowly are going to be eliminated. Because they can be caught easily by its predators. So the survival chance will decrease.

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity Activities

Activity – 1

Think of your own family, what similarities do you share with your father and mother? Draw a table to represent the similarities of some characters like colour of eye (cornea), colour of hair, shape of nose, shape of face, type of earlobe (attached or free), inner thumb markings, etc. Write your characters in one column and that of your parents in the other columns.
Table – 1

Characters	In me	In my Mother/Father	In my Brother/Sister	In my grandma/grandpa

Answer:

S.No.	Characters	In me	In my Mother/Father	In my Brother/Sister	In my grandma/grandpa
1.	Colour of eye	Black	Black	Black	Black
2.	Colour of hair	Black	Black	Black	Black
3.	Shape of nose	Long	Long	Short	Short
4.	Shape of face	Oval	Round	Oval	Oval
5.	Type of earlobe	Free	Free	Free	Free
6.	Type of hair	Curling	Curling	Straight	Straight
7.	Inner thumb marking	Conical	Round	Round	Conical
8.	Skin colour	Fair	Fair	Fair	Fair

1. Is there any character in you similar to that of your mother as well as your grandma?
Answer:
There are four characters in me similar to my mother as well as my grandma. They are

1. Colour of eye
2. Colour of hair
3. Type of earlobe and
4. Skin colour.

2. Is there any character in you similar only to that of your grandma?
Answer:
Two characters are similar in me and in my grandma. They are

1. Shape of face and
2. Inner thumb marking.

3. How do you think these characters may have been inherited by you from grandma?
Answer:
These characters are hereditary from parent to child.

4. Is there any character that is not present in grandma but present in your mother and you?
Answer:
Two characters are not present in grandma which are only present in me and my mother. They are

1. Shape of nose
2. Type of hair

5. Think where from your mother got that character?
Answer:
This character is the result of inherited traits transmitted from parent to progeny.

Activity – 2
Observe some of your friends and note their characters in the following table. Fill in yours as well.
Table – 2

Name of your friend	Colour of skin	Earlobes Free / Attached	Marking on inner side of thumb	Length of forehead	Colour of eyes (Cornea)	Any other features

Answer:

Name of your friend	Colour of skin	Earlobes Free / Attached	Marking on inner side of thumb	Length of forehead	Colour of eyes (Cornea)	Any other features
Ravi	Black	Free	Round	Broad	Blue	Straight hair, long nose, and face, etc.
Ganesh	Black	Attached	Conical	Narrow	Black	Straight hair, short nose, oval face, etc.
Vi jay	Fair	Free	Conical	Broad	Black	Curling hair, short nose, round face, etc.
Karthik	Fair	Free	Round	Broad	Black	Straight hair, long nose, round face, etc.

1. Compare your characters to that of any one of your friend. How many characters did you find were similar among you and your friend?
Answer:
Only few characters such as black hair and black eye were similar among me and my friend.

2. Do you share more similar characters with your parents or with your friends?
Answer:
I share more similar characters with my parents than my friends.

3. Do you think that your differences from parents are same as differences from friends? Why / Why not?
Answer:
My differences from parents are not same as differences from friend. This is because the differences from parents are subtle as there is more genetic relation with parents but the differences from friends are apparent.

Activity – 3

Observe seeds in a pea or bean pod. You may observe several parts to arrive at a generalisation.

1. Can you find two similar seeds there?
Answer:
No, all the seeds are not similar. They had certain variations.

2. What makes them vary? even though they are in the same pod. (Hint: You know that seeds are formed from ovules).
Answer:

1. They vary from one another because they are produced from different ovules.
2. Ovules of a plant are female gametes.
3. These gametes carry different factors (genes) for different characters randomly.

3. Why variations are important? How are variations useful for an organism or a population?
Answer:

1. Variations perhaps help a certain group of organisms in a community when conditions would otherwise be unfavourable for other groups.
2. Desirable variations can be selected by nature.
3. Desirable variations increase the chance of survival of an organism.
4. Accumulation of variations after a long period leads to formation of new species.

Activity – 4

Let us do the following activity to understand the Mendelian principles of Heredity. Materials required :
a) 3 cm length and 1cm breadth chart pieces – 4
b) 2 cm length and 1cm breadth chart pieces – 4
c) Red buttons – 4
d) White buttons – 4
e) Chart, scale, sketch pen, pencil, 2 bags.

Method: Prepare a chart with 2×2 boxes along with number and symbol as shown in the figure.

Game 1: Monohybrid cross (starting with hybrid parents)
To start with take 1, 2 or 3, 4 . In case you start 1, 2 pick all the 16 long and short pieces and prepare such pairs in each of which you have a long and short piece.

Take 4 pairs each of long and short strips and put them in two separate bags. Now each bag contains 8 strips (4 long and 4 short).One bag say ‘A’ represents male and the bag ‘B’ represents female. Now randomly pick one strip each from bag A and B and put them together in the 1 on the chart. Keep picking out the strips and arrange them in the same manner till your bags are empty. Same time your boxes in the chart are filled with pairs of strips. You might have got the following combinations, two long strips, one long and one short strip, two short strips.

1. What is the number of long strip pairs?
Answer:
There are four long strip pairs.

2. What is the number of one long and one short pairs?
Answer:
There are eight, one long and one short strip pairs.

3. What is the number of short strips pairs?
Answer:
There are four short strip pairs.

4. What is the percentage of each type? Also find their ratios.
Answer:
The percentage of long strip pairs, one long and one short strip pairs and short strip pairs are 25%, 50% and 25% respectively and the ratio is 1 : 2 : 1.

5. What can you conclude from this game?
Answer:
From this game I have concluded that:

1. Every individual possesses a pair of alleles, for any particular trait.
2. Each parent passes a randomly selected copy (allele) of these to an offspring.
3. The offspring then receives its own pair of alleles for that trait one each from both parents.
4. If the long strip is considered as dominant 75% exhibit dominant and 25% exhibit recessive character. Thus the phenotype ratio is 3 : 1 in monohybrid cross.
5. The genotype ratio is 1 : 2 : 1.

Activity – 5

Observe the below diagram showing variation in beetle population and its impact.
Let us consider a group of twelve beetles. They live in bushes on green leaves. Their population will grow by sexual reproduction. So they were able to generate variations in population. Let us assume crows eat these red beetles. If the crows eat more Red beetles, their population is slowly reduced. Let us discuss the above three different situations in detail.
Answer:
Situation-1: In this situation, a colour variation arises during reproduction. So that there appears one beetle that is green in colour instead of red.
Moreover, this green coloured beetle passes its colour to Its offspring (Progeny). So that all its progeny are green. Crows cannot see the green coloured beetles on green leaves of the bushes and therefore crows cannot eat them. But crows can see the red beetles and eat them. As a result there are more and more green beetles than red ones which decrease in their number.

The variation of colour in beetle ‘green’ gave a survival advantage to’green beetles’ than red beetles. In other words it was naturally selected. We can see that the ‘natural selection’ was exerted by the crows. The more crows there are, the more red beetles would be eaten and the more number of green beetles in the population would be. Thus the natural selection is directing evolution in the beetle population. It results in adaptation in the beetle population to fit in their environment better.

Let us think of another situation.
Situation-2: In this situation a colour variation occurs again in its progeny during reproduction, but now it results in ‘blue’ colour beetles instead of ‘red’colour beetle. This blue colour beetled can pass its colour to its progeny. So that all its progeny are blue.
Crows can see blue coloured beetles on the green leaves of the bushes and the red ones as well. And therefore crows can eat both red and blue coloured beetles. In this case there is no survival advantage for blue coloured beetles as we have seen in case of green coloured beetles.

What happens initially in the population, there are a few blue beetles,but most are red. Imagine at this point an elephant comes by and stamps on the bushes where the beetles live. This kills most of the beetles. By chance the few beetles survived are mostly blue. Again the beetle population slowly increases. But in the beetle population most of them are in blue colour.

Thus sometimes accidents may also result in changes in certain characters of the population. Characters as we know are governed by genes. Thus there is change in the frequency of genes in small populations. This is known as “Genetic drift’, which provides diversity in the population.

Let us think of another situation :
Situation-3: In this case beetles population is increasing, but suddenly bushes were affected by a plant disease in which leaf material were destroyed or in which leaves are affected by this beetles got less food material.
So beetles are poorly nourished. So the weight of beetles decrease but no changes take place in their genetic material (DNA). After a few years the plant disease are eliminated. Bushes are healthy with plenty of leaves.

What do you think will be condition of the beetles?
Answer:
The weight of beetles will increase once again as they get plenty of food material again.

Activity – 6

Let us observe different stages of development of vertebrate embryos. Try to find out similarities and differences and discuss with your friends.
(OR)
What do you infer about the embroyological evidences of various organisms?
Answer:

1. There are remarkable similarities in the embryos of different animals from fish to man.
2. The resemblance is so close at an early stage.
3. Gradually the similarities are decreased when they become babies.
4. The embryological evidences give us an idea that all the organisms have evolved from a common ancestors.

 

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 22 Citizens and the Governments.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments

10th Class Social 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two benefits of Lok Adalat in respect of entertaining disputes.
Answer:

1. There is no court fee.
2. Speedy trail of disputes
3. Procedural flexibility
4. The parties can directly interact with the judge.

Question 2.
When was the Right to Information Act passed by the Central Government?
Answer:
Right to Information Act was passed in 2005 by the Central Government.

Question 3.
How does the government department function?
Answer:
Every government department functions on the basis of certain rules and regulations.

Question 4.
What does Lok Adalat mean?
Answer:
Lok Adalat means people’s court.

Question 5.
Which two roles does RTI play?
Answer:
The first one is the role of the government departments and the second is that of the citizens.

Question 6.
Write about NALSA.
Answer:
Act and to frame the most effective and economical schemes for legal services.

Question 7.
What legal aid facilities are available under Legal Service Authority?
Answer:
Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husband and in-laws, domestic violence cases, all types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases, etc.

Question 8.
When are the Lok Adalats constituted?
Answer:
The Lok Adalats are constituted in every state under the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987.

Question 9.
Write about District Legal Services Authority.
Answer:
District Legal Services Authority is constituted in every district to implement Legal Aid Programmes and Schemes in the district. The District Judge of the district is its Ex-Officio Chairman and the members are nominated by State Government.

Question 10.
Who is responsible officials in the information commission?
Answer:
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the apex body constituted to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the provisions of the State Public Information Commissioner is the responsible official in the information commission along with Information Commissioners.

10th Class Social 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following text and answer the following question.

The LSA Act was enacted to constitute legal services authority for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society. 
To ensure that opportunities for securing justice were not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
To organise Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promoted justice on Q basis of equal opportunity.
To develop an effective, alternative, innovative dispute resolution mechanism outside the courts.

Who are entitled to get free legal support?
(OR)
Who are eligible for benefit under Legal Service Authority?
Answer:
As per LSA Act and its objectives to give free legal support on an equality basis to economically backward. The following are entitled or eligible to get free legal support.

1. A member of a SC or ST.
2. A victim of trafficking in human beings or beggars.
3. Women and children.
4. A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person.
5. A person who is a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, etc.

Question 2.
Write about the Right to Information Act.
Answer:

1. Right to Information Act was passed by the Central Government in 2005.
2. The Act was passed as a result of people’s mobilization as well as in recognition of the provisions in the constitution.
3. Two roles that need to be played for getting the benefits of RTI to the people.

Question 3.
Explain how RTI Act enriches Democracy.
Answer:

1. It ensures the availability of all types of information to the citizen.
2. Democracy requires an informed citizenry.
3. Information should be transparent.
4. This can help to control corruption and make the governments accountable.
   Thus RTI act enriches democracy.

Question 4.
What are the provisions there for people to seek information under RTI?
Answer:

1. Any individual can get documents like government orders, reports, advice, logbooks, rules and regulations, attendance list, letters, etc.
2. People seeking information have to pay a small amount to meet a copy of the document.
3. If the person is below the poverty line he/she need not pay this amount.
4. This information request can be sent through a handwritten letter or electronic mail.
5. Information will be given in the official language of the state or in English or in Hindi.
6. Individuals collecting the information can remain anonymous.

Question 5.
Read the following case study and give an explanation of how Swetha had benefited from RTI.

Gattu Swetha was a student of M.Sc at Kakatiya University in 2013. She completed her B.Sc. exams in March 2011. She got good marks in all subjects but in Chemistry she got 21 marks. On revaluation, she got only 9 marks. With RTI activists help she requested for a photocopy of her answer sheet. University refused to do so. She went to the State Chief Information Commissioner and later the university gave a photocopy and awarded 51 marks. Thus, she joined M.Sc.

Answer:
Swetha could not have accessed the photocopy of her answer sheet without the RTI enabling Act. She could not have got an entry into M.Sc. Earlier photostats of answer sheets were not given to students. They have only informed marks. Now students like Swetha can get a photocopy of their answer sheets even for competitive examinations that provide jobs. She did not stop even when the Public Information Officer of the University did not provide her with information. She went to the highest appellate authority in the state and was able to secure a photocopy. Thus, she made the best use of RTI enabling Act.

Question 6.
Read the following text and answer the following question.

The LSA through Lok Adalats settles long pending court cases in short time and without any expenses. Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husband and in-laws, domestic violence cases, all types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases etc.

What kind of cases can be settled through Lok adalats?
Answer:
The following cases can be settled through Lok adalats.

1. Matrimonial disputes.
2. Maintenance cases.
3. Harassment cases by husband and in-laws.
4. Domestic violence cases.
5. Long pending all civil cases, land disputes and compoundable criminal cases.

Question 7.
What exemptions are there for disclosure of information in the RTI Act 2005?
Answer:

1. The law permits the government not to disclose certain information.
2. Information that could affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.
3. Information that could breach the privilege of Parliament and State Legislature.
4. Information received in confidence from a foreign government. “
5. Information that could endanger the life or physical safety of a person.
6. Cabinet papers or records of Council of Ministers and Secretaries (before the final decision is taken)
7. Most of our armed forces and security agencies are outside the purview of Information Commissions.

Question 8.
Provide an example where any citizen benefited from using RTI Act.
Answer:
T.AIIuga has 1 acre and 20 kuntas land in Vadali village of Mudinepalli mandal in Krishna district. After his death, his son Nallanna cultivated that land. But the untimely death of him left his kid unaware of land. Few years later his kid, Naresh recognized that their land was encroached. He requested the Tahsildar to survey his land with documents he had, which was of no use. Later, even he complained the same in grievance cell with the collector, but was of no use. With the suggestion of a representative of RTI Act, he applied to Information Officer. He has asked for the reason why his land was not surveyed. Later his land was identified, surveyed and shown to the applicant, Naresh.

Question 9.
When was RTI Act made? What was its constitutional prominence?
Answer:

1. The Right to Information Act (RTI) was passed by the Parliament in 2005.
2. Today the Right to Information is recognized within the Constitution under two Fundamental Rights as freedom of expression and the right to life.

Question 10.
Why do you think checking the information can help In improving accountability?
Answer:

1. Information can be collected with the help of officials.
2. Master rolls and paid amounts can be verified.
3. This would bring out the corruption in practices.
4. Officials are given the opportunity to defend and talk about the details of documents.
5. When corruption was identified, cases were registered against concerned persons.
6. Thus checking the information will make governments more accountable in their functioning.

Question 11.
What information shall be declared by every government office even without being asked by the people?
Answer:

1. Under the RTI, it is also compulsory for every government office to declare certain information in public even without being asked by the people.
2. One can identify them on the walls of these office buildings.
3. They are the names, designations and phone numbers of Public Information Officer, Assistant Public Information Officer and First Appellate Authority.

Question 12.
What are the public authorities to follow the right to Information Act?
Answer:

1. The institution created under the constitution.
2. Made under the laws of Parliament or State legislature.
3. Created through a notification of the appropriate government.
4. It may include any body owned, controlled or substantially funded or Non-Governmental organizations substantially funded by the government either directly or indirectly through the funds.

10th Class Social 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How are the Lok-adalats helping the common people? Explain.
Answer:

1. There is no court fee.
2. The procedural flexibility and speedy trial of disputes are provided.
3. The parties to the dispute can directly interact with the judge.
4. Free Legal advice is provided.
5. Delay will be avoided in the settlement of disputes.

Question 2.
“Right to Information Act resembles the true spirit of Democracy”. Explain.
Answer:

1. Democracy requires an informed citizenry.
2. It needs transparency of information.
3. Through R.T.I. Act, all the citizens can get such information.
4. This Act can help to contain corruption.
5. This also makes governments accountable to individual citizens also.
6. Earlier various departments of the government responded only to the elected representatives.
7. But today, they respond even to the common citizens.

Question 3.
Why is there a need for information to fight corruption?
Answer:

1. Programmes that are undertaken to benefit the poor and remove poverty often do not reach the needy and the funds get diverted.
2. A major reason for this is corruption.
3. The reason is common people do not have proper information about the programmes and how they are being implemented.
4. The people themselves had no way to verify how the money was spent by government.
5. The information was not shared with the people.
6. Yet, in a democracy, the money used for the welfare of people is theirs, so they have every right to know how this is being used.
7. Earlier elected representatives checked the corruption.
8. Now with the enactment of RTI, people can check the corruption.

Question 4.
Why do you think the information needed to be shared?
Answer:

1. People believe that the information was crucial to their own welfare.
2. Information is crucial to the human development and democratic rights.
3. People can participate in government and ensure just development only if they have sufficient information in the form of official documents.
4. Information will make governments more accountable in their functioning.
5. Then only it is possible to monitor the functioning and check possibility of corrupt practice.
6. In a situation where information has to be made public, arbitrary decisions by the elected representatives or the officials can be controlled.
7. Information is crucial to the survival of the poor.

Question 5.
Collect the information of the movement which began for the information.
Answer:

1. A group of people in Rajasthan organized themselves under the banner of Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghatan (MKSS) and demanded information.
2. There was no legal provision to take information from the government to the people.
3. Initially, these documents were collected with the help of officials.
4. People evaluated these documents through public meetings.
5. Soon officials began to resist the idea of disclosing the information,
6. This led to people’s movement, with rallies and marches for the next 3 years.
7. People demanded that the information was crucial to their own welfare.

Question 6.
What exemptions are there for disclosure of information in RTI Act, 2005?
Answer:

1. The law permits the government not to disclose certain information.
2. Information that could affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.
3. Information that could breach the privilege of Parliament and State Legislature.
4. Information received in confidence from a foreign government.
5. Information that could endanger the life or physical safety of a person.
6. Cabinet papers or records of Council of Ministers and Secretaries (before the final decision is taken)
7. Most of our armed forces and security agencies are outside the purview of Information Commissions.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 10 Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 10th Lesson Natural Resources

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
The BP Statistical Review of World Energy in June measured total global oil at 188.8 million tonnes, from proved oil resources at the end of 2010. This is only enough for oil to last for the next 46.2 years. What measures should be taken to conserve oil? What will happen if we do not conserve it?
Answer:
Measures to be taken to conserve oil are:

1. Walk, ride a bike, carpool and use public transportation whenever possible.
2. Prefer public transport system like bus or train instead of travelling in personal vehicles.
3. Choose materials other than plastic which uses crude oil for household items.
4. Use cloth or paper bags instead of plastic bags when shopping.
5. Use organic fertilizers for agriculture and gardening because fossil fuels are used in making chemical fertilizers.
6. Produce renewable biofuels to power cars and trucks.
7. Vehicle owners should keep their vehicles serviced i.e., correct amount of air in fires, oil change, spark plug/fuel injector checks, often-at least quarterly.
8. Drive in the correct gear. Incorrect gear shifting can lead to as much as 20% increase in fuel consumption.
9. Consider a hybrid vehicle or an electric vehicle.

If we do not conserve oil, we never get oil after 46-47 years. So all the industries that depend on the oil for energy will break down. Facilities linked with oil will be hampered. So the future generations will suffer.

Question 2.
Here is a news strip, read it carefully and answer the following questions.

Villagers oppose sand mining project Santhabommali (Srikakulam):

People of more than 20 villages in two mandals of Srikakulam have raised a banner of revolt against the proposed beach sand mining project by o private company and threatened to intensify their agitation if the government does not cancel the project. The sand mining is being taken up to extract rich minerals from the area. The villages are located around the forest belt were mining was initiated.

i) Do you think the villagers are doing the right thing to agitate? Why?
Answer:
Yes, the villagers are doing a right thing to agitate. Because beach sand mining leads to certain problems such as –

1. Destruction of natural beaches and ecosystems.
2. Habitat loss for globally important species such as turtles, shore birds, etc.
3. Destruction of nearshore marine ecosystems.
4. Increased shoreline erosion rates.
5. Reduced protection from storms, tsunamis and wave events.
6. Economic losses through tourist abandonment.
7. Loss of coastal aesthetics and
8. Increased saline water intrusion.

The threats posed by sand mining are made even more critical given the prospect of a significant rise in global sea level over the coming decades,

ii) What resources are the villagers trying to save by their agitation?
Answer:

1. Villagers can save the biodiversity of the area by agitating.
2. They can save flora like mangroves and fauna like turtles, gharials (a species of crocodiles) etc.

iii) Will the villagers be benefited by the rich minerals extracted from sand?
Answer:

1. No, the villagers will not be benefitted by the rich minerals extracted from sand.
2. Extraction of minerals may provide employment for few people in that area but most of the local people who are depending on fishing for their livelihood may lose their livelihood as the sand mining brings some disturbances in the ecosystem.

iv) Why does the private company want to carry out mining in the area?
Answer:
Private company wants to carry out mining in that area, for the rich minerals like Titanium and Zirconium. That can be extracted from the sand in the beaches.

v) Does the government have any role to play?
Answer:

1. The government’s role is very important in this regard.
2. It has to make some laws to protect the beaches and their biodiversity.
3. These laws should be implemented very carefully.
4. Indiscriminate and unlawful mining should be prohibited strictly.

vi) How will mining in that piece of land affect people of the area?
Answer:
Mining in that piece of land affects people of the area in many ways.

1. People who depend on tourism may lose their livelihood.
2. People who depend on fishing and other natural products may also lose their livelihood.
3. They may not get proper drinking water due to increased saline water intrusion
4. They may get severe loss whenever natural calamities like tsunamis and storms occur due to reduced protection.
5. In severe cases they have to leave that place due to increased soil erosion and deepening of seashore.

Question 3.
What is sustainable development? How is it useful in natural resource management?
Answer:
Sustainable development: When we use the environment in ways that ensure we have resources for the future, it is called sustainable development.
Useful in natural resources management:

1. Sustainable development ensures the judicial management of natural resources.
2. It helps in optimum utilization of alternative resources and renewable resources.
3. Thus it helps in decreasing the ever increasing demand for fossil fuels and non-renewable resources.
4. Sustainable development practices will give more scope for planning new methods of natural resource management.

Question 4.
Write a detailed note on management of a natural resource.
Answer:

1. Natural resource management refers to the management of natural resources such as land, water, soil, plants and animals, with a particular focus on how management affects the quality of life for both present and future generations.
2. The main goal of natural resource management is sustainability – balancing social, economic and environmental factors to make sure that our children and grandchildren can equally benefit from our natural resources.
3. Our social, economic and environmental well-being depends on the sustainable management of natural resources.
4. Natural resource management deals with managing the way in which people and natural landscapes interact.
5. It brings together land use planning, water management, biodiversity conservation and the future sustainability of industries like agriculture, mining, tourism, fisheries and forestry.
6. Natural resource management specifically focuses on a scientific and technical understanding of resources and ecology and the life-supporting capacity of those resources.
7. The various approaches applied to natural resource management include
   a) Command and control
   b) Community-based natural resource management
   c) Adaptive management
   d) Precautionary approach and
   e) Integrated natural resource management
8. Reduce, Reuse and Recycle are the key concepts for Natural resource management.

Question 5.
Suggest some ways of reusing a resource in your locality.
Answer:
Reusing of a resource (water) in our locality :

1. Washing hands in the garden.
2. Washing machine rinse water can be used for toilet flushing and floor cleaning.
3. Water from washing of fruits and vegetables can be used to water plants.
4. Laundry water can be reused to clean the cars.
5. Even the drain water can also be recycled.
6. After purification recycled water can be used for agriculture.
7. Recycled water can be used to cool down the machinery in the industries.
8. Once used water can be used to recharge the ground water.
   Once used water can be used again like this to conserve the water resource.

Question 6.
Why should we conserve forests and wildlife?
Answer:
We should conserve forests and wildlife for the following reasons.

1. These are the rich habitat for plants and animals (wildlife).
2. Forests are needed for the smooth functioning of biogeochemical cycles.
3. Forests are necessary for the formation of humus and for maintaining soil fertility.
4. Forests serve as lung for the world. They purify air and protect the earth from greenhouse effect and global warming.
5. Many industries such as sport equipment, paper, lac manufacturing, timber and furniture etc., depend on forests.
6. Forests and wildlife provide many fruits, medicines, dyes, sandal wood, bamboo, etc.
7. Forests provide employment to a large number of people and also help in generating revenue.
8. Wildlife act as ‘gene bank’.
9. Conservation of wildlife ensuring that all diverse species in an area survive, breed and flourish.
10. Conservation of forests and wildlife is vital for the ecological stability of a particular area.

Question 7.
Suggest some approaches towards the conservation of forests.
Answer:
The approaches towards the conservation of forests.

1. Sustainable forestry methods should be adapted.
2. Avoiding certain logging techniques such as removing all the high-value trees or all the largest trees from a forest should be avoided.
3. There should be proper laws for the exploitation of forest resources.
4. People should be made more aware about the importance of forests.
5. All possible forest should be announced as the reserve forests.
6. Participation of local people and villagers must be taken in the conservation of forests and they should be given proper employment.
7. Over exploitation by industrial groups and due to the activities of tourist depart¬ment should be checked.
8. There should be incentives and rewards for the efforts made by the people towards the conservation of forests.
9. Overgrazing of forest vegetation by the cattle of local people should be prevented.
10. Measures should be taken to prevent and control forest fires.

Question 8.
Natural resources are decreased more rapidly. Guess what will be the consequences.
What are the consequences of depletion of natural resources?
Answer:
The consequences of rapid decrease of Natural resources.

1. The resources scarcity will arise shortly and demand for them will increase.
2. Future generations may not get these resources.
3. Vehicles running with fossil fuels become useless.
4. All the industries that depend on these sources will shutdown.
5. Electricity production through these sources will be stopped. So we have to stay in dark during night.
6. All the utensils and other articles should be made out of recycled materials.
7. Balance in the nature will be disturbed due to decrease in these sources like forest and biodiversity.
8. We have to search for other sources as the alternative for these resources.

Question 9.
Prepare a questionnaire to conduct interview with petrol filling station personnel about consumption of fossil fuels. (OR)
What questions are you going to ask petrol-filling personnel about consumption of fossil fuels?
Answer:
Questionnaire to conduct interview with petrol filling station personnel about the consumption of fossil fuels:

1. What is the name of the filling station?
2. Where is it located (landmark)?
3. How many litres of petrol is being imported everyday or week or month?
4. How many litres of diesel is being imported?
5. How many two wheelers are being filled everyday here?
6. How many autos are being filled everyday here?
7. How many lour wheelers are being filled everyday here?
8. How many litres of petrol is being sold per day in this filling station?
9. How many litres of diesel is being sold per day in this filling station?
10. What is the total amount of fossil fuel consumed by the people through this filling station per month?
11. Why the rates of petrol and diesel changing everyday?

Question 10.
Prepare model for rain water harvesting or energy saving or soil management. That reflect your innovative thoughts.
Answer:
Rain Water Harvesting:
Procedure to prepare a model for rain water harvesting:

1. Make a model of a house with roof little slanting towards one side.
2. Connect a tube/pipe to the down end such that the rain water that falls on roof can be collected.
   
3. Connect the other end of this tube to a barrel like structure which can be used as storage tank.
4. From the tank arrange a tube towards the garden along with a valve that can be closed and opened.
5. Arrange one more tube with valve into a recharge pit or percolation pit arranged at one corner.
6. Arrange a tap to the tank that can be opened to collect the water for cleaning floor, vehicles etc.
7. During rain, water from roof can be collected into tank and we can utilize it later for gardening or cleaning purposes.
8. When water is in excess it can be used to recharge underground water.

Question 11.
List out names of villages, farmers and procedure followed to the restoration of any natural resource in your area.
(OR)
How villagers and farmers of your village restore natural resources in your area?
Answer:

S.No.	Village name	Farmer’s name	Procedure followed to restoration of natural resources
1.	Kandlagunta	Ch. Ramaiah	Constructed recharge pits to restore under – ground water.
2.	Kotappakonda	B.Bangar Raju	Constructed check dams to restore under – ground water.
3.	Reddy Palem	T. Ranganadh	Recharged the well by building dykes in the nalla.
4.	Uppalapadu	R. Sundaram	Motivated the villagers to construct percola­tion pits.
5.	Nagaram Palem	D. Raja Reddy	Removed silt from the tank.

