Class 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 4 Climate of India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 4th Lesson Climate of India

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Deforestation happens in all areas in India. Suggest two remedies to stop deforestation.
Answer:

1. Control over cutting of forests.
2. Effective implementation of WALTA Act.

Question 2.
What is the reason for October heat?
Answer:
Reasons for October heat: High temperature, high humidity.

Question 3.
The rise of 2°C in average temperature results in a rise of one meter in sea level by early next century. Write any two slogans on the control of global warming.
Answer:

1. Grow trees – save the earth.
2. Avoid plastic bags – encourage cloth bags.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Western Disturbances?
Answer:
Cyclonic depressions coming from Mediterranean sea are called Western disturbances.

Question 5.
Observe the map of India and answer the following question.

Mention the names of any two states in which the average temperature of January is 10°C.
Answer:

1. Jammu Kashmir
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Sikkim
6. Arunachal Pradesh

Question 6.
In which monsoon season does the Coromandel coast receive less rainfall?
Answer:
The Coromandel coast receives less rainfall in the South-west monsoon season.

Question 7.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) When do monsoons reach Maharashtra?
Answer:
On June 10th monsoons reach Maharashtra.
b) When do monsoons reach Kerala?
Answer:
On June 1st monsoons reach Kerala.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Why do winds always blow towards low-pressure regions?
Answer:

1. In low-pressure regions temperature is high and evaporation is more.
2. Warm air rises, so cool air replaces it.

b) When do the south-west monsoons blow in India?
Answer:
Beginning of June, July.

Question 9.
Write down the reason for the low temperature in India in the months of December and January.
Answer:

1. Pleasant and clear sky
2. Low humidity 3) Angle of incidence

Question 10.
Mention any two actions that you would take if you were the officer, to prevent deforestation.
Answer:

1. I would strictly implement the existing forest laws.
2. I would bring awareness among the people on the need for the protection of forests.

Question 11.
Why does Coromandel Coast get high rain¬fall during North-east monsoons?
Answer:
Coromandel coast gets high rainfall during Northeast monsoons, because of cyclones and depression. The low pressure conditions of North-western India move far south.

Question 12.
“An international effort to form an agreement whereby all countries try to reduce their emission of greenhouse gases has so far not been achieved.” What is the reason for this disagreement among the countries of the world?
Answer:
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities and developing countries say that their economic development will be seriously damaged if they don’t burn fossil fuels.

Question 13.
Which refers to weather?
Answer:
The state of atmospheric conditions over an area at a particular time refers to weather.

Question 14.
What are the elements of weather and climate?
Answer:
The elements of weather and climate are :

1. temperature
2. atmospheric pressure,
3. wind,
4. humidity and
5. precipitation.

Question 15.
What are called climatographs?
Answer:
The pattern of the elements of weather and climate for a place can be shown using pictures called climographs or climatographs.

Question 16.
What do climographs show?
Answer:
Climographs show average monthly values of maximum temperature, minimum temperature and rainfall for a given place.

Question 17.
What are called climatic controls?
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls.

Question 18.
What are the factors that are influencing climate and weather?
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

Question 19.
Name some hill stations.
Answer:
Shimla, Gulmarg, Nainital Darjeeling, Kodaikanal and Udagamandalam.

Question 20.
Which is the coldest month in India?
Answer:
January is usually the coldest month. Day temperature sometimes drops below 10°C in several parts of the country.

Question 21.
Which areas enjoy a moderate climate?
Answer:
The coastal areas enjoy a moderate climate as the temperature remains well above 20°C.

Question 22.
How is India during winter?
Answer:
During winter, the weather is generally pleasant with clear sky, low humidity and cool breeze.

Question 23.
What are called ‘Loo’?
Answer:
The northern plain of India experiences dry and hot winds called ‘Loo’.

Question 24.
What are the two branches of the south-west monsoon?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 25.
Which is more powerful in these two gases – Methane or Carbon dioxide?
Answer:
Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think that, the effects of climate change may be felt by all countries?
Answer:

1. The effects of climate change like global warming, increase of mean sea level, degradation of Ozone layer, etc. are not limited to one particular country.
2. No country can escape from the negative impacts of climate change. Hence the effects of climatic change may be felt by all countries.

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) In which state, the south-west monsoon enter first?
Answer:
Kerala.
b) When do the south-west monsoons reach Gujarat?
Answer:
June 15.

Question 3.
Suggest some measures to reduce global warming.
Answer:
Measures to reduce global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of the burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal, the use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.

Question 4.
Observe the following figure and answer the questions given below:

1. What is the relation between atmospheric pressure and winds?
   Answer:
   The winds blow from a high-pressure area to low pressure area.
2. Which monsoon winds are mainly responsible for the bulk of Indian rainfall?
   Answer:
   South-West Monsoon.

Question 5.
Classify the seasons according to Indian calendar and write the months
Answer:

Question 6.
Write briefly about South-West monsoons.
(OR)
Describe the Monsoon mechanism in India.
Answer:

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘onset’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to western ghats and northeast India except in Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the coramandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 7.
Keeping the warning of scientists in mind warming.
Answer:
To minimise the Global warming quarrying, mining are to be reduced and afforestation should be increased. Burning of coal should be decreased. Fossil fuel burning is also de-creased electronic appliances usage should be minimised so as to minimize the global warming.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the questions.

a) Identify the onset of the monsoon shown in the map below.
b) When does this monsoon reach Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
a) South-West Monsoon,
b) 15th June.

Question 9.
Fill the following table. It contains factors that influence climate and weather. Use words like higher/lower, closer/farther.

Answer:

Question 10.
Study the following map and answer the questions that follow.

a) Which states experience high average temperature in January?
Answer:
Kerala and Tamil Nadu experience high average temperature in January.
b) What is the average temperature experienced by the North-eastern states in January?
Answer:
The North-eastern states experience 15°C average temperature in January.

Question 11.
What is the relation between the temperature of a location and insolation?
Answer:
The temperature of the atmosphere at a particular place near the Earth’s surface depends upon the insolation (heat from sun rays) received at that location. This is more intense in the low latitudes than in the high latitudes. As we move away from the equator towards the poles, the average annual temperature decreases.

Question 12.
Read the paragraph and answer the question that follows.
“In India, the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. There-fore this region has higher average temperature than the northern part, this is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi, India is situated roughly between 8° and 37PN latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical tone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.”
Why is the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi?
Answer:
In India the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. Therefore this region has a higher average temperature than the northern part. This is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi.

Question 13.
Explain the latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
India is situated roughly between 8° and 37° N latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical zone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.

Question 14.
What are called western disturbances and what do they cause?
Answer:
Cyclone depressions coming from Mediterranean Sea called Western Disturbances and cause low to moderate rainfall over northern India. This rainfall is boon to the wheat crop which is generally cultivated in ‘Rabi’ season.

Question 15.
What is the effect of north-east trades on India?
Answer:
India lies in the trade wind belt of Northern Hemisphere – north-east trades blow over India from land to sea and are therefore dry. However, some amount of rainfall occurs on the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu from these winds, as they pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal while crossing it.

Question 16.
Write about ‘mango showers’ in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 17.
What is known as “Onset of monsoon”?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves northward. Both the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as ’Onset of monsoon1.

Question 18.
What is known as “October heat”?
Answer:
October-November is a period of transition from a hot wet condition to dry winter condition. The retreat of the monsoons is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the con¬ditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as October heat.

Question 19.
Write about the Indian traditional seasons.
Answer:
In the Indian tradition, a year is divided into six two-monthly seasons. This cycle of seasons that the people in north and central India follow is based on their practical experience and age-old perception of weather phenomena. There is a slight variation in the timing of the seasons between northern and southern India.
The seasons are

1. Vasantha
2. Grishma
3. Varsha
4. Sharad
5. Hemantha
6. Shishira.

Question 20.
What is called Greenhouse effect?
Answer:
Keeping us warm is one of the most impor¬tant things that the atmosphere does for us.
It is like a light, but effective, blanket envelo¬ping Earth. The atmosphere traps a lot of the solar energy that reaches. Earth by preventing it from totally escaping back into space. This is called the Greenhouse effect.

Question 21.
What is called AGW?
Answer:
Earlier cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities. Hence, the current global warming trend is called AGW (Anthropo-genic Global Warming anthropogenic means caused by humans).

Question 22.
What does climate refer to?
Answer:
Climate refers to such conditions over a large area and follows a similar general pattern over many years. What has been the general conditions, year after year, over thirty years or more, gives us the climate.

Question 23.
Explain the word ‘monsoon’.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

Question 24.
Read the following paragraph and comment on ‘bursting monsoon’.
“Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.”
Answer:
It is the sudden onset of rainfall in the first week of June. Around the time of arrival of monsoon, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as burst of monsoon.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Indian agriculture depends completely on the monsoon.” Describe the cycle of the monsoon patterns.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during the olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area at approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘on set’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to Western ghats and Northeast India except in the Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 2.
Observe the following Climographs and answer.
a) Why is there a difference between the rainy season of Chennai and Jaipur?
Answer:
Jaipur receives rainfall by the South-West monsoons.
Chennai receives rainfall by the North-East monsoons.

b) In which month is the highest temperature recorded in Jaipur?
Answer:
May.

c) Among these two, which area gets the highest rainfall?
Answer:
Chennai.

d) Both the areas are rain shadow regions. Is it? How would you justify it?
Answer:
Yes. In the South-West monsoon season Jaipur and Chennai areas are rain shadow regions.
(OR)
No. Only in the South-West monsoon season Chennai is rain shadow region. But not in North-East monsoon.

Question 3.
Read the given para and answer the question given below.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Read the text given above and comment on the climate change.
Answer:

1. The drastic changes in climate influence the life on Earth.
2. The raise in average temperature leads to the raise in sea levels.
3. The habitations in coastal areas will be drowned.
4. People may lose their livelihood.
5. Unexpected changes may occur in rainfall.
6. Droughts and floods may occur.
7. Agriculture will be influenced.
8. Climate change happens at a global level and therefore, it affects all of us.

Question 4.
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities that add greenhouse gases to the atmosphere. Is this justified? Explain your opinion.
Answer:
This is justified because activities that increase greenhouse gases are increased. The net effect is that these gases lead to the depletion of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere.
When the ozone layer is depleted what happens is that radiation pertaining to ultraviolet rays reaches the earth’s surface and this radiation may cause cancer.
OR
It is not justified because

1. Developing countries argue that the developed countries have developed by burning fossil fuels.
2. They also argue that they cannot develop without burning fossil fuels.
3. They also want the developed countries to show alternative sources for their development.

Question 5.
Analyze the relationship between the population density and geographical conditions of a particular area.
Answer:

1. India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world.
2. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq. km.
3. Densities vary from 1102 persons per sq. km. in Bihar to only 17 persons per sq. km. in Arunachal Pradesh.
4. Assom and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities.
5. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.
6. The Northern plains and Kerala in the south have high to very high population densities because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW (Anthropogenic Global Warming; anthropogenic means caused by humans) is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming:

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisher folk.

Measures to minimize the influence of the global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.
5. Release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere should be reduced.

Question 7.
Name the factors influencing climate. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls. These include:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

1. Latitude:

1. Intensity of temperature depends on the latitude. It is more intense in lower latitudes than at higher latitudes.
2. In India, the southern part lies in the tropical zone, closer to the equator; it has a higher average temperature than that in the northern part.
   Ex: The climate of Kanyakumari is different from that of Delhi.

2. Land-water relationship:

1. The water bodies absorb and lose heat more slowly than land.
2. Due to this the formation of land and sea breezes influence the climate of coastal region. Ex: As Visakhapatnam is on the seashore, it is cooler than Guntur which is not on the seashore.

Question 8.
Observe the following graph and analyze it.
Answer:

1. This climograph shows the details of Mean Maximum Temperature, Mean Minimum Temperature and Mean Rainfall of Chennai.
2. Chennai receives 38°C to 28°C maximum temperature during the year.
3. It receives 20°C to 28°C minimum temperature during the year.
4. The wettest months for Chennai are October and November.
5. It is because it receives rainfall during the retreat of the southwest monsoon or during the north-east monsoon.
6. The driest month for Chennai is February / March and the rainfall for the month is 15 mm.
7. The hottest months for Chennai are May and June.
8. Chennai has a moderate climate with 38°C as the highest and 20°C as the lowest temperature.
9. The weather in Chennai is mostly hot and humid.
10. The close proximity of ocean and equator makes the climate and weather in Chennai relatively
    consistent with less variation in the seasonal temperature.

Question 9.
Classify the monsoon winds in India and explain them.
Answer:

Monsoon winds

Climate of country is determined by various factors like Latitude, Relief, Land water relationship and upper air circulation. Climate in India is influenced by monsoons. The Arab traders named the term monsoon. The monsoons in the tropical area are strong as low pressure forms here. The Southeast monsoon winds from the Southern hemisphere carry moisture as they flow over the Indian ocean and towards the equatorial low-pressure zones.
After crossing the equator, these winds deflect towards the low pressure formed in the Indian sub-continent. The heating of land creates low pressure on the land mass of Indian sub-conti¬nent, especially over central India and the Gangetic plain. Along with this, the Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated and causes strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at above 9 kms altitude.

They then flow as the southwest monsoon. The Indian peninsula divides them into two branches – the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch. The Bay of Bengal branch strikes the Bengal coast and the southern face of the Shillong plateau. Then, it gets deflected and flows westward along the Gangetic valley. The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves north ward. Both the branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as the ‘onset of monsoon’. They gradually spread over the entire country in four to five weeks. The bulk of annual rainfall in India is received from south-west monsoon. The amount of rainfall is very high along the west coast due to the Western ghats, and in north-east India due to the high peaked hills. Tamil Nadu coast (Coromandel), however, remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

The low pressure conditions which once prevailed over north-western India move far South to the centre of the Bay of Bengal by early November. During this period,cyclonic depressions are common which originate over the Andaman area. These tropical cyclones are often very destruc¬tive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, Krishna and Cauveri are their targets. No year ever goes disaster-free. Occasionally, these tropical cyclones visit Sundarbans and Bangladesh too. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coramandel Coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 10.
“Human activities are the main cause for global warming” comment.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming :

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisherfolk.

Question 11.
Observe the graph and answer the question below
a) In which longitude does Chennai lie?
b) What are the elements of climate shown in this graph?
c) What are the warmest months in Chennai?
d) Give a reason for Chennai experiencing the highest rainfall in the months of October and November.
Answer:
a) 80.3° East.
b) Temperature and rainfall.
c) May and June.
d) During South – West Monsoon Chennai is the Rainshadow region. But during the time of North-East monsoon due to depression in Bengal, Chennai also have low pressure, that’s why Chennai receives high rainfall in the months October – November.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on human activities with regard to the industrial revolution.
Earlier, cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities.
Answer:

1. The issue discussed in this paragraph is that the industrial revolution causes for many changes related to the atmosphere. Warming is increased over the period.
2. Human activities are the reasons for these changes.
3. Heating is gradually increasing because of human activities like using of vehicles, plastic, refrigerators, cell phones and releasing of industrial effluents.
4. Deforestation is also one of the major reasons.
5. The trees are helpful in maintaining the weather cool.
6. More and more green house gases are released due to industrialization.
7. Development and modernization should not become the hurdle to the human life.
8. The pollution and damage to the nature affect human life.
9. So human beings should think of their activities keeping the future in mind.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on the effect of deforestation.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the Anthropogenic Global Warming is increasing and it is affecting the climate change.
2. If it is not stopped there will be a threat to the next coming generation.
3. The main focus is there on deforestation.
4. In our country major portion of employment is from agriculture.
5. For leading a better life, everyone is trying to exploit the nature.
6. The farmers are cutting the trees for making agricultural implements and for the construction of houses.
7. Many other people are also cutting trees for making various types of furniture.
8. I suggest the government to take necessary steps to control deforestation.
9. For that various awareness programmes are to be taken up.
10. Necessary acts are to be implemented in a right way.

Question 14.
Read the following text and interpret it.
More recently, scientists are discovering large volumes of methane under the frozen tundras of the far northern latitudes (mainly in the vast expanses of northern Russia). As global tem¬perature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperatures. In turn, this causes even more ice to melt, releasing even more methane, and so on. Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.
Answer:

1. Global warming has been increasing.
2. As global temperature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more.
3. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperature.
4. Methane is even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a green house gas.
5. Then it is our responsibility to reduce global warming.
6. This global warming leads to climatic changes.
7. Hence human activities that lead to global warming are to be reduced.

Question 15.
Look at the picture and answer the following questions.

a) Which latitude is passing through the centre of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer is passing through the centre of India.

b) Which part of India lies in the tropical zone ?
Answer:
Southern India lies in the tropical zone.

c) Which part of India lies in the temperate zone ?
Answer:
Northern India lies in the temperate zone.

d) Which part of India experiences higher average temperatures? Why?
Answer:
South India experiences higher average temperature as it is close to the equator.

e) What conclusion can you draw from the above picture?
Answer:
The temperature decreases as we move away from the equator.

Question 16.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) In which state south-west monsoons enter first in India?
Answer:
In our country the south-west monsoons enter Kerala first.

b) Into which state do the south-west monsoons enter on 15 July?
Answer:
The south-west monsoons enter Rajasthan on 15 July.

c) In which state there is no effect of south-west monsoons in India?
Answer:
In our country, the south-west monsoons are ineffective in Tamil Nadu.

d) Which parts of India experience the onset of the south-west monsoon first?
Answer:
Kerala and the north-east states of India, Tripura and Mizoram.

e) Which Indian region remains mostly dry during the south-west monsoon season ?
Answer:
Coramandel coast of Tamil Nadu remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow region of the Arabian sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 17.
Study the given climograph and answer the questions that follow.
a) Where is Hyderabad located?
Answer:
Hyderabad is located on the 17.4° North Latitude and 78.5° East Longitude.

b) What is the mean maximum temperature recorded in Hyderabad?
Answer:
38°C.

c) In which month does it rain maximum in Hyderabad?
Answer:
In August.

d) Which is the coldest month in Hyderabad?
Answer:
December.

Question 18.
Observe the below picture and answer the following questions.
a) In which direction are the winds blowing?
Answer:
Winds are blowing from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas.

b) During which month the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
During July the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent.

c) Which areas experience low pressure during January?
Answer:
Oceans around Indian subcontinent experience low pressure.

d) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of January.
Answer:
Retreating monsoons (or) Northeast monsoons.

e) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of July.
Answer:
South-west monsoons.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of India.
   Answer:
   New Delhi
2. Capital of Arunachal Pradesh.
   Answer:
   Itanagar
3. The Dam which is on the Tungabhadra River.
   Answer:
   Tungabhadra
4. Darjeeling
5. The river-based port in India.
   Answer:
   Kolkata
6. The capital of Rajasthan.
   Answer:
   Jaipur
7. The old fold mountains of India.
   Answer:
   Aravalis
8. This latitude divided the India into two equal parts.
   Answer:
   Tropic of Cancer
9. The highest peak in Western Ghats.
   Answer:
   Anaimudi
10. Jaintia Hills.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 16 National Movement in India–Partition & Independence.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why did the Indian soldiers join the INA?
Answer:
The Indian soldiers were against to the British government. They were motivated by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose and joined the INA to fight against the British.

Question 2.
What was the wish of the Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS?
Answer:
The Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS wished to unite all Hindus; overcome the divisions of caste and sect and reform their social life.

Question 3.
Who was the Prime Minister that abolished Privy Purses?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi.

Question 4.
What is the two-nation theory?
Answer:
Partition of India based on religions – Hindus and Muslims is called two-nation theory.

Question 5.
Write any two differences between the Russian Revolution (1917) and the Indian freedom movement.
Answer:

Question 6.
This map depicts an event of India’s struggle for Independence. What could be that event?

Answer:
This is the incident that happened on the partition of India.

Question 6.
Observe the following table. It has certain events shown by letters
Write the suitable ENGLISH LETTER for each event listed above in the boxes against each on the timeline.

Answer:

Question 7.
“India is a secular state.” Justify this statement by giving two examples.
Yes, India is a secular state. There is no state religion.
Example

1. Every Indian has right to follow, propagate and conduct processions on the basis of religion.
2. The constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.

Question 8.
Expand RSS.
Answer:
Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh.

Question 9.
How was the name “Pakistan” coined?
Answer:
The name “Pakistan” or “Pakistan” was derived from Punjab, Afghan, Kashmir, Sindh and Baluchistan and was coined by a Punjabi Muslim student at Cambridge, Choudhry Rehmat Ali.

Question 10.
What was the policy followed by the British in India?
Answer:
The British followed the policy of “Divide and Rule”.

Question 11.
Expand “NWFP”.
Answer:
North-West Frontier Province.

Question 12.
Name the Muslim majority states of the British in India.
Answer:
Punjab, NWFP, Sindh, Baluchistan and East Bengal.

Question 13.
Which princely states experienced peasant revolt against ruling zamindars?
Answer:
Travancore and Hyderabad peasants revolted against ruling zamindars.

Question 14.
Who were keen to retain the empire in India?
Answer:
The conservatives were keen to retain the empire for as long as it was possible.

Question 15.
Who were more willing to help Indians attain freedom?
Answer:
The labour party was more willing to help Indians attain freedom.

Question 16.
What was the Congress demand?
Answer:
The Congress also demanded that an immediate national government should be set up at the centre.

Question 17.
How did Congress argue?
Answer:
The Congress argued that Hindus and Muslims were not people of two different nations but part and parcel of one Indian nation.

Question 18.
Who was sent to India in 1942?
Answer:
Sir Stafford Cropps.

Question 19.
What was called privy purse?
Answer:
The government of the princely states was taken over and the princes were given pension funds called privy – purse to meet their personal expenses.

Question 20.
Did Gandhiji agree with the plants of Bose to form INA? Why?
Answer:
Gandhiji did not agree with the plants of Bose and felt that the Japanese cannot be the liberators of India.

Question 21.
What did the Congress expect before World War – II?
Answer:
The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the fascists but not giving India full freedom.

Question 22.
Who was the Prime Minister in Britain at the time of the war?
Answer:
At the time of the war, Britain had an all-party government headed by Prime Minister Winston Churchill of the Conservative Party.

Question 23.
Who were keen to retain the empire in India?
Answer:
The Conservatives were keen to retain the empire for as long as was possible.

Question 24.
Who were more willing to help Indians attain freedom?
Answer:
The Labour Party was more willing to help Indians attain freedom.

Question 25.
What did Congress also demand?
Answer:
The Congress also demanded that an immediate national government should be set up at the Centre.

Question 26.
Why did the British object Congress demand?
Answer:
The British objected to this by saying that they had to also protect the interests of several other communities in India.

Question 27.
Why had the government had given itself special war time powers?
Answer:
The government had given itself special war time powers to maintain law and order to be able to focus on winning the war.

Question 28.
How were the special war time powers?
Answer:
Anyone who opposed the government could be jailed without much delay and kept imprisoned for a long time without going to court. Freedom of speech was also curtailed.

Question 29.
Who was sent to India in 1942?
Answer:
sir Stafford Cripps.

Question 30.
Where were the independent governments proclaimed?
Answer:
In several districts, such as Satafra in the west and Medinipur in the east, “independent” governments were proclaimed.

Question 31.
Who won the World War-ll?
Answer:
The Allied powers.

Question 32.
What happened on 18th February 1946?
Answer:
On 18th February 1946, the guards or Ratings of the Royal Indian Navy in Bombay harbour came out on hunger strike to protest against bad food and behaviour of their British officers.

Question 33.
Who was the head of Naval Central Strike Committee?
Answer:
M.S. Khan.

Question 34.
What happened on 30th January 1948?
Answer:
Less than six months after independence, the Father of the Nation fell to three bullets while going out for his all-religion prayer in the evening of 30 January 1948.

Question 35.
How many princely states were there in India?
Answer:
There existed around 550 princely states which enjoyed different levels of sovereignty but were under British paramount power.

Question 36.
What happened in Travancore and Hyderabad?
Answer:
In Travancore and Hyderabad peasants were revolting with arms against the ruling zamindars.

Question 37.
Name the three princely states which joined the Indian Union in the next two years to 1947.
Answer:
Kashmir, Hyderabad and Junagadh.

Question 38.
Who was the famous leader of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Mohammad Ali Jinnah was the famous leader of the Muslim League.

Question 39.
What was Gandhiji’s third major movement against British rule?
Answer:
Gandhiji’s third major movement against British rule was Quit India Movement in 1942.

Question 40.
Did Gandhiji agree with the plans of Bose to form INA? Why?
Answer:
Gandhi did not agree with the plans of Bose and felt that the Japanese cannot be the liberators of India.

Question 41.
Who wrote ‘Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara’?
Answer:
The Urdu poet Mohammad Iqbal was the writer of ‘Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara’.

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“India is a land of many religions and many races and must remain so.” Comment.
Answer:

1. India is a land of many religions and many races.
2. Even though, it is continuing as a democratic secular state.
3. It gives protection to all the citizens irrespective of their religions.
4. All citizens have equal rights.

Question 2.
Write about the Indian National Army formulated by Subhash Chandra Bose.
Answer:

1. When the British were defeated by Japan, some Indian soldiers were captured as prisoners by Japan.
2. Subhash Chandra Bose raised the Indian National Army with these soldiers.
3. Later other Indians also joined the army including many women.
4. INA fought against the British for almost three years.
5. Finally INA was defeated by the British army.

Question 3.
Which qualities do you like in Mahatma Gandhi? Why?
Answer:
Qualities of Mahatma Gandhi:

1. Truthful,
2. Non-violence,
3. Simplicity.

Question 4.
Which qualities of Sardar Patel do you like the most? Why?
Answer:
The qualities that I like the most in Sardar Patel are:

1. Patriotism
2. Commitment

Question 5.
Explain the causes that led to partition of India?
Answer:

1. Anti-thinking of the Muslims and their communalism.
2. Activities of the Muslim League.
3. Congress’s policy of Appeasement.
4. Communal reaction.
5. Congress policy of strengthening India.
6. Formation of weak Pakistan in the minds of Indian leaders.
7. Development transfer of power. 8) Provisions of the Indian Independent Act.
8. British’s policy of divide and rule. 10) Mount Batten Plan.

Question 6.
What was the political picture in India in 1939?
Answer:
When the war started in 1939, most of the provinces of Indian were governed by Congress ministries. The British government had accepted the principle that the right to rule themselves must be given to Indians to an extent.

Question 7.
Write about the Govt, of India Act 1935.
Answer:
The Government of India Act was passed in 1935 by the British Parliament. According to this, elections may be held in provinces and governments may be formed by parties that won in the elections.

Question 8.
Why did the British object the Congress’s demand of full freedom?
Answer:
By objecting they implied that Congress did not represent all Indians, like Muslims. They also implied that Congress may be ignoring the interests of many Indians and the British were required to protect these interests.

Question 9.
Why did all Congress ministries resign in October 1939?
Answer:
The Congress was upset at the obstinacy of the British and decided to walk out of the provincial governments. All Congress ministers resigned in October 1939 after having come to power in 1937.

Question 10.
Write about the Muslim League.
Answer:
This was a party formed in 1906. Till 1930, it mainly represented the interests of Muslim landlords of UP and did not have much mass support. It had demanded that the British should create separate seats in all councils for which only Muslims would vote.

