Class 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 14 Statistics Ex 14.2 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 14th Lesson Statistics Exercise 14.2

10th Class Maths 14th Lesson Statistics Ex 14.2 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The following table shows the ages of the patients admitted in a hospital during a year:

Find the mode and the mean of the data given above. Compare and interpret the two measures of central tendency.
Answer:
Maximum number of patients joined in the age group 35 – 45.
∴ Modal class is 35 – 45.
Lower limit of the modal class ‘l’ = 35
Class size h = 10
Frequency of modal class, f₁ = 23
Frequency of the class preceding the modal class f₀ = 21
Frequency of the class succeeding the modal class f₂ = 14

∴ Mode = \(l+\frac{\left(f_{1}-f_{0}\right)}{2 f_{1}-f_{0}-f_{2}} \times h\)
\(\begin{array}{l}
=35+\left(\frac{23-21}{2 \times 23-21-14}\right) \times 10 \\
=35+\left(\frac{2}{46-35}\right) \times 10
\end{array}\)
= 35 + \(\frac{2}{11}\) × 10
= 35 + 1.81818……
= 36.8 years.
Mean x = \(\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}}}\)
= \(\frac{2830}{80}\)
= 35.37 years.
Interpretation: Mode age is 36.8 years, Mean age = 35.37 years.
Maximum number of patients admitted in the hospital are of the age 36.8 years, while on an average the age of patients admitted to the hospital is 35.37 years. Mode is less than the Mean.

Question 2.
The following data gives the information on the observed lifetimes (in hours) of 225 electrical components:

Determine the modal lifetimes of the components.
Answer:

Since the maximum frequency 61 is in the class 60 – 80, this is the required modal class.
Modal class frequency, f₁ = 61.
Frequency of the class preceding the modal class f₀ = 52
Frequency of the class succeeding the modal class f₂ = 38
Lower boundary of the modal class, l = 60
Height of the class, h = 20
∴ Mode (Z) = \(l+\frac{\left(f_{1}-f_{0}\right)}{2 f_{1}-f_{0}-f_{2}} \times h\)
\(=60+\left[\frac{61-52}{2 \times 61-(52+38)}\right] \times 20\)
= 60 + \(\frac{9}{122-90}\) × 20
= 60 + \(\frac{9}{32}\) × 20
= 60 + 5.625
= 65.625 hours.

Question 3.
The following data gives the distribution of total monthly household expenditure of 200 families of a village. Find the modal monthly expenditure of the families. Also, find the mean monthly expenditure:

Answer:

Since the maximum families 40 lies in the class 1500 – 2000, this is the required modal class.
Lower boundary of the modal class (l) = 1500
Frequency of the modal class (f₁) = 40
Frequency of the class preceding the modal class f₀ = 24
Frequency of the class succeeding the modal class f₂ = 33
Height of the class, h = 500
Hence, modal monthly income = Rs. 1847.83.
Assumed mean (a) = 3250
∑f_i = 200, ∑u_if_i = -235
Mean monthly income = \(\overline{\mathrm{x}}=\mathrm{a}+\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{u}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}}} \times \mathrm{h}\)
= 3250 – \(\frac{235}{200}\) × 500
= 3250 – 587.5
= Rs. 2662.50

Question 4.
The following distribution gives the state-wise, teacher-student ratio in higher secondary schools of India. Find the mode and mean of this data. Interpret the two measures.

Answer:

Since the maximum number of states ‘10’ lies in the class interval 30-35, this is the modal class.
Lower boundary of the modal class, l = 30
Frequency of the modal class, f₁ = 10
Frequency of the class preceding the modal class = f₀ = 9
Frequency of the class succeeding the modal class = f₂ = 3
Height of the class, h = 5
∴ Mode (Z) = \(l+\left(\frac{\mathrm{f}_{1}-\mathrm{f}_{0}}{\left(\mathrm{f}_{1}-\mathrm{f}_{0}\right)+\left(\mathrm{f}_{1}-\mathrm{f}_{2}\right)}\right) \times \mathrm{h}\)
\(=30+\frac{10-9}{(10-9)+(10-3)} \times 5\)
= 30 + \(\frac{1×5}{1+7}\)
= 30 + \(\frac{5}{8}\)
= 30 + 0.625
= 30.625
Mean \(\overline{\mathrm{x}}=\mathrm{a}+\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{u}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}}} \times \mathrm{h}\)
a = assumed mean = 32.5; h = height of the class = 5
∴ x = 32.5 – \(\frac{23}{35}\) × 5
= 32.5 – 3.28
= 29.22
Mean = 30.625
Mode = 29.22
Mode states have a students – teacher ratio 29.22 and on an average this ratio is 30.625.

Question 5.
The given distribution shows the number of runs scored by some top batsmen of the world in one-day international cricket matches.

Find the mode of the data.
Answer:

Maximum number of batsmen are in the class 4000 – 5000.
∴ Modal class is 4000 – 5000.
Lower boundary of the modal class ‘l’ = 4000
Frequency of the modal class, f₁ = 18
Frequency of the class preceding the modal class, f₀ = 4
Frequency of the class succeeding the modal class, f₂ = 9
Height of the class, h = 1000
Mode (Z) = \(l+\left(\frac{\mathrm{f}_{1}-\mathrm{f}_{0}}{\left(\mathrm{f}_{1}-\mathrm{f}_{0}\right)+\left(\mathrm{f}_{1}-\mathrm{f}_{2}\right)}\right) \times \mathrm{h}\)
Mode (Z) = \(4000+\frac{18-4}{(18-4)+(18-9)} \times 1000\)
= 4000 + \(\frac{14}{14+9}\) × 1000
= 4000 + \(\frac{14000}{23}\)
= 4000 + 608.695
= 4608.69
≃ 4608.7 runs

Question 6.
A student noted the number of cars passing through a spot on a road for 100 periods, each of 3 minutes, and summarised this in the table given below.

Find the mode of the data.
Answer:

Since the maximum frequency is 20, the modal class is 40 – 50.
Lower boundary of the modal class ‘l’ = 40
Frequency of the modal class, f₁ = 20
Frequency of the class preceding the modal class, f₀ = 12
Frequency of the class succeeding the modal class, f₂ = 11
Height of the class, h = 10;
Mode (Z) = \(l+\left(\frac{\mathrm{f}_{1}-\mathrm{f}_{0}}{\left(\mathrm{f}_{1}-\mathrm{f}_{0}\right)+\left(\mathrm{f}_{1}-\mathrm{f}_{2}\right)}\right) \times \mathrm{h}\)
Mode (Z) = \(40+\frac{(20-12)}{(20-12)+(20-11)} \times 10\)
= 40 + \(\frac{8}{8+9}\) × 10
= 40 + \(\frac{80}{17}\)
= 40 + 4.70588
= 44.705
≃ 44.7 cars

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Telugu Solutions 10th Class Telugu Grammar Questions and Answers, Notes.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Telugu Grammar Questions and Answers

సమాపక – అసమాపక క్రియలు

ఈ కింది వాక్యాలలోని క్రియలను గమనించండి.
1) ఉదయ్ భోజనం చేసి సినిమాకు వెళ్ళాడు.
2) వైష్ణవి పుస్తకం చదివి నిద్రపోయింది.
3) అరుణ్ చిత్రాలు గీసి ప్రదర్శనకు పెట్టాడు.

అ) సమాపక క్రియలు :
పై వాక్యాలలో ప్రతివాక్యం చివర ఉన్న వెళ్ళాడు, పెట్టాడు వంటి క్రియలు, పని పూర్తి అయ్యిందని తెలుపుతున్నాయి. వీటిని సమాపక క్రియలు అంటారు.

అసమాపక క్రియలు :
వాక్యం మధ్యలో ఉన్న ‘చేసి’, ‘గీసి’, ‘చదివి’ – అన్న క్రియలు పని పూర్తికాలేదని తెలుపుతున్నాయి. వీటిని అసమాపక క్రియలు అంటారు.

ఇ) అసమాపక క్రియా – భేదాలు
1) క్వార్ధకం : (భూతకాలిక అసమాపక క్రియ)
భాస్కర్ ఆట ఆడి, అలసిపోయి ఇంటికి వచ్చాడు. ఈ వాక్యంలో ‘భాస్కర్’ అనేది కర్త. ‘వచ్చాడు’ అనేది కర్తృ వాచకానికి చెందిన ప్రధాన క్రియ.

ఇక ఆడి, అలసి అనేవి కర్తృవాచక పదానికి చెందిన ఇతర క్రియలు. ఆడి, అలసి అనేవి క్రియలే కాని, వాటితో పూర్తి భావం తెలియడం లేదు. ఆడి, అలసిపోయి అనే క్రియల తర్వాత, “ఏమి చేస్తాడు ?” అనే ప్రశ్న వస్తోంది. ఆడి, అలసిపోయి అనే క్రియలు, భూతకాలంలోని పనిని సూచిస్తున్నాయి. వీటిని భూతకాలిక అసమాపక క్రియలనీ, ‘క్త్వార్థకం’ అని పిలుస్తారు.

ఈ క్రియలన్నీ ‘ఇ’ కారంతో అంతమవుతాయి. అంటే చివర – ‘ఇ’ అనే ప్రత్యయం చేరిన క్రియారూపం ‘క్వార్థం’.
ఉదాహరణలు :
పుష్ప అన్నం తిని నిద్రపోయింది. ఇందులో ‘తిని’ అనేది “క్వార్ధకం” (అసమాపక క్రియ).

2) శత్రర్థకం: (వర్తమాన అసమాపక క్రియ)
అఖిలేశ్ మధుకర్‌తో ‘మాట్లాడుతూ’ నడుస్తున్నాడు. ఈ వాక్యంలో ‘నడుస్తున్నాడు’ అనే ప్రధానక్రియకు, ‘మాట్లాడుతూ’ అనే ఉపక్రియ వర్తమాన కాలంలో ఉండి, అసమాపక క్రియను సూచిస్తుంది.

ఈ విధంగా ‘మాట్లాడు’ అనే ధాతువుకు ‘తూ’ అనే ప్రత్యయం చేరుతున్నది. ఇలా చేరడం వల్ల వర్తమాన అసమాపక క్రియగా మారుతుంది. వర్తమాన అసమాపక క్రియను ‘శత్రర్థకం’ అంటారు.
ఉదా :
1) జ్యోతిర్మయి కంప్యూటర్ లో ఏదో చదువుతూ ముఖ్యాంశాలు రాసుకుంది.
2) మాధవి ఆలోచిస్తూ పుస్తకం చదువుతున్నది.

గమనిక : పై వాక్యాలలో 1) చదువుతూ 2) ఆలోచిస్తూ అనేవి శత్రర్థకాలు.

3) చేదర్థకం :
(ధాతువుకు తే, ఐతే అనే ప్రత్యయాలు చేరతాయి.) కింది వాక్యం చదవండి.
“కష్టపడి పనిచేస్తే ఫలితం దానంతట అదే వస్తుంది.”

పై వాక్యంలో ప్రధాన క్రియ ‘వస్తుంది’ – ఇది ఫలితాన్ని సూచిస్తుంది. ఈ ఫలితం రావాలంటే షరతును విధించడానికి చేర్చే అసమాపక క్రియ, చేస్తే ఇది కారణం. అది కార్యం. ఈ విధంగా సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యాల్లో ప్రధాన క్రియ సూచించే పని జరగటానికి షరతును సూచించే క్రియను ‘చేదర్థకం’ అంటారు. చేత్ అర్థాన్ని ఇచ్చేది – చేదర్థకం. వీటిలో ధాతువుకు తే, ఐతే అనే ప్రత్యయాలు చేరతాయి.
ఉదా :
మొక్కలు నాటితే అవి పర్యావరణానికి మేలు చేస్తాయి.

అభ్యాసం :
ఈ కింది వాక్యంలోని అసమాపక క్రియలను రాయండి.
1) రమ రోడ్డు మీద ఉన్న ఒక కాగితం ముక్కను తీసి దగ్గరలో ఉన్న చెత్తకుండీలో వేసి మళ్ళీ సైకిలెక్కి వెళ్ళిపోయింది.
జవాబు:
తీసి, వేసి, ఎక్కి అనేవి ‘క్వార్ధకం’ అనే అసమాపక క్రియలు.

అ) తద్ధర్మ క్రియలు :
ఒక వస్తువు స్వభావాన్నీ , ధర్మాన్నీ తెలిపే క్రియలనూ, నిత్య సత్యాలను తెలిపే వాటినీ, ‘తధ్ధర్మ క్రియలు’ అంటారు.
ఉదా :
1) సూర్యుడు తూర్పున ఉదయిస్తాడు.
2) సూర్యుడు పడమట అస్తమిస్తాడు.
3) పక్షి ఆకాశంలో ఎగురుతుంది.

ప్రశ్నా వాక్యాలు :
ఎప్పుడు, ఎక్కడ, ఎందుకు, ఎవరు, ఏమిటి అనే పదాలను ఉపయోగించి, ప్రశ్నార్థక వాక్యాలు తయారుచేయవచ్చునని మీకు తెలుసు. వాక్యం చివరలో ‘ఆ’ అనే ప్రత్యయాన్ని చేర్చి కూడా ప్రశ్నా వాక్యంగా మార్చవచ్చు.
ఉదా :
1) మీరు బడికి వెళతారా?
2) దైన్య స్థితిని చూస్తారా?

అభ్యాసం :
కింది వాటిని జతపరచండి.

జవాబు:

ఐచ్ఛిక సమాధాన ప్రశ్నలు

1) భూతకాలిక అసమాపక క్రియను ఏమంటారు?
A) చేదర్థకం
B) శత్రర్థకం
C) క్వార్థకం
D) అనుమత్యర్థకం
జవాబు:
C) క్వార్థకం

2) కవిత గ్రంథాలయానికి వెళ్ళి పుస్తకాలు తెచ్చింది. గీత గీసిన పదం ఏ ప్రక్రియకు చెందినది?
A) క్వార్థకం
B) శత్రర్థకం
C) చేదర్థకం
D) ఆశీరార్థకం
జవాబు:
A) క్వార్థకం

3) వర్తమాన అసమాపక క్రియను ఏమంటారు?
A) క్వార్థకం
B) శత్రర్థకము
C) చేదర్థకం
D) అభ్యర్థకం
జవాబు:
B) శత్రర్థకము

4) షరతును విధించడానికి చేర్చే అసమాపక క్రియ ఏది?
A) చేదర్థకం
B) క్వార్థకం
C) శత్రర్థకం
D) విధ్యర్థకం
జవాబు:
A) చేదర్థకం

5) ధాతువుకు తే, ఐతే అనే ప్రత్యయాలు చేరే అసమాపక క్రియను ఇలా పిలుస్తారు?
A) క్వార్థకం
B) చేదర్థకం
C) శత్రర్థకం
D) నిషేధార్థకం
జవాబు:
B) చేదర్థకం

6) శత్రర్థక క్రియను గుర్తించండి.
A) చేసి
B) చేయక
C) చేయుచున్
D) చేస్తే
జవాబు:
C) చేయుచున్

వాక్య భేదాలు

వాక్యాలు మూడు రకాలు :
1) సామాన్య వాక్యం
2) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం
3) సంయుక్త వాక్యం

1) ఉష పాఠం చదువుతున్నది.
2) మురళి మంచి బాలుడు.

1) సామాన్య వాక్యం :
గమనిక : మొదటి వాక్యంలో క్రియ ఉంది. రెండో వాక్యంలో క్రియ లేదు. ఈ విధంగా క్రియ ఉన్నా, లేకున్నా, ఒకే ఒక్క భావాన్ని ప్రకటించే వాక్యాలను సామాన్య వాక్యాలు అంటారు.

2) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం :
ఈ కింది సామాన్య వాక్యాలను కలిపి రాయండి.
ఉదా :
1) శ్రీకాంత్ అన్నం తిన్నాడు.
2) శ్రీకాంత్ బడికి వచ్చాడు.
జవాబు:
శ్రీకాంత్ అన్నం తిని, బడికి వచ్చాడు. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

గమనిక :
పై వాక్యాలను కలిపినపుడు ఒక సమాపక క్రియ, ఒకటిగాని అంతకంటే ఎక్కువగాని అసమాపక క్రియలు ఉంటాయి. ఇటువంటి వాక్యాలను ‘సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యాలు’ అంటారు.

3) సంయుక్త వాక్యం :
సమ ప్రాధాన్యం కల వాక్యాలను కలపడం వల్ల ఏర్పడే వాక్యాలను ‘సంయుక్త వాక్యాలు’ అంటారు.
ఉదా :
1) సీత చదువుతుంది, పాడుతుంది.
2) అతడు నటుడు, రచయిత.
3) అశ్విని, జ్యోతి అక్కాచెల్లెండ్రు.

సామాన్య వాక్యాలు :
అ) రాజు అన్నం తిన్నాడు.
ఆ) గోపి పరీక్ష రాశాడు.
ఇ) గీత బడికి వెళ్ళింది.

గమనిక :
పై వాక్యాల్లో తిన్నాడు, రాశాడు, వెళ్ళింది అనే క్రియలు సమాపక క్రియలు. ప్రతి వాక్యంలో ఒకే సమాపక క్రియ ఉంది. ఇలా ఒకే సమాపక క్రియ ఉంటే, ఆ వాక్యాలను “సామాన్య వాక్యాలు’ అంటారు.

కొన్ని సామాన్య వాక్యాలు క్రియ లేకుండా కూడా ఉంటాయి.
ఉదా :
హైదరాబాదు మన రాష్ట్ర రాజధాని.

సామాన్య వాక్యాలు :
గీత బజారుకు వెళ్ళింది. గీత కూరగాయలు కొన్నది.

గమనిక :
పై సామాన్య వాక్యాలలో రెంటిలోనూ ‘గీత’ అనే నామవాచకం ఉంది. ఈ విధంగా తిరిగి చెప్పబడిన నామవాచకాన్ని తొలగించి, మొదటి వాక్యంలోని ‘వెళ్ళింది’ లోని క్రియను ‘వెళ్ళి’ అనే అసమాపక క్రియగా మార్చి రాస్తే సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం ఏర్పడుతుంది.

సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం ఉదా : గీత బజారుకు వెళ్ళి కూరగాయలు కొన్నది. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం )

అభ్యాసం :
కింది సామాన్య వాక్యాల్ని సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యాలుగా మార్చి రాయండి.

అ) విమల వంట చేస్తుంది. విమల పాటలు వింటుంది. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)
జవాబు:
విమల వంట చేస్తూ పాటలు వింటుంది. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం )

ఆ) అమ్మ నిద్ర లేచింది. అమ్మ ముఖం కడుక్కుంది. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)
జవాబు:
అమ్మ నిద్రలేచి ముఖం కడుక్కుంది. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం )

అభ్యాసం :
కింది సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యాలను, సామాన్య వాక్యాలుగా మార్చి రాయండి.

1) తాత భారతం చదివి నిద్రపోయాడు. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం )
జవాబు:
తాత భారతం చదివాడు. తాత నిద్రపోయాడు. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)

2) చెట్లు పూత పూస్తే కాయలు కాస్తాయి. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
చెట్లు పూత పూయాలి. చెట్లు కాయలు కాయాలి. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)

3) రాముడు నడుచుకుంటూ వెళ్ళి తన ఊరు చేరాడు. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
రాముడు నడుచుకుంటూ వెళ్ళాడు. రాముడు తన ఊరు చేరాడు. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)

అభ్యాసం :
కింది సామాన్య వాక్యాలను, సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యాలుగా మార్చి రాయండి.
ఉదా :
1) శర్వాణి పాఠం చదివింది. శర్వాణి నిద్రపోయింది. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)
జవాబు:
శర్వాణి పాఠం చదివి నిద్రపోయింది. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం )

2) మహతి ఆట ఆడింది. మహతి అన్నం తిన్నది. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)
జవాబు:
మహతి ఆట ఆడి అన్నం తిన్నది. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

3) నారాయణ అన్నం తింటాడు. నారాయణ నీళ్లు తాగుతాడు. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)
జవాబు:
నారాయణ అన్నం తింటూ నీళ్లు తాగుతాడు. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

అభ్యాసం :
కింది సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యాలను, సామాన్య వాక్యాలుగా మార్చి రాయండి.
ఉదా :
1) శరత్ ఇంటికి వచ్చి అన్నం తిన్నాడు. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
శరత్ ఇంటికి వచ్చాడు. శరత్ అన్నం తిన్నాడు. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)

2) రజియా పాటపాడుతూ ఆడుకుంటున్నది. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
రజియా పాట పాడుతుంది. రజియా ఆడుకుంటున్నది. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)

సంయుక్త వాక్యం:
కింది వాక్యాలను గమనించండి.
విమల తెలివైనది. విమల అందమైనది – విమల తెలివైనది, అందమైనది.
ఇలా రెండు సామాన్య వాక్యాలు కలిసి, ఒకే వాక్యంగా ఏర్పడటాన్ని సంయుక్త వాక్యం అంటారు.
సంయుక్త వాక్యాలుగా మారేటప్పుడు వచ్చే మార్పులు :

అ) వనజ చురుకైనది. వనజ అందమైనది.
వనజ చురుకైనది, అందమైనది. (రెండు నామపదాల్లో ఒకటి లోపించడం)

ఆ) అజిత అక్క. శైలజ చెల్లెలు.
అజిత, శైలజ అక్కాచెల్లెళ్లు. (రెండు నామపదాలు ఒకచోట చేరి చివర బహువచనం చేరింది. )

ఇ) ఆయన డాక్టరా? ఆయన ప్రొఫెసరా?
ఆయన డాక్టరా? ప్రొఫెసరా? (రెండు సర్వనామాల్లో ఒకటి లోపించింది. )

అభ్యాసం :
కింది సామాన్య వాక్యాలను సంయుక్త వాక్యాలుగా మార్చి రాయండి.

1) ఆయన ఆంధ్రుడు. ఆయన కృష్ణా తీరమున పుట్టినవాడు. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)
జవాబు:
ఆయన ఆంధ్రుడు, కృష్ణా తీరమున పుట్టినవాడు. (సంయుక్త వాక్యం)

2) మోహన కూచిపూడి నృత్యం నేర్చుకొంది. భావన భరతనాట్యం నేర్చుకుంది. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)
జవాబు:
మోహన కూచిపూడి నృత్యం, భావన భరతనాట్యం నేర్చుకున్నారు. (సంయుక్త వాక్యం)

అభ్యాసం :
కింది సామాన్య వాక్యాలను సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యాలుగా మార్చి రాయండి.

1) చుక్క పొడుపుతో సీత లేచింది. సీత గడపను పూజించింది. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)
జవాబు:
సీత చుక్క పొడుపుతో లేచి గడపను పూజించింది. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

2) బంధుమిత్రులంతా వచ్చేశారు. కావలసిన సంభారాలు ఏర్పాటు చేసుకున్నారు. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)
జవాబు:
బంధుమిత్రులంతా వచ్చి కావలసిన సంభారాలు ఏర్పాటు చేసుకున్నారు. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

అభ్యాసం :
కింది సామాన్య వాక్యాలను సంయుక్త వాక్యాలుగా మార్చి రాయండి.

1) సీతక్క నిశ్చితార్థం జరిగింది. నాగయ్య సంబరపడ్డాడు. ఈ (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)
జవాబు:
సీతక్క నిశ్చితార్థం జరిగింది కాబట్టి నాగయ్య సంబరపడ్డాడు. (సంయుక్త వాక్యం)

2) సీతమ్మ పెళ్ళికి ఏర్పాటు చేశారు. సీతమ్మ పెండ్లి పెటాకులయ్యింది. (సామాన్య వాక్యాలు)
జవాబు:
సీతమ్మ పెళ్ళికి ఏర్పాటు చేశారు కాని పెండ్లి పెటాకులయ్యింది. (సంయుక్త వాక్యం)

సామాన్య వాక్యాలను సంయుక్త సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యాలుగా మార్పు

గమనిక :
గత పబ్లిక్ పరీక్షల్లో ఇచ్చిన కొన్ని వాక్యాలు (గమనించండి.)

1. ఈ కింది వాక్యాలను సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.
రాముడు అడవికి వెళ్ళెను. రాముడు తండ్రి మాట నెరవేర్చెను.
జవాబు:
రాముడు అడవికి వెళ్ళి, తండ్రి మాట నెరవేర్చెను. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

2. ఈ కింది సామాన్య వాక్యాలను, సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.
‘పద్మ గ్రంథాలయమునకు వెళ్ళింది. పద్మ పుస్తకము చదివింది.
జవాబు:
పద్మ గ్రంథాలయమునకు వెళ్ళి పుస్తకము చదివింది. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

3. పద్యం ఆనందాన్ని ఇస్తుంది. పద్యం మధురమైంది.
(పై సామాన్యవాక్యాలను సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యంగా మార్చండి)
జవాబు:
పద్యం మాధుర్యంగా ఉండి, ఆనందాన్ని ఇస్తుంది. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

4. ఈ కింది సామాన్యవాక్యాలను సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.
మంచి రచనలు వ్రాయండి. మంచి మెప్పు పొందండి.
జవాబు:
మంచి రచనలు వ్రాసి, మెప్పు పొందండి. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

5. ఈ కింది సామాన్య వాక్యాలను, సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.
శ్రీనివాస్ అన్నం తిన్నాడు. శ్రీనివాస్ బడికి వచ్చాడు
జవాబు:
శ్రీనివాస్ అన్నం తిని, బడికి వచ్చాడు. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

6. ఈ క్రింది సామాన్య వాక్యాలను, సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.
వేటకు సంబంధించిన పద్యం చదివాడు. తన భార్య కొరకు చూశాడు.
జవాబు:
వేటకు సంబంధించిన పద్యం చదివి, తన భార్య కొరకు చూశాడు. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

7. ఈ కింది సామాన్య వాక్యాలను, సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.
సుమన్ పాట పాడుతున్నాడు. సుమన్ స్నానం చేస్తున్నాడు.
జవాబు:
సుమన్ పాట పాడుతూ స్నానం చేస్తున్నాడు. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

8. ఈ కింది సామాన్య వాక్యాలను, సంయుక్త వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.
శ్రీరామశర్మ శ్రీరామభక్తుడు. శ్రీరామ శర్మ స్వయంగా పదకర్త.
జవాబు:
శ్రీరామశర్మ రామభక్తుడు మరియు స్వయంగా పదకర్త.

9. ఈ కింది సామాన్య వాక్యాలను, సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.
మేము కష్టపడి చదువుకుంటున్నాము. మేము ఎక్కువ మార్కులు పొందుతాము.
జవాబు:
మేము కష్టపడి చదువుకుంటూ ఎక్కువ మార్కులు పొందుతాము. (సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం)

10. ఈ కింది వాక్యాలను, సంయుక్త వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.
గుజ్రాన్ని చెరువు దగ్గరకు తీసుకువెళ్ళవచ్చు. గుర్రాన్ని నీరు త్రాగించలేము.
జవాబు:
గుబ్దాన్ని చెరువు దగ్గరకు తీసుకువెళ్ళవచ్చు. కాని, నీరు త్రాగించలేము.

11. ఈ సంవత్సరం వర్షాలు బాగా పడ్డాయి. ఈ సంవత్సరం పంటలు పండలేదు. (సంయుక్త వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.)
జవాబు:
ఈ సంవత్సరం వర్షాలు బాగా పడ్డాయి కాని పంటలు పండలేదు. (సంయుక్త వాక్యం)

12. వేసవికాలం వచ్చింది. మామిడిపండ్లు రాలేదు. (సంయుక్తవాక్యంగా మార్చండి)
జవాబు:
వేసవికాలం వచ్చింది కానీ మామిడిపండ్లు రాలేదు. (సంయుక్త వాక్యం)

13. కవిత బాగా పాటలు పాడింది. ఆమెకు బహుమతి రాలేదు. (సంయుక్త వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.)
జవాబు:
కవిత బాగా పాటలు పాడింది కాని బహుమతి రాలేదు. (సంయుక్త వాక్యం)

14. పశుబలంతో నాయకత్వాన్ని సాధింపవచ్చు. పశుబలంతో నాయకత్వాన్ని నిలబెట్టుకోలేం. (సంయుక్త వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.)
జవాబు:
పశుబలంతో నాయకత్వాన్ని సాధింపవచ్చు కాని నిలబెట్టుకోలేం. (సంయుక్త వాక్యం)

15. మా టీచరుకు నాపై ఎనలేని ప్రేమ ఉండేది. మా టీచరుకు నాపై ఎనలేని సానుభూతి ఉండేది. (సంయుక్త వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.)
జవాబు:
మా టీచరుకు నాపై ఎనలేని ప్రేమ, సానుభూతి ఉండేది. (సంయుక్త వాక్యం)

16. నా సైకిలు దొరికింది. దొంగ దొరకలేదు. (సంయుక్త వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.) .
జవాబు:
నా సైకిలు దొరికింది కాని దొంగ దొరకలేదు.

కర్తరి వాక్యాలు – కర్మణి వాక్యాలు

1) కింది వాక్యాలను పరిశీలించి మార్పులను గమనించండి.
అ) సంఘసంస్కర్తలు దురాచారాలను నిర్మూలించారు.
ఆ) సంఘసంస్కర్తల చేత దురాచారాలు నిర్మూలించబడ్డాయి.
గమనిక :
పై రెండు వాక్యాల అర్థం ఒక్కటే. కానీ వాక్య నిర్మాణంలో తేడా ఉంది. ఈ రెండు వాక్యాల మధ్య భేదం ఇది.
1) “సంఘసంస్కర్తలు దురాచారాలను నిర్మూలించారు.”

1) కర్తరి వాక్యం :
ఈ మొదటి వాక్యంలో కర్తకు ప్రాధాన్యం ఉంది. అంటే క్రియ కర్తను సూచిస్తుంది. కర్మకు ద్వితీయా విభక్తి చేరి ఉంది. ఇలాంటి వాక్యాన్ని ‘కర్తరి వాక్యం’ అంటారు.

2) సంఘసంస్కర్తల చేత దురాచారాలు నిర్మూలించబడ్డాయి. అనే రెండవ వాక్యంలో
1) కర్తకు తృతీయా విభక్తి ఉంది.
2) క్రియకు ‘బడు’ అనే ధాతువు చేరింది.
3) క్రియ – కర్మ ప్రధానంగా ఉంది.

2) కర్మణి వాక్యం :
వాక్యంలో క్రియకు ‘బడు’ ధాతువు చేరి, కర్తకు తృతీయా విభక్తి చేరే వాక్యాన్ని ‘కర్మణి వాక్యం’ అంటారు.

అభ్యాసం – 1 :
కింది కర్తరి వాక్యాలను కర్మణి వాక్యాలుగా రాయండి.

అ) వాల్మీకి రామాయణాన్ని రచించాడు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
వాల్మీకిచే రామాయణం రచింపబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

ఆ) ప్రజలు శాంతిని కోరుతున్నారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
ప్రజలచే శాంతి కోరబడుతోంది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

అభ్యాసం – 2 :
కింది కర్మణి వాక్యాలను కర్తరి వాక్యాలుగా రాయండి.

అ) లైబ్రరీ నుంచి తెచ్చిన పుస్తకం నా చేత చదువబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
లైబ్రరీ నుంచి తెచ్చిన పుస్తకం నేను చదివాను. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

ఆ) నాచే రచింపబడిన గ్రంథం, నేతాజీ చరిత్ర, (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
నేను రచించిన గ్రంథం, నేతాజీ చరిత్ర, (కర్తరి వాక్యం )

అభ్యాసం – 3 :
కింది కర్తరి వాక్యాలను కర్మణి వాక్యాలుగా రాయండి.
ఉదా :
ఆళ్వారుస్వామి చిన్నప్పుడే కథ రాశారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం )
జవాబు:
చిన్నప్పుడే ఆళ్వారు స్వామిచే కథ రాయబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

అ) లింగయ్య ఉసిరికాయ తీసి నాయకునికి ఇచ్చాడు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
ఉసిరికాయ తీసి లింగయ్య చేత నాయకునికి ఇవ్వబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

ఆ) నాయకులు పిల్లలతో అరగంట కాలం గడిపారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
పిల్లలతో నాయకులచేత అరగంట కాలం గడుపబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

ఇ) వాద్యాల చప్పుడు విన్నారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
వాద్యాల చప్పుడు వినబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

అభ్యాసం – 4 :
కింది కర్మణి వాక్యాలను కర్తరి వాక్యాలుగా రాయండి.

అ) గ్రామీణులచే నాయకులు ఎదుర్కొని తీసుకుపోబడ్డారు. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
గ్రామీణులు నాయకులను ఎదుర్కొని తీసుకుపోయారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

ఆ) కాయలన్నీ అతని ముందర పోయబడ్డాయి. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
కాయలు అతని ముందర పోశారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

ఇ) బాలురచే సెలవు తీసికోబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
బాలురు సెలవు తీసికొన్నారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

కర్తరి, కర్మణి వాక్యాలు – విశేషాలు

కర్తరి వాక్యం :
జిడ్డు కృష్ణమూర్తి గారు ఎన్నో మంచి విషయాలు చెప్పారు.

కర్మణి వాక్యం :
ఎన్నో మంచి విషయాలు జిడ్డు కృష్ణమూర్తి గారి చేత చెప్పబడ్డాయి.

గమనిక :
పై రెండు వాక్యాలలో కర్తరి వాక్యం మనకు సూటిగా అర్థం అవుతుంది. ఇది సహజంగా ఉంటుంది. కర్మణి వాక్యం చుట్టు తిప్పినట్లు ఉంటుంది. మన తెలుగుభాషలో వాడుకలో ప్రధానంగా కర్తరి వాక్యమే ఉంటుంది.

కర్మణి వాక్యప్రయోగాలు సంస్కృత భాషా ప్రభావం వల్ల తెలుగులోకి వచ్చాయి. ఇంగ్లీషు వాక్య పద్ధతి ఇలాగే ఉంటుంది.
1) కర్తరి వాక్యాన్ని ఇంగ్లీషులో యాక్టివ్ వాయిస్ (Active voice) అంటారు.
2) కర్మణి వాక్యాన్ని ఇంగ్లీషులో పాసివ్ వాయిస్ (Passive voice) అంటారు.

అభ్యాసం :
కింది కర్తరి వాక్యాలను కర్మణి వాక్యాలుగా మార్చి రాయండి.

1) రమేష్ భారతాన్ని చదివాడు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
రమేష్ చే భారతం చదువబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

2) నేనెన్నో పుస్తకాలు రాశాను. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
ఎన్నో పుస్తకాలు నాచేత రాయబడ్డాయి. (కర్మణి వాక్యం )

పాఠ్యపుస్తకంలో కర్తరి – కర్మణి వాక్యాలు.

1) కర్తరి వాక్యం :
కర్త ఆధారంగా రూపొందించిన వాక్యాలు కర్తరి వాక్యాలు.

2) కర్మణి వాక్యం :
కర్మ ప్రధానంగా రూపొందించిన వాక్యాలను కర్మణి వాక్యాలు అంటారు.

అభ్యాసము – 1 :
కింది వాక్యాలలో ఏవి కర్తరి వాక్యాలో, ఏవి కర్మణి వాక్యాలో గుర్తించండి. కారణాలతో సమన్వయించండి.
ఉదా :
రామకృష్ణారావు ఆమోదముద్ర వేశారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం )
రామకృష్ణారావుచే ఆమోదముద్ర వేయబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం )

గమనిక :
ఆమోదముద్ర వేయడం – కర్తకు సంబంధించిన క్రియ. ఆమోదముద్ర వేయబడడం – కర్మకు సంబంధించిన క్రియ.

అ) దున్నేవానికి భూమినిచ్చే హక్కు తయారయ్యింది.
జవాబు:
ఇది కర్మణి వాక్యం. ‘తయారయ్యింది’ అనే క్రియ, హక్కు అనే కర్మను సూచిస్తోంది. కాబట్టి ఇది “కర్మణి వాక్యం”.

ఆ) బూర్గుల మంచి నిర్ణయాలు తీసుకున్నారు.
జవాబు:
ఇది కర్తరి వాక్యం. ‘తీసుకున్నారు’ అనే క్రియ బూర్గుల అనే కర్తను తెలుపుతోంది. కాబట్టి “కర్తరి వాక్యం”.

ఇ) వారి న్యాయవాద పటిమ ఇతరులను అబ్బురపరచింది.
జవాబు:
ఇది కర్తరి వాక్యం . ‘అబ్బురపరచింది. అనే క్రియ, ‘న్యాయవాద పటిమ’ అనే కర్తను తెలుపుతోంది. కాబట్టి ఇది “కర్తరి వాక్యం .”

ఈ) రేఖామాత్రంగా నా భావాలు ఇక్కడ పొందుపరచబడ్డాయి.
జవాబు:
ఇది “కర్మణి వాక్యం”. పొందుపరచబడినవి “భావాలు” అనే కర్మను తెలుపుతున్నాయి. కాబట్టి “కర్మణి వాక్యం.”

ఉ) పర్షియన్ ట్యూటర్ గా ఆయన కొంతకాలం పనిచేశారు.
జవాబు:
ఇది కర్తరి వాక్యం . పని చేసినవాడు ఆయన అనే కర్త కాబట్టి ఇది కర్తరి వాక్యం.

ఊ) ఆయన కన్ను మూసిన విషయం వ్రాశారు.
జవాబు:
ఇది కర్తరి వాక్యం . వ్రాసిన వాడు ‘ఆయన’ కర్త. కాబట్టి “కర్తరి వాక్యం.”

గమనిక :
గత పబ్లిక్ పరీక్షలలో వాక్యాలు గమనించండి.