Question 12.
You might have heard the Natural Gas drillings near Kakinada by ONGC (Oil and Natural Gas Corporation). Collect information and prepare a note on the status of Gas production at the basin.
Answer:

1. Presently ONGC producing gas at the rate of 3.05 MMM³ / day to 4.0 MMM³ / day.
2. ONGC, GSPC, Reliance Industries are companies exploring oil and natural gas in this region.
3. GAIL is marketing and distributing the natural gas through gas collection station.
4. ONGC is associated with GAIL, in planning the additional facilities and technical inputs needed for the future enhanced gas supplies.
5. ONGC has established mini oil refinery at Tatipaka.
6. Total allocation of natural gas from K.G. area is 8.5 MMM³ / day.
7. ONGC has already projected a production potential of 6.5 MMM³ / day of availability of which entire quantity has been allocated to the industrial consume of the area.
8. 16 Industries are actively using Natural gas investing Rs. 5500 crores are working well for power generation, steel re-rolling, producing fertilizers, etc. and some power projections are almost invested Rs. 4000 crores and waiting for a supply of Natural gas.

Question 13.
Does your village or nearest city have a mechanism in place for recycling these waste materials? Find out how it is done and write in detail.
Answer:
Near to our village, there is a center that recycles paper waste. Here the waste paper is recycled in the following way.

1. Waste paper is collected from various sources.
2. This paper is taken to the recycling plant where it is separated into types and grades.
3. The separated paper is then washed with soapy water to remove inks, plastic film, staples and glue.
4. The paper is put into a large holder where it is mixed with water to create slurry.
5. By adding different materials to the slurry different paper products can be created, such as cardboard, newsprints or office paper.
6. The slurry is spread using large rollers into large thin sheets.
7. The paper is left to dry.
8. Then it is rolled up, ready to be cut and sent to the shops.

(OR)

Plastic Recycling process:
Stage – 1: Plastic needs to collected by the recycling company. Once plastic arise recycling plant, the first stage is to sort the plastic into specific types because plastic recycling is more complex than of other metals like glass or paper. Due to many different types of plastic, mixed plastic cannot be used in manufacturing without delivering poor quality products.

Stage – 2: Once the waste plastic is identified and separated, the cleaning process will begin. This starts with washing to remove paper labels, adhesives and other impurities to be completely removed as this lowers the quality of recyclic plastic.

Stage – 3: The shredding stage is when the plastic is taken and loaded on to conveyor belts or directly into huge hoppers, that funnel the clean scrap towards rotating metal teeth that rip the plastic into small pellets which are bagged up and ready for testing.

Stage – 4: Identify and classify the plastic: Once the shredded plastic has been bagged, it is then chemically tested and labelled as to it’s exact specification. This grade plastic can be used as it is by adding to a mix of vergin plastic in a manufacturing run alternatively the grade plastic can be further recycled.

Stage – 5: Extruding: This is the final stage in recyclic plastic. This involves cleaning and melting, shredded plastic and extruding the form of pellets which then go on to manufacture the next lot of plastic products.

Reasons to recyclic plastic:
Millions of tons of waste plastic end up in land fill. When the vast majority of it can be recycled, it is too easy to throw away rubbish without second thought.

But we need to take care of our planet and not just reducing the amount of rubbish we bury but also given that plastic is derived from oil, a natural product with ever depleting resource, it makes sense to recycling as much as possible.

Question 14.
Collect any graph that shows oil (petroleum) consumption in India.
i) Does the production meet consumption in India?
ii) During which period of time shows highest increase in consumption rate?
iii) What will you say happened to production from past ten years, for example, 2004 to 2014?
iv) Suggest some ways to bring down the consumption of petroleum.
Answer:
i) No, the production of oil doesn’t meet the consumption in India.
ii) During 2009 to 2011, there is highest increase in consumption rate.
iii) There was a gradual increase in production from 2001 to 2011. 139.94 million bbl more petroleum was produced in 2011 than 2001. But it does not meet the increased consumption. 1242.27 million bbl more petroleum was consumed in 2011 than 2001. This is nearly nine times more than growth in production.
iv)

1. Using public transport.
2. Walking, using car pool whenever possible.
3. Using hybrid vehicles/electric bikes.
4. Planning alternate source of energy like biofuel.
5. Using products free from petrochemicals like organic fertilizers instead of chemical fertilizer, cloth or paper bags instead of plastic bags etc., can bring down consumption of petroleum.

Question 15.
Proper utilization of natural resources is the way to show gratitude to our nation. Can you support this statement? Give your argument.
Answer:
Yes, I support this statement for the following reasons.

1. Natural resources are our natural wealth which is very essential for our well-being and economic growth.
2. The growth and development of any nation depend on its natural resources and their proper utilisation.
3. We are enjoying the fruits of these resources which is provided by our nation to us.
4. In return, it is our responsibility to safeguard our nation’s wealth.
5. For this it is very essential to utilise these natural resources in such a way that they will remain in our nation and available for the future generations.
6. If we don’t utilize them in proper way there will be crisis for these resources and we have to depend on other nations for it.
7. Such a situation will damage our economy and life standard, for which we are the responsible persons.
8. So, proper utilisation of natural resources is surely the way to show gratitude to
   our nation.

Question 16.
Crop selection and cultivation should be based on the availability of water. Prepare a slogan to make aware of farmers about this.
Answer:

1. See the water availability – Choose the crop.
2. Use micro irrigation – Save water for future.
3. Use less water – Get more productivity.
4. Need based irrigation – Best production.
5. Less water availability – Use dry land crops.
6. Drop by Drop – Grow and grow.
7. Sprinkle water on crop – Crop feels happy.
8. See the water – Grow the crop.
9. Today’s rain water to tomorrow’s life saver.
10. No matter your occupation – Water conservation is your obligation.

Fill in the blanks.

1. ———– plants are used for production of biofuels.
2. Biodiversity is important for more than just food and for ———– also.
3. Example for non-renewable resource is ———–
4. ———– is the alternative method to prevent groundwater depletion.
5. Cultivation of paddy is suitable for ———– areas.

Answer:

1. Jatropha curcas
2. medicines
3. coal, petroleum
4. Water storage structure
5. water rich

Choose the correct answer.

1. Percolation tanks helps to  [ ]
   A) Supply water for agriculture
   B) Increase ground water level
   C) Preserve rain water
   D) Prevent overflow water from tanks during rainy season
   Answer: B/C
2. Which of the following practices is suitable to farmer at less water resources?  [ ]
   i) select short term crops
   ii) cultivate commercial crops
   iii) adapt drip system
   iv) crop holiday
   A) i, iii
   B) i, ii, iii
   C) i, iv
   D) iii, iv
   Answer: B
3. Which of the fossil fuel reserves decrease more rapidly in India?  [ ]
   A) natural gas
   B) coal
   C) petroleum
   D) all
   Answer: C
4. Huge amount of toxic chemicals leak into the surrounding ecosystem because of  [ ]
   A) industries
   B) mining
   C) pesticides
   D) modern technology
   Answer: B
5. Sustainable development means  [ ]
   A) prevention of wastage
   B) stable growth
   C) development without damaging
   D) high yielding in less time
   Answer: C

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources InText Questions and Answers

Table-1: Area under irrigation

Village	Total Area (acres)	Percentage Area Irrigated	Number of Wells	Sample Size
Village -1	3791	25%	155	25
Village – 2	2970	15%	175	25

Question 1.
a) What is the total irrigated area in acres, in Village – 1?
Answer:
The total irrigated area in Village -1 is 947.75 acres.

b) If one needs to irrigate all the land in Village -1 how many wells would be required?
Answer:
Number of wells required to irrigate all the land in Village -1 are 620.

c) Though the number of wells is less in Village -1, the area under irrigation is more as compared to Village – 2. How is this possible?
Answer:
The area under irrigation is more in Village -1 when compared to Village – 2 because the farmers in Village – 1 use water resource jointly and follow micro irrigation techniques.

d) Do you think the area under irrigation will change due to rise in population?
Answer:
No, the area under irrigation will not change due to rise in population.

Table 2: Status after five years

Village	Percentage Change in area under irrigation	Percentage decline in number of wells	Percentage change in area under crops
			Paddy		Cotton	Gingelly	All crops
			K	R			K	R
Village -1	-14	-39	-17	-17	163	86	11	-17
Village – 2	-30	-68	-22	-50	27	138	-05	-50

K stands for Kharif while R stands for Rabi. Negative values indicate loss/ decline, while positive ones show gain/rise.
Question 2.
a) If the number of wells is 155 now, what was it 5 years back ?
Answer:
5 years back nearly 215 wells were there.

b) What do you think ‘decline in number of wells’ represents?
Answer:
Decline in number of wells represents fall of ground water levels due to less rainfall.

c) How would crops be affected due to decline in the number of wells?
Answer:
The crops do not grow well and the yield is less due to decline in the number of wells.

d) Compare table 1 and 2 and state what they tell us about the area under irrigation in both the villages?
Answer:
When compared table 1 and 2 the area under irrigation in Table – 2 is decreased.

e) Which village do you think is more affected?
Answer:
Village – 2 is more affected.
f) What is the change in types of crops grown in the villages?
The crops which need less water and has less duration are grown.

Question 3.
If 45 per cent of wells have dried up in Village -1 and there is 39 per cent decline in number of wells, what percentage of wells do you think have been converted to bore wells?
Answer:
84% of wells have been.converted to bore wells.

Question 4.
By comparing the two villages, find out where greater number of wells dried up? What methods would have saved the wells in other village?
Answer:
By comparing the two villages Village – 2 has greater number of wells dried up. Percolation tank in Village -1 saved the wells drying up.

Question 5.
Which type of farmers, those having small land holdings or those with large land holdings are most affected when wells dry up?
Answer:
The farmers having large land holdings are most affected.

Question 6.
If water resource becomes scarce, will it affect the nature of soil in an area?
Answer:
Yes, it will also affect the nature of the soil in an area.

Question 7.
As wells dry up, how are people in the area dependent on the well affected?
Answer:
Open wells have dried up, water tables have gone down.

Question 8.
Why do you think water became scarce mainly in Village – 2?
Answer:
Water is pumped out of wells and bore wells using electricity leads to water scarcity.

Question 9.
Table 3 : Annual expenditure on well irrigation for small and large farmers(2002)

a) Is the availability of water resource same for a small and a large farmer?
Answer:
Yes the availability of water resource is same for a small and a large farmer.

b) Do you think the availability should be same for everyone in an area?
Answer:
Availability should be the same as the ground water level is same in all places.

c) A well irrigates more area in Kharif season as compared to Rabi, how is it possible?
Answer:
A well irrigates more area in Kharif season as compared to Rabi because Kharif occurs in rainy season and Rabi in winter season. So well irrigation is more in Kharif season.

d) How should a farmer utilize such a condition?
Answer:
Farmer wants to irrigate more land in Kharif season to grow more crop to get more yield.

e) If a well can irrigate 2.5 per cent of cultivable land, how many wells would irrigate whole of the land?
Answer:
The number of wells required to irrigate whole land in Village -1 are around 1516 wells.

f) Which factor has a greater effect on expenditure, number of wells or depth of a well?
Answer:
Depth of a well has greater effect on expenditure.

g) What is the total expenditure on a whole cultivable land owned by a small farmer in Village – 2? How do you think a small farmer meets this expenditure?
Answer:
The total expenditure on a whole cultivable land owned by a small farmer in Village – 2 is around 20,000 – 45,000 rupees per acre per year. The small farmer meets this expenditure through agricultural loans from banks.

h) What could help the small farmer reduce expenditure?
(Hint: Think of crops that require less water)
Answer:
Cultivating the crops which require less amount of water.

i) Do you think increasing the depth of bore well is a good solution for increasing total land area under irrigation? Why/Why not?
Answer:
Increasing the depth of bore well is not a good solution for increasing total land area under irrigation. This is because with increasing depth, expenditure also will increase so net profit will decrease. Moreover, groundwater level decreases much more and has to dig more depth.

Question 10.
Table 4: Income on crops

Village	Type of Farmer	Net income per acre in Rupees				Total income per acre year in rupees
		Paddy Kharif	Paddy Rabi	Cotton	Gingelly
Village -1	Large	8200	8700	4900	3300	25100
	Small	7046	8490	10889	3110	29535
Village – 2	Large	10698	5970	4000	3595	24263
	Small	9128	7380	3031	2650	22189

a) Which crop is most profitable for a small farmer in Village – 2?
Answer:
For a small farmer in Village – 2 paddy in Kharif Is more profitable.

b) What is the difference between a small farmer in Village – 1 and Village – 2?
Answer:
Small farmer in village -1 is getting more income than farmer in Village – 2.

c) Which crop could replace paddy and the profitable as well for a small farmer in Village – 1?
Answer:
Cotton crop could replaces paddy, it is more profitable than others.

d) Though we know that paddy consumes maximum water, why do you think farmere still like to grow paddy?
Answer:
Though paddy consumes maximum water, farmers believe that it is profitable and less risky. It Is a staple food for people. So they still like to grow paddy.

e) What is the impact of a depleting resource upon the farmers?
Depleting resource increases the cost of production. So the farmers are becoming poor and poor as cost increases and profit or income decreases.

f) Do you think the income of a small farmer in Village – 2 is sufficient enough to meet his expenditure?
Answer:
No, the income of a small farmer in Village – 2 is not sufficient enough to meet his expenditure.

g) What are the major causes of pitiable condition of small farmers at Village – 2?
Answer:
The major causes of pitiable condition of small farmers at Village – 2 are

1. Lack of awareness regarding sustainable use of natural resources like water.
2. Not adopting crops suitable to their conditions.

h) Do you think farming as an occupation is profitable for the small farmer in Village – 2?
Answer:
No. Farming as an occupation is not profitable for the small farmer in Village – 2.

i) Would the farmer have to look for other kind of occupations to meet his needs?
Answer:
No need to look for other kind of occupations to meet their ends, but has to select proper crops that requires less water, proper methods that increase ground water, proper devices to use water discriminately.

j) How did the availability of water affect a small farmer at Village – 2?
Answer:
The availability of water affected the average household income at Village – 2 For them farming is not profitable. As their income is less than the life standards of these people will also be less.

Question 11.
How can wells be recharged ?
Answer:
Percolation pits helped in reacharging dried up bore wells. Dykes or barriers are constructed to build underground streams.

Question 12.
How would recharging dried up wells help farmers of Village – 2?
Answer:
In Village – 2 the recharged dried up wells build up under ground streams to tap underground water optimally.

Question 13.
What does the case tell us about a water resource and its effect on farmers?
Answer:
The case tells us that water should not be used indiscriminatly. Every water drop in the ground is important.

Question 14.
How do you think we can use water judiciously?
Answer:
The amount of fresh water is in small amounts only 2.5 – 2.75%. So we should use water carefully.

Question 15.
Why were farmers at Village – 1 at a better state than those at Village – 2?
Answer:
Farmers were at Village -1 at a better state than those at Village – 2 because the farmers of Village -1 have plenty of water to grow their crops.

Question 16.
How did farmers of Village – 2 and Village -1 recharge their ground water resources?
Answer:

1. The farmers of Village – 2 and Village -1 recharge their ground water resources by construction of soak pits.
2. The soak pits to tap rain water and by construction of dykes, they increased the ground water levels.

Question 17.
What other ways of restoration of a resource does the Kothapally case tell us about?
Answer:
Broad bed furrows land form and contour planting are the other ways of restoration of a resource.

Question 18.
What are some common means of restoration and conservation of water resource that we came across in the cases studied so far?
Answer:
Planting Gliricidia on field bunds to restrengthen and make soil nitrogen rich. Farmers were encouraged to use water resource jointly and irrigate land using micro irrigation techniques.

Question 19.
What do you think will happen if we do not take care of the sources of water?
Answer:
If we do not take care of water resources, they get replenished.

Question 20.
How do you think we will meet our requirements in future?
Answer:
We have to meet our requirements in future by

1. Desalenating the sea water
2. Restoring of ground water by recharging with rain water.
3. Getting cooperation from the neighbouring states and
4. Conserve water now for future.

Question 21.
Do you think we would have to depend upon other states or perhaps other countries as well?
Answer:
Yes, we would have to depend upon other states for water.

Question 22.
Could the amount of water used for irrigation in our state be reduced? How?
Answer:
The amount of water used for irrigation in our state could be reduced by following micro irrigation techniques like drip irrigation, sprinkles, etc., and by growing crops that require less amount of water.

Question 23.
Does cropping pattern have any role to play in reduction of water utilisation?
(Hint: Think of the case of Village – 2 and Village -1).
Answer:
Yes, cropping pattern have role to play in reduction of water utilisation. Broad bed furrow, land form and contour planting helps in reduction of water utilisation.

Question 24.
Do you think one needs laws for distribution of water and its use? Why/Why not?
Answer:

1. Yes, laws are needed for distribution of water and its uses.
2. Otherwise all the people may not have self discipline to conserve water.
3. As water is a key resource for life competition may arise between people or states or countries.
4. Laws help to control this kind of disputes and use it judiciously.

Question 25.
How much per cent of area do you think is irrigated by other sources of water?
Answer:
Five per cent of area in our state is irrigated by other sources of water.

Question 26.
Why is it important to recharge the ground water sources?
Answer:

1. Recharge of the ground water sources is very important.
2. This is because nearly 43% of irrigating land is getting water from ground.
3. Due to over drilling of bore wells and pulling out the water by using electric motors, the ground water level is decreasing day by day.
4. If it goes on without recharging, ground water becomes scarce.
5. It shows a vast impact on agriculture and the productivity will decrease.
6. Flourine level in ground water will increase.
7. Saline water may intrude in to the interior places of land and water becomes unfit for both drinking and agriculture.
8. Farmers have to drill the bore wells to the more depths which increase the losses for them.

Question 27.
Why do the rivers fail to benefit the state to an extent they should have?
Answer:
Rivers fail to benefit the state to an extent they should have. Because

1. There are no sufficient structures (dams) to store river water.
2. Over usage of water by the other states.
3. Geographically our rivers are flowing through the rocky and hill areas in most of the places in our state where it is difficult to make canals.
4. The government should plan for proper utilization of river water after scientific study with the help of expert engineers.

Question 28.
Since ground water resources are getting depleted at a fast pace what are the alternatives?
Answer:
Since ground water resources are getting depleted at a fast pace we have to construct percolation tanks to collect run off water. Water shed management projects should be adopted to renew the ground water levels.

Question 29.
River Godavari fails to provide water for the projects like Sri Rama Sagar in Telangana due to over usage of water by some other state. How should states and countries work to provide enough for all?
Answer:
States and countries should work to provide enough water for all by allotting water to other states or countries in an emicable atmosphere.

Question 30.
What would you do to motivate others to manage an important resource in your locality?
Answer:
To motivate others manage an important resource in my locality I will do the following activities:

1. I will explain the importance of resource and need for its proper management.
2. I will conduct the seminars on this issue.
3. With the help of my friends and teachers I will conduct some competitions like debate, essay writing, etc., on this issue.
4. I will plan some cultural activities such as songs, skits that explain the importance of managing the resource and exhibit them in the school and the village to motivate the village.

Question 31.
How did the villagers in Kothapally resort to sustainable management
Answer:

1. The villagers in Kothapally resort to sustainable management with the help of ICRISAT.
2. ICRISAT educated villagers by large and provided technical support for cost-efficient water storage and soil conservation structures.
3. The measures were community as well as individual farmer-based.
4. Fourteen water storage structures with the storage capacity of 300 to 2000 m³, 60 mini percolation pits, field bunding on 38 hectares were completed.
5. Twenty-eight dry open wells, near Nalla were recharged by building dykes in the Nalla and retaining the run off rain water in it.
6. A user group was formed for each water storage structure and the water collected was exclusively used for recharging the ground water to the dried well.
7. Broad bed furrow land form and contour planting was implemented to conserve soil and water.
8. Gliricidia plants are planted on the field bunds to strengthen the land, make the soil nitrogen rich.
9. Farmers were encouraged to use water resource jointly and irrigate land using micro-irrigation techniques.
10. Saplings of useful species were planted along the roads, field bunds and Nallas.

Question 32.
Why do you think forests are important?
Answer:
Forests are important because,

1. They are rich habitat for plants and animals.
2. They serve as a lung for the world.
3. They purify air, decrease carbon dioxide, global warming and green house effect.
4. Thus provide various valuable things such as wood, medicines etc.
5. They are providing raw materials for several industries.
6. They maintain ecological balance in nature.
7. They preserve the soil fertility.
8. They cause rains.

Question 33.
Observe a lawn in your area (if you have one) and see how it is maintained. Find out from the gardener the different types of plants that he removes from time to time. Do you think a farmer does the same thing on his farm?
Answer:
The gardener removes all the species of plants that grow in the lawn from time to time.
Farmer does the same thing on his farm. But the variation is all the plants are removed from lawn just for pleasant look whereas farmer remove only weed plants that compete with the crop plants for space, nutrients, water and sunlight. This is to increase the productivity of crop plants.

Question 34.
What do fossil fuels provide us?
Answer:

1. Fossil fuels provide us energy.
2. This energy can be used for various purposes such as running vehicles, machinery in industries, etc.
3. They are also useful in the production of electricity.
4. They also provide petrochemicals which are helpful in the manufacturing of several products that include plastics, synthetic rubber, fabrics like nylon, medicines, cosmetics, waxes, cleaning products, medical devices, etc.
5. They also provide energy for cooking, lighting, etc.

Question 35.
Why do we need to conserve the fossil fuels?
Answer:

1. Fossil fuels are non-renewable resources.
2. If once they are used up, they never replenish again or take several thousands of years to replenish.
3. They become integral part of our life, that we cannot live without these.
4. So, we need to conserve fossil fuels so that we don’t run out of them.

Question 36.
Collect information about solar, wind, tidal and water power and prepare a scrap book.
(OR)
Collect information about conventional energy sources from internet and prepare a note on it.
Answer:
Solar energy: To use solar energy is to generate electricity from sun light. For this purpose special chemical substances which are sensitive to light have been developed.
When light falls on these substances small chemical current is generated in large amounts. This can be stored and used when needed.
Watches, calculators, street lamps have been invented which use the current produced by light falling on light sensitive material.
Wind Energy: Wind mills are in use for centuries especially for pumping water from wells.
In wind mills, wind rotates the blades of windmill and is used to move the piston and lift the water from the well.
Wind energy is being used to pump water and to run turbines for the production of electricity.
Tidal energy (Kinetic energy) : Large amount of energy (Kinetic energy) la stored In the waves especially In seas.
Special devices have been made to rotate as the water passes through them by the wave action.
This Is used to generate electricity.
Water power: Dams are constructed across the rivers water from the reservoir falls from a height on the turbines.
This water falls Is used to drive turbines to generate electricity. These are called hydro electric projects.

Question 37.
Ask your teacher about nuclear energy and its impacts on ecosystem.
Answer:
Nuclear energy is produced by splitting the nucleus of an atom of elements like uranium or plutonium. This process Is called fission.
Another process for production of nuclear energy Is by fusion. In this process two nuclei of the same elements are fused with one another. In this process more energy is produced than by fission.
The energy Is produced as heat. This Is used to produce steam which runs generators to produce electricity.

Question 38.
Think why disasters like Uttarakhand happened?
Answer:

1. Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh are two hill states that were stuck by extreme rains in 2013.
2. Heavy rainfall has wrecked havoc on the region because of fragile nature of Himalayan range and poor soil stability in its deep steps. But it is the man made factor that has compounded the scale of the disaster.
3. Unabated expansion of hydro power project and construction of roads to accommodate ever-increasing tourism especially religious tourism are also major causes for the unprecendented scale of devastation.
4. The valleys of Yamuna, Ganga and Alakananda attract heavy traffic of tourists. For them, government has to construct new roads and widen the existing ones.
5. A new mountain range like Himalayas will remain study if not tampered much. But the huge expansion of trade and transport is bringing the mountains in Uttarakhand down.
6. Study should be conducted to assess the carrying capacity of the Himalayas and development should be planned accordingly.

Threat from dams: The Ganga in upper reaches has been engineers’ play ground. The central electrical authority and Uttarakhand power department have estimated the rivers hydrolytic potential at some 9000 muc and planned 70 odd projects on its tributaries. In building these, key tributaries have been modified through diversions through tunnels or reservoirs.

Question 39.
Do you think it is necessary to have a lot of lighting for decoration during celebrations?
Answer:
No, it is not necessary to have a lot of lighting to decorate an occassion of celebration. It is mere waste of electricity and money. We should conserve electricity for proper use.

Question 40.
What other things could you reuse to save our resources?
Answer:

1. Glass, paper, wax, plastic, etc., can be reused to save our resources.
2. Recycle: By recycling the waste materials we can reduce pollution.
   Ex : Plastic recycling is a tricky process and can cause havoc.
3. Plastic needs to be carefully stored before it can be processed.

Question 41.
Why should one sort wastes carefully before discarding them from home?
Answer:

1. Before discarding the waste materials we should sort out the reusable things and recycling things.
2. If it is undecayable waste like glass or plastic we can discard them or if they are the decayable waste we can prepare a compost pit to enrich the soil.

Question 42.
Often we keep a plastic bag in our dustbins to discard waste, is it a good practise?
Answer:

1. No, it is not a good practise to discard waste in a plastic bag.
2. When we threw the waste along with the plastic bag it takes hundreds of years for the plastic to get destroyed in the soil and the soil gets polluted.

Question 43.
Can international, national or state organisations alone manage a resource? Who are all involved in the whole process of management?
Answer:
Along with international, national or state organisations there is private organisation named International Union for the Conservation of Nature founded by private groups.

Question 44.
Suggest some ways in which you and your Mends would like to manage a resource.
Answer:
By practising four R’s-reduce, reuse, recycle and recover the things, preparation of recharging structures for water, protecting the wild life and habitats we can manage the resources.

Question 45.
Are we also an important resources of nature? How?
Answer:

1. Yes, we are also an important resources of nature.
2. Human beings, through the labour they provide and the organizations their staff are also considered to be resources.
3. The term human resources can also be defined as the skills, energy, talent, abilities, and knowledge that are used for the production of goods or the rendering of service.
4. In a project management context, human resources are those employees responsible for undertaking the activities defined in the project plan.

Question 46.
Find out the usage of water in litres per day in your home? Do you actually require that much water and how much water is enough in accordance with National standards?
Answer:

1. In my house 900 litres of water is being used per day at the average of 225 litres for a person per day (4 members family).
2. Actually this much water is not required.
3. We can conserve at least 400 – 500 litres of water at the average of 100 to 125 litres per head.
4. In India, the design of water supply system has been done using certain standards.
5. Currently the standard being used is BIS 1179 : 1993, reaffirmed in 1998.
6. According to this, for communities with a population between 20,000 to 1,00,000 – 100 to 150 litres per head per day can be considered.
7. For communities with population over 1,00,000 – 150 to 200 litres per head per day can be considered.
8. On the whole, at an average of 150 litres per head per day is enough in accordance with National standards.

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources Activities

Activity – 1

Study the different ways in which water is used, misused and recycled in the area where you stay. Prepare a questionnaire with the help of your friends and teacher and study at least five households in your locality for the same. Also explore and discuss ways to provide water for all.
Answer:
Ways in which water is used:

1. Drinking
2. Bathing
3. Washing clothes
4. Cleaning utensils
5. For plants in garden and agriculture, etc.

Ways in which water is misused:

1. Not closing the taps after using.
2. Contaminating the water.
3. Brushing near open taps.
4. Getting bath under shower.
5. Playing with water.

Ways in which water is recycled:

1. Allowing the water used in kitchen for garden.
2. Using the once used water to wash vehicles.
3. Using the water from bathing for toilet flush.
4. Washing hands in plant pots.

Questionnaire:

1. For what purposes water is being used in your home?
2. From where this water is being collected?
3. Are you using water only for the needed things?
4. Are you closing taps properly after using?
5. Are you getting shower bath?
6. Are you using more water than required for cleaning, bathing etc?
7. Are there any leaks in your water pipelines?
8. Are you recycling the once used water?
9. In what way are you recycling the water?
10. What measures do you suggest to conserve water and make it available for all?