Question 11.
What was the agreement of the Muslim League?
Answer:
The Muslim League had argued that since the majority people in many areas were Hindus, more Hindus are likely to get elected to councils to and Muslims will find it difficult to protect their interests in government. But, if a certain number of seats were reserved for Muslims for which only the Muslims population of an area would vote, the Muslim members reaching the councils will be able to raise the concerns of Muslims.

Question 12.
Where was the Muslim League popular and weak?
Answer:
The Muslim League was popular in the United Provinces, Bombay and Madras. However, it was quite weak in the three provinces from which Pakistan was to be carved out just ten years later, viz. Bengal, the NWFP and Punjab. Even in Sind it failed to form a government.

Question 13.
How could the League create the impression that the Congress was basically a Hindu Party and did not want to share power with Muslims?
Answer:
The League pointed out many issues and blamed Congress of insensitivity. The Congress refused to form a coalition government with the League in the United Provinces where it too had won many seats. The Congress had banned its members from taking membership of the League Congress members could be members of the Hindu Mahasabha before. But this was also banned from 1938, only after objections were raised by Muslim Congressmen like Maulana Azad. The League could thus create the impression that the Congress was basically a Hindu party and did not want to share power with the Muslims.

Question 14.
Write about the Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS.
Answer:
The Hindu Mahasabha and the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) were engarged in active mobilisation. These organisations wished to unite all Hindus, overcome the divisions of caste and sect and reform their social life. They also gave out the message that India was the land of the Hindus who were in a majority. Many Congressmen were also impressed with the activities of these organisations.

Question 15.
Who coined the name Pakistan?
Answer:
The name Pakistan or Pak-stan was coined by a Punjabi Muslim student at Cambridge, Choudhry Rehmat Ali. In pamphlets written in 1933 and 1935, this young student desired a separate national status for this new entity.

Question 16.
What did the resolution demand?
Answer:
On 23 March 1940, the League moved a resolution demanding a measure of autonomy for the Muslim majority areas of the subcontinent. This ambiguous resolution never mentioned partition or Pakistan. However, in later years it came to be called the Pakistan Resolution.

Question 17.
What were the dreams of different sections from 1940 to 1946?
Answer:
From 1940 to 1946, the League was able to convince Muslim masses of the benefits and need for a separate nation. Peasants could think of state where Hindu zamindars and moneylenders did not exploit them. Traders, businessmen and job seekers could think of a state where competition from Hindu traders, businessmen and job seekers would not be there. There would be freedom for the Muslim elite to run the government the way they wanted.

Question 18.
Which was the ‘Quit India’ campaign?
Answer:
After the failure of the Cripps Mission, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch his third majority movement against British rule. This was the “Quit India” campaign, which began in August 1942.

Question 19.
What impressions did the victories of Japan create on the people in India?
Answer:
The victories of Japan against the Americans and Europeans created a strong impression on the people in India. Firstly, it seemed that the European colonialists would get defeated very soon. Secondly, Japan was an Asian country and could stand up against the European colonialists. Indians felt that they too can stand up and fight against Britain decisively. The myth of the racist superiority of the British was smashed.

Question 20.
How were the Indian people after World War – II?
Answer:
People were restless with food shortages, rationing of food, high prices, black marketeering and hoarding. Workers were angry about low wages. Railway and postal employees and other government employees were planning to go on India wide strike against prices.

Question 21.
What did the strike committee demand?
Answer:
The Naval Central Strike Committee was elected with M S Khan as its head. The strike committee demanded better food, equal pay for white and Indian sailors, the release of INA and other political prisoners, withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia.

Question 22.
What is the significance of the year 1946?
Answer:
The year 1946 was a year of strikes and work stoppages in factories and mills in many parts of the country. CPI and the Socialist parties were active in these movements. The countryside was also on the boil.

Question 23.
Why did the small and poor peasants start an agitation in Bengal?
Answer:
Agitation was started in Bengal by small and poor peasants who took land of the bigger landowners to cultivate. They demanded that their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less, that was given to them at that time. This was called the Tebhaga movement and was led by the Provincial Kisan Sabha.

Question 24.
Write about the Direct Action Day.
Answer:
The Muslim League decided that its demands cannot be met through discussions and it must ask people to come out on the streets. It decided on”Direct Action” for winning its Pakistan demand and announced 16 August 1946 as “Direct Action Day”. On this day, riots broke out in Calcutta, lasting several days and leaving several thousand people dead. By March 1947, violence spread to many parts of northern India.

Question 25.
Why didn’t Gandhiji celebrate the first Independence Day?
Answer:
Gandhiji moved amongst riot hit people, in camps and hospitals, spreading the message of peace and brotherhood. This was not the freedom and Swaraj he had worked so hard to achieve. The Father of the Nation fasted and did not celebrate on the first Independence Day.

Question 26.
Why did Congress organise individual satyagrahas through 1940 and 1941?
Answer:
Through 1940 and 1941, the Congress organised a series of individual satyagrahas to pressure the rulers to promise freedom once the war had ended.

Question 27.
Why did the British resort to the ‘Divide and Rule Policy’?
Answer:

1. The British were desperate with the Indian people revolting against their rule.
2. They looked for ways to punish Congress and weaken its hold over the people.
3. The British actively raised doubts about the right of Congress to represent the people of the country.
4. Then they followed “Divide and Rule Policy” more vigorously.

Question 28.
Write any features liked by you in Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

1. Gandhi took the national movement to masses.
2. Gandhiji all the time depended upon the weapons of Truth and Non – violence.
3. He worked for the welfare of Harijans.
4. He introduced the concept Satyagraha.

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Religions have been playing a prominent role since the partition of India.” Write your evidences.
Answer:

1. The growth of Muslim separation from the late 19th century and the rise of communal violence from 1920s to the virulent outbreaks of 1946-1947.
2. Muslims, as a religious community, comprised only 20% of the population and represented great diversity in economic, social and political terms.
3. From the late 19th century, some of its political elites in northern India felt increasingly threatened by British devolution of power. Due to this, the logic of numbers would mean the dominance of the majority Hindu community.

Question 2.
Do you think Indians should have felt grateful to the British government for the powers given by the act of 1935? Write your opinion.
Answer:
No, we need not have felt grateful to the British government for the powers given by the Act of 1935 because of the following reasons:

1. India is meant for Indians only.
2. We have right to freedom.
3. To British were forced by Indian freedom fighters.
4. That’s why the British passed the Act of 1935.

So we should be grateful to our national leaders and freedom fighters, not to the Britishers.

Question 3.
Write a brief note on the assassination of Gandhiji.
Answer:

1. Gandhiji was unhappy with the communal riots in north-western India and tried to calm the fears and anger of the people.
2. Yet, some sections of people were annoyed with Gandhi for his role in Indian politics.
3. They disturbed his all-religion prayer meetings many times.
4. An unsuccessful attempt on his life was made two days before his actual assassination.
5. Finally, less than six months after Independence, on the evening of 30th January 1948, Gandhi was shot with three bullets while going for his all-religion prayer meeting. As desired by him, before dying Gandhi reportedly said, ‘Hey, Ram’.
6. His assassin, Nathuram Godse ran off from the scene of the crime and was later arrested in Bombay.
7. He was once a member of Hindu Mahasabha and because of his actions, many became against this organisation.

Question 4.
Read the following text and interpret.

The British government, even without the consultation of the Congress government, decided that India will participate in the war. The Congress was torn in its mind over the question. Most Congress leaders were opposed to Hitler, Mussolini and the ideology of Fascism. They were determined to resist the Fascist drive to conquer other sovereign nations. The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the Fascists but not give (or at least promise) India full freedom.

Comment on the double standard role of the British.
Answer:

1. The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the Fascists but not giving India full freedom.
2. The British realised this but at the same time, it was hard for them to accept that they would really have to dismantle the empire they had built.
3. The British were willing to give Indian Dominion status under the British crown some time after the War, but the Congress wanted a promise of full freedom for India.
4. The British objected to this by saying that they have to also protect the interests of several other communities in India. With this they implied that the Congress did not represent all Indians, like Muslims.
5. They also implied that Congress may be ignoring the interests of many Indians. So, the British were required to protect these interests.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.

Agitation was started in Bengal by small and poor peasants who took land of the bigger landowners to cultivate. They demanded that their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less, that was given to them at that time. This was called the ‘Tebhaga’ movement and was led by the Provincial Kisan Sabha.

Do you support small and poor peasants’ demands? How?
Answer:
I do agree with the small and poor peasants demands because –

1. They demanded their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less.
2. Although they invested on the production of crops they did not get reasonable remuneration of share harvest.
3. They were forced to pay more land tenure. Due to this they faced more economic crises and failed to repay their debts.

Question 6.
How did the Indian National Army fight for Indian freedom? Explain.
Answer:

1. Subhash Chandra Bose recruited the prisoners of war, captured by Japan in the Indian National Army.
2. Later other Indians also joined in the Army including women.
3. Though Gandhi was not interested in encouraging INA for waging a war, Subhash Chandra Bose persisted in the path and led Indian soldiers to fight against the British.
4. With that intention he took help from Germany also.
5. Thousands of soldiers joined Indian National Army.
6. In view of the Britishers, the soldiers of INA were traitors but in view of the Indians they are National Heroes.
7. The INA soldiers sacrificed their lives for the sake of Indian Independence.
8. The British suppressed them.
9. Subhash Chandra Bose continued his struggle against the British for almost three years but unfortunately his army was defeated.
10. The British decided to court martial the soldiers of Indian National Army for being traitors to the army and hanging them to death in punishment.

Question 7.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

The initial victories of Japan against the Americans and Europeans created a strong impression on the people in India. Firstly, it seemed that the European colonialists would get defeated very soon. Secondly, Japan was an Asian country and could stand up against the European colonialists. Indians felt that they too can stand up and fight against Britain decisively.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph :

1. In my view, Japan a tiny nation defeated Russia in 1905 and China.
2. With this courage during Second World War in the initial period Japan was victorious against the allies.
3. By seeing this victory of Japan we got a strong impression that we Indians can decisively fight against our colonial masters.
4. We also thought that wherever European colonists occupied Afro-Asian countries would also liberate from the clutches of the colonists.
5. Japan an Asian country was against the Europian colonists. So India took an opportunity stand on the side of Japan and fought against dominance in India.
6. From this we can understand an example of Subash Chandra Bose who wanted to take support of Japanese to overthrow the British rule.

Question 8.
Explain the circumstances that arouse after the partition of India.
Answer:
Circumstances that arouse after the partition of India :

When India was divided, there was a problem of fear and threat among the Hindus and Muslims. Pakistan was separated as a new country and it was separated on the basis of religion. If Pakistan was separated on the basis of religion, all Muslims should go to Pakistan and all Hindus should be in Hindustan such discussions were also taken place but practically there were many problems for all this. This two religious people suffered of anger and hatred. Many were killed looted, and burnt each other. From Pakistan thousands of Hindus came to India as refugees. Many stayed on roads. Gradually they were settled relief camps. Insecurity feeling was developed among the Hindus and Muslims.

Question 9.
Look at the picture given below

Answer the following:
a) Identify the leader given in the picture.
b) Name the Military Organization that he formed.
c) State any two objectives of that organisation.
Answer:
a) The leader in the picture is Subhash Chandra Bose,
b) He formed India Nation Army a Military Organisation.
c) Objectives:

1. India’s independence was the utmost important.
2. Should take the help of the Japanese to throw out the British.

Question 10.
Appreciate the role of Subhash Chandra Bose.
Answer:

1. Subhash Chandra Bose was one of the greatest freedom fighters of India.
2. He wanted to take up the opportunity created by the difficulties of the British.
3. He believed that India’s independence was of utmost important.
4. For that he took the help of the enemies of the British, i.e., Japan and Germany.
5. Bose recruited “Prisioners of war” into his Indian National Army.
6. Bose continued in his chosen path though opposed by many.
7. His INA fought against the British for three years.
8. Though defeated, he has become immortal for his bravery.

Question 11.
Read the following para and comment on “Divide and Rule of British.”

Towards this end, the British government supported and encouraged the plans of the Muslim League and downplayed the importance of the Congress. It is in these years that the Muslim League and its leaders like M A Jinnah became more active in mass politics.

Answer:

1. The British were desperate with the Indian people revolting against their rule.
2. They wanted to finish Congress.
3. They looked for the ways to weaken its hold over the people of India.
4. They created doubt among Muslims and adopted and implemented their age-old policy of “Divide and Rule”.
5. They encouraged the plans of the Muslim League.
6. During early years “it” did not receive much support.
7. By 1937 and in 1946 elections it succeeded. .
8. The British followed “Divide and Rule” policy and they are successful in dividing India into two countries.

Question 12.
Read the letter of Gandhiji to Hitler and answer the following question.

LETTER TO ADOLF HITLER

HERR HITLER
BERLIN
GERMANY

DEAR FRIEND,
Friends have been urging me to write to you for the sake of humanity. But I have resisted their request, because of the feeling that any letter from me would be an impertinence. Something tells me that I must not calculate and that I must make my appeal for whatever it may be worth.

It is quite clear that you are today the one person in the world who can prevent a war which may reduce humanity to the savage state.

Must you pay that price for an object however worthy it may appear to you to be? Will you listen to the appeal of one who has deliberately shunned the method of war not without considerable success?
Any way I anticipate your forgiveness if I have erred in writing to you.

I remain,

Your sincere friend,
M. K. GANDHI

What was the appeal of Gandhi to Hitler?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji wrote the letter to Hitler for the sake of humanity.
2. Gandhiji thought that Hitler was the only one person who could prevent world war.
3. Gandhiji was saying that the price for the war however not worth the benefit that Hitler was expecting.
4. Gandhiji felt that Hitler should save the world from the disastrous war.

Question 13.
A few incidents of National movement are described here. Study them and answer the given questions.

a) Who founded Indian National Army?
Answer:
Subhash Chandra Bose founded Indian National Army.

b) Which movement was organised after the failure of Cripps Mission?
Answer:
Quit India movement was organised after the failure of Cripps Mission.

c) When did the Congress ministries resign?
Answer:
The Congress ministries resigned in October 1939.

d) Which incident took place in the year 1946?
Answer:
A strike by Royal Indian Navy Guards at Mumbai was the incident took place in the year 1946.

e) When were individual satyagrahas organised?
Answer:
Individual satyagrahas were organised from 1940 to 1941.

Question 14.
Identify the following places related to National Movement in the given map of India.

1. Punjab
2. Sindh
3. Kashmir
4. Baluchistan
5. Bengal
6. Hyderabad
7. Junagadh
8. Assom
9. Afghan

Answer:

Question 15.
Locate the following in the given map of World.
1. Pakistan

2. This country ruled India for two hundred years
Answer: Great Britain

3. This country was ruled by Dutch people
Answer: Indonesia

4. This is called tear drop of Indian Ocean
Answer: Sri Lanka

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 13 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following bar diagram and answer the question.

How many persons were killed per 1000 people in wars in the 20th century?
Answer:
44.4

Question 2.
Observe the following bar-graph:

Between what years the armaments race was raised?
Answer:
1910-1914.

Question 3.
What was the immediate cause for the World War -1?
Answer:
Murder of Archduke franz Ferdinand of Austria by a Serbian fanatic.

Question 4.
With which countries did Bismarck make the Secret Alliances?
Answer:
Austria and Italy.

Question 5.
Write two slogans on the necessity of peace.
Answer:

1. Hate war – love peace.
2. Peace is civilization.

Question 6.
What is militarism?
Answer:
Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is a good way to solve problems.
“UN is a kind of world government based on four principles.”

Question 7.
What are the four principles?
(OR)
What are the four principles on which the UNO was founded?
Answer:

1. Preserve world peace,
2. Uphold human rights,
3. Respect international law and
4. Promote social progress.

Question 8.
Write two slogans against wars.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

(OR)
Write any two slogans against wars.
Answer:

1. Peace is angle, war is a ghost.
2. War is extensive, peace is priceless.
3. War wins land, peace wins people.
4. War kills people, peace build people.

Question 9.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions.
a) In which century, is the number of war deaths low?
Answer:
16th-century

b) Why is the number of war deaths high during 1900 -1999?
Answer:

1. Two World Wars.
2. Use of modern weapons like nuclear weapons, poisonous gases.

Question 10.
Mention any one condition laid in the Versailles Treaty.
Answer:
Conditions laid in the Versailles Treaty:

1. Economic conditions,
2. Territorial conditions.
3. Military cuts, restriction of naval strength.

Question 11.
Write two reasons for the failure of the League of Nations.
Answer:
Reasons for the failure of League of Nations are:

1. Super powers were not the members of the League.
2. The League failed to prevent Germany, Japan and Italy from attacking/waging war against other countries.
3. The member countries violated international agreements.

Question 12.
Observe the given table and answer questions (a) and (b).
Annual Expenditure on National Defence (Million Dollars).

a) Which country’s annual growth of national defence expenditure is more?
Answer:
Germany’s annual growth of national defence expenditure is more.

b) Write any two reasons for the increase of defence expenditure in Britain and Germany.
Answer:
Britain and Germany are rival countries. This led to secret Alliances, Arms race, Imperialism and always they are suspecting each other.

Question 13.
What was the reason for American entry into World War II?
Answer:
The main reason is Japan attacked on American Naval base Pearl Harbour. So America entered into World War II.

Question 14.
Certain military cuts were imposed by the Treaty of Versailles on Germany State any two cuts.
Answer:

1. Germany was asked to pull down its army strength to 100,000 from 900,000.
2. It was also asked not to have submarines and restrict its naval strength to six battle-ships of less than 10,000 tonnes and a dozen a torpedo boats and destroyers each.

Question 15.
Who called the 20th century “the Age of Extremes”?
Answer:
Eric Hobsbawm called the 20th century “the Age of Extremes”.

Question 16.
Which countries were developed as industrial countries at the beginning of the 20th century?
Answer:
Britain, USA, Germany, France, Italy, Japan etc.

Question 17.
Name the countries of Triple Entente.
Answer:
Russia, France and Britain.

Question 18.
Which countries were formed as Triple Alliance?
Answer:
Germany, Italy and Austria.

Question 19.
What do you mean by “Militarism”?
Answer:
Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.

Question 20.
Name two aggressive forms of Nationalism.
Answer:
Nazism in Germany and Fascism in Italy are the aggressive forms of Nationalism.

Question 21.
Enlist the empires that ended after World War – 1.
Answer:
The Austro Hungarian Empire, the Russian Empire, the Ottoman Empire, the German empire, etc. were the empires that ended after the First World War.

Question 22.
Name the territories handed over by Germany to France after World War – 1.
Answer:
Alsace and Lorraine.

Question 23.
How did the French break their isolation?
Answer:
The French broke their isolation by striking a mutual alliance with Russia in 1891 and after resolving irritants, with Britain in 1904.

Question 24.
What were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in a destructive mode?
Answer:
Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in destructive mode.

Question 25.
How was the world divided?
Answer:
The world was divided into the West which was experiencing economic growth and ‘the Rest’ whose acute backwardness was wors¬ened by colonial exploitation by the West.

Question 26.
What was the change in literacy levels?
Answer:
Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all.

Question 27.
Write down some results of the Great Depression.
Answer:

1. Massive unemployment
2. Economic breakdown
3. Two World Wars.

Question 28.
How was the world at the beginning of the 20th century?
Answer:
At the beginning of the 20th century, the world was divided into developed industrialised countries of the West and colonial countries of Asia and Africa.

Question 29.
What were the two rival blocks in the industrialised countries?
Answer:
Germany – Austria – Hungary Vs Britain – France – Russia.

Question 30.
Why was the First World War truly a world war?
Answer:
The First World War was truly a world war as virtually no country was left untouched by it from Japan and China in the East to the US in the West.

Question 31.
How did the First World War end?
Answer:
The First World War ended in the defeat of Germany and its allies and in the victory of Britain and France in 1918.

Question 32.
How did the Second World War end?
Answer:
The Second World War ended in the defeat of Germany and its allies but before it ended it had ravaged all the warring countries.

Question 33.
Who attacked on Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
The U.S. attacked on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

Question 34.
What was the second fact about the world during the period?
Answer:
The second fact about the world during this period is the division of the world into nation-states and grouping of these nations of the world into power blocks and the degeneration of these alliances into war camps.

Question 35.
What happened by the end of the 19th century?
Answer:
By the end of the 19th century, different nations of Europe entered into alliances with each other against other blocks. Two main blocks emerged – the Centre and the Entente or Allies.

Question 36.
Who led the two blocks in the Second World War?
Answer:
The Axis powers were led by Germany and the Allies led by Britain, the US and the USSR.

Question 37.
What were the three main long term factors which led to World War – 1?
Answer:

1. Aggressive nationalism
2. Imperialism
3. Secret alliances and militarism.

Question 38.
What were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in a destructive mode?
Answer:
Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in destructive mode.

Question 39.
Why did Bismarck enter into a secret alliance with Austria and Italy?
Answer:
After defeating France in 1870, Bismarck, the German Chancellor, decided to isolate it. To achieve this end, he entered into a secret alliance with Austria in 1879 and with Italy in 1882.

Question 40.
How did the French break their isolation?
Answer:
The French broke their isolation by striking a mutual alliance with Russia in 1891 and after resolving irritants, with Britain in 1904.

Question 41.
What is the result of the secret alliances?
Answer:
Instead of real peace, these alliances created an atmosphere of fear and ‘armed peace’ in Europe.

Question 42.
When did the British women get the right to vote?
Answer:
The British women got the right to vote in 1918.

Question 43.
Who participated in the Conference of Peace at Versailles?
Answer:
The five big victorious powers of the time viz. the USA, the UK, France, Italy and Japan participated in this conference.

Question 44.
Who were not invited to the conference?
Answer:
Socialist Russia and the vanquished powers were not invited to the conference.

Question 45.
Why was the League of Nations set up?
Answer:
The League of Nations was set up to prevent wars in the future.

Question 46.
How was the League of Nations hoped?
Answer:
The League of Nations was hoped that it would help eliminate wars through “collective security” and settle disputes between countries through arbitration or negotiation.

Question 47.
What were the two ideologies to which the workers turned?
Answer:

1. Socialism and
2. Communism.

Question 48.
Which empires were ended with the World War – 1?
Answer:
The Austro Hungarian empire, the Russian empire, the Ottoman Empire and the German empire, etc.

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the timeline given and answer the following questions.

a) When did the Russian Revolution take place?
Answer:
The Russian Revolution take place in 1917.

b) Which organisation was formed for peace after World War – II?
Answer:
United Nations Organisation.

c) What are the peace organizations formed after the two World Wars?
Answer:

1. League of Nations,
2. United Nations Organization.

Question 2.
Mention any two happenings of 20th century in support of calling it, “The Age of Extremes”.
Answer:

1. The Two world wars occurred in this age.
2. The world saw the Great Depression in the same period.
3. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights.
4. Women got right to vote firstly during this period.

Question 3.
Plot the information given below on a bar-graph :
The Armaments Race

Answer:

Question 4.
Write your analysis on the graph given below.
Answer:

1. The above graph explains about Armaments Race from 1880 to 1914.
2. From 1880 to 1914 the military expenditure of the big powers were increased by over 300% i,e., from 132 million to 397 million.
3. Each and every country gave more importance to built more army to protect from their enemies.
4. The main theme of militarism is it is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and analyze the military expenditure in the World War-1 participant countries.

Observe the following graph and write a paragraph on the armament race.

Answer:

1. The graph shows that the military expenditure of the great countries has been increasing since 1880.
2. Military expenditure increases for every 10 years because of the armament race.
3. During 1914, the weapons were prepared on large scale and 397 million pounds were spent.
4. Since 1880 to 1914 the military experience increased in three folds.
5. Countries like Germany, Great Britain, Russia, Italy and France are some countries that spend more money on weapons.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and interpret. How can you justify “The women getting the right to vote was a big step”?

After a long struggle for political right like right to vote, British women got these rights in 1918. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services are necessary, with men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with confidence, being breadwinners, women began raising their voices for equality in all walks of life. Getting the right to vote was a big step in that direction.

Answer:

1. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services were necessary.
2. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and Schools,
3. Beginning with the confidence of being bread winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.
4. They established the ‘International Women’s Suffragist Movement’ organization in 1914 for right to vote,
5. After a long struggle for political right like right to vote-British women got them in 1918.
6. Getting the right to vote was a big st2ep towards equality in all walks of life,

Question 7.
Prepare a few slogans on the prevention of wars.
(OR)
Create two slogans on promoting peace.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet to creat awareness on the loss incurred due to wars.
Answer:
Pamphlet

Consequences of wars

Wars are occured because of conquering the world and with the aim of exploiting resources of other countries. Some time dominance is the aim spread of ism or ideology is also preceding to wars.

In olden days, if there was a war, only those participating in the war would die, but nowadays very dangerous, poisonous weapons are available. Ordinary civilians also die. In 1945 what ‘ happened In Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan. Still some people are facing the consequences.

My request to all the country heads not to clear a way to wars. Better sit together and go for a smoother solution and avoid dangers.

xxx
Publishers.

Copies – 2000.

Question 9.
Observe the timeline and answer the questions.

a) Which year did Russia withdraw from World War -1?
Answer:
Russia withdrew from the World War -1 In 1917.

b) When did Hitler invade Poland?
Answer:
Hitler invaded poland on 1st September, 1939.

Question 10.
Prepare a few slogans on the prevention of wars and the promotion of peace.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

Question 11.
The world was divided into “the West” which was experiencing economic growth and “the Rest” whose acute backwardness was worsened by colonial exploitation by the West.”
Read the above lines and interpret it.
Answer:

1. At the beginning of the 20th century, the world experienced two different blocks – the West and the Rest.
2. “The West” were all those countries like England, USA who were the leading industrial powers and they were experiencing economic growth.
3. “The Rest” were all the countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.
4. They experienced extreme backwardness.
5. That backwardness was worsened by the colonial exploitation of these countries by “the West”.
6. This colonization and imperialism later led to World Wars.

Question 12.
Read the passage and interpret it.

Aggressive nationalism
The ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse. It was the foundation of modern nation-states and the force behind the unification of Germany and Italy. But this ideology could also be used to create pride in one self and hatred against neighbours. This hatred was slowly building up in the 19th century between the states of Europe.

Answer:

1. Countries like Germany and Italy were unified in 1870.
2. Nationalism was an impulse behind unification.
3. Nationalism developed pride in them.
4. At the same time “it” developed hatred towards other nation.
5. This hatred led to aggressive farms like Nazism in Germany and Fascism in Italy.
6. They challenged other countries.
7. Finally, this aggressive nationalism led to World War II.

Question 13.
Study the timeline given and answer the following questions.

a) What was the period of World War -1?
Answer:
The period of World War-1 was 1914-18 AD.

b) Name the organizations formed after the World Wars.
Answer:
League of Nations and UNO were formed after the World Wars respectively.

c) Who was responsible for World War – II?
Answer:
Hitler was responsible for World War – II.

d) What was the period of World War – II?
Answer:
The period of World War – II was 1939-45 AD.

Question 14.
Read the map and answer the following questions.
a) Name two countries that did not fall under the German Empire.
Answer:
Portugal, Spain, Turkey and Sweden.

b) Which country belonged to Allied block?
Answer:
England.