ఋ) అది నవీన పరికరములతో నిర్మింపబడిన ఆదర్శ గృహము. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
అది నవీన పరికరములతో నిర్మించిన ఆదర్శ గృహము. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

1. కృష్ణారావుగారు ఆమోదముద్ర వేశారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
కృష్ణారావుగారిచే ఆమోదముద్ర వేయబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

2. నేనెన్నో పుస్తకాలు చదివితిని. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
నాచే ఎన్నో పుస్తకాలు చదువబడ్డాయి. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

ఋ) ఆ పద్యం పూర్తి కాకముందే పై కప్పీలో ఇరుక్కున్న తీగ సవరింపబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
ఆ పద్యం పూర్తి కాకముందే పై కప్పీలో ఇరుక్కున్న తీగను సవరించారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

ఎ) వాల్మీకిచే రామాయణం రచింపబడింది.. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
రామాయణాన్ని వాల్మీకి రచించాడు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

ఏ) తెలుగులో మహాభారతము కవిత్రయముచే రచింపబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
తెలుగులో కవిత్రయము మహాభారతాన్ని రచించారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

ఐ) నేను బడికి రాకముందే గంట కొట్టబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
నేను బడికి రాకముందే గంటను కొట్టారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

ఒ) సీతాకోకచిలుక కుర్రవానిచే పట్టుకోబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
సీతాకోకచిలుకను కుర్రవాడు పట్టుకొన్నాడు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

ఓ) హరిశ్చంద్ర నాటకంలో చంద్రమతి వేషం ధరింపబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
హరిశ్చంద్ర నాటకంలో చంద్రమతి వేషాన్ని ధరించెను. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

ఔ) కవిత్రయము వారు ఆంధ్ర మహాభారతమును రచించారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
కవిత్రయము వారిచే ఆంధ్ర మహాభారతము రచింపబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం) .

క) మహాభారతమును వ్యాసుడు రచించెను. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
వ్యాసునిచే మహాభారతము రచింపబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

ఖ) వివిధ కవులచే సుభాషితాలు రచింపబడ్డాయి. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
వివిధ కవులు సుభాషితాలను రచించారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

గ) రాజు సీతాకోకచిలుకను పట్టుకున్నాడు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
రాజుచే సీతాకోకచిలుక పట్టుకోబడింది. (కర్మణివాక్యం)

ప్రత్యక్ష, పరోక్ష కథనాలు

ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం :
కింది వాక్యాలు చదవండి.
1. “నన్ను ఉపన్యాసరంగము నొద్దకు దీసికొనిపోయిరి.”
2. “నేనిట్లు ఉపన్యసించితిని.”
3. “నాయనలారా ! నేను మీ సభా కార్యక్రమమునంతయు జెడగొట్టితిని.”
4. “నన్ను మీరు క్షమింపవలయును.”

పై వాక్యాలన్నీ జంఘాలశాస్త్రి నేరుగా చెబుతున్నట్లు ఉన్నాయి కదా !

నేను, మేము, …… ఇలా ఉండే వాక్యాలు అనగా ఉత్తమ పురుషలోని వాక్యాలు సాధారణంగా ప్రత్యక్షంగా చెబుతున్నట్లుగా ఉంటాయి.

అట్లే కింది వాక్యాలను చదవండి.
1) “నేనొక్కడినే అదృష్టవంతుడినా?” అన్నాడు జంఘాల శాస్త్రి.
2) “నేను రాను” అని నరేశ్ రఘుతో అన్నాడు.
(లేదా)
“నేను రా”నని నరేశ్ రఘుతో అన్నాడు.
పై వాక్యాలలో గీత గీసిన మాటలను ఎవరు అన్నారు?

మొదటి దాంట్లో జంఘాలశాస్త్రి అన్న మాటలను, రెండవదాంట్లో నరేశ్ అన్న మాటలను “ఉద్దరణ చిహ్నాలు” (ఇన్వర్టడ్ కామాలు) ఉంచి చెప్పారు కదా !

ఇలా నేరుగా చెప్పదల్చుకున్న అంశాలను ఉద్దరణ చిహ్నాలు ఉంచి చెప్పినపుడు వారే ప్రత్యక్షంగా చెప్పినట్లుగా ఉంటుంది.

ఈ విధంగా చెప్పడాన్ని ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం అంటారు.
అభ్యాసం – 1 : పరోక్ష కథనంలోకి మార్చండి.

1) “ఇది అంతర్జాతీయ సమస్యగా మారుతుంది. జాగ్రత్త” అని అతడినే బెదిరించింది మెల్లీ. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
మెల్లీ అది అంతర్జాతీయ సమస్యగా మారుతుందని అతడినే బెదిరించింది. (పరోక్ష కథనం)

2) “చిన్నప్పటి నుండి నాకు బోటనీ విషయం అభిమాన విషయం” అన్నాడు రచయిత. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
రచయిత చిన్నప్పటి నుండి తనకు బోటనీ విషయం అభిమాన విషయమని అన్నాడు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)

పరోక్ష కథనం :
కింది వాక్యాలు చదవండి.
1. నరేశ్ తాను రానని రఘుతో అన్నాడు.
2. ప్రధానోపాధ్యాయుడు చెప్పినట్లుగా చేస్తామని పిల్లలు అన్నారు.
3. తనను క్షమించమని రాజు తన మిత్రుడితో అన్నాడు.

పై వాక్యాలను చదివారు కదా ! ఇవి నేరుగా చెబుతున్నట్లుగా ఉన్నాయా?
ఉత్తమ పురుషలో కాకుండా, ఇంకొకరు చెబుతున్నట్లుగా ఉన్నాయా?
ఇలాంటి వాక్యాలను పరోక్ష కథనం అంటారు. వీటిలో ఉద్ధరణ చిహ్నాలు ఉపయోగించాల్సిన అవసరం లేదు.

ప్రత్యక్ష కథనంలో ఉన్న వాటిని పరోక్ష కథనంలోకి మార్చడం.
కింది వాక్యాలను చదవండి. ఏం మార్పు జరిగిందో చెప్పండి.
1. “నేనొక్కడినే అదృష్టవంతుడినా ?” అన్నాడు జంఘాలశాస్త్రి.
2. తానొక్కడే అదృష్టవంతుడనా అని జంఘాలశాస్త్రి అన్నాడు.

మొదటి వాక్యంలో జంఘాలశాస్త్రి మాట్లాడిన మాటలను ఉద్ధరణ చిహ్నాలు ఉంచి రాశారు. రెండో వాక్యంలో జంఘాల శాస్త్రి అన్నమాటలను ఇంకొకరు చెప్పినట్లుగా రాశారు. ఇందుకోసం ఉద్ధరణ చిహ్నాలు తీసివేసి “అని” చేర్చి వాక్యాన్ని రాశారు. కాబట్టి మొదటి వాక్యం ప్రత్యక్ష కథనంలో ఉంటే, రెండవ వాక్యం పరోక్ష కథనంలోకి మారింది.

ప్రత్యక్ష కథనంలోని వాక్యాలు పరోక్ష కథనంలోకి మారేటపుడు కింది మార్పులు చోటు చేసుకుంటాయి.

మాటలు / వాక్యంలోని భావాన్ని స్వీకరిస్తారు.
ఉద్ధరణ చిహ్నాలు తొలగించి ‘అని’ చేరుస్తారు.

ఉత్తమపురుష పదాలు అనగా, నేను, మేము వంటివి, ప్రథమ పురుషలోకి అనగా తను, తమ, తాను, తాముగా మారతాయి.

అభ్యాసం :
కింది వాక్యాలను ప్రత్యక్ష, పరోక్ష కథనంలోకి మార్చండి.

1) “నేను నేటి సినిమాలను చూడలేకపోతున్నాను” అని అమ్మతో అన్నాను. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
“నేటి సినిమాలను చూడలేకపోతున్నానని” నేను అమ్మతో అన్నాను. (పరోక్ష కథనం)

2) “నీకివ్వాల్సింది ఏమీలేదు” అని నాతో అతడన్నాడు. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
“నాకివ్వాల్సింది ఏమీ లేదని” నాతో అతడన్నాడు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)

3) సుందరకాండ చదవమని నాకు ఉపాధ్యాయుడు చెప్పాడు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
“సుందరకాండ చదువు” నాకు ఉపాధ్యాయుడు చెప్పాడు. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)

4) వాళ్ళమ్మ చెప్పింది భానుప్రకాశ్ ఊరికెళ్ళాడని. (పరోక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
వాళ్ళమ్మ చెప్పింది “భానుప్రకాశ్ ఊరికెళ్ళాడు” (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)

5) చెన్నయ్య పద్యాలు బాగా పాడాడని అందరనుకుంటున్నారు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
అందరనుకుంటున్నారు “చెన్నయ్య పద్యాలు బాగా పాడాడు” (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)

6) “ప్రజ్ఞ పద్యాలు బాగా పాడింది” అని అందరూ అన్నారు. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
ప్రజ్ఞ పద్యాలు బాగా పాడిందని అందరూ అన్నారు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)

7) “నాకు ఆశ్చర్యం కలిగించినది వేరొక విషయం’ అని రచయిత పలికాడు. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
తనకు ఆశ్చర్యం కలిగించినది వేరొక విషయమని రచయిత పలికాడు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)

8) “నేను మా ఊరిలో పదవతరగతి వరకూ చదివాను” అన్నాడు రవి. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)జవాబు:
తాను తన ఊరిలో పదవతరగతి వరకూ చదివానని రవి అన్నాడు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)

9) వాళ్ళ నాన్న అవేశపరుడని రచయిత చెప్పాడు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
‘మా నాన్న ఆవేశపరుడు’ అని రచయిత చెప్పాడు. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)

10) “నాకు కోపం ఎక్కువ. ప్రేమ కూడా ఎక్కువే” అని రాజు రవితో అన్నాడు. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
తనకు కోపం ఎక్కువని, ప్రేమకూడా ఎక్కువే అని రాజు రవితో అన్నాడు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)

11) తన రచనలలో తన జీవితం ఉంటుందని, ఒక రచయిత తన మిత్రునితో అంటున్నాడు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
“నా రచనలలో నా జీవితం ఉంటుంది” అని ఒక రచయిత తన మిత్రునితో అంటున్నాడు. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)

12) వాళ్ళ నాన్న ఆవేశపరుడని రచయిత చెప్పాడు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
‘మా నాన్న ఆవేశపరుడు అని రచయిత చెప్పాడు. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)

13) ‘నీవు ఎక్కదలచిన ట్రైను, ఎప్పుడూ ఒక జీవితకాలం లేటు, అని చెప్పాడు ఆరుద్ర. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
వాడు ఎక్కదలచిన ట్రైను ఎప్పుడూ ఒక జీవితకాలం లేటని ఆరుద్ర చెప్పాడు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)

14) “నేను జీవితంలో ఎవరినీ మోసం చేయలేదు. స్వార్థానికి నేను ఏ పాపం చేయలేదు” అని అన్నాడు. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం)
జవాబు:
తాను జీవితంలో ఎవరినీ మోసం చేయలేదనీ, స్వార్థం కోసం తాను ఏ పాపం చేయలేదని అన్నాడు. (పరోక్ష కథనం)

వాక్య భేదాలు

కింది వాక్యాల్ని చదివి అర్థం చేసుకోండి.
అ) ఆహా! ఎంత బాగుందో!
ఆ) చేతులు కడుక్కో!
ఇ) చాలా సేపు టీవీ చూడొద్దు.
ఈ) ఏం! ఎప్పుడొచ్చావ్?
ఉ) వర్షాలు లేక పంటలు పండలేదు.

గమనిక :
పై వాక్యాలు, ఒక్కో భావాన్ని సూచిస్తున్నాయి. అదెలాగో చూద్దాం.

ఆశ్చర్యార్థక వాక్యం :
ఉదా :
ఆహా ! ఎంత బాగుందో! ఇది ఆశ్చర్యానికి సంబంధించిన అర్థాన్ని సూచిస్తున్నది. కాబట్టి ఈ వాక్యం “ఆశ్చర్యార్థక వాక్యం”.

ఆ) విధ్యర్థక వాక్యం :
ఉదా :
చేతులు కడుక్కో! ఇది విధిగా చేయాలి అనే అర్థాన్ని సూచిస్తుంది. అంటే చేయవలసిన పనిని విధిగా చేయాలి అనే అర్థాన్ని సూచించే వాక్యాన్ని “విధ్యర్థక వాక్యం” అని పిలుస్తున్నాము.

ఇ) నిషేధార్థక వాక్యం :
ఉదా :
చాలా సేపు టీవీ చూడొద్దు. ఈ వాక్యం చూడటాన్ని నిషేధిస్తున్నది. కాబట్టి ఇది “నిషేధార్థక వాక్యం” అని పిలవబడుతుంది.

ఈ) ప్రశ్నార్థక వాక్యం :
ఉదా :
ఏం ! ఎప్పుడొచ్చావ్ ? ఈ వాక్యం ప్రశ్నిస్తున్నట్లు ఉంది. అంటే ఇది ప్రశ్నార్థక వాక్యం. ఒక వాక్యానికి ప్రశ్నను సూచించే అర్థం ఉంటే దాన్ని “ప్రశ్నార్థక వాక్యం” అంటాము.

ఉ) హేత్వర్థక వాక్యం :
ఉదా :
వర్షాలు లేక పంటలు పండలేదు. ఈ వాక్యం మనకు రెండు విషయాలను తెలుపుతోంది. ఒకటి వర్షాలు లేవని. రెండు పంటలు పండలేదని. ఐతే పంటలు పండకపోవడానికి కారణం మొదటి విషయం. వర్షాలు లేకపోవడం అనే మొదటి విషయం, రెండో విషయానికి కారణం అవుతోంది. అంటే హేతువు అవుతోంది. ఇలా హేతువు అర్థాన్ని సూచించే వాక్యం “హేత్వర్థక వాక్యం.”

అభ్యాసం 1 :
కింది వాక్యాలు ఏ అర్థాన్ని సూచించే వాక్యాలో రాయండి.

అ) ఎవరా పైడి బొమ్మ?
జవాబు:
ప్రశ్నార్థక వాక్యం.

ఆ) నీరు లేక పంటలు పండలేదు.
జవాబు:
హేత్వర్థక వాక్యం.

ఇ) దయచేసి సెలవు ఇవ్వండి.
జవాబు:
ప్రార్థనాద్యర్థక వాక్యం.

ఈ) కిషన్ చదువుతాడో లేదో?
జవాబు:
సందేహార్థక వాక్యం.

ఉ) మీకు శుభం కలగాలి.
జవాబు:
ఆశీర్వాద్యర్థక వాక్యం.

అభ్యాసం 2 :
కింది వాక్యాలు, భావాన్ని అనుసరించి ఏ వాక్యాల్లో గుర్తించండి.
ఉదా :
ఎంత బాగుందో!
జవాబు:
ఆశ్చర్యార్థక వాక్యం.

అ) నువ్వు చదువు.
జవాబు:
విధ్యర్థక వాక్యం.

ఆ) అల్లరి చేయవద్దు.
జవాబు:
నిషేధార్థక వాక్యం.

ఇ) పరీక్షలు రాయవచ్చు.
జవాబు:
అనుమత్యర్థక వాక్యం

ఈ) తనూ బొమ్మలు వేయగలడు.
జవాబు:
సామర్థ్యార్థక వాక్యం .

వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యాలుగా రాయండి

గమనిక :
ఇవి గత సంవత్సరాల పబ్లిక్ పరీక్షల్లో ఇచ్చిన వాక్యాలు

1) గ్రంథ పఠనానికి ఎక్కువ సమయం ఆయన వినియోగించాడు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
గ్రంథ పఠనానికి ఎక్కువ సమయం ఆయన వినియోగంచ లేదు.

2) కొందరికి నీటిలో ప్రయాణం అంటే ఆనందంగా ఉంటుంది. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
కొందరికి నీటిలో ప్రయాణం అంటే ఆనందంగా ఉండదు.

3) అంబటి రాయడు క్రికెట్ బాగా ఆడగలడు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
అంబటి రాయుడు క్రికెట్ బాగా ఆడలేడు.

4) అందరూ ఒక్కసారిగా మాట్లాడుతున్నారు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
అందరూ ఒక్కసారిగా మాట్లాడడం లేదు.

5) వాడు రేపు రావచ్చును. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
వాడు రేపు రాకపోవచ్చును.

6) విద్యార్థులు నేడు రాజకీయాలలో ఎంతో ఆసక్తి కలిగియున్నారు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
విద్యార్థులు నేడు రాజకీయాలలో ఎంతో ఆసక్తి కలిగి లేరు.

7) వర్తకులు ఓడలలో ప్రయాణమౌతారు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
వర్తకులు ఓడలలో ప్రయాణము కారు.

8) వర్షము కుండపోతగా కురియుచున్నది. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
వర్షము కుండపోతగా కురియడం లేదు.

9) ప్రభుత్వానికి డాలర్లు కావాలి. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
ప్రభుత్వానికి డాలర్లు అక్కరలేదు.

10) చెత్తకుండీలను ఏర్పాటు చేశారు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
చెత్తకుండీలను ఏర్పాటు చేయలేదు.

11) కపిల్ టెన్నిస్ ఆడుటలేదు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
కపిల్ టెన్నిస్ ఆడుతున్నాడు.

12) పిల్లలకు ఇష్టమైన పదార్థాలు కొన్ని ఉంటాయి. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
పిల్లలకు ఇష్టమైన పదార్థాలు కొన్ని ఉండవు.

13) పెద్దలు చీటికీ మాటికీ తిడుతూ ఉంటారు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
పెద్దలు చీటికీ మాటికీ తిడుతూ ఉండరు.

14) రైతు బజార్లలో కూరగాయలు చౌక ధరకు లభించుచున్నవి. (క్రియను మార్చి వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
రైతు బజార్లో కూరగాయలు చౌకధరకు లభించడం లేదు.

15) అతను రేపు రావచ్చు. (క్రియను మార్చి వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
అతను రేపు రాకపోవచ్చు.

16) రేవతికి సంగీతమంటే ఇష్టం లేదు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
రేవతికి సంగీతమంటే ఇష్టం.

17) మీ కృషి మీకు రాజ్యా ధికారము నిస్తుంది. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
మీ కృషి మీకు రాజ్యా ధికారమును ఇవ్వదు.

18) కవులకు కొన్ని అభిమాన పదాలుంటాయి. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
కవులకు కొన్ని అభిమాన పదాలు ఉండవు.

19) రవి నిన్న వచ్చాడు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
రవి నిన్న రాలేదు.

20) రాజకీయవేత్తలు నైతిక విలువలను కాపాడుతున్నారు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
రాజకీయవేత్తలు నైతిక విలువలను కాపాడటం లేదు.

21) సముద్రతీరాలలో పిల్లలు ఆడుకుంటున్నారు. (వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యంగా రాయండి.)
జవాబు:
సముద్రతీరాలలో పిల్లలు ఆడుకోవడం లేదు.

మరికొన్ని వాక్య భేదాలు

1) సందేహార్థక వాక్యం :
ఉదా :
రవి, పనిచేస్తాడో, చెయ్యడో? పై వాక్యం చదివితే, రవి పని చేయటం అనే విషయంలో అనుమానం, అంటే సందేహం కలుగుతున్నది కదా! ఇలా సందేహాన్ని తెలిపే వాక్యాలను “సందేహార్థక వాక్యాలు” అంటారు.

2) ఆశీర్వాద్యర్థక వాక్యం
ఉదా :
నువ్వు నూరేళ్ళు వర్ధిల్లు. ఈ వాక్యము ఏ అర్థాన్ని సూచిస్తున్నది? ఒక వ్యక్తిని ఆశీర్వదిస్తున్నట్లు కనబడుతోంది కదా! ఇలా ఆశీర్వదిస్తున్నట్లు అర్థాన్ని సూచించే వాక్యాలను “ఆశీర్వాద్యర్థక వాక్యాలు” అంటారు.

3) ప్రార్థనాద్యర్థక వాక్యం :
ఉదా :
దయచేసి పని చేయండి. ఈ వాక్యం ఒక పనిని చేయుమని ప్రార్థిస్తూ ఉంది. అంటే ప్రార్థన అర్థాన్ని సూచిస్తున్నది. కాబట్టి ఇది “ప్రార్థనాద్యర్థక వాక్యం .”

4) అనుమత్యర్థక వాక్యం :
ఉదా :
లోపలికి రావచ్చు. ఈ వాక్యం ఒక వ్యక్తికి అనుమతిని సూచిస్తున్నది. అంటే ఇది “అనుమత్యర్థక వాక్యం”. ఏదైనా ఒక పనిని చేయటానికి అనుమతిని ఇచ్చే అర్థాన్ని సూచించే వాక్యం “అనుమత్యర్థక వాక్యం.”

5) సామర్థ్వార్థక వాక్యం :
ఉదా :
గోపాల్ చెట్టు ఎక్కగలడు. ఇది గోపాల్ కు చెట్టును ఎక్కే సామర్థ్యాన్ని సూచిస్తున్నది. కాబట్టి ఇది “సామర్థ్యార్థక వాక్యం.”

ఒక వ్యక్తికి గాని, వ్యవస్థకు గాని, లేదా యంత్రానికి గాని ఉన్న సమర్థతను సూచించే అర్థం గల వాక్యాన్ని “సామర్థ్యార్థక వాక్యం” అని పిలుస్తాము.

అభ్యాసం 1 :
కింది వాక్యాలు వాటిలోని భావాన్ని అనుసరించి, ఏ వాక్యాలు అవుతాయో గుర్తించి రాయండి.

అ) సీత కలెక్టరైందా?
జవాబు:
ప్రశ్నార్థక వాక్యం.

ఆ) మీరు తర్వాత తినవచ్చు.
జవాబు:
అనుమత్యర్థక వాక్యం.

ఇ) అక్క చెప్పేది విను.
జవాబు:
ప్రార్థనాద్యర్థక వాక్యం.

ఈ) రసాభాస చేయకండి.
జవాబు:
నిషేధార్థక వాక్యం.

ఉ) నీవు ఇంటికి వెళ్ళవచ్చు.
జవాబు:
అనుమత్యర్థక వాక్యం.

అభ్యాసం 2 :
కింది వాక్యాలు ఏ రీతి వాక్యాలో గుర్తించి రాయండి.

అ) దయచేసి నన్ను కాపాడు.
జవాబు:
ప్రార్థనాద్యర్థక వాక్యం

ఆ) మీరు రావద్దు.
జవాబు:
నిషేధక వాక్యం.

ఇ) వారందరికి ఏమైంది?
జవాబు:
ప్రశ్నార్థక వాక్యం.

ఈ) నేను తప్పక వస్తాను.
జవాబు:
నిశ్చయార్థక వాక్యం.

ఉ) ఆహా! ఎంత బాగుందీ!
జవాబు:
ఆశ్చర్యార్థక వాక్యం.

ఊ) వారు వెళ్ళవచ్చా?
జవాబు:
సందేహార్థక వాక్యం.

పేపర్ – II లో Part – B

1. ‘బాలుకు పాటలు పాడటం చాలా ఇష్టం’ – దీనికి వ్యతిరేక వాక్యం ఏది?
A) బాలుకు పాటలు పాడటం అసలే ఇష్టం లేదు
B) బాలుకు పాటలు పాడటం ఇష్టం
C) బాలుకు పాటలు పాడటం ఇష్టం లేదు
D) బాలుకు పాటలు పాడటం తప్పితే ఇంకేది ఇష్టం లేదు
జవాబు:
C) బాలుకు పాటలు పాడటం ఇష్టం లేదు

2. ‘చూడాకర్ణుడు, వీణాకర్ణుడు అను సన్యాసులు కలరు’ – ఇది ఏ వాక్యం?
A) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం
B) సంయుక్త వాక్యం
C) సామాన్య వాక్యం
D) కర్తరి వాక్యం
జవాబు:
B) సంయుక్త వాక్యం

3. ‘బాగా చదివితే, మార్కులు బాగా వస్తాయి’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం?
A) శత్రర్థకం
B) విధ్యర్థక వాక్యం
C) చేదర్థక వాక్యం
D) అష్యర్థక వాక్యం
జవాబు:
C) చేదర్థక వాక్యం

4. మీరంతా ఉదయాన్నే లేవండి – ఇది ఏ రకమైన సామాన్య వాక్యం?
A) విధ్యర్థకం
B) సంభావనార్థకం
C) అనుమత్యర్థకం
D) ప్రశ్నార్థకం
జవాబు:
A) విధ్యర్థకం

5. మీరు లోపలికి రావచ్చు – ఇది ఏ రకమైన సామాన్య వాక్యం?
A) సందేహార్ధకం
B) విధ్యర్ధకం
C) అనుమత్యర్థకం
D) ఆత్మార్థకం
జవాబు:
C) అనుమత్యర్థకం

6. ‘జ్యోతిర్మయి ఆలోచిస్తూ సైకిలు తొక్కుతోంది’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం?
A) క్వార్థక వాక్యం
B) శత్రర్థక వాక్యం
C) చేదర్థక వాక్యం
D) అష్యర్థక వాక్యం
జవాబు:
B) శత్రర్థక వాక్యం

7. ‘కష్టపడి పనిచేస్తే ఫలితం వస్తుంది’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన ఇది సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం?
A) అష్యర్థక వాక్యం
B) శత్రర్థక వాక్యం
C) చేదర్థక వాక్యం
D) ఆనంతర్యార్థకం
జవాబు:
C) చేదర్థక వాక్యం

8. వాడు కష్టపడినా ఫలితం పొందలేదు – ఇది ఏ రకమైన సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం?
A) శత్రర్థక వాక్యం
B) అష్యక వాక్యం
C) చేదర్థక వాక్యం
D) విధ్యర్థక వాక్యం
జవాబు:
B) అష్యక వాక్యం

9. మొక్కలు నాటితే పర్యావరణానికి మేలు చేస్తాయి – ఇది ఏ రకమైన సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం?
A) చేదర్థక వాక్యం
B) అష్యక వాక్యం
C) ప్రార్థనాద్యర్థక వాక్యం
D) సంయుక్త వాక్యం
జవాబు:
A) చేదర్థక వాక్యం

10. తాత భారతం చదివి నిద్రపోయాడు – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) సంయుక్త వాక్యం
B) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం
C) సామాన్య వాక్యం
D) కర్తరి వాక్యం
జవాబు:
B) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం

11. అశ్విని జ్యోతి అక్కాచెల్లెండ్రు – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం
B) సంయుక్త వాక్యం
C) కర్మణి వాక్యం
D) సామాన్య వాక్యం
జవాబు:
D) సామాన్య వాక్యం

12. ‘నారాయణ అన్నం తింటూ నీళ్ళు త్రాగుతాడు’ ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) సంక్లిష్టవాక్యం
B) సంయుక్త వాక్యం
C) సామాన్యవాక్యం
D) కర్తరి వాక్యం
జవాబు:
A) సంక్లిష్టవాక్యం

13. ఆయన డాక్టరా? ప్రొఫెసరా? – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) సంయుక్త వాక్యం
B) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం
C) కర్తరి వాక్యం
D) కర్మణి వాక్యం
జవాబు:
A) సంయుక్త వాక్యం

14. కింది కర్తరి వాక్యాన్ని కర్మణి వాక్యంగా మార్చండి. వాల్మీకి రామాయణాన్ని రచించారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)
జవాబు:
వాల్మీకిచే రామాయణం రచింపబడింది. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

15. బాలురచే సెలవు తీసుకోబడింది – దీన్ని కర్తరి వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.
జవాబు:
బాలురు సెలవు తీసికొన్నారు. (కర్తరి వాక్యం)

16. ‘సంఘసంస్కర్తలు దురాచారాలను నిర్మూలించారు’ – దీన్ని కర్మణి వాక్యంగా మార్చండి.
జవాబు:
సంఘసంస్కర్తలచే దురాచారాలు నిర్మూలించబడ్డాయి. (కర్మణి వాక్యం)

వాక్య భేదాలు

1. ‘మాధవి ఆలోచిస్తూ పుస్తకం చదువుతున్నది’ ఏ రకమైన సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం?
A) శత్రర్థకం
B) అష్యర్థకం
C) విధ్యర్థకం
D) చేదర్థకం
జవాబు:
A) శత్రర్థకం

2. ‘సీత సంగీతం, నృత్యం నేర్చుకుంటున్నది’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) సామాన్య వాక్యం
B) సంయుక్త వాక్యం
C) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం
D) మహావాక్యం
జవాబు:
B) సంయుక్త వాక్యం

3. ‘నువ్వు పరీక్ష రాయవచ్చు’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) ప్రశ్నార్థకం
B) సంభావనార్థకం
C) అనుమత్యర్థకం
D) నిషేధార్థకం
జవాబు:
C) అనుమత్యర్థకం

4. ‘వారందరికీ ఏమైంది’ ? ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) నిషేధార్థకం
B) విధ్యర్థకం
C) ప్రశ్నార్థకం
D) సామర్ధ్యార్థకం
జవాబు:
D) సామర్ధ్యార్థకం

5. ‘ఆహా! ఎంత బాగుందో!’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన సామాన్య వాక్యం?
A) విధ్యర్థకం
B) సంభావనార్థకం
C) విధ్యర్థకం
D) ఆశ్చర్యార్ధకం
జవాబు:
C) విధ్యర్థకం

6. ‘ఏం? ఎప్పుడొచ్చావ్?” ఇది ఏ రకమైన సామాన్య వాక్యం?
A) ప్రశ్నార్థక వాక్యం
B) అనుమత్యర్థకం
C) సంభావనార్థకం
D) హేత్వర్ధకం
జవాబు:
A) ప్రశ్నార్థక వాక్యం

7. ‘చాలాసేపు నీవు టి.వి. చూడవద్దు’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) నిషేధార్ధక వాక్యం
B) విధ్యర్థక వాక్యం
C) ప్రశ్నార్థక వాక్యం
D) ఆత్మార్థకం
జవాబు:
A) నిషేధార్ధక వాక్యం

8. ‘బడికి వెళ్ళు’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) విధ్యర్థక వాక్యం
B) నిషేధార్ధక వాక్యం
C) అనుమత్యర్థక వాక్యం
D) ప్రశార్థక వాక్యం
జవాబు:
A) విధ్యర్థక వాక్యం

9. కిషన్ చదువుతాడో? లేదో ? – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) సందేహార్థక వాక్యం
B) అనుమత్యర్థక వాక్యం
C) ఆశీరర్ధకం
D) ప్రశ్నార్థకం
జవాబు:
A) సందేహార్థక వాక్యం

10. ‘వాడు చెట్టు ఎక్కగలడు’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) సామర్ధ్యార్ధకం
B) అనుమత్యర్థకం
C) ఆశ్చర్యార్థకం
D) సందేహార్ధకం
జవాబు:
A) సామర్ధ్యార్ధకం

11. ‘నీరు లేక పంటలు పండలేదు’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) హేత్వర్థకం
B) అనుమత్యర్థకం
C) నిషేధార్థకం
D) ఆశ్చర్యార్థకం
జవాబు:
C) నిషేధార్థకం

12. నీవు తరగతిలోకి రావచ్చు – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) సామర్ధ్యార్థకం
B) అనుమత్యర్థకం
C) నిషేధార్ధకం
D) విధ్యర్థకం
జవాబు:
B) అనుమత్యర్థకం

13. ‘రేపు వాడు స్కూలుకు వెడతాడో లేదో!’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యం?
A) ప్రశ్నార్థకం
B) ఆత్మార్థకం
C) అభ్యర్థకం
D) సందేహార్థకం
జవాబు:
D) సందేహార్థకం

14. ‘దయచేసి నన్ను కాపాడు’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన సామాన్య వాక్యం?
A) అనుమత్యర్థక వాక్యం
B) ప్రార్థనాద్యర్థక వాక్యం
C) సందేహార్థక వాక్యం
D) నిషేధక వాక్యం
జవాబు:
B) ప్రార్థనాద్యర్థక వాక్యం

వచనంలో శైలిభదం

కింది వాక్యాలు చదవండి. భేదాలు గమనించండి.
అ) అని యా పరివ్రాజకుడు సెప్పగా విని, మిక్కిలి ఖిన్నుడనయితిని.
ఆ) అని ఆ సన్యాసి చెప్పగా విని, చాలా బాధపడ్డాను.
ఇ) అని ఆ సన్యాసి జెప్పింది యిని, శానా దుక్కమొచ్చింది.
గమనిక :
1) మొదటి వాక్యం, “ప్రాచీన శైలి”ని తెలుపుతున్నది.
2) రెండవ వాక్యం “శిష్టవ్యవహార శైలి”ని అనుసరించి ఉంది.
3) ఇక మూడవ వాక్యం “మాండలిక పద్ధతి”కి లోబడి ఉన్నది.
గమనిక :
కాలాన్ని అనుసరించి, ప్రాంతాన్ని అనుసరించి, సందర్భాన్ని బట్టి భాషను ఉపయోగించే విధానంలో మార్పు జరుగుతుంది. ఇది భాషలో వైవిధ్యమే కాని అందులో ఒకటి అధికము, మరొకటి అల్పము అనే సంకుచిత దృష్టితో చూడకూడదు.

అభ్యాసం :
కింది వాక్యాలను ఆధునిక వ్యవహార శైలిలోకి మార్చండి. (ఈ మార్పులు చేసేటప్పుడు “ము” వర్ణాలు, బిందు పూర్వక ‘బు’ కారాలు, అంబు) యడాగమాలు, క్రియా స్వరూపాలు (చేయును, జరుగును, చూడుము వంటివి మారతాయి. గమనించండి.)
అ) వివేక హీనుడయిన ప్రభువును సేవించుట కంటె వనవాస ముత్తమము. (ప్రాచీన వచన శైలి)
జవాబు:
వివేకం లేని రాజసేవ చేయడం కన్న, అడవిలో ఉండడం మంచిది. (ఆధునిక వచన శైలి)

ఆ) ఎలుక ప్రతిదినము చిలుకకొయ్య మీది కెగిరి పాత్రము నందున్న యన్నము భక్షించి పోవుచున్నది. (ప్రాచీన వచన శైలి)
జవాబు:
ఎలుక రోజూ చిలక్కొయ్య పైకి ఎక్కి పాత్రలో అన్నం తిని పోతోంది. (ఆధునిక వచన శైలి)

ఇ) బుద్ధిహీనత వల్ల సమస్త కార్యములు నిదాఘనదీ పూరములట్లు వినాశము నొందును. (ప్రాచీన వచన శైలి)
జవాబు:
తెలివి తక్కువ వల్ల అన్ని పనులూ వేసవికాలంలో నదిలో నీళ్ళల్లా ఎండిపోతాయి. (ఆధునిక వచన శైలి)

ఆధునిక వచనంలోకి మార్చడం

గమనిక : ఇవి గత సంవత్సరాల పబ్లిక్ పరీక్షల్లో ఇచ్చిన వాక్యాలు

1. ఆ పరివ్రాజకుడు సెప్పగా విని మిక్కిలి భిన్నుడనయితిని.
జవాబు:
ఆ సన్యాసి చెప్పింది విని చాలా బాధపడ్డాను. (ఆధునిక భాష)

2. యాచించుకొని బ్రతుకుట కంటె మరణము మేలు.
జవాబు:
అడుక్కొని బతకడం కంటె చావడం మంచిది. (ఆధునిక భాష)

3. ధనమును బాసిన క్షణముననే లాతివాడగును.
జవాబు:
డబ్బు పోయిన వెంటనే పరాయి వాడవుతాడు. (ఆధునిక భాష)

4. యేనే పాపాత్ముని ముఖంబు నీక్షించితినో?
జవాబు:
నేనే పాపాత్ముడి ముఖాన్ని చూశానో? (ఆధునిక భాష)

5. ప్రాణభయంబున గగనంబునకెగసి చనెను. (ఆధునిక వచనంగా మార్చండి.)
జవాబు:
ప్రాణభయంతో ఆకాశానికి ఎగిరిపోయింది. (ఆధునిక వచన శైలి)

6. కావున నీవు మెచ్చిన చోటికి బోవనోపము. (ఆధునిక వచనంగా మార్చండి.)
జవాబు:
కాబట్టి నువ్వు మెచ్చిన చోటుకు పోలేం. (ఆధునిక వచన శైలి)

7. కొందరు పన్యాముల మూలమున నాపని చేయుదురు. (ఆధునిక వచనంగా మార్చండి.)
జవాబు:
కొంతమంది ఉపన్యాసాల ద్వారా, ఆ పని చేస్తారు. (ఆధునిక వచన శైలి)

8. గుండము చినదైనను నీటికి కొదవ ఉండదు. (ఆధునిక వచనంగా మార్చండి.)
జవాబు:
గుండం చిన్నదైనా, నీళ్ళకు లోటుండదు. (ఆధునిక వచన శైలి)

9. పురుషుడు న్యాయము తప్పక విద్యాధనములు గడింపవలెను. (ఆధునిక వచనంగా మార్చండి.)
జవాబు:
పురుషుడు న్యాయంగా విద్యాధనాలు గడించాలి. (ఆధునిక వచన శైలి)

10. అక్కడనున్న నౌకరులందరునూ నవ్వారు. (ఆధునిక వచనంగా మార్చండి.)
జవాబు:
అక్కడున్న నౌకర్లంతా నవ్వారు. (ఆధునిక వచన శైలి)

11. మా వలని మోహంబు విడిచి యరుగుము. (ఆధునిక వచనంగా మార్చండి.)
జవాబు:
మాపై మోహం విడిచి వెళ్లు. (ఆధునిక వచన శైలి)

పద విజ్ఞానం
అర్థాలు

(అ)
అంకురించు (క్రి) – మొలకెత్తు, పుట్టు
అఖిలం = అశేషం, అంతా
అంగలార్చు (క్రి) = దుఃఖించు
అంఘ్రులు = పాదాలు
అంభోధి = సముద్రం, కడలి
అణా = రూపాయిలో పదహారోవంతు విలువగల నాణెం
అతిథి = తిథి, వార, నక్షత్రాలతో సంబంధం లేకుండా ఇంటికి వచ్చేవాడు
అధిగమించు (క్రి) = (తెలియు, పొందు) దాటు, మించు
అనంతరం = తరవాత
అనవుడు = అనగా, అన్నప్పుడు
అనృతం = అసత్యం
అపూపం = పిండివంట, అప్పం
అభిఘరించు (క్రి) = వడ్డించిన అన్నంమీద నెయ్యిచల్లు, చిలకరించు
అభిరమ్యం = చాలా అందమైన
అభీప్సితం = కోరినది, అభీష్టం
అమాంతం = అకస్మాత్తుగా, హఠాత్తుగా
అర్థం = ధనం
అర్ఘ్యపాద్యములు = చేతులు, కాళ్ళు కడుక్కోవడానికి ఇచ్చే నీళ్ళు
అర్ధాంగలక్ష్మి = శరీరంలో సగభాగమైన లక్ష్మీ సమానురాలు (భార్య)
అల్పము = సూక్ష్మం, కొంచెం
అవసరం = సమయం , వేళ
అసద్యస్తులై = ఉనికి కోల్పోయినవారై (సర్వం చెదరగొట్టుకొన్నవారై)
అస్మచ్చమూధవులు = మా సైన్యాధిపతులు
అహరహం = ప్రతిదినం