Ways to provide water for all:

1. Wastage of water should be strictly minimised.
2. Washing hands in the plant pots.
3. Rain water should be directed into recharge pits.
4. Care should be taken to prevent leakage of water from pipes and taps.
5. Wash clothes in running water canals if possible.
6. Direct the kitchen water free from soap and detergents to the garden.
7. Use the soap and detergent water for toilet flush or cleaning vehicles.
8. Recycling of water can be done on large scale in towns and cities and can be utilised again.
9. Cooperation between the states through which a river passing is very essential for providing water for all.
10. People should be motivated in such a way that each drop of water is life and should conserve it.

Activity – 2
i) Find out how many different types of insects are present in and around your house.
Answer:
We find different types of insects present in and around our house.

ii) Do you find the same type of insects in all seasons ?
Answer:
No. We find different types of insects in different seasons.

iii) Make a chart of insects and note their occurrence for at least a week in each season.
Answer:
Ants – All seasons particularly in summer for collection of food.
Butterflies – Winter, summer – Collecting nectar
Honeybee – Winter, summer – Collection of honey.
Beetles – Winter, summer – Collection of food grains
Cockroaches – All seasons – Food and shelter

Activity – 3
Nowadays people are revolt against mining. Collect any such’ incident of our state or neighbouring states from your school library or newspapers and conduct seminar on it’s impact.
Answer:

1. People living in hill top hamlets in seven mandals of Visakhapatnam and East Godavari districts are up in arms against laterite mining in Nagulakonda hill range.
2. Laterite is a raw material used by cement factories.
3. Huge deposits of laterite worth hundreds of crore rupees are found in Nathavaram and Kowur mandals in Visakhapatnam and Pratthipadu, Yeleswaram, Sankhavaram, Routulapudi and Kotananduru in East Godavari.
4. All these mandals are technically coming under scheduled areas.
5. If the mining continues here, it will badly threaten the ecology of that area.
6. The tribal people in that area will lose their livelihood.
7. To reach the mining area road should be laid in the reserve forest area.
8. This leads to depletion of forest resources also.
9. Health of the local people will be badly affected due to the dust spread during mining.
10. Keeping all these in mind the tribal people are opposing the mining in that area.

 

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 21 Social Movements in Our Times.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the given may and answer the question:
In which state, Indira Sagar Project is located and on which river?
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh, River Narmada.

Question 2.
Identify one state for each movement in given India’s political map relating to the following social movements.
Answer:

1. Narmada Bachao Andolan
2. Chipko Movement

Question 3.
Why did the black Americans begin the Civil Rights Movements in 1960s?
Answer:
The blank Americans began the Civil Rights Movements in 1960s

1. Segregation of the Blacks and Whites (in schools, buses and public places).
2. Discrimination in appointments, housing and in voting rights.

Question 4.
Name the two movements related to Narmada Bachao Movement
Answer:
The two movements related to Narmada Bachao Movement are

1. Movement of Indigenous people.
2. Movement against neo-liberal policies.

Question 5.
What did the American Civil Rights Movements fight for?
Answer:
The American Civil Rights Movement fought for equal treatment of Afro-Americans against permitting segregation.

Question 6.
When was Washington March conducted?
Answer:
Washington March was conducted on 28th August 1963.

Question 7.
Where was Narmada Bachao Andolan Movement taken place?
Answer:
In Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 8.
Who led Narmada Bachao Andolan?
Answer:
Medha Patkar led Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 9.
Where was the Chernobyl nuclear plant?
Answer:
The Chernobyl nuclear plant was in the USSR.

Question 10.
In which year was arrack officially banned?
Answer:
In 1993.

Question 11.
Which dominated the world during the first half of the 20th century?
Answer:
The world during the first half of the 20th century was dominated by great wars, revolutions, the emergence of German Fascism, Soviet Socialism, Western liberalism, national liberation movements, etc.

Question 12.
Name two anti-Communist countries.
Answer:
The USA and the UK.

Question 13.
Which decades saw a new kind of movement – the movement against war and nuclear arms?
Answer:
The 1970s and 1980s.

Question 14.
When was START signed?
Answer:
Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) was signed in 1991.

Question 15.
When was the total arrack prohibition imposed in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
In 1995.

Question 16.
When was Manipur made a part of India?
Answer:
The kingdom of Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949 and Manipur was made a part of India.

Question 17.
When did the Greenpeace Movement start in Europe?
Answer:
The Greenpeace movement initially started as a protest in 1971 against the American underwater nuclear tests near Alaska.

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1
Do you agree with the view that equal participation of men and women and equal opportunity for them is necessary for freedom and development of the country?
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this view.
2. Because the women contribute nearly half of the participants in all aspects.

Question 2.
What were the reasons for the American civil rights movement?
Answer:

1. One of the most important civil rights movements was the American Civil Rights Movement.
2. It fought for equal treatment of Afro-Americans of Black Americans and against rules that permitted segregation of blacks and whites in schools, buses, and public places and discriminated against them in appointments, housing, and even voting rights.

Question 3.
Read the map given below and answer the following questions.

i) In which state, was Sardar Sarovar Project constructed?
Answer:
Gujarath.

ii) Name the movement that was held against the construction of dams on river Narmada.
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 4.
Create two slogans on ‘Environmental Protection.
Answer:

1. No chemicals – Go organic.
2. Conserve water – Conserve life.
3. Grow trees – Save earth.

Question 5.
Write the main reasons for Assam movement.
Answer:

1. Demand for autonomy.
2. Domination of Bengalis.
3. Migration from Bangladesh.
4. Fear of losing their cultural roots.
5. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of outsiders.
6. No preference in employment for locals.

Question 6.
What would you do, if you were to solve the problem of liquor prohibition?
Answer:

1. Bringing awareness among the people.
2. Proper implementation of the laws.
3. Formation of village committees.
4. Making involvement of women.

Question 7.
During the last few decades, why is the pollution increasing day by day?
Answer:

1. Nowadays industries are increasing due to that they release more chemicals and pollution is increasing.
2. Nowadays every person has a power-driven vehicle due to that pollution is increasing.
3. Farmers are using more pesticides and fertilizers, due to that pollution increases. Due to de-forestation, CO₂ reaches more in the atmosphere then pollution increases very highly.

Question 8.
What were the four main demands of Bhopal gas victims?
Answer:

1. Proper medical treatment of the victims.
2. Adequate compensation for them based on international standards.
3. Fixing criminal responsibility for the disaster on the management of the multinational company.
4. Steps to prevent disasters in the future.

Question 9.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of the Environment.
Answer:

Importance of Environment

1. The surroundings in which living and non-living things are present is known as the environment.
2. For living things environment provides basic needs for staying alive.
3. We get food, shelter and cloth from the environment.
4. Tourism people go the jungle to observe animals and for their different characteristics.
5. The forest, ocean and sky environment provides shelter to various animals.
6. It also provides home for us.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

“A large section of people who actively participated in the civil rights movement were black women, who felt that their voice was not being heard even within the movement which was dominated by men. In fact, no woman was allowed to speak in the famous Washington March. They felt that women needed to assert themselves for the equality of women.”

Answer:
This paragraph is about the inequalities in the society. Women discrimination is discussed. Their voice was not being heard. It means they were not allowed to say what they demand. Many of the black women participated in the Civil rights movement but not even a single woman was allowed to speak is the March. The women came to know that they should fight for their rights.

There was strong discrimination between the Whites and the Blacks. Especially the black women had no rights. The Americans purchased the black people from Nigeria and other African countries as if they purchase different commodities. They were treated as slaves. In 1960s there was a segregation of blacks and whites in schools, buses and public places. The blacks were discriminated against in appointments, housing and even in voting rights. So there was a movement against this discrimination.

White Aryan supremacy was the reason for this segregation. The Americans, the English, and French, and the Germans feel that they are Nordic race and their race is the supreme one. Dr. Martin Luther King delivered a speech that he had a dream that his children would one day live in a nation where they would not be judged by the colour of skin.

Discrimination is there in different forms. At the time of Second World War, in Germany, millions of Jews were killed.Caste based discrimination was there in India. Nowadays this discrimination is reduced.

Special status is being given to some people based on their birth or position. In these days, everyone is coming out for study and employment. As this was not there, the movements began. Nowadays the women occupied many high positions. Banks, political parties are also being run by the women. About five states in India are being ruled by the women. Many IAS, IPS officers are there from women.

In conclusion, the women should be given priority, even in family matters. The head of the family may be the women. She could play a crucial role in taking decisions. Equal rights are to be given to women. They should be encouraged for higher education. There voice is to be given respect. In political scenario the wives of leaders occupied some positions but their husbands are ruling. This shouldn’t happen. Let the elected rule of themselves. I hope to see the world without any sort of discrimination.

Question 11.
What are the losses incurred due to Bhopal gas disaster?
Answer:
The losses incurred due to Bhopal gas disaster:

1. Thousands of people lost their lives.
2. Many people became homeless.
3. Still people are suffering from its ill effects.
4. It caused damage to the environment.

Question 12.
What is the result of the anti-nuclear movement?
Answer:

1. Thousands of scientists and intellectuals from across the world campaigned for abolishing all nuclear weapons and insisted that USA and USSR come to an agreement to end the Arms Race.
2. Massive protests took place against the governments weaponisation policies and demanded them to reduce nuclear arms and work towards peace on a long term.
3. The USA and the USSR began the race to cut down their nuclear arsenal.
4. Strategic Arms Limitation talks were unsuccessful.
5. A Treaty was signed in 1991 called Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START)
6. In late 2001, according to this treaty, 80% of the all strategic weapons then in existence were removed.

Question 13.
What is the effect of globalisation on people?
Answer:

1. Tribal and marginal farmers are being threatened by commercial farmers, mining corporations, dam projects, etc.
2. As large companies find rare resources in remote rural areas there has been a rapid increase in the ousting of the farming and tribal population.
3. This led to the destruction of tribal cultures.
4. So they became most vulnerable section of the society.
5. These gave rise to environmental movements.
6. Poor families, landless workers, women, industrial workers, and workers in unorganized sectors have been worst hit.

Question 14.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

“We, the undersigned, as American men of draftage, may be asked by our government to participate in the war in Vietnam. We have examined the history and the nature of this war, and have reached the conclusion that our participation in it would be contrary to the dictates of our consciences.

We therefore declare our determination to refuse military service (all citizens are required to do so by law) while the United States is fighting in Vietnam. Our intention in signing this statement is to unite with other draftage men who share our convictions, in order to turn our personal moral rejection of this war into effective political opposition to it.”

Give your opinion on the above article.
Answer:

1. Here the people in the USA were refusing to be drafted into the army to fight in the Vietnam war.
2. They were saying that they had examined the history and the nature of the war.
3. Participation was contrary to the dictates of their consciences.
4. So they are refusing to join into military services.
5. They signed on the statement in order to create political opposition to the war.
6. The article was a trendsetter as people’s rejection to war was established in the statement.

Question 15.
Why have social movements arised?
Answer:

1. Social movements have raised diverse demands of environment or human rights or equality.
2. In some contexts, these resist changes that are forced on them.
3. In some contexts, these demand for change.
4. These often distant from individual political parties and more united under a single cause.
5. Their programmes are envisaged through participatory and democratic manner.
6. Social movements arise when people feel that their expectations were unmet by political systems.

Question 16.
‘The second half of the 20th -century was an era of growth, prosperity and growing tensions’ – Comment.
Answer:

1. With the end of the Second World War and the independence of colonies and semi-colonies like India, China, Indonesia, Nigeria and Egypt by mid 1950s a new era began in the world.
2. This was an era of economic growth and prosperity for most of the countries, but also of growing tensions in many countries.
3. Sections of societies which had long been denied equal rights came out asserting their rights.

Question 17.
Write the names of any two important treaties among the nations to prevent nuclear weapons.
Answer:
The USA and the USSR, the main competitors in the arms race began talks to cut down their nuclear arsenal.

1. SALT – Strategic Arms Limitation Talks.
2. START – Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty.

Question 18.
Read the given passage.

Manipur today is composed of two distinctive geographical terrains: the valley and the hills. Before independence, the valley was under princely rule and the hill areas were relatively autonomous, mainly inhabited by the tribal population. In 1891 the British established their I control over the region though the king continued to rule the kingdom. The kingdom of Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949 and Manipur was made a part of India. This agreement was disputed by many tribes which argued that they had been autonomous and did not agree to be a part of India.

Answer the following questions.
a) When did the British establish their control over the Manipur?
Answer:
British established their control oyer Manipur in 1891.

b) When has Manipur signed a merger agreement with India?
Answer:
Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949.

c) Name the two distinctive geographical terrains of Manipur.
Answer:
Two distinctive geographical terrains in Manipur are 1) Hills and 2) Valleys.

Question 19.
The raise in the price level of oil will severely affect the social life-Express your opinion.
Answer:

1. The raise in the price level of oil will severely affect social life.
2. The raise in the price levels of oil will lead to raise in the transportation costs.
3. It’s raise leads to raise in the prices of essential commodities.
4. As we depend a lot on oil imports, it’s cost raise will charge a lot on our exchequer.

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write an essay on ‘Appreciating the prominence of the basic features of Social Movements”.
Answer:

1. Social movements have been a powerful means for ordinary people to participate directly in creating positive social change.
2. There are deeply grounded in our founding values of security, culture, justice, democracy, civil rights, etc.
3. Social movements have raised diverse demands cutting across the strict boundary of environment establishing equality.
4. Most of the social movements are non-violent and often a distance from individual political parties and are more united under a single cause.
   For all these conditions we can appreciate the basic features of the Social Movements.

Question 2.
Explain the Meira Paibi Movement.
Answer:

1. Meira Paibi (in Meitei language) literally can be translated as ‘torch bearers’.
2. Meira Paibi originated as a movement to prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse in the late 1970s.
3. But, it soon became a movement for human rights with the massive deployment of Indian armed forces to counter the armed movement in the early 1980s.
4. This resulted in frequent military operations and human rights violations. The Meira Paibi responded instantly with protest demonstrations.
5. The Meira Paibi took to patrolling the streets at night.
6. Women of every leikai or ward of every town and village participated in the daily patrolling.
7. Bearing no weapons but only the bamboo and rag kerosene torches.
8. These are not activists or politically inclined women, Meira Paibi group has also been demanding that AFSPA be revoked.

Question 3.
Explain the impact of globalisation and neo-liberalism on the lives of marginalised people.
Answer:

1. Tribal people, poor farmers, landless workers, women and the workers in the unorganised sector have been worst hit.
2. They have no access to better education and skills.
3. As a result, they are not able to get better-paying jobs or legal or other constitutional remedies.
4. Due to the activities such as mining and construction of major projects, many tribal people and farmers are being displaced.

Question 4.
Estimate the pros and cons of building Multipurpose projects.
Answer:
Pros:

1. Huge amounts of water could be stored.
2. Agriculture could be developed.
3. A large amount of electricity could be generated.
4. Floods and droughts could be controlled.

Cons:

1. Local people will be displaced.
2. It is not really possible to rehabilitate all the displaced people properly.
3. Bio-diversity will be damaged.
4. Water storage and electricity generation were actually less than those were assumed.
5. Sometimes the construction of dams may cause earthquakes.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analysing it.

Rank in Total Emissions in 2011	Country	2011 Total Carbon dioxide emissions from the consumption of Energy (million metric tons)	Per capita Carbon di-oxide emissions from the consumption of Energy (Metric tons)
1	China	8715.31	6.52
2	USA	5490.63	17.62
3	Russia	1788.14	12.55
4	India	1725.76	1.45
11	UK	496.80	7.92
15	Indonesia	726.79	1.73

Answer:

1. The above table shows that how many million tonnes of carbon dioxide is emitted in 2011 by some of the countries like China, USA, Russia, India, UK & Indonesia while they are using energy resources.
2. According to this, they are given ranks also to the countries on the base of emission of carbon dioxide.
3. In the above table, over all China emitted more million tonnes, but in percapita USA emitted more metric tonnes.
   In this one China, USA, Russia occupies first three places in the emission of carbon dioxide which are highly industrialised countries. These are the main responsible for global warming in the world and creating natural hazards and disasters in the world. Due to that climatic changes are taken place very rapidly and causes to destroy life at present and future also.
4. If it continues the whole world will suffer very highly, that’s why every country takes the responsibility and reduce the emission of carbon dioxide more and follow the safe and scientific measure and protect the atmosphere, environment and human beings also.

Question 6.
Write about the advantages and problems the people faced, due to the construction of Dams.
Answer:
Advantages: They do not only help in irrigation but also in electricity generation, water supply for domestic and industrial uses, flood control, recreation, inland navigation and fish breeding.
Disadvantages: Due to the Dam construction people lost their fertile land. Tribal people lost the forest land and their livelihood. People are displaced from their native place to other places. It maintains more expenditure also. It also induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases and pests and pollution resulting from excessive use of water.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The economic and political changes happening world wide since 1990s, which go by the name pf ‘globalisation’ or ‘neo-liberalism’ have deeply impacted the lives of the underprivileged and poor. Tribal people, poor farmers, landless workers, women, urban poor working in the unorganised sector and industrial workers have been the worst hit. By and large these are also the people without access to formal education or adequate nutrition and health.

Answer:
This paragraph is about the consequences of globalisation. It mainly influences the poor people and tribal people and it affects workers working in the unorganised sector. The people who are illiterates and under-nutritious are mostly affected.

Due to technological advancement, various machinery came out. The developed technology is influencing all the sectors. In agriculture combined harvesters, threshers are used. Tractors and transplantation machines are used and so labourers lost their livelihoods Due to railways and dams the tribal people are affected. When railways are taken up for extension many of the trees are cut for keeping under the rails. Hence the forest dwellers face problems of displacement. When government plans for constructing dams to increase irrigation facilities it is compulsory to
construct near forests. These lead to the displacement of tribal people. Many of these people are illiterates. Many tribal people lost their livelihoods such as collecting honey, nuts and seeds. Industrial belts also increased near the outskirts of cities and towns. This leads to pollution. Many rural illiterates are affected by this. Computers, IT,

Telecommunication, transportation increased and so the poor and the tribals are impacted.
My suggestion to the government is that it should take care of the people about their displacement. Proper compensation is to be given on time. Officers also should implement existing laws.

Question 8.
What are the ways in which the Black Americans protested with the government?
Answer:

1. The Black Americans suffered a lot as the government permitted segregation in schools and buses.
2. There was discrimination against them in appointments, housing, and even in voting rights.
3. They took up the Civil Rights Movement.
4. It Is of non-violent nature.
5. They gave massive demonstrations, marches, civil disobedience and boycott of discriminatory services.
6. They boycotted the buses for one year long.
7. More than two lakh people conducted the Washington March.
8. These are the ways in which they protested.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

Initially, the Sardar Sarovar Project was expected to be built with money borrowed from World Bank. After Intense protests, mobilisation, marches, hunger fasts and an international campaign World Bank decided to withdraw its funding.

Is it possible to build factories or projects or powerplants without throwing out farmers or tribal people?
Answer:

1. Most of the times it is possible to build factories, mines or power plants without throwing out the farmers or the tribal people.
2. Because they need infrastructural facilities and raw material.
3. .For that Government should think of alternatives.
4. Protection of the interests of the farmers and tribals also lies with the government.
5. The government should see that no damage is done to any sections of people.
6. Compensations in terms of land, money or job are to be properly calculated.
7. Government has to go for alternatives if the interests of any section of people are hurt.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions after studying the table.

Sl. No.	Movement	Place	Leaders
1.	Civil Rights Movement	America	Dr. Martin Luther King
2.	Narmada Bachao Andolan	Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh	1) Medha Patkar 2) Bava Mahalia
3.	Anti-arrack Movement	Andhra Pradesh	Rosamma
4.	Anti AFSPA	Manipur	Irom Sharmila

a) Which state witnessed anti-arrack movement?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is the state which witnessed anti-arrack movement.

b) Which movement was led by Med ha Patkar?
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan was led by Medha Patkar.

c) Who led the Civil Rights Movement in America?
Answer:
Dr. Martin Luther King led the Civil Rights Movement in America.

d) Name the movement that took place in Manipur.
Answer:
Anti AFSPA is the movement that took place in Manipur.

e) Where was Narmada Bachao Andolan Movement taken place?
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan was taken place in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 11.
Answer the following questions after studying the table.

	Vietnam	The USA
Civilian deaths	8 to 30 lakhs	Nil
Military deaths	8 to 30 lakhs	58,000
Physically handicapped	NA	More than 58,000
War technique	Guerrilla warfare	Army, Air Force
Arsenal (Invented)	NIL	Chemical weapons and Napalm bombs

a) What is the war technique of Vietnam?
Answer:
The war technique of Vietnam is Guerrilla warfare.

b) What are the inventions of the USA Arsenal?
Answer:
Chemical weapons and Napalm bombs are the inventions of U.S.A Arsenal.

c) Why were there no civilian deaths in war for the USA?
Answer:
The war was fought in Vietnam. So, none of the USA civilian deaths occurred there.

d) How many military deaths were there for the USA?
Answer:
There were 58000 military deaths for the USA.

e) How many civilian deaths were there for Vietnam?
Answer:
There were 8 to 30 lakh civilian deaths for Vietnam.

Question 12.
Read the following information.

Article	Provisions
Article 3	Everyone has right to life, liberty and security.
Article 5	No one is subject to torture, or to cruel, inhuman treatment or punishment.
Article 7	All are equal before law.
Article 9	No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest detention, exile.
Article 10	Everyone is entitled to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial judiciary.
Article 12	No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his privacy.
Article 13	Everyone has right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of our country.

Read the passage and answer the following questions.
a) Which article protests, against the arbitrary arrest?
Answer:
Article 9.

b) What are the provisions of Article 10?
Answer:
According to article 10 everyone is entitled to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial judiciary.

c) Why are the above articles framed?
Answer:
The above articles are framed to protect civil and human rights.

d) Which article insists on equality before Saw?
Answer:
“Article 7” insists on equality before law.

Question 13.
Read the information and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Name of the movement	Purpose	Who lead the movement
1.	Civil Rights Movement of the USA of 1960’s.	Protest against discrimination of blocks in the USA	Martin Luther king 1960’s
2.	Human Rights Movement	Human rights of freedom of expression and move­ment.	Alexander Solzhenit­syn and Andrei Sakharov.
3.	Green Peace Movement	Banning of underwater nuclear tests	Mass Movement
4.	Narmada Bhachao Andolan	Demand for a fair compensation	Meda Patkar and Bava Mahaliya
5.	Anti-Arrack movement	Against liquor in Nellore in A.P.	Mass Movement
6.	Meira Paibi Movement	To prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse in Meitei in Manipuri.	Mass movement

a) Write about civil rights movement of the USA.
Answer:
It was a movement to protest against discrimination of blacks in the USA in 1960s.

b) In which place Anti-Arrack movement in A.P. occurred?
Answer:
In Nellore District.

c) Name the movement that banned under water nuclear tests.
Answer:
Green Peace movement.

d) Who were the leaders of Human Rights Movement of the USSR.
Answer:
Alexander Solzhenitsyn and Andrei Sakharov.

Question 14.
What were the demands of the people of Bhopal regarding the great tragedy?
Answer:

1. The worst industrial disaster in the world happened in Bhopal in 1984.
2. Thousands of people lost their lives and many more are still suffering from its ill effects till date.
3. Right from the beginning, the people of Bhopal have been fighting for four main demands.
4. Proper medical treatment of the victims is the first.
5. As the company was a multinational company, the compensation for them based on international standards.
6. Third one is fixing criminal responsibility for the disaster on the management of the company.
7. The fourth demand is to find steps to prevent such disasters in the future.
8. While they have succeeded to some measure, they are still a long way to achieve all these demands.

Question 15.
Locate the following points on the outline map of world.

1. USA
2. USSR
3. Vietnam
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Andhra Pradesh
6. Manipur
7. Gujarat
8. Hungary
9. Poland.

Answer:

Question 16.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Estonia
2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Finland
4. Hungary
5. Europe
6. Norway
7. Sweden
8. Greenland
9. River Niger
10. Turkey

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 18 Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77).

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77)

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think the tribal languages were ignored at the time of the creation of the states in 1956?
Answer:
The languages spoken by dominant or powerful populations were considered at that time, so the tribal language were ignored.

Question 2.
What is the main aim of Panchsheel policy?
Answer:
To establish a foreign policy on the basis of Gandhian principles like peace and non-violence.

Question 3.
What were the main challenges before the leaders of the country in the early years after Independence?
Answer:

1. To maintain unity and integrity.
2. Reorganization of states without disturbing unity and integrity.
3. To bring about social and economic transformation
4. Poverty
5. Unemployment
6. Illiteracy.

Question 4.
Write any two rural development programmes of Nehru.
Answer:
The rural development programmes are:
The strategy favoured by Nehru and finally adopted included three components.

1. Land reforms,
2. Agricultural co-operatives and
3. Local self-government.

Three types of land reforms were contemplated, a) abolition of Zamindari system, b) tenancy reform and c) land ceilings.

Question 5.
Why is the Green Revolution Compulsory in India?
Answer:
Green Revolution in India is compulsory because.

1. To meet the needs of the increasing population by increasing food production.
2. To use better water management.

Question 6.
What is the difference between a single-party system and multi-party system?
Answer:

1. Single party system – prevailing only one party
2. Multi-party system – prevailing many parties.

Question 7.
What was the main reason behind introducing symbols to represent political parties and candidates by Election Commission?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of illiteracy.

Question 8.
What is meant by ‘Universal Adult Franchise’?
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise:
All the people who attain the age of 18 years, irrespective of caste, creed, religion gender language have the right to vote.

Question 9.
What are the land reforms proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru?
Answer:
According to Nehru’s proposal of land reforms are:

1. Abolition of Zamindari System
2. Tenancy reforms
3. Land ceiling. Some land is fixed. No one should hold more than that extent.

Question 10.
What did the Election Commission of India do for the illiterates to cast their vote?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India introduced symbols for the political parties and contesting candidates for the sake of illiterates to cost their vote easily.

Question 11.
What is the Constitution sought for?
Answer:
The Constitution is sought to fulfil multiple goals simultaneously, including making democracy work, unification and creation of a single political community and bringing about massive social and economic changes.

Question 12.
What was a great achievement?
Answer:
The setting of national goals and putting in place institutional mechanisms to achieve them within a relatively short span of time was undoubtedly a great achievement for a people who had been ruled by a foreign power for more than two centuries.

Question 13.
How can you say that first general elections were immensely significant for Indian democracy?
Answer:
The first elections were difficult because of the social dimensions also.

Question 14.
Why was an Election Commission set up?
Answer:
An Election Commission was set up to take care of the practical matters of conducting elections across the length and breadth of the country.

Question 15.
What was called the Congress System?
Answer:
The Congress party formed the government in many of the states as well. This inaugurated what some observers called the Congress System.

Question 16.
Write about the groupism in Congress.
Answer:
Congress always had within small groups. Though these groups originated on the basis of personal competition between leaders, they shared in the overall goals of the party but differed on some policy issues.

Question 17.
What enabled Indian politics to develop a multiparty democracy?
Answer:
It was the strength of the Constitutional framework and the democratic foundations laid by the freedom movement which enabled Indian politics to develop a multiparty democracy.

Question 18.
Write a challenge of the new nation.
Answer:
Among the first challenges the new nation faced was the demand for the reorganization of states on the basis of language.

Question 19.
How was the country divided during British rule?
Answer:
During the British period, the country was divided into Presidencies (Calcutta, Madras and Bombay) and a number of very large states like Central Provinces and Berar. A large part of the country was under princely states.

Question 20.
What was the fear regarding the language reorganisation?
Answer:
The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was the fear that language reorganization would lead to breaking up of the country.

Question 21.
When were the A.P. and Tamil Nadu state created?
Answer:
Potti Sriramulu demanding the formation of a separate Telugu speaking state died after 58 days of fasting in October 1952. Consequently, the states of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu were created.

Question 22.
What was at the top of the agenda of modern India?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly had called for social, economic and political justice and equality of status and opportunity, it put social and economic change at the top of the agenda of modern India.

Question 23.
What were the two questions that divide a political opinion?
Answer:
The two main questions that divided political opinion were:

1. What place agriculture should have in the larger development strategy?
2. How should resources be allocated between industry and agriculture?

Question 24.
What did the planners feel?
Answer:
The planners felt that for the country to develop it was essential to develop industries so that more people can shift to towns to work in factories and in the service sector. Hence from the Second Five Year Plan onwards, the emphasis shifted to industries.

Question 25.
Who formulated Panchsheel and for what?
Answer:
As for the immediate neighbours Nehru formulated the Panchsheel policy of non-interference in each other’s internal affairs.

Question 26.
Who succeeded Sastri?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi succeeded Sastri as Prime Minister after his untimely death in 1966.