Question 15.
Discuss the death and destruction during two World Wars.
(OR)
Wars cause destruction. Prove it.
Answer:

1. World War I claimed 10 million men.
2. World War II claimed 22-25 million military casualties.
3. It also claimed 40-52 million civilian deaths.
4. It included 6 million Jews killed by Nazis.
5. It included 1,50,000 to 2,46,000 people were killed immediately by atom bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan by the USA.
6. The after-effects like leukaemia, cancer lingered on for decades.

Question 16.
Imperialism created much stress often leading to wars – Explain.
Answer:

1. As industrial capital developed in the European countries like Britain, Germany and US, they needed Markets for their products and access to raw materials.
2. As capital further accumulated in Banks and financial institutions, they looked for safe investment opportunities in colonies.
3. Thus by the end ofthe 19th century there was a race for colonies between the European powers.
4. The governments of these countries acted on behalf of their capitalists to increase their areas of influence and reduce the area under their competitors.
5. As new industrial powers (like Japan, Germany and Italy) emerged they wanted to re-divide the colonies but the old powers were not ready for this.
6. This created much stress often leading to wars.

Question 17.
What do you know about the Militarism?
Answer:

1. Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.
2. From 1880 to 1914, the military expenditure of the six big powers increased by over 300%.
3. Three things are noteworthy in the context of militarism. Each of these countries built massive standing armies, competed with each other in increasing their armaments and built a mindset among the people to support wars.
4. Large industrial complex producing arms emerged which constantly promoted the idea of using war as a solution to diplomatic problems.

Question 18.
How can you say that the League of Nations was failed?
Answer:
Even though it showed a lot of promise and much was expected of it, it failed eventually to prevent Germany and Italy from violating international agreements and attacking other countries. So the World War – II emerged. Hence we can say League of Nations was failed.

Question 19.
What is the change in colonies during and after the World War -1 and II?
Answer:
During the First World War, on the demand of their subjects, the colonialists accepted the principle that self-government is desirable in colonies. With the process of decolonization, after World War II, the colonies rose to independence and hundreds of new countries were born across Asia and Africa.

Question 20.
What were the changes in the map of world?
Answer:
With World War I the German, Austro- Hungarian, Russian and Turkish empires came to an end. The map of eastern and central Europe was redrawn on the basis of nationality, economic viability and military security. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.

Question 21.
Write about the UNO.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II. UN is a kind of world government based on four principles, viz. preserve peace, uphold human rights, respect international law and promote social progress. It works through organs like UNICEF, UNESCO, WHO, ILO, etc.

Question 22.
Explain the Enfranchisement of women.
Answer:
After a long struggle for political right like the right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. In the long protracted wars like the World Wars, industrial production and other services are necessary. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life. Getting the right to vote was a big step in that direction.

Question 23.
What was the immediate provocation for World War -1?
Answer:
The immediate provocation for World War – I was the murder on 28th June 1914 of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria by Serbian fanatic. Austria declared war on Serbia. As Serbia was with Allied Powers the Austrian attack on it led these powers to come to Serbia’s defence. Then the Central Powers, allied to Austria, also joined the war and this Marked the beginning of World War-1.

Question 24.
What was the immediate provocation for World War – II?
Answer:
The immediate provocation for World War II was the German tanks driving into Poland on September 1,1939. Hitler invaded Poland as punishment for refusing to hand over the port of Danzig to Germany. Polish territory lay between two parts of Germany. Hitler thought the takeover of Poland will also be a small military operation. But Poland had a defence pact with Britain which jumped on to the Polish side and France joined them a day later. This marked the beginning of World War II.

Question 25.
What was the policy of ‘appeasement’ of Hitler?
Answer:
The western capitalist countries like Britain were afraid of the Communist Revolution in other countries of Europe like Russia and initially encouraged Hitler and the Nazis of consolidating themselves to act as a buffer against Soviet Socialism. This was the policy of ‘appeasement’ of Hitler.

Question 26.
“The USA could not become a member of the League of Nations.” Why?
Answer:
The USA could not become a member as the US Congress refused to sanction the proposal of President Woodrow Wilson even though he was very active in the formation of the League.

Question 27.
Write about Industrial capitalism.
Answer:
Industrial capitalism had changed the way of many people earned their livelihood but only in the western countries. Some of these countries, especially Britain, were leading industrial powers but also held vast colonial empires, spread all over the world.

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the causes that lead to the two World Wars? (OR)
Write about the main reasons which are responsible for the two World Wars.
Answer:
I. Aggressive Nationalism:

1. The Ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse.
2. Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive Nazism in destructive mode.

II. Imperialism:

1. As new industrial powers (like Japan, Germany and Italy) emerged they wanted to redivide the colonies.
2. This created much stress often leading to wars.

III. Secret alliances:

1. Triple Alliance and Triple Entente made the European powers jealous and suspicious of one another.

IV. Militarism:

1. Each country built massive standing armies and competed with each other in increasing armaments.
2. They built a mindset among the people to support wars.

V. Arms Race :

1. The race for armaments and stock piling of war materials by all European coun¬tries created tensions in the world.

VI. The Treaty of Versailles :

1. World War I ended with the conference on Peace at Versailles in 1919.
2. To weaken Germany, the Treaty of Versailles imposed some territorial penalties and military cuts on its.
3. Failure of League of Nations was the an-other cause.VII. German challenge to vengeful domination : They wanted to recover the terri¬tories lost by them, in the Treaty of Versailles, restore German dominance over Central Europe and end the restrictions on German armaments.

VIII. Immediate causes:

1. The immediate cause of First World War was the murder of Ferdinand of Austria.
2. The immediate cause of Second World War was the Hitler attacked on Poland.

Question 2.
What were the terms of the “Treaty of Versailles’? Explain at what extent it was caused for outbreak of the Second World War.
Answer:
Treaty of Versailles was an agreement between the victorious countries and Germany signed in 1919 after 1st World War.
Terms of Treaty of Versailles:

1. Territorial arrangements.
2. Military clauses
3. Economic clauses

Treaty of Versailles caused for outbreak of the Second World War:

1. The vanquished power Germany was not invited to the conference. Hence they thought the treaty was imposed on them, they had no respect responsibility for it.
2. The treaty aimed to weaken Germany in all aspects like – to return its colonies, reduce military, territorial penalties, huge war indemnity.
3. This created a reaction in Germany and wanted to recover the territories and restore German dominance over Europe.
4. Hitler’s invasion on Poland on Sept. 1st – 1939 gave rise to the cause of the 2nd World War.

Question 3.
Observe the following graph and answer the given questions.

a) How much was the military expenditure of great powers in 1914?
Answer:
397 Million Pounds

b) What are tripple entente countries?
Answer:
Russia, France and Britain.

c) State the allied powers.
Answer:
Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy.

d) How many times, the military expenditure, increased from 1880 to 1914?
Answer:
3 times

Question 4.
Observe the information given in the above graph (See Q.No. 3) and write few sentences by analysing it.
Answer:

1. In 19th century the military expenditure raised slowly.
2. But during the 20th century, it raised rapidly.
3. Before the First World War, the expenditure increased to its maximum level.
4. Within four years i.e., between 1910¬1914 the expenditure raised nearly by 109 million pounds.
5. In the decade of 1880-1890, the raise of expenditure was 26 million pounds only.

Question 5.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below:

1. What does the above graph explain?
   Answer:
   This graph explained about War related deaths from 1500-1999.
2. In which period, war related deaths were more?
   Answer:
   From 1900 -1999.
3. In which century, “deaths per 1000 people” were low?
   Answer:
   In 16th century
4. Give two suggestions to prevent wars?
   Answer:
   1. We can prevent wars by adopting a policy of mutual co-existence and respecting the sovereignty of other countries.
   2. Disputes between countries should be settled peacefully by talks.

Question 6.
How did the idea of Nationalism lead to the World Wars?
(OR)
How did the idea of Nation-states and Nationalism influence desire for war during 20th century?
Answer:
Nationalism is a belief, creed or political ideology that involves an individual identifying with or becoming attached to one’s nation.

1. The ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse.
2. It was the foundation of modern nation states.
3. But later it became aggressive nationalism.
4. It is used to create pride in oneself and hatred against neighbors.
5. Fascists in Italy tried to build images of victories with it.
6. Nazis of Germany mobilised Germans against other nations of Europe.
7. These incidents led to World War.
8. Thus, we can say the idea of nation-states and nationalism influenced the desire for war during World Wars.’

Question 7.
Observe the given Europe map and answer the following question.
List out the Axis Power group and Central Allies group.
Answer:

Question 8.
What are the important developments that took place in the first half of the 20th century? Explain any two of them.
(OR)
“The 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.” – Justify.
Answer:

1. Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century ‘The Age of Extremes’.
2. Politically, the world saw shoots of democratic aspirations grow amidst the rise of Fascist domination which fostered ideologies of unquestioned power and hatred for other people.
3. Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all.
4. New forms of art like movies emerged.
5. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights unlocking the secrets of atom and life.
6. Women, who constitute half the world’s population, got their right to vote in this period, starting with the West.
7. Literally more than a hundred nations walked to independence and freedom across the world.
8. This was also an age of great experimentation as people strove to build socialist societies based on the principles of equality and fraternity or alternatively a liberal democracy based on political liberty and capitalist economy.
9. But the same period saw the “Great Depression” causing massive unemployment and economic breakdown and two World Wars in which millions died and the lives of many more millions were dislocated.
10. Hence, the 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.

Question 9.
Observe the below graph and answer the following questions.

1. In which year, the military expenditure was high? Why?
   Answer:
   In the year of 1914 the military expenditure was high because the year is the beginning of World War -1.
2. How would the armaments race impact the progress of a country?
   Answer:
   1. Armaments race was not only brought new technology into the world but also brushed a wave of nerves.
   2. It crease tension among the nations.
   3. Some countries developed very well with production and sale of arms, but some are destroyed by other nations with these arms.

Question 10.
What steps would you suggest to prevent these World Wars among the countries?
(OR)
Suggest some measures to protect World peace.
(OR)
Suggest measures to prevent wars between countries.
Answer:
To prevent World Wars, all the countries on the earth must follow the following steps.

1. The countries one and all should give up their attitude of aggressive nationalism.
2. Every country should be ready to disarmamentation of herself.
3. All the countries should promise to stop the usage of nuclear and chemical weapons.
4. Every country should be committed to development, not but to arms race.
5. Every country should respect the sovereignty and integrity of all other countries.
6. Every country should pledge not to interfere in the internal affairs of other countries.
7. Countries must negotiate or go to International Court of Justice in case of disputes, but not to resort to wars.

Question 11.
Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments. Justify the statement with the help of suitable examples.
Answer:
Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century ‘The Age of Extremes’.Politically, the world saw shoots of democratic aspirations grow amidst the rise of Fascist domination which fostered ideologies of unquestioned power and hatred for other people. Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all. New forms of art like movies emerged. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights unlocking the secrets of atom and life. Women, who constitute half the world’s population, got their right to vote in this period, starting with the West. Literally more than a hundred nations walked to independence and freedom across the world. This was also an age of great experimentation as people strove to build socialist societies based on the principles of equality and fraternity or alternatively a liberal democracy based on political liberty and a capitalist economy. But the same period saw the “Great Depression” causing massive unemployment and the economic breakdown and two World Wars in which millions died and the lives of many more millions were dislocated. Hence, the 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.

Question 12.
Observe the graph and answer the questions:
a) How many people die in wars in the 16th century?
b) From the graph, what is the trend of war deaths?
c) In which century highest number of war related deaths were recorded? Why?
Answer:
a) 1.6 million people were died in wars in 16th century.
b) Above graph explains trend of war death are gradually increasing.
c) In 20th century a highest number of war related deaths were recorded. Because two World Wars were held in that century only.

Question 13.
Read the paragraph and answer the following question.

To weaken Germany, the Treaty of Versailles imposed some territorial penalties and military cuts on it Firstly, Germans were asked to return their colonies in Africa occupied in the 1880s and European areas like Alsace and Lorraine which they occupied from France in 1871. Secondly, Germany was asked to pull down its army strength to 100,000from 900,000 during World War I.
It was also asked not to have submarines and restrict its naval strength to six battleships of less than 10,000 tonnes and a dozen torpedo boats and destroyers each.

Do you think the Second World War could have been avoided if the victorious powers had been more considerate towards Germany in 1919?
Answer:

1. The peace treaty after 1st World War imposed inhumane and humiliating terms on Germany.
2. Germans thought that the Treaty of Versailles was a diktat imposed on them.
3. Germans were asked to return colonies like Alsace and Lorraine.
4. Germans were asked to pull down its army strength to 1 lakh from 9 lakhs.
5. It was asked not to have submarines and restrictions were imposed on its naval strength.
6. These humiliating terms of Treaty of Versailles led to the rise of Hitler.
7. He recovered all the territories lost due to Treaty of Versailles.
8. Hence we can conclude that the Second World War could have been avoided if the victorious powers had been more considerate towards Germany.

(OR)

1. The Peace Treaty after First World War posed in-human and humiliating terms on Germany.
2. It definitely was one of the reasons for the Second World War.
3. But the victorious countries were more considerate towards Germany in 1919, would not have avoided the Second Warld War.
4. Countries like Germany, Italy and Japan were driven by Fascist superior feelings and wanted to have control over the world.
5. Keeping aside Germany, Italy and Japan joined the war only to serve their colonial interests and show the domination they enjoy the range of arms and military arrangements they have made, we cannot think of not happening of Second World War.

Question 14.
Study the following graph and answer the questions.
a) What does the above graph represent?
Answer:

1. The first bar column tells us the total number of deaths recorded during the century.
2. The 2nd bar column tells us the proportionate death due to wars.

b) Which century experienced decrease in the proportionate death rate?
Answer:
1700-1799 experienced a decrease in the proportionate death rate, i.e., from 11.2 in 1600-1699 to 9.7 in 1700-1799.

c) Why were the war related deaths high between 1900-1999?
Answer:
The world experienced two World Wars between 1900-1999. Hence the war-related deaths were high.

d) Compare 16th century with that of 20th century.
Answer:
Less than four people out of thousand died in the 16th century while it rose to 44.4 in the last century, i.e., nearly 4.5% of people died.

Question 15.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions.
a) What do you know from the graph?
Answer:
The graph shows that the military expenditure of the great countries has been increasing since 1880.

b) In which year were the weapons prepared in large scale?
Answer:
During 1914, the weapons were prepared in large scale.

c) Why did the expense on soldiers increase for every 10 years?
Answer:
The Governments spent much expenses on soldiers to increase their area of influence and to reduce the areas under their competitors.

d) What are the countries that spend more money on weapons?
Answer:
Countries like Germany, Great Britain, Russia, Italy and France were some countries that spend more money on weapons.

Question 16.
Observe the timeline chart and answer the following questions.
a) What was the immediate cause of World War-ll?
Answer:
Invasion of Poland by Germany was the immediate cause of World War-II.

b) When did the USA enter in World War – II?
Answer:
The USA joined the World War-ll on the 8th of December 1941.

c) Who was responsible for World War – II?
Answer:
Hitler, who became the Chancellor of Germany on 1933, was responsible for World War – II.

d) Why did mass murder of Jews take place in 1941?
Answer:
As the war proceeded the Nazi regime unfolded its horrible programme of building the racial supremacy of Germans by mass extermination of minority communities. Hence mass murder of Jews took place.

Question 17.
Write about the formation of UNO. On which principles it was based?
Answer:

1. After World War II United Nations Organisation was formed.
2. It was founded on 24 October 1945.
3. It is a kind of world government.
4. It was based on four principles viz.
   Preserve world peace, uphold human rights, respect international law and promote social progress.
5. It works through many organs.
6. It has played a major role in preserving world peace.

Question 18.
Describe women’s fight for Right to vote. (Or) Women were discriminated even in “Right to vote.” Justify.
Answer:

1. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services were necessary.
2. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools.
3. Beginning with confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.
4. They established ‘International Women’s Suffragist Movement organization in 1914 for right to vote.
5. After a long struggle for political right like right to vote-British women got them in 1918.
6. Getting the right to vote was a big step towards equality in all walks of life.

Question 19.
Eric Hobsbawm called 20th century as ‘The Age of Extremes’. How far do you agree with it?
Answer:

1. I do agree with his statement.
2. Politically, there were monarchies, Fascist dominations, colonies, democratic movements and independent countries in hundreds, during this period.
3. Scientifically, unlocked secrets of atom and life.
4. New forms of art, cinema emerged.
5. Women got right to vote.
6. Socialist societies, liberal democracies are formed.
7. Great depression caused mass unemployment and economic breakdown.
8. Millions died and many more millions dislocated in two World Wars.
9. World governments like United Nations were formed.
10. Thus, this is the ‘Age of Extremes’.

Question 20.
Locate the following countries on the outline map of world.

1. Austria
2. Serbia
3. Japan
4. China
5. USA
6. USSR
7. France
8. England
9. Germany
10. Italy
11. Hungary
12. Turkey
13. Bulgeria
14. Rumenia
15. India.

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.

1. The country is the responsible for World War -1.
   Answer: Germany
2. The capital or Russia.
   Answer: Moscow
3. The Treaty of Versailles was held in the country.
   Answer: France
4. The capital of America.
   Answer:
   Washington D.C.
5. This country declare war on Serbia.
   Answer: Austria
6. In 1948 UNO created a country for Jewish people.
   Answer: Israel
7. Angola
8. China
9. Egypt
10. Myanmar
11. New York

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 7 People and Settlement.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 7th Lesson People and Settlement

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which decade had the population of Delhi increased unusually? According to your opinion, what might be the main reason for the population increase?
Population of Delhi City

Answer:
The population of Delhi increased mostly in the decades of 1981 and 1991.
I think the reasons are:

1. It is our national capital.
2. Its development.

Question 2.
Why do certain places attract more people as settlements? Mention the reasons.
Answer:
Water resources, security, employment opportunities etc.

Question 3.
What are called Mega cities?
Answer:
The cities having more than 10 million persons are Mega cities.

Question 4.
What is called a Metropolitan city? Give examples.
Answer:

1. A city having population between one million to 10 million is called a metropolitan city.
2. Examples: Chennai, Hyderabad and Ahmedabad.

Question 5.
State any two problems caused due to urbanization.
Answer:

1. Traffic problem will arise.
2. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
3. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
4. Air, water, sound pollutions are increased.

Question 6.
What do we have in a settlement?
Answer:
In a settlement, we have different kinds of activities – educational, religious, commercial, etc.

Question 7.
Why were the early humans called hunter-gatherers?
Answer:
Early humans hunted and gathered their food. That is why they were called hunter-gatherers.

Question 8.
The hunter-gatherers were nomads. Why?
Answer:
The hunter-gatherers were kept moving from place to place. This was in search of food-gathering food from plants and trees and hunting animals for meat, hide, and other uses.

Question 9.
What tools did they use initially?
Answer:
Initially they used the tools made of stone. With these tools they were able to hunt more effectively and efficiently.

Question 10.
What happened as agriculture progressed?
Answer:
As agriculture progressed, people organised their life around patterns observed in nature. They also had time to speculate on other things – the movement of heavenly bodies.

Question 11.
What kinds of places attracted settlements?
Answer:
Some basic concepts are to be understood for this. Those are

1. site
2. situation and
3. the history of the place.

Question 12.
What does site refer to?
Answer:
Site refers to the characteristics of the place – its topography, altitude, water characteristics (does it have lakes, rivers, underground water, etc.), types of soils, security, shelter from natural t forces, and so on.

Question 13.
Name any two cities which were developed by the colonial powers.
Answer:
Mumbai and Chennai.

Question 14.
Which kind of villages has the most vibrant markets and fairs?
Answer:
The villages that are best connected have the most vibrant markets and fairs.

Question 15.
What is called Urbanisation?
Answer:
People have been increasingly taking up non-agriculture work and living in cities and towns. This is called Urbanisation.

Question 16.
Name the three cities which accommodate more than 10 million people each.
Answer:
Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata.

Question 17.
What are the problems in urbanization?
Answer:
Though there has been an increase in urbanization, the necessity of providing basic infrastructure that can support this growth is missing, e.g.: roads, drainage, electricity, water and public facilities.

Question 18.
What are aerotropolis ?
Answer:
A new kind of settlement is occurring in many countries, including India. These settlements around c large airports are called Aerotropolis.

Question 19.
What are the facilities in an aerotropolis?
Answer:
Hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business conferencing, etc.

Question 20.
What are the comforts of people in aerotropolis?
Answer:
People can fly in, conduct their business with their counterparts right there, and fly out- with ail ‘ the comfort of a city, without the traffic and other problems.

Question 21.
Name some form of aerotropolises that are emerging in India.
Answer:

1. Kempegowda International Airport – Bengaluru
2. Indira Gandhi International Airport – Delhi
3. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport – Hyderabad

Question 22.
What are Towns?
Answer:
All the urban areas having a population between 5000 to 1 lakh are called Towns.

Question 23.
What are Hamlets?
Answer:
A group of houses within the revenue village are called Hamlets.

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘Though there has been an increase in urbanization, the necessity of providing basic infrastructure that can support this growth is missing.’
What is your opinion on the conditions of urban poor people?
Answer:
Due to urbanization, the people of surrounding villages are reaching the towns and cities. Many of them are working in the unorganized sector. As they are economically backward, they are settling in slum areas.
Usually, they are occupying government unorganized (porambok) areas for their residences. Govt, also building colonies for them. Ex: Vambey Colony
But the slum areas in which they are living are lack of water, sanitation and toilet facilities. Mostly they are living in unhealthy conditions.

Question 2.
Why has the population of Visakhapatnam grown significantly over the centuries?
(OR)
Taking into consideration the past history and the present timings, state the causes for the escalation of population in Visakhapatnam according to your observation.
Answer:

1. Over the decades, Visakhapatnam’s population has grown significantly.
2. Visakhapatnam is a port city.
3. It developed industrially.
4. Many people came for work and settled in Visakhapatnam.
   So the population increased in Visakhapatnam.

Question 3.
Answer the questions by studying the data given below.

Population of Visakhapatnam

1. In which decade, the change in the population percentage is less?
   Answer:
   1981-91
2. What are the reasons for increasing population in Visakhapatnam ?
   Answer:
   1. Visakhapatanm is a port city.
   2. Employment opportunities.
   3. Migration from other places.

Question 4.
Describe the adverse impacts of urbanisation on environment.
Answer:

1. Air pollution increases.
2. Climate changes occur.
3. Drainage problems arise.
4. Non degradable garbage accumulates.

Question 5.
Delhi is the second biggest city in the country. Explain the reasons for it.
Answer:

1. The city of Delhi can claim to have been central to many empires that rilled India.
2. When India gained independence, the city remained its capital.
3. Over the decades, the city has attracted people from all parts of India as they migrated in search of livelihood, jobs, etc.
4. As the capital of the country, with the Parliament and Central Government offices there are people from all parts living in the city.
5. Surrounding areas of Delhi are developed. ,
6. Establishment of industries in surrounding areas of Delhi.

Question 6.
Analyse the problems of Urbanisation.
Answer:
Urbanisation: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation. Causes of urbanisation:

1. Natural growth
2. Inclusion of rural areas and
3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of work¬ers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 7.
What is an Aerotropolis ? Mention any two advantages of an aerotropolis over other cities?
Answer:
An aerotropolis is an urban plan in which the layout, infrastructure and economy is centered on an airport, existing as an airport city.
(or)
The settlements which centered around large airports are called aerotropolis.
Advantages:

1. People can fly to conduct their business with their counterparts right there, and fly out – with all the comfort of a city.
2. Many facilities like hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business, conferencing, etc, are provided right there.
   People ead Settlement

Question 8.
What happened as the population increased?
Answer:
As population increased, there was more specialization – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade in them. Rulers began to encourage craftpersons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements, i.e., towns where people did not work in agriculture expanded.

Question 9.
What do you know about Visakhapatnam?
Answer:
Visakhapatnam has a long history. It was ruled by different dynasties during pre-colonial times. During the 19th century, the British and French fought a naval battle over this city. Coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there. These ports would enable export of raw materials to the colonizing country.

Question 10.
What happened in early settlement periods? Give an example.
Answer:
In early settlement periods, places which had favourable water supply and good protection from invasions were preferred. For example, Chhatrapati Shivaji built a fort in Pratapgad, Maharashtra. This site was chosen because of its altitude from where all the surrounding areas could be seen. This provided military security.

Question 11.
Describe an annual fair in villages.
Answer:
Some villages also host an annual fair which is a larger market along with many cultural elements. Many events are held including music, dance, theatre, etc. Both the weekly markets and such fairs are also important to plant and animal genetics in the area because local seeds and livestock breeds are traded here. These fairs also often result in intermarriage among people from different villages.

Question 12.
Why did most of the population increase in cities and towns take place?
Answer:
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only one-fifth of the growth is due to rural-to-urban migration.

Question 13.
What happened as settlements became larger?
Answer:
As settlements became larger, they also became more complex because there were more functions to be performed – food production was not the qjily cOncem.Within each settlement, people specialised in certain skills. Many goods were produced for the market and sold to traders who carried them to far off places.

Question 14.
What does situation describe? Give one example.
Answer:
Places do not exist in isolation. They are in some way connected to other places. Situation describes the connections with other places. For example Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India.

Question 15.
Why did the settlements become more and more complex?
Answer:
As settlements became more and more diversified in their characteristics, they also became more and more complex. Gradually, a network of places in a hierarchy has been formed.

Question 16.
How does urban India contribute to Indians economic development?
Answer:
Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities. There is no major growth of industrial output over the last few decades.

Question 17.
Give some examples of emerging aerotropolises. (International)
Answer:

1. Suvarnabhoomi International Airport (Bangkok, Thailand)
2. Dubai International Airport (Dubai, UAE)
3. Cairo International Airport (Cairo, Egypt)
4. London Heathrew Airport (London, UK)

Question 18.
Write down some problems of urbanization.
Answer:

1. The growing urban population has to be housed.
2. It needs water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and many other things.
3. Vehicle use Increases.

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find out the changes in your settlement during the past twenty years, and find out the reasons for this.
Answer:
During the past 20 years, In our area :

1. Population Increased.
2. Transportation facilities extended.
3. The area of agricultural land has decreased.
4. The residential and shopping area has Increased.
5. Slums formed.
6. Environmental pollution Increased.
   Migrations and urbanisation are the main reasons for all these changes.

Question 2.
Increasing urbanization is not just about greater opportunities for people and economy. It also results in many problems.
– Express your attitude on the consequences of urbanization.
Answer:
There are a lot of problems occurring In the urban areas. They are:

• Scarcity of space and housing problem
• Increase of air, water, soil pollution
• Shortage of food items
• Increase of Plastic waste
• Increase of slum areas
• Increase of traffic problem
• Increase of sewage problem
• Pressure on the environment

Urbanisation is one of the Indicators of development. The governments hive to take necessary precautionary measures to avoid the problems while Increasing of towns and cities. Otherwise It may lead even to under development.

Question 3.
Explain the expansion of agriculture and emergence of towns.
Answer:
As agriculture progressed, people organised their life around patterns observed In nature.
For example, the seasonal cycles, how to predict climatic conditions how to plan the timing of cropping practices etc. They also had time to speculate on other things – the movements of heavenly bodies.
As population Increased, there was more specialisation – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged, The number and variety of goods produced Increased and so did the trade In them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle In urban areas. Due to this towns were emerged.

Question 4.
‘Urbanisation results in environmental stress’ – Do you agree with this statement? Support your answer.
Answer:
Urbanization results in environmental stress -1 agree with this statement because.