(ఆ)
ఆకంఠం = గొంతుదాకా
ఆగ్రహం = కోపం
ఆప్యాయత = ప్రీతి, ఇష్టం
ఆయతి = ప్రభావం
ఆయత్తం = సిద్ధం
ఆయువు = జీవితకాలం
ఆవరణ = ఆచ్ఛాదనం, మూత
ఆవేశపరులు = తొందరపాటు గలవారు,
ఆస్పందితోష్ఠం = అదిరే పెదవి

(ఇ)
ఇందుబింబాస్య = చంద్రబింబం వంటి ముఖం కలది, చంద్రముఖి
ఇనాం = బహుమతి, మాన్యం
ఇనుడు = సూర్యుడు

(ఈ)
ఈప్సితం = కోరిక

(ఉ)
ఉదరం = పొట్ట
ఉద్యమం = ప్రయత్నం
ఉద్వృత్తి = ఉద్ధతి, గర్వం
ఉపద్రవం = ఆపద
ఉపస్పర్శ = స్నాన, ఆచమనాదికాలు
ఉపార్జితం = సంపాదించినది
ఉల్లాసం = సంతోషం, ప్రకాశం

(ఎ)
ఎల్లి = రేపు

(ఏ)
ఏమరుపాటు = అజాగ్రత్త

(ఓ)
ఓర్పు = సహనం
ఓష్ఠం = పెదవి

(ఔ)
ఔద్ధత్యం = ఉద్ధతత్వం, గర్వం, పొగరు

(క)
కంకణములు = వర్తులాకారాభరణాలు
కటకట = అయ్యయ్యో
కటకటపడు (క్రీ) = బాధపడు
కడ = చివర
కందభోజులు = దుంపలు తినేవాళ్ళు
కన్నుగవ = కన్నులజంట
కమ్రకరములు = ఇంపైన చేతులు
కరంబులు = చేతులు
కరవటంబు = బరిణె, గిన్నె
కలభాష = అవ్యక్త మధురభాష
కలమధాన్యం = ఒకజాతి, వరిపంట
కళవళం = తొట్రుపాటు
కల్పనము = ఊహ
కాడు = అడవి
కాణాచి = చిరకాల వాసస్థానం, ఆదిమస్థానం
కుందాడు (క్రి) = బాధపెట్టినట్లు మాట్లాడడం
కుడుచు (క్రి) = తాగు, భుజించు
కుముదిని = తెల్లకలువతీగా
కురిడీ = కొబ్బరికాయలో ఎండిన కొబ్బరి
కులిశం = వజ్రాయుధం
కుసుమస్తబకం = పూలగుత్తి, పూలగుచ్ఛం
కూడలి = నాలుగుదారులు కలిసే చోటు
కూర్మం = తాబేలు
కృశించు (క్రి) = బక్కటిల్లు, సన్నగిల్లు
కేసరములు = పూవులోని పుప్పొడి గల భాగాలు
కైరవం = తెల్లకలువ
కైరవషండం = తెల్లకలువల సమూహం
కైలుచేయు (క్రి) = ధాన్యాన్ని తూర్పారబట్టి యజమానికి అప్పగించడానికి సిద్ధం చేయు
కొడిగట్టిన దీపాలు = ఆరిపోవడానికి సిద్ధంగా ఉన్న దీపాలు
కొండాడు (క్రి) = పొగడు, స్తుతించు

(ఖ)
ఖలుడు = దుర్జనుడు, దుష్టుడు, చెడ్డవాడు
ఖిన్నుడు = దుఃఖితుడు
ఖేదం = శోకం

(గ)
గరిమ = శ్రేష్ఠత, గొప్ప
గ్రక్కున = వెంటనే
గుద్దలి = వేర్లు మొదలైనవి పెళ్ళగించే సాధనం
గురి = లక్ష్యం
గొడుగు పాగలు = గొడుగులు గల పావుకోళ్ళు, కర్రచెప్పులు
గోమయం = ఆవుపేడ
గోరంతదీపం = చిన్నగా వెలిగే దీపం

(ఘ)
ఘన వనజాతలోచన = విశాలమైన తామర రేకుల వంటి కన్నులు గలది
ఘాతం = దెబ్భ

(చ)
చందనం = గంధం
చట్టువం = గరిటె
చమత్కారం = నేర్పు
చయ్యన = వెంటనే, త్వరగా
చరణద్వంద్వం = పాదాలజంట
చాడ్పు = విధం
చిగురుబోడి = చిగురుటాకు వంటి శరీరం గల స్త్రీ
చిరంతనుడు = శాశ్వతుడు
చెక్కెర్లు = అదేపనిగా చుట్టుతిరగడం
చౌకబారు = తక్కువ విలువ గలిగిన

(ఛ)
ఛాత్రులు = శిష్యులు, విద్యార్థులు
ఛిన్నభిన్నమవు = ముక్కలు ముక్కలు ఆవు, చెల్లాచెదురవు, తునాతునకలవు

(జ)
జానపదులు = మనుష్యులు, పల్లెటూళ్ళవాళ్ళు
జేవురు = ఎర్రనిది, ఎరుపు
జ్వలనం = మంట, మండటం
జంఘ = కాలిపిక్క

(ఝ)
ఝరి = సెలయేరు

(త)
తడయు = ఆలస్యంచేయు
తడవ = మారు, మాటు, సారి (మొదటిసారి)
తంత్రం = ఉపాయం
తన్మయులు = తత్స్వరూపమైనవారు, తమను తాము మరచినవారు
తమం = చీకటి
తర్కం = ఊహ, కారణం, కోరిక, ఒక శాస్త్రం
తాపసులు = తపస్సుచేసుకునేవారు
తారక = చుక్క
తారాడడం తిరుగులాడడం, జీరాడడం
తాల్మి = క్షమ, ఓర్పు
తిమిరం = చీకటి
తుల్యం = సమము, సరి
తొంటి = తొల్లి, మొదటి, తొలుత
తొఱగు (క్రి) = విడుచుట, త్యజించుట

(ద)
దమ్మిడీ = అన్నిటికంటె తక్కువ విలువ గల నాణెం, (రెండు కాసుల నాణెం)
దిక్పతి = దిక్పాలుడు
దివసం = రోజు, పగలు
దివసేంద్రుడు = సూర్యుడు
దివి = ఆకాశం
దీధితి = కిరణం, వెలుగు, కాంతి
దుశ్చరితాలోచన = చెడుతలపు (చెడ్డ ఆలోచన)
దేవుళ్ళాట = వెదుకులాట
ద్వాఃకవాటం = ద్వారబంధం, తలుపు

(న)
నలిరేగి = విజృంభించి
నిక్కం = నిజం, వాస్తవం
నిఖిల = సమస్త, అన్ని
నిచయం = సమూహం
నిదాఘం = వేసవి, ఎండాకాలం
నిదానం = మూలకారణం, నెమ్మది
నిమిత్తం = కారణం
నిర్జనం = జనంలేనిది
నిశ = రాత్రి
నిష్ణాతుడు = నేర్పరి
నిస్తంద్రుడు = కునికిపాటు లేనివాడు
నీవార ముష్టింపచుల్ = సహజంగా పండే నివ్వరిధాన్యాన్ని పిడికెడు తీసుకొని కడుపునింపు కొనేవాళ్ళు
నుతి = పొగడ్త, స్తుతి
నెట్టుకొను = పెరుగుతున్న
నొక్కి = అదిమిపట్టి

(ప)
పంచజనుడు = పాంచభౌతిక శరీరం కలవాడు (మనిషి) తీరుబడి తీరిక
పగిది = విధం
పనిచి = నియమించి, పంపి
పరహితార్ధం = ఇతరుల మేలుకోసం
పరాభవం = అవమానం
పరామర్శ = చక్కగా విచారించు
పరివారం = పరిజనం
పరివ్రాజకుడు = సన్న్యాసి, సంచారం చేసేవాడు
పాత్ర = గిన్నె, కథలో నాటకంలో వచ్చే ఒక వ్యక్తి
పారావారం = సముద్రం
పారాశర్యుడు = పరాశరుని కుమారుడు (వ్యాసుడు)
పుట్టకురుపు = క్యాన్సర్ ప్రణం, రాచపుండు
పుయిలోడు (క్రి) = వెనుదీయు, సంకోచించు, జంకు
పురంధ్రి = కుటుంబ స్త్రీ
పులస్త్య బ్రహ్మ = బ్రహ్మమానస పుత్రుడు
పెక్కండ్రు = చాలామంది
పొదలు (క్రి) = వృద్ధిచెందు, పెరుగు, వర్ధిల్లు
ప్రణమిల్లు (క్రి) = నమస్కరించు
ప్రజ్ఞానం = విశేష ప్రతిభతో కూడిన జ్ఞానం
ప్రక్షాళితంబు = చక్కగా కడిగినది

(బ)
బంతి = వరుస, పంక్తి, సామూహిక భోజనానికి కూర్చున్న వాళ్ళ వరస
బస్తీజనం = పట్టణవాసులు
బుద్బుదం = నీటిబుడగ
బృహత్తర = గొప్పదైన

(భ)
భత్యాలు = ప్రతిరోజు భోజనానికి ఇచ్చే ద్రవ్యం
భక్షణం = తిండి
భక్షించు (క్రి) = తిను
భాసిల్లు (క్రి) = ప్రకాశించు
భుక్తిశాల = భోజనశాల
భూరుహం = భూమి నుండి పుట్టినది (చెట్టు)
భృంగం = తుమ్మెద
బీబు + ఎండ = అధికమైన ఎండ

(మ)
మందకొడి = సోమరి, జడుడు, చురుకుగా సాగకపోవడం
మంద్రం = గంభీరధ్వని
మచ్చెకంటి = మీనాక్షి, చేపలవంటి కన్నులు గల స్త్రీ
మతిహీనులు = తెలివిలేనివాళ్ళు
మదీయ = నా సంబంధమైన
మననం = చింతన
మనోహరం = ఇంపైన
మహాప్రస్థానం = దీర్ఘప్రయాణం, లోకాంతర యాత్ర, మరణం
మాధుకరభిక్ష = ఇల్లిల్లూ తిరిగి అన్నం సేకరించు కోడం
మిక్కుటం = ఎక్కువ
మీలనము = కళ్ళు మూయడం
ముక్కంటి = మూడు కనులు కలవాడు (శివుడు)
ములుగర్ర = ఎడ్లను తోలడానికి వాడే ములుకోలు
ములుకి = మొనదేలిన భాగం
మూర్ధం = ఉన్నతమైనది
మెండు = అధికం, ఎక్కువ
మోడు = ఆకురాలిన వృక్షం
మోహం = అజ్ఞానం
మోక్షలక్ష్మి = మోక్షమనే లక్ష్మి (ముక్తి)
మౌళి = సిగ

(య)
యాతన = తీవ్రమైన వేదన, నరకదుఃఖం

(ర)
రజని = రాత్రి
రవళి = ధ్వని, చప్పుడు
రుగ్ధత = జబ్బు
రుచిరం = కాంతి
రేగి = ఎగసి, విజృంభించి
రోదసి = భూమ్యాకాశాలు, భూమి, ఆకాశం

(ల)
లలామ = శ్రేష్ఠురాలు, స్త్రీ
లసత్ = ప్రకాశిస్తున్న
లాతి = అన్యుడు, అన్యము
లోచనం = కన్ను

(వ)
వర్ణభరితం = రంగులతో నిండినది
వసించు = నివసించు, ఉండటం, కాపురం ఉండటం
వాటిక = వీథి
వాలం = తోక
వాసము = ఇల్లు
వ్యాసంగం = కృషి, పని
విచ్ఛిత్తి = విభజించడం, వేరుచేయడం
విప్రులు = బ్రాహ్మణులు
వీడు = పట్టణం
వెఱుపు = భయం
వెల్లి = ప్రవాహం
వేదోక్తం = వేదంలో చెప్పిన

(శ)
శతాబ్దం = నూరు సంవత్సరాల కాలం
శాంతుడు = శాంతిగలవాడు
శిలోంఛప్రక్రములు = శిలప్రక్రములు (పొలాల్లో రాలిన కంకుల (గింజల) ను ఏరుకొని బ్రతికేవాళ్ళు) ఉంఛప్రక్రములు (రోళ్ళ దగ్గర చెదిరిపడ్డ బియ్యపు గింజలు ఏరుకొని జీవనం సాగించేవాళ్ళు)

(ష)
షండం = సమూహం

(స)
సంచయం = సమూహం, కూడిక
సంక్షిప్తం = కుదించినది
సద్దు = శబ్దం, చప్పుడు
సరభసోత్సాహం = అధికమైన కోరిక, అధికమైన వేగముతో కూడిన పూనిక
సర్వం = మొత్తం
సత్త్వం = దేహబలం
సత్కృతి = సత్కారం, సన్మానం
సరిత్తు = నది
సహస్రాబ్దం = వేయి సంవత్సరాల కాలం
సాంధ్య = సంధ్యా సమయ సంబంధమైన
సాధ్వి = పతివ్రత, శీలవతి
సాన్నిధ్యం = సమీపం, దగ్గర, సన్నిధి
సుంత = ఇంచుక, ఇసుమంత, కొంచెం
సుధాకరుడు = చంద్రుడు
సూడిగములు = చేతిగాజులు
సేచనం = అభిషేకం
సైరించుట (క్రి) = క్షమించు, ఓర్చు
సౌదామిని = మెరుపు
సౌరభం = సువాసన
స్మరణ = తలపు
స్మితం = చిరునవ్వు, హాసం
స్నిగ్ధం = దట్టమైనది, చిక్కనైనది

(హ)
హితైషులు = మేలుకోరేవాళ్ళు

(క్ష)
క్షుత్పిపాసలు = క్షుత్తు (ఆకలి), పిపాస (దప్పిక), ఆకలిదప్పులు

నానార్థాలు

అనృతం = అసత్యం, సేద్యం, వాణిజ్యం
అమృతం – సుధ, నీరు, ముక్తి
ఆశ = కోరిక, దిక్కు
కంకణం = తోరం, నీటి బిందువు, స్త్రీలు చేతికి ధరించే ఆభరణం
కన్ను = నేత్రము, చూపు, బండిచక్రము
కళ = చదువు, శిల్పం, చంద్రునిలో పదహారోవంతు
కాలం = సమయం, నలుపు, చావు
కుండలి = పాము, నెమలి, వరుణుడు
కులం = వంశం, జాతి, ఇల్లు
కృషి = సేద్యము, యత్నము
గుణం = స్వభావం, వింటినారి
గురువు = ఉపాధ్యాయుడు, తండ్రి, పురోహితుడు, బృహస్పతి
చరణము = పాదము, పద్యపాదము, కిరణము
నిట్టవొడుచు (క్రి)= ఉప్పొంగు, విజృంభించు, రోమాంచితమగు
ఫలం = పండు, ప్రయోజనం, సుఖం
మిత్రుడు = స్నేహితుడు, సూర్యుడు
ముద్ర = గుర్తు, అచ్చువేయడం, ఒక అలంకారం
రాజు = ప్రభువు, చంద్రుడు, ఇంద్రుడు
లెస్స = శ్రేష్ఠం, యుక్తం, కుశలం
వనం = తోట, అడవి, జలం
వాసం = ఇల్లు, వస్త్రం, కాపురం
వివరము = వివరణము, రంధ్రము, దోషము
వీడు = ఇతడు, పట్టణము
వెల్లి = ప్రవాహం , పరంపర, తెలుపు
శరము = బాణము, నీరు, రెల్లు
శాఖ = కొమ్మ, చెయ్యి, వేదభాగము
సమయము = కాలము, ప్రతిజ్ఞ, సిద్ధాంతము
సూత్రము = నూలిపోగు, జంధ్యము, ఏర్పాటు
హరి = కోతి, ఇంద్రుడు, విష్ణువు

పర్యాయపదాలు

అంభోధి = సముద్రం, కడలి, సాగరం
అనలం = అగ్ని, నిప్పు, జ్వలనం
అరణ్యం = విపినం, అడవి, అటవి, వనం
అనృతం = అసత్యం, అబద్ధం, బొంకు
అన్నం = బువ్వ, కూడు, బోనం
అర్ధాంగి = భార్య, పత్ని, ఇల్లాలు
అహిమకరుడు = సూర్యుడు, భానుడు, రవి, భాస్కరుడు
ఆగ్రహం = కోపం, క్రోధం, అలుక
ఆజ్ఞ = ఆదేశం, ఆన, ఉత్తరువు, నిర్దేశం
ఆస్యం = ముఖం, ఆననం, మోము
ఎలుక = మూషికం, ఖనకం
కన్ను = అక్షి, చక్షువు, నేత్రం, నయనం
కప్ప = భేకం, దగ్గురం, మండూకం
కరి = ఏనుగు, గజము
కమలము = పద్మము, నళినము
కార్ముకం = విల్లు, ధనుస్సు, శరాసనం, సింగిణి
కైరవం = కలువ, కలారం, కుముదం, ఇందీవరం
కొండాడి = పొగడి, స్తుతించి, నుతించి
కోరిక = వాంఛ, తృష్ణ, ఈప్సితం
కౌముది = వెన్నెల, చంద్రిక, జ్యోత్స్న
గిరి = కొండ, పర్వతం, అద్రి
గృహం = ఇల్లు, గేహం, నికేతం
చంద్రుడు = ఇందుడు, శశాంకుడు, నిశాకరుడు
చాడ్పు = విధం, భంగి, రీతి, తీరు
చెట్టు – వృక్షం, తరువు, భూరుహం
తమస్సు/తమం = చీకటి, అంధకారం, ఇరులు
దయ = కృప, కనికరం, కరుణ
దేహం = శరీరం, తనువు, కాయం
ధరణి = భూమి, ధరిత్రి, పృధ్వి
నరుడు = మానవుడు, మనిషి, మర్త్యుడు
నలిరేగు = విజృంభించు, చెలరేగు, విజృంభించు
నిక్కం = నిజం, సత్యం
పల్లె = ఊరు, గ్రామం
పవనము = గాలి, వాయువు, మారుతము
పసిడి = బంగారం, కాంచనం, పుత్తడి
పారాశర్యుడు = వ్యాసుడు, బాదరాయణుడు, కానీనుడు
పూవు = కుసుమం, పుష్పం, విరి
బ్రాహ్మణులు = ద్విజులు, విప్రులు, భూసురులు
భాగీరథి = గంగానది, జాహ్నవి, పావని
భోజనం = తిండి, ఆహారం, భోగం
మరణం = మృత్యువు, నిర్యాణం, చావు
మిన్ను = ఆకాశం, గగనం, నింగి
యశస్సు = కీర్తి, ఖ్యాతి
రవి = సూర్యుడు, దినకరుడు, ప్రభాకరుడు
రాత్రి = నిశ, రజని, యామిని
రుగ్ణత = జబ్బు, వ్యాధి, రోగం
వనిత = మహిళ, స్త్రీ, పడతి
వివరం = రంధ్రం, బిలం, కలుగు
వృక్షము = తరువు, చెట్టు, భూరుహం
వెల్లి = ప్రవాహం, వెల్లువ
శివుడు = శంకరుడు, రుద్రుడు, భవుడు
సంఘం = సమూహం, బృందం, గుంపు
సుంత = ఇంచుక, ఇసుమంత, కొంచెం
సూర్యుడు = రవి, అహిమకరుడు, భానుడు
స్మరణ = తలపు, ఆలోచన, బుద్ధి

వ్యుత్పత్యర్థాలు

అంగన = శ్రేష్టమైన అవయవములు కలది (స్త్రీ)
అమృతం = మరణం పొందింపనిది (సుధ)
ఈశ్వరుడు = స్వభావం చేతనే ఐశ్వర్యం కలవాడు – (శివుడు)
కరి = తొండం (కరము) కలది (ఏనుగు)
గురువు = అంధకారమనే అజ్ఞానమును భేదించువాడు (ఉపాధ్యాయుడు)
చిత్రగ్రీవం = చిత్రమైన (వివిధ) వర్ణాలతో కూడిన కంఠం గలది (పావురం)
ఝరి = కాలక్రమంలో స్వల్పమైపోయేది (ప్రవాహం)
తాపసుడు = తపస్సు చేసేవాడు (ముని)
దేహుడు = దేహము కలవాడు (ప్రాణి)
పతివ్రత = పతిని సేవించుటయే నియమంగా కలిగినది (సాధ్వి)
పక్షి = పక్షాలు (రెక్కలు) కలది (పిట్ట)
పవనజుడు = పవనుని వలన (వాయువునకు) పుట్టినవాడు (హనుమంతుడు)
పార్వతి = హిమవంతుడనే పర్వతరాజు కూతురు (పార్వతి)
పుత్రుడు = పున్నామనరకం నుండి తల్లిదండ్రులను రక్షించేవాడు (కుమారుడు)
పురంధి = గృహాన్ని ధరించేది (ఇల్లాలు)
భవాని = భవుని (శివుని) భార్య (పార్వతి)
మిత్రుడు = సర్వభూతాల పట్ల స్నేహం గలవాడు (సూర్యుడు)
ముని = మౌనం దాల్చి ఉండేవాడు (ఋషి)
మూషికం = అన్నాదులను దొంగిలించేది (ఎలుక)
మోక్షం = జీవుణ్ణి పాశం నుంచి విడిపించేది (ముక్తి)
వనజం = వనం(నీరు)లో పుట్టినది (పద్మం)
శివుడు = సాధువుల హృదయాన శయనించి ఉండేవాడు, మంగళప్రదుడు (ఈశ్వరుడు)
సన్న్యాసి = సర్వమూ న్యాసం (వదిలివేసిన) చేసినవాడు]
సముద్రం = చంద్రోదయం వలన ఎక్కువగా వృద్ధి పొందేది (వాణ్ణి)

ప్రకృతి – వికృతి

అంబ – అమ్మ
ఆజ్ఞ – ఆన
ఆర్యుడు – అయ్య
ఆసక్తి – ఆసత్త
ఆహారం – ఓగిరం
ఉపాధ్యాయుడు – ఒజ్జ
ఈశ్వరుడు – ఈసరుడు
కష్టం – కస్తి
కవి – కయి
కవిత – కైత
కార్యము – కర్జము
కావ్యం – కబ్బం
కుడ్యం – గోడ
కులం – కొలం
గుణం – గొనం
గుహ – గొబ
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ఛాయ – చాయ
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పక్షం – పక్క
పక్షి – పక్కి
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భాష – బాస
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బ్రహ్మ – బొమ్మ, బమ్మ
యాత్ర – జాతర
లక్ష్మి – లచ్చి
లేఖ – లేక
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రాశి – రాసి
రాజ్జి – రాణి
వాటిక – వాడ
విజ్ఞానం – విన్నాణం
విద్య – విద్దె, విద్య
శక్తి – సత్తి
శాస్త్రము – చట్టము
శ్రీ – సిరి
సుఖం – సుకం
స్వామి – సామి

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 10 Mensuration Ex 10.4 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 10th Lesson Mensuration Exercise 10.4

10th Class Maths 10th Lesson Mensuration Ex 10.4 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A metallic sphere of radius 4.2 cm. is melted and recast into the shape of a cylinder of radius 6 cm. Find the height of the cylinder.
Answer:
Given, sphere converted into cylinder.
Hence volume of the sphere = volume of the cylinder.
Sphere:
Radius, r = 4.2 cm
Volume V = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr³
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 4.2 × 4.2 × 4.2
= 4 × 22 × 0.2 × 4.2 × 4.2
= 4 x 22 x 0.2 x 4.2 x 4.2
= 310.464
Cylinder:
Radius, r = 6 cm
Height h = h say
Volume = πr²h
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 6 × 6 × h
= \(\frac{22 \times 36}{7} h\)
= \(\frac{792}{7} h\)
Hence, \(\frac{792}{7} h\) = 310.464
h = \(\frac{310.464 \times 7}{792}\) = 2.744cm
!! π can be cancelled on both sides i.e., sphere = cylinder

Question 2.
Three metallic spheres of radii 6 cm., 8 cm. and 10 cm. respectively are melted together to form a single solid sphere. Find the radius of the resulting sphere.
Answer:
Given : Radii of the three spheres r₁ = 6 cm r₂ = 8 cm r₃ = 10 cm
These three are melted to form a single sphere.
Let the radius of the resulting sphere be ‘r’.
Then volume of the resultant sphere = sum of the volumes of the three small spheres.


∴ 1728 = (2 × 2 × 3) × (2 × 2 × 3) × (2 × 2 × 3)
r³ = 12 × 12 × 12
r³ = 12³
∴ r = 12
Thus the radius of the resultant sphere = 12 cm

Question 3.
A 20 m deep well with diameter 7 m. is dug and the earth got by digging is evenly spread out to form a rectangu¬lar platform of base 22 m. × 14 m. Find the height of the platform.
Answer:
Volume of earth taken out = πr²h
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × \(\frac{7}{2}\) × \(\frac{7}{2}\) × 20
= 770 m
Let height of plot form = H m.
∴ 22 × 14 × H = \(\frac{22}{7}\) × \(\frac{7}{2}\) × \(\frac{7}{2}\) × 20
H = \(\frac{35}{14}\) = \(\frac{5}{2}\) = \(2 \frac{1}{2} \mathrm{~m}\)
∴ The height of the plat form is \(2 \frac{1}{2} \mathrm{~m}\)

Question 4.
A well of diameter 14 m. is dug 15 m. deep. The earth taken out of it has been spread evenly all around it in the shape of a circular ring of width 7 m to form an embankment. Find the height of the embankment
Answer:
Volume of the well = Volume of the embank
Volume of the cylinder = Volume of the embank
Cylinder :
Radius r = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = \(\frac{14}{2}\) = 7 cm
Height/depth, h = 15 m
Volume V = πr²h
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 7 × 15
= 22 × 7 × 15
= 2310 m³
Embank:

Let the height of the embank = h m
Inner radius ‘r’ = Radius of well = 7 m
Outer radius, R = inner radius + width
= 7m + 7m = 14 m
Area of the base of the embank = (Area of outer circle) – (Area of inner circle)
= πR² – πr²
= π(R² – r²)
= \(\frac{22}{7}\)\(\left(14^{2}-7^{2}\right)\)
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × (14+7) × (14-7)
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 21 × 7
= 462 m²
∴ Volume of the embank = Base area × height
= 462 × h = 462 h m³
∴ 462 h m³ = 2310 m³
h = \(\frac{2310}{462}\) = 5 m.

Question 5.
A container shaped like a right circular cylinder having diameter 12 cm. and height 15 cm. is full of ice-cream. The ice-cream is to be filled into cones of height 12 cm. and diameter 6 cm., having a hemispherical shape on the top. Find the number of such cones which can be filled with ice-cream.
Answer:
Let the number of cones that can be filled with the ice-cream be ‘n’.
Then total volume of all the cones with a hemi spherical top = Volume of the ice-cream

Ice-cream cone = Cone + Hemisphere = πr²h

Cone:
Radius = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = \(\frac{6}{2}\) = 3 cm
Height, h = 12 cm
Volume V = \(\frac{1}{3}\)πr²h
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3 × 3 × 12
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 36
= \(\frac{792}{7}\)
Hemisphere:
Radius = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = \(\frac{6}{2}\) = 3 cm
Volume V = \(\frac{2}{3}\)πr³
= \(\frac{2}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3 × 3 × 3
= \(\frac{44 \times 9}{7}\)
= \(\frac{396}{7}\)
∴ Volume of each cone with ice-cream = \(\frac{792}{7}\) + \(\frac{396}{7}\) = \(\frac{1188}{7}\) cm³
Cylinder:
Radius = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = \(\frac{12}{2}\) = 6 cm
Height, h = 15 cm
Volume V = πr²h
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 6 × 6 × 15
= \(\frac{22 \times 36 \times 15}{7}\)
= \(\frac{11880}{7}\)
∴ \(\frac{11880}{7}\) = n × \(\frac{11880}{7}\)
⇒ n = \(\frac{11880}{7}\) × \(\frac{7}{1188}\) = 10
∴ n = 10.

Question 6.
How many silver coins, 1.75 cm in diameter and thickness 2 mm., need to be melted to form a cuboid of dimensions 5.5 cm × 10 cm × 3.5 cm?
Answer:
Let the number of silver coins needed to melt = n
Then total volume of n coins = volume of the cuboid
n × πr²h = lbh [∵ The shape of the coin is a cylinder and V = πr²h]

∴ 400 silver coins are needed.

Question 7.
A vessel is in the form of an inverted cone. Its height is 8 cm. and the radius of its top is 5 cm. It is filled with water up to the rim. When lead shots, each of which is a sphere of radius 0.5 cm are dropped into the vessel, 1/4 of the water flows out. Find the number of lead shots dropped into the vessel.
Answer:

Let the number of lead shots dropped = n
Then total volume of n lead shots = \(\frac{1}{4}\) volume of the conical vessel.
Lead shots:
Radius, r = 0.5 cm
Volume V = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr³
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 0.5 × 0.5 × 0.5
Total volume of n – shots
= n × \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 0.125
Cone:
Radius, r = 5 cm;
Height, h = 8 cm
Volume, V = \(\frac{1}{3}\) πr²h
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 5 × 5 × 8
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 200

∴ Number of lead shots = 100.

Question 8.
A solid metallic sphere of diameter 28 cm is melted and recast into a number of smaller cones, each of diameter 4 \(\frac{d}{2}\) cm and height 3 cm. Find the number of cones so formed.
Answer:
Let the no. of small cones = n Then,
total volume of n cones = Volume of sphere Diameter = 28 cm.
Cones:
Radius r = \(\frac{d}{2}\)

Height, h = 3 cm

Total volume of n-cones = n . \(\frac{154}{9}\) cm³
Sphere:
Radius = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = \(\frac{28}{2}\) = 14 cm

No. of cones formed = 672.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 10 Mensuration Ex 10.3 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 10th Lesson Mensuration Exercise 10.3

10th Class Maths 10th Lesson Mensuration Ex 10.3 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An iron pillar consists of a Cylindrical portion of 2.8 m. height and 20 cm. in diameter and a cone of 42 cm. height surmounting it. Find the weight of the pillar if 1 cm³ of iron weighs 7.5 g.
Answer:
Volume of the iron pillar = Volume of the cylinder + Volume of the cone
Cylinder:

Radius = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = \(\frac{20}{2}\) = 10 cm
Height = 2.8 m = 280 cm
Volume = πr²h
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 10 × 10 × 280
= 88000 cm³
Cone:
Radius ‘r’ = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = \(\frac{20}{2}\) = 10 cm
height ‘h’ = 42 cm
Volume = \(\frac{1}{3}\)πr²h
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 10 × 10 × 42
= 4400 cm³
∴ Total volume = 88000 + 4400 = 92400 cm³
∴ Total weight of the pillar at a weight of 7.5 g per 1 cm³ = 92400 × 7.5
= 693000 gms
= \(\frac{693000}{1000}\) kg
= 693 kg.

Question 2.
A toy is made in the form of hemisphere surmounted by a right cone whose circular base is joined with the plane surface of the hemisphere. The radius of the base of the cone is 7 cm. and its volume is 3/2 of the hemisphere. Calculate the height of the cone and the surface area of the toy correct to 2 places of decimal.
(Take π = \(3 \frac{1}{7}\))
Answer:

Given r = 7 cm and
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{3}{2}\) volume of the hemisphere
\(\frac{1}{3}\)πr²h = \(\frac{3}{2}\) × \(\frac{2}{3}\) × πr³
∴ h = 3r
= 3 × 7 = 21 cm
Surface area of the toy = C.S.A. of the cone + C.S.A. of hemisphere
Cone:
Radius (r) = 7 cm
Height (h) = 21 cm
Slant height l = \(\sqrt{r^{2}+h^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{7^{2}+21^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{49+441}\)
= √490
= 22.135 cm.
∴ C.S.A. = πrl
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 22.135 = 486.990 cm²
Hemisphere:
Radius (r) = 7 cm
C.S.A. = 2πr²
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 7
= 308 cm²
C.S.A. of the toy = 486.990 + 308 = 794.990 cm²

Question 3.
Find the volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube whose edge is 7 cm.
Answer:
Radius of the cone with the largest volume that can be cut out from a cube of edge 7 cm = \(\frac{7}{2}\) cm

Height of the cone = edge of the cube = 7 cm
∴ Volume of the cone V = \(\frac{1}{3}\)πr²h
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × \(\frac{7}{2}\) × \(\frac{7}{2}\) × 7
= 89.83 cm³.

Question 4.
A cylindrical tub of radius 5 cm and length 9.8 cm is full of water. A solid in the form of right circular cone mounted on a hemisphere is immersed into the tub. The radius of the hemi¬sphere is 3.5 cm and height of cone outside the hemisphere is 5 cm. Find the volume of water left in the tub. (Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\))
Answer:

The tub is in the shape of a cylinder, thus
Radius of the cylinder (r) = 5 cm
Length of the cylinder (h) = 9.8 cm
Volume of the cylinder (V) = πr²h
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 5 × 5 × 9.8
Volume of the tub = 770 cm³.
Radius of the hemisphere (r) = 3.5 cm
Volume of the hemisphere = \(\frac{2}{3}\)πr³
= \(\frac{2}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3.5 × 3.5 × 3.5
= \(\frac{22 \times 12.25}{3}\)
= \(\frac{269.5}{3}\)
Radius of the cone (r) = 3.5 cm
Height of the Cone (h) = 5 cm
Volume of the cone V = \(\frac{1}{3}\)πr²h
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3.5 × 3.5 × 5
= \(\frac{192.5}{3}\)
Volume of the solid = Volume of the hemisphere + Volume of the cone
= \(\frac{269.5}{3}\) + \(\frac{192.5}{3}\) = \(\frac{462}{3}\) = 154 cm³
Now, when the solid is immersed in the tub, it replaces the water whose volume is equal to volume of the solid itself.
Thus the volume of the water replaced = 154 cm³.
∴ Volume of the water left in the tub = Volume of the tub – Volume of the solid = 770 – 154 = 616 cm³.

Question 5.
In the adjacent figure, the height of a solid cylinder is 10 cm and diameter 7 cm. Two equal conical holes of radius 3 cm and height 4 cm are cut off as shown in the figure. Find the volume of the remaining solid.

Answer:
Volume of the remaining solid = Volume of the given solid – Total volume of the two conical holes
Radius of the given cylinder (r) = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = \(\frac{7}{2}\) = 3.5 cm
Height of the cylinder (h) = 10 cm
Volume of the cylinder (V) = πr²h
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3.5 × 3.5 × 10
= \(\frac{2695}{7}\)
= 385 cm³.
Radius of each conical hole, ‘r’ = 3 cm
Height of the conical hole, h = 4 cm
Volume of each conical hole,
V = \(\frac{1}{3}\)πr²h = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3 × 3 × 4
= \(\frac{792}{21}\)
= \(\frac{264}{7}\)
Total volume of two conical holes = 2 × \(\frac{264}{7}\) = \(\frac{528}{7}\) cm³
Hence, the remaining volume of the solid

Question 6.
Spherical marbles of diameter 1.4 cm. are dropped into a cylindrical beaker of diameter 7 cm., which contains some water. Find the number of marbles that should be dropped into the beaker, so that water level rises by 5.6 cm.
Answer:
Rise in the water level is seen in cylindrical shape of Radius = Beaker radius
= \(\frac{d}{2}\) = \(\frac{7}{2}\) = 3.5 cm

Height ‘h’ of the rise = 5.6 cm.
∴ Volume of the ‘water rise’ = πr²h
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3.5 × 3.5 × 5.6
= \(\frac{22 \times 12.25 \times 5.6}{7}\)
= 215.6
Volume of each marble dropped = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr³
Where radius r = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = \(\frac{1.4}{2}\) = 0.7 cm
∴ V = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 0.7 × 0.7 × 0.7
= 1.4373 cm³
∴ Volume of the ‘rise’ = Total volume of the marbles.
Let the number of marbles be ‘n’ then n × volume of each marble = volume of the rise.
n × 1.4373 = 215.6
= \(\frac{215.6}{1.4373}\)
∴ Number of marbles = 150.

Question 7.
A pen stand is made of wood in the shape of cuboid with three conical depressions to hold the pens. The dimensions of the cuboid are 15 cm by 10 cm by 3.5 cm. The radius of each of the depression is 0.5 cm and the depth is 1.4 cm. Find the volume of wood in the entire stand.

Answer:
Volume of the wood in the pen stand = Volume of cuboid – Total volume of three depressions.
Length of the cuboid (l) = 15 cm
Breadth of the cuboid (b) = 10 cm
Height of the cuboid (h) = 3.5 cm
Volume of the cuboid (V) = lbh = 15 × 10 × 3.5 = 525 cm³.
Radius of each depression (r) = 0.5 cm
Height / depth (h) = 1.4 cm
Volume of each depressions V = \(\frac{1}{3}\)πr²h
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 0.5 × 0.5 × 1.4
= \(\frac{7.7}{3 \times 7}\) = \(\frac{1.1}{3}\) cm³
Total volume of the three depressions = 3 × \(\frac{1.1}{3}\)
= 1.1 cm³
∴ Volume of the wood = 525 – 1.1 = 523.9 cm³

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Telugu Solutions 10th Class Telugu Grammar Chandassu ఛందస్సు Notes, Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Telugu Grammar Chandassu ఛందస్సు

కవులు పద్యాలను, గేయాలను కొన్ని నియమాలకు లోబడి రాస్తారు. అందువల్లనే అవి రాగంతో పాడుకోడానికి వీలుగా ఉంటాయి.

1) లఘువు :
రెప్పపాటు కాలంలో లేదా చిటికె వేసే కాలంలో ఉచ్చరించే అక్షరాలు “లఘువులు.” ఇవి హ్రస్వాక్షరాలుగా మనం పిలుచుకొనే అక్షరాలు.

2) గురువు :
లఘువు ఉచ్చరించే సమయం కంటె, ఎక్కువ సమయం అవసరమయ్యే అక్షరాలు “గురువులు.”

గురులఘువుల గుర్తులు

లఘువు అని తెలుపడానికి గుర్తు : I ‘ల’
గురువు అని తెలుపడానికి గుర్తు : U ‘గ’

గురులఘువుల నిర్ణయం

ఎ) గురువుల లక్షణాలు – వాటిని గుర్తించే విధానము.

బి) లఘువుల లక్షణాలు – వాటిని గుర్తించే విధం:

గమనిక : గురువులు కాని అక్షరాలన్నీ లఘువులు

1) ఋ కారంతో కూడిన అక్షరం సంయుక్తాక్షరం కాదు. ‘ఋ’ అనేది అచ్చు. అందువల్ల అది లఘువు. దానికి ముందు అక్షరం కూడా లఘువే.