Question 27.
Name some assemblies in which the Congress defeated.
Answer:
It was defeated in assemblies like Bihar, U.P., Rajasthan, Punjab, West Bengal, Orissa, Madras and Kerala.

Question 28.
Who was MGR?
Answer:
He was a popular hero in Tamil Nadu.

Question 29.
How were SVD governments?
Answer:
Many of these SVD governments were short-lived. Their life was marked by defections and corruption. Power seemed to be the only thing that united them. These governments had nothing to showcase.

Question 30.
What was the regional sentiment in A.P.?
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh, there was a demand for the separation of Telangana. The movement was spearheaded by students of Osmania University, whose main grouse was that the benefits of development were going to only some sections of the state.

Question 31.
What was Bangladesh?
Answer:
It was East Pakistan.

Question 32.
What was popular slogan in 1971 election?
Answer:
The popular slogan in 1971 election was “Garibi Hatao”.

Question 33.
What were the important legislations during the period of Indira Gandhi?
Answer:

1. Nationalisation of many private banks.
2. Abolition of princely pensions.

Question 34.
What happened in 1973?
Answer:
In 1973, the Court came up with the landmark decision on the Basic Structure of the Constitution, which put a checkon the governmental power to amend the Constitution.

Question 35.
Write any two ill effects of the Emergency period.
Answer:

1. The fundamental rights were suspended.
2. There were also instances of arbitrary arrests, torture and violation of civil liberties.

Question 36.
How was Meghalia formed?
Answer:

1. Meghalaya was formed in 1969; Meghalaya formerly belonged to Assam.
2. It was formed out of the tribal districts of Khasi, Jaintia and Garo hills.

Question 37.
Expand SRC.
Answer:
State Reorganization Committee.

Question 38.
Write two important events occurred during Lai Bahadur Shastry period.
Answer:

1. Official language Act in 1963 and anti-Hindi agitation.
2. War with Pakistan in 1965.

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the given Pie diagram and discuss the 2014 General Elections.

Answer:

1. B.J.P. is the largest party with 282 seats.
2. INC got only 44 seats.
3. AIADMK got 37 seats
4. TDP got 16 seats.
5. Others got 140 seats.

Question 2.
Read the following passage and answer the given question.

With this democracy was put on hold. The government began a series of repressive measures, claiming that this was necessary to bring order in the country. Many of the fundamental rights were suspended. There were also instances of arbitrary detention, torture and other violations of civil liberties. While people welcomed control over prices rise and the campaign against black marketing and bonded labour many programmes undertaken by the emergency government such as demolition of slums and forced sterilisation in the name of population control became very unpopular. However, in the absence of civic freedom people could not express their discontent and the government therefore could not take corrective measures.

What were the changes taken place in an emergency?
Answer:

1. Democracy was put on hold.
2. The government began a series of repressive measures in the name of law and order.
3. Fundamental rights were suspended.
4. Forced sterilization in the name of population control.
5. In the absence of civil rights, people could not express their discontent.

Question 3.
What are the aims of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
Answer:

1. To exclude the courts from election disputes.
2. To strengthen the central government vis-a-vis the State Governments.
3. To provide maximum protection from judicial challenges towards social and economic transformation legislation.
4. To make the judiciary subservient to the parliament.

Question 4.
Read the following paragraph and comment in your own words.

One of the greatest weaknesses was undoubtedly the low priority given to primary education and public health. This was going to hurt India for a long time to come. Other countries like China and Korea which also began a new inning around the same time, did much better on these two counts as compared to India.

Answer:

1. Primary education and public health are the most important aspects.
2. They have to be given utmost priority in any state.
3. Unfortunately in India, both these sectors could not develop as per expectations.
4. The government had to play a key role in these sectors to achieve the targets.

Question 5.
How were the land reforms implemented in India? How far did these reforms benefit the people?
Answer:

1. Land reforms were however implemented in a half-hearted manner across India.
2. While the Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place.
3. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land.
4. The Dalits continued to be landless but benefited from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and interpret the changes taken place in the social and economic fields in India.

Land reforms were implemented in a halfhearted manner across India. While the Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to landless did not take place. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land. The dalits continued to be landless but benefited from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Answer:
The Constituent Assembly had called for social, economic and political justice and equality of status and opportunity as its agenda.

1. For that the Planning Commission was set up within a month. The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture.
2. The strategy favoured by Nehru and finally adopted included three components.
   1. Landforms
   2. Agricultural co-operatives
   3. Local Self Government
3. Three types of land reforms were contemplated:
   1. Abolition of Zamindari system
   2. Tenancy reforms and
   3. Land Ceilings.
4. Local self-government would ensure that the land reforms were carried out and the coopera¬tives run according to the collective interests of the village.
5. Dams were constructed and were useful to both the agriculture and industrial sector.
6. The Second Five Year Plan shifted emphasis to industries. As a result, the service sector also would develop.

Question 7.
Which qualities of Lai Bahadur Shastri do you like? Why?
Answer:
After the death of Nehru in 1964, Congress managed a successful transition with the choos¬ing of Lai Bahadur Sastri as its leader in government. Sastri was immediately put to test with a series of issues which challenged the fundamental values and goals of the Indian nation. These included the Anti-Hindi agitation led by the DMK in the South, which threatened the goals of unity and integrity, the shortage of food which came in the way of social and economic transformation, besides a war with Pakistan in 1965.

Question 8.
Draw an outline map of India.
Answer:

Question 9.
What are the results of the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Results of Green Revolution:

1. Increase in net sown area
2. Increase in double-cropped area
3. Progress in the irrigation sector
4. Increase in per hectare yield level
5. Increase in the area under High Yielding Varieties
6. Increase in the use of fertilizers.

Question 10.
Write the differences between Regional party and the National Party.
Answer:
State Party: In a state, if a party wins 3% of valid votes or 3 Assembly seats, it is declared as a regional/state party. A party can be recognised in more than one state.
National Party: If a party is recognized in four states with 6% of valid votes or 11 Loksabha M.P seats from 4 different states, it is called a national party.

Question 11.
Create two slogans on “the importance of voting”.
Answer:
Your vote – Your weapon
Cast your vote – Change your fate
Vote is valuable – Don’t sell it

Question 12.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

A few days later, with the JP movement gaining more strength, the government imposed Emergency and justified it as necessary to preserve order, save democracy, protect the social and economic transformation and preserve national integrity.

Comment on the above text.
Answer:

1. When J.P. movement gaining more strength, the government imposed Emergency.
2. Democracy was put on hold.
3. Fundamental rights were suspended.
4. There were instances of arbitrary arrests and the violation of civil liberties.
5. The emergency period weakened the democratic fabric of our country.

Question 13.
Observe the following map and answer the following questions.

a) Name the states that are bordering Hyderabad state.
Answer:
Bombay State, Andhra state and Mysore state were surrounding the Hyderabad state.

b) How many states were there in the southern peninsula?
Answer:
There were eight states in the southern peninsula. They are

1. Bombay state
2. Hyderabad state,
3. Mysore state,
4. Andhra state,
5. Madras state,
6. Coorg state,
7. Pondicherry state,
8. Travancore-Cochin state.

Question 14.
Observe the following map and answer the following questions.
a) What was the smallest state that is there between Madras and Mysore state?
Answer:
“Coorg” was the smallest state between Madras and Mysore states.

b) Name the southernmost state from the above map.
Answer:
Travancore – Cochin state was the southern most state.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

Jawaharlal Nehru was not opposed to linguistic states; he only believed that this was not the time for it. It was also the consensual position among the leaders of the day. They believed that India was in the process of consolidating Itself and there should be no distraction.

Was Nehru opposing “Liquistic reorganization of states”?
Answer:

1. No. Nehru was not opposed to linguistic states.
2. He thought it was not a right time for reorganization.
3. Still India was consolidating itself.
4. At this moment there should not be any distraction.
5. Hence Nehru thought that it was not the right time to reorganization.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When India became independent the Cold War had just begun and the world was being polarised into countries in the US or USSR camp. Jawaharlal Nehru followed a policy of not joining either camp and tried to maintain an equidistant and independent position in foreign policy. He also joined hands with several other countries that had become independent around the same time and wanted to follow a similar policy – Indonesia, Egypt, Yugoslavia, and so on. Together they built the Non Aligned Movement. As for the immediate neighbours he formulated the Panchsheel policy of non-interference in each other’s internal affairs. However, India had to face two wars during this period, first with Pakistan over Kashmir in 1948 and with China in 1962. India was not well prepared for the wars, especially the war in 1962 and sustained heavy losses of human life and money.

Answer:
What was our foreign policy and did that policy help us to avoid wars with our neighbours?

1. We became independent in the bipolarized world.
2. We followed a policy of not joining in the US or the USSR camp.
3. Along with other countries like Indonesia, Egypt, Yugoslavia we built the Non-Alignment movement
4. In spite of our policy of Non-Alignment, we had to face two wars with Pakistan in 1965 and 1971 and one war with China, i.e. in 1962.
5. These wars ended with heavy losses of human life and money.
6. We have always been peace-loving and follow our policy in spite of hurdles.

Question 17.
What were the challenges before the leadership?
Answer:
The main challenges before the leadership were the need to maintain unity and integrity, bring about a social and economic transformation and to ensure the working of the democratic system. These challenges are interrelated and great care had to be taken to ensure that the system did not get imbalanced.

Question 18.
Mention the social dimension time of the first general elections.
Answer:
A large section of the population did not know how to read and write. In some parts of the country, women were known by their father’s or husband’s name, they did not have an independent identity. This has to change if women were to have equal rights and take the country towards greater social equality.

Question 19.
How did the Election Commission overcome the problem of illiteracy?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of illiteracy, the Election Commission came up with a novel idea of having symbols from everyday life to represent political parties and candidates. This creative innovation dispensed with elaborate instructions and required only visual identification. This basic idea continues even today. To make it even easier, in the first election each candidate had a separate ballot box with the symbol stuck outside; the voter only had to drop their ballot paper in the box of their preferred candidate.

Question 20.
How were the first three general elections?
Answer:
In Independent India’s first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962, the Indian National Congress won reducing other participants to almost nothing. Jawaharlal Nehru became the first Prime Minister of India. None of the other parties individually got more than 11% of the votes polled.

Question 21.
What was the result of groupism in Congress party?
Answer:
The groups took different positions on various issues depending on the interests of the members. This made the Congress appear as if it was a party representing diverse interests and positions. At times, these groups also tied up with other political parties to pressurise the leadership. This also acted as an inbuilt corrective mechanism within the ruling party. Political competition in the one- party dominant system, therefore, took place within the Congress. The opposition parties therefore only posed a latent and not a real threat.

Question 22.
What was the planning for Nehru?
Answer:
For Nehru planning was not only good economics but good politics as well. He hoped that planned development would dissolve the divisions of caste and religion, community and region as well as other disruptive and disintegrative tendencies and help India to emerge as a strong and modern nation.

Question 23.
Write about the First Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture and stressed on the need for increased food production, development of transport and communications and the provision of social services. It also stressed the need to industrialise India as quickly as possible. Given that food was a basic requirement, there was a consensus on increasing food production but there was no agreement on how this should be achieved.

Question 24.
How were land reforms implemented?
Answer:
Land reforms were implemented in a half-hearted manner across India. While Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land. The Dalits continued to be landless but benefitted from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Question 25.
Write about laws during the First Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The First Five Year Plan focussed on improving agriculture by building large dams to irrigate and produce electricity. Dams benefitted both the agriculture and the industrial sector. Though there was an increase in agricultural production, it was still not sufficient to meet the needs of the population.

Question 26.
Explain the need of Green revolution.
Answer:
The existing strategy was not increasing food production, there was a shift to different strategy between the years 1964-67. This attempted to secure the cooperation of the state governments as well as increase food production. In a way it also reflected the changes in economic policy after the death of Nehru and also the changes in economic thinking as well.

Question 27.
Explain the reason for the given statement: The new governments are important markers.
Answer:
The new governments are an important marker in India’s political history because it was in a way the first democratic upsurge. It was for the first time the intermediate castes; the groups who had first benefitted from the land reforms and acquired some degree of economic standing gained political power. They were the dominant castes in their respective states and also had a significant numerical presence.

Question 28.
What were the reactions of government before emergency?
Answer:
The government reacted harshly with a series of laws which violated civil rights in the name of maintaining order. The opposition also criticised the Prime Minister for personalising the government. Meanwhile, due to a decision of Allahabad High Court Indira Gandhi was unseated from Lok Sabha for violating some of the provisions of the Representation of the Peoples Act during the 1971 elections. However, she got a stay from the Supreme Court.

Question 29.
In the west, franchise was extended in stages, first to propertied and only subsequently to other sections of society. But independent India adopted Universal Adult Franchise at one go. Why was it so?
Answer:

1. The first general elections in independent India were immensely significant for Indian democracy.
2. It represented India’s determination to take the path of democracy.
3. Earlier British provided franchise to propertied and educated as well as taxpayers only.
4. But independent India wanted every adult to indicate his choice.
5. That is how democracy would be more meaningful.
6. So, independent India adopted Universal Adult Franchise immediately.

Question 30.
Why were many of the Samyukta Vidhayak Dal governments short-lived ?
Answer:

1. Many of the Samyukta Vidhayak Dal governments were short-lived.
2. Their life was marked by defections and corruptions.
3. Power seems to be the only thing united them.
4. These governments had nothing to showcase.
5. Even today, the regional or state parties are evaluated from this standpoint.

Question 31.
“The 73rd Constitutional Amendment is useful for Local Self Government”. Explain reasons.
Answer:

1. 73rd Constitutional amendment definitely useful for local self-government.
2. State governments decide on what functions were to be devolved to local self-governments.
3. Women and scheduled caste and tribes are provided with reservation of seats in local self-governments.

Question 32.
“Too much centralisation of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyse it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralisation of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals. ,
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, rising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed emergency.
5. During Emergency, Democracy was put on hold.

Question 33.
Imagine and write the main reasons for the continuation of anti-Hindi movement in Tamil Nadu till today.
Answer:

1. DMK in Tamil Nadu believed the passage of Official Languages Act, 1963 was an attempt to foist Hindi on the rest of the country.
2. They started a statewide campaign protesting the imposition of Hindi. This was called anti- Hindi agitation.
3. They organised strikes, dharnas, burning effigies, Hindi books as well as pages of Constitution.
4. The government made English and Hindi as official languages.
5. Till now, Tamilians have anti feelings towards Hindi.

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Concept	Related person	Year
1.	Non – alignment	Nehru	1955 -1961
2.	Green revolution	M.S. Swaminathan	1964 -1967
3.	Emergency	Indira Gandhi	1975 -1977
4.	Planning	Nehru	1951
5.	Panchasheela	Nehru	1954

i) Which two countries were signed on Panchasheela pact?
Answer:
China and India.

ii) When did Planning begin in India?
Answer:
1951

iii) Name the Prime Minister who imposed emergency in India.
Answer:
Indira Gandhi

iv) What is green revolution?
Answer:
A large increase in the production of food grains due to the introduction of high yielding varieties, to the use of pesticides and to better management techniques.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Name of the state	Formation	Capital	Special features
1.	Jharkhand	15th November, 2000	Ranchi	40% of mineral resources of India
2.	Uttarakhand	9th November, 2000	Dehradun	Sanskrit is one of the official languages
3.	Chattisgarh	1st November, 2000	Raipur	15% of total steel production

i) From which state, Jharkhand was separated?
Answer:
Bihar.

ii) Mention one special feature of Uttarakhand.
Answer:
Sanskrit is one of the official languages.

iii) Which state was formed on 1st November 2000?
Answer:
Jharkhand.

iv) Which state was separated from Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
Chattisgarh.

Question 3.
Write your comments on the opinion of Ambedkar given below.

On the 26th of January 1950, we are going to enter into a life of contradictions. In politics, we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality.

Answer:

1. This opinion of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is very much true.
2. As everyone has his right tp vote and each vote has the same value, we can say that there is political equality.
3. As there is discrimination in many aspects, social equality is becoming a question
4. As there are wide inequalities in incomes of the people, there is no economic equality.
5. These inequalities need to be addressed at the earliest possible moment.

Question 4.
Describe the situation of India during the Emergency period.
Answer:

1. The democracy was put on hold.
2. Many Fundamental rights were suspended.
3. Civil liberties were violated.
4. People could not even express their discontent.
5. Slums were demolished.
6. Forced sterilization went on the name of population control.

Question 5.
Read the given data and answer the following questions:

Sl.No.	Item	Details
1.	Right to vote.	Switzerland women got it in 1971.
2.	Election symbols.	To assist the illiterates.
3.	Victory of Congress.	1952,1957,1962 Elections.
4.	Andhra Mahasabha.	To unite Telugu speaking people in Madras Presidency.
5.	State Reorganisation Act.	1956
6.	First Five Year Plan.	Agriculture
7.	D.M.K.	Tamil Nadu

Questions:

1. When was first linguistic state formed?
Answer:
1953.

2. Mention one of the challenges faced by Election Commission in conducting First General Elections.
Answer:
Illiteracy.

3. In which Five Year Plan, was agriculture given importance?
Answer:
Agriculture was given importance is the First Five Year Plan.

4. What party dominated Indian politics in first 3 decades of independent India?
Answer:
Indian National Congress.

Question 6.
Read the following table and answer the questions.

S.No.	Name of the Party	Year 1952	Year 1962
1.	Indian National Congress	364	361
2.	Communist Party of India	16	29
3.	Socialist Party	12	12
4.	Kisan Mazdur Party	09	—
5.	People’s Democratic Front	07	—
6.	Ganatantra Parishad	06	—
7.	Others	38	27
8.	Independents	37	20
9.	Jana Sangh	—	18
10.	Praja Socialist Party	—	12
11.	DMK	—	07

Table showing the parliamentary seat sharing of various political parties
a) Which political parties got their majority in 1962 than in 1952?
Answer:
Communist Party.

b) Which political parties had disappeared till 1962?
Answer:

1. Jana Sangh
2. Praja Socialist Party
3. DMK

c) Which political parties lost their seats in 1952 and in 1962?
Answer:
1962: Kisan Mazdur Party, People’s Democratic Front, Ganatantra Parishad

d) Which political parties lost their majority in 1962 than in 1952?
Answer:
Others, Independents, Congress.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph given below and interpret.

India has been extremely successful in holding together and maintaining Its unity and integrity. India was seen a fit case for breakup given Its extreme diversities and the fact that It has not done so, Is a valuable lesson has many other countries.

Answer:

1. India is a vast country with diversity.
2. There are a good number of religious, castes, tribes and languages.
3. People speaking a particular language have a culture and they identify themselves as a separate entity.
4. But National Integrity lies on the fact of “one nation and one race”.
5. In India all communities people joined together and celebrate all festivals.
6. India gave Right to vote to all eligible citizens without discrimination.
7. Even the highest post President of India is also elected from different communities.
8. This shows India follows, unity and integrity.

Question 8.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Summary of the 2014 – Indian General Elections

Party	Alliance	Votes (%)	Seats
BJP	NDA	31%	282
INC	UPA	19.31%	44

Answer:
The given table describes the summary of the 2014 general elections in India. In the given table two parties that is Bharatiya Janata Party and the Indian National Congress are compared. It is not only the party comparison but their alliances are also mentioned. The Bharatiya Janata Party alliance is National Democratic Alliance whereas the United Progressive Alliance is related to Indian National Congress. In these elections, the NDA got 31% of the votes whereas the UPA got 19.31%. If we observe the seats, the BJP with its alliance won 282 whereas the INC won only 44. These elections are very crucial because the voter strongly rejected the Pre-independence party which ruled India since 1947. For a long time it was a single largest party to win the seats in Lok sabha. The voters cleverly gave a mandate to the Bharatiya Janata Party with the hopes that their future may be changed. The BJP announced the Prime Ministerial candidate, Narendra Modi in advance. He achieved and succeeded in Gujarat as Chief Minister. So the voters accepted him as Prime Minister also. They believed him. Congress lost faith of the people because of its failures. During the Congress period there was a lot of corruption, scams and nepotism, etc. Many of the Congress members of Parliament were in court cases. Rajiv Gandhi himself declared that corruption is highly established in India. If the Bharatiya Janata Party with its alliance work for the development of the country, definitely they will win the next coming 2019 elections. So the party should keep this in mind and work in that direction

Question 9.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was a fear that language reorganisation would lead to break down of the country.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph:

The given paragraph says that our country was divided on the basis of religion. So some doubts are created about the security and stability of India. Language reorganisation was another fear. Congress promised to restructure the country on the lines of language.

Everyone knows that India was divided and Pakistan was formed on the basis of religion. Bengal and Punjab were divided into East Bengal – West Bengal and East Punjab – West Punjab. East Bengal became East Pakistan and West Punjab became West Pakistan. In 1970s East Pakistan declared itself independence after the war. Then Bangladesh was formed. The two newly formed countries are of the Muslim majority. Many leaders are afraid about the security and stability of the country. In Pakistan and Bangladesh, a few Hindus are there and in India there are Muslims. Now the position of Hindus in Pakistan and Bangladesh is worst. They have no minority status and rights, but in India minorities are given special attention under Article 29 and 30. The demand of language-based reorganisation was also a problem. At last the States Reorganisation Committee worked out and the States are formed based on the language. Though the States are formed based on language, nothing was weakened as expected but it helped India integrated. Based on the language someone is a Tamilian or Telanganite, he/she is an Indian. Such a feeling is there in all the states. There is a criticism that tribal languages are ignored but they also live in the states safely.

Besides religion, language is also a predominant issue. In erstwhile Andhra Pradesh the language problem was there. Andhra language is greater than Telangana was a feeling. In cinemas, books, cultural programmes and songs Telangana language was degraded and humiliated in many ways. It has become one of the reasons for Telangana separate state movement. Finally, separate Telangana was formed.

In conclusion, I would say, whatever the religion or language is everyone is a human being first next he/she is an Indian. Religion is one’s personal. One can follow the religion he/she likes. The feeling such as one’s religion is greater than others, destroys and destructs the other. Gradually it degrades the country at international level. We hope and wish universal brotherhood. We got independence with lot of stress and strain. We should not spoil its spirit.

Question 10.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Seat share of various political parties in 1952 and 1962

S.No.	Political Party	1952	1962
1.	Indian National Congress	364	361
2.	Communist Party of India	16	29
3.	Independents	37	20
4.	Socialist Party	12	06
5.	Others	38	27

Answer:
Table Analysis:
From the given table we understand how the national parties gained seats in 1952 and 1962 general elections.

1. Comparing 1952 & 1962, we come to know that INC lost three seats; Communist Party of India gained 13 more seats than previous election.
2. Independent parties lost 17 seats.
3. Socialist Party drowned to half of its previous seats.
4. Others too lost 11 seats when compared to previous election.

In my opinion, the other parties which contested were not able to win enough seats to challenge the Congress Party.

Question 11.
Observe the given table and analyse the data of Electors.

Election Commission of India

Lok Sabha Elections, 2014 (16th Lok Sabha)

Electors	Male	Female	Others	Total
No. of Electors	43.7 Crores	39.7 Crores	28.5 Thousands	83.4 Crores
No. of Electors who voted	29.2 Crores	26.01 Crores	1968	55.3 Crores
Polling percentage	67.00%	65.54%	7%	66.30%

Answer:
The given table is about the details of Lok Sabha Elections 2014, (16th Lok Sabha) Turn out of the voters issued by Election Commission of India. In the given table male, female and other voters number and their casting of vote particulars are given. Male voters are 43.7 crores whereas 39.7 crores female voters are listed out. Polling percentage in male is 67% and in female it is 65.54%, others only 7%. Out of 83 crore voters 55 crore voters cast their vote.
In democracy voting decides the rulers. Before elections many malpractices are going on the voters are lured with money, liquor, sarees, cricket kits what not many more. Surprising thing is that educated voters are also not excepted.

It is sad in democracy. If all educated and uneducated voters cast their vote by not inclining to any attractions and cast their vote for real leaders then we can say democracy is alive.

In cities like Hyderabad, recent election voting percentage is below 50%. Government should think, why these people are not turning out to cost their vote. In most IT companies they enjoy the day of polling will be a holiday. Rural people turn a lot of costing their vote.

For urban people, Election Commission should come out with a proposal of online voting or evoting. Then percentage will be increased. It is my suggestion.

Question 12.
Analyse the advantages and problems faced by the people due to the Multi-party system in India.
Answer:

1. In the first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962 the Congress Party won and led to single party dominance.
2. It was a kind of undemocratic situation marked by the absence of other political parties.
3. To strengthen the democratic foundations multi-party system emerged.
4. It almost checked the single party dominance of Congress.
5. The oppositions started critisizing the government.
6. People now have chance to choose the right party.
7. Multi-party system strengthens the constitutional frame work and democracy.

Question 13.
Observe the following pie diagram and answer the questions that follow.
1. Which political party secured less seats ?
Answer:
Ganatantra Parishad party secured less number of seal

2. What are the total number of seats that were elected?
Answer:
The total number of seats that were elected are 489.

3. How many seats were secured by Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Indian National Congress Secured the maximum 364 seats.

4. Which political party secured 16 seats?
Answer:
Communist Party of India secured 16 seats.

5. How many seats were secured by Kissan Majdoor Party?
Answer:
Kissan Majdoor Party secured 9 seats.

Question 14.
Observe the given pie diagram and answer the following questions.

a) What were the total number of seats that were elected?
Answer:
The total number of seats that were elected were 494.

b) Which party secured maximum number of seats?
Answer:
Indian National Congress secured maximum number of seats.

c) How many seats were secured by Communist Party of India?
Answer:
Communist Party of India secured 29 seats.

d) Which party secured minimum of seats?
Answer:
Socialists Party secured minimum number of seats.

e) How many seats were secured by others?
Answer:
Others secured 27 seats.

Question 15.
Read the information and answer the following questions.

Compare the above Pie diagrams.
Answer:

1. The above pie diagrams reveal the fact that there was an undemocratic situation marked by the absence of other political parties.
2. In both the election the Congress won maximum seats, i.e., 364 in 1952 and 361 in 1962 election.
3. Other parties were unable to challenge the Congress.
4. Ganatantra Parishad Party secured less seats in 1952 whereas Socialist Party secured less seats in 1962 elections.
5. The Communist Party of India secured more seats in 1962 i.e., 29 when compared with 16 in 1952 elections.

Question 16.
Read the following and comment on it.

The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was the fear that language reorganisation would lead to break up of the country. Hence, even though the Congress itself was organised on the linguistic lines and had promised to restructure the country on those lines, it developed cold feet when independence came.

Answer:

1. The partition of India created a lot of insecurity in the minds of the people.
2. How to maintain the integrity of the country became a burning topic.
3. There was a fear that the language reorganization would lead to breakup of the country.
4. But state reorganization committee was established.
5. Reorganization Act was passed in 1956.
6. Our leaders took initiative in this direction and regional languages were recognized as state official language.
7. English was given the status of communicating language.
8. Hence linguistic reorganization did not create any problem.

Question 17.
Observe the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) Which was the smallest area shown in the map?
Answer:
Pondicherry was the smallest area shown in the map.

b) Which small state was there in between Madras and Mysore states?
Answer:
Coorg was the small state in between Madras and Mysore states.

c) Which was the southernmost state from the map ?
Answer:
Travancore – Cochin state was the southernmost state.

d) Which was the eastern state?
Answer:
Andhra state was the eastern state.

e) Name the boundaries of Andhra State.
Answer:
Bay of Bengal, Hyderabad, Mysore and Tamil Nadu were the boundaries of Andhra State.

Question 18.
Locate the following on the outline map of India.

1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Bihar
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Jammu-Kashmir
6. Nagaland
7. Punjab
8. Meghalaya

Answer:

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Kenya
2. Suez canal belongs to this country
   Answer: Egypt
3. Algeria
4. Libya
5. China
6. Kyrguzstan
7. Uzbekistan
8. Ukraine
9. Phillippine
10. New Zealand

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Coordination in Life Processes Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes

10th Class Biology 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What do you mean by hunger pangs?
Answer:

1. When glucose levels in the blood fall, hunger pangs occur in the stomach.
2. Ghrelin hormone is secreted in the stomach when it goes empty.
3. Ghrelin is secreted from certain cell walls of the stomach.
4. Hunger contractions (hunger pangs) start to occur in the stomach due to secretion of ghrelin hormone.
5. Hunger pangs continue up to 30 – 45 minutes.
6. An increase in Ghrelin levels results in sensation of hunger and motivation to consume food.

Question 2.
What are the organ systems involved in the digestion of food which we eat?
Answer:
The organ systems involved in the digestion of food are:

1. endocrine system,
2. nervous system,
3. muscular system,
4. circulatory system and
5. excretory system.