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed In these places.
2. The decrease In rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of workers In rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are Increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are Increased.
7. The unemployment increases In urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 5.
Study the paragraph given below and answer the following questions:
A new kind of settlement Is occurring In many countries, Including India. These settlements are centred around large airports. Hence the name aerotropolis.

1. What is called a settlement?
2. What is located at the centre of an aerotropolis?
3. What facilities are provided in an aerotropolis?
4. Give two example of aerotropolises in India.

Answer:

1. The way we organise ourselves and our living spaces in a place Is called a settlement.
2. Airport.
3.  In an aerotropolis the airport functions as a city In Its own right. Many facilities like hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business conferencing etc. are provided.
4. (i) Bengaluru International Airport
   (ii) Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi) and
   (iii) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (Hyderabad).

Question 6.
Mention the challenges of Urbanization and suggest remedies.
Answer:
Urbanisation: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation.
Causes of urbanisation:

1. Natural growth
2. Inclusion of rural areas and
3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of workers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers is increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Remedies:

1. Controlling of migrations from villages to towns and cities.
2. Recycling of waste materials.
3. Provide more employment opportunities in villages.
4. Eradicate the use of plastic.

Question 7.
Give solutions to address the urbanization problems.
Answer:

1. Proper maintenance of sewage water.
2. Proper supply of drinking water.
3. Providing infrastructural facilities in rural areas.
4. Giving importance to Agriculture.
5. Establishing industries in rural areas to generate employment.
6. Widening of urban roads.
7. Strict implementation of rules to reduce pollution.
8. Co-ordination among different wings or departments.

Question 8.
What kind of places are attracted as settlements? Explain.
Answer:
Some places attract more people. There are many reasons for it. Some of them are:

1. Good transport facilities: These facilities reduce the journey time. Hence a place which has good transport facilities attract the people more.
2. Good living conditions: One cannot change his own environment. The place which has good sanitation. Public transport system. Pollution free environment naturally attract more people.
3. Education, job opportunities: Having good education gives a chance to take a good profession. The places which have good educational institutions and companies attract more people.
4. Other reasons: Availability of good health services, having basic needs like electricity, peaceful life style are some of the other factors contributing attracting people.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
As population Increased, there was more specialization-weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade In them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements i.e., towns, where people did not practice agriculture expanded.
Answer:
At the beginning the rulers encourage the crafts persons to settle in urban area. Slowly the facilities are increasing In urban areas. People who are not having land they are migrating to towns & cities and improve their living conditions. After some years industrials are established they left their occupations and joined in industries for better life.
Slowly town areas are increasing, population also increasing and the people who depends on agriculture Is also slowly decreasing. The share of agriculture in GDP also reducing. But In urban areas the people are facing so many problems.

Question 10.
How were the settlements begun and explain, why do they change?
Answer:
Settlements: For about 1.8 lakh years, early humans lived in bands as hunter gatherers. They didn’t practice agriculture. However owing to changes in ways of obtaining food some bands took to the deliberate method of production of food agriculture.

Basic concepts of settlements are site; situation and history of the place. With regard to site of a place, its topography, altitude, lakes, rivers, type of soil, security, shelter and so on will be observed. Places do not exist in isolation. Elevated place are useful to see the surroundings if anybody is approaching can be identified easily. Historical background is also an important one for people to decide to reside there.

For the sake of livelihoods and migration settlements change. Delhi was the capital for many dynasties for many years. People do not want to stay at their places in rural areas. The people suffer a lot at rural areas because of distress in agriculture. The formers also want to send their children to cities and towns for the sake of education and employment. Sometimes the rural people migrate to urban areas for livelihoods, jobs, or to settle in any constructive work. Many people in cities and towns choose seif employed work. Because of these reasons settlements have been changing.

Question 11.
Explain with examples, How Site, Situation and the History of a place plays a vital role in human settlement?
Answer:
To understand what kind of places attracted settlements, we need to look at these basic concepts.

1. Site
2. Situation
3. The history of the place.

Site: Site refers to the characteristics of the place – its topography, altitude, water characteristics types of soils, security, shelter from natural forces, and so on.

In early settlement periods, places which had favorable water supply and good protection from invasions were preferred. Ex: Chatrapathi Shivaji built a fort inPratapghad, Maharashtra. Situation: Situation describes the connections with other places.
For Example: Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India. The history of the place: Visakhapatnam has a long history. It was ruled by different dynasties during pre-colonial times coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
In fact, cities such as Mumbai and Chennai were further developed by the colonial powers to better exploit the natural resources of India. The fight for Visakhapatnam was for similar reasons. Visakhapatnam as we now know it, is made up of several other places. After the British took it over, its boundaries were redrawn several times and have been constantly expanding.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that when the British people came to India a few dries like Mumbai and Chennai were developed for the sake of exploiting our natural resources.
2. Visakhapatnam is also one of the cities developed like that.
3. Much development is seen in Visakhapatnam once it came under the control of the British.
4. My comments on this paragraph are that the colonial rulers concentrated on their profits and benefits but not the development of India.
5. They did the same in Africa and Asian countries.
6. I conclude with this suggestion that after Independence our rulers should have concentrated on the development of many cities and towns.
7. Now Visakhapatnam is expanding in all comers. Other cities also should be developed similar way.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
As populations increased, there was more specialization – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade in them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements, i.e. towns where people did not work in agriculture expanded.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph, it is understood that the increase in population leads to different professions.
2. Different goods and services are, produced. In cities and towns there is no agriculture but new sources of employment are seen.
3. My opinion on this paragraph is that many new sorts of livelihoods are started.
4. When there is a scope for new profession emerging, the people should acquire new skills based on the new technology.
5. When there is new profession, new goods or services are produced and so market changes its nature.
6. In conclusion I would like to say that when there is much demand one should understand the trend in the society and shift accordingly.
7. For better employment, people need skill. Though they are not educated enough, they should be skilled in some area.
8. In which profession they have skill, they should go for that.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret it.
Some villages also host an annual fair which is a larger market along With many cultural dements. Many events are held including music, dance, theatre, etc. Both the weekly markets and such fairs are also important to plant and animal genetics in the area because local seeds and livestock breeds are traded here. These fairs also often result in intermarriage among people from different villages.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given here the village fairs are very important. Many activities take place there.
2. They play very crucial and key role in the development of the villages and cultural exchanges.
3. Some entertainment programmes are also there.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that the village fairs are useful to the farmers but there is a problem of mediators.
5. Many of the remote villages are not connected to major villages.
6. They still face problems of roads and transportation.
7. Nowadays connectivity is the major theme.
8. It is considered internationally and many of the countries are trying to improve the connectivity.
9. At the village fairs it is necessary to provide various facilities to the farmers those who come from distant places.

Question 15.
Read the paragraph and write your opinion.
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. The population of these urban areas increased over time. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only one-fifth of the growth is due to rural -to – urban migration.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the natural growth within the urban areas is more as the expansion is going on around the cities and towns.
2. When a city or town expands the surrounding villages will be submerged in the city or town.
3. The migration from rural areas is very less.
4. My opinion is that it is not common in all the cities and towns. In some cities and towns it may be correct but in many areas the migrants are more in number.
5. They are coming from rural areas to urban areas. They have different reasons like livelihood, employment, children education, medical services for their chronic patients, dejection in agriculture and other.
6. When all these people came to cities and towns there will be many problems.
7. Government should take care of these problems and find solutions.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
How does urban India contribute to India’s economic development? Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities. There is no major growth of industrial output over the last few decades.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph it is clearly understood that service activities play a crucial and vital role in economic development.
2. The growth of industrial output is very less. It means service sector contributes more than that of the remaining sectors.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that we should think of this situation in India.
4. Normally in an economy, there are three sectors viz, agriculture, industrial and service sec-tors.
5. Many people depend upon agriculture in the past in our country but recently the scene in India is changing.
6. In conclusion, I would like to say that the government should encourage agriculture and indus¬tries also.
7. Many of the people working in service sector are in unorganized sector.
8. They should be taken care of.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
One of the impacts of increased urbanization is the use of materials that either do not degrade or take a long time to do so. This produces waste that has to be disposed off. Where do we put such waste? As urban areas expand, the waste is increasingly pushed to rural areas where they are either just dumped or taken to waste treatment plants.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given here, the effect of urbanization is in many ways. Collection and dumping of wastage and garbage has become a major issue.
2. The expansion of urban areas is increasing day by day. The dumping of waste leads to pollu¬tion in rural areas.
3. My opinion on this paragraph is that there are many reasons for migration and it leads to increasing in urbanization.
4. Many migrants live in temporary settlements and they don’t have shelters. These are not legal places where they live.
5. So they don’t come under regular dwellers of the city or town.
6. I suggest the officials that they arrange sufficient mechanism to collect the waste and poliu- tion free programmes are to be taken up.
7. Dumping in out skirts of towns and cities is not the solution but it creates new problem.
8. The collection is to be properly managed not to pollute the surroundings.

Question 18.
How are slums formed?
Answer:

1. There is growing population in the cities.
2. People who migrate to the city looking for work occupy land without necessary permission and build on it in the way they can afford with no help or facility from anyone.
3. In the plan these places may be demarked for a different purpose. Thus they won’t get the status of colonies.
4. These may not receive many public amenities. People here are poor.
5. Thus slums are formed.
6. When government evict the people from there, the compensation paid may not be sufficient.
7. Again they occupy new location without necessary permission and these slums go on increasing.

Question 19.
What kind of places attract settlement?
Answer:

1. To understand this, we need to look at these basic concepts:
   (i) site(ii) situation (iii) the history of the place.
2. Sites refer to the characteristics of the place its topography, altitude, water characteristics (the places with lakes, rivers, underground water, etc., types of soils, security, shelter from natural forces, and so on.
3. Shivaji chose Pratapgadh because of its altitude from where all the surrounding areas could be seen.
4. Situation describes the connections with other places.
5. Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India.
6. Coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there.

Question 20.
What are the problems of urbanization?
Answer:

1. Increasing urbanization is not only providing opportunities to people and more productivity J but also resulting in many problems.
2. The growing urban population has to be housed. 1
3. It needs water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and many other things. .
4. These result in environmental stress.
5. As vehicle use increases urban air pollution increases causing health problems and localized
   climate change.
6. Improper sewage disposal can also lead to greater threat of infectious diseases.
7. Use of materials that either do not degrade or take a long time to do so.
8. This produces waste that has to be disposed of.

Question 21.
How did the settlements begin? Discuss.
Answer:

1. For about 1.8 lakh years humans lived in bands as hunter-gatherers.
2. They did not practise agriculture.
3. However owing to changes in obtaining food, some bands took to the deliberate production of food-agriculture, some 10,000 years ago.
4. It brought many changes in human lifestyles.
5. People did not have to travel over large areas to obtain food.
6. They could now increasingly stay in one place.
7. As hunter-gatherers, they were nomadic.
8. But as agriculturists, they were increasingly sedentary.
9. Thus the settlements began.

Question 22.
‘Delhi has grown in an unplanned manner.’ Do you agree with this statement?
Answer:

1. In 1951, the population of Delhi was only 20,00,000. Today it is more than 1,60,00,000. During the last 60 years it has grown 8 times.
2. Over decades its attracted people from all parts of India as they migrated in search of jobs and livelihood, etc.
3. As the capital of the country, with the parliament and central government offices, there are people from all parts living in the city.
4. Every city usually has a master plan to design and allocate different types of areas and Delhi had three such plans.
5. But they have not been implemented.
6. On one hand there is growing population in the city and on the other hand there is a long delay In planning and announcing how the areas are to be used.
7. In fact, Delhi has grown in an unplanned manner.

Question 23.
How does the urban settlements contribute to India’s economic development?
Answer:

1. Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities.
2. Most of the poor live in non metropolitan towns work in the unorganized sector.
3. Most of the public enterprises are either located in urban settlements or their surroundings.
4. Most of the state of art equipment is located in urban settlements.
5. Most of the Information Technology industries or parks are operating in urban areas.
6. The exports of many of these contribute a lot to GDP of our country.
7. Thus, the urban settlements contribute to India’s economic development.

Question 24.
Feel that you are living in urban area. Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner complain-ing about the urbanization problems arising due to migration and request to take necessary steps.
Answer:

Sainagar colony,
Vijayawada,
xx xx xxxx.

To
The Commissioner,
Vijayawada Municipal Corporation,
Vijayawada.

Respected sir,

I am Keshava Rao, the resident (H. No. ———–, ) of Bavajipeta. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about the urbanization problems in out locality for your kind consideration and necessary action.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and another waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, an unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to increase the number of workers and take necessary action to make city clean so as to maintain good health in our locality.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………,
………………………….

Question 25.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. The only river which is flowing through the Rajasthan State.
   Answer:
   Luni
2. The state which has Malabar coast.
   Answer:
   Kerala
3. The state which has Utkal coast.
   Answer:
   Odisa
4. The capital of India.
   Answer:
   Delhi
5. Godavari Delta.
6. Kaveri Delta.
7. Mahanadi Delta.
8. The Drainage area of the River Ganga.
9. Bhimbedka
   Answer:
   MP (Near – Bhopal)
10. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport.
    Answer:
    Hyderabad.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Transportation – The Circulatory System Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 3rd Lesson Transportation – The Circulatory System

10th Class Biology 3rd Lesson Transportation – The Circulatory System Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
What is transport system? How does this help to the organism?
(OR)
What is the importance of transport system in the organisms?
Answer:
Transport system: The system which transports the material that is needed to organism is called transport system or circulatory system.
Importance :

1. The system supplies O₂ to parts of the body and also recollects the CO₂ which is excretory product in life process.
2. It supplies food materials to all parts of the body.
3. Hormones can travel through circulatory system.
4. It also helps in regulation of body temperature.
5. It collects the waste materials from parts of the body.
6. It has antibodies to protect our body from pathogens.
7. It helps in maintaining osmatic pressure in the cells.
8. In plant it transports the water through xylem and food materials through phloem.

Question 2.
What is the relationship between blood and plasma?
(OR)
What are the differences between blood and plasma.
Answer:

Question 3.
Which type of blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
(OR)
Which blood vessels carry blood from heart to body parts?
Answer:

1. The rigid vessels are called arteries which originate from the heart and supply blood to various organs in the body.
2. The largest artery is the aorta which arises from the left ventricle supplies oxygenated blood to all parts of the body except lungs.
3. The relatively smaller one is pulmonary artery supplies deoxygenated blood to lungs.
4. A pair of coronary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the muscles of heart.

Question 4.
What are the three main types of blood vessels in the body?
Answer:
The three main types of blood vessels in the human body are:

1. Arteries
2. Veins and
3. Capillaries.

Question 5.
Which is the largest artery in the body? Why is it big in size?
Answer:

1. The Aorta is the largest artery in the body.
2. It is big in size because it has to supply oxygenated blood from heart to various organs in the body from head to fingers and toes.

Question 6.
Which blood vessel carries blood for oxygenation?
Answer:

1. The PULMONARY ARTERY originates in the right ventricle. Outside the heart, it divides into two branches – RIGHT and LEFT PULMONARY ARTERIES.
2. They carry deoxygenated blood to right and left lungs for oxygenation.

Question 7.
Name the structures which are present in veins and lymph ducts and absent in arteries.
Answer:

1. The structures that are present in the veins and lymph ducts are VALVES.
2. These are absent in arteries.
3. They are one-way valves. If the blood moves in the opposite direction, the valves closed and avoid the backward flow of blood in veins and lymph ducts.

Question 8.
Answer:
What is the use of platelets?

1. Platelets help in clotting of blood at the site of injury thus it controls the loss of blood from the wound.
2. When blood flows out, the platelets release an enzyme called THROMBOK1NASE.
3. This acts on another substance called PROTHROMBIN converting it into THROMBIN.
4. Thrombin acts on FIBRINOGEN, converting it into FIBRIN.
5. The blood cells entangle in the fibrin fibres forming the CLOT.
6. 

Question 9.
Write differences between
a) Systole – Diastole
b) Veins – Arteries
c) Xylem – Phloem
Answer:
a) Systole – Diastole:

b) Veins – Arteries:

c) Xylem – Phloem:

Question 10.
Explain the way how plants get water by osmosis through root hairs.
(OR)
Explain the mechanism of entry of water into root hair by osmosis with the help of a diagram.
(OR)
Explain the process of water entry into the root hair in plants with the help of diagram.
(OR)
In plants, what is the role of root hair in the absorbtion of water and minerals from the soil?
Answer:

1. Root hair plays an important role in absorption of water by osmosis.
   
2. Root hairs grow out into the spaces between the soil particles and that the hairs are surrounded by moisture.
3. The Cytoplasm of the cells in root hairs is called cell sap. It has dissolved salts.
4. The cell sap of the root hair is more concentrated than that of the concentration of salt solution present in the soil.
5. The cell membrane of root hair acts as semi-permeable membrane.
6. It separates the cell sap from the salt solution of the soil.
7. Therefore water passes into the vacuole of the root hair by osmosis.
8. The entry of water dilutes the contents of the root hairs vacuole. So it becomes more diluted than the neighboring cells.
9. Water passes into the neighboring cell which becomes diluted, finally water enters the xylem vessels.
10. As there are vast number of root hairs and root cells involved, pressure in the xylem vessels develops which forces the water upwards.
11. This total pressure is known as root pressure.
12. Root pressure is not the main cause of movement of water in xylem but it is certainly one factor.

Question 11.
What is root pressure? How is it useful to the plant?
Answer:
The pressure exerted by the root hair while absorbing water from the soil is called root pressure.

1. Soil water concentration is more dilute than that of the cell sap in the root hair, therefore water passes into vacuole of the root hair by osmosis.
2. The entry of water dilutes the cell sap so it become more dilute than it’s neighbouring cells.
3. So, water passed into the neighbouring cell which in turn becomes diluted, finally water enters the xylem vessels.
4. As there are vast number of roots hairs and root cells involved, pressure in the xylem vessels develops which forces the water upwards.

Question 12.
Phloem is a food source for some animals. How can you justify the statement ?
Answer:

1. Certain mammals scratching the bark of trees to get the food stored in the phloem, especially during hard winters when food is scarce.
2. Voles do this to young saplings at ground level and rabbits can do much damage to older ones.
3. Aphids absorb so much sugar from the phloem that they cannot assimilate all of it and it passes out of the anus as a sticky syrup called honeydew.
4. Grey squirrels too do great damage particularly to beech and sycamore, and for this reason, in some parts it is impossible to grow these trees as a crop.

Question 13.
Read the given para and name the parts of heart.

We have observed that the heart is divided into four chambers by muscular structure. Any structure that divides two chambers is known as septum. Now let us try to name the septa present in the heart.

A) The septum that divides the two atria can be named as ———-.
Answer: Interatrial septum.

B) The septum that divides the two ventricles can be named as ———-.
Answer: Interventricular septum.

C) The septum that divides the atrium and ventricle can be named as ———-.
Answer: Interatrioventricular septum.

The holes that connect two chambers are called apertures. Let us try to name the apertures which connect the atria and ventricles.

D) The aperture that is connecting the right atrium and right ventricle can be named as ———-.
Answer: Right atrioventricular aperture.

E) The aperture that is connecting the left atrium and left ventricle can be named as ———-.
Answer: Left atrioventricular aperture.

Any structure that closes an aperture, and allows one way movement of materials is called valve. Now let us name the valves that are present in the chambers of the heart.

F) The valve that is present between left atrium and left ventricle can be named as ———-.
Answer: Left atrioventricular valve (Bicuspid or Mitral valve).

G) The valve that is present between right atrium and right ventricle can be named as ———-.
Answer: Right atrioventricular valve (Tricuspid valve).

Question 14.
If the valves in veins of the legs fail to stop the flow of blood, what could be the consequences of this failure?
Answer:

1. If the valves in veins of the legs fail to stop flow of blood, the blood accumulates in the veins and causes swelling or inflammation and more clotting.
2. Clotting can block or slow blood flow through the veins raising the blood pressure and possibly causing more damage.
3. The swelling of the veins also results in varicose veins and spider veins.
4. If varicose veins are untreated for long time, it leads to venous ulceration.

Question 15.
What will happen if cell sap of root hair cells contain high concentration of ions?
Answer:

1. The cell membrane of root hair is a semipermeable membrane. It allows the movement of molecules from low concentration to high concentration.
2. Cell sap of root hair cells contain high concentration of ions and salts than the water present around it in the soil.
3. As a result, water flows from the soil into cell sap of root hairs.
4. From the root hairs water pass from cell to cell by osmosis through the epidermis, root cortex, endodermis and reach the root xylem.

Question 16.
John prepared stethoscope with paper cup and plastic tube. Write down the procedure of preparation.
Answer:
Aim : To prepare a paper cup stethoscope
Apparatus: Three paper cups, plastic tube, scissors, T – bend and thread.
Procedure:

1. Take three paper cups and put a small hole in the bottom of the cups.
   
2. Take a T – bend and arrange it in the back side of one cup as hanging.
3. T – bend is connected to plastic pipe, by the two sides and arrange the paper cups.
4. Put the two upper cups at your ears and bottom one is on the friend’s chest.
5. Now you can hear the sound of heart beat.

Question 17.
How can you prove that the water is transport through the xylem?
Answer:
Aim: To observe the path of water through a plant.
Apparatus: Balsam plant, beaker, Eosine solution, stand.
Procedure:

1. A leafy green shoot of Balsam plant with a transparent stem is placed in Eosine solution (It is red dye resulting from the action of bromine).
   
2. After sometime red streaks appear in the stem and veins of leaves become red.
3. If a transverse section is cut through the root stem and leaf, the tissue that has been stained is xylem tissue.
4. This shows that water moves up the root into the stem and leaves in the xylem tracheids and vessels.
5. The other tissues remain in the same colour.

Conclusion: The xylem tissue is responsible for the upward movement of water through the plant.

Question 18.
What is your inference about experiments with aphids?
Answer:

1. Biologists studied about food transportation in plants with the help of aphids.
   
2. Aphids feed on the plant juices of young stems.
3. Aphid uses its long needle like organ proboscis to extract plant juices from phloem tissue.
4. The proboscis of the Aphid only penetrates up to a phloem sieve tube.
5. It is found experimentally that the contents of the phloem sieve tubes are under slight pressure the fluid slowly comes out from the cut end of the proboscis in the form of drops.
6. These drops were collected and analysed and it contain sugars and amino acids.
7. Aphids absorb so much sugar from the phloem that they cannot assimilate all of it and it excretes out of the body as sticky syrup called honey dew.

Question 19.
Collect information about blood pressure of your school teachers or your neighbours and prepare a report on their health problems.
Answer:

Question 20.
Draw a block diagram to explain single and double circulation. Write differences between them.
(OR)
What is single circulation and double circulation? Write differences between them with the help of diagrams.
Answer:

1. Single circulation: In a blood circulation the blood passes through the heart only once. This type of circulation is called single circulation and the heart is called single circuit. Ex: Fish
   
2. Double circulation: Blood passes twice through the heart. Once between heart and lungs and second time from heart to body parts. Such circulation is called double circulation and the heart is called double circuit heart.
   Ex: Frog and other higher animals.
   

3. Single Circulation	Double Circulation
   1. Found only in fishes.	1. Found in amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals.
   2. Blood passes only once through the heart to supply once to the body.	2. Blood passes twice through the heart to supply once to the body.
   3. Only deoxygenated blood passes through the heart.	3. Mixed blood (Oxygenated and deoxygenated) pass through the heart.
   4. It is less efficient in function as the oxygenated blood flows at a low pressure which decreases the rate of oxygen supply.	4. It is most efficient in function as the blood flows at a higher pressure which increases the rate of oxygen supply.

Question 21.
Prepare a block diagram showing from water absorption by roots to transpiration by leaf.
Answer:

Question 22.
What do you want to compare with the transportation in blood vessels in man?
(OR)
What can circulatory system in man be compared with?
Answer:
I compare the circulatory system in man with motor water system in our houses, as below.
Heart – motor                                        Blood vessels – pipes
Blood – water                                         Tank – body parts

Question 23.
How do you feel about transportation of water in huge trees?
(OR)
How do you appreciate the movement of water through xylem in tall trees?
Answer:

1. It is a wonder to see the transportation of water in huge trees.
2. It is surprising how the root pressure and the transportation pull are responsible for the water to reach such heights against the gravitation force.
3. It is a great mechanism evolved in the beautiful plants which give us pleasure.
4. We can really appreciate the creation done by God towards plants and their functions for mankind.

Question 24.
Prepare a cartoon on heart beating.
Answer:

Question 25.
After reading this lesson what precautions you would suggest to your elders about edema?
(OR)
What is edema? How it occurs? What are the precautions required not to be affected with edema?
Answer:
Precautions I would suggest to my elders about edema:

1. Edema is abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitium which is located beneath the skin or one or more cavities of the body.
2. Avoid sitting and standing for too long. It promotes fluid flow into the legs and feet.
3. Hence I suggest elders getting up and stretching the legs once in a while travelling long in bus and trains.
4. Leg exercise and feet moving and using leg muscles help pump excess fluids back to the heart.
5. People suffer with edema can keep the legs elevated above the level of heart for 30 minutes a day or 3 or 4 times a day.
6. Massage the edema effected area with firm pressure towards the heart which helps to move the excess fluid away from swelling.
7. Reducing the amount of salt in the diet may prevent swelling problems from reoccuring.
8. Avoid hot baths, hot showers when swelling occurs.

Choose the correct answer.

1. The term cardiac refers to which organ in the body? [ ]
   A) Heart
   B) Vein
   C) Lymph
   D) Capillary
   Answer: A
2. On which side of the human heart is low in oxygen? [ ]
   A) Left ventricle
   B) Right ventricle
   C) Left atrium
   D) Right atrium
   Answer: B & D
3. Which structures of the heart control the flow of the blood? [ ]
   A) Arteries
   B) Veins
   C) Valves
   D) Capillaries
   Answer: C
4. Which of the following opinions is correct? [ ]
   A) Ravi said xylem and phloem cells arranged one upon the other to form a tube like structure.
   B) John said xylem and phloem are not separate tube like structures.
   C) Salma said, xylem and phloem cells connect together to form tube like structure.
   D) Hari said because of its shape they said to be tube like structure.
   Answer: C
5. An aphid pierces its proboscis into the ———- to get plant juices. [ ]
   A) Xylem
   B) Phloem
   C) Cambium
   D) Vascular bundle
   Answer: B

10th Class Biology 3rd Lesson Transportation – The Circulatory System InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 57

Question 1.
Answer the following after reading the experiment conducted by William Harvey.