2) సంయుక్తాక్షరానికి ముందున్న అక్షరాన్ని ఊది పలికితేనే, అది గురువు అవుతుంది. లేకపోతే లఘువు అవుతుంది.

3) ఏకపదంలోనూ, సమాసంలోనూ సంయుక్తాక్షరానికి ముందున్న అక్షరం ఊది పలకబడుతుంది. కాబట్టి అది గురువు అవుతుంది.

గణ విభజన

1) ఒకే అక్షరం గణాలు : ఒకే అక్షరం గణంగా ఏర్పడితే, అది ఏకాక్షర గణం. ఈ గణంలో ఒక గురువు లేదా ఒక లఘువు ఒక్కొక్కటే గణంగా ఉంటాయి.

2) రెండక్షరాల గణాలు : రెండేసి అక్షరాలు కలిసి గణాలుగా ఏర్పడతాయి. వీటిలోనూ గురువులు, లఘువులు ఉంటాయి. ఇవి నాలుగు రకాలు.

అభ్యాసము : రెండక్షరాల గణాలు నాలుగు రకాలు ఉన్నాయి కదా ! ఒక్కొక్క దానికి 4 పదాల చొప్పున రాయండి.

మూడక్షరాల గణాలు

మూడక్షరాల గణాలు మొత్తం ఎనిమిది (8).

అ) మూడక్షరాల గణాలను గుర్తించే సులభ మార్గము :

య, మా, తా, రా, జ, భా, న, స అనే సూత్రాన్ని కంఠస్థం చేసి, పై విధంగా ఒక చక్రం గీయండి. మీకు కావలసిన గణం పేరు గల మొదటి అక్షరం ఎక్కడ ఉందో గుర్తించండి. ఆ అక్షరాన్నుండి కుడిగా ఉన్న మూడక్షరాలలోనూ గురు లఘువులు ఏ క్రమంగా ఉన్నాయో, మీకు కావలసిన గణానికి గురు లఘువులు ఆ క్రమంలో ఉంటాయి.

ఉదా : మీకు ‘య’ గణం యొక్క గురు లఘువుల క్రమం కావాలి అనుకోండి. అపుడు ‘య’ నుండి కుడివైపుగా ‘యమాతా’ అనే మూడక్షరాలను వేరుగా వ్రాయండి.

ఆ) మూడక్షరాల గణముల నిర్ణయంలో మరో పద్ధతి :

అని వ్రాసుకొని, దానికి గురు లఘువులు గుర్తించండి. మీకు కావలసిన గణం పేరు గల అక్షరంతో, ప్రక్క రెండు అక్షరాలూ కలిపి, దానిలోని గురు లఘువులు ఎలా ఉన్నాయో గమనిస్తే, ఏ గణానికి ఏ అక్షరాలు ఉంటాయో తెలుస్తుంది.
ఉదా :
1) య గణం = యమాతా = I U U = ఆది లఘువు
2) మ గణం = మాతారా = U U U = సర్వ గురువు
3) త గణం= తారాజ = U U I = అంత్య లఘువు
4) ర గణం = రాజభా = U I U = మధ్య లఘువు
5) జ గణం = జభాన = I U I = భాన మధ్య గురువు
6) భ గణం = భానస = U I I = ఆది గురువు
7) న గణం = నసల = I I I = సర్వ లఘువులు
8) లగము (లేక ‘వ’ గణం) = I U (లఘువు, గురువు)

నాలుగు అక్షరాల గణాలు

సూర్య గణాలు – ఇంద్ర గణాలు

యతి – ప్రాసలు

I. గమనిక : పద్యానికి సౌందర్యాన్ని చేకూర్చేవి యతి, ప్రాసలు.
1. యతి : పద్యపాదంలోని మొదటి అక్షరాన్ని ‘యతి’ అంటారు.
2. ప్రాస : పద్యపాదంలోని రెండవ అక్షరాన్ని ‘ప్రాస’ అంటారు.

II. గమనిక : నియమం చెప్పినచోట ‘యతి’, ‘ప్రాస’లు ప్రయోగించడం వల్ల చదవడానికి, వినడానికీ, జ్ఞాపకం పెట్టుకోడానికీ — సౌకర్యం కలుగుతుంది.

3. యతిమైత్రి :
పద్యపాదం యొక్క మొదటి అక్షరంతో, ఆ పద్యంలో నిర్ణయింపబడిన స్థానమందలి అక్షరం మైత్రి కలిగి ఉండడాన్ని యతిమైత్రి అంటారు. యతిమైత్రి యతిస్థానంలోని హల్లుకేకాక, అచ్చుతో కూడా మైత్రి ఉండాలి.

1. ఉత్పలమాల
కింది పద్యపాదాన్ని పరిశీలించండి.

గమనిక :
పై పాదాల్లో ‘భ, ర, న, భ, భ, ర, వ’ అనే గణాలు వరుసగా వచ్చాయి. ఇలా పద్యంలో నాలుగు పాదాల్లోనూ ఒకే రకమైన గణాలు ఒకే వరుసలో ఉన్న పద్యాన్ని ‘వృత్త పద్యం’ అంటారు.

యతి :
పద్య పాదంలో మొదటి అక్షరాన్ని ‘యతి’ అంటారు. ఈ యతి అక్షరం గానీ, దాని వర్ణమైత్రి అక్షరం గానీ ఆ పాదంలో మరొకచోట రావడాన్ని ‘యతిమైత్రి’ లేదా యతిస్థానం అంటారు.

పై పద్యపాదాల్లో పదవ అక్షరం (ఆ – అని జే – సి) యతి.

ప్రాస :
పై పద్యపాదాల్లో రెండవ అక్షరంగా నాలుగు పాదాల్లోనూ ‘య’ అనే అక్షరం వచ్చింది. ఈ పద్యాలలో రెండవ అక్షరంగా ఒకే గుణింతాక్షరం రావడాన్ని ‘ప్రాస’ నియమం అంటారు. పై లక్షణాలు గల పద్యాన్ని ‘ఉత్పలమాల’ పద్యం అంటారు.

ఉత్పలమాల పద్య లక్షణాలు :

1. ఇది వృత్తపద్యం.
2. ఈ పద్యంలో నాలుగు పాదాలుంటాయి.
3. ప్రతి పాదంలోనూ భ, ర, న, భ, భ, ర, వ అనే గణాలుంటాయి.
4. ప్రాస నియమం ఉంటుంది.
5. ప్రతి పాదంలోనూ 20 అక్షరాలుంటాయి.

2. చంపకమాల
కింది పద్య పాదాన్ని పరిశీలించండి.

చంపకమాల పద్య లక్షణాలు :

1. ఇది వృత్తపద్యం.
2. ఈ పద్యంలో నాలుగు పాదాలుంటాయి.
3. ప్రతి పాదంలో ‘న, జ, భ, జ, జ, జ, ర’ అనే గణాలుంటాయి.
4. ప్రతి పాదంలో 11వ అక్షరం యతిస్థానం (ఈ పాదంలో అ – య).
5. ప్రాస నియమం ఉంటుంది.
6. ప్రతి పాదంలోనూ 21 అక్షరాలుంటాయి.

3. శార్దూలం
కింది పద్యపాదాన్ని పరిశీలించండి.

శార్దూల పద్య లక్షణాలు :

1. ఇది వృత్తపద్యం.
2. ఈ పద్యంలో నాలుగు పాదాలుంటాయి.
3. ప్రతి పాదంలోనూ ‘మ, స, జ, స, త, త, గ’ అనే గణాలుంటాయి.
4. ప్రతి పాదంలో 13వ అక్షరం యతిస్థానం (ఈ పాదంలో ఆ – యం).
5. ప్రాస నియమం ఉంటుంది.
6. ప్రతి పాదంలోనూ 19 అక్షరాలుంటాయి.

4. మత్తేభం:
కింది పద్య పాదాన్ని పరిశీలించండి.

మత్తేభ పద్య లక్షణాలు :

1. ఇది వృత్తపద్యం.
2. ఈ పద్యంలో నాలుగు పాదాలుంటాయి.
3. ప్రతి పాదంలోనూ ‘స, భ, ర, న, మ, య, వ’ అనే గణాలుంటాయి.
4. ప్రతి పాదంలో 14వ అక్షరం యతిస్థానం (ఈ పాదంలో ప – పా).
5. ప్రాస నియమం ఉంటుంది.
6. ప్రతి పాదంలోనూ 20 అక్షరాలుంటాయి.

5. తేటగీతి

తేటగీతి పద్య లక్షణాలు :

1. ఇది ‘ఉపజాతి’ పద్యం.
2. ఈ పద్యానికి నాలుగు పాదాలుంటాయి.
3. ప్రతి పాదానికి ఒక సూర్యగణం, రెండు ఇంద్రగణాలు, రెండు సూర్యగణాలు వరుసగా ఉంటాయి.
4. నాలుగో గణం మొదటి అక్షరం యతి స్థానం.
5. ప్రాస యతి చెల్లుతుంది.
6. ప్రాస నియమం లేదు.

ఉదా :

పై పద్యంలో 1 సూర్య గణం, 2 ఇంద్ర గణాలు, 2 సూర్య గణాలు వరుసగా వచ్చాయి కాబట్టి ఇది తేటగీతి పద్యపాదం.
ఇక్కడ ‘ప్రాసయతి’ వాడబడింది.

6. ఆటవెలది

ఆటవెలది పద్య లక్షణాలు :
1) ఇది ‘ఉపజాతి’ పద్యం.
2) ఈ పద్యానికి నాలుగు పాదాలు ఉంటాయి.
3) 1, 3 పాదాల్లో వరుసగా మూడు సూర్య గణాలు, రెండు ఇంద్ర గణాల చొప్పున ఉంటాయి.
4) 2, 4 పాదాల్లో ఐదూ సూర్య గణాలే ఉంటాయి.
5) ప్రతి పాదంలోనూ నాల్గవ గణంలోని మొదటి అక్షరం యతి. యతిలేనిచోట ప్రాసయతి చెల్లుతుంది.
6) ప్రాస నియమం పాటింపనవసరం లేదు.
ఉదా :

7. సీసం : (ఉపజాతి పద్యాలంటే తేటగీతి, ఆటవెలది, సీసం)
సీసము పద్య లక్షణాలు :

1. సీస పద్యంలో నాలు పెద్ద పాదాలు ఉంటాయి. ఈ పెద్ద పాదం రెండు భాగాలుగా ఉంటుంది. ప్రతి భాగంలోనూ నాలుగేసి గణాల చొప్పున, ఒక్కొక్క పెద్ద పాదంలో ఎనిమిది గణాలు ఉంటాయి. ఈ 8 గణాల్లో మొదట ఆరు ఇంద్ర గణాలు, చివర రెండు సూర్య గణాలు ఉంటాయి.
2. సీస పద్యపాదంలోని రెండు భాగాల్లోనూ, ప్రతి భాగంలోనూ మూడవ గణం మొదటి అక్షరంతో యతిమైత్రి ఉండాలి. యతిలేని చోట ప్రాసయతి ఉండవచ్చు.
3. సీస పద్యంలో నాల్గు పెద్ద పాదాల తరువాత ఒక తేటగీతి గాని, ఆటవెలది గాని చేర్చాలి.

ఉదా :

8. ద్విపద
ద్విపద పద్య లక్షణాలు:

1. ‘ద్విపద’ పద్యంలో రెండు పాదాలు ఉంటాయి.
2. ప్రతి పాదంలోనూ వరుసగా మూడు ఇంద్ర గణాలు, ఒక సూర్య గణం ఉంటాయి.
3. మూడవ గణం మొదటి అక్షరంతో యతి.
4. ప్రాసయతి చెల్లుతుంది.
5. ప్రాస నియమం పాటింపబడుతుంది.

గమనిక :
ప్రాస నియమం లేని ద్విపదను ‘మంజరీ ద్విపద’ అంటారు.
ఉదా :

9. కందం
కందం పద్య లక్షణాలు :

1. ఈ ‘కందం’ పద్యములో గగ, భ, జ, స, నల అనే గణాలు ఉంటాయి.
2. మొదటి పాదం ‘లఘువు’తో మొదలయితే అన్ని పాదాల్లోనూ మొదటి అక్షరం లఘువుగానే ఉండాలి. మొదటి . పాదము ‘గురువు’తో మొదలయితే, అన్ని పాదాల్లోనూ మొదటి అక్షరం గురువుగానే ఉండాలి. 3) రెండవ, నాల్గవ పాదాల్లోని చివరి అక్షరం గురువుగా ఉండాలి.
3. 1, 2 పాదాలలో (3 + 5) 8 గణాలు; 3, 4 పాదాల్లో (3 + 5) = 8 గణాలు ఉంటాయి.
4. 1, 2 పాదాలు, 3, 4 పాదాలు కలిసిన మొత్తం 8 గణాల్లో 6వ గణం “నలము” గాని ‘జగణం’ కాని కావాలి.
5. బేసి గణం జగణం ఉండరాదు.
6. ప్రాస నియమం ఉండాలి.

ఉదా :

వృత్తాలు – లక్షణాలు – సులభంగా గుర్తు పట్టడం

పద్యపాదాలను గుర్తించి, గణ విభజన చేయడం

ఈ క్రింది పద్యపాదాలకు గణ విభజన చేసి, అవి ఏ పద్యపాదాలో గుర్తించి, యతిని పేర్కొనండి.
1) వెన్నెల వెల్లి పాల్కడలి వ్రేక దనంబున బేర్చి దిక్కులన్
జవాబు:

గమనిక : పై పద్యపాదంలో “భ, ర, న, భ, భ, ర, వ” అనే గణాలు వరుసగా వచ్చాయి. కాబట్టి ఇది ‘ఉత్పలమాల’ పద్య పాదం. యతిస్థానం 10వ అక్షరం (వె – వే).

2) దెసలను కొమ్మ లొయ్యనతి దీర్ఘములైన కరంబులన్ బ్రియం
జవాబు:

పై పద్యపాదంలో “న, జ, భ, జ, జ, జ, ర” అనే గణాలు వరుసగా వచ్చాయి. కాబట్టి ఇది చంపకమాల పద్యపాదం. యతి స్థానం 11వ అక్షరం (దె – దీ)

3) ఆ యేమీ యొక రాణి వాసమును బుణ్యవాసమున్ దెచ్చినా
జవాబు:

పై పద్యపాదంలో మ, స, జ, స, త, త, గ అనే గణాలు వరుసగా వచ్చాయి. కాబట్టి ఇది శార్దూల పద్యపాదం.. యతి స్థానము 13వ అక్షరం (ఆ – ణ్యా)

4) శివరాజంతట మేల్ము సుంగుఁదెరలో స్నిగ్దాంబుద చ్చాయలో
జవాబు:

పై పద్యపాదంలో “స, భ, ర, న, మ, య, వ” అనే గణాలు వరుసగా వచ్చాయి. కాబట్టి ఇది మత్తేభ పద్యపాదం. యతి స్థానం 14వ అక్షరం (శి – స్ని).

ఛందస్సుపై ప్రశ్నలు

1) ‘భ, ర, న, భ, భ, ర, వ’ అనే గణాలు, ఏ పద్యానికి చెందినవి ?
A) ఉత్పలమాల
B) చంపకమాల
C) శార్దూలము
D) మత్తేభము
జవాబు:
A) ఉత్పలమాల

2) ‘న జ భ జ జ జ ర’ గణాలు ఏ పద్యానికి చెందినవి?
A) శార్దూలము
B) మత్తేభము
C) ఉత్పలమాల
D) చంపకమాల
జవాబు:
D) చంపకమాల

3) ‘మసజసతతగ’ గణాలు ఏ పద్యానికి చెందినవి?
A) చంపకమాల
B) ఉత్పలమాల
C) మత్తేభం
D) శార్దూలం
జవాబు:
D) శార్దూలం

4) ‘సభరనమయవ’ గణాలు ఏ పద్యానికి చెందినవి?
A) ఉత్పలమాల
B) మత్తేభము
C) శార్దూలము
D) చంపకమాల
జవాబు:
B) మత్తేభము

5) 14వ అక్షరంతో యతి గల పద్యము
A) ఉత్పలమాల
B) చంపకమాల
C) శార్దూలము
D) మత్తేభము
జవాబు:
D) మత్తేభము

6) ఉత్పలమాల పద్యానికి ఈ అక్షరంతో యతి
A) 11వ అక్షరం
B) 10వ అక్షరం
C) 13వ అక్షరం
D) 14వ అక్షరం
జవాబు:
B) 10వ అక్షరం

7) చంపకమాల పద్యానికి ఈ అక్షరంతో యతి
A) 10వ అక్షరం
B) 13వ అక్షరం
C) 14వ అక్షరం
D) 11వ అక్షరం
జవాబు:
D) 11వ అక్షరం

8) 13వ అక్షరంతో యతి గల పద్యం ఇది
A) శార్దూలము
B) మత్తేభము
C) ఉత్పలమాల
D) చంపకమాల
జవాబు:
A) శార్దూలము

9) ‘అతడు’ – ఇది ఏ గణమో గర్తించండి?
A)త గణం
B) ర గణం
C) భ గణం
D) య గణం
జవాబు:
C) భ గణం

10) ‘మీయయ్య’ – ఇది ఏ గణమో గుర్తించండి?
A) ర గణం
B) త గణం
C) న గణం
D) మ గణం
జవాబు:
B) త గణం

11) ‘శ్రీరామా’ అనే పదం ఈ గణానికి చెందింది.
A) మ గణం
B) న గణం
C) ర గణం
D) స గణం
జవాబు:
A) మ గణం

12) ‘సీస పద్యం ‘ మీద చేరే పద్యాలలో ఇది ఒకటి
A) కందము
B) తేటగీతి
C) ఉత్పలమాల
D) ద్విపద
జవాబు:
B) తేటగీతి

13) ‘తేటగీతి’ పద్యంలో యతి ఏది?
A) 3వ గణాద్యక్షరం
B) రెండవ గణాద్యక్షరం
C) నాల్గవ గణాద్యక్షరం
D) ఐదవ గణాద్యక్షరం
జవాబు:
C) నాల్గవ గణాద్యక్షరం

14) పద్యంలో ప్రాసాక్షరము ఏది?
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
జవాబు:
B) 2

15) ‘యతి’ అంటే ఎన్నవ అక్షరము?
A) మూడవ
B) రెండవ
C) ఒకటవ
D) నాల్గువ
జవాబు:
C) ఒకటవ

16) ‘ఆటవెలది’ పద్యానికి గల పాదాలు
A) 2
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
జవాబు:
B) 4

17) “అనయము దోషమే పరులయందు కనుంగొనునట్టియా’ – ఈ పాదంలో గురులఘువులు గుర్తించి, ఏ పద్యపాదమో పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:

ఇది చంపకమాల పద్యపాదము.

18 ‘పట్టుగ నీశ్వరుండు తన పాలిట నుండి పుడిచ్చినంతలో’ – ఈ పాదంలో గురులఘువులు గుర్తించి, ఏ పద్యపాదమో పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:

ఇది ఉత్పలమాల పద్యపాదము.

19) సురుచిర తారకా కుసుమ శోభి నభోంగణ భూమిఁ గాలమన్’ – ఈ పాదానికి గురులఘువులు గుర్తించి, ఏ పద్యపాదమో పేర్కొనండి. పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:

ఇది చంపకమాల పద్యపాదము.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Coordination.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 5th Lesson Coordination

10th Class Biology 5th Lesson Coordination 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Plants respond to stimuli.” During a project work on it, from which plants do you collect information and record it?
Answer:
a) Mimosa Pudica (Touch me not plant) b) Sunflower c) Cucumber d) Bittergourd

Question 2.
Write two points about insulin from the information you collected from internet. (OR)
Write two sentences about insulin hormone using the data collected from your school library.
Answer:

1. Insulin is secreted by islets of longerhans of pancreas gland.
2. Deficiency of insulin results in diabetis mellitus.

Question 3.
You have performed the activity of Seed Germination in a glass jar in your school lab. You might have observed the growth of shoot and root. What information did you record regarding the shoot growth after a week if the glass jar is tilted and plant kept horizontally.
Answer:

1. More auxins collects on light falling side of the stem.
2. Cells on that side grow faster and make the stem bends towards light due to phototropism.

Question 4.
Write the functions of Spinal-cord from the information collected from your school library and from internet.
Answer:

1. Carries the information to the brain from the lower parts of the body.
2. It carries the information from brain to body parts.
3. It plays a key role in the reflex actions.
4. It acts as relay centre.

Question 5.
Where do we find Cerebro-spinal fluid? Mention one of its functions.
Answer:
The space between the inner layers of brain is filled with fluid called cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It serves as a shock-absorbing medium and protects the brain against shocks, jerks along with the meninges and cranium.

Question 6.
Mention at least one activity done at school to show involuntary reflexes.
Answer:
Knee-jerk.

Question 7.
Write the name of the nerve given in the following diagram and write its function.
Answer:
The given diagram is the sensory Neuron. They are also called Afferent nerves.
Function: They carry messages towards central nervous system (Brain or spinal cord) from nerve endings on the muscles of different sense organs, that sense the change in surroundings.

Question 8.
Identify the given part in the diagram and write its use.
Answer:
i) Synapse.
ii) It is a functional region of contact between two neurons where infromation from one neuron is transmitted to another neuron.

Question 9.
Name the part of the brain that maintains the equilibrium.
Answer:
The part of the brain that maintains the equilibrium is cerebellum.

Question 10.
Who discovered the first plant hormone auxin?
Answer:
The first plant hormone auxin was discovered by F.W. Went.

Question 11.
What was the belief of Greeks?
Answer:
The Greeks believed that all functions of the body were controlled by the brain, since damage to that organ produced remarkable changes in behaviour.

Question 12.
How many types of nerves are present in human body? What are they?
Answer:
Nerves are classified mainly into three types.

1. Afferent neurons
2. Efferent neurons
3. Association neurons.

Question 13.
What are Afferent neurons?
Answer:
Afferent neurons: Nerves which carry messages towards the central nervous system (Spinal cord or brain) from sense organs are called afferent neurons. These are also called sensory nerves.

Question 14.
What are efferent neurons or nerves?
Answer:
Efferent neurons: Nerves which carry messages from the central nervous system to parts that shall carry out the response are called efferent neurons. They are also called as motor nerves.

Question 15.
What are association nerves?
Answer:
The nerves, which link together the afferent and efferent nerves are called association nerves.

Question 16.
What is stimulus?
Answer:
Stimulus is a thing or event that causes a specific functional reaction in an organ or tissue.

Question 17.
What is response?
Answer:
Response is a effect of a change in the environment of the organism or signals of change or stimuli.

Question 18.
What does rapidity of response indicate?
Answer:
Rapidity of response indicates an efficient communication system linking those parts that pick up stimuli to those that trigger a response.

Question 19.
How are responses bring about?
Answer:
Responses are brought about by rapid changes in some muscle.

Question 20.
According to Galen a Greek physiologist how many kinds of nerves are present in body?
Answer:
According to Galen, nerves are of two kinds. They are 1) for sensation and 2) for action.

Question 21.
What are the major parts of neuron?
Answer:
The major parts of neuron are cell body or cyton, dendrites and axon.

Question 22.
What are the two types of projections that extend from cell body?
Answer:
The two types of projections that extend from cell body are dendrites and axon.

Question 23.
What is synapse?
Answer:
Synapse is the functional region of contact between two neurons.

Question 24.
Synapses are mainly found in?
Answer:
Synapses are mainly found in the brain, spinal cord and around the spinal cord.

Question 25.
What are reflexes?
Answer:
The responses to a stimulus on which we do not have control are called reflexes or reflex action.

Question 26.
What is the importance of reflex action?
Answer:
Reflex action save us from painful or dangerous stimuli.

Question 27.
How many types does the nervous system is divided?
Answer:
Nervous system is divided into two types. They are central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

Question 28.
What are the parts of central nervous system?
Answer:
The parts of the central nervous system are brain and spinal cord.

Question 29.
What are the three major divisions in brain?
Answer:

1. Forebrain
2. Mid brain and
3. Hind brain.

Question 30.
What are the parts present in fore brain?
Answer:
The parts present in fore brain are cerebrum and diencephalon.

Question 31.
What are cranial nerves? How many cranial nerves are present?
Answer:
Nerves originate from brain are called cranial nerves. 12 pairs of cranial nerves arise from brain.

Question 32.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are present?
Answer:
31 pairs of spinal nerves are present.

Question 33.
Which is called peripheral nervous system?
Answer:
Peripheral nervous system consists of nerves arising from the brain and spinal cord. 12 pairs of cranial nerves from brain and 31 pairs of spiral nerves from spinal card together called peripheral nervous system.

Question 34.
What is autonomous nervous system?
Answer:
The peripheral nervous system that controls the involuntary actions of the body is called autonomous nervous system.

Question 35.
What are the systems involved in control and coordination in animals?
Answer:
The systems involved in control and coordination in animals are nervous system and endocrine system.

Question 36.
The hormone insulin is secreted by?
Answer:
The hormone insulin is secreted by Islets of Langerhans of pancreas gland.

Question 37.
Give examples for endocrine glands.
Answer:
The examples for endocrine glands are pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid, adrenal, hypothalamus, pancreas, thymus, testes and ovaries.

Question 38.
The nervous system that regulates heart beat, breathing, etc., is?
Answer:
The nervous system that regulates heart beat, breathing etc., is autonomous nervous system.

Question 39.
What is thigmotropism?
Answer:
The directional growth movement of a plant part in response to the touch of an object is called thigmotropism.

Question 40.
Name the receptors of taste and smell.
Answer:
The receptor of taste is gustatory receptor and that of smell is olfactory receptor.

Question 41.
What is reflex action? Give examples.
Answer:
Reflex action is a quick involuntary response to a stimulus by an effector.
e.g: Withdrawing our hand from hot object, blinking of eyelids when a moving object approaches eye.

Question 42.
What is the difference between a reflex action and walking?
Answer:
Reflex action is an involuntary action whereas walking is a voluntary action.

Question 43.
Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body?
Answer:
The part of the brain that maintains posture and equilibrium of the body is cerebellum.

Question 44.
How do we detect the smell of agarbathi or incense stick?
Answer:
We detect the smell of agarbathi or incense stick when the olfactory receptors in the nose detect smell by sending nerve impulses to the olfactory centre of the brain.

Question 45.
What is target tissue?
Answer:
Tissues or organs on which hormones act are called target tissues or organs.

Question 46.
What are the main cells of the nervous system?
Answer:
The main cells of the nervous system are the neurons. Besides the neurons the nervous system also consists of glial cells.

Question 47.
What is phototropism?
Answer:
The movement of a plant part in response to light is called phototropism.

Question 48.
What is geotropism?
Answer:
The movement of a plant part in response to gravity is called geotropism.

Question 49.
What is chemotropism?
Answer:
The movement of a plant part in response to chemical stimulus is called chemotropism.

Question 50.
What is hydrotropism?
Answer:
The movement of a plant part in response to water is called hydrotropism.

Question 51.
How many nerve cells does human nervous system consist of?
Answer:
Human nervous system consists of about 100 billion cells.

Question 52.
What is reflex arc?
Answer:
The structural and functional unit that carries reflex action is called reflex arc.

Question 53.
The three layers covering the brain are called?
Answer:
The three layers covering the brain are meninges.

Question 54.
What are the functions carried out by cerebrum?
Answer:
Cerebrum is a seat of mental abilities, controls thinking, memory, reasoning, perception, emotions and speech.

Question 55.
What are the functions of cerebellum?
Answer:
Cerebellum maintains posture, equilibrium and muscle tone.

Question 56.
Which parts are present in hind brain?
Answer:
Cerebellum and medulla oblongata are the parts present in hind brain.

Question 57.
What is the function of feedback mechanism?
Answer:
The function of feed back mechanism is to regulate the production and release of hormones in the body.

Question 58.
Thyroxine hormone controls the body’s function like?
Answer:
Thyroxine hormone controls body’s function like general growth rate and a metabolic activity.

Question 59.
What are voluntary actions? Give examples.
Answer:
The movements under the control of the conscious mind are called voluntary actions. Example : Kicking foot ball, lifting bucket of water, reading book, running, walking, playing, eating, etc.

Question 60.
What are involuntary actions? Give examples.
Answer:
The movements which are not under the control of the conscious mind are called involuntary actions. Example : Respiration, circulation, digestion.

Question 61.
What is nerve impulse?
Answer:
The information passing through a neuron in the form of electrical and chemical signals is called nerve impulse.

Question 62.
What are phytohormones?
Answer:
The hormones present in the plants are called phytohormones.

Question 63.
The phytohormone Abscisic acid is responsible for?
Answer:
Closing of stomata and seed dormancy are caused by the phytohormone Abscisicacid.

Question 64.
What are the functions of auxins?
Answer:
Auxins are responsible for cell elongation and differentiation of shoots and roots.

Question 65.
What is the speed of nerve transmission?
Answer:
Nerve transmission from stimulus to a response can occur at a maximum speed of about 100 meters per second.

Question 66.
What is vasomotor?
Answer:
Vasomotor refers to actions upon a blood vessel which alter its diameter.

Question 67.
What are dorsal and ventral root ganglion?
Answer:
The dorsal root and ventral root ganglions are the regions very close to the spinal cord in which the nerve cell bodies lie. Dorsal root ganglion is present on the dorsal side of spinal cord and ventral root ganglion is present on the ventral side of the spinalcord.

Question 68.
What is the function of dorsal root ganglion?
Answer:
The dorsal root ganglion carries messages of sensation toward brain or spinal cord.

Question 69.
What is the function of ventral root ganglion?
Answer:
The ventral root ganglion carry the instructions from the brain or spinal card to muscles.

10th Class Biology 5th Lesson Coordination 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What questions will you ask a doctor to know about endocrine glands?
Answer:

1. Which glands are known as endocrine glands?
2. Where can we find endocrine glands in our body?
3. What do you call chemical substances secreted by Endocrine glands?
4. Which endocrine gland is attached to the brain?
5. What are the functions of endrocrine glands?
6. What will happen if endocrine glands are absent?

Question 2.
How do you feel when you realize that plants respond to the stimuli of their surroundings?
Answer:

1. It is very interesting and amazing to observe trophic and nastic movements of plants in our surroundings.
2. For example, the bending of shoots of creepers towards light kept near the window.
3. The plant roots always grow downwards.
4. The creepers like cucumber and bittergourds develops tendrils in response to contact or touch.
5. Butterflies fluttering around the flowers for nectar.

Question 3.
What will happen if a plant is placed near the window of your classroom? What is this process called?
Answer:

1. The plant bends towards the sun light and grow.
2. This process is called phototropism.

Question 4.
How do you appreciate the role of Spinal-cord in reflex actions?
Answer:

1. Spinal cord responds very fast and immediate.
2. The nerve impulses are transmitted very fast at the speed of 100 m/min.
3. So that we are protected from many dangerous situations.
4. So I really appreciate and amazing reflex actions of the spinal cord.

Question 5.
Read the following table:

Answer the following questions:
i) Which hormone is released at the time of emotions?
Answer:
Adrenaline

ii) Name the hormone responsible for the development of Secondary sexual characters.
Answer:
Estrogen, Testosteron.

Question 6.
Ram met with an accident. After that he lost the capacity to walk in straight manner and cannot smell anything. Which part of the brain got damaged in the above cases?
Answer:

1. The forebrain and hind brain of Ram might have been damaged.
2. The olfactory lobes of the forebrain are concerned with sense of smell. Here, Ram lost the sense of smell anything. Hence the olfactory lobes of forebrain got damaged.
3. The cerebellum of hind brain maintains posture, equilibrium and muscle tone.
4. After accident, Ram lost the capacity to walk in a straight manner and hence, I predict that cerebellum of Ram also got damaged.

Question 7.
What questions will you ask a doctor to know about pancreatic gland?
Answer:

1. Where is pancreas located?
2. Why is it called a mixed gland?
3. What is the role of pancreas as an endocrine gland?
4. Name the disorders occur to pancreas.

Question 8.
What is the role of Adrenalin in controlling emotions?
Answer:
Adrenalin increases rate of heart beat, causes rise in blood sugar, dilation of coronary artery and dilation of pupil of the eye.

Question 9.
What is the significance of the adrenal gland in the human body?
Answer:
Adrenal gland secrets adrenaline. It helps in

1. Increase heart beat rate
2. Rise in blood sugar
3. Dilation of the coronary artery
4. Dilation of pupil of the eye.

Question 10.
Write the difference between hormone and enzyme.
Answer:

Question 11.
Observe the following table and answer the questions.

i) Name the phytohormone in the table.
ii) Name the hormone which influences growth rate in humans.
Answer:
i) Auxin
ii) Thyroxine.

Question 12.
What questions you will ask a neurologist on function of brain?
Answer:

1. How does alcohol cosumption affect the brain?
2. Which part of brain is responsible for creativity?
3. How do we get fits ? 4) How do we get paralysis?
4. What kind of food should we take to increase?

Question 13.
Label a, b, c, d in the diagram given below and write their functions.
Answer:
a) Sensory Neuron/-Afferent Neuron: These carry messages towards the central nervous system.
b) Motor Neuron /- Efferent Neuron: These carry messages from central nervous system to body parts
c) White Matter
d) Effector Muscles: Respond to stimuli.

Question 14.
Prepare a table showing tropic movements in plants in response to stimuli.
Answer:

Question 15.
Explain two tropic movements with suitable examples.
Answer:

1. Phototropism: Response of plant to light cite example is called phototropism.
   Ex: sunflower
2. Geotropism: Response of a plant to gravitational force Ex: root growth of plant
3. Hydrotropism: Response of root to water availability in the soil.
   Ex : Plants which are growing very close to rocks and walls.
4. Thigmotropism: Response to make contact or touch is called Thigmotropism.
5. Chemotropism: Response to chemical is called chemotropism (Stigma secretes sugary substances)

Question 16.
Write two voluntary functions and two involuntary functions you have observed in your body.
Answer:
a) Examples for voluntary functions:

1. Cleaning the table
2. Playing on the keyboard.

b) Examples for involuntary functions :

1. Salivating when food is kept in the mouth
2. Closing of eyes when bright light is focussed.

Question 17.
Plants show tropic movements in different situations. Give examples.
Answer:

1. Movement of individual parts of plants is possible when they are subjected to external stimuli. This type of response is called tropism or tropic movement.
2. The response of a plant to light is called phototropism. Respond of plants for gravity is called geotropism. Movement of plant towards water is called hydrotropism. The type of response by plants to make contact or touch is called thigmotropism. The response of plants to chemicals is called chemotropism.
3. Pollen grains respond to this stimulus as pollen tubes grow to reach the ovule for fertilization.

Question 18.
Divide the following into groups. Walking, blinking of eye lids, heart beat, laughing, digestion of food and reading. How do you divide them into groups?
Answer:
These can be divided into voluntary actions, involuntary actions and reflex actions.
Voluntary actions: Walking, laughing, reading
Involuntary actions: Digestion of food, heart beat
Reflex actions: Blinking of eye lids

Question 19.
What are ganglia?
Answer:

1. Ganglia or neural ganglia are the structures located in the peripheral nervous system (for example beside the spinal column or near viscera) made of concentration of neuron bodies.
2. Examples of neural ganglia are the ganglia that concentrate cell bodies of sensory neurons in the dorsal roots of the spinal cord and the ganglia of the myenteric plexus responsible for the peristaltic movements of the digestive tube.

Question 20.
Write a brief note on the functioning of sympathetic nervous system.
Answer:

1. This part of the autonomous nervous system increase the activity of an organ as per the need.
2. For example, during running there is an increased demand for oxygen by the body.
3. This is fulfilled by an increased breathing rate and increased heart rate.
4. The sympathetic nervous system works to increase the breathing rate and the heart rate.

Question 21.
Explain briefly about the action of parasympathetic nervous system.
Answer:

1. This part of the autonomous nervous system decrease the activity of an organ and it has calming effect.
2. During sleep, the breathing rate and also the heart rate slows down.
3. This is facilitated by the parasympathetic nervous system.
4. It can be said that the parasympathetic nervous system helps in conservation of energy.

Question 22.
Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin?
Answer:

1. Insulin is produced by Islets of Langerhans of pancreas.
2. Insulin regulates the level of glucose in the blood.
3. Deficiency of insulin results in disease called ‘diabetes’.
4. Such diabetic patients are given injections of insulin so that the sugar or glucose level in the blood can be controlled.
5. Insulin is now produced in large quantities for the treatment of human sufferers from ‘sugar diabetes’.

Question 23.
What is chemotropism? Explain it with suitable example.
Answer:

1. Response of a plant towards chemicals is known as chemotropism.
2. If we taste the carpel of a flower, it is sweet.
3. Butterflies flutter on flowers for nectar.
4. Ripen stigma secretes sugary substance.
5. This chemical substance stimulates the pollen grain which falls on the stigma.
6. Pollen grains respond to this stimulus as pollen tubes grow to reach the ovule for fertilization.

Question 24.
What are plant growth substances? Give examples.
Answer:

1. Plant growth substances are the chemical (organic) substances which are produced in plants and act at minute concentration on growth and other phisiological functions of plants.
2. There are five major types of plant growth substances. They are auxins, Gibberellins, cytokinins, Ethylene and Abscisic Acid.

Question 25.
What is ethylene? Explain its action.
Answer:

1. Ethylene is a gaseous growth inhibiting substance.
2. Ethylene causes ripening of the fruits.
3. It modifies the growth of the plant by inhibiting stem elongation.
4. It accelerates abscission of leaves, flowers and fruits.

Question 26.
What is Apical dominance?
Answer:

1. In some plants main stem grows by the activity of terminal bud without giving any branches.
2. It means the activity of lateral buds is suppressed and this phenomenon of suppression of the growth of lateral buds by terminal bud is called Apical dominance.

Question 27.
What happens at the synapse between two neurons?
Answer:
At synapse, in between the end of one axon and end of another dendrite electrical impulse sets off the release of some chemicals (neurotransmitter). These chemicals cross the gap or synapse and reach to dendrites of the next neuron and start electrical impulse there.

10th Class Biology 5th Lesson Coordination 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
i) This diagram belongs to which system of the body?
Answer:
Human nervous system

ii) Name the parts A and B.
Answer:
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla oblongata

iii) The part ‘C is endocrinal gland. This is called master gland. What is the name of this gland?
Answer:
Pituitary gland

iv) Which part in this diagram is useful to solve problems and puzzles?
Answer:
Cerebrum

Question 2.
Name the important parts of the brain and write the functions of fore-brain.
(OR)
Write in a tabular form the different parts of human brain and their functions.
Answer:

1. Brain has the following divisions.
   1. Fore brain – Cerebrum, diencephalon
   2. Mid brain – Optic lobes.
   3. Hind brain – Cerebellum, medulla.
2. Functions of the various parts of the brain.
   