Question 3.
Rafi said smell also increases our appetite. Can you support this statement ? How?
Answer:

1. Yes. I support the statement made by Rafi that smell also increases our appetite.
2. When we smell, the air borne substances get dissolved in the watery film of nasal mucus.
3. The chemoreceptors which are otherwise called olfactory receptors present in the nose trigger signals in the form of nerve impulses to the brain where the smell is detected.
4. However interactions between the senses of taste and smell enhance our appetite.

Question 4.
Write a note on peristalsis and sphincter function in the stomach.
Answer:
A) Peristalsis functions in stomach:

1. Contraction and relaxation of the muscles present in the stomach bring in a wave-like motion called peristalsis.
2. The contraction of the stomach muscles squeeze and mix the food with the acids and juices of the stomach.
3. Mechanical mixing of food in stomach occurs by peristalsis. This allows the mass of food to further mix with the digestive enzymes.
4. Peristalsis in stomach is involuntary and under the control of the autonomous nervous system.

B) Sphincter functions in the stomach:

1. Pyloric sphincter is present at the opening of the stomach into the duodenum (small intestine).
2. The pyloric sphincter allows only small quantities of food into duodenum at a time.

Question 5.
Observe the given part of the digestive system. What is it ? What is it’s role during digestion ?
Answer:

1. The given part is the LARGE INTESTINE in the human digestive system:
   
2. If creates peristaltic waves to send waste material called stool or faeces into the rectum.
3. In the large intestine water and mineral salts are absorbed from the waste material.
4. The faecal matter containing indigested food material, bile pigments and dead bacteria is formed in the large intestine.
5. It is stored in the rectum and expelled out of the body through the Anus.

Question 6.
Give reasons.
a) If we press the tongue against the palate, we can recognize taste easily.
Answer:
Reason :

1. When the tongue is pressed against the palate, the food substance is pressed against the opening of the taste bud letting it to reach the taste cells and triggering taste signals.
2. Finally, the taste is recognized in the brain.

b) We can’t identify taste when food is very hot.
Answer:
Reason:

1. Most of the taste buds on the tongue are killed when the food is hot.
2. This prevents the person from identifying the taste.
3. The perception of taste decreases when the temperature of the food rises beyond 35°C.
4. But we don’t pay attention to it because we become worried about the burning feeling.

c) If glucose level falls in blood, we feel hungry. (OR) €EI June 2015
We feel hungry if the blood glucose level falls down. 03 June 2019
Answer:
Reason :

1. When glucose levels in the blood fall, we get hunger pangs in stomach.
2. Hungry feeling start to occur in the stomach due to hunger generating signals that the brain from the stomach due to the secretion of the hormone ‘Ghrelin’.

d) Small intestine is similar to a coiled pipe. (OR)
Why is the small intestine long and coiled?
Answer:
Reason :

1. The length of small intestine is 7 meters long.
2. It is coiled so as to fit in the human body.
3. It is coiled to increase surface area and maximum nutrient absorption when food passes through it.

e) Urination increases when we take lot of fluids.
Answer:
Reason:

1. When we take lot of fluids, the kidneys will efficiently throw the water out by forming more urine than usual.
2. When there is excess water in the body, the brain usually produces less of a hormone called vasopressin.
3. This in turn causes the kidneys to produce a lot of dilute urine, until excess water is removed.

f) The process of digestion goes on in a person whose central nervous system has been largerly affected.
Answer:
Reason :

1. The enteric nervous system embedded in the walls of the long tube of our gut or alimentary canal control gut functions often independently of the brain.
2. The mass of neural tissue of enteric nervous system filled with important neurotransmitters reveals that it does much more than merely handle digestion.

Question 7.
Write differences between the following:
a) Bolus – Chyme
b) Small intestine – Large intestine
c) Mastication – Rumination
d) Propulsion – Retropulsion
Answer:
a) Bolus – Chyme:

Bolus	Chyme
1. Food that is masticated in the mouth.	1. It is the partially digested food in the stomach.
2. Alkaline in nature.	2. Acidic in nature.
3. Teeth and saliva turn food into bolus.	3. Stomach turn food by peristalsis into chyme.
4. Soft round ball of food that has been chewed.	4. It is the liquified part of food.
5. Food goes from mouth to stomach.	5. Food goes from stomach to small intestine.

b) Small intestine – Large intestine:

Small intestine	Large intestine
1. It is longer and has small width.	1. It is shorter and has broad width.
2. It is in between the stomach and large intestine.	2. It is the last part of the digestive system.
3. Digestive juices release from liver, pancreas.	3. Digestive juices are not released into large intestine.
4. Food is completely digested in it.	4. Absorption of water from the undigested food takes place in it.
5. It has three parts – duodenum, jejunum and ileum.	5. It has four parts – caecum, colon, rectum and anal canal.
6. Villi helps in absorption of digested food.	6. Villi are absent in large intestine.

c) Mastication – Rumination:

Mastication	Rumination
1. Grinding, chewing and shredding of food in the mouth by teeth is called mastication.	1. It is the chewing of cud that come from a part near the stomach of the animal to its mouth.
2. Mastication occurs only one time in the oral cavity.	2. Rumination allows food to undergo mastication more than once.
3. This is also known as chewing the food.	3. This is also known as chewing the cud.
4. It makes the food particles to tiny particles. Does not involve nutrient absorption.	4. It allows greater nutrients to be extracted and absorbed from the food particles.
5. It occurs in most of the animals (mammals), eg: Human being	5. It occurs only in ruminate animals. eg: Cow

d) Propulsion – Retropulsion:

Propulsion	Retropulsion
1. It is a means of creating force leading to movement of food.	1. It is a situation in which something (food) is pushed or forced backwards.
2. Peristaltic waves move food from one part to the other.	2. Small amount of chyme is pushed into duodenum, simultaneously forcing most of it back into the stomach.

Question 8.
How can you say that mouth is a munching machine?
Answer:

1. Mouth plays a major role in changing the texture of food.
2. The circular muscles of the mouth enable the food to be pushed into the oral cavity and to be moved around.
3. The teeth grind, chew and shred the food.
4. The surface muscles of the jaw help in biting and chewing actions, while the deep muscles of the jaw move up, down, forward and backward during food mastication.
5. The teeth help in cutting and grinding while tongue movements evenly spread out the food and help in mixing it with saliva.
6. The muscles of the mouth enable the food to be pushed in the oral cavity and to be moved around.
7. By all this we can say that mouth is a munching machine.

Question 9.
What is mastication? Explain the role of different sets of teeth in this process.
Answer:
Mastication: Food can not be swallowed directly. So it must be grinded, chewed and shred. This process of grinding, chewing and shredding is called ’MASTICATION’.
Role of different sets of teeth in mastication:

1. In the oral cavity of human beings, 32 teeth and they are 4 different types to perform different functions.
2. They are a) Inscisors b) Canines c) Premolars d) Molars
   a) Inscisors: These are eight in number and have chisel shape. They have sharp edges and are specialized for cutting and biting the food.
   b) Canines: These are four in number and are with pointed edges- These are designed for piercing and tearing food.
   c) Premolars: These are eight in number and are also called cheek teeth. These are designed for crushing and grinding food.
   d) Molars: These are 12 in number. They are designed for crushing and grinding food.

Question 10.
During the journey of food from the mouth to stomach through oesophagus, how does muscular system coordinate in this process?
Answer:
Movement of food (bolus) from mouth to stomach through oesophagus is influenced by the coordination between muscular system and nervous system.
Muscular movement in mouth:

1. The circular muscles of the mouth enable the food to be pushed into the oral cavity and to be moved around.
2. The surface muscles of the jaw help in biting and chewing actions while the deep muscles move the jaw up and down, forward and backward during mastication.

Muscular movement in oesophagus:

1. The wall of the oesophagus is made up of two kinds of smooth muscles.
2. The inner layer consists of circular muscles and the outer layer is of longitudinal muscles.
3. Contraction of circular muscles lead to narrowing of the oesophagus behind the bolus. So the food is squeezed downwards.
4. Contraction of the longitudinal muscles in front of the bolus widens the tube, results in shortening of particular part of oesophagus.
5. In this way food moves easily and enters the stomach. ,
6. Contraction and relaxation of oesophagus muscles bring peristaltic movements.

Question 11.
Is there any reason for the intestine to be coiled with many folds ? In what way it is helpful during the process of digestion? (OR)
Small intestine is similar to a coiled pipe. Give reason.
Answer:

1. Yes, there is a reason for the intestine to be coiled with many folds.
2. The coiled and folded nature of intestine slows down the passage of food along the intestine and afford an increased surface area for absorption.
3. It also increases the surface area for the intestine to increase the absorption of nutrients through finger-like projections villi.
4. The folded and coiled intestine absorbs nutrients and water more than they breakdown.

Question 12.
What is the function of peristalsis in these parts?
a) Oesophagus b) Stomach c) Small intestine d) Large intestine
Answer:
a) Oesophagus:
Peristalsis helps in pushing the food, down the oesophagus into the stomach.

b) Stomach:

1. Peristalsis helps in storing food, breaking down food down and mixing it with juices secreted by stomach lining.
2. Peristalsis in stomach helps in partial digestion of food.

c) Small intestine:

1. Peristalsis pushes the digesting food through small intestine.
2. It helps to mix the chyme to help in the digestive process.
3. Peristalsis also helps in absorbing nutrients from the digesting food into the blood.

d) Large intestine:
Peristaltic movements help to propel feces along the large intestine through colon, to the rectum for expulsion from the body.

Question 13.
How can you justify the enteric nervous system as the second brain of the gut?
(OR)
Write about the nervous system present beneath the digestive system.
Answer:

1. The enteric nervous system, the second brain consists of sheaths of neurons embedded in the walls of the long tube of our gut, or alimentary canal.
2. The second brain measures about nine meters to end from the oesophagus to the anus.
3. The second brain contains some 100 million neurons, more than in either the spinal cord or the peripheral nervous system.
4. This multitude of neurons in the enteric nervous system enables us to “feel” the inner world of our gut and its contents.
5. Enteric nervous system contains mass of neural tissue filled with important neurotransmitters.
6. This reveals that it does much more than merely handling digestion or inflict the occasional nervous pang of hunger.
7. Enteric nervous system stimulates and coordinates the breaking down of food, absorbing nutrients and expelling of waste.
   Thus equipped with its own reflexes and senses, the second brain can control several gut functions often independently of the brain.
8. Several scientists also believe that the enteric nervous system is a way too complicated to have evolved only to make sure things move through and out of our gut smoothly.
9. Hence we can justify that the enteric nervous system as the second brain of the gut.

Question 14.
Rajesh feels hungry upon seeing food. Sheela says no more food as she is not hungry. What makes Rajesh hungry and what suppresses Sheela’s hunger?
Answer:

1. When glucose levels in the blood fall, we get hunger pangs in the stomach. Feeling hungry lies in the physiology of blood circulation.
2. The secretion of the hormone GHRELIN starts in the stomach when it goes empty.
3. Hunger contractions start to occur in the stomach due to hunger generating signals that reach the brain from the stomach due to ghrelin.
4. So Rajesh effected with secretion of ghrelin in his stomach and he felt hungry when he saw food.
5. Sheela was not affected with secretion of ghrelin in her stomach. She felt that her stomach is full.
6. When we feel the stomach is full and there is no need of food any more, another hormone LEPTIN is secreted that supresses hunger.

Question 15.
How are taste and smell related?
(OR)
What is the relationship between taste and smell?
Answer:

1. Taste and smell are closely related.
2. This close relationship is most readily seen in how we perceive the flavours of food.
3. Anyone with severe cough and cold cannot make out the difference in the taste of certain food items.
4. Actually, what is really being affected is the flavour of the food , or the combination of taste and smell.
5. That is because not only the taste but also the food odours are being defected.
6. However, interactions between the senses of taste and smell enhance our perceptions of the foods we eat.
7. Smell of the food flavour gives a similar taste to food.

Question 16.
List out the sphincter muscles of the food canal you have observed and give a brief description.
(OR)
What are the different types of sphincter muscles present in the digestive canal?
Answer:
There are different sphincter “muscles in the food canal. They are :

1. Esophageal sphincter
2. Cardiac sphincter
3. Pyloric sphincter
4. Anal sphincter and
5. Ileocecal value or sphincter.

1. Esophageal sphincter:

1. This allows entry of bolus into the oesophagus,
2. It also reduces back flow from the oesophagus to pharynx.

2. Cardiac sphincter:

1. It is present where oesophagus meets the stomach,
2. It’s location is almost directly in front of the heart,
3. It allows food from oesophagus into the stomach.

3. Pyloric sphincter:

1. It is present at the opening called pylorus, located at the end of the stomach,
2. Pyloric sphincter allows only small quantities of food into duodenum at a time.

4) Anal sphincter:

1. It is located at the anus, the end of the digestive system,
2. The release of waste is controlled partly, voluntarily by anal sphincter.

5) Ileocecal value:

1. It is situated at the junction of the small intestine (ileum) and the large intestine (colon),
2. It’s function is to limit the colonic contents into the ileum.

Question 17.
What happens if salivary ducts are closed?
(OR)
What happens if saliva is not produced by salivary glands?
Answer:
If salivary ducts are closed the following consequences may occur:

1. If salivary ducts are closed saliva will not release into the mouth, the mouth becomes dry.
2. We can’t taste the food.
3. Saliva secretes an enzyme called salivary amylase which breaks down the carbohydrates in food into dextrose and maltose sugar.
4. If saliva is not secreted in the mouth carbohydrates remains unchanged digestion will not completed.
5. Due to absence of saliva food will not get moistened, chewing and swallowing becomes difficult.
6. If salivary ducts are closed, the salivary glands become swollen and it leads to pain.

Question 18.
If size and shape of small intestine is like oesophagus what will happen?
Answer:

1. If size and shape of small intestine is like oesophagus the height of the person should be more than 22 feet as the length of the small intestine is about 22 feet. So it will not fit in the human body.
2. For the complete digestion of the food to occur, it has to stay in small intestine for 3 to 4 hours.
3. Otherwise digestion will not be completed and nutrients are not absorbed into blood . in the small intestine.
4. The tube like nature of small intestine as that of oesophagus will not provide increased surface area for complete absorption of nutrients.

Question 19.
Prepare a questionnaire to understand nervous coordination in the digestion process.
(OR)
What are the questions you are going to ask your teacher about nervous coordination in the digestion process?
(OR)
Prepare a questionnaire for an interview with a doctor to understand the nervous coordination in the digestion process.
Answer:

1. What is enteric nervous system?
2. Why the enteric nervous system is known as second brain?
3. How nervous system plays an important role in digestion of food?
4. Which nervous system controls the release of saliva from salivary glands?
5. Which cranial nerve controls the movement of muscles in the jaw?
6. The mechanism for swallowing is under the control of?

Question 20.
What experiment do you perform to understand action of saliva on flour? Explain it’s procedure and apparatus that you followed.
(Activity – 7)
(OR)
i) Explain the procedure followed in the experiment conducted to understand the action of saliva on starch.
ii) What apparatus and chemicals are used to do this experiment?
(OR)
Write the experiment you have performed in your school laboratory to know the action of Saliva on flour. How did you test the pH of Saliva?
(OR)
Explain the experiment conducted by your teacher in your class to show the action of saliva on the starch.
Answer:
Aim: To understand the action of saliva on flour.
Apparatus:

1. Two test tubes
2. Water
3. Ata flour
4. Water glass and
5. Iodine solution.

Procedure:

1. A test tube is taken and half of the test tube is filled with water.
2. A pinch of flour is added.
3. To mix flour with water, test tube as shaken.
4. Few drops of flour mixture is taken in a watch glass and test for the presence of starch by putting a drop of diluted tincture Iodine in it.
5. A blue black colour confirms the presence of starch.
6. Divide the mixture into two equal halves by transferring it to another test tube.
7. Both the test tubes have the same amount of solution.
8. Add a teaspoon of saliva to one of the test tube and mark it.
9. Do not add anything in the other test tube.
10. After 45 minutes add a drop of dilute Tincture Iodine solution to test tubes containing the solutions.

Observation:

1. Saliva containing flour mixture becomes slurry. It doesn’t show any change.
2. But in the second test tube with only flour mixture turns blue colour.

Conclusion:

1. Saliva in the test tube converts flour into sugar. So no change is observe here.
2. In the second test tube containing only flour mixture turns blue black.

(OR)
i) Answer:

1. Add a spoon of starch to the water taken in a test tube to make starch solution. Starch solution is divided into two equal parts in two test tubes.
2. Add a little saliva to one of the above test tube and the other without adding saliva and keep them a side for some time.
3. Add a drop of dilute iodine to both the test tubes. The test tube added with saliva doesn’t turns to blue black because the starch is broken down into smaller units called sugar by the saliva.
4. The other part which is not added with saliva turns into blue black, as it has starch without any change.
   So this experiment proves saliva converts complex carbohydrates into simple sugars.

ii) Answer:
Test tubes, water glass, flour, iodine, saliva.

Question 21.
Suggest a simple experiment to prove the role of palate in recognizing taste.
(OR)
How do you prove that palate has a role in recognizing taste?
(OR)
“Taste is connected to the tongue and palate”. Write an activity to prove it and write your observations.
Answer:
Experiment to prove the role of palate in recognizing taste
Aim: To prove the role of palate in recognizing taste.
Apparatus: Sugar crystals, Stop watch.
Procedure:

1. Place some sugar crystals on the tongue.
2. Keep mouth opened and see that tongue does not touch the palate.
   
3. Record the time from the moment we placed the crystals on the tongue till we get the taste by using stop watch.
4. Now repeat the test by placing the sugar crystals on the tongue pressing it against the palate.
5. Record the time from placing sugar crystals to getting the taste.

Observation: From the above activity we know that taste can be identified easily when the tongue is pressed against the palate.
Result: We can easily identify the taste of the substance we can identify the taste of it in lesser time.

Question 22.
Collect information related to feeling hunger from your school library and prepare a note on it.
Answer:

1. Generally we feel hunger when our stomach goes empty.
2. When our stomach goes empty Ghrelin hormone is released and it causes the feeling of hunger.
3. As well leptin hormone also released, but it causes the feeling of suppression of hunger.
4. Not only these, when we saw a colourful and good smelling food, automatically we feel hunger. So, the sight of seeing a good food also causes feeling of hunger.
5. If the food doesn’t have good colour, texture, good smell we can’t eat, even though it is a good food.
6. All the feelings towards food are recieved by our eyes, nose, tongue.
7. From these, information is sent to brain, from there signals are sent to stomach and causes feelings either positive or negative.
8. Hormones are also responsible for most of the feelings of hunger.

Question 23.
Draw the block diagram of showing sensation of taste from food material to brain.
Answer:

Question 24.
Draw a neatly labelled diagram showing a peristaltic movement in oesophagus Explain the importance of mucus on the walls of food pipe.
(OR)
In the food pipe, the food bolus is propelled into the stomach by peristaltic movement Represent this action with a diagram.
Answer:
Importance of mucus on the walls of food pipe :

1. The walls of the food pipe secrete a slippery substance called mucus.
2. Mucus lubricates and protects the oesophgeal walls from damage.
3. This helps the food bolus to slide down easily.
4. Besides this the saliva in the bolus also helps in easy movement.

Question 25.
Draw a schematic diagram of villus in small intestinp. Explain how digestive system coordinates with circulatory system.
(OR)
Draw the diagram of villi in small intestine and lable its parts.
Answer:
Coordination of digestive system with circulatory system :

1. After the completion of digestion in small intestine, it enters into the blood through villi.
2. In blood the digested food gets oxidised after that energy is released.
3. Releasing of energy from fot^d occur only when it enter into the blood.
4. So, there is a great coordination between digestive and

Question 26.
The mere smell or sight of food stimulates hunger . Describe the process through a neat diagram.
Answer:

1. The mere smell even the mere sight of delicious food stimulates the hunger.
2. When we smell, the air borne substances get dissolved in the watery film of nasal mucus.
3. The chemoreceptors in nose are otherwise called olfactory receptors which trigger signals in the form of nerve impulses to the brain where smell is defected.
4. The amount of the neurosecretory protein hormone ghrelin in the blood increases as a result of visual stimulation images of food.
5. Hunger contractions start to occur in the stomach due to hunger generating signals that reach the brain.
6. It is believed that the diencephalon in fore brain and vagus nerve (10th cranial nerve) plays an important role in carrying these signals to brain.
7. Hunger pangs continue up to 30-45 minutes.
8. Increase ¡n ghrelin levels results in sensation of hunger and motivation to consume food.

Question 27.
With the help of a diagram show the movement of food from mouth to the stomach. What muscles and nerves are involved in the movement of food and what is this action called as ? (OR)
Draw a diagram of peristaltic movement of food in oesophagus of elementary canal. Write how it performs.
Answer:
The muscles involved in movement of food from mouth to stomach :

1. The circular muscles of the mouth enable the food to be pushed into the oral cavity and to be moved around.
2. The surface muscles of the jaw help in biting and chewing actions and move the jaw up, down, forward and backward.
3. Contraction and relaxation of circular and longitudinal muscles in the oesophagus bring in a wave like motion that propels the bolus into stomach by the action called peristalsis.
4. As the food approaches the closed ring of pyloric sphincter the surrounding muscles relax and allow the food to pass.
5. The muscles of the upper part of the stomach have to relax and accept large volumes of swallowed material.

Nerves involved in the movement of food:

1. The fifth cranial nerve has been found to control the movement of muscles in the jaw.
2. Peristalsis in oesophagus is under the control of autonomous nervous system.

Question 28.
Prepare a cartoon on Pavlov’s experiment with a suitable caption.
Answer:

Question 29.
How do you appreciate stomach as a churning machine? How does this coordination
Answer:

1. The stomach acts like a churning machine, churning the food around to break it into even smaller pieces.
2. Mechanical mixing of food in stomach occurs by peristalsis, which is waves of muscular contractions that move along the stomach wall.
3. This allows the mass of food to further mix with the digestive enzymes.
4. Due to churning of food in stomach, a mixture that resembles thick cream called chyme is formed.
5. All the muscles in the stomach works with such a great coordination.
6. Hence we can call stomach as a churning machine.

Question 30.
There is a great variety in diversified life processes, express your feelings in the form of a poem.
Answer:

POEM
Life is a process of discomfort and pain.
Learn to handle it all with courage and sane
Remember the bliss waiting for you
Nutrition, excretion, respiration all are essential in our life.
Reproduction makes our species go on and on forever.
Autotrophs and heterophs are brothers.
Depend on each other In a systematic way.
So have courage to learn more tricks.
Search for happiness.
In life that survive.

Question 31.
Suggest any two important habitual actions to your friend while eating food, keeping in view of this chapter.
Answer:

1. Masticate the food thoroughly in the mouth.
2. Do not swallow food without chewing properly or do not eat in hurry.
3. Eat small quantities of food at regular intervals for efficient digestion and absorption of nutrients.
4. Eat the food that emit good smell and has good taste to eat.
5. Do not eat too hot and too cold items.

Fill in the blanks.

1. 3:2:1:2 is the ratio of our dentition. Here 1 represents ———–.
2. Large protein molecules are broken down in ———– of digestive tract.
3. ———– is the strong acid which is secreted during digestion.
4. Olfactory receptors present in ———– triggering signals to brain.
5. pH of saliva is ———– in nature.

Answer:

1. Canine
2. Stomach
3. HCl
4. Nose
5. Alkaline nature

Fill in the blanks with suitable words given below.

Fluctuations of hormone —–(i)—– levels results in sensation of hunger and motivation of consuming food. When you feel your stomach is full and there is no need of food any more. Another hormone —–(ii)—– that gets secreted suppresses hunger. When we take food into the mouth it has to be chewed thoroughly. For this purpose the —–(iii)—– muscles help in chewing actions, while the —–(iv)—– muscles of the jaw moves the jaw up,down, forward and backward during food mastication. The —–(v)—– nerve controls the muscles of the jaw. Under the action of —–(vi)—– nervous system Saliva is released by the salivary glands moistens the food to make chewing and swallowing easier. The salivary —–(vii)—– in the saliva breaks down the starch into sugars. As a result of chewing the food is transported into the oesophagus by the action of swallowing which is coordinated by the swallowing centre in the —–(viii)—– and the —–(ix)—–. The tongue which is gustatory recognizes the taste and —–(x)—– nerve plays an important role in sensation of taste.

Choose the right ones.
i) leptin, ghrelin, gastrin, secretin.
ii) ghrelin, leptin, secretin, gastrin.
iii) deep muscles, surface muscles, circu lar muscles, striated muscles.
iv) surface muscles, deep muscles, neck muscles, long muscles.
v) fifth cranial nerve, second cranial nerve, fifth facial nerve, spinal nerve.
vi) central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, autonomous nervous system.
vii) lipase, sucrase, galactase, amylase.
viii) medulla oblongata, cerebrum, 8th spinal nerve, cranial nerve, 7th cranial nerve.
ix) Pons varoli, brain stem, medulla oblongata, mid brain.
x) 6th cranial nerve, 5th cranial nerve, 10th cranial nerve, optic nerve.

Answer:
i) ghrelin
ii) leptin
iii) surface
iv) deep
v) fifth cranial
vi) autonomous
vii) amylase
viii) medulla oblongata
ix) brain stem
x) fifth cranial nerve

Choose the correct answer.

1. In which of the following situations you can taste quickly? [ ]
   A) Put sugar cristals on tongue
   B) Put sugar solution on tongue
   C) Press the tongue slowly against the palate
   D) Swallow directly without grinding and shredding
   Answer: C
2. Peristalsis is because of [ ]
   A) Contraction of longitudinal muscles
   B) Contraction of circular muscles
   C) Under control of autonomous nervous system
   D) Digestive secretions
   Answer: C
3. Sphincter that helps in opening of stomach into duodenum [ ]
   A) Cardiac
   B) Pyloric
   C) Anal
   D) Gastric
   Answer: B
4. Glucose and amino acids are absorbed through the following part of villus [ ]
   A) epithelial cells
   B) blood capillary
   C) lymphatic vessel
   D) all
   Answer: A
5. The region in brain portion that controls hunger signals [ ]
   A) medulla
   B) diencephalon
   C) cerebrum
   D) mid brain
   Answer: B
6. Human organism is an internal combustion machine because of …. [ ]
   (OR)
   Human being is an “Internal combustion machine” because he/she
   A) assimilation of energy from food
   B) liberate CO₂ during respiration
   C) expel waste food at the end state of digestion
   D) secrete powerful digestive juices
   Answer: A

10th Class Biology 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 145

Question 1.
How do we know that we need food?
Answer:
When we feel hungry then we know that we need food.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 146

Question 2.
What plays a major role to identify stale food?
Answer:
Smell or odour plays a major role to identify stale food.

Question 3.
If you are having a tasty dish do you think the smell of it increases your appetite?
(OR)
Do the smell of tasty dish increases our appetite?
Answer:
Yes, the smell of tasty dish increases our appetite.

Question 4.
What are your observations after chewing cumin, sounf, potato and apple?
Answer:
If we chew cumin, sounf, potato and apple we observe in order to taste the food material the food should dissolve in saliva.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 148

Question 5.
Are there any other sensation that affect taste?
Answer:
Temperature (hotness), coldness are the sensations that affect taste.

Question 6.
What happens to your taste sensation while sipping hot milk or tea?
Answer:
We find something more tasty while we sipping hot milk or tea.

Question 7.
What do you think could be the range of temperature for us to relish food items?
Answer:
30°C to 35°C could be the range of temperature for us to relish food items.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 149

Question 8.
What do you think that would happen if the salivary glands did not function in our mouth?
Answer:

1. If the salivary glands do not function in our mouth, saliva will not release and the food do not get moistened and chewing it is difficult.
2. The taste of the food cannot be identified.
3. Carbohydrates in the food cannot be broken down and changed to dextrose and maltose molecules.

Question 9.
Suppose your taste buds were affected what would happen to your interest in haying food?
Answer:
If my taste buds were affected I cannot identify the taste of food and also loose interest in having food.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 151

Question 10.
Does the level of saliva secretion change due to presence of food in the mouth?
Answer:
Yes, the level of saliva increases due to the presence of food in the mouth.

Question 11.
Can the process of chewing go on in the absence of saliva?
Answer:
Yes, the process of chewing go on in the absence of saliva. But it is very difficult to chew food and swallow it.

Question 12.
Does the saliva have any other roles to play?
Answer:
The enzyme present in saliva that is salivary amylase converts large molecules of carbohydrates into small molecules of sugar like maltose and dextrose.