1. In which blood vessels valves are found? What do you think is the function of the valves in them?
   Answer:
   Valves are present in the veins. If the blood moves in one direction, the valves fold towards the walls of the vessel, so that the blood can pass without trouble. If the blood moves in the opposite direction, the valves close.
2. Why do subcutaneous blood vessels bulge on the side away from the heart when the hand is tied?
   Answer:
   When the hand is tied the blood which is passing away from heart is stopped. So the subcutaneous blood vessels bulge.
3. The deep seated blood vessels (the arteries) bulge on the side towards the heart when tied. What do you understand from it?
   Answer:
   The blood which is passing towards the heart is stopped so the blood accumulates in the blood vessels and they bulge.
4. There are valves in the heart between atria and ventricles. Is the purpose of valves in the veins and arteries same ?
   Answer:
   The valves between each atrium and its ventricles are one way valves. They allow the blood to flow from the atrium to the ventricle without any hindrance.
   The purpose is same, back flow of blood is stopped.
5. Arteries are deeply seated in the body? Whereas veins are superficial why?
   Answer:
   1. Arteries are deep seated to prevent them from any damage. As arteries carry oxygenated blood, a damage to them results in loss of the oxygenated blood.
   2. Arteries lie deeper in the body because it helps them to contain high pressure so that they can carry blood from the heart to all the body parts.
   3. Because the deeper the arteries are in the body, the warmer the blood is. The warmer the blood, the more oxygen the haemoglobin is able to carry.
   4. Veins are located superficially as the pressure inside them is very low and contain deoxygenated blood.
      Also their superficial location helps in efficient flow of blood in them by muscular contraction and relaxation in our body.

Question 2.
After reading the experiments by Harvey fill in the following table. Use the clues/ options given in the first column.
Answer:

Question 3.
How many times did your pointer touch body parts in fig – 11(a) and (b)?
Answer:
One time.

Question 4.
How many times did your pointer touch the heart in fig – 11(a) and (b)?
Answer:
a) One time
b) Two times

Question 5.
How many times did the pointer touch respiratory organs in fig – 11(a) and (b)?
Answer:
One time.

Question 6.
Why do our legs swell?
Answer:
After overnight journey, in sitting position without moving, we feel that our feet (the lower part of the legs) swollen. This is called edema.
Because the blood circulation becomes slow in the lower portion and causes swelling.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 64

Question 7.
Is there anything like that in plants which corresponds to circulatory system?
Answer:
Yes.
Vascular bundles are present in the plant parts which have xylem and phloem. These are responsible for the transportation of materials in plats.
Xylem transports water from roots to the leaves. Phloem transports food prepared by leaves to all the parts of the plant.

Question 8.
What is the mechanism behind this?
Answer:
Root absorb water due to Root Pressure and transpiration.

Question 9.
Are roots directly in contact with water?
Answer:
Yes. The root hairs are directly contact with water.

Question 10.
How is water absorbed?
Answer:
Water is absorbed due to Osmosis.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 66

Question 11.
Is there any increase in the water level?
Answer:
Yes. There is an increase in the water level.

Question 12.
What is the role of xylem?
Answer:
Water absorbed by roots is transported to all the parts of the plant by Xylem

Think and Discuss

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 58

Question 1.
Artery walls are very strong and elastic. Why?
Answer:

1. When the blood enters with a pressure into arteries the walls will stretch.
2. This enables the arteries to withstand the increase in the pressure, without bursting. So the walls of the arteries are very strong and elastic.

Question 2.
Why do we compare arteries like tree which divides into smaller and smaller branches?
Answer:

1. Arteries carry oxygenated blood to the tissues.
2. The largest aorta after comes outside of the heart, it divides into small branches called arteries.
3. These arteries still divide into small arterioles and supply oxygenated blood to the tissues which are present throughout the body.
4. It looks like a tree with smaller and smaller branches. So we compare arteries like tree.

Question 3.
The lumen size is bigger in vein when compared with artery. Why?
Answer:

1. Veins are generally large in diameter, carry more blood volume.
2. Arteries are general small in diameter when compared with veins.
3. The walls of veins are more thick when compared with the walls of arteries.
4. So the lumen’s bigger in vein when compared with artery.

10th Class Biology 3rd Lesson Transportation – The Circulatory System Activities

Activity – 1

How can you find your pulse rate?
Answer:
1) Keep your index and middle fingers on your wrist below the thumb as shown in the figure.
2) You feel something pushing your fingers rhythmically up and down.
3) Count the rhythm also called pulse rate per minute.
4) Now stand up and jog for one minute standing at the same place. Note the pulse for a minute.

a) What did you observe? Is the pulse rate same in both conditions?
Answer:
No the pulse rate is not same in both condition. There is increase in pulse rate after jogging for one minute.

Activity – 2

Now observe the pulse rate of students of your class.
Try to observe your pulse rhythm in other ways such as climbing stairs, running etc. Take your shirt button and insert a matchstick and place it on your wrist.

1. What did you find?
   Answer:
   We find the button placed on the wrist moves up and down rhythmically
2. When do you think that our pulse rate goes up?
   Answer:
   The pulse rate goes up, when we climb up stairs or run, etc.
3. What does the pulse rate show?
   Answer:
   There is a relationship between the pulse rate and the heart beat. The pulse rate shows the heart beat.

Activity – 3

How do you measure the Heart beat and pulse rate at rest?
Answer:

1. I will make a paper tube 10 inch long and one inch in diameter.
2. Keep one end of it on the chest of a friend on a point in the centre around 6 inches below from his or her neck.
3. I keep my ear at the other end.
4. Listen carefully and count the beats for a minute.
5. Also find my friend’s pulse rate. Then 1 will note down my observations at least 10 students of my class in the following.
   

   Name of the student	Heart beat at rest/minute	Pulse rate at rest/minute
   Eswar	72	72
   Venkateswar Rao	70	70
   Gopinath	69	69
   Yashwanth	71	71
   Srinivas	72	72
   Manasa	68	68
   Kamala	70	70
   Lakshmi	71	71
   Kavitha	69	69
   Latha	70	70

6. Observation: It is found that the heart beat and the pulse rate are same in every movement.
   Prepare histogram between persons and heart beat and pulse rate at rest as shown in the sample graph. Here (a) bar indicates heart beat,
   (b) bar indicates pulse rate.
   X-axis: Name of the student Y-axis: Heart beat, pulse rate per minute.
   

Activity – 4

Aim: Observation of the internal structure of the mammalian heart.
Material required: Since the structure of all the mammalian hearts is similar, we take the sheep’s or goat’s heart for our observation. For this, we need the following materials.
Material required: Freshly collected specimen of heart of sheep/goat from the butcher, soda straw, sharp and long blade/ scalpel, tray and a jug of water, dissection scissors and forceps.
Procedure: Before coming to the class wash the heart thoroughly so that, blood is completely drained from the chambers of heart.
Take the soda straws and insert them into the stumps of the blood vessels.
Note your observations as you proceed.

1. How many layers are covering the heart?
   Answer:
   Two thin, transparent layers are covering the heart.
2. What is the shape of the heart?
   Answer:
   Heart is a pear shaped structure, triangle in outline, wider at the anterior end and narrower at the posterior end.
3. How many large blood vessel stumps are attached to the heart?
   Answer:
   There are five large blood vessels attached to the heart.
4. Which end of the heart is broader and which end is narrow?
   Answer:
   The anterior end of the heart is broader and the posterior end is narrow.
   Observe the internal structure – observe the wall of the heart.
5. Is the thickness of the wall of the heart uniform throughout?
   Answer:
   No, the thickness of the wall of the heart is not uniform throughout. Atria are thin and ventricles are thick.
6. How many chambers are there in the heart?
   Answer:
   There are four chambers in the heart. They are right atrium, left atrium, left ventricle and right ventricle.
7. Are all the chambers of the same size?
   Answer:
   All the chambers of the heart are not of the same size. Left atrium and ventricle are smaller when compared to that of right atrium and ventricle.
8. What other differences could you observe between the chambers?
   Answer:
   Left auricle and ventricle are smaller than right auricle and right ventricle.
9. Do you find any specific observation in between two chambers?
   Answer:
   Yes, I can find some specific observation in between two chambers.
10. Are all the chambers connected to each other?
    Answer:
    No, only atria and ventricles are connected to each other.
11. How are they connected to each other ? How are they separated?
    Answer:
    Auricles are connected to ventricles by valves and are separated by septae (septum).
12. How many blood vessels are attached to the heart?
    Answer:
    Five blood vessels are attached to the heart.
    They are
    1. Aorta,
    2. Pulmonary artery,
    3. Pulmonary vein,
    4. Superior venacava,
    5. Inferior venacava.
13. Are all the blood vessels rigid? How many of them are rigid?
    Answer:
    The rigid blood vessels are called arteries. They are
    1. The largest artery Aorta
    2. Pulmonary artery – which carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs.
14. Do you think that the stiffness / rigidity of blood vessel is something to do with circulation?
    Answer:
    The walls of the arteries are stiff/rigid. They are made up of muscle fibre and are elastic. When heart pumps blood into the arteries, the blood enters with a pressure into the arteries. Their walls will stretch and this enables the arteries to withstand the increase in the pressure without bursting.

Activity – 5

Write your observation of blood flow in arteries and veins.
Answer:
a) Aim: Observation of blood flow in arteries and veins.
Procedure:

1. Sit on a table with one leg dangling and the other resting on it so that the back of one knee rests on the knee of the other.
2. After some time we feel the leg which is on top give a series of small movements with each heart beat.
3. Repeat it for a long time.

Observation: The blood flow reduces to the leg and so develop “pins and needles”.
Conclusion: The blood flow from arteries to legs slowed down results pins and needles.

b) Swing the arm round several times to fill the veins with blood, hold the arm vertically downwards and gently press your finger along a prominent vein – stroking it in the reverse direction to the blood flow.
Observation: We can see the swellings.
Conclusion: Veins have to carry blood from body parts to the heart. When the arm is hold tightly blood is stopped in the veins there forms swelling.

Activity – 6

How is water absorbed? Explain with an experiment.
Answer:
Aim: To show that water is absorbed by the root hairs.
Required material : Mustard seedlings, filter paper slide and cover slip, a drop of water, microscope, hand lens.
Procedure: We need to germinate some mustard seeds. Examine some mustard seeds which have been grown on wet filter paper. Observe the mass of fine threads coming from the root by using hand lens. These are root hairs through which water enters the plant.
Gently squash a portion of the root hair between the slide and cover slip in a drop of water and examine under a microscope.
Note the thinness of the walls of the root hairs. The water enters the root hairs and passes inwards from cell to cell until it gets into the xylem vessels. Osmosis plays an important role in this.
Observation: It is observed that water is present in the xylem vessels.
Conclusion: The root hairs absorbs water with mineral salts into the transport tissue called xylem vessels by the process of osmosis.

Activity – 7

What is root pressure? Explain with an experiment.
Answer:
Aim: To demonstrate root pressure in plants.
Apparatus : Potted plant with stem cut, rubber tube, glass tube, clamp.
Procedure:

1. Take a regularly watered potted plant and cut the stem portion 1 cm above the ground level.
   
2. Then connect a glass tube by means of a strong rubber tubing as shown in the figure.
3. The size of glass tube should be equal to the size of the stem.
4. Take care while joining tube and stem being bound tightly, water cannot escape from the tube.
5. Now pour some water in the glass tube until water level can be seen above the rubber tube.
6. Mark the level of water (M₁) in tube.
7. Keep your arrangement aside for 2 to 3 hours.
8. Then observe and mark the water level (M₂) in the tube.

Observation: There is increase in the level.
Result: The raise in the water level is due to the root pressure created in the plant.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 10 Globalisation.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 10th Lesson Globalisation

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand the term I.B.R.D.
Answer:
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development. (OR) World Bank.

Question 2.
Explain SEZ.
Answer:

1. The full form of SEZ is Special Economic Zone.
2. They are meant for free establishment of industries.

Question 3.
What is the difference between foreign trade and foreign investment ?
Answer:
Foreign trade Foreign trade is any kind of trade (exports and imports) with other countries of the world.
Foreign investment: Private capital invest-ment by firms of one country into those of another country is called foreign investment.

Question 4.
Expand WTO.
Answer:
World Trade Organisation.

Question 5.
What is the Arab Spring?
Answer:
In 2013 several nations in Western Asia and Northern Africa like Tunisia, Egypt was influenced by each other’s revolutions and uprooting of dictators. This was called ‘Arab Spring’ in the media.

Question 6.
Mention any two factors which led to Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization is a process of connecting countries across the globe.
Technology, Liberalisation of foreign trade and investment, foreign investment policy, WTO and other global institutions led to this globalization.

Question 7.
What is an MNC?
Answer:
An MNC is a multinational corporation, owns and controls production in more than one nation.

Question 8.
What do you mean by foreign investment?
Answer:
Investments made by MNCs is called foreign investment.

Question 9.
What is the investment?
Answer:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment.

Question 10.
What is foreign trade?
Answer:
Foreign trade is any kind of trade with other countries of the world.

Question 11.
What do you mean by trade barrier?
Answer:
It is called a barrier since some restrictions have been set up by the Indian government on foreign trade and foreign investment. It can be tax on imports.

Question 12.
What is Globalisation?
Answer:
Globalization is a major change that occurred across the globe in the late 20th century. This has political, cultural as well as economic dimensions.

Question 13.
What was called ‘Arab Spring’?
Answer:
In 2013 several nations in Western Asia and Northern Africa like Tunisia, Egypt was influenced by each other’s revolutions and uprooting of dictators. This was called ‘Arab Spring’ in the media.

Question 14.
Where do MNCs set up offices and factories for production? Give reason.
Answer:
MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources.
This is done so that cost of production is low and the MNCs can earn greater profits.

Question 15.
Define Economic reforms of NEP 1991.
Answer:
The economic policy adopted by the Government of India since July, 1991 is termed as new economic policy or economic reforms.

Question 16.
What is Privatisation?
Answer:
Privatization means reduced government intervention and increased private investment in production activities.

Question 17.
What is Outsourcing?
Answer:
Outsourcing means going out to a source outside the company to buy regular service.

Question 18.
How many countries are currently members of the WTO?
Answer:
The WTO has 164 member countries as on 29th July 2016.

Question 19.
In which year, the government started to remove barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment?
Answer:
In 1991.

Question 20.
Why are Chinese toys popular in the world?
Answer:
Chinese toys are comparatively cheaper and have new designs. So they are popular in the world.

Question 21.
Why are the MNCs making investments in India?
Answer:
In India labour cost is very low when compared to rest of the world. So, many MNCs are making investments in India.

Question 22.
Which organization lay emphasis on liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investment in India?
Answer:
The WTO.

Question 23.
When was the WTO established?
Answer:
The WTO was established On 01-01-1995.

Question 24.
Where is the main head office of the WTO?
Answer:
It is in Geneva – Switzerland.

Question 25.
What is the purpose of foreign trade?
Answer:
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. They can sell their products in other countries also.

Question 26.
State a positive aspect of India’s development strategy prior to 1991.
Answer:
The strategy has helped India in creating a large industrial base and an increase in industrial production.

Question 27.
What do you mean by export quotas?
Answer:
For the protection of local consumers, the government restricts giving limit of export of particular goods. This is called an export quota.

Question 28.
What is an import quota?
Answer:
For the protection of local manufacturers from the competition of producers of another country, the government imposes taxes on imported goods. This is called an import quota.

Question 29.
State any two impacts of liberalization and globalization in India.
Answer:

1. There are better services in the communication sector.
2. Many food processing companies have taken over the market.

Question 30.
State the new strategies of NEP.
Answer:

1. Liberalization
2. Privatization
3. Globalization.

Question 31.
What is meant by modernization of the economy?
Answer:
The NEP accords top priority to modern techniques and technologies. It also promotes computers and electronics industries. It has made the Indian industries dynamic.

Question 32.
What is Joint Venture?
Answer:
At times MNCs set up production jointly with the local companies of the countries where they established their MNC operations.

Question 33.
Expand W.T.O. How does it work?
Answer:

1. WTO-World Trade Organisation. It lays emphasis on the liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investments.
2. It was established in 1995 with headquarters in Geneva – Switzerland.

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the effects of Globalisation in India.
Answer:

1. The impact of globalization in India is not uniform.
2. It has benefited well-off consumers.
3. It has also benefited the producers with skill, education and huge wealth.
4. Certain services enabled with technology have expanded.
5. Some new jobs are created.
6. Some large Indian companies have grown as M.N.C.s.
7. On the other hand, most of the small producers and workers are not happy with globalization.

Question 2.
Estimate the impact of globalization on local industries of India.
Answer:
Impact of globalization:
Positive effect:

1. Several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition.
2. They have invested in newer technology and production methods and raised their production standards.
3. Some have gained from a successful collaboration with foreign companies.

Negative effect:

1. Some of the small industries have been hit hard due to competition.
2. Several units have been shut down rendering many workers jobless.

Question 3.
“Globalisation by connecting countries results in greater competition among producers.” Justify the statement.
Answer:

1. Globalization is a major change that occurred across the globe in the late 20th century. This has political, cultural as well as economic dimensions.
2. An MNC does different operations related to its business at different locations across the globe.
3. An MNC is able to take advantage of cost-benefit and also of easier access to important markets.
4. There is a greater choice before the consumers who now enjoy the improved quality and lower prices for several products.
5. Competition held between local producers and foreign companies.

Question 4.
Write about the problems of Urbanization.
Answer:
Problems of urbanization:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to the housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population affects agricultural production due to a shortage of work¬ers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problems will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 5.
Give four reasons to the factors that helped Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization means interconnecting the markets and countries also. Factors that helped globalization are:

1. Technology: The development in Information and Communication Technology have been even more remarkable and rapid.
   Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalization process.
2. Transportation: As a result, goods are delivered faster across long distances at lower costs. The Internet also allows us to send instant electronic mail and talk across the world at negligible costs.
3. Liberalization of Foreign Trade: With the liberalization of trade, businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export.
4. Liberalization of Foreign Investment: Due to this so many companies are going to invest on new products.
5. Political climate: We must remember that political decisions are taken in a particular context, which accounts for the economic and technological change that has already taken place.

Question 6.
How are the Indian companies benefited from Globalisation at present?
Answer:
Benefit for Indian companies with globalization at present

1. Invested in newer technology and production methods
2. Raised their production standards
3. Gained from collaboration with foreign companies

Question 7.
What will be the consequences of Globalisation, if it spreads to all sectors in future?
Answer:
More products will be available if globalization process is continued and spread. Quality of goods will be increased prices come down. Foreign investment is increased. Many new jobs will come up. IT services will be increased. Technology will be more used. Small scale industries will be closed. Culture and nationalism are also affected. Soil lose its fertility.

Question 8.
What do you understand by globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is a process associating with increasing openness, growing economic independence and deepening economic integration with the world economy. In other words, it means opening up of the domestic economy for foreign countries.

Question 9.
What is the role of media in ‘Arab Spring’?
Answer:
Media played a crucial role during the Arab Spring. Television Channels that were owned and run by people from other countries supported such mobilization which resulted in regulating the powers of local leaders. While events like Civil War or natural disasters like Tsunami are discussed within the national boundaries they also receive support and sympathy from around the world.

Question 10.
Give a picture of ‘Production across countries before large MNCs’.
Answer:
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organized within countries. Raw materials, food grains and finished products only crossed the boundaries of these countries. Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food grains and imported finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This was before large multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene.

Question 11.
What is important regarding MNCs?
Answer:
MNCs not only sell their finished products globally but more important, the goods and services are produced globally. As a result, production is organized in increasingly complex ways. The production process is divided into small parts and spread out across the globe.

Question 12.
“Previously important decisions regarding the value of currency were taken by sovereign governments are today made by market player and forces”. Comment with an example.
Answer:

1. Previously important decisions regarding the value of currency were taken by sovereign governments are today made by market players and forces.
2. In fact many of the MNCs have wealth exceeding the entire budgets of the developing country governments.
3. With such enormous wealth, imagine the power and the influence of these MNCs.
4. This is how the decision making powers of sovereign governments are at a risk.

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the influence of globalization on the Indian economic system? What are the advantages of extending globalization to India? Express your opinion.
Answer:

1. The Globalization has benefited both the customers and the industrialists.
2. There are greater choices for the customers, who now enjoying quality items at lower prices.
3. As such, their standard of living is improved.
4. Among producer and workers, the influence has not been uniform.
5. The MNCs have invested in Indian Companies.
6. New jobs have been created and local companies supplying raw materials etc. to these companies prospered.
7. Top Indian companies have been benefited as new technology is implemented.
8. Some large Indian companies emerged as MNCs.
9. The Globalization has also created new opportunities for companies providing services.
10. Besides, a host of services, such as data entry, accounting, engineering etc. are now done cheaply in India.

Question 2.
Do you support or oppose the setting up of the Special Economic Zones? Why?
Answer:
I strongly oppose the setting up of Special Economic Zones:
The reasons:

1. Accumulation of land for SEZs disturb the livelihood of agricultural dependents.
2. SEZs are not offering as much employment as they have assured.
3. They disturb the ecological balance in certain cases.

(OR)

I support the setting up of Special Economic Zones:
The reasons:

1. They provide more employment opportunities.
2. They provide world-class infrastructural facilities in a particular place.
3. They attract foreign investments and help to the establishment of industries.

Question 3.
“Among producers and workers, the impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Write your opinions on it.
Answer:

1. The benefits of globalisation have been unevenly distributed.
2. It has benefited the producers with huge wealth and well-off consumers.
3. But the small producers and workers have seen their employment and workers’ rights erode.
4. Globalisation should be fair. It has to create opportunities for all.
5. The government has to play a major role in making this possible.
6. The government has to ensure that labour laws are properly implemented and the workers get their rights.

Question 4.
Explain the factors that have enabled Globalisation.
Answer:

1. Technology has been improved rapidly.
2. Due to this, many revolutionary changes occurred in the fields of production, trade and especially in information and communication.
3. Nowadays computer and internet has made the world a hamlet.
4. After 1991, the barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent in India.
5. This had speeded up the process of globalisation in India.
6. The policies implemented by international organisations like WTO, promoted the interests of MNCs, all over the world.

Question 5.
Explain with examples, how small and cottage industries are extinct because of multinational companies.
Answer:
Small and cottage industries are going the extinct because of multinational companies due to the following reasons.

1. Small industries are not having the capacity to compete with M.N.C.’s
2. Imported goods quality is high and the cost is low.
3. People are attracted to machine-made goods. But cottage industries are not following.

Example:
a) Basket making:

1. Small industries did not get good quality of plastic, because its cost is high.
2. Instead of traditional baskets MNC’s imported steel and metal baskets.

b) Weaving:

1. Small and cottage industries using old traditional methods for weaving, only handlooms.
2. MNC’s using power looms for weaving and using machines and imported machine-made cloth.

Question 6.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of Multi-National Companies.
Answer:
Advantages and disadvantages of Multinational Companies :
Advantages:

1. Competition among countries increased.
2. Quality improvement.
3. The decrease in prices.
4. Increase in production.
5. Increase in access of goods and services.
6. Development in research and technology.
7. Increase in employment opportunities.

Disadvantages:

1. The decline in small scale industries.
2. No employment opportunities for unskilled labourers.
3. Agriculture is affected.
4. The environment is affected.
5. The exploitation of natural resources.
6. Value of currency is determined internationally.
7. Indigenous languages and culture is affected.

Question 7.
How can flexibility in labour laws support the present companies?
Answer:

1. Flexibility in labour laws can help the companies to decrease their production cost by employing labourers only for a short period of time when there is need instead of employing them for long period of time or yearly basis.
2. By easing upon labour laws, company heads can negotiate wages and terminate employment, depending on market conditions.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

The developments in information and communication technology have been even more remarkable and rapid. Telecommunication facilities are used to contact one another around the world to access information instantly and to communicate from remote areas.

Answer:
The given paragraph is about developments in technology especially with regard to information and communication technology. It has various effects on society and made the task of many people easy.

In the fast-growing world, every field is being updated and upgraded. There are so many reasons for these changes in technology. Due to globalization, getting and sending information should be fast. Email, Google, Internet, Wikipedia all these made our task easy. People also changed their lifestyles. Even in mobile phones various activities like e-banking, different payments like electricity bill, phone bill are paid. Many of the GOs and Memos are sent by mail.

It has negative effects also. Some youth are attracted by abscence films and pornographic videos are watched. Students can utilise it for their study. The government should take necessary action.

Question 9.
Read the paragraph given below and comment.

The benefits of globalisation have been unevenly distributed. It has benefited well-off consumers and also producers with skill, education and huge wealth. Certain services, enabled with technology, have expanded. On the other hand, thousands of small producers and workers have seen their employment and workers’ rights erode. It is important to understand the two¬sided nature of globalisation.

Answer:

1. The costs and benefits of globalization are unevenly distributed both within and in between cities.
2. Homeless people are living in cardboard boxes on sidewalks of gleaming corporate skyscrapers, whose budgets exceed those of many countries.
3. In many countries real incomes have fallen, the costs of living gone up and the number of poor households has grown, particularly in urban areas.
4. More urban inhabitants live in inadequate housing, mostly in the slums and scattered settlements in developing countries.

Conclusion: Finally developed countries and rich people are benefited and poor people are not benefited.

Question 10.

Read the following paragraph and write whether you agree with this paragraph or not. Mention why/why not.

At times, MNCs set up production jointly with the local companies of these countries. The local company benefits by the additional investments and the latest technology that the MNCs bring.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, it says that the multinational companies invest for the production of goods jointly with the local companies.
2. This additional investment is a sort of benefit for the local companies as they have access to technology.
3. To some extent it is true.
4. When foreign companies want to establish a new factory they bring some new technology and provide job opportunities for the local people.
5. They utilize the local resources along with the human resource.
6. The companies keep the local companies in their grip and gradually they lose their control on their own production.
7. Some people say that multinational companies are helpful to local companies.
8. It is true in the initial stage but in due course, it leads to downfall.
9. So I don’t fully agree with this paragraph.
10. The government should put barriers which are useful for the local companies.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

For a long time trade has been the main channel of connecting countries. In history, you would have read about the trade routes connecting India and South Asia to markets both in the East and West and the extensive trade that took place along these routes. You would also remember that it was trading interests which attracted various trading companies such as the East India Company to India.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, trade is the main channel bringing the nations together.
2. East India Company came to India in such a way. In the name of trade, the Europeans tried to find out new sea routes and in the series of efforts, they explore many countries and estab¬lished markets.
3. The exploration doesn’t stop with spreading the markets.
4. It leads to the exploitation of natural resources.
5. East India Company came to India and looted the country. Trade doesn’t mean exploitation.
6. In conclusion, I would like to say that it is not so easy to decide whether the trade is really linking the markets and leading to exploitation.
7. Every country should think whether foreign companies are useful to their country or not.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on it.

To put it simply, foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. Similarly, for the buyers, trade expands the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced. Foreign trade thus results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that because of foreign companies opportunities are created and
   the producers send their goods to other markets also.
2. The buyers also have the choice to select the commodities or goods whatever they like.
3. Foreign trade helps in connecting markets of the globe. The international market system will be increased.
4. My comments on this paragraph are that many of the foreign products like Coca-cola, Pepsi and other cool drinks are available in our country.
5. Local coconuts and buttermilk are not being utilized.
6. Though there is a choice for buyers, they should think of their domestic market also.
7. Foreign trade connects the markets in different countries.
8. The integration of the market system doesn’t collapse the domestic economic system.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write’ your opinion on it.

Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalization process. For instance, the past fifty years have seen several improvements in transporta¬tion technology. As a result, goods are delivered faster across long distances at lower costs.

Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph technology is one major factor in the process of globalization.
2. Recently there are many changes in transportation technology.
3. It led to faster movement in reaching the destination.
4. My opinion is that technology is a part of globalization.
5. Many multinational companies use different technology for various purposes.
6. In this paragraph, it is discussed about transportation technology.
7. Improved transportation makes travel easy. Construction and management of roads including vehicle maintenance are to be concentrated.
   8) Better roads help in minimizing the prices because of fuel consumption.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Let us return to the example of imports of Chinese toys in India. Suppose the Indian government puts a tax on the import of toys. And because of the tax, buyers will have to pay a higher price on imported toys. Chinese toys will no longer be as cheap in the Indian markets and imports from China will automatically reduce. Indian toy-makers will prosper.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the government has to put barriers on Chinese toys.
2. Thus the prices of the Chinese toys rise.
3. Automatically Indian toys will have positive market. Indian toy makers will get benefits. My comments on this paragraph are as follows. This is only an example.
4. Like Chinese toys, there are so many goods coming from abroad and making good business.
5. They are getting good profits.
6. The same Indian manufacturers face many troubles.
7. In conclusion, I would like to say that the government should take necessary steps to strengthen the Indian companies and small scale industries along with artisans and handicrafts.

Question 15.
Identify these countries on an outline map of world.

1. United States of America
2. China
3. Mexico
4. Eastern European countries
   i) Poland
   ii) Ukraine
   iii) Romania
   iv) Bulgaria
   v) Czech Republic
   vi) Slovakia
5. India

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 3 Production and Employment.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 3rd Lesson Production and Employment

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is under employment?
Answer:
Under employment is the situation, where people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their potential.

Question 2.
In which sector is the disguised unemployment found predominantly in India today? Why?
Answer:
In agricultural sector we find disguised unemployment, because more than the required persons are engaged in the work of agriculture.

Question 3.
Suggest the reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers.
Answer:
Reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers:

1. Increase in wages.
2. Security in jobs.
3. Overtime work should be paid.
4. Facilities and safety at work places.
5. Medical facilities.
6. Sick leave provision.

Question 4.
Write examples for intermediate goods.
Answer:

1. Paddy
2. Rice
3. Yarn
4. Rubber

Question 5.
Give an example for underemployment.
Answer:

1. Though there is no sufficient work, many agricultural labourers work less than their potential.
2. In the service sector – painters, plumbers, repair persons, etc.

Question 6.
What does the unorganized sector consist of?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector. It consists of low wages, no job security, no paid leaves, no health facilities, etc.

Question 7.
Observe the pie chart and answer the following questions.
Sectoral shares of employment, 2011 – 12
(a) Which sector provides less employment?
Answer:
Industry (24%)

(b) Mention any two reasons for more employment in the agriculture sector.
Answer:

1. Not enough jobs were created in the industry and service sector.
2. Irrespective of the literacy rate rural people depend on agriculture.
3. Easy employment opportunities.

Observe the information given in the table and answer questions 8 and 9.
Table: Share of Employment and Gross Domestic Product in Three Sectors

Question 8.
What was the share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product is 16%.

Question 9.
What was the reason for low employment in service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The reason for low employment In service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Products is

• Lack of skill
• Lack of access to employment opportunities

Question 10.
Give any two examples for final goods.
Answer:
Idli, Dosa, Gar, Computer, Notebook, etc.

Question 11.
Why do people prefer to work in an organized sector ?
Answer:
Security of employment Regular salary Paid Holiday, safe working environment Gets provident fund, etc.

Question 12.
Define service sector.
Answer:
Services like transportation, communication, financing, insurance, banking, etc. are auxi¬liaries to trade or aid to trade. These services constitute service sector of trade.

Question 13.
What is primary sector?
Answer:
Primary sector is the sector which involves agricultural activities, and related activities like mining, poultry, etc.

Question 14.
What is secondary sector?
Answer:
It is the sector which is engaged in the manufacturing of goods from the raw material provided by the primary sector.

Question 15.
Define unemployment.
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work but are not able to get work. They are not engaged in any productive activity.

Question 16.
What is employment?
Answer:
Employment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work and are engaged in some productive activity to earn an income.

Question 17.
What is the other name of underemployment?
Answer:
The other name of underemployment is disguised unemployment.

Question 18.
What is GDP?
Answer:
The value of goods and services produced in an economy in a financial year is known as GDP.

Question 19.
Which sector is called organised sector?
Answer:
The sector which covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular and they have assured work is called organised sector.

Question 20.
Which sector is called unorganized sector?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector.

Question 21.
Which sector is also called the service sector?
Answer:
Tertiary sector is also called service sector.

Question 22.
Which is called disguised unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment which exists when marginal physical productivity of labour is zero or sometimes it becomes negative is called disguised unemployment.

Question 23.
Why does small scale industry need government’s support?
Answer:
Small scale industry needs government’s support for procuring raw-material and mar¬keting of output.

Question 24.
In what ways can employment be increased in urban areas? Write any two suggestions.
Answer:
Suggestions:

1. Heavy investments should be created in basic industries.
2. Means of transportation and communi¬cation should be developed.

Question 25.
Which sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973 to 2000?
Answer:
The agricultural sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973-2000.

Question 26.
Write any two activities which are the primary responsibility of the government.
Answer:
Health and Education.

Question 27.
What is meant by “final goods and services”?
Answer:
Final goods and services refer to the goods and services which are meant either for consumption by consumers or for investment by firms or organizations.

Question 28.
What are intermediate goods?
Answer:
Intermediate goods are those goods that are used in producing final goods and services.

Question 29.
Which sector is growing fast in India?
Answer:
Service sector is growing fast in India.

Question 30.
By whom is the task of measuring GDP done?
Answer:
The task of measuring GDP is done by the Ministry of Central government.

Question 31.
What does the GDP record?
Answer:
The GDP records the market value of final goods and services produced.

Question 32.
Name some acts of organized sector.
Answer:

1. Factories Act
2. Minimum Wages Act
3. Shops and Establishments Act, etc.

Question 33.
Who are in the organized sector?
Answer:
People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organized sector.

Question 34.
Name some organizations in the service sector.
Answer:

1. Indian Railways
2. Postal & Telegraphs
3. Indian Airlines
4. All India Radio
5. BSNL, MTNL.

Question 35.
How do we count the various goods and services of each economic sector?
Answer:
We count the value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year. This provides the total production of the sector for that year.

Question 36.
Why should we worry about underemployment?
Answer:
We should worry about underemployment as it decreases the standard of living of the people.

Question 37.
What do you mean by underemployment?
Answer:
Everyone is engaged in working, but no one is working to his full capacity, such employ¬ment Is underemployment.

Question 38.
Into how many sectors economic activities are divided?
Answer:
The economic activities are divided into 3 sectors primary, secondary and services.

Question 39.
What do you mean by Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The money value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country borders during the year.

Question 40.
What is the main source of income to your family? Among the three sectors, under which can it be categorized?
Answer:

1. My father is a farmer.
2. Hence we can say he works in the primary sector.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is the Organised sector different from an Unorganised sector?
Answer:
1) The organised sector is the enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2) The unorganised sector s characterised by small and scattered units which have remained largely outside the control of the Government. In this way the organised sector is different from the unorganised sector.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below,
Contribution of organised and unorganised sectors

a) What percentage of labour in the unorganized sector get employment?
Answer:
92%
b) Which sector get decent job security?
Answer:
Organized sector

Question 3.
What are the facilities provided to workers in the organised sector?
Answer:

1. Job security
2. Limited working hours.
3. Paid holidays.
4. Safe working environment.

Question 4.
Which measures do you suggest to improve the employment opportunities in rural area?
Answer:

1. Agriculture should be supported by the government.
2. Household industries should be encouraged.
3. Rural employment schemes should be implemented effectively.

Question 5.
Study the following pie-charts and answer the questions given below:
Shares of three sectors in GDP

a) Which sector got tremendous increase?
Answer:
Service sector.
b) Why did the share of agricultural sector decrease in G.D.P?
Answer:
Production in agriculture has not developed as per the expectations.

Question 6.
Draw the bar graph on the basis of information given in the table below.

Answer:

It shows how people depend upon these sectors for employment.

Question 7.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

The table shows the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and 2009-10.

a) What are the major changes you observe from the above table?
Answer:

1. The agriculture sector is decreased.
2. Industry and services are increased.
3. Industry is increased two times.
4. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sectors.

b) What would be the reasons for the changes?
Answer:
Employment opportunities in the agricultural sector are reduced from 74% to 53%. In industrial sector employment opportunities are increased from 11% to 22%. Like that service sector employment opportunities are also increased from 15% to 25%.
Reasons:

1. Decline in agriculture (Problems of seeds, rainfall, MSP, power cut, water.)
2. Privatization is increased.
3. IT increased.
4. Opportunities in the second and third sector.

Question 8.
Observe below ‘Pie’ chart and analyse it.

Employment in three sectors in 2011-12
Answer:

1. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sector, (or)
2. The major changes like the percentage of workers employed decrease in agriculture and increased both in industry and ser¬vice sector are observed from the above pie chart compare with before years.
   Reasons :
3. The important reasons like change in farming methods setting up of new industries, and factories, mass production of goods by factories of lower rates than agricultural goods, high payment for workers in other sectors compared to agriculture led to employment shift from agriculture sector to service and manufacturing sectors.

Question 9.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Shares of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product

A – Agriculture
B – Industry
C – Trade, hotels, transport and communications.
D – Finance, insurance, real estate.
E – Community, social and personal services.
Answer:
The graph explains about the share of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product in the year of 1972 – 73.
The share of Agriculture is 43%.
The share of Industry is 22%.
The share of service sector joined together is 35%.
When compared to 1972 – 73 the share of different sectors in 2011 -12 changed,
In 2011 -12 the agriculture share is only 16%. Industrial sector share is 26%. The share of service sector joined together is – 58%. Totally in 2011 & 12 the share of agriculture is reduced. The Industrial sector share is increasing. Finally service sector share increases very high.
Suggestions: To increase the share in the agriculture sector the government should take the following measures.

1. Provide seeds, fertilizers, pesticides motors to the farmers with the subsidy.
2. The government should see that the people who are engaged in Industrial and Service sectors more than required are shifted to the agricultural sector so that the share of the agricultural sector in GDP increases.
3. The government should implement welfare schemes so that the agricultural sector flourishes.

Question 10.
Name the facilities enjoyed by the workers in the organised sector.
Answer:
Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages ] Act, Shops and Establishments Act etc. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures. Workers in the organised sector enjoy the security of employment, They are expected to work only for a fixed number of hours. If they work more, they have to be paid overtime by the employer. They also get several other benefits from the employers, They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, j under the laws, the employer has to ensure facilities like drinking water and safe working environment. When they retire, many of j these workers get pensions as well. People j who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector.

Question 11.
Based on the pie charts given below write how the share of agriculture sector in the GDP has changed between 1972-73 and 2009-10?

Answer:
The share of agriculture sector in GDP has reduced from 43% to 26% from the period 1972 – 73 to 2009 -10.
The main reason is the secondary and service sector’s both gradually increase in their employment and production activities.

Question 12.
Observe the pie diagrams and answer the following.

Analyse the above two diagrams.
Answer:

1. The pie diagrams depict the sectorial share of employment.
2. The people who depend on agriculture has reduced from 74% in 1972-73 to 53% in 2009-10,
3. The employment in service sector has increased from 15% to 25%.
4. The employment in the industrial sector is doubled, i.e., increased from 11% to 22%.

Question 13.
Study the following table and prepare a paragraph describing it.

Answer:

1. This table tells about the employment in organized and unorganized sector and its contribution in GDP.
2. Employment in organized sector is only 8% whereas it is 92% in unorganized sector.
3. The share in GDP is the same.
4. It focuses on the conditions of the work-force depend on the unorganized sector in which the wages are low, security and respect is not observed.
5. In organized sector the employees get regular salaries, they have specific work-ing hours and they avail leaves, medical benefits and other facilities.
6. These are not available in the unorganized sector.

Question 14.
Discus different sectors of Economy.
Answer:
People are engaged in different activities to earn their livelihoods. These activities are broadly categorized into three:

1. Agriculture and related activities such as fishing, forestry, mining where nature has a dominant role in the production process.
2. Manufacture processes and other industries where goods are produced by people using tools or machines.
3. Those activities that don’t directly produce a good but provide services that are required in production and other services for people.
4. These three different sectors of the economy contribute to the national income.

Question 15.
How many types are there in services? Explain.
Answer:
Services are seen to comprise of three types.
They are a) Community, social and personal services b) Finance, insurance and real estate services and Trades, hotels, transport and communication services.

1. Community, social and personal services include public administration, defence, education, health, veterinary activities, media, library, museums and other cultural activities, etc.
2. Finance, insurance and real estate servi-ces include services of banks, post office savings accounts, non-bank financial companies, Life Insurance and General Insurance Corporation, services of brokers and real estate companies, etc.
3. Trades, hotels, transport and communication services include business, exports and imports, hotels, resorts, rail, road, water ways and airways and radio, tele¬vision, newspapers, magazines and satel¬lite services, etc.

Question 16.
Table : Read the following pie charts and answer the question.

What changes do you observe in these two pie diagrams?
Answer:

1. The above pie diagrams show the share of different sectors in GDP.
2. The share of agriculture sector has fallen from 43% to 17%.
3. The share of industrial sector has increa-sed from 22% to 26%.
4. The share of service sector has increased from 35% to 57%.
   i.e., trade and hotels from 15% to 27%, finance, insurance and real estate from 8% to 17% and community, social and personal services from 12% to 13%.

Question 17.
What is the relation between population and employment?
Answer:
The Gross Domestic Product of a country has a close relation with the total number of work¬ing people in that country. In every country, as population increases, it is essential that the country provides opportunities for those who are looking for work.

Question 18.
“The workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped” – support this statement.
Answer:
There are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even if a few people move out, 1 production will not be affected. In other words, workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped.

Question 19.
Explain GDP. Why are only ‘final goods and services’ counted in GDP?
Answer:

1. GDP is the sum of the money value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year within a country.
2. Only the value of final goods and services are counted in GDP because the value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
3. To avoid double-counting we take up only intermediate goods.
4. Animal husbandry and dairy are to be encouraged. :

Question 20.
Where are most of the people employed? Why did not a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment?
Answer:

1. Most of the working people are still employed in primary sector.
2. There had not been a similar shift out of agricultural sector in case of employment. The reason is:
   Secondary and tertiary sectors did not create enough jobs.

Question 21.
Suggest any two measures to create more employment in rural India.
Answer:
Some measures to create more employment in rural India :

1. Irrigation facilities should be improved.
2. Roads should be constructed.
3. More education and health facilities should be provided.
4. Agro-based industries should be encouraged.

Question 22.
Describe any three problems faced by workers in the unorganised sector.
Answer:

1. This sector follows no government rules and regulations.
2. There is no regular employment.
3. They have no job security.

Question 23.
How are the activities in the economy classified on the basis of employment conditions?
Answer:
Economic activities are classified into two sectors on the basis of employment conditions:

1. Organised sector
2. Unorganised sector.

In the organised sector, the rules and regulations of employment are given to employees and everyone has to follow these rules.
In the unorganised sector, there are no rules and regulations.

Question 24.
Write any two differences between intermediate goods and final goods.
Answer:

Question 25.
How is the unorganised sector in the rural areas?
Answer:
In the rural areas, the unorganised sector: mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, share croppers and artisans.

Question 26.
How is the unorganised sector in the urban areas?
Answer:
In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in the small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade I and transport, etc. and those who work as steel vendors, head load workers, garment makers, rag pickers, etc.

Question 27.
Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Who are they?
Answer:
Service sector in India employs the following two different kinds of people. They are:

1. The people involved in such services that man directly help in the production of goods, e.g.: people involved in transportation, communication, etc.
2. The people involved in such services that may not directly help in the production of goods, e.g: teachers, lawyers, etc.

Question 28.
“Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy.” Do you agree? Support your answer.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
Over the last 5 decades, the most production has increased in the tertiary sector. It replaced the primary sector. The basic services are also provided by the government and; private sector. As the income levels of the people raised, people are able to enjoy many more services like shopping, tourism, etc.
Therefore it is disputable that the tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the development of Indian economy.

Question 29.
Classify the Service Sector.
Answer:

1. Services sector comprises of community, social and personal services like public administration, defence, education, etc.
2. They also comprise finance, insurance and real estate services like banks, post-offices, LIC, etc.
3. It also comprises of services like trades, hotels, transports and communication.

Question 30.
How is gross domestic product is calculated? Give example.
Answer:

1. The total value of goods and services produced in a country is the Gross Domestic Product.
2. The value of intermediate goods is not considered for GDP.
3. Economists take the value of goods and services rather than adding the number of goods.
4. People engaged in various economic activities in the three sectors viz, primary, secondary and services produce large number of goods and services whose total is GDP.

Question 31.
What are the aims and objectives of land-less rural labourers or workers?
Answer:

1. More days of work.
2. Better wages.
3. Provision of Educational and health facilities by the government.
4. Infrastructural facilities like transportation communication, etc.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State why the organized sector is better than the unorganized sector.
(OR)
The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. But the employment opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. As a result, a large number of workers are forced to enter the unorganised sector jobs, which pay a very low salary.
Do you think organised sector is better than unorganised sector? Give your opinion.
Answer:
Organised sector is better sector. The reasons are:

1. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2. They are registered by the government 3 and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc.
3. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures.
4. Workers in the organised sector enjoy j security of employment. They are expected to work only for a fixed number of j hours. If they work more, they have to be j paid overtime by the employer.
5. They also get several other benefits from the employers. They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc.
6. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, under the laws, the employer has j to ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment.
7. When they retire, many of these workers get pensions as well.
8. People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector

Question 2.
What is GDP ? How do we estimate GDP?
Answer:
G.D.P. (Gross Domestic Product):

1. For the country as a whole, we use the total value of goods and services produced in a country as the indicator of income for the country.
2. The technical term to denote this value is Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Estimation of G.D.P.:

1. G.D.P. records the market value of all final goods and services produced.
2. G.D.P. records all of public and private consumption, government outlays, investments and exports less imports that occur within a defined territory.
3. Many items/services that are not sold /purchased in the market are not recorded in the G.D.P.
   Ex : Household works done by women.

Question 3.
“In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important in terms I of total production. Most of the working people have also shifted and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.”

Is there a similar pattern observed for India or is it different? Write your opinion.
Answer:

1. The pattern in India is somehow similar to that of developed countries.
2. But, there are some main differences also.
3. In India also, service sector is becoming more important nowadays.
4. But, even today the largest employer in India is the agricultural sector only.

Question 4.
“While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well. The service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them.”

“The life conditions of all the people in ser¬vice sector are not the same.” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Regarding service sector, limited number of skilled workers in organised sector are getting higher wages.
2. On the other hand, the large number of unskilled workers in unorganised sector are not able to get minimum wages. They are living in miserable conditions.
3. Self employed, shop keepers, migrant labourers etc., do not have better working conditions, regular employment and other allowances.
4. They are being forced to continue in the same job due to the lack of required skills and alternative employment sources.
5. By considering these situations, the government has to plan suitable programmes for the balanced development of service sector.

Question 5.
Based on the information given below, write your observations:

Answer:

1. Most of the rural workers are employed in agriculture.
2. Most of the urban workers are employed in service sector.
3. Most of the agricultural labourers are women.
4. Female workers are very less in service sector.
5. Agriculture sector offers the largest employment on the whole.
6. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

(OR)
Plot the information given below on a rough bar-graph and analyse it:
Employment in different sectors

Answer:

1. Agricultural sector is the largest employer In 2009-10.
2. Service sector is the second largest employer.
3. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

Question 6.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions:

1.  What does this graph explain about?
2. Which sector is the largest employer in India?
3. In which sector do most of the people want to be employed today?
4. Which sector offers the least employment?

Answer:

1. The graph explains about the shares of different sectors of employment in the years of 1972-73 and 2009-2010
2. The agriculture sector is the largest employer in India.
3. Service sector
4. Industrial sector.

Question 7.
Nowadays in which economic sector the job opportunities are increasing? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Nowadays employment opportunities are available more in secondary and tertiary sectors.
(ii) Last 50 years onwards the changes are occurred in GDP in all sectors, but employment is not increased. Yet, employment opportunities are increased in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Reasons:

1. Establishment of industries in public and private sectors.
2. Increasing of technological methods.
3. Increasing of educational facilities.
4. Due to globalisation, Multi-national companies are entered and industrial and service sectors are developed.
5. Transportation facilities are developing.
6. Migrations are increased.
7. Increasing of local foreign investment.

Question 8.
Suggest to improve labour conditions in unorganized sector.
Answer:

1. Wages to be increased
2. Regular payment of wages
3. Overtime work should be paid
4. Sick leave provision and paid leave.
5. Better working conditions
6. Retirement benefits to be provided
7. Security in jobs
8. Medical and health facilities

Question 9.
What are the differences between organised and unorganised sectors in Employment.
(OR)
How is unorganised sector different from organised sector? Explain.
Answer:

Question 10.
What measures should be taken to create employment in your area?
Answer:
I should implement some steps to create employment in my area.

1. At first, in which the various non-farming activities are performed in a location which falls with in a designated rural area.
2. Promoting dairy industry.
3. Should give more important to local handicrafts.
4. The second way hints at labour intensive use.
5. For self employment:
   Should provide bank loans with low rate of interests.
6. By creating cost effective school. Cyber cafes, retail outlets, transport systems etc.
7. Linking with industrial enterprises to rural citizens, better policies such as limit on work capacity and payment of minimum wages, etc.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on it.
In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important sector in terms of total production. Most of the working people have also made a shift and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph many workers are shifting from industries to service sectors in developed countries.
2. The service sector plays an important and key role in economy.
3. Most of the production activities are now in service sector.
4. There are three sectors in the economy. They are agriculture, industrial and service sectors.
5. In developing countries many people depend upon agriculture sector whereas In developed countries it is the industrial sector which gives more work but recently we observe the trend that many people are shifting from industrial sector to service sector for their livelihoods.
6. I think that the people want to work in the sector which is providing more opportunities and where security, safety and respect are available.
7. Job in service sector provides these to some extent better than the other sectors the people shift toward service sector.

Question 12.
Observe the given table and analyse the share of GDP.

Answer:
The given table is about share of GDP. The GDP is taken from 2012 to 2017. The sectors of economy are analysed In data form. The share of GDP from agriculture is very less and it has been reducing year by year. Industries are slightly decreasing from 2013. it is 29% only in 2012. But service sector is gradually increasing.
Many people nowadays are interested in working with service sector as they feel that it is white collar job. Nobody Is interested in agriculture. No farmer is interested to make his son a farmer because in agriculture more distress is seen. Irregular rainfall, low prices (MSP), shortage of seeds, pesticides problem, fertiliser problem and so many problems, the agriculture sector is facing. In Industries also work conditions are not supportive. Agriculture is technologically up¬graded. Agriculture labourers are shifting to service, industrial sectors. Though 92% of workers are there In unorganised sector, they are contributing about 50% in GDP, Government should support the farmers and agriculture should be made a benefitable one.

Question 13.
Read the passage and comment on it.
While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well, Service sector In India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers,repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them. Hence, only a part of this sector Is growing in Importance.
Answer:

1. The contribution of service sector to GDP has grown considerably.
2. But all service activities are not grown equally.
3. Only highly skilled and educated workers, which are limited in number, are earning good income.
4. Whereas a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. are a part of service sector.
5. But they barely manage to earn a good income.
6. They have no other alternative opportunity for work.
7. Hence, we can conclude that only a part of the service sector is growing.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret it.
GDP records the market value of all final goods and services produced. But there are many items that are not sold/ purchased in the market. One important example is the work that is done at home like cooking, cleaning, organizing, bringing up children, tending to plants and cattle, etc. In most instances, these do not involve any monetary transaction and therefore remain outside the GDP measure, though they are extremely important for the economy. Also, the unpaid work is done mostly by women even today, in India and across the globe.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the domestic work done by mainly women is not calculated under GDP and it is ignored. Women are mostly engaged in this work.
2. These services of women are not included in the GDP. The women’s work is unpaid work.
3. Woman is the nucleus of the family in India. In our country we give much importance to woman.
4. The woman in a family discharges her duties as a mother, wife and daughter in law and so on but not as an employee.
5. Employees can be paid for their work but the work of a woman in a family cannot be paid.
6. I agree with this because families depend on this work. It is not monitorial work but a work of responsibility and affection.
7. The work of the woman also can be considered as a part of GDP.
8. The economists should consider their work and calculate in GDP.
9. The work done by women at home is not worthless.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write whether you agree with this or not.
It means that there are more people in agriculture but everyone may not be fully occupied.
So, even if few people move out, production will not be affected. In other words, workers in agricultural sector are underemployed.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph there is no full employment in agriculture.
2. Partial employment is there. It means many people depend on agriculture but they are not fully employed.
3. If some of them move to another sector it will not affect the production.
4. In other words, it is called disguised unemployment. There are so many farmers like Gayathri owning about 2 or less acres of land.
5. All the five members are working in the same fields though they don’t have sufficient work.
6. My suggestion is that the government should collect data of this situation throughout the state and prepare plans to provide work by implementing programmes like MGNREGA, Watershed Development Program, Water Conservation Movement (Neeti Samrakshana Udyamam), and other activities.
7. Thus the people are engaged in some useful work and so they get sufficient work and improve their living conditions.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
There are lakhs of farmers like Gayathri in India. This means that even if several people from agricultural sector are provided with proper work elsewhere, agricultural production will not suffer. The incomes of the people who take up other work would increase the total family income.
Answer:

1. It is explained in this paragraph that the small farmers in India have not sufficient work in the fields but they are not getting sufficient work as well as income.
2. There is a suggestion for the families like Gayathri to go elsewhere for additional work so as to earn more income.
3. Lakhs of families in India are small families having less than two acres of cultivable land.
4. All the family members depend on the small piece of land.
5. They get less work and they don’t work up to their potentials.
6. This condition is called underemployment.
7. According to my opinion the government should identify these people and plan to design various schemes to be implemented.
8. In villages many people have no sufficient work. Many developmental works are needed for villages and towns.
9. These people will be involved in that works and so they earn some income.
10. People also think to work by organizing small shops, working as repair persons, transport persons and so on.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, we not only have to generate new employment opportunities but also train many workers to work efficiently and with machines, We should invest in many industries, in both rural and semi-urban areas, so that we are able to produce many more goods and services. 
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph two things are very important.
2. They are providing employment opportunities and giving training to them to work with machines.
3. Without skill the workers and employees do not work efficiently.
4. One more point is that the industries are to be opened in rural and semi-urban areas to increase in production of goods and services.
5. My opinion is that it is better to provide quality and skill oriented training before generating employment to the people.
6. If skill is provided they can work at any place it demands. Many industries are being established in urban areas only.
7. Technology is bringing many changes in our daily life.
8. In agriculture, industry and service sectors technology is used.
9. Even in agriculture many machines like tractors, Combined Harvesters are there.
10. Everyone should learn how to deal with these. For that training is necessary.
11. If skill in performing jobs and access to various opportunities are provided by establishing industries in rural and semi-urban areas.

Question 18.
Observe the following table and answer the questions that follow.

1. What are the major changes that you observe from the above table?
   Answer:
   There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to industrial and service sectors.
2. What is the table about?
   Answer:
   The table is about the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and in 2009-10.
3. Which sector is providing more employment in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is providing more employment in 1972-73. It is about 74%.
4. Which sector has doubled in providing employment?
   Answer:
   The sector which has doubled in providing employment is industrial sector. 11% has become 22% from 1972-73 to 2009-10.
5. What percentage of employment is decreased in agriculture sector?
   Answer:
   21% of employment is decreased in agriculture sector. (74% – 53%)
6. Why is the employment in agriculture decreasing?
   Answer:
   The employment in agriculture is decreasing because the workers are shifting to other sectors as there is no prosperity in agriculture.