   Parts of the brain	Functions
   Cerebrum	i)    Seat of mental abilities, controls thinking memory, reasoning, perception, emotions and speech. ii)    Interprets sensations and responds to cold, heat, pain and pressure.
   Diencephalon	i)     Relay centre for sensory impulses, such as pain, temperature and light. ii)    Reflex centre for muscular activities. iii)     Centre for certain emotions such as anger. iv)     Centre for water balance, blood pressure, body temperature, sleep and hunger. v)    The hypothalamus controls the pituitary gland, which functions as the master gland.
   Mid brain	i) It relays motor impulses from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord and relays sensory impulses from the spinal cord to thalamus, reflexes for light and hearing.
   Cerebellum	i)     Maintains posture, equilibrium and muscle tone. ii)    Coordinates voluntary movements initiated by cerebrum.
   Medulla oblongata	i)     Contains centre for cardiac, respiratory and vasomotor activities. ii)    Coordinate reflexes like swallowing, coughing, sneezing and vomiting.

Question 3.
Observe the following diagram. What does it represent? Explain the process in a flow-chart.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the following table:

Now, identify the part of the brain which participate in the below situations.

a) Ravi is an intelligent boy. He can remember the things for a long time.
Answer:
Cerebrum

b) The drunken man does not walk properly.
Answer:
Cerebellum

c) Identifies the food items without seeing which are being prepared in the kitchen
Answer:
Olfactory Lobes

d) Naveen lost his money purse while coming to the school. But he is not crying.
Answer:
Diencephalon

e) It is time for lunch.
Answer:
Cerebrum

f) I cannot tolerate this type of heat in the summer.
Answer:
Cerebrum

g) Catching the ball perfectly.
Answer:
Cerebellum

h) There may be a drainage behind the house.
Answer:
Olfactory Lobes

Question 5.
Look at the picture and answer the questions:
a) To which system does the diagram belong ?
Answer:
The diagram belongs to T.S. of Spinal cord (peripheral).

b) What is the name of A, B parts ?
Answer:
A – Dorsal Root,
B – Ventral Root

c) What is ‘C’ ? What is its function ?
Answer:
C – Association neuron
It analyse the information – and send the order (function) through motor neuron to muscle.

d) Through which horn the sensory nerve enters ?
Answer:
Sensory nerve enters through dorsal horn.

Question 6.
Fill the following table related to Endocrine glands.

Answer:

Question 7.
Observe the following table and answer the questions.

a) On what basis the above classification done?
Answer:
Hormones in animals and hormones in plants.

b) From which gland is Adrenalin released?
Answer:
Adrenal gland.

c) Which hormone is responsible for closing of stomata?
Answer:
Abscisic Acid (ABA)

d) What are the functions of Auxins?
Answer:
Cell elongation and differentiation of shoots and roots.

Question 8.

A) What does the given picture represent?
B) Name the parts A, B and C.
C) What carries the nerve impulse to the spinal cord?
D) Wrhat is the function of association neuron?
Answer:
A) The given picture represents
T.S. of Spinal cord (peripheral).
B) A – Dorsal root B – Ventral root C – Association neuron
C) Through dorsal root the nerve impulse reaches the spinal cord.
D) Association neuron analyses the information and sends the order through motor neuron to muscle.

Question 9.
The following table is about parts of brain and their functions. Read it and fill the blanks.

Answer:

Question 10.
Ramya ran away shouting loudly after seeing a snake on the way to school. Arrange the events involved in this situation in the correct order and rewrite it.
i) Brain receives the information, analyses and produces the reponse.
ii) Sensory nerves carry the information from sense organs to brain,
iii) Effector muscles exhibit the response.
iv) Sense organs receive the information from the environment.
v) Motor nerves carry the response from the brain to effector muscles.
Answer:
1-d, 2-b, 3 -a, 4-e, 5-c
d) Sense organs receive the information from the environment.
b) Sensory nerves carry the information from sense organs to brain,
a) brain receives the information analyse and produces the response.
e) Motor nerves carry the response from the brain to effector muscles.
c) Effector muscles exhibit the response.

Question 11.
Observe the following information and answer the following questions.

i) What do we call the hormones that are present in plants?
Answer:
We call phyto hormones which are present in plants.

ii) Name the hormones which are helpful in the growth of the plants.
Answer:
Auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins are helpful in the growth of the plants.

iii) Farmers keep carbide powder in between raw mangoes. What might be the reason? What will be the end result after 3 to 4 days?
Answer:
Carbide release Ethylene, which promotes the fruit ripening. After 3 or 4 days fruits will ripen.

iv) Plants also respond like animals. Do you agree with this statement? Support your answer.
Answer:
Yes, plants also respond like animals. They shut off leaves in summer, germinate in rainy season, blooms according to seasons.

Question 12.
Read the following table and answer the questions given below.

i) Write the importance of glands and hormones.
Answer:
Glands and hormones controls and coordinates various functions of the body with nervous system.

ii) Which hormone is responsible for growth of bone?
Somatotropin is responsible for growth of bone.

iii) What happens if testosterone is not secreted?
Secondary sexual characters in male are not developed if testosterone is absent.

iv) Where does the gland that secretes thyroxine is located?
Thyroid gland which secretes thyroxine is located near the neck.

v) Which glands are common in male and female?
Pituitary, thyroid, adrenal glands, parathyroid and pancreas are common in male and female.

Question 13.
Explain the different types of adaptations in plants with suitable examples.
Answer:

1. Most plants can aerate their roots bj’ taking in the oxygen through the lenticels or through the surface of their root hairs.
2. But plants which have their roots in very wet places, such as ponds or marshes, are unable to obtain oxygen.
3. They are adapted to these water-logged conditions by having much larger air spaces which connect the stems with the roots, making diffusion from the upper parts much more efficient.
4. The most usual adaptation is to have a hollow stem.
5. The problem of air transport is more difficult for trees.
6. An exception is the mangrove tree of the tropics which have aerial roots above the soil surface and takes in oxygen through these roots.

Question 14.
Karthik is suffering from excess sugar in urine and Varun is suffering from repeated dilute urination. What are the reasons for these diseases ? Explain.
Answer:

1. Excess sugar in urine condition is known as diabetes milletus. (sugar diabetes)
2. Repeated dilute urination is known as diabetes insipidus, (diuretic condition)
3. Deficiency of insulin causes high level sugar in the blood and urine. It leads to diabetes milletus (Sugar diabetes).
4. Vasopressin maintains osmotic concentration of body fluids. Deficiency of vasopressin causes excessive repeated dilute urination it is called as diabetes insipidus.

Question 15.
Analyse the following information and answer the questions.

i) Write two functions of Sympathetic Nervous System.
ii) Name two organs that are influenced by Parasympathetic Nervous System.
iii) Name the Nervous system mentioned in the table that increases the blood pressure.
iv) What systems constitute Autonomous Nervous System?
Answer:
i) Dilates pupil, inhibits salivation, relaxes branchi, accelerates heart beat, etc.
ii) Eye, heart, pancreas, etc.
iii) Sympathetic nervous system
iv) Sympathetic and para sympathetic nervous system.

Question 16.
Explain the Phytohormones which control growth in plants.
Answer:
Major plant hormones and their action:

Question 17.
Analyse the table and answer the following questions.

i) Which part of the brain recollects the childhood incidents?
Answer:
Cerebrum.

ii) Write two parts of hind brain.
Answer:
Cerebellum, medulla oblongata.

iii) Name the part of the brain that will not function in drunken person.
Answer:
Cerebellum.

iv) Name the part of the brain that controls involuntary actions.
Answer:
Medulla oblongata.

Question 18.
Write contrasts and comparisons of the style of response in plants and animals to the stimuli.
Answer:

1. Both plants and animals react to various stimuli around them. But the method of responding to stimuli is not similar in plants and animals. .
2. Higher animals respond to stimuli because they have a nervous system and an endocrine system.
3. Plant do not have a well defined nervous or endocrine system. They do have some mechanism of control by means of some chemicals or hormones.
4. Plants can sense the presence of stimuli like light, heat, water, touch, pressure, chemicals, gravity, etc.
5. The hormones present in the plants called phytohormones control response towards the stimuli. Phytohormones coordinate the activities of the plant usually by controlling one or the other aspect of the growth of the plant.

Question 19.
Read the below paragraph and write answers.

There is systematic method in showing response to stimuli. There is different stages in it. First stage starts with the response recognising the changes in outside or inside of the body atmosphere with recognising the stimuli. Transmitting the received information is second stage, analysing that information is third stage and showing correct response to that stimuli is the last stage.

a) What does this information shows?
b) Convert the above information into flow chart.
c) Write about the mechanism that conducts this action.
Answer:
a) It shows the systematic method in showing response to stimuli.

b)

c) Nervous system can sense the changes inside and outside the body through specialised cells called Receptors. This information in the form of small electrical currents is sent to brain and analysed and responses are generated in the nervous system. These responses once again in the form of small electrical currents are conveyed to the appropriate organs such as muscles and glands at a greater speed. Nervous system may store this information for future use.

Question 20.
See the below action. What does it indicate? Explain with an example.
Answer:

1. It indicates the stimulus – response action. This stimulus response can be explained with an example.
2. Suppose a mosquito is biting you on your arm. Mosquito bite is stimulus.
3. The receptor in the skin responds and send the information in the form of electrical impulses through sensory nerve to spinal cord or brain.
4. Brain or spinal cord analyses the information that the mosquito bite is causing pains.
5. The brain or spinal cord sends the message through motor nerve to the effector organ i.e., hand to kill the mosquito.
6. As per the message our hand immediately hits the mosquito and kills it.

Question 21.
Rangaiah is not feeling well. The following table is the results of tests. Analyse the table.

Write answers for the following questions.
i) How can you state that Rangaiah is diabetic?
Answer:
After blood test it was found that level of glucose (Fasting) is 120 whereas the normal range is 60 -100. After lunch the level of glucose in blood of Rangaiah further raised to 220, the normal being between 160 – 180. This shows that Rangaiah is diabetic.

ii) What are the tests to know about Bilirubin?
Answer:
We can know about bilirubin by blood test.

iii) What do you understand from the above report?
Answer:
It shows that Rangaiah is diabetic and his systolic pressure is slightly high. The levels of bilirubin in blood also slightly high, almost normal range. Urine test shows sodium levels are at normal range but 24 hours protein is much higher than normal levels.

iv) What questions do you ask the doctor on the above report?
Answer:

1. What are symptoms shown by Rangaiah as diabetic patient?
2. What are the ways to control sugar in the blood?
3. Which hormone is responsible for raise of glucose in the blood?
4. How sodium maintains blood pressure at normal levels?
5. What is the role of bilirubin in digestion?

Question 22.
What is reflex arc? Write the components of reflex arc and their functions.
Answer:

1. The structural and functional unit that carries out reflex action is called a reflex arc.
2. It consists of five components.
3. They are receptor, a sensory nerve, a association neuron, a motor nerve and an effector organ.
   

   SI. No.	Component of reflex arc	Functions
   1.	Receptor	Receives information and generates impulses.
   2.	Sensory neuron (Afferent)	Carries information from the receptor to the interneurons in the spinal cord.
   3.	Interneuron (Association neuron)	Processes the information and generates responses
   4.	Motor neuron (Efferent)	Carries the information from the spinal cord to the effector organ.
   5.	Effector organ	Receives the information from the efferent neuron and shows the appropriate responses.

Question 23.
What are endocrine glands ? What are their functions?
Answer:
Endocrine glands:

1. Endocrine glands are the ductless glands.
2. They secret complex organic substances called hormones directly into the blood.
3. Hormones are transported through blood to different tissues.
4. Their secretions act as biochemical messengers in the body.

Functions:

1. The hormones secreted by these glands play an important role in co-ordinating various organ systems.
2. Hormones can increase or decrease the metabolism and synthesis of substances like proteins, carbohydrates and lipids.
3. Irregular functioning of these glands may lead to serious diseases.
4. The quantity of hormone required is very minimum (1/10,00,000 gram).
5. A slight increase or decrease may brings out large changes in the target tissue.

Question 24.
How does a nerve impulse travel through the body?
Answer:

1. The information acquired at the dendritic tip of a nerve cell sets off a chemical reaction that creates an electrical impulse.
2. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its end.
3. At the end of the axon the electrical impulse sets off the release of some chemicals.
4. These chemicals cross the gap or synapse and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron.
5. A similar synapse finally allows the delivery of such impulse from neurons to other cells such as muscles or glands.

Question 25.
How is the brain anatomically divided?
Answer:

1. The cerebrum is divided into two cerebral hemispheres, the right and left.
2. Each hemisphere is made of four cerebral lobes. Frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe and occipetal lobe.
3. Each cerebral lobe contains the gray matter and the white matter.
4. The gray matter is the outer portion and is made of neuron bodies, the gray matter is also known as the cerebral cortex.
5. The white matter is the inner portion and it is white because it is in the region where axons of the cortical neuron pass.

Question 26.
What are the divisions of the autonomous nervous system?
Answer:

1. Ganglia near the vertebral column are connected to the spinal cord by nerves.
2. The two divisions of autonomic nervous system are sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system.
3. The sympathetic nervous system is formed by the chain of ganglia on either sides of the vertebral column and the associated nerves.
4. The parasympathetic nervous system is formed by the nerves arising from the ganglia of the brain and the posterior part of the spinal cord.
5. These together constitute the autonomous nervous system which is the part of the peripheral nervous system consisting of twelve pairs of cranial nerves and thirty one pairs of spinal nerves.

Question 27.
What is autonomous nervous system? Explain how it controls voluntary functions with an example.
Answer:

1. The peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary functions of the body is known as Autonomous nervous system.
2. It has voluntary control of muscles of some areas of skin and the skeletal muscle.
3. For example when we enter a dark room we can not see anything immediately. Slowly we are able to see the things around us in the room.
4. This is because of increase in diameter of pupil, which allows more light in.
5. When we come out of the dark room into broad day light the diameter of the pupil decreases allowing less light to enter into the eyes.
6. Both these functions occur under the influence of the autonomous nervous system.

Question 28.
What is the master gland in the human body? What are the functions of the hormones it secretes? (OR)
Why is pituitary gland known as master gland? How does it control all the other glands in the body?
Answer:

1. Pituitary gland is known as the master gland of the body as it controls the functions of all the other endocrine glands.
2. It serves as a link between nervous system and endocrine system.
3. The hormones secreted by pituitary gland and their functions are as follows.

Question 29.
What are the differences between the manner in which movement takes place in a sensitive plant and the movement of our legs?
Answer:

1. The stimulus of touch causes the response in a sensitive plant Mimosa pudica.
2. Droping of the leaves takes place due to change in osmotic pressure at the base of the leaf.
3. When the stimulus is over, the osmotic pressure increases causing the leaf to become normal.
4. This is not a growth related movement.
5. It is not connected with the direction of the stimulus.
6. Nerve messages in the form of electrical impulse reaches the leg muscles from the brain.
7. On reaching the leg muscles, the muscles contract causing the movement of the leg.

Question 30.
What is the need for a system of control and coordination of organisms? (OR)
How is control and coordination brought in organisms?
Answer:

1. The various physiological processes in an organism are closely linked and depen¬dent on each other.
2. The linking together of body activities in time and space is called coordination.
3. Without coordination, the activities of the body would be disturbed a lot.
4. For example when eating food at meal, the position of food is recorded by the eyes and as a result of this information the arms are moved to the right place to pick it up with precision and accuracy.
5. As the food is raised to the mouth, the latter opens to receive it. Chewing movements commence and saliva is secreted.
6. At the moment of swallowing, epiglottis closes trachea.

Question 31.
What is the experiment conducted by Charles Darwin and Francis Darwin? What is their conclusion?
Answer:

1. Charles Darwin and his son Francis Darwin performed some experiments on phototropism.
2. They covered the terminal portion of the tip of stem (coleoptile) with a cylinder of metal foil.
3. Exposed the plant to light coming from the side.
4. The characteristic bending of the seedling did not occur.
5. If light was permitted to penetrate the cylinder, bending occurred normally.
6. They concluded that when seedlings are freely exposed to a lateral light some influence is transmitted from upper to the lower part causing the material to bend.

Question 32.
What are the different types of tropisms found in plants?
Answer:

1. The different types of tropisms found in plants are phototropism, geotropism, chemotropism, hydrotropism and thigmotropism.
2. Different stimulus and type of tropism.
   Stimulus Type of tropism
   Light – Phototropism
   Gravity – Geotropism
   Chemical substance – Chemotropism
   Water – Hydrotropism
   Touch – Thigmotropism

Question 33.
Describe the story of invention of insulin. (OR)
Collect the information about insulin from internet and other sources and report on it.
Answer:

1. In Latin “insula” means an Island.
2. In 1868 Paul Langerhans of Germany working on the structure of Pancreas found Islets of Langerhans specialised cells richly supplied with blood vessel.
3. But the function of pancreas remained unknown.
4. Many others interested in the function of pancreas found that its removal from the body of an experimental animal would lead to the development of disease called ‘sugar diabetes’ (or) diabetes mellitus.
5. Diabetes is a condition in which the amount of free sugar in the blood and in the urine is abnormally high.
6. Later scientists found that when they tied the pancreatic duct that emerge from the duodenum caused the degeneration of pancreas but not Islets of Langerhans.
7. Moreover the animal would not develop diabetes. This was really a strong evidence that the level of blood sugar is linked with the Islet cells.
8. By 1912 workers were convinced that the Islets produced a secretion which directly liberated into the blood.
9. Ten years later in Toronto, Banting, Best and Macleod finally succeeded in extracting insulin from degenerate animal pancreas whose ducts to the intestine had been tied.
10. Insulin is now produced in large quantities for the treatment of human sufferers diabetes, to whom it is administered by injection into the skin.

Question 34.
Compare and contrast the nervous and hormonal mechanism for control and coor-dination in animals.
Answer:

Question 35.
Write brief notes on Ivan Pavlov’s experiment on dog to demonstrate conditioned reflexes.
Answer:

1. Conditioned reflexes are not inherited.
2. Ivan Pavlov, a Russian scientist did experiments on conditioned reflexes. His experiments on dogs have become very famous.
3. When the dog sees food, it secretes salvia. He rang a bell whenever the dog was given food.
4. After doing this for few days he noticed that the dog secretes salvia when it hears the bell even if the food is not given.
5. In otherwords dog associated the sound of the bell with the food and assumes that whenever the bell rings food is given.
6. In expectation of food, saliva start flowing from its mouth. Human beings are no exception to this.
7. For example, standing in attention when you hear National Anthem.

Question 36.
Collect information about the major plant hormones from library or internet?
Answer:
Some major plant hormones and their action are given in the following table.
Major plant hormones and their action.

Question 37.
What are auxins? How do they affect plant growth?
Answer:

1. Auxins are phytohormones which promote longitudinal growth in plants.
2. The term auxin usually refers to a chemical compound called Jndole Acetic Acid (IAA) which is the principal nature auxine.
3. IAA promotes growth and elongation of stems, roots and enlargement of many fruits.
4. Auxins are known to loosen the cellulose frame work of cell wall which helps in cell enlargement.
5. Auxins promotes cell division in vascular cambium and also root initiation.
6. Auxins are also responsible for bending of plants in response to light (phototropism) and also to the gravity stimulus (Geotropism).
7. Auxin is responsible for Apical dominance.
8. A large number of auxins are synthesized by artificial methods in chemical laboratories.
9. Substances like Naphthalene Acetic Acid (NAA) and Indole Butyric Acid (IBA) are used for inducing roots in cuttings.
10. Auxin spray can prevent premature fruit drop .
11. Auxin is also known to inhibit the abscission of leaves and fruits.

Question 38.
What is the role of Gibberellins in plant growth and development?
Answer:

1. Gibberellins has a significant effect on stem elongation.
2. It also increases the leaf lamina area. This is due to stimulation of cell division and cell elongation to both leaves and stem.
3. It leads to the formation of seedless fruits.
4. Gibberellins along with auxins promote cell elongation and leaf expansion.
5. Parthenocarpy is induced in fruits like apple and pear with spray of Gibberellins.
6. These substances are also known to induce enzymes like amylase, protease, lipase, etc. at the on set of seed germination and break the seed dormancy.
7. These substances are used for fruit setting and also for growing seed less fruits.
8. In beverages industry gibberellin is used to stimulate amylase activity in barley seeds. This is known to enhance the malting of barley grains.

Question 39.
What are the functions of cytokinins?
Answer:

1. Cytokinins are capable of stimulating cell division along with auxins.
2. They promote cell elongation.
3. They have ability to delay the pocess of ageing in leaves.
4. Cytokinins can prolong the life of fresh leaf crops like cabbage, spinach.
5. They are also used for keeping the flowers fresh.
6. Cytokinins are most effective in breaking dormancy of buds and seeds.
7. The levels of cytokinins decrease in senescing leaves.

Question 40.
What is ABA? Explain its function in the plant.
Answer:

1. ABA means Abscisic acid. It is the plant growth inhibiting substance.
2. It induces dormancy in buds, tubers and many seeds.
3. ABA is responsible for the formation of separation layer or abscission layer between main plant and the leaf or between plant and flower or fruit. It results in the falling of leaves, fruits and flowers.
4. It prevents the water loss during drought conditions by closing the stomata.

Question 41.
Draw a diagram of Reflex area and describe the functions of different parts of Reflex arc.
Answer:
Functions of different parts of Reflex arc : Reflex arc consists of a receptor, a sensory nerve (afferent) an association neuron or inter neuron, motor nerve (effferent) and a effector organ.

Question 42.
Write a brief account on peripheral nervous system.
Answer:

1. The peripheral nervous system consists of nerves that arise from the brain and
   spinal cord; and a vast system of dorsat and ventral root nerve cell heads.
2. The peripheral nervous system has 43 pairs of nerves.
   
3. Of these 12 pairs are called cranial nerves and the rest of 31 pairs are called spinal nerves.
4. Nerves attached to the spinal cord have two types of connections or roots – One to the back or the dorsal side and other to front or the ventral side of cord.
5. The peripheral nervous system can either involuntarily control several functions of regions like our internal organs, blood vessels, smooth and cardiac muscles. So it is called autonomous nervous system.

Question 43.
Write briefly about the spinal cord. (OR)
Describe the transverse section of spinal cord with the help of a diagram.
Answer:

1. Spinal cord is a long and cylindrical structure.
2. It passess through vertebral column extending all along the dorsal surface of trunk.
   
3. In other words, vertebrae of the vertebral column protect the spinal cord from injuries.
4. In a cross section of the spinal cord, the grey matter appears like butterfly or in the shape of letter ‘H’.
5. Each segment of the ‘H’ shaped grey matter is called a horn.
6. The upper horns are called dorsal horns, and the lower horns are called ventral horns.
7. In the middle of the grey matter is a canal called spinal canal.
8. It runs all along the length of spinal cord and is filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
9. From the sides of spinal cord, 31 pairs of nerves take their origin and supply branches to various parts of the body.

Question 44.
Describe an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism. (OR)
The roots of a plant move or grow towards water in the soil. How do you prove this with the help of an experiment ?
Answer:
Aim: To prove that roots grow towards water.
Apparatus or materials: Two glass troughs, soil, two similar plants, clay pot, water.

Procedure:

1. Take two glass troughs A and B,
2. Fill each one of them with two thirds of soil,
3. Plant a tiny seedling in trough A.
   
4. In trough B, plant a similar seedling and place a small clay pot inside the soil.
5. Water the soil in the trough A daily and uniformly.
6. Do not water the soil in trough B, but put some water in the clay placed in the soil.
7. Leave both the troughs for a few days.

Observation: On examining the roots later, it will be found that the root in the trough B has bent towards the source of water. Roots in trough A grew normally straight. Result: The growth of roots towards water is known as hydrotropism. In this experiment roots bent towards water. By this experiment it was proved that roots always grow towards water.

Question 45.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
i) To which organs of the body do the nerves go from the ganglions near the vertebral column ?
Answer:
Eyes, salivary glands, heart, lungs, liver, stomach, gall bladder, intestine, adrenal gland, sex organs are the body parts, the nerves go from the ganglions near the vertebral column.

ii) Which are the organs that receives nerves starting from the brain ?
Answer:
Nose, eye, tongue, ear, head, neck and shoulder receive nerves from the brain.

iii) Which are the organs whose activities are influenced by the sympathetic nervous system?
Answer:
Eyes, lungs, kidneys, gastro intestinal tract, heart, stomach, sweat glands, sex organs, adrenal gland, salivary glands.

iv) Which tire the organs whose activities are influenced by the parasympathetic nervous system ?
Answer:
Eye, lungs, kidneys, gastro intestinal tract, heart, stomach, sweat glands, sex organs, adrenal gland, salivary glands.

v) What do you understand about the functions of parasympathetic nervous system ?
Answer:

1. The major functions of parasympathetic nervous system is to keep the body in its normal state and it is called as rest and digestive system or feed or breed system.
2. The function of parasympathetic nervous system is to restore the body to its nor¬mal functioning after all the stress is gone.
3. The parasympathetic nervous system helps the body to do simple things such as breathing regularly, excreting hormones, eating and digesting food.
4. It also keeps a person alive when sleeping.

vi) What do you understand about the functions of sympathetic nervous system ?
Answer:

1. The major functions of the sympathetic nervous system is to activate the response of the body during stressful situation including the fight or flight mechanism of the body.
2. Sympathetic nervous system is essentially responsible for helping the body to get ready for action or feeling.
3. It dilates the pupil so one can see better especially in the dark, it increases heart rate so that to increase supply of oxygen to the muscles, decreases digestion so that the energy be better utilized for fighting and so on.

Question 46.
Describe the structure of brain with the help of a neat diagram.
Answer:

1. Proportionate to the body size, the human brain is the largest of all animals.
2. The brain is present in the hard bony box like structure called cranium.
   
3. It is covered by three layers called the meninges. The meninges are continued and cover the spinal cord as well.
4. The space between the inner layers is filled with fluid called cerebro – spinal fluid.
5. It serves as a shock – absorbing medium and protects the brain against shocks / jerks along with meninges and cranium.
6. The nerve cell bodies together with capillaries form a mass called grey matter while the myelinated axons form white matter.
7. The grey matter is in the outer layers while the white matter is present towards inner layers.

Question 47.
Describe the structure of cerebrum.
Answer:

1. Fore brain is the largest part of the brain. It is also called CEREBRUM.
2. A deep groove in the middle of the cerebrum divides into two equal halves.
3. Each calf is called as a cerebral hemisphere.
   
4. Right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected each other by a bundle of axon.
5. The outer portion of the cerebral hemisphere is gray in colour and is called CEREBRAL CORTEX.
6. There are several ridges called GYRI and the grooves are called SULCI.
7. They increase the surface area of the cortex in order to accumulate more number of neurons.
8. In the cerebral cortex, there are centres to receive and analyse various informations like visual (sight), auditory (hearing), olfactory (smell), etc.
9. Three very deep grooves present across each cerebral hemisphere divides it into four lobes. FRONTAL, PARIETAL, TEMPORAL, and OCCIPITAL LOBES.

Question 48.
Write a brief account of Adrenal glands.
Answer:
There are two adrenal glands one on the top of each kidney. Adrenal gland has 2 parts.

1. Cortex – outer part
2. Medulla – Inner part

i) Adrenal cortex: Adrenal cortex secretes two hormones i) cortisol and ii) Aldosterone
a) Cortisol regulates the protein, fat and carbohydrate metabolism.
b) Aldosterone increases the re-absorption of water and sodium in the kidney. It regulates the sodium levels in the body.

ii) Adrenal medulla: It secretes a hormone called Adrenaline at times of physical and mental stress. It is secreted in conditions like:

1. fall in blood sugar levels
2. When the person is injured.
3. When exposed to cold conditions
4. Suffering from pain

The hormone helps in facing such as situation. Therefore it is called the hormone of FIGHT or FLIGHT.

Question 49.
What is feedback mechanism? Illustrate with an example.
Answer:

1. It is necessary that the hormones are secreted by the endocrine glands in our body in precise quantities which are required for the normal functioning of the body.
   
2. This means there should be some mechanism to regulate the production and release of hormones in the body.
3. For example, anger is always short lived factor and adrenalin is the hormone responsible for anger.
4. When the levels of adrenalin in the blood came down slowly, we come to normal state.
5. When we are afraid the rate of heart-beat increases, the breathe rate will be faster, blood pressure increases.
6. After sometime we come to normal state only when we reach a safe spot.
7. The timings and amount of hormones released by endocrine gland is controlled by the feed back mechanism, which is in build in our body.

Question 50.
Write short note on simple goitre. (OR)
What happens if we do not take sufficient amounts of iodine in food? (OR)
Why are people advised to take iodised salt in the food they eat?
Answer:

1. Iodine is required for the synthesis of thyroxine in the body.
2. If there is a reduced intake of iodine in food, it hinders the formation of thyroxine and results in increase the size of the thyroid gland.
3. This results in the enlargement of neck. This condition is called simple goitre.
   

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 7 Coordination in Life Processes.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes

10th Class Biology 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the following table.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is the apparatus used in your class, while performing the demonstration of peristaltic movement in Oesophagus?
Answer:
a) A piece of waste cycle tube.
b) Oil for lubrication.
c) Potatoes.

Question 3.
You have conducted an experiment to prove that HC1 secreted in our stomach, does not harm walls of the stomach. Write the apparatus used in that experiment.
Answer:
Apparatus: Green leaves, petroleum jelly, weak acid.

Question 4.
What will happen, if there is no diaphragm in the human body?
Answer:

1. Diaphragm flattens during inhalation, thus increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity.
2. If the diaphragm is absent the inhalation and exhalation become very difficult in human beings.

Question 5.
What happens if the direction of peristalsis is not reversed in animal like cow?
Answer:
If the direction of peristalsis is not reversed (rumination is not done) in animal like cow, the food will not be masticated in the mouth and fermentation of the food with the micro-organisms in the stomach will not be taken place.

Question 6.
What happens if there is no mucus in the Oesophagus?
Answer:

1. The walls of the food pipe secrete a slippery substance called mucus.
2. Mucus lubricates and protects the oesophageal walls from damage.
3. This helps the food bolus to slide down easily in the tube.
4. If there is no mucus, lubrication will not occur for the food bolus to slide and walls get damage.

Question 7.
Which part of small intestine absorbs digested food?
Answer:
Microvilli/villi.

Question 8.
Name the chemical which is used to test the action of saliva on flour (ata).
Answer:
Iodine Solution.

Question 9.
What happens, if there is no peristaltic movement in Oesophagus?
Answer:

1. The food won’t slidedown in the oesophagus.
2. The digestion of food won’t takes place in the stomach and small intestine.

Question 10.
Number of Neurons present in enteric Nervous System?
Answer:
Number of neurons present in enteric nervous system are 100 millions.

Question 11.
Why do every life process is dependent on other life process?
Answer:
Every life process is dependent on other life process to keep the body in good condition.

Question 12.
Which life process generally maintain the level of different substances in the blood?
Answer:
The life process that maintain the level of different substances in the blood is digestive system.

Question 13.
When do we feel hunger pangs in stomach?
Answer:
When the level of glucose in the blood falls we feel hunger pangs in stomach.

Question 14.
Which hormone is responsible for hunger pangs in stomach?
Answer:
Ghrelin hormone is responsible for hunger pangs in stomach.

Question 15.
The hormone ghrelin is secreted by?
Answer:
The hormone ghrelin is secreted by certain cells in the wall of the stomach.

Question 16.
Which one plays an important role in carrying hunger signals to brain?
Answer:
The diencephalon in fore brain and vagus nerve which is 10th cranial nerve plays an important role in carrying hunger pangs.

Question 17.
How much time does the hunger pangs continue?
Answer:
The hunger pangs continue up to 30 to 45 minutes.

Question 18.
Increase in ghrelin levels results in?
Answer:
Increase in ghrelin levels results in sensation of hunger and motivation to consume food.

Question 19.
Which hormone suppresses hunger?
Answer:
Hormone leptin suppresses hunger.

Question 20.
Which senses enhance our perceptions of the food we eat?
Answer:
Interactions between the senses of taste and smell enhance our perceptions of the food we eat.

Question 21.
What are the different types of papillae present on the tongue?
Answer:
The different types of papillae present on the tongue are filiform papillae, fungiform papillae, foliate papillae and circumvallate papillae.

Question 22.
When do you identify the taste easily?
Answer:
Taste can be identified easily by me when the tongue is pressed against the pallate.

Question 23.
Who conducted experiments on conditioned reflexes?
Answer:
Russian scientist Ivan Pavlov has conducted experiments on conditioned reflexes and found that even the thought of food will water our mouth.

Question 24.
Name the different sets of teeth present in your mouth.
Answer:
The different sets of teeth present in human beings is incisors, canines, premolars and molars.

Question 25.
Write the number of different sets of teeth in human Beings.
Answer:
The number of different sets of teeth in human beings are incisors – 8, canines – 4, premolars – 8, molars -12.

Question 26.
What is mastication?
Answer:
Grinding, chewing and shredding of food in the mouth by teeth is called mastication.

Question 27.
Which cranial nerve controls the movement of a muscle in the jaw?
Answer:
The fifth cranial nerve (Trigeminal nerve) controls the movement of muscles in the jaw.

Question 28.
What is bolus?
Answer:
Food that is formed due to the mastication in the mouth is called bolus.

Question 29.
What is the function of salivary amylase?
Answer:
The enzyme salivary amylase in the saliva breaks down the large starch molecules into smaller subunits usually into sugars.

Question 30.
The controlling center for swallowing food is present in?
Answer:
The controlling center for swallowing food is present somewhere in the brain stem „ (medulla oblongata and others).

Question 31.
Which medium aids in action of enzyme, salivary amylase?
Answer:
Alkaline medium aids in action of enzyme, salivary amylase.

Question 32.
The pH value of alkaline medium is?
Answer:
The pH value of alkaline medium is above 7.

Question 33.
The pH value of acidic medium is?
Answer:
The pH value of acidic medium is below 7.

Question 34.
What are nocturnal animals? Give some examples.
Answer:
The animals which are active during nights are called Nocturnal animals.
Ex: Cockroach, rodents, bats etc.

Question 35.
The amount of saliva secreted by human beings per day is?
Answer:
The amount of saliva secreted by human beings per day is 1 to 1.5 liters.

Question 36.
What kind of tube is oesophagus?
Answer:
Oesophagus is muscular and elastic tube.

Question 37.
How does mucus help in passage of food?
Answer:
Mucus lubricates, protects the walls from damage and helps bolus slide down easily to stomach.

Question 38.
What are the two kinds of smooth muscles present in oesophagus?
Answer:
The two kinds of smooth muscles present in oesophagus are the inner layer consists of circular muscles and the outer layer of longitudinal muscles.

Question 39.
What is peristalsis?
Answer:
The involuntary contraction and relaxation of the muscles of oesophagus, stomach and intestine bring in a wave like motion called peristalsis.

Question 40.
APiich nervous system controls the peristalsis?
Answer:
The involuntary movements peristalsis is under the control of autonomous nervous system.

Question 41.
Which juice is secreted by the wall of stomach?
Answer:
The juice secreted by the wall of stomach is gastric juice which contains hydrochloric acid, mucus and enzyme pepsin.

Question 42.
What is chyme?
Answer:
The digestive juices turns the food into a smooth substance known as chyme. It is the partially digested food in the stomach.

Question 43.
Rumination in cow is the result of?
Answer:
Rumination in cow is the result of reverse peristalsis.

Question 44.
What is the use of reverse peristalsis in human beings?
Answer:
The use of reverse peristalsis in human beings helps in vomiting, (expelling unwanted substances from the food canal.)

Question 45.
How much time does it takes to emptying the food from stomach?
Answer:
Emptying of food from stomach takes nearly 4 to 5 hours.

Question 46.
What causes the stomach to churn and mix the food?
Answer:
Peristalsis causes the stomach to churn and mix the food.

Question 47.
What issthe location of pyloric sphincter? What is its function?
Answer:
Pyloric sphincter present at the opening of stomach and the first part of the small intestine. It releases small quantity of food into the duodenum.

Question 48.
Why should only a small quantity of food be passed from stomach to duodenum?
Answer:
For the complete digestion of the food only a small quantity of food be passed from stomach to duodenum.

Question 49.
What is the nature of the chyme?
Answer:
The nature of the chyme is acidic.

Question 50.
Which hormones in small intestine produced due to the Acidic nature of chyme?
Answer:
Acidic nature of chyme initiates the production of hormones like secretin and cholecystokinin in small intestine.

Question 51.
Secretin and cholecystokinin stimulates the production of?
Answer:
Secretin and cholecystokinin stimulates the production of pancreatic juice, bile juice and succus entericus from pancreas, liver and walls of intestine respectively.

Question 52.
Which process is involved in absorption of nutrients from food?
Answer:
Selective absorption is involved in absorbing nutrients from food.

Question 53.
Which absorb nutrients from the food in small intestine?
Answer:
Finger-like projections called villi absorb nutrients from the food in small intestine.

Question 54.
Anyone with severe cough and cold cannot make out the difference in tastes of certain food items, when the sense of smell is impaired. Why?
Answer:

1. The flavour of food is produced with the combination of taste and smell.
2. The taste or food odour is not individually detected.
3. The interactions between the senses of taste and smell enhance our perceptions of the food.

Question 55.
Seventy percent of our immune system is aimed at?
Answer:
Seventy percent of our immune system is aimed at the gut (elementary canal) to expel and kill foreign invaders.

Question 56.
What is the second brain?
Answer:
The entric nervous system present below the gut or alimentary canal which controls digestion is called second brain.

Question 57.
What is the other name for second brain?
Answer:
The other name for second brain is enteric nervous system.

Question 58.
What is the length of gut or alimentary canal?
Answer:
The length of gut or alimentary canal in man measures about nine meters.

Question 59.
Which part or muscle controls the exit of stool from the body?
Answer:
Anal sphincter controls the exit of stool from the body.

Question 60.
What happens during inhalation?
Answer:
During inhalation oxygen moves across the walls of the alveoli and enters the blood.

Question 61.
What happens during exhalation?
Answer:
During exhalation, carbon dioxide from the blood moves into the alveoli of the lungs and breathed out.