Question 13.
What is the use of such an increase in surface area of food?
Answer:
It helps in more surface area for the enzyme to act.

Question 14.
What about the nature of medium for salivary amylase to act on food component?
Answer:
The nature of medium for salivary amylase to act on food component is alkaline.

Question 15.
If we swallow food material directly without mastication what will happen?
Answer:
If we swallow food material directly without mastication, the food will not get digest easily and completely.

Question 16.
Do you think the pH of our mouth changes?
Answer:
Yes, the pH of our mouth changes from acidic to alkaline by the release of saliva from salivary glands.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 152

Question 17.
What are the different systems that contribute to the proper functioning of digestion in the mouth?
Answer:
Endocrine, muscular, nervous systems contribute to the proper functioning of digestion in the mouth.

Question 18.
After the digestive process in the mouth where does the food move to?
Answer:
After the digestion in the mouth the food move to oesophagus.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 153

Question 19.
What are the systems that come into play for swallowing food?
Answer:
Skeletal system, nervous system and digestive systems come into play for swallowing food.

Question 20.
What does the schematic diagram tell us about the oesophagus?
Answer:
The schematic diagram of the oesophagus tells about its structure, secretion and function.

Question 21.
What kind of the tube is oesophagus?
Answer:
Oesophagus is a muscular and an elastic tube.

Question 22.
How does mucus help in passage of food?
Answer:
Mucus helps in lubricating and protecting the oesophageal wall and helps the bolus to slide down easily in the oesophagus.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 154

Question 23.
What makes the movement of the food bolus in the oesophagus easy?
Answer:

1. Mucus helps the food bolus to slide down easily.
2. Peristaltic movements of the walls of oesophagus also make the movement food bolus in the oesophagus easy.

Question 24.
Why do you think the stomach is structured like a bag rather than a tube like an oesophagus?
(OR)
Why stomach is structured like a bag rather than like a tube?
Answer:

1. The food taken has to remain in the stomach for a long time for proper digestion with digestive juices and enzymes.
2. Different kinds of muscles churns the food by contraction and relaxation to form chyme.
3. If it was like a tube the food would just pass down without under going much changes and cannot remain in the stomach for long time.

Question 25.
What sets such processes into action?
Answer:

1. When the food is in the oral cavity, the nerves in the cheek and tongue are stimulated.
2. These carry messages in the form of nerve impulses to the brain.
3. They messages are transmitted from the brain, to the wall of the stomach, and stimulate the gastric glands to produce gastric juice.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 155

Question 26.
What stimulates stomach muscle into action?
Answer:
The nervous system stimulates stomach muscle into action.

Question 27.
What causes the stomach to churn and mix the food?
Answer:
The contractions of the stomach muscles squeeze and mix the food with the acids and juices of the stomach.

Question 28.
Why should only a small quantity of food be passed from stomach to duodenum?
Answer:
For the complete digestion of chyme, only a small quantity of it be passed from stomach to duodenum.

Question 29.
What is involved in bringing about peristalsis?
Answer:
Contraction and relaxation of the muscles present in various parts of gut bring about peristalsis.

Question 30.
What is the direction of peristalsis? Which end of the gut does it begin?
Answer:
The direction of peristalsis is forward direction that is from mouth to anus.

Question 31.
What happens if the direction of peristalsis is reversed?
Answer:
If the direction of peristalsis is reversed the food present in the gut moves backwards.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 157

Question 32.
Why do you think small intestine is long and coiled?
Answer:
The small intestine is long and coiled because the food has to stay for more time for complete digestion and absorption.

Question 33.
What process is involved in this process of absorption?
Answer:
Selective absorption of nutrients by the villi of small intestine is involved in absorption.

Question 34.
What is the relation between finger-like structures and paper folds?
Answer:

1. Finger-like structures increase the surface area.
2. The space inside the paper folds is very much high. So area is increased.
3. So increase in surface area is the relation between finger-like structures and paper folds.

Question 35.
What systems do you think are working together?
Answer:
The digestive system and circulatory system are working together.

Question 36.
Do you think those systems work together in the whole length of the digestive canal? Why / Why not?
Answer:
No, these systems are not working together in the whole length of the digestive canal. The digested food material is absorbed only in the small intestine but not elsewhere in the gut.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 158

Question 37.
Often you may have experienced that if you have tension for some reason you start having loose motions. What does this show us?
Answer:
If we are tensed for some reason, the enteric nervous system or second brain loses control over the gut. Hence without our intervention, loose motions occur.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 159

Question 38.
What moves out of the gut?
Answer:
The indigested food material moves out of the gut.

Question 39.
Two major pathways of waste expulsion are shown above. Which of the two do you think happens exclusively through the gut?
Answer:
Indigested food matter is expelled in the form of stool from the gut.

Question 40.
What controls the exit of stools from the body?
Answer:
The two muscular layers present In the anal sphincter control the exit of stools from the body.

Question 41.
Do you think the control is voluntary? Why / Why not?
Answer:
Yes, the control is voluntary in adults and it is involuntary in infants.

Question 42.
Did we have a sphincter in any other part of the digestive canal? Where was it?
Answer:
Yes. We have a sphincter at the opening where stomach opens into duodenum (small intestine).

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 160

Question 43.
What is the fate of the digested substances that move into blood from the intestine?
Answer:
The digested substances reach each cell of the body through circulatory system. There it gets oxidised and release energy.

Question 44.
Where is the energy stored?
Answer:
The energy is stored in the cells as ATP.

Question 45.
Which system do you think will remove the excess salts from our body?
Answer:
The excretory system remove the excess salts from our body.

Question 46.
What would be the path of salt removed from gut to the outside of our body?
Answer:

1. The digested food containing salts will be absorbed into the blood stream in small intestine.
2. The circulatory system supplies this to kidney through renal artery.
3. In the kidney salts are filtered and sent out of the body along with urine.
4. Some of the salts also supplied to the skin. They will be sent out of the body in the form of sweat.

10th Class Biology 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes Activities

Activity – 1
Observe the following table, identify and tick those options that you think makes you feel hungry.
Table

Smell of food	Taste of food	Sight of food	Being tired and exhausted	Need of food	Thought of food
✓	✓	✓	✓	✓	✓

i) What stimulates hunger?
Answer:
Smell of food, sight of food and need of food stimulates hunger.

ii) What would be the result of stimulation of hunger?
Answer:
Hunger pangs occur in the stomach.

iii) Which system do you think would send the signals to make us realize that we are hungry?
Answer:
Nervous system.

iv) What kinds of controls are exercised during sensation of hunger? Are they hormonal or nervous or both?
Answer:
They are both hormonal and nervous.

v) Can you suggest any four systems involved in the process of generating hunger sensation?
Answer:
Digestive system, Endocrine system, Circulatory system and Nervous system.

Activity – 2
Observation of how our taste is affected by the sense of smell. (OK) How our taste is affected by the sense of smell?

1. First, close your nose with your fingers.
2. Pop in some zeera in your mouth and chew it for some time.
3. After that chew some sounf.
4. Could you recognise the taste?
5. How long it taken to know the taste?
6. After sometime wash your mouth and repeat the activity by chewing a piece of an apple followed by a potato (remember to close your nose)

Could you know the taste of both or did it taste the same? Why?
Answer:
No, because taste buds couldn’t send the taste signals to brain.

Observation :

1. We can taste the food that is in the form of liquid only.
2. Only after the dissolved food enters into the cup like taste buds, the sense of taste is carried to the brain for analysis. Then only we will know the taste of food material.
3. Similarly olfactory receptors which trigger signals in the form of nerve impulses to the brain where smell is detected.

i) What happens when we put a food material in our mouth?
Answer:
Our mouth salivates.

ii) Name the parts in the mouth that help us to taste food.
Answer:
Papillae (taste buds), palate.

Activity – 3

1. Take a pinch of asafoetida powder/garlic and rub it on hand kerchief/tissue paper.
2. Close your eyes and smell it.
3. Then try to identify taste of different types of food materials with the help of your friend.

i) Does garlic have a stronger scent than apple? How do you think the stronger scent affect your sensation of taste?
Answer:
Yes, garlic have a stronger scent than apple. The stronger scent motivate us to eat different types of foods.

ii) How many food materials you have identified correctly?
Answer:
Seven.

iii) Write a few lines on the relation between smell and taste.
Answer:

1. Taste and smell are intimately entwined. This close relationship is most apparent in how we perceive the flavour of food.
2. Taste itself is focussed on distinguishing chemicals that have sweet, salty, sour, bitter or umami taste.
3. However interactions between the senses of taste and smell enhance our perceptions of the foods, we eat.

iv) Have you ever felt that a particular food is tasty just by looking at it?
Answer:
I felt so many times. In general, we prefer the food material, which is attractive to our eyes and flavour to nose, then we taste it.

Activity – 4
What is the role of different parts of the mouth in helping us to taste keeping sugar crystals over the tongue?

1. Place some sugar crystals on the tongue and keep mouth opened and see that your tongue dosen’t touch the palate.
2. Record the time from the moment you placed the crystals on your tongue till you got the taste by using stop watch.
3. Now repeat the test by placing the sugar crystals on the tongue and pressing it against the palate.
4. Record the time from placing sugar crystals to getting the taste. Or put a drop of sugar solution on your tongue using a dropper.

Observation :
Based on the above activity we know that taste can be identified easily when the tongue is pressed against the palate.
i) Can we taste on dry tongue?
Answer:
No. We can’t taste on dry tongue.

ii) Which way helped you taste faster? Why?
Answer:
Taste can be identified faster when the tongue is pressed against the palate.
When the tongue is pressed against the palate the food substance is pressed against the opening of the taste bud letting it reach taste celjs triggering taste signals. Finally the taste is recognised in the brain.

Activity – 5
How do you show that the breakdown of food by using the model of chalk piece kept in vinegar?

1. Break a piece of chalk into two halves.
2. Crush one half to tiny pieces leaving the other as it is.
3. Take two small mineral wafer bottles QA ltr bottle) cut them into two equal halves and discard the upper portion.
4. Now we have two beakers from the lower cut portion.
5. Fill them half with vinegar and add the crushed chalk to one beaker and the other uncrushed half chalk to the other.
6. Observe them after half-an-hour or so.

i) Which one dissolved faster the crushed chalk or the whole one?
Answer:
Beaker with crushed chalk dissolved faster than the whole one.
This experiment tells us the need of mechanical crushing of food the mouth to increase surface area for action of substances that aid in digestion.

ii) How does this process of mechanical crushing go on in the mouth?
Answer:
Mechanical crushing of food goes in the mouth by chewing.

iii) Which parts in the mouth are involved in this?
Answer:
Teeth and tongue.

iv) What are the systems involved in this process?
Answer:
Digestive system, Nervous system, Muscular system.

Activity – 6
Observe the diagram and answer the questions and fill the table.
i) Observe the model or chart of jaw, on the basis of the figure try to guess what are the functions molars could be?
Answer:
Chewing and grinding.

ii) What do you think could be the function of inscisors?
Answer:
The function of inscisors is biting the food.

iii) Which set of teeth helps in grinding food?
Answer:
Premolars and molars.

iv) Which set helps in tearing food?
Answer:
Canines help in tearing food.

v) What is your dental formula?
Answer:
is the dental formula.

Table

Name of teeth	Number	Shape	Function
Incisors	8	Chisel, sharp edges	Biting
Canines	4	Sharp, pointed edges	Tearing
Premolars	8	Diamond shape blunt and flat	Chewing and grinding
Molars	12	Rectangular, blunt and flat	Chewing and grinding

Activity – 7
Testing pH of mouth at intervals of one hour.

1. Collect a strip of pH paper with a colour chart from a chemistry teacher.
2. Take a small piece of the pH paper and touch it to your tongue.
3. Match the colour with the colour chart and note the pH.
4. Take some readings after having your food at lunch break.
5. Compare your readings with that of your friend.
6. Take at least 4 readings.

Table

S.No.	Name of the Student	pH value before lunch	pH value after lunch	pH value after an hour	pH value after 2 hrs
1.	Sagar	7.4	6.8	7.0	7.4
2.	San jay	7.4	6.8	7.0	7.4
3.	Raju	7.1	6.9	7.0	7.1
4.	Krishna	7.3	6.8	7.0	7.3
5.	Kiran	7.4	6.8	7.0	7.4
6.	Yadav	7.2	6.7	7.0	7.2

i) What is the usual range of pH of your mouth Acidic (or) Basic
Answer:
The usual range of pH of our mouth is more or less 6.5. At low level the saliva is acidic and at high level it is basic.

ii) Did you observe any change in pH after eating? What may have caused the change?
Answer:
Yes, 1 observed the change in pH. Bicarbonates in saliva changed that into basic.

iii) In what kind of pH do you think salivary amylase acts well?
Answer:
In the pH range 7.2 to 7.4 it acts well in alkaline medium.

iv) Does this type of food have any role to play on the pH of our mouth?
Answer:
If the food that enters is acidic it will be converted into basic stuff and then it is swallowed.
Based on the above tests we know that salival secreted causes the medium to change to alkaline as it aids in action salivary amylase.

Activity – 8
Making a model of oesophagus to observe how bolus moves forward.

1. Take a piece of waste cycle tube and insert one or two potatoes into it.
2. Lubricate the inner side of the tube with oil.
3. In the same way smear oil over potatoes.
4. Insert oil coated potatoes in the tube.
5. Now try to push the potatoes by squeezing the tube.

i) How do you squeeze the tube to make the potatoes pass through?
Answer:
By pushing the potato from behind.

ii) Do you think that the muscles in the wall of the oesophagus have to do something like this?
Answer:
Yes.

iii) How did oil help you in pushing the potatoes through the pipe?
Answer:
Oil acted as a lubricant to push the potato easily in the forward direction.

Activity – 9
How is the stomach protected from the secretions of its own acids?

1. Take two similar green leaves.
2. Grease one leaf with petroleum jelly, leave the other free.
3. Add 1 or 2 drops of some weak acids on both the leaves.
4. Observe them after half-an-hour or so and write your observations.

i) Which leaf was effected by the acid?
Answer:
The leaf to which petroleum jelly was not applied.

ii) What kind of change did you observe in the leaves?
Answer:
The colour of the leaf changes.

iii) What saved the other leaf from the effect of acid?
Answer:
Petroleum jelly.
From the above activity we can conclude that mucus secreted by the walls of stomach protects stomach from the harmful effects of hydrochloric acid.

Activity – 10
Paper tube and folded papers.

1. Provide students with a piece of paper.
2. Let them calculate the area of one side of the paper and make a roll of it.
3. Try to fill the tube by inserting few folded papers as much as possible in it.
4. Pull out the papers from the tube, unfold them and find out the whole area of the papers.

i) Compare the area of the folded papers with that of the roll. Do you find any increase in the area ? If so try to find out the reasons?
Answer:
Area is increased. The space inside the folded papers is very much high. So we can insert as many folded papers as we could.
From the above activity we can infer that the inner surface of the small intestine contains thousands of finger-like projections called villi which increase the surface area of absorption of nutrients in small intestine.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 20 Post – War World and India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand UNICEF.
Answer:
United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund.

Question 2.
Who formulated the ‘NATO’, the military alliance?
Answer:
United States of America / America.

Question 3.
Why do you think the cooperation between India and Bangladesh is vital for both countries?
Answer:

1. Both the countries have cooperated on the economic front and river water.
2. Bangladesh Is an integral part of the In¬dian look East Policy’ to link up South Asia via Myanmar and both have cooperation on disaster management.

Question 4.
What is the boundary line between China and India?
Answer:
Mc Mahon Line is the boundary line between China and India.

Question 5.
Explain the terms bipolarity and unipolarity.
Answer:

1. Under the leadership of USA and USSR, the world divided into two power blocks after World War – II with different ideologies. This situation is called as bipolarity.
2. After the collapse of the USSR, only the USA remained as a super power in the world. This situation is called as unipolarity.

Question 6.
What is the non-alignment movement?
Answer:
The policy followed by newly independent countries after Second World War, without involving in any of the military blocks, following neutrality in international politics.

Question 7.
What is Cold War?
Answer:
The absence of real fighting as in traditional wars is called the cold war. The cold war characterized by the intense tension between the USA and the USSR during 1945 to 1991.

Question 8.
Write any two objectives of U.N.O.
Answer:

1. Maintains peace and security.
2. Improvement of educational and health facilities.
3. Protecting human rights.
4. Respecting international law

Question 9.
What is Panchsheel?
Answer:
In 1954 a treaty was held between India and China which incorporated the principles of non-interference in other’s internal affairs and respect for each other’s territorial unity, integrity and sovereignty. These principles are known as Panchsheel.

Question 10.
How was the USSR escaped from the Great Depression?
Answer:
The USSR escaped from the Great Depression:

1. USSR was not integrated with international markets.
2. It had a planed economy.
3. Maintained a balance between demand and supply.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions ‘a’ and ‘b’.
a) During 1955-2005, which country had the highest number of warheads?
Answer:
USSR / Russia.

b) What is the reason for decreasing in nuclear stockpiles after 1985?
Answer:

1. Tremendous public pressure.
2. Ban on nuclear tests.

Question 12.
What is the aim of “Zionist movement”?
Answer:
The aim of the Zionist Movement is to unite the Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine their homeland and build a separate state for the Jews.

Question 13.
Write any two principles of Panchasheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of dis-putes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavor to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful coexistence.

Observe the following map and answer questions 14 & 15.

Question 14.
What does the above map tell?
Answer:
The given map tells about cold war military alliances.

Question 15.
Why is united kingdom called an Island?
Answer:
United kingdom is called as an Island because it is covered by water on all the sides.

Question 16.
What are the basic principles of the UNO?
Answer:
The basic principles of the United Nations Organisation are preserving peace, upholding human rights, respecting international law and promoting social progress.

Question 17.
What were the three of the most important processes?
Answer:
Even as the war-devastated countries rebuilt their economics, the world saw some new processes in place. Three of the most important processes were the establishment of the United Nations, Cold War and Decolonisation.

Question 18.
Who drafted a charter for the formation of the UNO?
Answer:
The principle Allied countries like Britain, France, the USA, the USSR and China drafted a Charter for the formation of the UNO even as the war drew to an end.

Question 19.
Write the number of members of the UNO.
Answer:
At the time of its establishment UN had membership of 54 countries and today (2018 ) there are 193 countries.

Question 20.
Which is the main body in the UNO?
Answer:
The General Assembly.

Question 21.
Who are the permanent members of the Security Council?
Answer:
China, France, United Kingdom; USSR (now Russia) and USA.

Question 22.
Explain the ‘Veto Power’.
Answer:
Any decision taken by Council can be vetoed (made invalid or rejected) by the intervention of even anyone of these countries.
(OR)
The power is given to the permanent members to accept or reject any proposal in the UNO.

Question 23.
Name some third world countries.
Answer:
Countries emerging from colonial domination like Vietnam, Korea, Angola, and Afghanistan.

Question 24.
Who got independence in 1960 and what happened then?
Answer:
The Belgian colony in Africa, Congo, got independence in 1960. But its radical communist leader, Patrice Lumumba, was killed in 1961, allegedly at the behest of US spy agency called CIA.

Question 25.
When did Angola become independent?
Answer:
Angola became independent from Portugal in November 1975.

Question 26.
What was the place of the USSR in space race ?
Answer:
The USSR put the first satellite Sputnik and the first human Yuri Gagarin in space.

Question 27.
Whom did the US send to the moon?
Answer:
The US sent Neil Armstrong and others to the Moon in 1969.

Question 28.
What were the core concerns of the people of recently de-colonised?
Answer:
The core concerns of people, especially those who were recently de-colonized like poverty, disease, inequality and colonialism were not addressed by any of these issues of contention.

Question 29.
What does West Asia refer to?
Answer:
West Asia refers to the region between Europe and Asia. The term Middle East is also used to describe this area.

Question 30.
What was called the ‘Zionist Movement’?
Answer:
A movement had developed among the Jews called the ‘Zionist Movement’ which called for uniting Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine as their homeland and build a separate state of Jews.

Question 31.
Who are Palestinians?
Answer:
Palestinians were mostly Arab Muslims.

Question 32.
When and where was the PLO established?
Answer:
The PLO was established in 1964 in Jordon and added a new dimension by bringing together all different Arab factions. Its aim was to regain the land it lost, without violence.

Question 33.
Why did the US become unpopular?
Answer:
The US became unpopular because it supported undemocratic regimes in the Middle East so that the oil resources were available to the US and its allies.

Question 34.
What is the main bone of contention between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
The main bone of contention between the two countries is Kashmir.

Question 35.
Expand POK.
Answer:
Pakistan Occupied Kashmir.

Question 36.
Who was ‘U Thant’?
Answer:
U Thant was the then Secretary-General of UNO.

Question 37.
What was ‘Mukti Bahini ?
Answer:
Supporters of Mujibur Rahman organized a liberation struggle in the form of ‘Mukti Bahini’.

Question 38.
Who signed Shimla Agreement?
Answer:
Zulfikar Ali Bhutto and Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Question 39.
Who fought the Kargil War?
Answer:
India and Pakistan fought the Kargil war.

Question 40.
When was Bangladesh liberated?
Answer:
Bangladesh was liberated from Pakistan with the help of Indian troops in 1972.

Question 41.
What is IPKF?
Answer:
It is the Indian Peace Keeping Force in Sri Lanka.

Question 42.
What is a proxy war?
Answer:
A war instigated by a major power that does not itself participate.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following map and answer the questions:
a) Name any two countries of ’NATO’ at the founding (establishment) time.
Answer:
France and Iceland.

b) Name any two countries which were under the ‘WARSAW’.
Answer:
Poland and Czekoslovakia.

Question 2.
Read the passage and answer the following questions.

To emphasise the determination for peace, Jawaharlal Nehru formulated his renowned Panchsheel principles :
a. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
b. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
c. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
d. Endeavour to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
e. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

i) In between which countries, the Panchsheel was formulated?
Answer:
India and China.

ii) Mention any two principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavour to achieve co-operation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Both USA and USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons but knew very well neither would be the winner in a nuclear war. Yet, they formed military and strategic alliances – the west formalised its alliances in an organisation known as North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) in 1949. To counter this, Communist nations made similar alliances and signed the Warsaw Pact. In addition to this, U.S. established regional military and strategic alliances like South East Asian Treaty Organisation (SEATO) and Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO).

a) What is the counter Pact to NATO?
Answer:
Warsaw pact.

b) Name the two regional military and strategic alliances of the USA.
Answer:
South-East Asian Treaty Organization (SEATO) and the Central Treaty Organization (CENTO).

Question 4.
Read the understand the following text to answer the question given below.

The UN thus started with a twin objective of ensuring lasting peace and human development. At the same time it recognised the autonomy of states and promised not to interfere in any internal affair of a country except in cases mandated by serious human rights violation or threat to world peace.

Comment on the objectives of the UN.
Answer:

1. United Nations Organisation has the objectives of ensuring lasting peace and human development.
2. The UN protects the human rights.
3. It recognized the autonomy of states and promised.
4. Except in extreme conditions UN does not interfere in the internal affairs of any country.

Question 5.
Observe the following Map and answer the questions given below.
A) Write any two countries which are sharing boundary with India on the North-eastern side.
Answer:
Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh.

B) Mention two countries which are sharing sea-boundary with India.
Answer:
Srilanka, Maldives.

Question 6.
Give an account of the present status of relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:

1. The differences regarding the Kashmir issue have been still continuing.
2. Along with the constant efforts to establish peace, India is trying to maintain good relations in the fields of trade and commerce, sports and tourism with Pakistan.

Question 7.
Analyse the below graph and write your observations.

Answer:

1. After World War II the world has been divided into two main political camps.
2. USSR led socialistic camp.
3. USA led the capitalist block.
4. Both USSR and USA competed for nuclear stockpiles.
5. By 1965 US had more nuclear stockpiles.
6. USSR competed with USA and increased its stockpiles. By 1985 it has the highest nuclear stockpiles.
7. By 2005 both countries reduced their stocks of nuclear weapons.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the Cold War?
Answer:
Cold War: Ideological differences between America and Russia is called Cold War.

1. It is an indirect war. There is no real war.
2. It created mutual hatred, misbelief and enmity between Communist Russia and Capitalist USA.
3. Both the USA and the USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons.
4. They maintained secret alliances and treaties. Ex: NATO, WARSAW.
5. Always they created a tension of war.
6. As the rival powers accumulated destructive weapons the world was constantly threatened by a nuclear holocaust.
7. People of all countries lived in constant fear of war.

Question 9.
What suggestions do you give to maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. No country at the present time can afford to exist in isolation.
2. From its very inception, they have to maintain a friendly relation with their neighbouring countries.
3. Maintain mutual confidence and trust based on the heart to heart.
4. Rejects the role of military power and committed to peace.
5. Should have greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
6. Should maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
7. We should share peace and prosperity with the neighbouring countries.

Question 10.
Write briefly about the present relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan was separated from India and formed in 1947 as an Independent country. It is still supporting separation movements in Jammu and Kashmir in India. Pakistan is sending extremists to India to create some instability. India accuses that Pakistan is encouraging to send fake notes to India. It is violating the cease-fire conditions and causing for civilians and soldiers’ deaths. Modi visited Pakistan and discussed with the Prime Minister but the problem is not solved. India answered with surgical strikes. It was a great loss for Pakistan. I think both countries should sit together and solve the problems to concentrate on development.

Question 11.
Suggest measures for better relations between China and India.
Answer:
Since 1962 India, China relations are not good and fair.

• Each should respect another country.
• Panchsheel principles should be followed.
• Settle disputes mutually with bilateral discussions.
• Both countries should understand that they lose much more if there would be a war.

Question 12.
Read the map and answer the following questions.
a) Name the countries that did not enter into any of the military alliances.
Answer:
Sweden, Finland, Switzerland and Ireland were the countries that did notenter into any of the military alliances.

b) State your analysis on the above map.
Answer:

1. Most of the East European countries signed on Warsaw pact.
2. Most of the West European countries signed on NATO pact.

Question 13.
How was the USA after World War – II?
Answer:
The USA suffered less as the war was not fought on its territories. In fact, the Second World War helped the USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the Great Depression. Far from the theatres of war, the industries and agriculture of the USA prospered. This ensured full employment and high productivity in the US during the Second World War. In March 1945, the US President, Harry Truman, said, ‘We have emerged from this War the most powerful nation in the world – the most powerful nation, perhaps, in all history.

Question 14.
How many organs are there in U.N.O? What are they?
Answer:
There are six organs in U.N.O.

1. The General Assembly
2. The Security Council
3. The Trusteeship Council
4. The Economic and Social Council
5. The International Court of Justice
6. The Secretariat

Question 15.
Explain the organs of the U.N.O.
Answer:
The UN works through six different organs. Each of these organs has specific functions like maintaining peace and security, improving education and health facilities, alleviating poverty, providing justice in the context of international crimes and so on. Some bodies responsible for these functions include International Court of Justice located in Hague; the World Health Organisation located at Geneva, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation functioning from Paris, and United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund functioning from New York.

Question 16.
What are the specialised agencies of U.N.O.?
Answer:
The specialised agencies of U.N.O. are

1. UNICEF,
2. UNESCO,
3. FAO,
4. ILO,
5. IBRD,
6. IMF,
7. WHO,
8. UPU

What are the achievements of UNO?
Answer:

1. UNO has under taken complex operations like peace making, peace keeping, humanitarian assistance and disarmament etc.
2. UNO intervened the issues of struggles of many countries and prevented them to more towards war – Ex: Cyprus issue.
3. It encouraged bilateral discussions among countries to solve issues. Ex: Kashmir issue.
4. Disarmament, CTBT etc. are the achievements of UNO that helped to reduce the piling up of armaments.
   Ex:
   1. UN helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis (1962), Middle East crisis (1973).
   2. UN-sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war in 1988.
   3. UN-sponsored negotiations led to withdrawal of soviet troops from Afghanistan.

Question 17.
Which were the worst affected countries in World War – II?
Answer:
The worst affected were the European countries especially the USSR, Poland and Yugoslavia which lost about 20% of its population. In economic terms to the USSR and other European countries lost heavily with the destruction of cities.

Question 18.
Why had the World War – II been fought? (OR)
What led to the formation of UNO?
Answer:
The Second World War had been fought on the principles of peace, democracy and freedom of nations in contrast to the Nazi ideas of dictatorship and Imperialism. Thus, the first task was to establish a global organisation that would ensure peace and development in all nations. This led to the formation of the United Nations Organisation.

Question 19.
Is the UNO successful in preventions wars?
Answer:
While the UN has been doing commendable work in the area of education, health, cultural exchange and protection of heritage, it has been less successful in preventing wars. It has often been held hostage to the ambitions of the super-powers that sought world control.