Question 19.
Observe the graph and answer the following questions.

1. What is the graph about?
   Answer:
   The graph is about GDP by agriculture, industry and service sector.
2. Which was the largest producing sector in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector was the largest producing sector with Rs. 2,43,082 crore.
3. Which was the largest producing sector in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   Service sector was the largest producing sector in 2009-10 with Rs. 25,78,165 crore.
4. What is the aggregate GDP in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 2009-10 is Rs. 45,16, 071 crore.
5. What is the aggregate GDP in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 1972-73 is Rs. 5,86, 346 crore.
6. Mention any two service activities.
   Answer:
   Tailoring, courier service, etc.

Question 20.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.
Distribution of Workers in India, 2009-10 (%)

1. What does this table tell us ?
   Answer:
   This table tells us about the distribution of workers in India.
2. In which sector the female workers are more ?
   Answer:
   The female workers are more in agriculture sector.
3. Which sector is prosperous in rural areas ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is prosperous in rural areas.
4. Why is agriculture sector very low in urban areas ?
   Answer:
   In urban areas many people depend upon service sector and industries and there is no scope for agriculture.
5. Which sector is decreasing gradually ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is decreasing gradually.
6. What have you observed in industrial sector with regard to place of residence ?
   Answer:
   Industrial sector in urban areas is double in comparison to rural areas.

Question 21.
Discuss the changes in importance of different sectors over a period of time.
Answer:

1. At the beginning as the methods of farming changed and agriculture began to prosper, it produced much more food than before.
2. After Industrial Revolution, the mass production by factories were at much lower rates and these goods reached markets all over the world.
3. So, for these countries industrial production gradually became the most important sector.
4. Hence, in overtime a shift took place.
5. In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries.
6. The service sector has become the most important in terms of total production.
7. Most of the working people also shifted and are now employed in the service sector.
8. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.

Question 22.
Who do constitute the unorganised sector ?
Answer:

1. In the rural areas, the unorganised sector mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, sharecroppers and artisans, etc.
2. In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade and transport, etc. those who work as street vendors, head load workers, garment workers, rag pickers, etc.
3. We also find that majority of workers from scheduled castes, tribes and backward communities find themselves In the unorganised sector,
4. It is worse if one is a woman from these communities,
5. Besides getting the irregular and low paid work, these workers also face social discrimination.

Question 23.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. The monsoons first enter into India into this state.
   Answer:
   Kerala
2. Locate the Jammu Hills.
   Answer: Jammu
3. The dun which is in Uttarakhand.
   Answer: Patli Dun
4. The wettest place in India.
   Answer: Mawsynram
5. The Great Indian Desert.
   Answer: Thar desert
6. The submerged point of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
   Answer: Indira Point,
7. The capital of Andhra Pradesh.
   Answer: Amaravathi
8. The second largest river in South India.
   Answer: Krishna
9. Mahadev hills.
10. Maikal plateau.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 The People.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 6th Lesson The People

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is sex-ratio calculated?
Answer:
Sex ratio can be calculated with the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

Question 2.
As 2011 Census, the population has increased to 121 crores approximately in India. Write any two reasons for it.
Answer:

1. Early marriages.
2. Illiteracy.
3. Superstitions.
4. Advancement in Medical Science.

Question 3.
Give the main reason for decreasing the death rate during the last decade in India.
Answer:

1. Decline in the death rate is due to effective control of dreadful epidemic diseases through the advancement of medical technology and the health-care delivery system.
2. Spread of education, development of science and technology and effective use of the resources have given greater scope and prospects for sustainability.

Question 4.
Observe the following table and answer the questions a, b, c and d.

Male, Female Literacy rate in India.

(a) By what percentage is male literacy more than that of female in 2011?
Answer:
Male literacy is more than that of female in 2011 is 16.68%.

(b) What information does the above table give us?
Answer:
The above table gives us the information about male and female literacy rate in India during 1961 – 2011.

(c) In which period is the literacy rate increased more?
Answer:
The literacy rate increased more during the period 1991 – 2001.

(d) How do you understand female literacy?
Answer:

1. When compared with male literacy, female literacy rate is low.
2. In 1961 female literacy is very low. But it is an increasing level. During 1991 – 2001 female literacy is highly increased.

Question 5.
Observe the given bar graph and answer the questions.

(a) What does the above graph tell about?
Answer:
The above graph tells about India Population – Sex Ratio (1951 – 2011).

(b) What does the change in sex ratio show when compared with 1991 year to that of 2011 year ?
Answer:
The sex ratio is increased (929 to 940)

(c) What do you mean by sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

(d) Mention the reason behind the low female population in India.
Answer:

1. Gender discrimination
2. Illiteracy
3. Lack of Medical facilities
4. Not providing nutritious food.
5. Parental attitude

Question 6.
What processes influence the change in population size?
Answer:
The processes that influence the change in population size are

1. births
2. deaths
3. migrations

Question 7.
Observe the following table and answer questions a and b.
Census 2011 – Data related to literacy rate in Kerala and Bihar

(a) What is table about?
Answer:
The table is about literary rate in Kerala and Bihar considering census 2011.

(b) Mention one reason for low literacy rate among the women.
Answer:
Reasons for low literacy rate among the women:

• Following traditions and conventions
• Less priority to girl education

Question 8.
How much percent of the working people in India are in the unorganised sector?
Answer:
Ninety-two percent of the working people in India are in the unorganised sector.

Question 9.
What is important regarding population study?
Answer:
It is important to understand population numbers, its distribution and characteristics that provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating the other aspects.

Question 10.
What does the Census of India provide?
Answer:
The Census of India provides us with infor-mation regarding the population of our country.

Question 11.
What is a census?
Answer:
A census is a procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population.

Question 12.
Who collects the census?
Answer:
A central government institution, the Census of India, organizes the collection and record¬ing of this information.

Question 13.
What does the age structure of a population refer to?
Answer:
The age structure of a population refers to the number of males and females in different age groups in a country.

Question 14.
How can we group the population of a nation?
Answer:
The population of a nation is generally grouped into three broad categories:

1. Children (Below 15 years),
2. Working-age (15-59 years),
3. Aged (Above 59 years)

Question 15.
Who gets retirement pension?
Answer:
Those who work and retire in organised sector may get retirement pension.

Question 16.
What is sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

Question 17.
What does the sex ratio indicate?
Answer:
The sex ratio indicates a hidden form of discrimination.

Question 18.
What does medical research show?
Answer:
Medical research shows that given similar circumstances girl children survive much better than boys.

Question 19.
What does the census show regarding child births? Give reasons for that.
Answer:
The census shows that in the age group 0-5, the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys. This can only happen if there is some discrimination in their care and nutrition otherwise the physical chance of survival is better for girls.

Question 20.
Which tend towards unequal sex ratios? Give reason for that.
Answer:
Regions that have unequal gender relations that favour the males and discriminate against the females tend towards unequal sex ratios. This can happen even though they have high incomes.

Question 21.
Give an example of the state which has positive sex ratio.
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 22.
What are the reasons for female foetus infanticide?
Answer:
Due to the preference for male children parents may decide to abort female child before birth. Many adults consider female children as a burden.

Question 23.
Write about women’s education.
Answer:
Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women. There is definitive evidence that women’s literacy and schooling reduce child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.

Question 24.
Who is treated as literate?
Answer:
According to the Census of 2011, a person aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.

Question 25.
What is literacy?
Answer:
Literacy: Literacy is key for socio-economic progress.

Question 26.
Write an account of literacy rate.
Answer:
At independence in 1947,12% of the population was literate. In 2001, it was 64.84%.lt grew to 74.04% by 2011. However, the 2011 Census shows that there is a wide disparity in literacy rates for men (82.14%) and women (65.46%).

Question 27.
Write the equation of population change.
Answer:
Population change (absolute numbers) = (Population at later date) – (Population at earlier date)

Question 28.
Write the equation of population change in a place.
Answer:
Population change in a place = (number of births + number of in-migrants) -(number of deaths + number of out-migrants). A positive number means the population has increased by that number. A negative number shows it has decreased by that number.

Question 29.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year.

Question 30.
What is death rate?
Answer:
Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year.

Question 31.
What is the change in birth rate and death rate at present?
Answer:
There has been the rapid decline in death rates but till recent times, birth rates were not decreasing substantially.

Question 32.
Why did the famines decline after 1900?
Answer:
After 1900 famines declined because of famine relief, movement of grain, ration shops and an active public voice in a democracy.

Question 33.
Why are some children forced to work?
Answer:
Some children are forced to work because of economic conditions.

Question 34.
Why does the population size change?
Answer:
The population is dynamic. The numbers, distribution and composition of the population are always changing. This is because of the interaction of the three processes:

1. births,
2. deaths and
3. migrations.

Question 35.
What is the change in population size? How it can be expressed?
Answer:
The change in the size of a population is the difference in the number of inhabitants of a country/territory during a say during the last ten years. Such a change can be expressed in two ways, (1) as absolute numbers, or (2) as a percentage change.

Question 36.
Write some reasons for population growth in India.
Answer:

1. High birth rate
2. Low death rate
3. Improvement in medical facilities.
4. High fertility rate in young couples.
5. A decline in fancies
6. Illiteracy.

Question 37.
What are the factors that influence population densities in states like Assam?
Answer:
Assam and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.

Question 38.
Why do the plains have very high density of population?
Answer:
The northern Plains and the plain in the south have, high to very high population, densities, because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph.
A distressing aspect of gender bias in India that shows little sign of going away is the preference for boys over girls. One of the worst manifestations of this pro-male bias is the relatively high mortality rates of girls compared with boys. Many families consider female children as a burden. Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women.
“Due to the difference in sex ratio, what would be the impact on society ?” Explain.
Answer:

1. Female population will decrease.
2. In future male population may not get marriages.
3. Family system may collapse.
4. Gender bias may increase in the society.
5. The problem of criminality in our society will increase.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given question.
India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq km. Densities vary from 904 persons per sq km in West Bengal to only 13 persons per sq km in Arunachal Pradesh.
What are the reasons for high population density in West Bengal and low population density in Arunachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. West Bengal is located in fertile deltas of River Ganga.
2. It supports agriculture and industrial development and suitable for living.
3. Arunachal Pradesh is in hilly terrain and covered by snow in vast areas.
4. So, it is not suitable for human habitation and have low density of population.

Question 3.
“Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population. In 1951 there were 946 females per 1000 males in India. In 1991 there were 929 per 1000 males and 933 in 2001 and 940 in 2011 respectively.”
Draw a table based on the information given below:
Answer:

Question 4.
Study the following graph and answer the given questions.
a) In which year, the highest sex-ratio was recorded?
Answer: 1951.
b) Identify the reasons for low sex-ratio in India.
Answer:

1. Gender Bias.
2. Superstitions

Question 5.
People often talk of population growth in alarmed tones. Why?
Answer:

1. It population increases, availability of infrastructural facilities will become less.
2. It may also leads to food shortage.
3. Deforestation and global natural destruction is one of the problem.
4. A huge population causes huge demands like foods, water, clothes etc. As per the population growth the trees were cut down for construction of the house and factories.
5. Due to this natural resources will be depleted.

Question 6.
Write your observations about the population growth in india, from the graph given below:
Answer:
I observed the following reasons:

1. Population census have been taken for every 10 years.
2. From the year 1921 onwards population increases very highly due to the following reasons.
   1. Improved medical facilities.
   2. Declination of the impact of famines.

The other factors which are responsible for high growth rate of population:

1. Contact with western nations, in particular Great Britain, brought with it western medicine.
2. The infant mortality rate dropped.
3. The life expectancy rose.
4. As the largest democratic nation in the world, India has been unable to force population controls.
5. High fertility rate due to early marriages.
6. Some religious superstitions, etc.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:

1. The bar graph is about male, female sex ratio of India.
2. It gives the sex ratio in 1991, 2001 and 2011.
3. Sex ratio is increasing from 1991 to 2011.
4. The sex ratio in India is a cause of concern. Ever since independence, it has been constantly decreasing and with 940 in 2011 it is also alarming.

Question 8.
Prepare two slogans on ‘Control of popula-tion growth’.
Answer:

1. Slogan should reflect the theme of controlling population growth.
2. Slogan should be divided around two equal halves.

Examples:

1. More Population – More problems.
2. Control the Population – Enjoy nature.
3. Small family – Happy family.
4. Reduce the crowd – Have a better future.

Question 9.
Give some examples of gender discrimination.
Answer:
Women and girls in particular face unequal opportunities for education and development. In the most basic needs of nutrition, child care and health also they are discriminated against – they get less of these things than males. This can happen even within the same family. This discrimination is not always obvious. Nor is it accepted.

Question 10.
What is rate or pace of population increase?
Answer:
The rate or the pace of population increase is important. It is studied in per cent per annum, e.g.: a rate of increase of 2 per cent per annum means that in a given year, there was an increase of two persons for every 100 persons in the base year. This works like compound interest. This is referred to as the annual growth rate. India’s population has been steadily increasing.

Question 11.
Describe the categories of the working population.
Answer:
The Census of India, groups the working population into four categories. Cultivators are farmers, who farm or supervise the land that they own or take on rent. Agricultural labourers are those who work on another’s farm for wages in cash or kind. Workers in household industries would be those who are manufacturing or repairing some product at home such as dehusking of paddy, bidi workers, potters, weavers, repair of footwear, manufacture of toys, matches, etc. Other workers would be those who are employed in factories, trading, casual labour and all other occupations.

Question 12.
Why did the birth rate remain high for such a long period?
Answer:
One set of reasons has to do with what has happened in the past. If in the overall population the percentage of young people is high, then in the coming years they would grow up, get married and have children. The total number of such children added would be high because we began with a population with a large number of young people.
The other reason is the number of children that couples wish to have. This in turn is related to how many children survive, what social security people have and the preference of male child in society.

Question 13.
Prepare a rough bar diagram using the following information.

Answer:

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
The Census of India provides us with information regarding the population of our country. A’ census is the procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population. Once in ten years information is collected about all people living in India. The people who do this survey go from house to house and find out the number of people living in every house in every village,town and city. This census provides us with a lot of information such as how old people are, their occupation, houses, education, religion, etc. The Registrar General & Census Commission of India, organises the collection and recording of this information.
Answer:
A census is the procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population. It is a regularly occurring and official count of a particular population. In India this information is collected once in ten years. This census provides us a lot of information. The census is conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commission of India.

Question 15.
It is noted that within India certain parts like Kerala have a positive sex ratio. How can you appreciate it?
Answer:

1. Kerala have a positive sex ratio while some other states are extremely biased against women.
2. Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women.
3. Women’s literacy and schooling reduce child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.
4. As Kerala worked on these front, remaining states need to follow its footsteps.

Question 16.
“Over population creates many problems” Do you support this statement? Write in your own words.
Answer:

1. The number of non-working people increases.
2. Per capita income decreases with increase in population.
3. Production has to be increased to provide facilities like houses, educational institutions, health centres, transport, etc., to the increasing population.
4. There is a danger of occurrence of famine if sufficient food is not produced.

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following of questions based on the graph given below.

1. From which year did the population increase continuously?
   Answer:
   From the year 1921 the population increased continuously.
2. What is the present population of India?
   Answer:
   The present population of India is 121 crores.
3. In which decade is the population growth less?
   Answer:
   The population growth is less in the decade 1911-21.
4. For how many years is the census being taken in India?
   Answer:
   The census is being taken in India for ten years once.

Question 2.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions that given below.

1. How many times census was taken up after independence ?
   Answer:
   7 times.
2. What do you mean by sex ratio ?
   Answer:
   Sex ratio is the number of females per every 1000 males in the population.
3. Give two reasons for low sex ratio.
   Answer:
   1. Traditionally our society is male-dominated. Gender discrimination is one cause.
   2. Women are getting inequal opportunities for education and development.
4. In which year the sex ratio is better ?
   Answer:
   1951

Question 3.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.

1. What does the above graph explain?
   Answer:
   It explains the Sex ratio of India from 1951 to 2011.
2. In which year, the least sex ratio is recorded ?
   Answer:
   The least sex ratio recorded in 1991.
3. How was the sex ratio calculated?
   Answer:
   The sex ratio is calculated as the number of females per 1000 males in the population.
4. How many times the female number is recorded more than 935?
   Answer:
   3 times.

Question 4.
Study the graph and answer the following.

1. In which year, did the population decrease?
   Answer:
   1921
2. For how many years, census have been held regularly?
   Answer:
   10 years
3. Why was the population of India increasing after independence?
   Answer:
   Improved medical facilities
   Declination of the impact of famines.
4. What problems would arise with the population explosion?
   Answer:
   1. Stress on environment.
   2. Unemployment.
   3. Scarcity of resources.
   4. Lock of food.

Question 5.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.
In India, 103 female babies are born as against 100 male babies. However, more female babies die than the male babies. The census shows that in the age group 0-5 years, the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys. This can only happen if there is some discrimination in their care and nutrition because otherwise the physical chance of survival is better for girls.
Answer:
More female babies are born, yet at the age of 0-5 years the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys.
The following reasons give us why the sex ratio has been declining.

1. Most of the women are illiterate, so they are unable to realise the importance of a girl child.
2. Most of the families in India are patriarchal, so men dominate the women and force them to abort against for a girl child.
3. Most of the families give importance for a boy child to increase their clan.
4. Even though they have high income, parents give less importance for girl child in all spheres.

Question 6.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.

1. Which year has the least number of females?
   Answer:
   In the year 1991, the number of females is least.
2. What do you mean by Sex ratio?
   Answer:
   The number of females per 1000 males is called sex ratio.
3. Since 1951, what changes do you observe in Sex ratio?
   Answer:
   During 1951-1971 the sex ratio is decreasing whereas 1991 onwards it has been increasing gradually though the literacy rate in 1951 is low, the sex ratio is high.
4. What is to be done to prevent a decrease in female number?
   Answer:
   Concept of equality between male and female is to be developed by organizing campaigns.
   • The laws related to pre-natal diagnostic tests should be brought out.
   • They should be implemented in true spirit.

Question 7.
What is the influence on society when female percentage decreases in sex ratio?
Answer:
Influence on society when female percentage decreases in sex ratio:

1. Marriage related problems.
2. Crimes related to sexual assault increase.
3. Kanyasulkam may revive.
4. Gender discrimination reduces.
5. Mankind struggles to survive.
6. Population decreases.
7. Family relations may be affected
8. Human relations get disturbed.
9. Importance to women – increased.

Question 8.
Plot the below information on a bar-graph. Write your observation.
Table : India Population: Sex Ratio 1951 – 2011

Answer:

1. The above graph explains the Sex Ratio of India from 1951 to 2011.
2. During 1951 -1971 the Sex Ratio is decreasing whereas in 1991 onwards it has been increasing gradually though the literacy rate in 1951 is low, but the Sex Ratio is high.
3. The least Sex Ratio recorded in 1991.
4. The female ratio is very low in India due to gender discrimination, illiteracy, lack of medical facilities, not providing nutritious food, parental attitude etc.

Question 9.
Read the given paragraph and comment.
We often hear people talk of population growth in alarming tones. These people are often literate and talk about others not benefitting because there are too many people who have to share very few resources.
Answer:
According to the given paragraph, the population growth affects many ways people should aware of this and the literate people talk about the benefits share of resources is not balancing. Very few people are using more resources whereas many people are using very less resources.
Countries like USA are using more natural resources though its population is less than 5% of the world population. In India, it is less than 16% of the population of the world is using less natural resources. In India population is steadily increasing. If population increases in this way, one day India would be the first in world population. Population is not a curse to the country development, it is a boon for the development of the country. People in any country can be divided into three categories. They are skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled. The Government has to utilise the services of the skilled for the nation’s development. The semi skilled should be made skilled. The unskilled should be provided with some training and so they would be doing some sort of productive work which would be strengthening Gross Domestic Product. Equal distribution of resources should be the target of the Government. The underdeveloped countries should focus on improving the qualities of work force. So population is not a problem. It’s a boon.

Question 10.
Observe the population pyramids and answer the questions.

a) What are group in India has the largest percentage of people?
b) What is the total percentage of the population in the 90 and above age group?
c) What is the total percentage of the population between 0-14 age group?
d) Based on the population pyramid given above, how do you think.the population of the India will grow? Will it grow quickly or slowly? Why?
Answer:
a) 10-14 years.
b) 0.1 % .
c) 4.7 + 4.7 + 4.9 + 4.3 + 4.3 + 4.4 = 27.3
d) Quickly. Because young pouplation currently is high in number. So for future the population of the India will grow.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
The third component of population change is migration. Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal (within the country) or international (between the countries). Internal migration does not change the size of the population but influences the distribution of population within the nation. Migration plays a very significant role in changing the composition and distribution of the population.
Answer:

1. Migration is the third component of population growth.
2. Migration plays a significant role in changing the composition and distribution of the population.
3. Migration is the movement of people from one region to another.
4. Migration is both internal and international.
5. Internal migration does not affect the size of the population but changes the composition of the population.
6. Internal migration includes movement of people from rural to urban and from urban to rural.
7. Whereas international migration changes the size of the population.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.
Think of various ways in which the government should have special schemes for different groups. Examples could be midday meal schemes; Anganwadi programmes, etc. Why are they necessary?
Answer:

1. The given paragraph focuses on special schemes suggestive for the sake of the poor and the needy people.
2. According to my opinion the midday meal scheme came out with the initiation of the Su¬preme Court of India.
3. Many of the poor students are not attending schools in the afternoon. Their parents may go to fields for work.
4. As the people are poor many programmes are to be taken up. In many of the schools it is not functioning well.
5. They should be provided with sufficient mechanism so as to make them lead their lives with satisfaction.
6. Whatever the programme or scheme taken up, it should be worked out in a right way with the true spirit.
7. The objective is not fulfilled in many of the schemes.
8. How many schemes are running is different from how they are running. So implementation is important.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women. There is definitive evidence that women’s literacy and schooling reduces child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.
Answer:

1. It is very important to educate the girls. Their literacy and schooling should be increased so as to bring social change with regard to discrimination against women.
2. My comments on this paragraph are that the village people are mostly illiterates and they don’t want to send their daughters to schools and colleges for education.
3. In this decade, we observe that many of the parents in villages changed their notions and started sending them even to cities and towns and encouraging in getting higher education.
4. An educated mother can take care of both male and female child in a better way.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.
Why did the birth rate remain high for such a long period? One set of reasons has to do with what has happened in the past. If in the overall population, the percentage of young people is high, then in the coming years they would grow up, get married and have children. The total number of such children added would be high because we began with a population with a large number of young people. 
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the young people are more in number and in due course of time, they get married and have children.
2. This adding of population is going on over the period.
3. There are so many reasons for high birth rate in our country.
4. Early marriages also cause for population growth. The family planning programmes are not successfully implemented.
5. They understand that they may not provide sufficient food, clothes, education and health facilities to their children.
6. Awareness programmes should be initiated among the people.
7. People also should participate in the campaign. Everyone should take responsibility. Increase in population is not the problem of the nation but it affects the lives of the people.

Question 15.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.

1. What is the graph about?
   Answer:
   This graph is about sex ration of Indian Population during 1951-2011.
2. In which year is the least sex ratio recorded?
   Answer:
   The least sex ratio is recorded in 1991.
3. How often does the Census take place?
   Answer:
   Once in ten years.
4. How many times it is recorded less than 940?
   Answer:
   It is recorded four times (1971,1981,1991,2001).
5. What do you mean by sex ratio?
   Answer:
   Sex ratio is the number of females per one thousand males in the total population.
6. From which year onwards is sex ratio constantly increasing?
   Answer:
   It is increasing constantly from 1991.
7. In which year the ratio is high?
   Answer:
   The ratio is high in 1951.

Question 16.
Observe the graph and describe it.
Answer:

1. The above graph depicts the fertility rate in India.
2. The fertility rate is nothing but total births per women.
3. The fertility rate in India has been decreasing.
4. That means the number of children a family wants is decreasing.
5. In 1961, the fertility rate was 5.9 that means an average women is likely to bear five to six children.
6. Now the outlook is completely changed.
7. The present fertility rate as per 2011 census is 2.7.

Question 17.
What are the steps to be taken restrict the overgrowth of population in India?
Answer:
The following are the steps to be taken to restrict the over growth of population in India :

1. Family planning measures should be implemented by the government.
2. Child marriages must be stopped.
3. Education should be provided to all women in the country.
4. Family planning counselling centres must be maintained.
5. Newly married couples should wait at least three years to get children.
6. They should maintain 3 years gap between two children.

Question 18.
“Over population creates many problems”. Do you support this statement? Write in your own words.
Answer:

1. The number of non-working people increases.
2. Per capita income decreases with increase in population.
3. Production has to be increased to provide facilities like houses, educational institutions, health centres, transport, etc. to the increasing population.
4. There is a danger of the occurrence of famine if sufficient food is not produced.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Aila super cyclone affected the Delta Region.
   Answer: Sunderban
2. Capital of Lakshadweep Islands.
   Answer: Kavaratti
3. The density of population is very high in this state.
   Answer: Bihar
4. The density of population is very low in this state.
   Answer: Arunachal Pradesh
5. The highest populous state.
   Answer: Uttar Pradesh
6. The lowest populous state.
   Answer: Sikkim
7. Sardar Sarovar dam is constructed on.
   Answer: Narmada River
8. The capital of Tamilnadu.
   Answer: Chennai
9. Cardamom hills.
10. The capital of West Bengal.
    Answer: Kolkata

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 15 National Liberation Movements in the Colonies.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by “Pan Africanism”?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea that promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 2.
Write down the ill effects of reckless oil extraction in Nigeria.
Answer:

1. Environment got polluted.
2. The Mangrove forests have been destroyed.
3. Crops have been destroyed through contamination of ground water and soils.
4. Local fish production was declined.

Question 3.
Mention any two reasons for not establishing sustainable Democracy in Nigeria.
Answer:

1. Civil War
2. Military Rule
3. Support of Multi-National Oil Corporations

Question 4.
Why was the Civil war started in Nigeria?
Answer:
The Civil war was started in Nigeria because a just and democratic balance could not happen. Soon Civil war started in Nigeria. The corruption of rulers and Multi-National Oil Corporations suppressed human rights in Nigeria.

Question 5.
Why did America interfere into the Vietnam war?
Answer:
America interfered into Vietnam war because it was worried that communists would become powerful in Vietnam.

Question 6.
What were the twin tasks of Nigerian nationalists?
Answer:
The twin tasks of Nigerian nationalists were:

1. Fighting the British
2. Unifying the diverse and conflicting ethnic group of Nigeria.

Question 7.
Why did US intervene in the Vietnam War?
Answer:
With the help of the Ho Chi Minh government in the north, the NLF fought for the unification
of the country. The US watched this alliance with fear. Worried about communists gaining power, it decided to intervene decisively, sending in troops and arms.
(OR)
To arrest the spread of Communism from Vietnam, US intervene in the Vietnam war.

Question 8.
How did the oil extraction affect agriculture in Nigeria?
Answer:
Spills destroy crops and aqua culture through contamination of the ground water and soils.