Question 62.
What would be the path of salt removal from gut to the outside of our body?
Answer:
Salt is removed via blood through the kidneys, skin from our body.

Question 63.
Respiration in human beings is controlled by?
Answer:
Respiration in human beings is controlled by medulla oblongata of the autonomous nervous system.

Question 64.
For oxidation of food and transport of substance which processes are to be coordinated?
Answer:
Respiration and blood circulations are to be coordinated for oxidation of food and transport of substances.

10th Class Biology 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The mere smell or sight of food stimulates hunger. Describe the process in a flow chart.
Answer:

Question 2.
What happens if salivary ducts are closed?
Answer:

1. Salivary glands secrete saliva. Saliva contains mucin and ptyalin or salivary amylase.
2. Mucin gives lubrication to the bolus so that we can easily swallow the food.
3. Ptyalin or salivary amylase digest the complex carbohydrates into simple sugars.
4. If salivary ducts are closed the above processess don’t occur. So that food is not digested properly.

Question 3.
“It is believed that the Diencephalon in fore-brain and vagus nerve (10th cranial nerve) plays an important role in carrying hunger signals to the brain. Hunger pangs continue upto 30-45 minutes. Increase in ghrelin levels results in sensation of hunger and motivation to consume minutes. Increase in ghrelin levels results in sensation of hunger and motivation to consume food.
Read above content and prepare any two questions.
Answer:

1. What are the nerves involved in carrying hunger signals?
2. How long hunger pangs continue?
3. Which part of the brain is the centre for hunger pangs?
4. Which chemical substance is responsible for motivating to consume food?
5. What are the hormones related to hunger?

Question 4.
What will happen, if the small intestine is not like a long coiled tube?
Answer:

1. If size and shape of small intestine is like oesophagus the height of the person should be more than 22 feet as the length of the small intestine is about 22 feet. So it will not fit in the human body.
2. Food will not be digested completely.
3. Digested food will not be absorbed effectively.
4. The food taken into the body is expelled out only after completing partial digestion in stomach.
5. The body suffers from starvation of nutrients.

Question 5.
What did you observe in acid and leaf experiment ? What did you have understand regarding human digestive system from this? (OR)
Take two similar green leaves. Apply grease on one leaf and leave the other free. Add 1 or 2 drops of acid on each leaf. What kind of change do you observe from this?
Answer:

1. The leaf to which grease is applied is not effected with the acid.
2. The leaf to which grease is not applied is effected.
3. From the above activity we can conclude that mucus secreted by the walls of stomach protect it from the harmful effects of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.

Question 6.
Identify the diagram and write two functions of it.
Answer:
This diagram is Liver.
Liver – Functions:

1. Breakdown of larger fats into small globules/emulsification of fats.
2. It excretes Bile salts, cholesterol steroid, hormones, extra drugs, vitamins and alkaline salts through urine.

Question 7.
What will happen if Islets of langerhans fail to function?
Answer:

1. Insulin may not be produced.
2. Human may suffer from sugar/diabetes.
3. Sugar level increases in blood.

Question 8.
What may happen if villi are absent in small intestine?
Answer:

1. Villi increase the surface area of the small intestine for absorption when food passes through it. If villi are absent, food will not be digested completely.
2. Digested food will not be absorbed effectively.
3. The food taken into the body is expelled out only after completing partial absorption in the small intestine.
4. The body will suffer from starvation of nutrients.

Question 9.
Draw the diagram showing peristaltic movement. Write the names of the parts responsible for it.
Answer:
a) Mucus lubricates and protects the walls of oesophagus.
b) Circular muscles and longitudinal muscles of oesophagus help in the movement of food ‘bolus’.
c) Peristalsis is under the control of Autonomous nervous system.

Question 10.
How do we know the taste of the food material? (OR)
What helps us in tasting food material?
Answer:

1. On the tongue different types of papillae are present to sense different tastes.
2. If we want to taste the food material, the food should be dissolved in saliva.
3. We can taste the food that is in the form of liquid only.
4. Only after the dissolved food enters into the cup like taste buds (papillae), the sense of taste is carried to the brain for analysis.
5. Then only we will know the taste of the food material.

Question 11.
Write a short note on digestion of food in mouth.
(OR)
How food is digested in the mouth?
Answer:

1. Saliva is secreted by the action of autonomous nervous system in the mouth.
2. Saliva moistens the food to make chewing and swallowing easier.
3. Due to the mastication of food in the mouth it forms a slurry mass called bolus.
4. The enzyme salivary amylase in the saliva breaks down the large starch molecules into smaller subunits usually into sugars of maltose and dextrose.
5. It is easier and convenient to swallow food after mastication in the mouth.

Question 12.
Why do we salivate during a nap of daytime?
Answer:

1. We are diurnal animals, we are active during daytime and take rest at night.
2. Ail the systems of our body are active in function during the daytime of our activity. Hence, man is a diurnal animal.
3. Our digestive system is also active and ready to receive the food for digestion.
4. If we sleep during daytime saliva oozes out of our mouth and wets the pillows.
5. This will not happen during night time.

Question 13.
Write a brief account on travel of food through oesophagus.
(OR)
How food travels in the oesophagus?
Answer:

1. Oesophagus is a tube like structure.
2. the wall of the oesophagus is made up of two kinds of smooth muscles.
3. The inner layer consisting of circular muscles and the outer layer with longitudinal muscles.
4. Contraction of the circular muscles results in narrowing of the oesophagus just behind the bolus. So the food is squeezed downwards.
5. Contraction of the longitudinal muscles in front of the bolus widen the tube, this results in shortening of that particular part of the oesophagus.
6. Contraction and relaxation of these muscles bring in a wave like motion that propels the food bolus into the stomach by ‘peristalsis’.

Question 14.
The digestive tract is unique among internal organs. Write few lines by supporting this statement.
Answer:

1. The digestive tract is unique among internal organs because it is exposed to a large variety of physio chemical stimuli from the external world in the form of ingested food.
2. As a consequence, the intestine has developed a rich store of coordinated movements of its muscular apparatus along with neural apparatus to ensure the appropriate mixing and propulsion of contents during digestion, absorption and excretion.
3. The neural apparatus of our digestive tract comprises of such a vast and complicated network of neurons that it has been nicknamed by scientists as the second brain.

Question 15.
How taste is identified by us? (OR) How can we identify taste?
Answer:

1. Any food substance when placed on the tongue gets dissolved in the saliva secreted by salivary glands in the mouth.
2. When the tongue is pressed against the palate the food substance is pressed against the opening of the taste bud letting it to reach the taste cells and triggering taste signals.
3. Finally the taste is recognized in the brain.

10th Class Biology 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give reasons:
A) Hunger generating signals reach the brain when stomach gets empty.
Answer:
Ghrelin is secreted from walls of the stomach.
B) When your stomach is filled with full of food, you feel you don’t need food any more.
Answer:
Leptin Hormone is secreted which suppresses hunger.
C) In severe cold and cough, one cannot feel the taste of the food.
Answer:
During cold olfactory receptors are blocked.
D) We cannot identify the taste of a grape fruit, when it is placed on the tongue.
Answer:
We cannot taste the grapes because it is not in the liquid state.

Question 2.
A) What is the function of peristalsis in these parts of Human digestive system?
a) Oesophagus
b) Stomach
c) Small intestine
d) Large intestine
Answer:
a) Oesophagus: Bolus moves towards the stomach.
b) Stomach : Peristalsis helps in storing food, breaking down food, mixing the food with gastric juice.
c) Small intestine : Peristalsis helps in mixing the chyme with digestive juices.
d) Large intestine: Peristalsis helps to propel undigested material into rectum.

Question 3.
Observe the following schematic diagram and answer the following questions:

i) What do you call the wave like movements shown by the muscles of Oesophagus?
Answer:
Peristalsis.

ii) What is the structure of Oesophagus?
Answer:
Long tube like structure.

iii) How does mucus help in passage of food?
Answer:
Mucus helps the food to slide down easily.

iv) Which parts of alimentary canal are connected by the Oesophagus?
Answer:
Pharynx and stomach.

Question 4.
What is peristaltic movement? Compare the similarity of bolus movement in oesophagus with cycle tube and potato experiment which you have conducted in school.
Answer:
Peristalsis: Contraction and relaxation of circular and longitudinal muscles bring in a wave – like motion that propels the food bolus into the stomach from oesophagus by the action called as peristalsis.
Experiment:
Aim: Making a model of oesophagus to observe how bolus moves forward.
Material required: Potatoes, cycle tube lubricate oil.
Procedure:

1. Take a piece of waste cycle tube and insert one or two potatoes into it.
2. Lubricate the inner side of the tube with oil.
3. In the same way smear oil over potatoes.
4. Insert oil coated potatoes in the tube. Potatoes in cycle tube
5. Now try to push the potatoes by squeezing the tube from behind the potato.

Observation: Oil acted as lubricant to push the potato easily in the forward direction. Conclusion: The muscles in the wall of the oesophagus have bring in a wave like movement due to contraction and relaxation, that propels the food bolus into the stomach.
This action is called as peristalsis.

Question 5.
Write the procedure involved in the acid and leaf experiment to understand the concept “how the stomach gets protected from its own acid secretions”. Compare the observations with the changes that takes place in human digestive system.
Answer:

1. Take two similar green leaves.
2. Grease one leaf with petroleum jelly, leave the other free.
3. Add 1 or 2 drops of some weak acids on both the leaves.
4. Observe them after half-an-hour or so and write your observations.
5. The leaf to which petroleum jelly was not applied effected by the acid.
6. We observe the colour of the leaf changes.
7. The other leaf was not affected by the acid because of petroleum jelly.
   From the above activity we can conclude that mucus secreted by the walls of stomach protects the stomach it from the harmful effects of hydrochloric acid.

Question 6.
Vasu is doing experiment, lab activities in his classroom. He is tired due to hungry. How hungry feeling occurs? How will one know?
Answer:

1. Levels of different substances are generally maintained in the blood mainly by our digestive system.
2. One of the major substance is glucose.
3. When its levels in the blood fall, we get hunger pangs in stomach.
4. Ghrelin is secreted from the certain cells in the wall of the stomach.
5. Hunger contractions (hunger pangs) start to occur in the stomach due to the secretion of Ghrelin hormone.
6. Increase in ghrelin levels results in sensation of hunger and motivation to consume

Question 7.
What is peristaltic movement? Explain the food movement in alimentary canal comparing with the experiment of moving potatoes in cycle tube.
Answer:
Peristaltic movement is the contraction and relaxation of the muscles of the digestive system. The movement of food through food pipe is known as peristaltic movement.
Food movement in alimentary canal:

1. The walls of the food pipe secrete a slippery substance called mucus. Mucus lubricates and protects the oesophageal walls from damage.
2. This helps the food bolus to slide down easily just as the oiled potatoes that move in the tube. Oil acts as lubricant and push the potatoes easily in the forward direction.
3. The wall of the oesophagus is made up of two kinds of smooth muscles. The inner layer consists of circular muscles and the outer layer of longitudinal muscles.
4. Contraction of the circular muscles results in narrowing of the oesophagus just behind the bolus.
5. So the food is squeezed downwards.
6. Contraction of the longitudinal muscles in front of the bolus widen the tube, this results in shortening of that particular part of the oesophagus.
7. Contraction and relaxation of these muscles bring in wave like motion that propels the food bolus into the stomach by the action called as peristalsis.
8. This is involuntary and under the control of autonomous nervous system.

Question 8.
Write briefly about the functional and structural aspects of oesophagus in human beings.
Answer:

1. Oesophagus is a long muscular and elastic tube-like part of the digestive system which lies between pharynx and stomach.
   
2. The wall of the oesophagus is made up of two kinds of smooth muscles.
3. The inner layer consists of circular muscles and the outer layer of longitudinal muscles.
4. The walls of the oesophagus secrete mucus, a slimy substance which helps in the easy movement of food into the stomach.
5. Walls of oesophagus carry on wave-like movement by contraction and relaxation. These movements are known as peristalsis.
6. Due to the peristalsis movements food passes from oesophagus into stomach.

Question 9.
Explain briefly about the structure of stomach. (OR)
What is the role of stomach in digestion of food ?
Answer:

1. Our stomach is not a bag with specific volume. It is a like a pouch which is elastic in nature.
2. The size of the stomach increases based on the food we intake.
3. Digestive juices are produced depending on the quantity of food material.
4. The walls of the stomach secrete juice containing hydrochloric acid.
5. Mucus secreted by some cells in the walls of the stomach form a thin lining on the walls of the stomach. This counters the action of acid.
6. The food is thoroughly mixed with the digestive juices by peristaltic movements of muscles in stomach.
7. The digestive juices of the stomach turns food into a smooth liquid mass called chyme.

Question 10.
Draw peristaltic movement of food in stomach. Describe movement of food in stomach.
Answer:

1. The stomach acts like a washing machine, churning the food around to break it into even smaller pieces.
   
2. Mechanical mixing of food in stomach occurs by peristalsis, which is waves of muscular contractions that move along the stomach wall.
3. The contractions of the stomach muscles squeeze and mix the food with the acids and juices of the stomach.
4. The digestive juices turns the food into smooth paste like substance called chyme.
5. As the process of digestion in the stomach nears completion, the contractions of the stomach decrease.

Question 11.
Describe with diagram how villi are helpful in absorption of digested food in small intestine.
(OR)
How digested food is absorbed in small intestine?
Answer:

1. The small intestine is the main region for the absorption of digested food.
2. The inner surface of the small intestine contains thousands of finger like projections called Villi.
   
3. These villi increase the surface area;so that the food retained in the folds can remain longer thereby enhancing absorption.
4. Blood vessels and lymph vessels are present in the form of a network in the villi.
5. Products of digestion are absorbed first into the villi and from there into the blood vessels and lymph vessels.

Question 12.
Write about the experiment conducted by Ivan Pavlov on conditioned reflex.
Answer:

1. Ivan Pavlov was a Russian scientist conducted experiments on conditioned reflexes.
2. He discovered that dogs produced extra saliva when they were offered food.
   
3. Pavlov noticed, that they also did the same when the person who fed them came into the room, even if the person had not brought any food.
4. Pavlov went on to ring a bell at the start of feeding time, and eventually the dogs produced extra saliva when they heard the bell, before any food was brought.
5. A dog salivating when it hears a bell is not a natural response.
6. They would not do this without being conditioned to do so.
7. The behaviour has been learned. It is called a conditioned response.

Question 13.
Explain the process of exit of waste materials from large intestine.
Answer:

1. When the unwanted waste material reach the large intestine, the peristaltic waves move the stool into the rectum.
2. Water gets reabsorbed and the remaining waste usually hard mass that gets stored in the last part of the large intestine i.e., rectum.
   
3. There are two muscular layers helping the exit of stools.
4. One that is under involuntary control and the other is under voluntary control.
5. The muscular structures helps in opening and closing of the aperture of a canal is called sphincter.
6. Anal sphincter controls the process of exit of waste materials from large intestine.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 9 Our Environment.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 9th Lesson Our Environment

10th Class Biology 9th Lesson Our Environment 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Suggest one alternative method in place of pesticides to protect crops?
Answer:
Alternative methods for using pesticides to save the crops from pests:

1. Rotation of crops
2. Studying the life histories of pests
3. Biological Control
4. Sterility
5. Genetic Strains

Question 2.
By taking two plants of your surroundings as examples, explain how they protect themselves against the animals which eat them.
Answer:

1. Neem Tree: Neem leaves contain an alkaloid Nimbin to protect themselves from the animals which eat them.
2. Cactus: They have thorns to protect themselves.
3. Datura: Datura leaves gives bad odour.

Question 3.
Identify one food chain from your surroundings. Name the producers and different levels of consumers in that food Chain.
Answer:
Grass → Insects → Frog → Snake.
Producers – Grass.
Primary Consumers – Insects.
Secondary Consumers – Frog
Tertiary consumers – Snake.

Aquatic Plants → Insects → Fish → Crane.
Producers – Aquatic Plant.
Primary Consumers – Insects
Secondary Consumers – Fish
Tertiary consumers – Crane

Question 4.
Write the names of producers and consumers in the food chain, you have observed.
Answer:
Producers – Plants, Green Algae
Consumers – All Animals.

Question 5.
Write any two slogans to promote awareness among the people about Ecofriendly programs.
Answer:
a) Lets go green to get global clean.
b) If you disturb the nature, the nature will disturb you.
c) The best solution to arrest pollution is plantation.
d) Reduce the usage of plastic and reduce the pollution.

Question 6.
What happens if decomposers are removed from the food web?
Answer:

1. If decomposers are removed from the food web then the biological cycles are not completed.
2. If the decomposers are not present in an ecosystem the remains of the other organisms accumulate.

Question 7.
Observe the following given below. Draw the pyramid of numbers.
Grass → Goat → Man
Answer:

Question 8.
We can’t expect the world without sparrows. So how should be our concern towards their conservation?
Answer:

1. Sparrows are useful to control harmful insects like locust which damage food grains.
2. Chemical pesticides are the cause for destruction of sparrows and useful insects.
3. By using biological methods we can conserve the sparrow population.

Question 9.
Human being is modifying agriculture lands and lakes into residential areas. What is its effect on Bio-diversity?
Answer:

1. The shelter may not be provided for migratory birds.
2. Food chain get disturbed.
3. Decrease in the ground water level.

Question 10.
How do you protect the plants, which were planted in “Haritha Haaram” programme in your school?
Answer:
We protect the plants:

1. Watering of plants at regular intervals.
2. Fencing or gaurding of plants.
3. Adoption of plants.
4. Providing organic manure.

Question 11.
The figure given below represents a food pyramid. Study it and answer the following questions.

i) Which trophic level has maximum energy?
Answer:
T₁ (or) Primary producers (green plants)
ii) Give one example for T₄ trophic level.
Answer:
Lion, tiger, hawk, etc.

Question 12.
“We can’t imagine the world without insects and birds, conserve them.
Answer:
Methods to conserve insects and birds:

1. Avoid indiscriminate usage of pesticides
2. Protect the natural habitats of insects and birds.
3. Development of bird sanctuaries
4. Everyone should follow environmental ethics.

Question 13.
What is environment?
Answer:
The sum of physical and biological factors along with their chemical interactions that affect an organism is called environment.

Question 14.
What is biosphere?
Answer:
The world of living things is called biosphere.
(OR)
The life supporting zone on the earth is called biosphere.

Question 15.
What are the physical or abiotic factors in a biosphere?
Answer:
Land, air, water, sunlight, humidity etc. are the physical or abiotic factors in a biosphere.

Question 16.
What does a food chain show?
Answer:
Food chain shows that how the energy is passed from one organism to another.

Question 17.
How the terrestrial ecosystems are determined?
Answer:
The terrestrial ecosystems are determined largely by the variations in climatic conditions between the poles and equator.

Question 18.
Where did the Kilimanjaro mountain located?
Answer:
The Kilimanjaro mountain is located in equatorial Africa (present in Tanzania, Africa).

Question 19.
What is the main source of energy for all the organisms in an ecosystem?
Answer:
Sunlight is the main source of energy for all the organisms in an ecosystem.

Question 20.
What is food web?
Answer:
The network of a large number of food chains existing in an ecosystem is called a food web.

Question 21.
What does a food web indicate?
Answer:
A food web indicates that the number of possible links for food in an ecosystem and reflects the fact that the whole community is a complex inter-connected unit.

Question 22.
What is ‘niche’?
Answer:
The position of organisms in a food web.

Question 23.
What does the word ‘niche’ denotes?
Answer:
‘Niche’ is the term used to describe not only the animals position in the food web and what it eats but also its mode of life.

Question 24.
What is an ecological pyramid?
Answer:
The graphic representation of the feeding level structure of an ecosystem by taking the shape of a pyramid is called “Ecological pyramid”.

Question 25.
Who was the first one to introduce “Ecological pyramid”?
Answer:
Ecological pyramid was first introduced by a British Ecologist Charles Elton in 1927.

Question 26.
In ecological pyramids the producers are represented at?
Answer:
The producers are represented at the base of the ecological pyramids.

Question 27.
What is pyramid of number?
Answer:
A graphical representation designed to show the number of organisms at each tropic level in a given ecosystem is called “pyramid of number”.

Question 28.
What does the pyramid of number show?
Answer:
Pyramid of number shows the population of organisms at each tropic level in a food chain.

Question 29.
What does each bar represent in a pyramid of number?
Answer:
In a pyramid of number, each bar represents the number of individuals at each tropic level in a food chain.

Question 30.
When does the pyramid of number not look like a pyramid at all?
Answer:
If the producer is a large plant such as tree or if one of the organisms at any tropic level is very small, then the pyramid of number does not look like a pyramid.

Question 31.
What is biomass?
Answer:
Any type of plant or animal material that can be converted into energy is called biomass.

Question 32.
What is biofuels?
Answer:
The materials which are used for energy production are known as biofuels.

Question 33.
What is Pyramid of biomass?
Answer:
A graphical representation designed to show the quantity of living matter at each tropic level in a given ecosystem is called “Pyramid of biomass”.

Question 34.
Why Pyramid of biomass inverted in case of aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:

1. In an aquatic ecosystem, the biomass of phytoplankton is quite negligible as compared to that of the crustaceans and small herbivorous fish that feed on these producers.
2. The biomass of large carnivorous fish living on small fishes is still greater. This makes the pyramid of biomass inverted.

Question 35.
How much percentage of the biomass is transferred from one tropic level to the next in a food chain?
Answer:
The percentage of the biomass transferred from one tropic level to the next level in food chain is nearly 10 – 20%.

Question 36.
When does the species at the top of the pyramid get more energy?
Answer:
The species at the top of the pyramid get, more energy when the steps in a food chain are fewer.

Question 37.
What are bio-geochemical cycles?
Answer:
Flow of materials between organisms and their environment is called cycling of materials or bio-geochemical cycles.

Question 38.
What is ecological efficiency?
Answer:
The ratio between energy flows at different tropic levels among the food chain expressed as percentage is called ecological efficiency.

Question 39.
What is ten per cent law?
Answer:
During the transfer of energy from one tropic level to the next, only about ten per cent of the energy from organic matter is stored as flesh. This is called “Ten per cent law”.

Question 40.
Where do Kolleru one of the largest fresh water lakes in India exists?
Answer:
Kolleru is one of the largest fresh water lakes in India exists between West Godavari and Krishna districts of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 41.
What is the catchment area of the lake Kolleru?
Answer:
A catchment area of the Kolleru lake extends up to 6121 Km2.

Question 42.
Through which The lake Kolleru discharges its excess water into Bay of Bengal?
Answer:
The lake Kolleru discharges its excess water into Bay of Bengal through the twisty channel called Upputeru which is about 65 km long.

Question 43.
When did Government of Andhra Pradesh had declared the lake as Bird Sanctuary?
Answer:
In November 1999, Government of Andhra Pradesh had declared the lake as Bird Sanctuary.

Question 44.
What is the number of species of birds being hosted by the Kolleru?
Answer:
The Kolleru lake is hosting 193 species of birds.

Question 45.
What are the major sources of pollution in Kolleru lake?
Answer:
The major sources of pollution are agricultural runoff containing residues of several agrochemicals, fertilizers, fish tank discharges, industrial effluents containing chemical residues and different types of organic substances, municipal and domestic sewage.

Question 46.
What is the objective of “Operation Kolleru” by the ministry of environment and forest, Government of India?
Answer:
The objective of operation Kolleru by the ministry of environment and forest, Government of India is to bring back the ecological balance of Kolleru lake which is a gift of nature.

Question 47.
What is Bioaccumulation?
Answer:
The process of entering of pollutants in a food chain is known as Bioaccumulation.

Question 48.
What is Biomagnification?
Answer:
The tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one tropic level to the next is known as Biomagnification.

Question 49.
What are pesticides?
Answer:
The chemical materials used to control pests that attack crop plants or live as parasites on the body of farm animals are called pesticides.

Question 50.
What is a perfect pesticide?
Answer:
The perfect pesticide is one which destroys a particular pest and is completely harmless to every other form of life.

Question 51.
Why did the egg breaking among the peregrines increase?
Answer:
Egg breaking among the peregrines increased due to their disturbed behaviour caused by the nerve poisons that entered into their tissues through food chain.

Question 52.
Why did the aquatic biota is being contaminated?
Answer:
The aquatic biota is being contaminated with heavy metals due to industrialization and anthropogenic activities.

Question 53.
Why fish are considered to be the bioindicators of metal contamination?
Answer:
Fish are considered to be the bioindicators of metal contamination in environmental monitoring because fish species are strongly respond to stress conditions.

Question 54.
Where did Edulabad water reservoir located?
Answer:
Edulabad water reservoir is located in urban areas of Ranga Reddy district of Telangana.

Question 55.
Which fish species is grown in Edulabad water reservoir?
Answer:
Cyprinus carpio (common scale carp) is the fish species grown in Edulabad water reservoir.

Question 56.
What are the effects of bioaccumulation of metals in human beings that eat cyprinus carpio?
Answer:
The bioaccumulation of various metals in cyprinus carpio cause disorders. Such as hypertensions, sporadic fever, renal damage, nausea, etc.

Question 57.
In which country sparrows were hunted extensively in 1958?
Answer:
In China sparrows were hunted extensively in 1958.

Question 58.
In your opinion what are the effective methods to control pests?
Answer:
Rotation of crops, biological control, developing genetically modified plants are the effective methods to control pests in my opinon.

Question 59.
Why the temperatures are very high during the day and cold during the nights in deserts?
Answer:
In deserts, the rainfall and humidity are very low, so the sun’s rays easily penetrate the atmosphere making ground temperatures very high during the day. But the nights are often cold as the earth loses heat rapidly.

Question 60.
How can we draw a food chain?
Answer:
We can draw a food chain by connecting the pictures or names of organisms by putting arrows between them. These arrows should always point from food to the feeder.

Question 61.
How many types of ecological pyramids are there in practice? Name them.
Answer:
There are three types of ecological pyramids. They are:

1. Pyramid of number
2. Pyramid of biomass and
3. Pyramid of energy.

Question 62.
Which process helps to convert the solar energy into suitable form of energy for animals to consume?
Answer:
Photosynthesis helps to convert the solar energy into suitable form of energy (food) for animals to consume.

10th Class Biology 9th Lesson Our Environment 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
What will happen if we remove Frog from the above food chain? Explain.
Answer:

1. Frog is secondary consumer in this food chain.
2. If we remove frog from the food chain, the number of grasshopper will increase on other hand the number of snakes which depend on frogs will decrease.
3. Hence, ecological balance may be damaged.

Question 2.
Observe the diagram and answer the following.
i) Write any two food chains from the diagram.
ii) What are the secondary consumers in the food chain that are written by you?
Answer:
i) a) Plants → Goat → Tiger
b) Plants → Rabbit → Wolf / Fox
ii) Tiger, Wolf / Fox

Question 3.
Study the given paragraph and answer the questions.

Solar energy from sun enters into the producers of an ecosystem. No organisms except green plants and photosynthetic bacteria can absorb solar energy and convert it into chemical energy.

A) What are the producers mentioned in the given paragraph?
B) What form is energy converted into photosynthesis? In Photosynthesis, which form is energy converted into?
Answer:
A) Green plants and photosynthetic bacteria.
B) In photosynthesis, the light (or) solar energy is converted into chemical energy.

Question 4.
Explain the flow chart given below.
Answer:
It is the pyramid of biomass.

1. In this pyramid 10% of the food will reach to the next trophical level and so on at each level.
2. It would take 1000 kg of phytoplankton to provide 100 kg of zooplankton and to form 1 kg of human tissue, 10 kg of frog is needed.
3. The fewer the steps in the food chain, the more energy will be for the species at the top.

Question 5.
Observe the pyramid of number which is given below and answer the questions.
i) As per the number of organisms in the tropic level, which group of organisms
are more in number and which are less in number?
ii) What happens if Secondary consumers disappear?
Answer:
i) If producers are more in number, then tertiary consumers are less in number,
ii) If secondary consumers disappear the primary consumers increase in number and the tertiary consumers found no food to live. It leads to death.

Question 6.
Explain in brief about the alternate methods to be followed to prevent the harmful effects of over usage of pesticides.
(OR)
Mention any four effective methods of controlling pests, which are less harmful on environment based on biological principles.
Answer:
Some of alternative pest control methods are

1. Rotation of Crop: Growing different crops on a particular piece of land in successive years.
2. Studying the life histories of the pests: When this is done it is sometimes possible to sow the crops at a time when least damage will be caused.
3. Biological Control: Introducing Natural predator or parasite of the pest.
4. Sterility: Rendering the males of a pest species sterile.
5. Genetic Strains: The development of genetic strains (genetically modified plants) which are resistant to certain pest.
6. Environmental ethics: People need to know besides laws regarding environment there are some basic ethics what is right and what is wrong in view of environment.

Question 7.
Write any 4 slogans on the necessity of forests and on their conservation.
Answer:

1. Save the trees, save the earth. We are the guardians of nature’s birth.
2. Don’t destroy the greenary and don’t spoil the scenery.
3. Don’t make trees rare, we should keep them with care.
4. To live for future in rest, saving forest is the best.

Question 8.
How does the given below concepts differs?
(a) Bioaccumulation b) Biomagnification
Answer:
a) Bioaccumulation: The process of entry of pollutants into a food chain is known as bioaccumulation.
b) Biomagnification: It is the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one tropic level to the next is known as biomagnification.

Question 9.
The biomass of a producer in an ecosystem is calculated as 3500 kgs. Calculate the biomass of primary, secondary, tertiary consumers.
Answer:
In a food chain roughly 90% of the food is lost at each step. So if the biomass of a producer in an ecosystem is calculated as 3500 kgs. the biomass of primary consumer as will be 350 kgs. and of secondary consumer is 35 kgs and biomass of tertiary consumer is 3.5 kgs.

Question 10.
Write a short note on food chain and food web.
Answer:

1. Food chain is a pathway along which food is transferred from one tropic level to another tropic level beginning with producers.
2. It shows who eats what in a particular habitat.
3. The arrows between each item in the chain always point from the food to the feeder.
4. For example
   Grass → Rabbit → Snake → Hawk
5. The elaborate interconnected feeding relationships in an ecosystem is said to be food web.
6. Many of the food chains in an ecosystem are crosslinked to form food web.
7. For example,
   
8. Food chain and food web help us to understand the food relations among living things.

Question 11.
Write a short notes on ecological pyramids.
Answer:

1. The graphical representation of the feeding level structure of an ecosystem by taking the shape of a pyramid is called “Ecological pyramid”.
2. It was first introduced by a British Ecologist Charles Elton in 1927.
3. In the ecological pyramid, the producers (First tropic level) are represented at the base, and the successive tropic levels (primary, secondary and tertiary consumers) are represented one above the other with top carnivores at the tip.
4. There are three types of pyramids.
   i) Pyramid of number ii) Pyramid of biomass and iii) Pyramid of energy.
5. Pyramid of number shows the population of organisms at each tropic level in a food chain.
6. Pyramid of biomass represents the available food as a source of energy at each tropic level in the food chain.
7. Pyramid of energy represents the available energy at each tropic level in food chain.

Question 12.
Write a short notes on pyramid of number.
Answer:

1. Pyramid of number is a graphical representation designed to show the number of organisms at each tropic level in a given ecosystem.
2. The shape of this pyramid varies from eco-system to ecosystem.
   
3. In aquatic and grassland ecosystems, numerous small autotrophs support lesser herbivores which support further small number of carnivores and hence the pyramid structure is upright.
   
4. In forest ecosystem, less number of producers support greater number of herbivores who in turn support a fewer number of carnivores. Hence the pyramid structure is partly upright.
5. In parasitic food chain, one primary producer supports numerous parasites which support still more hyperparasites. Hence the pyramid structure is inverted.
   

Question 13.
Write a short notes on pyramid of biomass.
Answer:

1. Pyramid of biomass is a graphical representation designed to show the quantity of living matter (biomass) at each tropic level in a given ecosystem.
2. In terrestrial ecosystems, the biomass progressively decreases from producers to top carnivores. Hence the pyramid structure is upright.
   
3. In an aquatic ecosystem, the biomass of phytoplankton (producers) is quite negligible as compared to that of crustaceans and small herbivorous fish that feed on these producers. The biomass of large carnivorous fish living on small fishes is still greater. This makes the pyramid of biomass inverted.
   

Question 14.
How do pesticides cause Bioaccumulation and Biomagnification?
(OR)
What are the effects of pesticides on environment?
Answer:

1. Pesticides are the toxic chemicals used to destroy pest and insects which damage our crops and stored foods.
2. These pesticides vary in their length of life as toxic materials.
3. Some of the pesticides are degradable that can be broken down into harmless substances in a comparatively short time and others are non-degradable.
4. Non-degradable pesticides accumulate in the bodies of animal and pass right through food web.
5. Thus the pesticides cause bioaccumulation.
6. These accumulated pesticides concentrate as they move from one tropic level to the next, thus leads to biomagnification.

Question 15.
List out some human activities which altered the communities of plants and animals in their natural ecosystem.
Answer:

1. Industrialization
2. Damming rivers
3. Draining marshes
4. Re-claiming land from the sea
5. Cutting down forests
6. Using chemical fertilisers and pesticides
7. Building towns, cities, canals and motor ways.

Question 16.
What kind of changes may come in 2m ecosystem due to development of a large town?
Answer:
The following changes are expected due to development of a large town.

1. Some plants and animal species will die out.
2. Some will adapt to the new conditions sufficiently to survive in reduced numbers.
3. Some will benefit by the new conditions and will increase in numbers.

Question 17.
Write a comparative note on pyramid of number and pyramid of biomass.
(OR)
Write the differences between pyramid of number and pyramid of biomass.
Answer:

Question 18.
Write a comparative note on pyramid of biomass and pyramid of energy.
(OR)
What are the differences between pyramid of biomass and pyramid of energy?
Answer:

Question 19.
Write a comparative note on pyramid of number and pyramid of energy?
(OR)
What are the differences between pyramid of number and pyramid of energy?
Answer:

Question 20.
What is ecological efficiency? Write a short notes on Ten per cent law?
Answer:
Ecological efficiency: The ratio between energy flows at different tropic levels along the food chain expressed as percentage is called “ecological efficiency”.
Ten per cent law:

1. The amount of energy transferred decreases with successive tropic levels.
2. Slobodkin (1959) suggested that the transfer of energy from one tropic level to the next is of the order of 10% and this is called “Gross ecological efficiency”.

Question 21.
Geetha said “a given species may occupy more than one tropic level in the same ecosystem at the same time”. Do you support her or not? Explain your answer with example.
Answer:
I support her for the following reason.

1. A snake eating a mouse in a field or lawn occupies the third tropic level.
   Plant → Mouse → Snake
2. When the snake eats a frog in the same field, it occupies the fourth tropic level in a food chain. It is because the frog feed on some of the insects that depend on the plants.
   Plant → Insect → Frog → Snake
3. Thus, a given species may occupy more than one tropic level in the same ecosystem at the same time.
4. This is to satisfy its food needs, as it cannot do so by occupying one tropic level.

Question 22.
If we introduce a man into a forest ecosystem, at which level of food chain we will place him? Explain your answer.
Answer:

1. If we introduce a man into a forest ecosystem, he can fit for any level of consumers of food chain.
2. He may feed on plant parts such as fruits. Then we can place him at primary consumer level.
   Plant → Man
3. He may feed on some of the herbivorous organisms such as rabbit, then we can place him at secondary consumers level.
   Plant → Rabbit → Man
4. He may also feed on some of the carnivorous organisms such as insectivorous birds then we can place him at tertiary consumers level.
   Plant → Insect → Bird → Man
5. This is possible to place him at any level of consumers, as he is an omnivore, who feed on both plant originated and animal originated foods.

Question 23.
Draw the ecological pyramids for the given food chain.
Banyan Tree → Herbivorous birds → Carnivorous birds.
Answer:
1) Pyramid of number

2) Pyramid of biomass

3) Pyramid of energy

Question 24.
Write briefly about Minamata disease.
Answer:

1. Minamata disease was first discovered in Minamata city in Kumamoto prefecture, Japan, in 1956.
2. It was caused by the release of methyl mercury in the industrial waste water from the Chisso corporation’s chemical factory, which continued from 1932 to 1968.
3. This highly toxic chemical bioaccumulated in shellfish and fish in Minimata Bay and the Shiranui Sea, which, when eaten by the local populace, resulted in mercury poisoning.
4. While cat, dog, pig and humans death continued for 36 years.

Question 25.
What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain and state the different trophic levels in it.
Answer:

1. Trophic levels is the feeding position in a food chain.
2. It is the functional level occupied by an organism in a food chain.
3. Examples of trophic levels include ‘herbivores’ and ‘decomposers’
4. An example of food chain depicting various trophic levels is as follows:
   

Question 26.
What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem? (OR)
How decomposers help in cleaning the environment?
Answer:

1. If the decomposers are not present in an ecosystem the remains of the other organisms accumulate.
2. Eventually the world would run out of carbon dioxide or nitrate or phosphate or other inorganisms material essential for life.
3. The decomposers breakdown the organic waste products and dead remains of organisms into the inorganic substances needed by the producers.
4. Most decomposition is carried out by saprophytic fungi, by bacteria and by invertebrates.

10th Class Biology 9th Lesson Our Environment 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare some slogans about ‘Vanam – Manam’ programme to display in your school rally?
Answer:

1. Save paper – Save trees
2. Plant a tree – Plant a life
3. Saving trees is our duty
4. Think green – Go green
5. If we protect plants – they protects us
6. Conserve plants – Conserve life
7. Plant a tree – get the air free
8. Plant a tree – Reduce the pollution.
9. Tree on – Global warming gone.
10. If cut a tree – It kills a life.

Question 2.
Read the information about Kolleru lake in the given table and answer the following questions.

a) In which year, lake water spread area is more?
b) Why do you think weeds are more in the lake?
c) Guess the reasons for decrease in the lake area.
d) What measures are to be taken to control pollution in the lake?
Answer:
a) In the year 1967
b) Addition of excessive nutrients from aquaculture ponds and rice fields.
c) Aquaculture ponds, Ricefields and Encroachment are the reasons for decrease in lake area.
d) Anthropogenic activities are to be controlled in the lake catchment area. (Or)
Fish ponds are to be removed in the lake catchment area. (Or)
Agricultural practices in the lake area should be minimised as per the norms of government.