Question 20.
Which is called a Cold war?
Answer:
For more than forty-five years after the Second World War, a rather strange war was fought between the two blocks. It was a war in which the principal contenders did not physically attack each other or fight each other directly and hence, there was no ‘hot’ war. Instead, a War was fought behind closed doors through propaganda and words. It is called the Cold War.

Question 21.
Why is it called the Cold war?
Answer:
It is called the Cold War simply because of the absence of a real fighting as in traditional wars.
This Cold War characterised by intense tension between the United States and the USSR, influenced and shaped almost everything that happened in the world between 1945 and 1991.

Question 22.
What was the result of Afghanisthan invasion by the USSR?
Answer:
In 1971 the USSR invaded Afghanistan to install a friendly government there. The US in turn provided armed support to Afghan rebels who were also religious extremists. A prolonged civil war ensued and as the USSR decided to withdraw from Afghanistan in 1985 that country fell to religious extremists led by the Taliban which now turned against the USA.

Question 23.
How did the Alliances help the superpowers?
Answer:
The alliances helped superpowers which wanted to expand their influence to gain access to

• the vital resources like oil and minerals
• markets for their products and places to safely invest their capital
• military bases to launch their troops and weapons
• spread their ideology and
• gain economic support, to pay huge military expenses.

Question 24.
Explain the significance of the Bandung conference.
Answer:

1. In 1955 at Bandung in Indonesia a conference was held.
2. It was the first Asio-African conference represented by 29 nations.
3. The most important leaders of this conference were Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru the then Prime Minister of India, Gamal Abdul Nasser the leader of Egypt and Josip Broz Tito the leader of – Yugoslavia.
4. Pt. Nehru was acknowledged as the chief spokes person.
5. It paved the way for Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).

Question 25.
What are often described as the West Asian Crises? Write about them.
Answer:
The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are often described as the West Asian Crises. It was mainly related to the occupation of Palestine. Palestine which was inhabited by Arabs was under the control of Britain before the Second World War. In it is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.

Question 26.
Write about the Taliban of Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Taliban which took over Afghanistan after the withdrawal of Soviet troops similarly established an extremist Islamic state. These states tried to force all people to strictly follow the rules laid down in religious texts. In many cases, this meant the denial of basic freedom and equality of opportunity to women and to religious minorities.

Question 27.
Write about Mikhail Gorbachev.
Answer:
Mikhail Gorbachev in the USSR tried to transform the politics of USSR by making it more open and bringing about radical changes. He was a liberal who introduced certain reforms for the revival of their economy and promoted healthy relations with the West. The reforms introduced by the open regime are often described as ‘Glasnost’and ‘Perestroika’.

Question 28.
Study the graph and answer the following questions.
1. Which country had spent more on Military Expenditure in its GDP?
Answer:
Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.

2. What does the graph show?
Answer:
The graph shows India’s and Pakistan’s Military Expenditures.

3. Analyze the above graph.
Answer:

1. The above graph shows the military expenses of India and Pakistan.
2. In comparison, our country spent much on military than Pakistan.
3. But in GDP values Pakistan spent much on the military in terms of GDP.

Question 29.
Why is China considering India as an adversary?
Answer:
India gave asylum to Dalai Lama, this caused a conflict, and Chinese started considering India as an adversary. Prior to this, a border dispute had surfaced between India and China. China never accepted Mac Mohan Line as a boundary line between China and India. China laid claim to Aksai- chin area in Ladakh region and much of Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 30.
Write about the Indo-China war of 1962.
Answer:
China invaded India in October 1962 violating the peace treaties it signed with India. India was not prepared for this surprise attack and suffered many losses. Eventually, China declared a unilateral ceasefire and withdrew its troops to its pre-war position. It took more than a decade to resume normal relations. Full diplomatic relations were restored only in 1976.

Question 31.
How has the Non-Alignment Movement emerged?
Answer:

1. A large number of developing countries that had attained independence after the World War II, during the cold war era, in order to maintain their hard-won freedom, decided to stay away from the arena of superpower rivalry.
2. Non-Alignment movement emerged under the leadership of India, Egypt and Yugoslavia came into existence which added a new dimension to world politics.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the Europe map and write any two countries from the WARSA pool and any two countries from the NATO pool.
Answer:

NATO Pool	WARSA Pool
USA	Poland
Canada	Albania
Belgium	Romania
Denmark	Bulgaria
France	Flungary, etc.
Portugal
Britain, etc.

Question 2.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.
1. Which country has more nuclear stock piles during 1955-1975?
Answer:
United States of America.

2. What is the number of warheads that United States had in 1965?
Answer:
Nearly 30,000.

3. What led the countries to emerge camps after Second World War?
Answer:

1. Ideological conflicts between US and USSR.
2. For military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy lead the countries to emerge camps after the Second World War.

4. Why the countries decreased their nuclear stockpiles after 1990?
Answer:

1. Realised that war mongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear arsenal (SALT, START).
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 3.
What steps both India and China should take to build lasting peace between the two countries?
Answer:

1. Both countries should respect the sovereignty of each other.
2. Border disputes should be resolved peacefully.
3. Diplomatic relations should be enhanced.
4. One country should not treat the other one as its competitor.
5. The spirit of the ‘Panchasheel Pact’ should be followed by both the countries.
6. Friendship should be enhanced through cultural exchange.

Question 4.
Why is peace between India and Pakistan necessary for the development of both countries?
Answer:

1. Both India and Pakistan have nuclear status and in this scenario the need of peace process between them is much more important than ever before.
2. Any kind of conventional armed conflict can change into a nuclear war.
3. So the peace process should be based on the development of both the countries.
4. For social, political and economical development of both the countries, peace should be established between them.

Question 5.
What is the NAM? What are its main objectives?
Answer:
NAM:

1. Not joining in any powerful block either the USA block or the USSR block.
2. Maintaining equal distance and behave independently.

Objectives:

1. Maintain the world peace.
2. Maintain cooperation among the member nations.
3. To prevent any of the newly decolonised independent countries from joining any of the military blocks.
4. Estimate the growing cold war tensions and its impact on the world at large.

Question 6.
What is the role of the UNO in maintaining world peace?
Answer:
In order to build peace in the world the U.N.O. plays its prominent role as below.
The U.N.O. was established on 24th October, 1945.

1. It prevented the Cold War.
2. It succeeded in getting independence to Indonesia from the Dutch.
3. It solved the dispute in Palestine between Arabs and Jews by creating a separate state of Israel for Jews.
4. It succeeded in averting a war between England and Egypt over Suez Canal issue.
5. It created pressure on Russia and the U.S.A. to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
6. It helped Congo to get freedom.
7. U.N. helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis, middle east crisis.
8. UN sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war.
9. UN sponsored negotiations led to the withdrawal of Soviet troops from Afghanistan.
10. It helped Cyprus to avert conflict between Greeks and Turks.
11. When Pakistan resorted to aggression over Kashmir it intervened and tried to avert the war between India and Pakistan.
12. It helped to Angola to get independence from Portugal.
13. So far it has been able to prevent a Third World War.

Question 7.
Write a detailed note on West Asian conflicts.
Answer:
Jerusalem is a holy city for Jews, Christians, Muslims alike. The Jews consider Palestine as their Promised Land. The conflict came to ahead in Germany under the Nazis when millions of Jews of Europe were jailed and killed. Zionist movement spread across the world and tried to reclaim Palestine as their homeland. This demand was supported by the Western powers. Both the USA and the USSR wanted to bring this region of massive oil reserves under their control. UN divided into two parts Arab and the Jewish states. The Arabs refused to recognize Israel as a legitimate state. Egypt came in support of Palestine but in 1956 Israel attacked Egypt with the support of Western Powers. Israel withdrew the army. The Palestine Liberation Organization encouraged the Arabs to attack. Israel. Yasser Arafat carried out terrorist attacks. Later he gave up terrorist attacks and agreed to find a peaceful solution. He died in 2004 and the Palestinians are still fighting for their homeland.

Question 8.
Observe the following table and analyze it with regard to the trend of nuclear weapons stockpiles.
Nuclear Weapons Stockpiles (1990 – 2014)

Country	1990	1995	2000	2005	2014
USA	10,904	10,577	8,360	7,700	7,260
Russia / USSR	37,000	27,000	21,500	17,000	7,500

Answer:
The given table is about nuclear weapons stockpiles during the period 1990-2014. In this table the superpowers United States of America and Union of Soviet Socialist Republic are compared. In the beginning, the frequency of period is five years but in the ending 2014 is given immediately after 2005. During 1990 the nuclear weapons stockpiles with both the countries are high. United States of America has 10,904 whereas Union of Soviet Socialist Republic has 37,000. This is about four times more than the weapons of USA. The wonder is that 1995 onwards the number of stockpiles is reducing. It has many reasons. It is the experience of 1945 nuclear bomb blast of Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan. Millions of civilians also died in that blast. Second World War brought various experiences to the world. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaties are also the reasons. UNO also brought awareness among the nations. Human Rights Commissions also tried well. During 2014 the USSR brought the weapons down to 7500 only. This is really drastic reduce. In 1990 the USSR has four times more weapons to the USA whereas during 2014 it is only about 300 more weapons. All the countries should think that if nuclear weapons are used in the wars, there will be much destruction to the mankind. Superpowers and developing countries also concentrate on reducing the nuclear weapons. Recently North Korea tested these weapons and created much tension among the counties. So everyone should respect peace.

Question 9.
Is Veto power to a few countries in the UNO, helping or barrier for World Peace? Discuss.
Answer:
Some times Veto power is working as a barrier and also helpful to world peace.
How it is a barrier:

1. Often the great powers themselves involved in many of the conflicts used their Veto power to block any action by the U.N.O.
2. Sometimes they have also used their power to force the UN to bend to their dictates.

How it is helping :
The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
U.N.O created pressure on Russia and the USA to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
U.N.O helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis.

However, the very existence of a forum like UN, has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.

Question 10.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Answer:

1. The graph explains about India and Pakistan military expenditures.
2. Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.
3. The military expenditure of India was also high.
4. India had spent less on military expenditure as % GDP.

Both countries gave importance to gather more & more weapons because always Pakistan is provoking India on the issue of Jammu & Kashmir.
In 2016 Uri incident also happened. India faces a problem with China also.
(OR)
Since 1988 Pakistan military expenditure has not been high. Since 2000 onwards it has been increasing. Though the amount is increased its expenditure in GDP percentage is decreasing. It seems to be less but in total it is more and dangerous to its neighbouring countries like India. At the same time India is also increasing its expenditure on military to protect its people from neighbouring countries.

Question 11.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
US and USSR Nuclear Stockpiles (Number of warheads)

Year	US	USSR
1965	33,000	10,000
1975	25,000	32,000
1985	24,000	45,000
1995	12,000	25,000
2005	11,000	16,000

Answer:
Table Analysis:

1. From the given table we understand that from the year 1965 to 2005 the U.S stock-piles gradually decreased.
2. In the U.S.S.R the stockpiles increased from 1965 to 1985, and then decreased till 2005.

Reason for increasing the stockpiles: At the beginning the stockpiles number is increased due to military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy that leads the countries to emerge camps after Second World War.

Reasons for decreasing their stockpiles:

1. Both the countries realised that warmongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and the USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear orsenal.
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of the USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 12.
Under the present circumstances, give suggestions to build cordial relations between India and its neighbouring countries.
(OR)
Why should India have cordial relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. India was a founder of the NAM which sought to keep an independent position between the two superpowers.
2. India tried to base its foreign policy on the Gandhian principles of peace and non-violence.
3. India is emerging as a major world economic and political power. So, it should get support from the neighbours and in turn help them.
4. It should take measures to maintain peace and tranquillity at the borders, which is possible only with cordial relations with neighbours.
5. It has shared culture and civilisation with neighbouring countries, thus built bridges of friendship through trade, sports, films, tourism and cultural exchanges.
6. It shall have a greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
7. It shall have friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
8. It shall have cooperation with neighbours on disaster management.

Question 13.
Describe the present circumstances that one threatening world peace.
Answer:
Present circumstances that are threatening world peace:

• Terrorism
• Wars
• Armament race
• Invasions
• Communalism
• Exploitation of resources
• Interference of developed countries in the affairs of developing countries
• Aggressive nationalism

Question 14.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

During the last few decades, Tribal and Marginal farmers have also been threatened by Commercial farmers, mining corporations, dam projects, etc. As the large companies find rare resources in remote rural areas, like minerals, rare plants or animals and water, there has been a rapid increase in the ousting of the farming and tribal population from their traditional areas.

Answer:
According to the given paragraph the marginalised communities are being neglected and mostly they are exploited. Big companies invest money for their benefits and so the tribal people are far away from agriculture forcefully.

Mining corporations take permission from the mineral development Department or the government and they start mining. Sometimes government plan to construct dams so as to get the water irrigated to feed lakhs of hectares of cultivable land and in some cases uncultivable land also will be converted to cultivable. The people in foot hills of the hills mountains or forests will be asked to migrate to other places. Sometimes it is a must. Then they oppose the construction of dams and other developmental activities.

Government has to give sufficient compensation to the land losers. Moreover it is better to provide land in place of land, but it should be of same quality cultivable. When farmers, tribals are asked to vacate where do they go. Without proper planning it impossible to move. In some localities like Yellampally and Mid Manair areas the land losers got sufficient compensation and so they settled in new colonies. In Kudamkulam in Tamilnadu, Narmada dam construction the land losers are not satisfied.

Question 15.
Read the text and answer the following question.

Two major ideological and political camps emerged in the post war period -the Communist block led by the USSR and the Democratic-Capitalist Block led by the USA. On the one hand, the USSR promoted the ideas of equality and state-controlled development and suppression of opposition to these principles. On the other hand, the USA promoted the ideas of multiparty democracy and private capitalist controlled process of development.

Distinguish between the communist block and capitalist block.
Answer:

Communist and Socialistic block	Capitalistic and Democratic block
1. The communist block was lead by the USSR.	1. The capitalistic block was lead by the USA.
2. Here the process of development is controlled by the state.	2. Here, the private capitalists controlled the process of development.
3. Socialism and idea of equality exist here.	3. Democracy exists here.
4. Opposition was suppressed.	4. The USA promoted the idea of multiparty democracy.

Question 16.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

Lai Bahadur Shastri in a rally in Delhi after the end of the war, decried the attempt of Pakistan to use religious symbolism in the war claiming it to be a war of Muslims against Hindus. He proudly stated that India was a secular country.

“The unique thing about our country is that we have Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Parsis and people of all other religions. We have temples and mosques, gurudwaras and churches. But we do not bring this all into politics… This is the difference between India and Pakistan. Whereas Pakistan proclaims herself to be an Islamic State and uses religion as a political factor, we Indians have freedom to follow whatever religion we may choose [and] worship in any way we please. So far as politics is concerned, each of us is as much as Indian as the other.”

Interpret the speech of Lai Bahadur Sastry.
Answer:

1. The above famous speech was delivered by Lai Bahadur Sastry after the Indo-Pak war.
2. He assured the world and the Muslims that it is a secular country.
3. So many religions are there in India.
4. We respect all worshipping places on equal grounds.
5. In India these religions have no role to play in politics as ours is a secular state.
6. People can choose any religion but all of us are Indians.
7. This speech was delivered when Pakistan gave religious symbolism in the war.

Question 17.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) What does the above graph indicate?
Answer:
The above graph indicates the nuclear stock piles of the US and the USSR.

b) Which country has highest armament stock during 1985?
Answer:
USSR (Russia)

c) The nuclear stockpiles of which country did not change between 1995-2005?
Answer:
America (USA)

d) After which year the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America?
Answer:
After 1975, the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America.

e) How much were the stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965?
Answer:
The stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965 were 5000 and 30000 respectively.

f) How much stockpiles did both the countries possess during 1975?
Answer:
Both the countries have the same nuclear stockpiles, i.e. 25000.

g) Which country is storing atomic weapons in large?
Answer:
The USSR is storing atomic weapons in large.

h) What may be the reason for decrease of atomic weapons storage?
Answer:
Protest movements against the atomic weapons may be the reason in a decrease of atomic weapon storage.

i) How much the stock of weapons of Russia is more than America?
Answer:
Russia has about 15000 warheads more than America.

Question 18.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) Which country is spending more money on military?
Answer:
India.

b) Which countries military expenses in terms of GDP are more?
Answer:
Pakistan’s Military expenses in terms of GDP are more.

c) In which year the military expenditure as of GDP was more?
Answer:
Between 2008-09, the military expenditure of GDP equal.

d) What conclusion can you draw from the above graph?
Answer:

1. The military expenditure as a percentage of GDP has been decreasing.
2. The military expenditure of both countries has been increasing.

Question 19.
Read the passage and state your opinion on it.

“Pakistan has over the years encouraged separatist movement in the border states of India like Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir. It is actively training and sending religious extremists to foment trouble in India.

Answer:

1. India and Pakistan became independent by bifurcating from erstwhile British India.
2. The first war between countries took place in 1948.
3. Again in 1965 Pakistan invaded India.
4. Tashkent agreement was signed between two countries in 1966.
5. War broke out in 1971 again over the issue of liberation of Bangladesh.
6. Since then, the Pakistan over years encouraging separatist movement in the border states of India.
7. Both the countries are spending much amounts of scarce funds on arming themselves against each other.
8. Both the countries should go for a solution and reduce tension along the border.

Question 20.
On the outline map of world identify the following locations.

1. Egypt
2. Indonesia
3. Israel
4. Palestine
5. China
6. Spain
7. Belgium
8. Congo
9. Chile
10. Jordan
11. Afghanistan

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Congo
2. Germany
3. Fascism belongs to this country.
   Answer: Italy
4. Head quarters of League of Nations.
   Answer: Geneva
5. Czechoslovakia
6. Romania
7. Mediterranean sea
8. Burma / Myanmar
9. Australia
10. Bulgaria

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Our Environment Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 9th Lesson Our Environment

10th Class Biology 9th Lesson Our Environment Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What happens to the amount of energy transferred from one step to the next in a food chain?
Answer:

1. Energy is transferred along food chains from one trophic level to the next.
2. The amount of available energy decreases from one stage to the next.
3. This is because not all the food can be fully digested and assimilate.
4. Hair, feathers, insect exoskeletons, cartilage and bone in animal foods, cellulose and lignin in plant foods cannot be digested by most animals.
5. These materials are excreted or made into pellets of indigested remains.
6. Assimilated energy is available for the synthesis of new biomass through growth and reproduction.
7. Organisms also lose some biomass by death disease or annual leaf-drop.
8. Moreover at each tropic level, organisms use the most of the assimilated energy to fulfill their metabolic requirements – performance of work, growth and reproduction.
9. Most of the energy is lost in the form of heat during biological processes.
10. Only a small fraction goes to the consumer at next tropic level.

Question 2.
What do pyramids and food chain indicate in an ecosystem?
Answer:

1. The ecologists used the idea of pyramid to show relationship among organisms in an existing food chain.
2. Ecological pyramids are of three types. They are pyramid of biomass, pyramid of number, pyramid of energy.
3. Pyramid of biomass indicates the available biomass in an ecosystem; pyramid of number indicates the organisms present and pyramid of energy indicates the available energy in an ecosystem.
4. The food chain in an ecosystem indicates how energy is transferred from one organism to another.
5. The starting point of a food chain are producers and it ends with top carnivores.
6. A food chain represents a single directional transfer of energy.

Question 3.
Write a short note on pyramid of number for any food chain. What can we conclude from this pyramid of numbers?
i) tree ii) insect iii) woodpecker
(OR)
What is a pyramid of numbers? Write a brief note on the pyramid of numbers with the help of a block diagram.
Answer:
a.

1. The number of organisms in a food chain can be represented graphically in a pyramid of number.
2. Each bar represents the number of individuals at each tropic level in a food chain.
3. In the pyramid of numbers, from the first – order consumers to the large carnivores, there is normally an increase in size, but decrease in number.
4. For example, in a wood, the aphids are very small and occur in astronomical numbers.
5. The ladybirds which feed on them are distinctly larger and not so numerous.
6. The insectivorous birds which feed on the ladybirds are larger still and are only present in a small numbers, and there may only be a single pair of hawks of much larger size than the insectivorous birds on which they prey.

b.

1. In the given pyramid, the producer is a large tree, primary consumers are small
   insects which are numerous in number and secondary consumers are woodpeckers which are comparatively less in number than insects.
2. From this pyramid of number, we can conclude that sometimes the pyramid of numbers does not look like a pyramid at all.
3. This could happen if the producer is a large plant or if one of the organisms at any tropic level is very small.
4. Whatever the situation, the producer still goes at the bottom of the pyramid.

Question 4.
What is biomass? Draw a pyramid of biomass for the given food chain.
i) grass leaves ii) herbivores iii) predators iv) hawk
Answer:

1. Biomass is organic material of biological origin that has ultimately derived from the fixation of carbon dioxide and the trapping of solar energy.
2. This includes trees, shrubs, crops, grasses, algae, aquatic plants* agricultural and forest residues and all forms of human, animal and plant waste.
3. Any type of plant or animal material that can be converted into energy is called “Biomass”.
4. 

Question 5.
How is using of toxic material affecting the ecosystem? Write a short note on bioaccumulation and biomagnifications.
Answer:

1. Use of toxic materials such as pesticides, herbicides and fungicides creates new problems in the ecosystem.
2. As these toxic materials are often indiscriminate in their action and vast numbers of other animals may be destroyed.
3. Some of them may be predators which naturally feed on these pests, others may be the food for other animals.
4. Thus causing unpredictable changes in food chains and upsetting the balance within the ecosystem.
5. Some toxic substances have a cumulative effect.
6. Some of them are degradable, can be broken down into harmless substances in a comparatively short time usually a year.
7. Others are non-degradable which are potentially dangerous as they accumulate in the bodies of animals and pass right through food web.
8. This process of entering of pollutants in a food chain is known as “Bioaccumulation”.
9. The tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one tropic level to the next is known as “Biomagnifications”.

Question 6.
Should we use pesticides as they prevent our crop and food from pests or we should think of alternatives? Write your view about this issue and give sound reason for your answer.
(OR)
Why should we think of alternatives to pesticides? Give reasons.
Answer:

1. We should think of alternatives. This is because these pesticides are toxic chemical whose usage leads to Bioaccumulation and Biomagnifications.
2. When we use pesticides, they prevent our crop and food from pests effectively but indiscriminately destroys a vast number of other animals.
3. This is causing unpredictable changes in food chains and upsetting the balance within the ecosystem.
4. Most of the chemical pesticides that contain mercury, arsenic or lead are non -degradable.
5. They enter into food chain, accumulate in the bodies of animals and pass right through food web.
6. Being further concentrated at each step until animals at the top of the pyramid may receive enough to do considerable harm.
7. This is one of the reasons for ever decreasing number of butterflies, bees, small and large birds.
8. Some of the pesticides are nerve poisons and might bring about changes in behaviour.
9. As the human beings are at the end of the food chain, these pesticides may get accumulated in our bodies also. This shows some adverse effects on us, when their concentration becomes sufficiently high.

Question 7.
What is a tropic level? What does it represent in an ecological pyramid?
Answer:

1. The various steps in a food chain at which the transfer of food takes place is called tropic level.
2. Tropic level means the feeding level of the organism.
3. In an ecological pyramid, the first tropic level represents the primary producers, and their number, biomass or energy.
4. Second tropic level represents the herbivores or primary consumers and their number, biomass or energy.
5. The tropic level represents the lower carnivores or secondary consumers and their number, biomass or energy.
6. The fourth tropic level represents the higher carnivores or tertiary consumers and their number, biomass or energy.

Question 8.
If you want to know more about the flow of energy in an ecosystem, what questions do you ask?
Answer:
I will ask the following questions to know more about flow of energy in an ecosystem.

1. How does the energy flow in an ecosystem from one organism to other?
2. Is the energy transformation from one level to other 100% efficient?
3. What per cent of energy transfers from one level to other?
4. What happens to the remaining energy?
5. How does the ecosystem lose its energy during energy transformation?
6. Which tropic level in an ecosystem has more energy and which has less?
7. What is the ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem?

Question 9.
What will happen if we remove predators from food web?
Answer:

1. Removal of organisms from any tropic level of a food chain or food web disturbs the ecosystem and leads to ecological imbalance.
2. If we remove predators from food web, the prey population will increase enormously as there is no natural control over them.
3. The producers population will decrease rapidly as the organisms feeding on them increase.
4. After few generations the prey population also begins to decrease as some of the preys begin to die due to starvation.
5. Some adaptations may also be developed by the organisms to bring the ecological balance.
6. But it may take some generations, till that the ecosystem will be disturbed and imbalanced.
7. For example, if we remove all the predators (carnivorous) from a forest ecosystem, the herbivorous animal population will increase as there are no carnivores to hunt them.
8. As a result plant population will decrease as the ever increasing herbivores feed more and more on plants.
9. After some generations the herbivore population begins to decrease as the decreasing number of plants are not sufficient to feed.
10. Then some herbivorous animals may adapt to feed on other herbivores to increase their survival.
11. Then scope for survival will increase for plants again which leads to ecological balance.
12. But this may take lot of time to evolve new predators and to form ecological balance.

Question 10.
Observe a plant in your kitchen garden, and write a note on producer-consumer relationship.
Answer:
When I observe a plant in kitchen garden, I came to know the following things.

1. Though it may be relatively small, a garden is a complete ecosystem.
2. It has the same components as any other large and elaborate ecosystems had.
3. The plant in a kitchen garden is a producer as it produces their own food from sunlight.
4. There are two types of consumers in this ecosystem, a) Primary consumers and b) Secondary consumers.
5. Primary consumers feed on plants. This tropic level consists of caterpillars, bees and butterflies.
6. Secondary consumers feed on primary consumers. This tropic level consists of birds, garden lizards and spiders.
7. Fungi, bacteria, insects and worms make up decomposers.
8. The producer and consumer relationship can be shown in the following food chain.
   Plant → Plant eaters such as caterpillars, bees, butterflies → Meat-eaters such as birds, garden lizards, spiders
   Producers → Primary consumers → Secondary consumers
9. The pyramid of number appears like this.
   
10. The pyramid of Biomass appears like this
    
11. The pyramid of energy appears like this
    

Question 11.
What type of information do you require to explain the pyramid of biomass?
Answer:
To explain the pyramid of biomass, we require the following information.

1. The type of ecosystem.
2. Producers in the ecosystem.
3. Primary consumers in the ecosystem.
4. Secondary consumers in the ecosystem.
5. Tertiary consumers in the ecosystem.
6. Number of organisms at each tropic level.
7. Size of organisms at each tropic level.
8. Weight of organisms at each tropic level.
9. All forms of waste produced at each tropic level and
10. In total, total amount of biomass produced at each tropic level.

Question 12.
Draw a pyramid of numbers considering yourself sis top level consumer. Pyramid of numbers
Answer:
Pyramid of numbers
Ex: 1

Ex: 2

Question 13.
Prepare slogans to promote awareness in your classmates about eco-friendly activities.
All the living things have the right to live on this earth along with us. Prepare slogans to promote awareness in public about the conservation of biodiversity.
(OR)
Which slogans do you prefer to promote awareness in your locality about eco-friendly activities?
Answer:

1. Live and let live.
2. If we protect the environment, it protects us.
3. Conserve nature – Conserve life.
4. Save mother earth.
5. Earth needs you.
6. Go ecofriendly.
7. Clean the environment, live happily.
8. Heal our planet! Turn it into a better planet.
9. Plant a tree for your environment.
10. Think ecofriendly and live ecofriendly.
11. Earth enables you to definitely stand. Allow it to stand the actual way it is.
12. You’ve only got one planet. Don’t trash it.

Question 14.
Suggest any three programmes on the prevention of soil pollution in view of avoiding pesticides.
(OR)
Suggest any four eco-friendly methods for prevention of soil pollution in view of avoiding pesticides. (OR)
In your area, soil is polluted by the enormous usage of pesticides. Suggest any two programmes for the prevention of soil pollution.
Answer:
To prevent the soil pollution caused by pesticides following programmes should be implemented.

1. Rotation of crops :
   1. Same crop should not be grown in the same field in successive seasons.
   2. Rotation of crops reduce occurance of pests and damage due to pests will be decreased.
2. Biological control: Introducing natural predator or parasite of the pest.
3. Sterility: Sterilising the males of a pest species reduces the population of pests.
4. Genetic strains: The development of genetic strains which are resistant to certain pest.
5. Studying the life histories of the pests: When this is done it is sometimes possible to sow the crops at a time when least damage will be caused.