Question 3.
Observe the following pyramid of biomass and answer the following questions.
a) This pyramid shows a decrease in the biomass as we move up, why the biomass is decreasing?
Answer:
The pyramid of biomass for the given food chain, at each step 90% of the food is lost. That means 1000 kg of phytoplankton to produce 100 kg of Zooplankton to form 10 kg of fish to produce 1kg of human tissues. The fewer the steps in the food chain the more energy will be for the species at the top.

b) Give some examples of producers and primary consumers.
Answer:
Examples for producers: Plants, Grass, Diatoms.
Examples for primary consumers: Grasshopper, Rabbit, Deer,

c) Where do producers get the energy from?
Answer:
From the sun.

d) How much biomass is lost at each step?
Answer:
90%

Question 4.
Observe the following diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Name the primary producers in the given food web.
ii) Prepare any one food – chain from the diagram.
iii) What are the tertiary consumers?
iv) Write names of any two herbivores.
Answer:
i) Plants, Grass, Trees Phytoplanktons etc.
ii) Grass → Rabbit → Fox → Tiger
iii) Tiger, Vulture, Crane, Owl, Peacock etc.
(OR)
The animals which are at 4th trophic level in a food chain are called as Tertiary Consumers.
iv) Rabbit, Deer, Goat, Cow

Question 5.
What is number pyramid? What does it indicate?
Answer:

1. The number of organisms in a food chain can be represented graphically in a pyramid of number.
2. Each bar represents the number of individuals at each tropic level in a food chain.
3. At each link in a food chain, from the first order consumers to the large carnivores, there is normally an increase in size but decrease in number.
4. For example in a wood, the aphids are very small and occur in astronomical numbers.
5. The lady birds which feed on them are distinctly larger and not so numerous.
6. The insectivorous birds which feed on the lady birds are larger still and are only present in a small number and there may only be a single pair of hawks of much larger size than the insectivorous birds on which they prey.

Question 6.
Draw the diagram of number pyramid keeping foxes as third consumers. What are the consequences if their number increases?
Answer:

1. If the number of foxes increases, then the competition for food will be very severe and less amount of food will be available for them.
   
2. As a result some of the foxes may not get enough food and die due to starvation.
3. This reduces the population of foxes and very few foxes will be left in the forest.
4. This increases the chances of survival of secondary consumers birds, hence their number increases.
5. This increases the availability of food for foxes. Very soon a balance will be established between the number of secondary consumers and foxes.

Question 7.
What reasons are responsible for decrease in number of top carnivores and biomass starting production in a food chain?
(OR)
Why the number of organisms get decreased as we move from producers to consumer levels?
Answer:

1. In a food chain as we move from producers to different levels of consumers the energy available will decrease gradually.
2. Only ten percent of the energy present in one tropic level transfer to another tropic level.
3. Biomass also decreases gradually as only 10 – 20% of the biomass is transferred from one tropic level to the next in a food chain.
4. As there is less energy of less biomass available at top levels, number of organisms also less generally.
5. So the number of organisms get decreased as we move from producers to different level of consumer.

Question 8.
Show food chain of different organisms, number of pyramid of your school.
Answer:
Food chain of different organisms in our school:
Plant → aphids → spiders thirds.

1. The pyramid of organisms in a food chain can be represented graphically in a pyramid of number.
2. Each bar represents the number of individuals at each tropic level in a food chain.
3. At each link in a food chain, from the first order consumers to the large carnivores, there is normally an increase in size, but decrease in number.

Question 9.
What determines the terrestrial ecosystems on the earth?
Answer:

1. The terrestrial ecosystems on the earth are being determined largely by the variations in climatic conditions between the poles and equator.
2. The main climatic influences which determine these ecosystems are rainfall, temperature and availability of light from the sun.
3. For instance, forests are usually associated with high rainfall, but the type Is influenced by temperature and light.
4. The same applies to deserts which occur in regions where rainfall is extremely low.
5. Thus, the climatic conditions along the horizontal climatic regions determined the terrestrial ecosystems on the earth.
6. If we move from equatorial region to the polar region, we can come across tropical rain forests, savannah, deciduous forest, coniferous forests and then tundras respectively.
7. Similarly altitude of the place is also a determining factor.
8. If we climb a mountain such as Kilimanjaro in equatorial Africa, we can go through a comparable system of ecosystems, starting with tropical rain forest at the base and ending with perpetual snow and ice at the summit.

Question 10.
“All the energy in the ecosystem is ultimately derived from sunlight.” Justify.
Answer:

1. All the organisms in an ecosystem derive energy from food.
2. The food by its nature is the chemical energy and by in its stored form, it is the potential energy.
3. In an ecosystem, all the consumers at any level depend upon producers for their food either directly or indirectly.
4. The producers in any ecosystem are nothing but photosynthetic organisms such as plants, phytoplanktons and photosynthetic bacteria.
5. Energy enters the producers in the ecosystem from the sun in the form of solar energy during photosynthesis.
6. From the producers, the chemical energy passes to the consumers from one tropic level to the next through food.
7. For example, in a grassland ecosystem, grass traps the solar energy and stores in its body.
8. When this grass is eaten and assimilated by insects this stored energy enters into the body of insects.
9. From the insects it will pass to frog, from them to snake and so on to eagle.
10. Thus, all the energy in the ecosystem is ultimately derived from sunlight.

Question 11.
What is biological magnification? Will the levels of this magnification be different at different levels of the ecosystem?
Answer:

1. The tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next trophic level is known as Biomagnification.
2. Plants absorb pesticides, heavy metals from the soil.
3. The primary consumers when eat these plants the remaining of pesticides and heavy metals enter their bodies.
4. As these chemicals are not degradable, they accumulate in the bodies of organisms of all trophic levels in the food chain.
5. Most of the plants products which we eat are grown in fields in which pesticides and fertilisers have been used.
6. These are absorbed by the plants and cannot be removed by washing or other means.
7. Human beings are at the top level of the food chain these chemicals get accumulated in our bodies and cause various disorders.
8. Levels of biological magnification would increase as the trophic level increases.

Question 12.
Will the impact of removing all the organisms in a trophic level be different for different trophic levels ? Can the organisms of any trophic level be removed without causing any damage to the ecosystem?
Answer:

1. If we remove producers from ecosystem, herbivores will not survive and the entire ecosystem collapse.
2. Removing herbivores result in increase number of producers and carnivores would not get food.
3. Removing carnivores result in increase of herbivores to unsustainable levels.
4. If we remove decomposers from ecosystem waste material and animal dead remains would pile up and nutrients would not be available to the producers.
5. Some or the other damage would be caused to the ecosystem if the organisms of any trophic level is removed.
6. However impact of removing producers or decomposers would be serve as the whole ecosystem would collapse.
7. Without plants sun’s energy cannot be converted to chemical energy which is the basis of life on earth.
8. Without decomposers the nutrients cannot be recycled and made available to producers.

Question 13.
Every organism has got the right to live on this planet. Write slogans to motivate the people on preservation of biodiversity.
Answer:

1. Live and let live.
2. Conserve nature – conserve life.
3. Clean the environment, live happily.
4. Think eco-friendly and live eco-friendly.
5. If we protect the environment, it protect us.
6. Reduce pollution – conserve the biodiversity.

Question 14.
Write some friendly ecosystem activities you will conduct in your school.
Answer:

1. Forming eco-clubs: These clubs consists of student representatives from each class. They will take up the eco-friendly activities and encourage the people of that village to follow environment friendly activities.
2. Setting up garden at school: This ensures the school and its premises green through planting of flowering plants, vegetables and fruit trees. It is a symbol of biodiversity because various plants and animals inhabit the garden.
3. Electricity conservation programme: To save energy the school implements certain hours to be switched off habit. This switching off programme for one hour from 3.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m. help conserve electricity in every classroom.
4. Pollution prevention programme: A ‘no burning of trash policy should be implemented in the school. Waste materials are recycled and properly disposed to ensure a clean, waste-free environment.
5. Making compost by organic wastes: By digging a pit at one corner of the school and throwing the organic waste particularly of mid day meal waste into pit and covering with soil layers prepares compost which can be used as manure for plants. This creates a clean environment in the school.
6. Using cloth bags instead of polythene bags by pupil.
7. Collection of solid waste materials and proper management of its helps in reducing soil pollution.
8. Children should be encouraged to follow ‘3R’ system i.e. Reduce, Re use and Recycle different substances.

Question 15.
What is Ecological pyramid? Describe different types of Ecological pyramids.
Answer:

1. The graphical representation of the feeding level structure of an ecosystem by taking the shape of a pyramid is called ecological pyramid.
   
2. There are three types of ecological pyramids. They are
   1) Pyramid of number, 2) Pyramid of biomass and 3) Pyramid of energy.
3. Pyramid of number is a graphical representation designed to show the number of organisms at each tropic level in a given ecosystem.
4. The shape of this pyramid varies from ecosystem to ecosystem.
5. In forest ecosystem the pyramid structure is partly upright and in parasitic food chain is inverted.
6. Pyramid of biomass is a graphical representation designed to show the quantity of living matter (bio mass) at each trophic level in a given ecosystem.
7. In terrestrial ecosystems, the biomass progressively decreases from producers to top carnivores hence the pyramid structure is upright whereas in aquatic ecosystem it is inverted.
8. Pyramid of energy is a graphical representation designed to show the quantity of energy present at each tropic level in a given ecosystem. The pyramid of energy is always upright.

Question 16.
Collect information regarding pesticides commonly used in your area and prepare a chart showing pesticide and common name and on which crop and pest it is commonly used.
Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 4 Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables Ex 4.2 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 4th Lesson Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.2

10th Class Maths 4th Lesson Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables Ex 4.2 Textbook Questions and Answers

Form a pair of linear equations for each of the following problems and find their solution.
Question 1.
The ratio of incomes of two persons is 9 : 7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If each of them manages to save Rs. 2000 per month, find their monthly income.
Answer:
Given ratio of incomes of two persons = 9 : 7
So let the incomes of each = Rs. 9x and Rs. 7x
and ratio of expenditures = 4 : 3
So let the expenditures of each = 4y and 3y
then earnings of each = (income – expenditure) of each
⇒ 9x – 4y = Rs. 2000 and 7x – 3y = 200
∴ 9x – 4y = 7x – 3y = 2000
⇒ 9x – 7x = 4y – 3y
⇒ y = 2x
now putting y = 2x in 9x – 4y = 2000 we get
9x – 4(2x) = 2000 ⇒ x = 2000
∴ Income of each = 9x = 9(2000) = 18000
and 7x = 7(2000) = 14,000

Question 2.
The sum of a two digit number and the number obtained by reversing the digits is 66. If the digits of the number differ by 2, find the number. How many such numbers are there?
Answer:
Let the digit in units place be x
and the digit in tens place be y
then the value of the number = 10y + x
Number obtained by reversing the digits = 10x + y
By problem,
(10y + x) + (10x + y) = 66
and x – y = 2
⇒ 11x – 11y = 66 and x – y = 2
⇒ x + y = 6 and x – y = 2
Solving these two equations
x + y = 6
x – y = 2
(+) 2x = 8
x = \(\frac{8}{2}\) = 4
Substituting x = 4 in x + y = 6
we get 4 + y = 6 ⇒ y = 2
Substituting x, y values in equations (10y + x) & (10x + y),
We get 10y + x
= 10(2) + 4 = 20 + 4 = 24
and 10x + y = 10(4) + 2
= 40 + 2 = 42
∴ The number is 42 or 24
Thus we have two such numbers.

Question 3.
The larger of two supplementary angles exceeds the smaller by 18°. Find the angles.
Answer:
Let the pair of supplementary angles be x and y [and x > y]
then we have x + y = 180° …… (1)
By problem, x = y + 18°
⇒ x – y = 18° …… (2)
Solving the equations (1) and (2) we get

and x = \(\frac{198}{2}\) = 99°
Substituting x = 99° in equation (2) we get
99° – y° = 18°
⇒ y° = 99° – 18 = 81°
∴ The angles are 99° and 81°.

Question 4.
The taxi charges in Hyderabad are fixed, along with the charge for the distance covered. For a distance of 10 km., the charge paid is Rs. 220. For a journey of 15 km. the charge paid is Rs. 310.
i) What are the fixed charges and charge per km?
ii) How much does a person have to pay for travelling a distance of 25km?
Answer:
Let the fixed charge be = Rs. x.
and the charge per one km = Rs. y.
By problem, x + 10y = 220 x + 15y = 310
Solving (1) and (2) we get

∴ y = \(\frac{-90}{-5}\) = 18
i.e., charge per one km = Rs. 18
Substituting y = 18 in equation (1) we get
x + 10 × 18 = 220
⇒ x = 220 – 180
⇒ x = Rs. 40
∴ Fixed charge = Rs. 40;
Charge per km = Rs. 18.

ii) Now, the charge for travelling a distance of 25 km = 25 × 18
= Rs. 450 + 40
= Rs. 490

Question 5.
A fraction becomes equal to \(\frac{4}{5}\) if 1 is added to both numerator and denominator. If, however, 5 is subtracted from both numerator and denominator, the fraction becomes equal to \(\frac{1}{2}\). What is the fraction?
Answer:
Let the numerator of the fraction = x
and the denominator of the fraction = y
By problem,
\(\frac{x+1}{y+1}\) = \(\frac{4}{5}\) and \(\frac{x-5}{y-5}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
⇒ 5(x + 1) = 4(y + 1) and 2(x – 5) = 1(y – 5)
5x + 5 = 4y + 4 and 2x – 10 = y – 5
⇒ 5x – 4y = 4 – 5 and 2x – y = – 5 + 10
⇒ 5x – 4y = – 1 …… (1)
and 2x – y = 5 …… (2)

∴ y = \(\frac{-27}{-3}\) = 9
Substituting y = 9 in equation (2) we get
2x – 9 = 5
⇒ 2x = 5 + 9
⇒ 2x = 14 and
x = \(\frac{14}{2}\) = 7
Thus the fraction is \(\frac{x}{y}\) = \(\frac{7}{9}\)

Question 6.
Places A and B are 100 km apart on a highway One car starts from A and another from B at the same time at different speeds. If the cars travel in the same direction, they meet in 5 hours. If they travel towards each other, they meet in 1 hour. What are the speeds of the two cars?
Answer:

Let the speed of the car which started from the place A = x kmph
and B = y kmph
Distance travelled by first car in 5h = 5x and in 1h = x
The distance covered by second car in 5h = 5y and in 1h = y
By problem when travelled in same direction,
5x – 5y = 100 ⇒ x – y = 20 …… (1)
and when travelled towards each other
x + y = 100 ……. (2)
Solving (1) and (2),

∴ x = \(\frac{120}{2}\) = 60
Substituting x = 60 in equation (1) we get
60 – y = 20
⇒ y = 60 – 20 = 40 kmph
Thus the speed of the cars are 60 kmph and 40 kmph.

Question 7.
Two angles are complementary. The larger angle is 3° less than twice the measure of the smaller angle. Find the measure of each angle.
Answer:
Let the pair of complementary angles be x° and y° with x° > y°
then x° + y° = 90° and
By problem
x = 2y – 3° ⇒ x – 2y = – 3°
Solving these two equations we get,

∴ y = \(\frac{93}{3}\) = 31°
Substituting y = 31°in x + y = 90° we get
x + 31° = 90°
⇒ x = 90° – 31° = 59°
The angles are 59° and 31°.

Question 8.
An algebra textbook has a total of 1382 pages. It is broken up into two parts. The second part of the book has 64 pages more than the first part. How many pages are in each part of the book?
Answer:
Let the first part of the book contains x pages
and the second part of the book contains y pages By problem,
x + y = 1382 ….. (1)
y = x + 64 ⇒ x – y = -64 …… (2)
Solving equations (1) and (2) we get

∴ x = \(\frac{1318}{2}\) = 659
Substituting x = 659 in equation (1) we get
659 + y = 1382
⇒ y = 1382 – 659 = 723
∴ The number of pages in the first part = 659
Second part = 723

Question 9.
A chemist has two solutions of hydrochloric acid in stock. One is 50% solution and the other is 80% solution. How much of each should be used to obtain 100 ml of a 68% solution?
Answer:
Let the first solution contains 50% acid.
Second solution contains 80% acid.
Let x ml of 1st solution and y ml of second solution are added.
Then x + y = 100
Acid content in the ‘mix’ is 50% of x + 80% of y = 68%

∴ y = \(\frac{180}{3}\) = 60
Substituting y = 60 in equation (1) we get
x + 60 = 100
⇒ x = 100 – 60 = 40
∴ Quantity of first solution = 40 ml
Quantity of second solution = 60 ml

Question 10.
Suppose you have Rs. 12000 to invest. You have to invest some amount at 10% and the rest at 15%. How much should be invested at each rate to yield 12% on the total amount invested ?
Answer:
Let the amount to be invested @ 10% be Rs. x
and the amount to be invested @ 15% be Rs. y
By problem x + y = 12000 ……. (1)
Also 10% of x + 15% of y = 12% of 12000

⇒ y = \(\frac{-24000}{-5}\) = Rs. 4800
Substituting y = 4800 in equation (1) we get
x + 4800 = 12000
⇒ x = 12000 – 4800 = 7200
The invested @ 10% = Rs. 7200
@ 15% = Rs. 4800

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 6 Progressions Ex 6.1 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 6th Lesson Progressions Exercise 6.1

10th Class Maths 6th Lesson Progressions Ex 6.1 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which of the following situations, does the list of numbers involved make an arithmetic progression, and why?
i) The taxi fare after each km when the fare is Rs. 20 for the first km and rises by Rs. 8 for each additional km.
Answer:
Fare for the first km = Rs. 20 = a
Fare for each km after the first = Rs. 8 = d
∴ The fares would be 20, 28, 36, 44, …….
The above list forms an A.P.
Since each term in the list, starting from the second can be obtained by adding ‘8’ to its preceding term.

ii) The amount of air present in a cylinder when a vacuum pump removes \(\frac{1}{4}\)th of the air remaining in the cylinder at a time.
Answer:
Let the amount of air initially present in the cylinder be 1024 lit.
First it removes \(\frac{1}{4}\)th of the volume
i.e., \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 1024 = 256
∴ Remaining air present in the cylinder = 768
At second time it removes \(\frac{1}{4}\)th of 768
i.e., \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 768 = 192
∴ Remaining air in the cylinder = 768 – 192 = 576
Again at third time it removes \(\frac{1}{4}\)th of 576
i.e., \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 576 = 144
Remaining air in the cylinder = 576 – 144 = 432
i.e., the volume of the air present in the cylinder after 1st, 2nd, 3rd,… times is 1024, 768, 576, 432, …..
Here, a₂ – a₁ = 768 – 1024 = – 256
a₃ – a₂ = 576 – 768 = – 192
a₄ – a₃ = 432 – 576 = – 144 .
Thus the difference between any two successive terms is not equal to a fixed number.
∴ The given situation doesn’t show an A.P.

iii) The cost of digging a well, after, every metre of digging, when it costs ? 150 for the first metre and rises by ? 50 for each subsequent metre.
Answer:
Cost for digging the first metre = Rs. 150
Cost for digging subsequent metres = Rs. 50 each.
i.e.,

The list is 150, 200, 250, 300, 350, ……..
Here d = a₂ – a₁ = a₃ – a₂ = a₄ – a₃ = ……. = 50
∴ The given situation represents an A.P.

iv) The amount of money in the account every year, when Rs. 10000 is deposited at compound interest at 8 % per annum.
Answer:
Amount deposited initially = P = Rs. 10,000
Rate of interest = R = 8% p.a [at C.I.]
∴ \(A=P\left(1+\frac{R}{100}\right)^{n}\)

The terms 10800, 11664, 12597.12, ……. a₂ – a₁ = 800
Here, a = 10,000                                     a₃ – a₂ = 864
But, a₂ – a₁ ≠ a₃ – a₂ ≠ a₄ – a₃                a₄ – a₃ = 953.12
∴ The given situation doesn’t represent an A.P.

Question 2.
Write first four terms of the AP, when the first term a and the common difference d are given as follows:
i) a = 10, d = 10
ii) a = -2, d = 0
iii) a = 4, d = – 3
iv) a = – 1, d = 1/2
v) a = – 1.25, d = – 0.25
Answer:

Question 3.
For the following A.Ps, write the first term and the common difference:
i) 3, 1, – 1, – 3,….
ii) – 5, – 1, 3, 7,….
iii) \(\frac{1}{3}\), \(\frac{5}{3}\), \(\frac{9}{3}\), \(\frac{13}{3}\), ……..
iv) 0.6, 1.7, 2.8, 3.9,…
Answer:

Question 4.
Which of the following are APs ? If they form an AP, find the common difference d and write three more terms.
i) 2, 4, 8, 16, …….
ii) 2, \(\frac{5}{2}\), 3, \(\frac{7}{2}\), …….
iii) – 1.2, – 3.2, – 5.2, – 7.2,……
iv) -10,-6, -2, 2, …….
v) 3, 3 + √2, 3 + 2√2, 3 + 3√2, …….
vi) 0.2, 0.22, 0.222, 0.2222, ……
vii) 0, -4, -8, -12, …….
viii) –\(\frac{1}{2}\), –\(\frac{1}{2}\), –\(\frac{1}{2}\), –\(\frac{1}{2}\)
ix) 1, 3, 9, 27,…..
x) a, 2a, 3a, 4a,….
xi) a, a², a³, a⁴, …..
xii) √2, √8, √18, √32, …….
xiii) √3, √6, √9, √12, …….
Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Chemistry Solutions 14th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds

10th Class Chemistry 14th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Name the simplest hydrocarbon. (AS1)
Answer:
The simplest hydrocarbon is alkane called Methane (CH₄). It’s an aliphatic, saturated compound of Hydrogen and Carbon.

Question 2.
What are the general molecular formulae of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes? (AS1)
Answer:
General molecular formula of alkane is C_nH_2n+2.
General molecular formula of alkene is C_nH_2n.
General molecular formula of alkyne is C_nH_2n-2.

Question 3.
Name the carboxylic acid used as a preservative. (AS1)
Answer:
Vinegar with chemical formula CH₃COOH is used as preservative. 5 – 8% of solution of acetic acid or ethanoic acid in water is called vinegar and it is used widely as preservative in pickles.

Question 4.
Name the product other than water formed on burning of ethanol in air. (AS1)
Answer:
C₂H₃OH + 3O₂ → 2CO₂ + 3H₂O + Energy
So, the product other than water formed on burning of ethanol in air is carbon dioxide (CO₂).

Question 5.
Give the IUPAC name of the following compounds. If more than one compound is possible, name all of them. (AS1)
i) An aldehyde derived from ethane.
ii) A ketone derived from butane.
iii) A chloride derived from propane.
iv) An alcohol derived from pentane.
Answer:
i) An aldehyde derived from ethane is ethanal. Its formula is CH₃CHO.
ii) A ketone derived from butane. Its IUPAC name is Butanone.
Its chemical formula is CH₃COCH₂CH₃
It is also known as methyl ethyl ketone. (Its general name)

iii) A chloride derived from propane.
A) 1-Chloro propane. Its formula is CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl.

iv) An alcohol derived from pentane :
A) 1-Pentanol. Its formula is CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂CH₂OH.
B) 2-Pentanol. Its formula is CH₃CHOH CH₂CH₂CH₃
C) 3-Pentanol. Its formula is CH₃CH₂ CHOH CH₂CH₃

Question 6.
A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding ; can you tell why a mixture of ethyne and air is not used? (AS1)
Answer:

• Ethyne when burnt in the presence of oxygen gives enough heat that can be used for welding.
• Whereas if it is burnt in air which contains nitrogen, CO₂ and other inactive gaseous contents, sufficient oxygen is not available for burning ethyne to give the required heat.

Question 7.
Explain with the help of a chemical equation, how an addition reaction is used in vegetable ghee industry. (AS1)
Answer:

• The addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated hydrocarbon to obtain a saturated hydrocarbon is called hydrogenation. The process of hydrogenation takes place in the presence of nickel or palladium metals as catalyst.
• The process of hydrogenation has an important industrial application. It is used to prepare vegetable ghee (or vanaspati ghee) from vegetable oils.
• Vegetable oils are unsaturated fats having double bonds between some of their carbon atoms.
• When a vegetable oil (like groundnut oil) is heated with hydrogen in the presence of finely divided nickel as catalyst, a saturated oil called vegetable ghee (or vanaspati ghee) is formed. This a reaction is called hydrogenation of oils and it can be represented as follows.

Here vegetable oil is a liquid whereas vegetable ghee is a solid (or a semi solid).

Question 8.
a) What are the various possible structural formulae of a compound having molecular formula C₃H₆O? (AS1)
b) Give the IUPAC names of the above possible compounds and represent them in structures. (AS1)
c) What is the similarity in these compounds? (AS1)
Answer:
a) They are CH₃COCH₃and CH₃ CH₂ CHO

b) i) The IUPAC name of CH₃COCH₃ is propanone.
ii) The IUPAC name of CH₃ CH₂ CHO is propanal.

Question 9.
Name the simplest ketone apfl write its molecular formula. (AS1)
Answer:
Acetone is the simplest ketone. Its molecular formula is CH₃COCH₃ Its IUPAC name is propanone.

Question 10.
What do we call the Self linking property of carbon? (AS1)
Answer:
The property of self combination (or linking) of carbon atoms to form long chains is useful to us because it gives rise to an extremely large number of carbon compounds (or organic compounds). This is known as catenation.

Question 11.
Name the compound formed by heating ethanol at 443 K with excess of cone. H₂SO₄. (AS1)
(OR)
What is the compound formed when ethyhalcohol (Ethanol) is dehydrated ? Write the chemical equation of the reaction.
Answer:
1. When ethanol is heated with excess of cone. H₂SO₄ at 443 K (170° C), it gets dehydrated to form ethene (which is an unsaturated hydrocarbon).

2. During dehydration of ethanol molecules (CH₃ – CH₂OH), H from the CH₃ group and OH from CH₂OH group are removed in the form of a water molecule (H₂O) regulating in the formation of this molecule (CH₂ = CH₂).
3. In this reaction concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent.

Question 12.
Give an example for esterification reaction. (AS1)
Answer:
The reaction between carboxylic acid and an alcohol in the presence of cone. H₂SO₄ to form a sweet odoured substance, ester with the functional group

is called esterification.

Ex: Ethanoic acid (carboxylic acid) reacts with Ethanol (alcohol) and forms ethyl acetate.

Question 13.
Name the product obtained when ethanol is oxidized by either chromic anhydride or alkaline potassium permanganate. (AS1)
(OR)
If the ethanol is oxidized by either chromic anhydride or alkaline potassium permanganate, what is the product obtained from them?
Answer:
Ethanol (Ethyl alcohol) undergoes oxidation to form the product of Acetaldehyde and finally Acetic acid.

Question 14.
Write the chemical equation representing the reaction of preparation of ethanol from ethane. (AS1)
Answer:
1. Ethane in the absence of air on heating forms ethene

2. Then Ethanol is prepared on large scale from ethene by the addition of water vapour to it in the presence of catalyst like P₂O₅, Tungsten oxide at high pressure and temperature.

Question 15.
Write the IUPAC name of the next homologous of CH₃OHCH₂CH₃. (AS1)
Answer:
The IUPAC name of the next homologous of CH₃OHCH₂CH₃ is HO-CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₃ 1 – butanol.

Question 16.
Define homologous series of carbon compounds. Mention any two characteristics of homologous series. (AS1)
Answer:
1. The series of carbon compounds in which two successive compounds differ by – CH₂ unit is called homologous series.
Ex : 1) CH₄, C₂H₆, C₃H₈, ………………..
2) CH₃OH, C₂H₅OH, C₃H₇OH, ………………..

2. If we observe above series of compounds, we will notice that each compound in the series differs by – CH₂ unit by its successive compound.

3. Characteristics of homologous series :
i) They have one general formula.
Ex : alkanes (C_nH_2n+2), alkynes (C_nH_2n-2), alcohols (C_nH_2n+1) OH, etc.
ii) Successive compounds in the series possess a difference of (-CH₂) unit.
iii) They have similar chemical properties.

Question 17.
Give the names of functional groups
(i) – CHO
(ii) – C = O. (AS1)
(OR)
Write the names of the given functional groups
(i) – CHO
(ii) – C = O
Answer:
i) – CHO → aldehyde
ii) – C = O → ketone

Question 18.
Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding? (AS1)
Answer:
Since carbon atoms can achieve the inert gas electron arrangements only by the sharings of electrons, therefore, carbon always forms covalent bonds.

Question 19.
Allotropy is a property shown by which class substance: elements, compounds or mixtures? Explain allotropy with suitable examples. (AS1)
Answer:

1. Allotropy is a property shown by the elements.

2. The property of an element to exist in two or more physical forms having more or less similar chemical properties but different physical properties is called allotropy.

3. The different forms of the element are called allotropes and are formed due to the difference in the arrangement of atoms.

4. Example for allotropes : Allotropes of carbon.

Allotropes of carbon are classified into two types. They are
1) Amorphous forms,
2) Crystalline forms.

5) Amorphous forms of carbon:
Coal, coke, wood, charcoal, animal charcoal, lampblack, gas carbon, petroleum coke, sugar charcoal.

6) Crystalline forms of carbon :
Diamond, graphite and buckminsterfullerene.

Question 20.
Explain how sodium ethoxide is obtained from ethanol. Give chemical equations. (AS1)
Answer:
As ethanol is similar to water molecule (H₂O) with C₂H₅ group in place of hydrogen, it reacts with metallic sodium to liberate hydrogen and form sodium ethoxide.

Question 21.
Describe with chemical equation how ethanoic acid may be obtained from ethanol. (AS1)
Answer:
Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol) undergoes oxidation to form the product Acetaldehyde and finally acetic acid (Ethanoic acid).

Question 22.
Explain the cleansing action of soap. (AS1)
Answer:
When a dirty cloth is put in water containing dissolved soap, the hydrocarbon ends of the soap molecules in the micelle attach to the oil or grease particles present on the surface of dirty clothes.

Question 24.
Explain the structure of graphite in terms of bonding and give one property based on this structure. (AS1)
(OR)
Why does graphite act as lubricant?
Answer:

• Graphite forms a two dimensional layer structure with C – C bonds within the layers.
• There are relatively weak interactions between the layers.
• In the layer structure, the carbon atoms are in a trigonal planar environment.
• This is consistent with each carbon atom in sp² hybridisation.
• Interactions between the sp² orbitals (overlaps) lead to the formation of C – C bonds.
• Each carbon atom is with one unhybridised ‘p’ orbital.
• The unhybridised ‘p’ orbitals interact to form a π system that is delocalised over the whole layer.
• The interactions known as London dispersion forces between the layers which are separated by a distance of 3.35 A° are weakened by the presence of water molecules so that it is easy to cleave graphite.
• For this reason graphite is used as lubricant and as the lead in pencils.

Question 25.
Name the acid present in vinegar. (AS1)
Answer:
1) The acid present in vinegar is Ethenoic acid or acetic acid (CH₃COOH).
2) 5 – 8% solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar.

Question 26.
What happens when a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol? (AS2)
Answer:
Ethanol reacts with sodium to liberate hydrogen and form sodium ethoxide.

Question 27.
Two carbon compounds A and B have molecular formula C₃H₈ and C₃H₆ respectively. Which one of the two is most likely to show addition? Justify your answer. (AS2)
Answer:

• It is a saturated hydrocarbon. It shows substitution reaction.

• This is an unsaturated hydrocarbon. Hence it shows addition to become saturated. During the reactions, addition of reagent takes place at the double bonded carbon atoms.

Justification :
In the following, C₃H₆ undergoes addition reaction.

Question 28.
Suggest a test to find the hardness of water and explain the procedure. (AS3)
(OR)
How do you test whether a given water sample is soft or hard?
Answer:

• Take about 10 ml hard water (well water or hand pump water) in a test tube.
• Add five drops of soap solution to it.
• Shake the test tube vigorously.
• We see that no lather is formed at first.
• Only a dirty white curd like scum is formed on the surface of water.
• From this, we conclude that soap does not form lather easily with hard water.
• We have to add much more soap to obtain lather with hard water.

Question 29.
Suggest a chemical test to distinguish between ethanol and ethanoic acid and explain the procedure. (AS3)
Answer:

1. Take ethanol and ethanoic acid in two different test tubes.
2. Add nearly 18 g of sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃) to each test tube.
3. Lots and lots of bubbles and foam will be observed from the test tube containing ethanoic acid. This is due to release of CO₂.
   NaHCO₃ + CH₃COOH → CH₃COONa + H₂O + CO₂
4. Ethanol will not react with sodium bicarbonate and thus we won’t observe any change in the test tube containing ethanol.
   Thus we can separate ethanol from ethanoic acid.

Question 30.
An organic compound ‘X’ with a molecular formula C₂H₆O undergoes oxidation with alkaline KMnO₄ and forms the compound ‘Y’, that has molecular formula C₂H₄O₂. (AS3)
i) Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
Answer:
X is Ethanol is CH₃CH₂OH and T is Ethanoic acid, i.e., CH₃COOH.

ii) Write your observation regarding the product when the compound X is made to react with compound IT which is used as a preservative for pickles.
Answer:
Ethyl alcohol undergoes oxidation to form the product Acetaldehyde and finally Acetic acid.

Here CH₃COOH is used as preservative for pickles.

When X reacts with Y it forms ethyl acetate and water which is called esterification reaction.
CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH → CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O

Question 31.
Prepare models of methane, ethane, ethene and ethyne molecules using clay balls and matchsticks. (AS4)
Answer:
Stick and ball model :
1) Methane (CH₄) :

2) Ethane (C2H₆):

3) Ethene (C₂H₄):

4) Ethyne (C₂H₂)

Question 32.
Collect information about artificial ripening of fruits by ethylene. (AS4)
Answer:

• Seasonal fruits like mango, banana, papaya, sapota and custard apple are often harvested in nature. But due to unripe condition they are subsequently allowed to ripen by natural release of ripening harmone (ethylene) from the fruit.
• However, natural ripening in some fruits is a slow process, which leads to high weight loss, desiccation of fruits and under ripening. With the rapid development of fruit trade, artificial ripening has become essential and the methods practised earlier by small traders are smoking and calcium carbide treatment.
• Fruits ripened with calcium carbide though seem attractive and colourful are inferior in taste, flavour and spoil faster.
• Government of India has banned the use of calcium carbide for artificial ripening of fruits under PFA Act 8-44AA, 1954.
• Artificial ripening of fruits by using the above steps spoils the health of consumers, so we should not use such type of fruits.
• Government has to take serious action on the fruit sellers who are practising the above said methods.

Question 33.
Draw the electronic dot structure of ethane molecule (C₂H₆). (AS6)
Answer:
C₂H₆:

Question 34.
How do you appreciate the role of esters in everyday life? (AS6)
Answer:

• Esters are usually volatile liquids having sweet or pleasant smell.
• They are also said to have fruity smell.
• Esters are used in making artificial perfumes.
• This is because of the fact that most of the esters have a pleasant smell.
• Esters are also used as flavouring agents.
• This means that esters are used in making artificial flavours and essences used in ice-cream, sweets and cool drinks.
• The alkaline hydrolysis of esters is known as saponification (Soap making).
• That’s why we can appreciate the role of esters in everyday life.

Question 35.
How do you condemn the use of alcohol as a social practice? (AS7)
Answer:

• Consumption of alcohol in the form of beverages is harmful to health.
• It causes severe damage to blood circulation system.
• Addiction to alcohol drinking leads to heart diseases and damages the liver.
• It also causes ulcers in small intestines due to increased acidity and damages the digestive system.
• Alcohol which is consumed in raw form under the names liquor, gudumba which is more harmful to health due to adulteration.
• Alcohol mixed with pyridine is called denatured spirit. Consumption of denatured spirit causes blindness and death.
• Hence use of alcohol is a social evil which harms the society.

Question 36.
An organic compound with molecular formula C₂H₄O₂ produces brisk effervescence on addition of sodium carbonate/bicarbonate.
Answer the following :
a) Identify the organic compound. (AS1)
Answer:
The organic compound is Ethanoic acid (CH₃COOH).

b) Write the chemical equation for the above reaction. (AS1)
Answer:

c) Name the gas evolved. (AS2)
Answer:
CO₂

d) How will you test the gas evolved? (AS3)
Answer:
1) Pass the evolved gas through lime water in a test tube.
2) We will find that lime water turns milky.
3) Only CO₂ gas can turn lime water milky.

e) List two important uses of the above compound. (AS1)
Answer:
1) Dilute ethanoic acid (CH₃COOH) is used as a food preservative in the preparation of pickles and sauces.
2) Ethanoic acid is used for making cellulose acetate which is an important artificial fibre.

Question 37.
1 ml glacial acetic acid and 1 m/of ethanol are mixed together in, a test tube. Few drops of concentrate sulphuric acid is added in the mixture are warmed in a water bath for 5 min.
Answer the following:
a) Name the resultant compound formed.
b) Represent the above change by a chemical equation.
c) What term is given to such a reaction?
d) What are the special characteristics of the compound formed?
Answer:
a) Ethyl acetate.

c) Esterification
d) It has fruity smell or pleasant smell.