Choose the correct answer.

1. What does a food chain always start with?
   A) The herbivore
   B) The carnivore
   C) The producer
   D) None of these
   Answer: C
2. Which of the following do plants not compete for?
   A) Water
   B) Food
   C) Space
   D) All the above
   Answer: B
3. Ban all pesticides, this means that
   A) Control on the usage of pesticides
   B) Prevention of pesticides
   C) Promote eco-friendly agricultural practices
   D) Stop biochemical factories
   Answer: C
4. According to Charles Elton
   A) Carnivores at the top of the pyramid herbivore
   B) Energy trapping is high at the top of the pyramid
   C) No producers at the top of the pyramid
   D) A and C
   Answer: D

10th Class Biology 9th Lesson Our Environment InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Are all terrestrial ecosystems similar?
Answer:

1. No. All the terrestrial ecosystems are not similar.
2. Basing on variations in climatic conditions such as rainfall, temperature and the availability of light, there are various kinds of ecosystems.
3. The major types of terrestrial ecosystem are
   1. Tundra,
   2. Coniferous forest,
   3. Deciduous forest,
   4. Savannah,
   5. Tropical forest and
   6. Deserts.

Question 2.
If we want to show a food chain consisting of grass, rabbit, snake and hawk then connect the given picture of organisms by putting arrows and make a food chain.
A) Name the producers and consumers in the above food chain.
B) Try to guess what does the arrows marked by you are indicate?
C) Identify at least four other food chains from your surroundings. Name the producers and different levels of consumers in those food chains.
Answer:
Grass → Rabbit → Snake → Hawk
A) In the above food chain grass is the primary producer. Rabbit is the primary consumer, snake is the secondary consumer and hawk is the tertiary consumer.
B) The arrows indicate the flow of energy from one organism to another. So these are always pointed from the food to the feeder.
C)

1. Plant → insect → frog → bird
2. Plant → insect →  frog → snake
3. Aquatic plants → insects → fish → crane
4. Plant → mice → snake → vulture
5. Plant → aphids → spiders → birds

Question 3.
Why do most of the food chains consists of four steps?
Answer:

1. Most of the food chains are quite short and mostly consists of four steps.
2. This is because only 10% of the energy present in a tropic level transfers to the other tropic level.
3. Remaining energy is dissipated as heat produced during the process of respiration and other ways.
4. Thus about three steps in a food chain very little energy is still available for use by living organisms.

Question 4.
Why do the number of organisms get decreased as we move from producer to different level of consumers?
Answer:

1. As we move from producers to different levels of consumers the energy available will decrease gradually.
2. Only ten per cent of the energy present in one tropic level transfer to another tropic level.
3. Biomass also decreases gradually as only 10 – 20% of the biomass is transferred from one tropic level to the next in a food chain.
4. As there is less energy & less biomass available at top levels, number of organisms also less, generally.
5. So, the number of organisms get decreased as we move from producer to different level of consumers.

Question 5.
Draw the pyramid of number for the following food chains.
i) Banyan → insects → woodpecker
ii) Grass → rabbit → wolf
A) Are the pyramid of number having same structure in both of the above two cases as compare to the example given in the earlier paragraph?
B) If there is a difference, then what it is?
Answer:

A) No. The pyramid of number in the above two cases doesn’t have the same structure as compared to the example given in the textbook.
B)

1. In the example (given in the textbook), number of organisms at producers level is more. This number gradually decreased in consumers level step by step. So the pyramid of number formed has typical pyramid shape with broad base and the narrow apex.
2. But in the first case given here, on a single Banyan tree, a large number of insects live and feed. These insects become food for few Woodpeckers. So producers number is less than primary and secondary consumers, and secondary consumers are less than primary consumers. So the pyramid of number does not look like a pyramid. It consists of narrow base, broad middle part and medium apex.
3. In the second case, grass which are large in number become food for few rabbits. Rabbit provides food for several wolves which are comparatively less in number than grass. So primary consumers are less in number than secondary consumers and producers. So the pyramid of number for this food chain also does not look like a pyramid. It consists of broad base, narrow middle part and medium apex. Thus it differs from case (i) also.

Question 6.
Think why the pyramids are always upright?
Answer:

1. In ecology not all the pyramids are always upright.
2. Pyramid of number may be upright, inverted or partly upright.
3. Pyramid of biomass may be upright or inverted.
4. But the pyramid of energy is always upright.
5. This is because energy will decrease when we move from producers to the high level consumers.
6. Only 10% of the energy from one tropic level transfers to the other through food chain.
7. So the energy at base is more, gradually decreases, and very less at the top.
8. As a result the energy pyramid is always upright.

Question 7.
Observe the data given in the following table.

Classes	Area in 1967(Km2)	Area in 2004 (Km2)
Lake – water spread area	70.70	62.65
Lake with sparse weed	0	47.45
Lake with dense weed	0	15.20
Lake-liable to flood in rainy season	100.97	0
Aquaculture ponds	0	99.74
Rice fields	8.40	16.62
Enchrochment	0.31	1.37
Total	180.38	180.38

i) In which year lake-water spread area is more? Why?
Answer:
In the year 1967. Because lake was not brought under cultivation.

ii) How do you think weeds are more in the lake?
Answer:
Excessive nutrient addition, especially from anthropogenic sources, led to explosive weed growth. Ex: Eichornia, pistia.

iii) What are the reasons for decrease in lake area?
Answer:

1. In 1996, almost entire lake was brought under cultivation.
2. Industries came along in ever growing intensity in the catchment area of the lake.

iv) How do the above reasons lead to pollution?
Answer:

1. Consequently, the drains and rivulets carry substantial quantity of various types of pollutants into the lake.
2. The major sources of pollution are agricultural runoff containing residues of several agrochemicals, fertilizers, fish tank discharges, industrial effluents containing chemical residues.

v) How was the threat to the lake due to pollution discovered?
Answer:

1. The water of the lake turned alkaline in nature, turbid, nutrient rich, low in dissolved oxygen and high in biochemical oxygen demand.
2. Water borne diseases like diarrhoea, typhoid, amoebiasis and others are said to be common among the local inhabitants who are unaware of the state of pollution in the lake water.
3. Vector borne diseases were also increased.

vi) What could be the reasons for the migration of birds to this lake?
Answer:
To avoid extreme cold weather conditions in Northern Asia and Eastern Europe birds migrate to Kolleru lake.

Question 8.
Observe the following table showing different activities in the lake and their influence.
Legend:
(+) means has influence on the mentioned problem
(-) means has no influence on the mentioned problem
i) What are the factors that affected the number of migratory birds to decrease?
Answer:
Aquaculture practices.

ii) Do you find any relationship between biological and physical problems?
Answer:
Yes. Aquaculture practices have influence on these problems.

iii) What are the reasons for chemical problems ?
Answer:
Agricultural practices, aquaculture practices, industrial activities and human activities are the reasons for chemical problems.

iv) What happens if the dissolved oxygen reduce in lake water ?
Answer:
If the dissolved oxygen reduces in lake water, sufficient amount of oxygen will not be available to organisms that live in the lake.
This leads to the death of organisms in the lake.

v) Is BOD of turbid and nutrient rich water high or low? What are its consequences?
Answer:
High. Its consequences are water borne diseases and death of organisms.

vi) People living in catchment area of Kolleru faced so many problems. Why?
Answer:
Vector borne disease increased. The lands adandoned are useless for agriculture.

Question 9.
Name any two pesticides / insecticides you have heard about.
Answer:
DDT, Aldrin, Malathian, Altrazine, Monocrotophos, Endosulphan etc.

Question 10.
How are the food grains and cereals being stored in your house and how dojyou protected them from pests and fungus?
Answer:
To protect food grains and cereals from pests and fungus, we will follow the following rules in our house.

1. First of all we will dry and clean our grain before storing.
2. We will avoid moisture in bagged grains by storing them on wooden structures, bamboo mats or polythene covers.
3. We use domestic bins or improvised storage structures such as Gaade, Kotlu, Paatara, RCC bins and flat bottom metal bins etc.
4. We fumigate the storage room with Ethylene Di-bromide (EDB) ampoules to avoid insect damage.
5. We use anticoagulant for rat control in houses.

Question 11.
Where from pollutants enter to the water sources?
Answer:
The used water from industries and run off water containing agricultural effluents bring pollutants into water sources. Municipal and domestic sewage also pollute water sources.

Question 12.
How can you say fishes living in water having heavy metals in their bodies?
Answer:
The bioaccumulation of heavy metals in tissues of fish particularly in liver, kidney and gills were analysed and found their presence.

Question 13.
Researchers found that pollution levels increase during monsoon season. Why they found so?
Answer:

1. Pollution levels increase during monsoon season in water bodies.
2. During monsoon season heavy rainfall occurs.
3. The rain water brings residues of agrochemicals, fertilizers and different types of organic substances, municipal and domestic sewage.
4. Hence pollution levels increase in monsoon season.

Question 14.
Why did people also suffer from various diseases after consuming fishes living in local water reservoir?
Answer:

1. The heavy metals could find their way into human beings through food chain.
2. This bioaccumulation cause various physiological disorders such as hypertension, sporadic fever, renal damage, nausea etc.

Question 15.
What is the food chain that has been discussed in the above case?
Answer:
The food chain discussed in the above occurrence is Crops → Locust → Sparrow → Hawk.

Question 16.
How did the campaign disturb the food chain in the fields?
Answer:

1. Crop yields after the campaign were substantially decreased.
2. Though the campaign against sparrows ended it was too late.
3. With no sparrows to eat the locust populations, the country was soon swarmed.
4. Locust coupled with bad weather led to the great Chinese famine.

Question 17.
How did these disturbances affect the environment?
Answer:

1. The number of locust increased.
2. Use of pesticides against locust population further degraded the land.

Question 18.
Is it right to eradicate a living organism in an ecosystem? How is it harmful?
Answer:

1. No, it is not right to eradicate a living organism in an ecosystem.
2. It disturbs the existing food chain.

Question 19.
Were the sparrows really responsible? What was the reason for the fall in crop production?
Answer:

1. No, the sparrows were not really responsible for the loss of food grain.
2. With no sparrows to eat the locust population crops were damaged and this led to fall in crop production.

Question 20.
What was the impact of human activities on the environment?
Answer:

1. The human activities badly affected the environment.
2. Use of pesticides against the pest degraded the land.

Question 21.
What do you suggest for such incidents not to occur?
Answer:

1. I suggest to use organic manures and organic insecticides to kill the insects.
2. Rotation of crops is the best method to protect the crops from pests.
3. We should not kill any organism on this earth because every organism has a role to play.
4. Think before you start action.

10th Class Biology 9th Lesson Our Environment Activities

Activity – 1

Observe any water ecosystem in your surroundings and identify the different food chains and food web operating in this ecosystem. Write the following details in your notebook.

WORKSHEET

1. Names of the students in a group: ——————— Date: ———–
2. Name of the ecosystem: ———————
3. Topography: ———————
4. Names / Number of plants (producers) identified: ———————
5 Names / Number of animals identified: ———————
6. Identify the different types consumers and name them & mention their number below :
Herbivores (Primary consumers): ———————
Carnivores (Secondary consumers): ———————
Top carnivores (Tertiary): ———————
7 Food relationships among them: food habits/preferences: ———————
8 Show / draw the different food chains: ———————
9. Showcase the food web: ———————
10. List out all abiotic factors existing in the ecosystem: ———————
( A check list can be given, and asked to tick)
11. Is there any threat to the ecosystem ? Yes / No ———————
If yes, what ? and how ? ———————
Suggest few remedial measures ———————
Answer:
Student’s Activity.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 7th Lesson Coordinate Geometry Exercise 7.2

10th Class Maths 7th Lesson Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points (-1, 7) and (4, -3) in the ratio 2 :3.
Answer:
Given points P (-1, 7) and Q (4, – 3). Let ‘R’ be the required point which divides \(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\) in the ratio 2:3. Then

Question 2.
Find the coordinates of the points of trisection of the line segment joining (4, -1) and (-2, -3).
Answer:
Given points A (4, – 1) and B (- 2, – 3) Let P and Q be the points of trisection
of \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\), then AP = PQ = QB.

∴ P divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) internally in the ratio 1 : 2.

Also, Q divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) in the ratio 2 : 1 internally.

Question 3.
Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points (-3, 10) and (6, -8) is divided by (-1, 6).
Answer:
Let the point (-1, 6) divides the line segment joining the points (-3, 10) and (6, -8) in a ratio of m : n

⇒ 6m – 3n = -(m + n) = -m – n
⇒ 6m + m = – n + 3n
⇒ 7m = 2n
⇒ \(\frac{m}{n}=\frac{2}{7}\)
⇒ m : n = 2 : 7
∴ The point (-1, 6) divides the given line segment in a ratio of 2 : 7.

Question 4.
If (1, 2), (4, y), (x, 6) and (3, 5) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order, find x and y.
Answer:

Given: ▱ ABCD is a parallelogram where A (1, 2), B (4, y), C (x, 6) and D (3, 5).
In a parallelogram, diagonals bisect each other.
i.e., the midpoints of the diagonals coincide with each other.
i.e.,midpoint of AC = midpoint of BD

⇒ 1 + x = 7 and 8 = y + 5
⇒ x = 7 – 1 and y = 8 – 5
∴ x = 6 and y = 3.

Question 5.
Find the coordinates of a point A, where AB is the diameter of a circle whose centre is (2, -3) and B is (1, 4).
Answer:

Given:
A circle with centre ‘C’ (2, -3). \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) is a diameter where
B = (1, 4); A = (x, y).
C is the midpoint of AB.
[∵ Centre of a circle is the midpoint of the diameter]

4 = x + 1 and – 6 = y + 4
⇒ x = 4 – 1 = 3 and y = -6 – 4 = -10
A (x, y) = (3, -10)

Question 6.
If A and B are (-2, -2) and (2, -4) respectively. Find the coordinates of P such that AP = \(\frac{3}{7}\) AB and P lies on the segment AB.
Answer:
Given: A (- 2, – 2) and B (2, – 4)
P lies on AB such that AP = latex]\frac{3}{7}[/latex] AB

i.e., P divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) in the ratio 3 : 4 By section formula,

Question 7.
Find the coordinates of points which divide the line segment joining A (-4, 0) and B (0, 6) into four equal parts.
Answer:
Given, A (- 4, 0) and B (0, 6).
Let P, Q and R be the points which divide AB into four equal parts.

P divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) in the ratio 1 : 3, Q → 1 : 1 and R → 3 : 1 Use section formula to find P, Q and R.
Then, Q is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
P is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{AQ}}\)
R is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{QB}}\)

Question 8.
Find the coordinates of the points which divides the line segment joining A(-2, 2) and B(2, 8) into four equal parts.
Answer:
Given, A (- 2, 2) and B (2, 8).
Let P, Q and R be the points which divide AB into four equal parts.

Then, Q is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
P is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{AQ}}\)
R is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{QB}}\)

Question 9.
Find the coordinates of the point which divide the line segment joining the points (a + b, a-b) and (a-b, a + b) in the ratio 3 : 2 internally.
Answer:
Given : A (a + b, a – b) and B (a – b, a + b).
Let P (x, y) divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) in the ratio 3 : 2 internally.
Section formula

Question 10.
Find the coordinates of centroid of the triangle with following vertices:
i) (-1, 3), (6, -3) and (-3, 6)
Answer:
Given: △ABC in which- A (- 1, 3), B (6, -3) and C (-3, 6)

ii) (6, 2), (0, 0) and (4, -7)
Answer:
Given: The three vertices of a triangle are A (6, 2), B (0, 0) and C (4, – 7).
Centroid (x, y)

iii) (1,-1), (0, 6) and (-3, 0)
Answer:
Given: (1, -1), (0, 6) and (-3, 0) are the vertices of a triangle.
Centroid (x, y)

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 5 Quadratic Equations Ex 5.2 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 5th Lesson Quadratic Equations Exercise 5.2

10th Class Maths 5th Lesson Quadratic Equations Ex 5.2 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the roots of the following quadratic equations by factorisation,
i) x² – 3x – 10 = 0
Answer:
Given: x² – 3x – 10 = 0
x² – 5x + 2x- 10 = 0
⇒ x(x – 5) + 2 (x – 5) = 0
⇒ (x – 5) (x + 2) = 0
⇒ x – 5 = 0 or x + 2 = 0
⇒ x = 5 or x = -2
⇒ x = 5 or -2
are the roots of the given Q.E.

ii) 2x² + x – 6 = 0
Answer:
Given: 2x² + x – 6 = 0
⇒ 2x² + 4x – 3x – 6 = 0
⇒ 2x(x + 2) – 3(x + 2) = 0
⇒ (x + 2) (2x – 3) = 0
⇒ (x + 2) or 2x – 3 = 0
⇒ x = -2 or 2x = 3
⇒ x = -2 or \(\frac{3}{2}\)
are the roots of the given Q.E.

iii) √2x² + 7x + 5√2 =0
Answer:
Given: √2x² + 7x + 5√2 =0
⇒ √2x² + 5x + 2x + 5√2 = 0
⇒ x(√2x + 5)+ √2(√2x + 5) = 0
⇒ (√2x + 5) (x + √2) = 0
⇒ √2x + 5 = 0 or x + √2 = 0
⇒ √2x = -5 or x = -√2
⇒ x = \(\frac{-5}{\sqrt{2}}\) = or -√2
are the roots of √2 the given Q.E.

iv) 2x² – x + \(\frac{1}{8}\) = 0
Answer:
Given: 2x² – x + \(\frac{1}{8}\) = 0
⇒ \(\frac{16 x^{2}-8 x+1}{8}\) = 0
⇒ 16x² – 8x + 1 =0
⇒ 16x² – 4x – 4x + 1 = 0
⇒ 4x(4x – 1) – l(4x – 1) = 0
⇒ (4x – 1) (4x – 1) – 0
⇒ 4x – 1 = 0
⇒ 4x = l
⇒ x = \(\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{4}\)
are the roots of given Q.E.

v) 100x² – 20x + 1 = 0
Answer:
Given : 100x² – 20x + 1 =0
⇒ 100x² – 10x – 10x + 1 = 0
⇒ 10x(10x – 1) – l(10x – 1) = 0
⇒ (10x – 1) (10x – l) = 0
⇒ 10x – 1 = 0
⇒ 10x = 1
⇒ x = \(\frac{1}{10}\), \(\frac{1}{10}\)
are the roots of the given Q.E.

vi) x(x + 4) = 12
Answer:
Given: x(x + 4) = 12
⇒ x² + 4x = 12
⇒ x² + 4x – 12 = 0
⇒ x² + 6x – 2x – 12 = 0
⇒ x(x + 6) – 2(x + 6) = 0
⇒ (x + 6) (x – 2) = 0
⇒ x + 6 = 0 or x – 2 = 0
⇒ x = -6 or x = 2
⇒ x = -6 or 2
are the roots of the given Q.E.

vii) 3x² – 5x + 2 = 0
Answer:
Given: 3x² – 5x + 2 = 0
⇒ 3x² – 3x – 2x + 2 = 0
⇒ 3x(x – 1) – 2(x – 1) = 0
⇒ (x – 1) (3x – 2) = 0
⇒ x – 1 = 0 or 3x – 2 = 0
⇒ x = 1 or \(\frac{2}{3}\),
⇒ x = 1 or \(\frac{2}{3}\) are the roots of the given Q.E.

viii) x – \(\frac{3}{x}\) = 2
Answer:
Given: x – \(\frac{3}{x}\) = 2
⇒ \(\frac{x^{2}-3}{x}\) = 2
⇒ x² – 3 = 2x
⇒ x² – 2x – 3 = 0
⇒ x² – 3x + x – 3 = 0
⇒ x(x – 3) + l(x – 3) = 0
⇒ (x – 3) (x + 1) = 0
⇒ (x – 3) = 0 or (x + 1) = 0
⇒ x = 3 or x = -1
⇒ x = 3 or -1 are the roots of the given Q.E.

ix) 3(x – 4)² – 5(x – 4) = 12
Answer:
Take (x – 4) = a, then the given Q.E. reduces to 3a² – 5a = 12
⇒ 3a² – 5a – 12 = 0
⇒ 3a² – 9a + 4a – 12 = 0
⇒ 3a(a – 3) + 4(a – 3) = 0
⇒ (a – 3) (3a + 4) = 0
⇒ a – 3 = 0 or 3a + 4 = 0
⇒ a = 3 or a = \(\frac{-4}{3}\)
but a = x – 4
x – 4 = 3 (or) x – 4 = \(\frac{-4}{3}\)
⇒ x = 7 or x = 4 – \(\frac{-4}{3}\) = \(\frac{8}{3}\)
∴ x = 7 or \(\frac{8}{3}\)
are the roots of the given Q.E.

Question 2.
Find two numbers whose sum is 27 and product is 182.
Answer:
Let a number be x.
Then the other number = 27 – x
Product of the numbers = x(27 – x) = 27x – x²
By problem 27x – x² = 182
⇒ x² – 27x + 182 = 0
⇒ x² – 14x – 13x + 182 = 0
⇒ x(x- 14) – 13(x – 14) = 0
⇒ (x – 13) (x – 14) = 0
⇒ x – 13 = 0 or x – 14 = 0
⇒ x = 13 or 14.
∴ The numbers are 13; 27 – 13 = 14 or 14 and 27 – 14 = 13.

Question 3.
Find two consecutive positive integers, sum of whose squares is 613.
Answer:
Let a positive integer be x.
Then the second integer = x + 1
Sum of the squares of the above integers = x² + (x + 1)²
= x² + x² + 2x + 1
= 2x² + 2x + 1
By problem 2x² + 2x + 1 = 613
⇒ 2x² + 2x – 612 = 0
⇒ x² + x – 306 = 0
⇒ x² + 18x – 17x – 306 = 0
⇒ x(x + 18) – 17(x + 18) = 0
⇒ (x – 17) (x + 18) = 0
⇒ x – 17 = 0 (or) x + 18 = 0
⇒ x = 17 (or) -18,
we do not consider -18
Then the numbers are (17, 17 + 1)
i.e., 17, 18 are the required two consecutive positive integers.

Question 4.
The altitude of a right triangle is 7 cm less than its base. If the hypotenuse is 13 cm, find the other two sides.
Answer:
Let the base of the right triangle = x cm
Then its altitude = x – 7 cm
By Pythagoras Theorem

(base)² + (height)² = (hypotenuse)²
⇒ x² + (x – 7)² = 13²
⇒ x² + x² – 14x + 49 = 169 .
⇒ 2x² – 14x + 49 – 169 = 0
⇒ 2x² – 14x – 120 = 0
⇒ x² – 7x – 60 = 0
⇒ x² – 12x + 5x – 60 = 0
⇒ x(x – 12) + 5(x – 12) = 0
⇒ (x – 12) (x + 5) = 0
⇒ x – 12 = 0 (or) x + 5 = 0
⇒ x = 12 (or) x = -5 But x can’t be negative.
∴ x = 12
x – 7 = 12 – 7 = 5
The two sides are 12 cm and 5 cm.

Question 5.
A cottage industry produces a certain number of pottery articles in a day. It was observed on a particular day that the cost of production of each article (in rupees) was 3 more than twice the number of articles produced on that day. If the total cost of production on that day was Rs. 90, find the number of articles produced and the cost of each article.
Answer:
Let the number of articles produced be x.
Then the cost of each article = 2x + 3
Total cost of the articles produced = x [2x + 3] = 2x² + 3x
By problem 2x² + 3x = 90
⇒ 2x² + 3x – 90 = 0
⇒ 2x² + 15x – 12x – 90 = 0
⇒ x (2x + 15) – 6 (2x + 15) = 0
⇒ (2x + 15) (x – 6) = 0
⇒ 2x + 15 = 0 (or) x – 6 = 0
⇒ x = \(\frac{-15}{2}\) or x = 6
But x can’t be negative.
∴ x = 6
2x + 3 = 2 × 6 + 3 = 15
∴ Number of articles produced = 6 Cost of each article = Rs. 15.

Question 6.
Find the dimensions of a rectangle whose perimeter is 28 meters and whose area is 40 square meters.
Answer:
Let the length of the rectangle = x
Given perimeter = 2(1 + b) = 28
⇒ (1 + b) = \(\frac{28}{2}\) = 14
Breadth of the rectangle = 14 – x
Area = length . breadth = x (14 – x)
= 14x – x²
By problem, 14x – x² = 40.
⇒ x² – 14x + 40 = 0
⇒ x² – 10x – 4x + 40 = 0
⇒ x(x – 10) – 4(x – 10) = 0
⇒ (x – 10) (x – 4) = 0
⇒ x – 10 = 0 (or) x – 4 = 0
⇒ x = 10 (or) 4
∴ Length = 10 m or 4 m
Then breadth = 14 – 10 = 4 m (or) 14 – 4 = 10 m

Question 7.
The base of a triangle is 4 cm longer than its altitude. If the area of the triangle is 48 sq.cm, then find its base and altitude.
Answer:
Let the altitude of the triangle h = x cm
Then its base ‘b’ = x + 4.
Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × base × height
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)(x + 4)(x)
= \(\frac{x^{2}+4 x}{2}\)
By problem \(\frac{x^{2}+4 x}{2}\) = 48
⇒ x² + 4x = 2 × 48
⇒ x² + 4x – 96 = 0
⇒ x² + 12x – 8x – 96 = 0
⇒ x(x + 12) – 8(x + 12) = 0
⇒ (x + 12)(x – 8) = 0
⇒ x + 12 = 0 (or) x – 8 = 0
⇒ x = -12 (or) x = 8
But x can’t be negative.
∴ x = 8 and x + 4 = 8 + 4 = 12
Hence altitude = 8 cm and base = 12 cm.

Question 8.
Two trains leave a railway station at the same time. The first train travels towards west and the second train towards north. The first train travels 5 km/hr faster than the second train. If after two hours they are 50 km. apart, find the average speed of each train.
Answer:
Let the speed of the slower train = x kmph
Then speed of the faster train = x + 5 kmph.

Distance = Speed × Time
Distance travelled by the first train = 2(x + 5) = 2x + 10
Distance travelled by the second train = 2.x = 2x
By Pythagoras Theorem
(hypotenuse)² = (side)² + (side)²
⇒ (2x)² + (2x + 10)2² = 50²
⇒ 4x² + (4x² + 40x + 100) = 2500
⇒ 4x² + 4x² + 40x + 100 = 2500
⇒ 8x² + 40x – 2400 = 0
⇒ x² + 5x – 300 = 0
⇒ x² + 20x – 15x – 300 = 0
⇒ x (x + 20) – 15 (x + 20) = 0
⇒ (x + 20) (x – 15) = 0
∴ x – 15 = 0 (or) x + 20 = 0
⇒ x = 15 (or) – 20
But x can’t be negative.
∴ Speed of the slower train x = 15 kmph.
Speed of the faster train x + 5 = 15 + 5 = 20 kmph.

Question 9.
In a class of 60 students, each boy contributed rupees equal to the number of girls and each girl contributed rupees equal to the number of boys. If the total money then collected was Rs. 1600, how many boys are there in the class?
Answer:
Let the number of boys in the class = x
Then number of girls in the class = 60 – x [∵ total students = 60]
Money contributed by the boys = x(60 – x) = 60x – x² [∵ given]
Money contributed by the girls = (60 – x)x = 60x – x²
∴ Money contributed by the class = 120x – 2x²
By problem 120x -2x² = 1600
⇒ 2x²– 120x + 1600 = 0
⇒ x² – 60x + 800 = 0
⇒ x² – 40x – 20x + 800 = 0
⇒ x(x – 40) – 20 (x – 40) = 0
⇒ (x – 40) (x – 20) = 0
⇒ x = 40 (or) 20
∴ Boys = 40 or 20 Girls = 20 or 40.

Question 10.
A motor boat heads upstream a distance of 24 km on a river whose current is running at 3 km per hour. The trip up and back takes 6 hours. Assuming that the motor boat maintained a constant speed, what was its speed ?
Answer:
Let the speed of the boat in still water be x kmph.
Speed of the current = 3 kmph
Then speed of the boat in upstream = (x – 3) kmph
Speed of the boat in downstream = (x + 3) kmph
By problem total time taken = 6h.

⇒ 24(2x) = 6(x² – 9)
⇒ 8x = x² – 9
⇒ x² – 8x – 9 = 0
⇒ x² – 9x + x-9 = 0
⇒ x (x – 9) + 1 (x – 9) = 6
⇒ (x – 9) (x + 1) = 0
⇒ x – 9 = 0 or x + 1 = 0
x can’t be negative,
∴ x = 9
i.e., speed of the boat in still water = 9 kmph.