Fill In The Blanks

1. Carbon compounds containing double and triple bonds are called ………………….
2. A compound which is basic constituent of many cough syrups ………………………
3. Very dilute solution of ethanoic acid is ………………..
4. A sweet odour substance formed by the reaction of an alcohol and a carboxylic acid is ………………
5. When sodium metal is dropped in ethanol …………………. gas will be released.
6. The functional group present in methanol is …………………….
7. IUPAC name of alkene containing 3 carbon atoms is ………………….
8. The first member of homologous series among alkynes is ……………………
9. The product that is formed by dehydration of ethanol in cone, sulphuric acid is ………………….
10. Number of single covalent bonds in ammonia are ………………..
11. Type of reactions shown by alkanes is ……………….
Answer:

1. unsaturated compounds
2. ethanol
3. vinegar
4. ester
5. H₂
6. – OH (Alcohol)
7. propene
8. ethyne (C₂H₂)
9. ethene (C₂H₄)
10. 3
11. substitutional

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the four test tubes containing the following chemicals shows the brisk effervescence when dilute acetic acid was added to them?
i) KOH
ii) NaHCO₃
iii) K₂CO₃
iv) NaCl
A) i & ii
B) ii & iii
C) i & iv
D) ii & iv
Answer:
B) ii & iii

2. Which of the following solution of acetic acid in water can be used as preservative?
A) 5-10%
B) 10-15%
C) 15-20%
D) 100%
Answer:
A) 5-10%

3. The suffix used for naming an aldehyde is
A) – ol
B) – al
C) – one
D) – ene
Answer:
B) – al

4. Acetic acid, when dissolved in water, it dissociates into ions reversibly because it is a
A) weak acid
B) strong acid
C) weak base
D) strong base
Answer:
A) weak acid

5. Which one of the following hydrocarbons can show isomerism?
A) C₂H₄
B) C₂H₆
C) C₃H₈
D) C₄H₁₀
Answer:
D) C₄H₁₀

6. Combustion of hydrocarbon is generally accompanied by the evolution of
A) Heat
B) Light
C) Both heat and light
D) Electric current
Answer:
C) Both heat and light

7. 2 ml of ethanoic acid was taken in each of the three test tubes A, B and C and 2 ml, 4 ml and 8 ml water was added to them respectively. A clear solution is obtained in:
A) Test tube A only
B) Test tubes A & B only
C) Test tubes B and C only
D) All the test tubes
Answer:
D) All the test tubes

8. If 2 ml of acetic acid was added slowly in drops to 5 ml of water then we will notice
A) The acid forms a separate layer on the top of water
B) Water forms a separate layer on the top of the acid
C) Formation of a clear and homogenous solution
D) Formation of a pink and clear solution
Answer:
C) Formation of a clear and homogenous solution

9. A few drops of ethanoic acid were added to solid sodium carbonate. The possible results of the reactions are
A) A hissing sound was evolved
B) Brown fumes evolved
C) Brisk effervescence occurred
D) A pungent smelling gas evolved
Answer:
C) Brisk effervescence occurred

10. When acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol, we add cone. H₂SO₄, it acts as and the process is called
A) Oxidizing agent, saponification
B) Dehydrating agent, esterification
C) Reducing agent, esterification
D) Acid and esterification
Answer:
B) Dehydrating agent, esterification

10th Class Chemistry 14th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 254

Question 1.
Can carbon get helium configuration by losing four electrons from the outer shell?
Answer:

• If carbon loses four electrons from the outer shell, it has to form C⁴⁺ ions.
• This requires huge amount of energy which is not available normally.
• Therefore C⁴⁺ formation is also a remote possibility.
• Carbon has to satisfy its tetravalency by sharing electrons with other atoms.
• It has to form four covalent bonds either with its own atoms or atoms of other elements.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 255

Question 2.
How do carbon atoms form bonds in so many different ways?
Answer:
As per valence bond theory, the four unpaired electrons in a carbon atom is main cause to form many bonds.

Question 3.
Explain the four unpaired electrons in carbon atom through excited state.
Answer:
Electronic configuration of carbon (ground state):

Electronic configuration of carbon (excited state):

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 256

Question 4.
Where does this energy to excite electron come from?
Answer:

• We have to understand that free carbon atom would not be in excited state under normal conditions.
• When the carbon atom is ready to form bonds with other atoms, the energy required for excitation is taken up from bond energies, which are the liberated energies when bonds are formed between carbon atom and other atoms.

Question 5.
In methane (CH₄) molecule all four carbon – hydrogen bonds are identical and bond angle HCH is 109°28′. How can we explain this?
Answer:
In excited state, carbon atom has three unpaired electrons in p-orbitals and one electron in s-orbital. These four valence electrons are with different energies. These orbitals combine to form four identical orbitals. Four hydrogen atoms form four identical C -H bonds with bond angle 109° 28′. This is called hybridisation.

Question 6.
How do these energetically unequal valence electrons form four equivalent covalent bonds in methane molecule?
Answer:
1) When bonds are formed, energy is released and the system becomes more stable. If carbon forms four bonds rather than two, still more energy is released and so the resulting molecule becomes even more stable.

2) The energy difference between the 2s and 2p orbitals is very small. When carbon atom is ready to form bonds it gets a small amount of energy from bond energies and gets excited to promote an electron from the 2s to the empty 2p to give four unpaired electrons.

3) We have got four unpaired electrons ready for bonding, but these electrons are in two different kinds of orbitals and their energies are different.

4) We are not going to get four identical bonds unless these unpaired electrons are in four identical orbitals.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 257

Question 7.
How to explain the four orbitals of carbon containing unpaired electrons as energetically equal?
Answer:
With hybridisation we explai n the four orbitals of carbon containing unpaired electrons are energetically equal.
Ex : Methane (CH₄).

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 258

Question 8.
How do you explain the ability of C – atom to form two single covalent bonds and one double bond?
Answer:
Ethylene (CH₂ = CH₂) explains the ability of carbon atom to form two single covalent bonds and one double bond.
Ex:

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 259

Question 9.
How do you explain the ability of carbon atom to form one single bond and one triple bond?
Answer:
Ethyne (HC \(\equiv\) CH) explains the ability of carbon atom to form one single bond between one hydrogen and carbon, and one triple bond between carbon and carbon.
Ex : H – C \(\equiv\) C – H.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 260

Question 10.
What are bond angles H\(\widehat{\mathbf{C}}\)H in CH₄, C₂H₄ and C₂H₂ molecules?
Answer:

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 262

Question 11.
How do you understand the markings (writings) of a pencil on a paper?
Answer:

1. When we write with a pencil, the inter layer attractions breakdown and leave graphite layers on the paper.
2. It is easy to remove pencil marks from paper with an eraser because, the layers do not bind strongly to the paper.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 265

Question 12.
Allotting completely one special branch in chemistry to compounds of only one element. Is it justified when there are so many elements and their compounds but not with any special branches?
Answer:

1. We understand that all molecules that make life possible carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, hormones, and vitamins contain carbon.
2. The chemical reactions that take place in living systems are of carbon compounds.
3. Food that we get From nature, various medicines, cotton, silk and fuels like natural gas and petroleum almost all of them are carbon compounds.
4. Synthetic fabrics, plastics, synthetic rubber are also compounds of carbon.
5. Hence, carbon is a special element with the largest number of compounds:

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 266

Question 13.
What are hydrocarbons?
Answer:
The compounds containing only carbon and hydrogen in their molecules are called hydrocarbons.

Question 14.
Do all the compounds have equal number of C and H atoms?
Answer:
No. All the compounds do not have equal number of C and H atoms.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 269

Question 15.
Observe the following two structures.
a) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
b)

i) How about their structures? Are they same?
Answer:
No, they are not same compounds.

ii) How many carbon and hydrogen atoms are there in (a) and (b) structures?
Answer:
Carbon – 4 ; Hydrogen – 10.

iii) Write the condensed molecular formulae for (a) and (b), do they have same molecular formulae?
Answer:
C₄H₁₀; Yes.

Question 16.
Can carbon form bonds with the atoms of other elements?
Answer:
Carbon forms compounds not only with atoms of hydrogen but also with atoms of other elements like oxygen, nitrogen, sulphur, phosphorus, halogens, etc.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 272

Question 17.
What do you mean by nomenclature of Organic componds?
Answer:
Nomenclature of organic chemistry is systematic method of naming organic compound.

Question 18.
What is the basis for nomenclature?
Answer:
The basic of the nomenclature is number of carbons in the parent chain in a compound.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 273

Question 19.
What are the word – root and suffix?
Answer:
Word root:
Word root indicates the number of carbon atoms in the longest possible continuous carbon chain also known as parent chain.

Suffix :
Suffix is added immediately after the word root. It is two types

1) Primary Suffix :
It is used to indicate the degree of saturation or unsaturation of the main chain.

2) Secondary Suffix :
It is used to indicate the main functional group in the organic compound.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 274

Question 20.
What do you mean by the term ‘alkyl’?
Answer:
Alkyl:
Alkyl is a substituent, that is attached to the molecular fragment.
General formula of alkyl is C_nH_{2n + 1}

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 278

Question 21.
Can we write the structure of a compound if the name of the compound is given?
Answer:
Yes, we can write the structure of a compound if the name of the compound is given.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 279

Question 22.
Why do sometimes cooking vessels get blackened on a gas or kerosene stove?
Answer:
Because of the inlets of air getting closed, the fuel gases do not completely undergo combustion. Hence, it forms a sooty carbon form which gets coated over the vessels.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 280

Question 23.
Do you know what is a catalyst?
Answer:
A catalyst is a substance which regulates the rate of a given reaction without itself finally undergoing any chemical change.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 281

Question 24.
Do you know how the police detect whether suspected drivers have consumed alcohol or not?
Answer:

1. The police officer asks the suspect to blow air into a plastic bag through a mouth piece of the detecting instrument which contains crystals of potassium-di-chromate (K₂Cr₂O₇).
2. As K₂Cr₂O₇ is a good oxidizing agent, it oxidizes any ethanol in the driver’s breath to ethanal and ethanoic acid.
3. Orange Cr₂O₇^2- changes to bluish green Cr³⁺ during the process of the oxidation of alcohol.
4. The length of the tube that turned into green is the measure of the quantity of alcohol that had been drunk.
5. The police even use the IR Spectra to detect the bonds C – OH and C – H of CH₃ – CH₂OH.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 283

Question 25.
What are esters?
Answer:

The compounds which contain the functional group and the general formula R – COO – R’, where R and R’ are alkyl groups or phenyl groups, are known as “Esters”.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 284

Question 26.
What is a true solution?
Answer:
A true solution is that in which the solute particles dispersed in the solvent are less than 1 nm in diameter.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 286

Question 27.
What is the action of soap particles on the greasy cloth?
Answer:

• Soaps and detergents make oil and dirt present on the cloth come out into water, thereby making the cloth clean.
• Soap has one polar end and one non-polar end.
• The polar end is hydrophilic in nature and this end is attracted towards water.
• The non-polar end is hydrophobic in nature and it is attracted towards grease or * . ; oil on the cloth, but not attracted towards water.
• When soap is dissolved in water, its hydrophobic ends attach themselves to dirt and remove it from the cloth.
• The hydrophobic end of the soap molecules move towards the dirt or grease particles. ’
• The hydrophobic ends attach to the dirt particle and try to pull out.
• The molecules of soap surround the dirt particle at the centre of the cluster and form a spherical structure called micelle.
• These micelles remain suspended in water like particles in a colloidal solution.
• The various micelles present in water do not come together to form a precipitate as each micelle repels the other because of the ion-ion repulsion.
• Thus, the dust particles remain trapped in micelles and are easily rinsed away with water.
• Hence, soap micelles remove dirt by dissolving it in water.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 280

Question 28.
Why we are advised not to use animal fats for cooking?
Answer:

• Animal fats have recently been implicated as the cause of heart disease and obesity. So, we are advised not to use animal fats for cooking.
• Excess animal fat is stored in lipocytes, which expand in size until the fat is used for fuel.

Question 29.
Which oil is recommended for cooking? Why?
Answer:
Canola oil :

• A recent entrant into the Indian market Canola is flying off the shelves.
• Canola oil which is made from the crushed seeds of the Canola plant, is said to be amongst the healthiest of cooking oils.
• It has the lowest saturated fat content of any oil.
• It’s seen as a healthy alternative as it’s rich in monosaturated fats and is high in omega-3 and omega a fats.
• It has a medium smoking point and is an oil that works well for fruits, baking, sauteing, etc.

10th Class Chemistry 14th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds Activities

Activity – 1

Question 1.
Observe the structural formula of the following hydro carbons and write their names in your notebook.
Answer:
1) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH = CH₂
Sol. But-l-ene

Sol. 2-Methyl butane

3) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
Sol. Hexane

Sol. 3-Methyl, but-l-ene

5)

Sol. Prop-l-yne

Activity-2

Question 2.
Read the names of the following hydro carbons and draw their structures in your notebook.
1. 2,2-Dimethyl hexane
Sol.

2. But-l-yne
Sol. CH₃ – CH₂ – C = CH

3. 3-Methyl Pent-2-ene
Sol.

4. But-1.2-diene
Sol. CH₃ – CH₃ = c = CH₂

5. Hept-2 en, 4-yne
Sol.

Activity – 3

Question 3.
Write an activity to show esterification reactions.
Answer:
The compound formed is ester. The process is called esterification.

1. Take 1 ml of ethanol and 1 ml of glacial acetic acid along with a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid in a test tube.
2. Warm it in a water bath or a beaker containing water for at least five minutes.
3. Pour the warm contents into a beaker containing 20-50 ml of water and observe the odour of the resulting mixture.
4. We will notice that the resulting mixture is sweet odoured subatance.
5. This substance is nothing but ethyl acetate, an ester.
6. This reaction is called esterification reaction.

Activity – 4

Question 4.
Write an activity to show soap solution separates oil from water.
Answer:

1. Take about 10 ml of water each in two test tubes.
2. Add a drop of oil to both the test tubes.
3. Label them as A and B.
4. Add a few drops of soap solution to test tube B.
5. Now shake both the test tubes vigorously for the same period of time.
6. We can see the oil and water layers separately in both the test tubes immediately after we stop shaking them.
7. Leave the test tubes undisturbed for sometime and observe.
8. The oil layer separates out first in which test tube we added drops of soap solution.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 11 Electric Current Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions 11th Lesson Electric Current

10th Class Physics 11th Lesson Electric Current Textbook Questions and Answers

Review of Your Previous Knowledge

Question 1.
What do you mean by electric current?
(OR)
Define electric current.
Answer:
Electric current is defined as the amount of charge crossing any cross-section of the conductor in one second.

Question 2.
Which type of charge (positive or negative) flows through an electric wire when it is connected in an electric circuit?
Answer:
Negative type of charge flows through an electric wire when it is connected in an electric circuit.

Question 3.
Is there any evidence for the motion of charge in daily life situations?
Answer:
Yes, lightning is a live example.

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Explain how electron flow causes electric current with Lorentz – Drude theory of electrons. (AS1)
(OR)
How does electron flow cattle elfectric current with Lorentz – Drude theory of electrons? Explain.
Answer:
Lorentz – Drude theory :

1. Lorentz – Drude proposed that conductors like metals contain a large number of free electrons.
2. The positive ions are fixed in their locations. The arrangement of the positive ions is called lattice.
3. The negative ions (electrons) move randomly in lattice in an open circuit.
4. When the lattice is closed the electrons are arranged in ordered motion.
5. When the electrons are in order motion, there will be a net charge (crossing through any cross section.
6. This order motion of electrons is called electric current.

Question 2.
How does a battery work? Explain. (AS1)
(OR)
How does a battery maintain a constant potential difference between its terminals?
Answer:
Working of a battery :

• A battery consists of two metal plates (positive electrode = anode and negative electrode = cathode) and a chemical (electrolyte).
• The electrolyte between the two metal plates consists of positive and negative ions which move in opposite directions.
• The electrolyte exerts a chemical force on these ions and makes them move in a specified direction.
• Depending upon the nature of the chemical, positive ions move towards one of the plates and accumulate on that plate.
• As a result of this accumulation of charges on this plate it becomes anode.
• Negative ions move in a direction opposite to the motion of positive ions and accumulate on the other plate.
• As a result of this the plate becomes negatively charged called cathode.
• This accumulation of different charges on respective plates continues till both plates are sufficiently charged.
• But the ions in motion experience electric force when sufficient number of charges are accumulated on the plates.
• The motion of ions continues towards their respective plates till the chemical force is equal to electric force.
• Thus the battery works.

Question 3.
Write the difference between potential difference and emf. (AS1)
Answer:
Potential Difference:
Work done by the electric force on unit charge is called potential difference.
\(\mathbf{V}=\frac{\mathbf{W}}{q}=\frac{\mathbf{F} l}{\mathbf{q}}\)

Electromotive force (emf):
The work done by the chemical force to move unit positive charge from negative terminal to positive terminal of the battery.
\(\varepsilon=\frac{W}{q}=\frac{F d}{q}\)

Question 4.
How can you verify that the resistance of a conductor is temperature dependent? (AS1)
(OR)
How do you prove increase in temperature affects the resistance with an activity?
Answer:
Resistance :
The resistance of a conductor is the obstruction offered to the flow of electrons in a conductor.

Resistance is temperature dependent:
Aim:
To show that the value of resistance of a conductor depends on temperature for constant voltage between the ends of the conductor.

Materials required :

1. A bulb
2. A battery
3. Key
4. Insulated wire
5. Multimeter

Procedure :

1. Take a bulb and measure the resistance when it is in open circuit using a multimeter.
2. Note the value of resistance in your notebook.
3. Connect a circuit with components as shown in figure.
4. Switch on the circuit. After few minutes, measure the resistance of the bulb again.
5. Note this value in your notebook.

Observation :

1. The value of resistance of the bulb in second instance is more than the resistance of the bulb in open circuit.
2. The bulb gets heated.

Result:
The increase in temperature of the filament in the bulb is responsible for increase in resistance of the bulb.

Question 5.
What do you mean by electric shock? Explain how it takes place. (AS1)
Answer:
Electric shock:
The electric shock is combined effect of potential difference, electric current, and resistance of the human body.

• An electric shock can be experienced when there exists a potential difference between one part of the body and another part.
• When current flows through human body, it chooses the path which offers low resistance.
• The resistance of a body is not uniform throughout it.
• As long as current flow continues inside the body, the current and resistance of human body go on changing inversely.
• This is called the electric shock.

Question 6.
Derive \(\mathbf{R}=\frac{\rho l}{\mathbf{A}}\). (AS1)
(OR)
What are laws of resistance and derive a formula for resistance.
Answer:
Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to the length of the conductor,
i.e., R ∝ l ………………….. (1)
Resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to the cross-section area of the conductor.
i.e., R ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~A}}\) ………………….. (2)
From (1) and (2) R ∝ \(R \propto \frac{l}{A} \Rightarrow R=\frac{\rho l}{A}\)
where ρ is a constant,
ρ is called specific resistance or resistivity.

Question 7.
How do you verify that resistance of a conductor is proportional to the length of the conductor for constant cross-section area and temperature? (AS1)
Answer:

• Collect manganin wires of different lengths with the same cross-sectional areas.
• Make a circuit as shown in figure.
• Connect one of the manganin wires between the ends P and Q.
•  Measure the value of the current using the ammeter.
• Repeat the same for other lengths of the wires.
• Note the values of currents.
• We notice that the current decreases with increase in the length of the wire.
  ∴ R ∝ l (at constant temperature and cross-section area) …………… (1)
• Do the same with manganin wires with equal lengths but different cross-section area.
• We notice that the resistance was more when the cross-section area was less.
  ∴ R ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~A}}\) ………………. (2)
  ∴ R ∝ \([latex]\frac{1}{\mathrm{~A}}\)[/latex]
  Thus we verify l and A.

Question 8.
Explain Kirchhoff’s laws with examples. (AS1)
(OR)
Write two examples of Kirchhoffs laws and explain it.
Answer:
Kirchhoff’s laws :
Two simple rules called Kirchhoff’s rules are applicable to any DC circuit containing batteries and resistors connected in any way.
The two laws are (i) Junction law and (ii) Loop law.

i) Junction law :

Here P is called junction point where conducting wires meet. The junction law states that, at any junction point in a circuit where the current can divide, the sum of the currents into the junction must equal the sum of the currents leaving the junction.
i.e., I₁ + I₄ + I₆ = I₂ + I₃ + I₅
This law is based on the conservation of charge.

ii) Loop law:

Loop law states that, the algebraic sum of the increases and decreases in potential difference (voltage) across various components of the circuit in a closed circuit loop must be zero.

This law is based on the conservation of energy.

Question 9.
What is the value of 1 KWH in Joules? (AS1)
Answer:
1 KWH = 1 KW x 1h
= 1000 W × 60 min = 1000 W × 60 × 60 s = 3.6 × 10₆ Ws = 3.6 × 10₆ J.
∴ 1 KWH = 3.6 × 10₆ J.

Question 10.
Explain overloading of household circuit. (AS1)
Answer:

• Electricity enters our homes through two wires called lines. These lines have low resistance and the potential difference between the wires is usually about 240 V.
• All electrical devices are connected in parallel in our home. Hence, the potential drop across each device is 240 V.
• Based on the resistance of each electric device, it draws some current from the supply. Total current drawn from the mains is equal to the sum of the currents passing through each device.
• If we add more devices to the household circuit the current drawn from the mains also increases.
• This leads to overheating and may cause a fire. This is called “overloading”.

Question 11.
Why do we use fuses in household circuits? (AS1)
(OR)
What is the use of fuses?
Answer:

• The fuse consists of a thin wire of low melting point.
• When the current in the fuse exceeds 20 A, the wire will heat up and melt.
• The circuit then becomes open and prevents the flow of current into the household circuit.
• Hence all the electric devices are saved from damage that could be caused by overload.
• Thus we can save the household wiring and devices by using fuses.

Question 12.
Deduce the expression for the equivalent resistance of three resistors connected in series. (AS1)
(OR)
Derive R = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
(OR)
The second end of a first resistor is connected to first end of second resistor. Then how are the resistors connected? Derive the expression for the resultant resistance of this connection.
Answer:
Series connection:
In series connection of resistors, there is only one path for the flow of current in the circuit. Hence, the current in the circuit is equal to I.
According to Ohm’s law,
∴ V₁ = IR₁ ; V₂ = IR₂ and V₃ = IR₃.
⇒ Let R be the equivalent resistance of the combination of resistors in series.

Also V = I R_eq
V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
I R_eq = IR₁ + IR₂ + IR₃
⇒ I R_eq = I (R₁ + R₂ + R₃)
⇒ R_eq = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
∴ The sum of individual resistances is equal to their equivalent resistance when the resistors are connected in series.

Question 13.
Deduce the expression for the equivalent resistance of three resistors connected in parallel. (AS1)
(OR)
Derive : \(\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}}=\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}_{1}}+\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}_{2}}+\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}_{3}}\)
(OR)
Explain the expression for the equivalent resistance of three resistors which are connected in parallel.
(OR)
If all the first ends of resistors are connected to and second ends are connected to another point, then what type of connection is this? Derive the resultant resistance for this connection.
Answer:
Parallel Connection :
In parallel connection of resistors, there is same potential difference at the ends of the resistors. Hence the voltage in the circuit is equal to V.
Let Ip I2 and I3 be the currents flowing through R₁, R_2, and R₃ resistors respectively.
Hence, we can write I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃.
According to the Ohm’s law,

∴ The equivalent resistance of a parallel combination is less than the resistance of each of the resistors.

Question 14.
Silver is a better conductor of electricity than copper. Why do we use copper wire for conduction of electricity? (AS1)
Answer:
Silver is costlier than copper. So, we use copper wire for conduction of electricity even though silver is a better conductor of electricity.

Question 15.
Two bulbs have ratings 100 W, 220 V and 60 W, 220 V. Which one has the greater resistance? (AS1)
Answer:

∴ The second bulb possessing 60 W, 220 V has the greater resistance.

Question 16.
Why don’t we use series arrangement of electrical appliances like bulb, television, fan, and others in domestic circuits? (AS1)
Answer:

• If one appliance, in a set of series combination breaks down, the circuit becomes open and the flow of current ceases. To avoid this the household appliances like bulb, T.V., fan, etc. are not connected in series. They are connected in parallel.
• In series combination same current passes through all resistors. This is not suggestable for household appliances. Hence, they are connected in parallel.

Question 17.
A wire of length 1 m and radius 0.1 mm has a resistance of 100 Ω. Find the resistivity of the material. (AS1)
Answer:
1) Given l = 1 m, r = 0.1 mm = 10^-4 m, R = 100 Ω

Question 18.
Why do we consider tungsten as a suitable material for making the filament of a bulb? (AS2)
(OR)
What is the reason for using Tungsten as a filament in electric bulb?
Answer:
Tungsten has higher resistivity values and melting point. So, we consider tungsten as a suitable material for making the filament of a bulb.

Question 19.
Are the head lights of a car connected in series or parallel? Why? (AS2)
Answer:
The headlights of a car are connected in parallel.
Reason :

• When they are connected in parallel, same voltage (RD) will be maintained in the two lights.
• If one of the light damaged, the other will work without any disturbance.

Question 20.
Why should we connect electric appliances in parallel in a household circuit? What happens if they are connected in series?
Answer:

• The electric appliances are connected in parallel in a household circuit. Because in parallel wiring if any electric appliance is switched off, other appliances don’t get off.
• If one appliance, in a set of series combination breaks down, the circuit becomes open and the flow of current ceases.
• To avoid this the household appliances like bulb, T.V., fan, etc. are not connected in series.

Question 21.
Suppose that you have three resistors each of value 30Ω. How many resistors can you obtain by various combinations of these three resistors? Draw diagrams in support of your predictions. (AS2)
Answer:
Let R₁ = 30Ω, R₂ = 30Ω, R₃ = 30Ω
We get different resistors by different combinations as shown below.

Question 22.
State Ohm’s law. Suggest an experiment to verify it and explain the procedure. (AS3)
How do you prove experimentally the ratio V/l is a constant for a given conductor?
Answer:
Ohm’s law :
The potential difference between the ends of a conductor is directly proportional to the electric current passing through it at constant temperature.

Verification :
Aim :
To verify Ohm’s law or to show that \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\) = constant for a conductor.

Materials required :
6V Battery eliminator, 0 to 1A Ammeter, 0 – 6V volt meter, copper wires, 50 cm manganin coil, Rheostat, switch and 3V LED, etc.

Procedure :

• Complete the circuit as shown in figure. Knob should be adjusted to 4.5V at battery eliminator.
• Using Rheostat change the potential difference between two ends of manganin wire from 0V to 4.5V (maximum).
• By using Rheostat adjust the potential difference 1V between two ends of manganin wire.
• Now observe the electric current through Ammeter in the circuit and note down in the following table.

• Using Rheostat change the potential difference with different values upto 4.5V and note down the current value (I) in the table.
• Take atleast five values of V and I and note down in the table.
• Find \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\) for each set of values.
• We notice that \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\) is a constant.
  V ∝ I ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\) = constant
  This constant is known as resistance of the conductor, denoted by R.
  ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\) = R
  ∴ Ohm’s law is verified.

How to Make Rheostat:

Make two holes at the two ends of 30cm Wooden scale. Through these holes fix two bolts with the help of nuts.Then take iron box filament i. e., nichrome wire and tie one end of thewire to the first bolt and wound wire with equal distance on the wooden scale to other end of the second bolt. Place this scale on the other scale perpendicularly as shown in the figure and stick them with glue. Now Rheostat is ready. Take support of your teacher to know the connection and functioning of Rheostat.

Question 23.
a) Take a battery and measure the potential difference. Make a circuit and measure the potential difference when the battery is connected in the circuit. Is there any difference in potential difference of battery? (AS4)
b) Measure the resistance of a bulb (filament) in open circuit with a multi-meter. Make a circuit with elements such as bulb, battery of 12 V and key in series. Close the key. Then again measure the resistance of the same bulb (filament:) for every 30 seconds. Record the observations in a proper table. What can you conclude from the above results? (AS4)
Answer:

a) When the battery is connected in a circuit, the voltage slowly decreases due to consumption of it. So, there is difference in voltage before using and after connecting.

b) After connecting battery (12 V), key in ammeter and bulb as shown in figure, we measure current (I) using the ammeter and voltage using multi-meter or voltmeter.

Note these values in the following table. Measure the resistance of the same bulb for every 30 seconds.

We conclude that the resistance is constant.

Question 24.
Draw a circuit diagram for a circuit in which two resistors A and B are connected in series with a battery and a voltmeter is connected to measure the potential difference across the resistor A. (AS5)
Answer:

V : Volt meter
A and B : Resistors
B : Battery
K: Key

Question 25.
How can you appreciate the role of a small fuse in house wiring circuit in preventing damage to various electrical appliances connected in the circuit? (AS7)
(OR)
We can save the household wiring and devices by using fuses. Write any four points by appreciating the role of fuse.
Answer:

• The fuse consists of a thin wire of low melting point. When the current in the fuse exceeds 20 A, the wire will heat up and melt.
• The circuit then becomes open and prevents the flow of current into the household circuit. So all the electric devices are saved from damage that could be caused by overload.
• Thus we can save the household wiring and devices by using fuses.
• In this way a small fuse prevents a great damage to costly electrical appliances in the circuit.

Question 26.
In the figure, the potential at A is………….. when the potential at B is zero. (AS7)

Answer:
Potential difference at A = V
Potential difference atB = V + 5 × 1 + 2 = 0 ⇒ V + 7V = 0
∴ V = – 7V

Question 27.
Observe the circuit and answer the questions given below. (AS7)

i) Are resistors C and D in series?
ii) Are resistors A and B in series?
iii) Is the battery in series with.any resistor?
iv) What is the potential drop across the resistor C?
v) What is the total emf in the circuit if the potential drop across resistor A is 6 V?
Answer:
The given circuit is written / drawn as
i) Yes, resistors ‘C’ and ‘D’ are connected in series. (Because, passing of the current is same to those resistors)
ii) No, resistors A’ and ‘B’ are not in series. (Because, different currents are passing through A and B. i.e., I₁ and I₂)
iii) The battery is in series with the resistor ‘A’. (Because, same current is passing through battery and resistor ‘A’, i.e., I)

iv) Potential drop across the resistor ‘C’
V₂ = V₃ + V₄
14V = V₃ + 8V
V₃ = 6V
Potential drop = 6V

v) Total emf
emf of combination of V₃ and V₄ = 14V ……………….. (1)
emf of combination of (1) and V₂ = 14 V ………………. (2)
emf of combination of (2) and V₁ = 6V + 14V = 20V
(Given, emf of ‘A’ = 6V)
Total emf = 20V

Question 28.
If the resistance of your body is 100000 Cl, what would be the current that flows in your body when you touch the terminals of a 12 V battery? (AS7)
Answer:
We know that, \(I=\frac{V}{R}\); here V = 12 V, R = 1,00,000Ω.
∴ The current passing through our body \(I=\frac{12 \mathrm{~V}}{100000 \Omega}\) = 0.00012 Ampere.

Question 29.
A uniform wire of resistance 100 Ω is melted and recast into wire of length double that of the original. What would be the resistance of the new wire formed? (AS7)
Answer:
Given R = 100 Ω
When ‘l = l’, R = 100 Ω.
When’l = 2l’, A’ = A / 2.

∴ Resistance is increased by four times.
∴ R = 4 × 1ooΩ = 400Ω.

Question 30.
A house has 3 tube lights, two fans and a Television. Each tube light draws 40 W. The fan draws 80 W and the Television draws 60 W. On the average, all the tube lights are kept on for five hours, two fans for 12 hours and the television for five hours every day. Find the cost of electric energy used in 30 days at the rate of Rs. 3.00 per KWh. (AS7)
Answer:
Given 3 tube lights, two fans and a television.
Power consumed by 1 tube light = 40 W
∴ Power consumed by 3 tube lights = 3 × 40W = 120W
3 tube lights are kept on for five hours. So, consumption of power by 3 tube lights
= 5 × 120 W = 600 W ……………. (1)
Power consumed by 1 fan = 80 W
∴ Power consumed by 2 fans = 2x80W=160W
2 fans are kept on for 12 hours. So, consumption of power by 2 fans
= 12 × 160 W = 1920 W ……………. (2)
Power drawn by TV = 60 W
TV is kept on for 5 hours = 5 x 60 W = 300 W ………………. (3)
∴ Consumption of power in one day = (1) + (2) + (3)
= 600W+ 1920 W + 300 W = 2820 W = 2.820 KW
∴ Total consumption of power in 30 days at Rs. 3 per KW
= 2.820 × 30 × 3 = Rs. 253.80/-

Fill in The Blanks

1. The kilowatt hour is the unit of …………………..
2. A thick wire has ………………….. resistance than a thin wire.
3. An unknown circuit draws a current of 2 A from a 12 V battery. Its equivalent resistance is …………………..
4. The SI unit of potential difference is …………………..
5. The SI unit of current is …………………..
6. Three resistors of values 2Ω, 4Ω, 6Ω are connected in series. The equivalent resistance of combination of resistors is ……………………
7. Three resistors of values 2Ω, 4Ω, 6Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of combination of resistors is ……………………
8. The power delivered by a battery of emf, 10 V is 10 W. Then the current delivered by the battery is ……………………
Answer:

1. electrical energy
2. less
3. 6 Ω
4. volt
5. Ampere
6. 12 Ω
7. \(\frac{11}{12} \Omega\)
8. 1 ampere

Multiple Choice Questions

1. A uniform wire of resistance 50 Ω. is cut into five equal parts. These parts are now connected in parallel. Then the equivalent resistance of the combination is
A) 2 Ω
B) 12 Ω
C) 250 Ω
D) 6250 Ω
Answer:
A) 2 Ω

2. A charge is moved from a point A to a point B. The work done to move unit charge during this process is called
A) potential at A
B) potential at B
C) potential difference between A and B
D) current from A to B
Answer:
C) potential difference between A and B

3. Joule/ coulomb is the same as
A) 1 – watt
B) 1 – volt
C) 1- ampere
D) 1 – ohm
Answer:
B) 1 – volt

4. The current in the wire depends
A) only on the potential difference applied
B) only on the resistance of the wire
C) on potential difference and resistance
D) none of them
Answer:
C) on potential difference and resistance

5. Consider the following statements.
a) In series connection, the same current flows through each element.
b) In parallel connection, the same potential difference gets applied across each element
A) both a and b are correct
B) a is correct but b is wrong
C) a is wrong but b is correct
D) both a and b are wrong
Answer:
A) both a and b are correct

10th Class Physics 11th Lesson Electric Current InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 179

Question 1.
Does motion of charge always lead to electric current?
Answer:
Yes, it does.

Question 2.
Take a bulb, a battery, a switch and few insulated copper wires to the terminals of the battery through the bulb and switch. Now switch on the circuit and observe the bulb. What do you notice?
Answer:
The bulb glows.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 180

Question 3.
Can you predict the reason for the bulb not glowing in situations 2 and 3?
Answer:
Yes, in situation 2 – there is no charge to travel in the circuit as the battery is disconnected. So, the bulb isn’t glowing.

In situation 3, we replaced the copper wires with nylon wires. Nylon is not a conductor. So, the bulb isn’t glowing.

Question 4.
Why do all materials not act as conductors?
Answer:
In conductors the gap between the atoms is very less. So, the transfer of energy is easy. But in other materials the gap is more. So, the transfer of energy is not possible.

Question 5.
How does a conductor transfer energy from source to bulb
Answer:

• A source has chemical energy which transfers electrons to the conductor.
• The conductor carries the electrons to the bulb when connected.
• Thus, the conductor transfers energy from source to bulb.

Question 6.
What happens to the motion of electrons when the ends of the conductor are connected to the battery?
Answer:
The energy transfer takes place from battery to the bulb through conductor.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 181

Question 7.
Why do electrons move in specified direction?
Answer:
The electrons move in specified direction when the ends of the conductpr are connected to the terminals of a battery.
A uniform electric field is set up throughout the conductor. This field makes the electrons move in a specified direction.

Question 8.
In which direction do the electrons move?
Answer:
In a direction opposite to the direction of the field.

Question 9.
Do the electrons accelerate continuously?
Answer:
No, they lose energy and are again accelerated by the electric field.

Question 10.
Do they move with a constant speed?
Answer:
Yes, they move with a constant average Speed.

Question 11.
Why does a bulb glow immediately when we switch on?
Answer:
When we switch on any electric circuit, irrespective of length of the conductor, an electric field is set up throughout the conductor instantaneously due to the voltage of the source connected to the circuit.

Question 12.
How can we decide the direction of electric current?
Answer:
By the signs of the charge and drift speed.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 183

Question 13.
How can we measure electric current?
Answer:
An ammeter is used to measure electric current.

Question 14.
Where do the electrons get energy for their motion from?
Answer:
From an electric field set up throughout the conductor.

Question 15.
Can you find the work done by the electric force?
Answer:
Yes. With the help of the formula W = F_el, we can find the work done by the electric force.

Question 16.
What is the work done by the electric force on unit charge?
Answer:
Work done by the electric force on unit charge \(\mathrm{V}=\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{q}}=\frac{\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{e}} l}{\mathrm{q}}\). It is called Potential difference.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 184

Question 17.
What is the direction of electric current in terms of potential difference?
Answer:
Electrons move from low potential to high potential.

Question 18.
Do positive charges move in a conductor? Can you give an example of this?
Answer:
No, they don’t move. They are fixed in the lattice.
Eg : battery.

Question 19.
How does a battery maintain a constant potential difference between its terminals?
Answer:
We know that a battery consists electric force (Fe) and chemical force (Fc). These two forces are balanced in a battery. Due to this reason a battery maintains a constant , potential difference between its terminals.

Question 20.
Why does the battery discharge when its positive and negative terminals are connected through a conductor?
Answer:
A conductor permits the charges to pass through it. Due to this the exhaustion of charges is created after completion of all charges. So, when a battery is connected with a conductor it discharges.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 185

Question 21.
What happens when the battery is connected in a circuit?
Answer:
A potential difference is created between the ends of the conductor, when the battery is connected in a circuit.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 186

Question 22.
How can we measure potential difference or emf?
Answer:
With the help of a voltmeter, we measure potential difference or emf.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 187

Question 23.
Is there any relation between emf of battery and drift speed of electrons in the conductor connected to a battery?
Answer:
Yes, when emf of a battery is more the drift speed of electrons will be more.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 189

Question 24.
Can you guess the reason why the ratio of V and I in case of LED is not constant?
Answer:
This is due to forward voltage and maximum continuous current rating characters of LEDs.

Question 25.
Do all materials obey Ohm’s law?
Answer:
No, some materials don’t obey Ohm’s law.

Question 26.
Can we classify the materials based on Ohm’s law?
Answer:
Yes, the materials which obey Ohm’s law are conductors and others are same conductors or non-conductors.

Question 27.
What is resistance?
Answer:
The obstruction offered to the flow of electrons in a conductor is called the resistance.

Question 28.
Is the value of resistance the same for all materials?
Answer:
Yes, it varies.

Question 29.
Is there any application of Ohm’s law in daily life?
Answer:
Yes, this law is used in wiring.

Question 30.
What causes electric shock in the human body – current or voltage?
Answer:
Current with sufficient voltage.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 190

Question 31.
Do you know the voltage of mains that we use in our household circuits?
Answer:
Yes, I know the voltage of mains that we use in our household circuits is 120 V.

Question 32.
What happens to our body if we touch live wire of 240 V?
Answer:
240 V current disturbs the functioning of organs inside the body. It is called electric shock. If the current flow continues further, it damages the tissues of the body which leads to decrease in resistance of the body. When this current flows for a longer time, damage to the tissues increases and thereby the resistance of human body decreases further. Hence, the current through the human body will increase. If this current reaches 0.07 A, it effects the functioning of the heart and if this much current passes through the heart for more than one second it could be fatal.

If this current flows for a longer time, the person in electric shock will be killed.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 191