Question 9.
Oil spillage from oil wells in Nigeria had several impacts on its ecosystem. Write any two such impacts.
Answer:

1. Large tracts of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil have been destroyed.
2. Spills destroy crops and aquaculture through contamination of the groundwater and soils.
3. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and a sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water. (any two)

Question 10.
Who was Ken Saro Wiwa?
Answer:
Ken Saro Wiwa was an eminent human rights activist and environmentalist and was executed by the military government despite international protests.

Question 11.
Who is regarded as the founder of Modern China?
Answer:
Sun Yat-sen is regarded as the founder of modern China.

Question 12.
When was a republic established in China?
Answer:
The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic was established in 1911 under Sun Yat-sen who is regarded as the founder of modern China.

Question 13.
Who ruled China at the turn of the 20th century?
Answer:
The emperors of the Manchu dynasty ruled China at the turn of the 20th century.

Question 14.
What was the programme of Sun-Yat-sen?
Answer:
The programme of Sun Yat-sen was called the three principles – (San min chui)
San means – nationalism
Min means – democracy
Chui means – socialism

Question 15.
Who were called warlords?
Answer:
Regional military powers of China were called warlords. China came to be controlled by them.

Question 16.
What happened on 4th May 1919 in China?
Answer:
On 4th May 1919, an angry demonstration was held in Beijing to protest against the decisions of the Versailles peace conference.

Question 17.
What was called the May Fourth Movement?
Answer:
Despite being an ally of the victorious side led by Britain, China did not get back the territories seized from it by Japan. The pro-test became a movement, called the “May- Fourth Movement”.

Question 18.
What emerged as major forces striving to unite China and bring stability?
Answer:
The Guomindang and the Chinese Commu¬nist Party emerged as major forces striving to unite the country and bring stability.

Question 19.
Where was the social base of Guomindang?
Answer:
The Guomindang’s social base was in urban areas.

Question 20.
When was Peking University established?
Answer:
Peking University was established in 1902.

Question 21.
What were the four virtues that the women had to cultivate?
Answer:
Chastity, appearance, speech, and work.

Question 22.
What was the practice of foot-binding?
Answer:
Foot-binding was a cruel practice of not allowing women to have fully grown feet.

Question 23.
Who invaded China in 1937?
Answer:
Japan invaded China in 1937.

Question 24.
When had the CCP (Chinese Communist Party) been founded?
Answer:
The CCP had been founded in 1921, soon after the Russian Revolution.

Question 25.
Why did Lenin go on to establish the Comintern?
Answer:
Lenin went on to establish the Comintern in March 1918 to help bring about a world government that would end exploitation.

Question 26.
Who emerged as a major CCP leader?
Answer:
Mao Zedong.

Question 27.
Where can Mao Zedong’s radical approach be seen?
Answer:
Mao Zedong’s radical approach can be seen in Jiangxi, in the mountains, where they camped from 1928 to 1934, secure from Guomindang attacks.

Question 28.
What was the three-fold strategy of the French?
Answer:

1. Improving irrigation network.
2. Encouraging landlords and
3. Facilitating the marketing of agricultural produce.

Question 29.
Who was called ‘colons’?
Answer:
The French citizens living in Vietnam were called colons.

Question 30.
Who established Vietnam Cong San Dang (the Vietnamese Communist Party)?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh established Vietnam Cong San Dang.

Question 31.
Who took power in North and South Vietnam?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh and the communists took power in the north.
An old emperor took power in the south who was soon ousted by Ngo Dinh Diem.

Question 32.
How was the new era of land reforms after 1954 in North Vietnam?
Answer:

1. After 1954 a new era of land reforms was started in North Vietnam.
2. The land of the landlords was confiscated and distributed among the land-hungry landless peasants and poor peasants.

Question 33.
What is Agent Orange and why is it so-called?
Answer:
Agent Orange is a defoliant plant killer, so-called because it was stored in drums marked with an orange band.

Question 34.
Name some chemical weapons used by the US.
Answer:

1. Napalm
2. Agent Orange and
3. Phosphorous Bombs

Question 35.
Explain the formation of Nigeria.
Answer:
The country we know as Nigeria today was actually created by the British by bringing together distinct regions inhabited by different tribal groups around the Niger river system.

Question 36.
How is the region of river Niger?
Answer:
The region of river Niger is one of the most populous countries of Africa, which has been suffering from different kinds of colonial rule.

Question 37.
Expand NNDP.
Answer:
The Nigerian National Democratic Party.

Question 38.
Expand A.G.
Answer:
Action Group.

Question 39.
When did Nigeria become independent?
Answer:
Nigeria became independent on 1st October, 1963.

Question 40.
When did Nigerians elect a democratic government?
Answer:
Nigerians elected a democratic government in 1999.

Question 41.
When was oil discovered in the Niger Delta?
Answer:
Oil was discovered in 1950s in the Niger Delta.

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about the May Fourth movement in China.
Answer:

1. On 4th May 1919, an angry demonstration was held in Beijing to protest against the decisions of the Versailles peace conference.
2. Despite being an ally of the victorious side led by Britain, China did not get back the territories seized from it by Japan.
3. The protest became a movement, called the “May Fourth Movement”.
4. The revolutionaries called for driving out of foreigners, who were controlling the country’s resources, to remove inequalities and reduce poverty.

Question 2.
Study the map given below and answer the question that follows.
How were the British able to implement their ‘divide and rule’ policy in Nigeria?
Answer:

1. There are three major tribal groups in Nigeria.
   1. Hausa-Fulani,
   2. Yoruba,
   3. Igbo.
2. The British were able to implement the divide and rule policy in Nigeria by encouraging competition and conflict among these three groups.

Question 3.
How did the education system in Vietnam contribute to the emergence of nationalist ideas?
Answer:

1. In Vietnam, teachers and students did not blindly follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. While teaching, Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticized what was stated.
3. The students were inspired by patriotic feelings.
4. The primary objective of the students who went to Japan for modern education was to drive out the French from Vietnam.

Question 4.
Why does the oil spillage from oil wells have a major impact on the ecosystem?
(OR)
What are the environmental problems faced by independent Nigeria?
Answer:

1. Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem.
2. Large tracts of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil have been destroyed.
3. Spills destroy crops and aquaculture through contamination of the groundwater and soils.
4. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and a sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water.
5. Offshore spills, which are usually much greater in scale, contaminate coastal environments and cause a decline in local fish production.

Question 5.
What is the impact of over-extraction of oil in Nigeria?
Answer:
Destruction of mangrove forests destroyal of :

1. Ecosystem
2. Crops
3. Agriculture
4. Soil
5. Water contamination
6. The decline in fish production
7. Cause for cancer

Question 6.
Explain the ‘Pan Africanism’.
(OR)
What do you know about Pan Africanism?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea that promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 7.
Observe the below map and answer the following questions.

1. Which country colonized Nigeria?
Answer:
The country of Nigeria was colonized by the British.

2. South-eastern Nigeria was dominated by which tribe?
Answer:
The South-Eastern part of Nigeria is dominated by Igbo tribes.

Question 8.
How can you appreciate the role of teachers in the Emergence of Vietnamese Nationalism?
Answer:
I appreciate the teachers by the following reasons.

1. Blindly they did not follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. Teachers quietly modified the text and criticized what was stated.

Question 9.
Based on the chart given below answer the question.
Which aspect of the Communist approach do you think led to Mao’s victory? Explain.
Answer:
Strong due to promised land reform for peasants.
The above aspect introduces equality among all and distributes the lands to landless poor confiscated from rich landlords.
With this programme majority of people enjoy their own lands and lived happily without pressure.

Question 10.
What do you know about Chiang Kai-shek?
Answer:
After the death of Sun, Chiang Kai-shek emerged as the leader of the Guomindang as he launched a military campaign to control the ‘warlords’, regional leaders who had usurped authority and to eliminate the communists. He sought to militarise the nation. The people, he said, must develop a ‘habit and instinct for unified behavior’.

Question 11.
What were the evil practices against women in China?
Answer:

1. Practice of foot-binding.
2. The subordination of women and
3. Equality in marriage
4. Four virtues:
   1. Chastity,
   2. Appearance,
   3. Speech and
   4. Work and
   5. Length of hemlines were also prescribed

Question 12.
What were the two crises faced by rural China?
Answer:
Rural China faced two crises:

1. Ecological, with soil exhaustion deforestation and floods and
2. A socio-economic one caused by exploitative land-tenure systems, indebtedness, primitive technology and poor communications.

Question 13.
What was the massive effort to spread literacy?
Answer:
A massive effort for setting up adult peasant schools to spread literacy and political education was undertaken along with the land reforms. This was also accompanied by the setting up of primary schools for both young children and adults in all the villages.

Question 14.
Why did the standard of living for the peasant’s decline in Vietnam?
Answer:
The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber plantations owned by the French and few Vietnamese elites. Bonded labour was widely used in the rubber plantations. The French did little to industrialize the economy. In the rural areas landlordism, spread and large landlords took over the lands of small peasants and made them work as tenant farmers. As a result, the standard of living for the peasants declined.

Question 15.
What were the conditions of the peasants in Vietnam who rented the land of landlords?
Answer:
The peasants who rented the land of landlords had to pay rent in both share of produce and also by working on the fields and homes of the landlords and also pay different kinds of taxes imposed at will by the landlords. This forced them to borrow rice and money from the landlords and push them further into debt bondage.

Question 16.
Why did the Vietnamese students go to Japan in early 20th century?
Answer:
In early 20th century, Vietnamese students went to Japan to acquire modern education. For many of them, the primary objective was to drive out the French from Vietnam, overthrow the puppet emperor and re-establish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French.

Question 17.
What was the impact of the Great Depression of the 1930s?
Answer:
The Great Depression of the 1930s had a profound impact on Vietnam. The prices of rubber and rice fell, leading to rising rural debts, unemployment, and rural uprising. The French put these uprisings down with great severity, even using planes to bomb demonstrators.

Question 18.
What were the challenges faced by the New Republic of Vietnam?
Answer:
The new republic faced a number of challenges. The French tried to regain control by using the emperor, Bao Dai, as their puppet. Faced with the French offensive, the Vietminh were forced to retreat to the hills. After eight years of fighting, the French were defeated in 1954 at Dien Bien Phu and over 16000 French soldiers and officers were taken, prisoners.

Question 19.
Write about China at the turn of the 20th century.
Answer:
At the turn of the 20th century, China was ruled by emperors of the Manchu dynasty, which had become powerless to defend the interests of China vis a vis the western colonial powers. These powers had carved out their ‘spheres of influence’ in different parts of China and had forced the emperors to give them economic and political concessions like low import taxes, immunity from Chinese laws, maintaining armed forces, etc. Both the common people and administrators of the empire were unhappy with this state of affairs. There were several revolts by the people and attempts at reform by the administrators.

Question 20.
Why did the Guomindang fail?
Answer:

1. The Guomindang, despite its attempts to unite the country, failed because of its narrow social base and limited political vision.
2. A major plank in Sun Yat-sen’s programme – regulating capital and equalizing land was never carried out because the party ignored the peasantry and the rising social inequalities.
3. It sought to impose military order rather than address the problems faced by the people.

Question 21.
‘Mao was unlike other leaders’ – Why?
Answer:

1. Mao stressed the need for an independent government and army.
2. He had become aware of women’s problems and supported the emergence of rural women’s associations.
3. He promulgated a new marriage law that forbade arranged marriages, stopped purchase or sale of marriage contracts and simplified divorce. So Mao was unlike other leaders.

Question 22.
Write about the Peoples Republic of China government.
Answer:

1. The Peoples Republic of China government was established in 1949.
2. It was based on the principles of the ‘New Democracy’, an alliance of all social classes opposed to landlordism and imperialism.
3. Critical areas of the economy were put under government control.
4. Once in power the CCP carried out large-scale land reform measures which meant taking away the land of landlords and distributing them among poor peasants.
5. The new government also managed to enact laws to protect women, their rights and the abolition of polygamy.
6. This enabled women to assume new roles and enjoy equal status vis a vis men in various
   fields.

Question 23.
Read the paragraph and answer the following question.

The Great Depression of the 1930s had a profound impact on Vietnam. The prices of rubber and rice fell, leading to rising rural debts, unemployment and rural uprising. The French put these uprisings down with great severity, even using planes to bomb demonstrators.

Why did the fall in price of rice lead to the rise of rural indebtedness?
Answer:

1. Two-thirds of the rice production in Vietnam is exported.
2. By that time it was the third-largest exporter of rice in the world.
3. Great depression of 1929-30 has a great negative impact on Vietnam.
4. The prices of Rice and Rubber has fallen drastically and there is rise in rural indebtedness.

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the reforms implemented after the formation of democracy in China?
Answer:

1. The Peoples Republic of China was based on the principles of the ‘New Democracy’, an alliance of all social classes opposed to landlordism and imperialism.
2. Critical areas of the economy were put under government control.
3. They carried out large scale and reform measures.
4. They took away the land of landlords and distributed among poor peasants.
5. The new government also managed to enact laws to protect women, their rights and abolition of polygamy.
6. This enabled women to assume new roles and enjoy equal status vis a vis men in various fields.

Question 2.
Explain the role of schooling played in Vietnam national movements.
(OR)
Explain the role of education in the national movement by taking Vietnam as an example.
Answer:

1. The teachers did not blindly follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. While teaching, Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticised what was stated.
3. Students fought against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent the Vietnamese from qualifying for white-collar jobs.
4. They were inspired by patriotic feelings and the conviction that it was the duty of the educated to fight for the benefit of society.

Question 3.
Explain the policies followed by the French in Vietnam.
Answer:

1. French colonial rule influenced all aspects of Vietnamese life.
2. The French were keen to develop Vietnam as an exporter of rice.
3. They improved irrigation net work by building canals.
4. They encouraged landlords and facilitated marketing of agricultural produce.
5. The French did little to industrialise the economy.
6. Vietnamese peasants became entrenched in a cycle of debt.
7. There was no access for all to get good education.
8. All the higher education was in French only.

Question 4.
How were the Land reforms implemented in China?
Answer:
Land reforms of China.

1. Land reforms were launched in 1950-51.
2. The major steps involved were,
   1. Identification of all village inhabitants.
   2. Confiscation of all village lands and redistribution of land lord’s land and other productive property.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

Racism became common in the British colonial empire in late 19th and early 20th centuries. Educated Africans were excluded from the civil service, and there was discrimination against African entrepreneurs. At the same time, the authorities from ruling country gave control to the tribal chiefs and elite and promoted them.

Answer:
The given paragraph is about Racial Discrimination between the Black and the White people. It is related to Africa. One more point is that tribal chiefs were given control and the government promoted them.

Nigeria is an African country. It was a colony of the British. The British created Nigeria by bringing together different regions around the Niger river system where people of different tribes lived.

Before bringing all together, they faced many problems. Hausa-Fulani, Igbo and Yoruba tribes were there. Due to long years of missionary activity, many people still practice tribal religious beliefs.

The British implemented their divide and rule policy. A section of the people were educated and developed. If all the people were united in Nigeria, then the British would face the problem. The British always wanted to divide the Vietnamese based on colour or religious practices. That Was what the Britishers followed in India to divide Indians. All the Indians came together and fought against the British. Then the Britishers encouraged the Muslims to form a separate party for Muslims. They emphasised that Indian National Congress was the party of Brahmins and of upper caste. Gradually Hindus and Muslims were separated and so the national movement was weakened.

Now all the Independent countries should give equal opportunities to all and equality is to be maintained. There will be no racial discrimination at any level.

Question 6.
“America was very cruel in the Vietnam war” – Comment.
Answer:

1. America behaves very wild manner on Vietnam.
2. America with the fear of Communism to stop the spread of Communism in Vietnam, it declared war on Vietnam.
3. It uses chemical bombs and weapons like Agent Orange – B 52s. and Napalm.
4. Agent Orange destroyed plants & trees and made the land barren for a long time.
5. Phosphorous bombs – destroyed many villages and decimated jungles.
6. Civilians died in large numbers.
7. Thousands of troops were used by America.
8. Due to cruelty of America, America got agitation from world wide and from their mother land also.
9. Finally, America made a peace settlement and withdrawn from the war.

Question 7.
Answer the questions with the help of the given information.
a) Which nation was ruled by the Manchu Dynasty?
Answer:
China was ruled by the Manchu dynasty.

b) Who is considered as the ‘founder of modern China’?
Answer:
Sun-Yat-Sen was regarded as the founder of modern China.

c) Who was an eminent Human Rights activist and environmentalist of Nigeria?
Answer:
Ken – Saro- Wiwa was an eminent Human Rights activist and environmentalist of Nigeria.

d) What is meant by the Pan Africanism?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea which promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 8.
Read the given paragraph and write your Opinion.

The coastal environment of Nigeria has been disturbed because of reckless oil extraction by foreign oil companies. Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem.

Answer:
The given paragraph emphasises that the coastal environment of Nigeria has been disturbed because the oil companies extracted more than their share. It is talking about the consequences of over spillage of oil.

Over spillage of oil has various negative consequences:
Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem. Large areas of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil, have been destroyed. This is mainly because oil is stored in the soil and re-released annually. Around 5-10% of Nigerian mangrove ecosystems have been destroyed either by clearing or oil. Spills destroy crops and aqua culture through contamination of the groundwater and soil. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water. Even if there is no immediate health effect of this water contamination, it can cause cancer in the long term. Offshore spills, which are usually much bigger in scale, contaminate the coastal environments and cause a decline in the local fish production.

If the same is continued the whole world be affected. Oil is a natural resource. So natural resources are to be saved.

Question 9.
“The United States approach in Vietnamese’s struggle was brutal.” Do you agree with this statement? Why? Why not?
Answer:
“Yes, I agree with this statement. Because:

1. Until 1950’s Vietnamese were under the control of French.
2. And in some years it was under control of Japan.
3. People were suffered with high rents and taxes.
4. They did not get proper food also.
5. Ho-Chi-Minh’s idea land distribution in North Vietnam provide something to them and they lived happily.
6. So the North Vietnam peasants fulfilled their long cherished dream.
7. At the same manner South Vietnam people also wished that reforms introduced in that area and established Communism and get happy life.

Conclusion: But America brutally declare war on them to fulfill its desire.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph given below and answer the questions.

Agent Orange: The Deadly Poison

Agent Orange is a defoliant, a plant killer, so called because it was stored in drums marked with an orange band. Between 1961 and 1971, some 11 million gallons of this chemical was sprayed from cargo planes by US forces. Their plan was to destroy forests and fields, so that it would be easier to kill if there was no jungle cover for people to hide in. Over 14 percent of the country’s farmland was affected by this poison. Its effect has been staggering, continuing to affect people till today. Dioxin, an element of Agent Orange, is known to cause cancer and brain damage in children and according to a study, is also the cause of the high incidence of deformities found in the sprayed areas.
The tonnage of bombs, including chemical arms, used during US intervention (mostly against civilian targets) in Vietnam exceeds that used throughout the Second World War.

a) What is Agent Orange ?
Answer:
Agent Orange is a defoliant, a plant killer.

b) How does Agent Orange affect the children?
Answer:
Agent Orange causes cancer, brain damage and deformities in children.

c) Why did they destroy forests and fields?
Answer:
That it would be easier to kill if there were no forests and fields cover for people to hide in.

d) Do you think America was justified in using chemical weapons and civilian population and forests?
Answer:
No, it was not justified.

Question 11.
What do you know about the administration of Chiang Kai-shek?
Answer:

1. Chiang was a conservative and he encouraged women to cultivate the four virtues of ‘chastity,
   appearance, speech and work’ and recognize their role as confined to the household.
2. He also tried to suppress the trade union movement to encourage factory owners.
3. The Guomindang was failed because of its narrow social base and limited political vision.
4. A major plank in Sun-Yat-sen’s programme – regulating capital and equalising land – was never carried out because the party ignored the peasantry and the rising social inequalities.
5. It sought to impose military order rather than address the problems faced by the people.

Question 12.
How was the French education system in Vietnam?
Answer:

1. The French colonisers like the British were convinced that the people of the colony were uncivilised and the objective of their rule was to bring the benefits of modern civilisation. Education was seen as one way to civilize the ‘natives’.
2. The French needed an educated local labour force but they feared that education might create problems.
3. Once educated, the Vietnamese may begin to question colonial domination.
4. Even though Vietnamese language was taught in the primary level, all higher education was in French.
5. Only the Vietnamese elite -comprising a small fraction of the population – could enroll in the schools and only a few among those admitted ultimately passed the school-leaving examination.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic established in 1911 under Sun Yat-sen (1866-1925) who is regarded as the founder of modern China. He came from a poor family and studied in missionary schools where he was introduced to democracy and Christianity. He studied medicine but was greatly concerned about the fate of China. He studied the problems of China and worked out a programme of action. His programme was called the Three Principles (San min chui). These were: “nationalism”- this meant overthrowing the Manchu who were seen as a foreign dynasty, as well as other foreign imperialists; “democracy” or establishing democratic government; and “socialism” regulating industries and land reforms to distribute land to the landless peasants. Even though the Manchu dynasty was overthrown and a republic was declared, the republican government led by Sun-Yat-sen could not consolidate itself. The country came to be controlled by regional military powers called “warlords”.

a) Why was Sun Yat-sen regarded as the founder of modern China?
Answer:
Because he established a republic in China by overthrowing the Manchu empire.

b) What were the Three Principles?
Answer:
San min chui (Nationalism, Democracy, Socialism)

c) What is meant by Nationalism here?
Answer:
Nationalism meant overthrowing the Manchu who were seen as foreign dynasty as well as other foreign imperialists.

d) What is meant by Socialism?
Answer:
Regulating industries and land reforms.

e) Who were war lords?
Answer:
The regional military powers were called warlords.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Japan attacked and occupied much of China between 1937 and 1945. They tried to impose a barbaric colonial militaristic rule over China which had a disastrous impact on the Chinese society and economy. Both Guomindang and CCP now tried to join forces to fight Japanese occupation. After the surrender of Japan to the US in August 1945, Guomindang and CCP engaged with each other in an all out warfare for control over China. Eventually CCP was successful in establishing its rule over mainland China while Guomindang was forced to set up its government on the island of Taiwan.

a) How was the Japanese rule over China?
Answer:
It was a barbaric colonial militaristic rule.

b) Name the two political parties.
Answer:
Guomingdang and CCP.

c) To whom did Japan surrender?
Answer:
Japan surrendered to the US.

d) Which party was successful?
Answer:
The CCP was successful.

e) Which party established rule in Taiwan?
Answer:
The Guomindang.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

The French were keen to develop Vietnam as an exporter of rice and for this purpose they adopted a threefold strategy – improving irrigation network, encouraging landlords and facilitating marketing of agricultural produce like rice and rubber. The French began by building canals and draining lands fa the Mekong delta to increase cultivation. The vast system of irrigation works – canals and earthworks – built mainly with forced labour, increased rice production and allowed the export of rice to the international market. Vietnam exported two- thirds of its rice production and by 1931 had become the third largest exporter of rice in the world. This was followed by infrastructure projects (roads and railways) to help transport goods for trade, move military garrisons and control the entire region. Construction of a trans- Indo-China rail network that would link the northern and southern parts of Vietnam and China was begun.

a) Why were the French keen to develop Vietnam?
Answer:
Because it was an exporter of rice.

b) What was the other crop?
Answer:
Rubber plantations.

c) Which Delta was developed?
Answer:
The Mekong Delta was developed.

d) exported two-thirds of its rice production.
Answer:
Vietnam.

e) Who developed Vietnam?
Answer:
The French developed Vietnam.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

This phase of struggle with the US was brutal. Thousands of US troops arrived equipped with heavy weapons and tanks and backed by the most powerful bombers of the time – B52s. The wide spread attacks and use of chemical weapons – Napalm (a deadly bomb which caused intense damage to humans), Agent Orange (which destroyed plants and trees and made the land barren for a long time), and phosphorous bombs – destroyed many villages and decimated jungles. Civilians died in large numbers.

a) Which struggle was brutal?
Answer:
The struggle with the US was brutal.

b) What were B52s?
Answer:
B52s were powerful bombers.

c) What was “Napalm’?
Answer:
It was a chemical weapon.

d) Which was used on forest areas?
Answer:
Agent Orange was used on forest areas.

e) How were phosphorous bombs?
Answer:
They destroyed many villages and decimated jungles, civilians died in large numbers.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Nigerian nationalism had the twin task of fighting the British and also welding the. very diverse and conflicting ethnic groups. The national movement was stronger in the more developed south rather than in the north and this created a north-south divide. Even in the south, nationalism was plagued by ethnic conflict between the Yoruba and the Igbos. By the 1950s these three regions also had their own anti-colonial movements led by regional parties: the conservative Northern People’s Congress (NPC) in the north; the National Council for Nigeria and the Cameroons (NCNC) in the east, and the Action Group (AG) in the west.

a) What were the two tasks?
Answer:

1. Fighting the British
2. Welding the very diverse and conflicting ethnic groups.

b) In which region was the national movement stronger?
Answer:
It was strong in south.

c) What were the two tribes?
Answer:
Yoruba and Igbos.

4) Expand NPC.
Answer:
Northern People’s Congress.

e) Expand AG.
Answer:
Action Group.

Question 18.
Read the passage and answer the following question.
The effect of the war was felt within the US as well. Many were critical of the government for getting involved in a war that they saw as indefensible.
How do you appreciate the role of the people of the USA in ending the war?
Answer:

1. Vietnam was a small country.
2. The USA was very brutal in the war.
3. It used even chemical weapons.
4. The effects of the war was felt within the US as well.
5. When youth were drafted for the war, the anger spread.
6. People opposed the war.
7. They questioned the government’s policy.
8. Finally the people were instrumental in ending the war.
9. A peace settlement was signed in Paris in 1974.

Question 19.
Read the following text and interpret it.

Pan Africanism

Pan Africanism is an idea which promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe. This unity was to be used not only to fight colonialism and racial discrimination, but also to build unity among tribes and communities inhabiting the continent based on principles of equality, social justice and human dignity. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah, a freedom^ghter from Ghana.

Answer:

1. Africa was colonized by the European imperialistic powers and different tribes were residing in Africa.
2. The European powers plundered the resources of Africa both the mineral and agricultural resources.
3. Slave trade was also carried in this region.
4. Pan Africanism promoted the idea of the unity of all the Africans.
5. It helped them to fight against colonization and racial discrimination.
6. Pan Africanism has a higher sphere and it breaks the limits of nationalism.
7. It unites all the tribes living on the continent based on the principles of equality, social justice and human dignity.

Question 20.
Locate the following on the outline map of the world.

1. China
2. USA
3. Vietnam
4. France
5. Nigeria
6. Russia

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of world.
1) The third largest exporter of rice in the world.
Answer: Vietnam

2) These country people were called colons.
Answer: France

3) Manchu dynasty rule this country.
Answer: China

4) Yoruba people are belongs to this country.
Answer: Nigeria

5) America used agent orange on this country.
Answer: Vietnam

6) Washington

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Coordination – The Linking System Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 5th Lesson Coordination – The Linking System

10th Class Biology 5th Lesson Coordination – The Linking System Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Fill In the missing sections In the following flow-chart.

Answer:

Question 2.
Do you think body’s team work maintains functioning of our body? Justify your answer with an example.
Answer:

1. Yes. Body’s team work maintains functioning of our body.
2. All our functions are carried out by an effort of several systems working together.
3. The human body has a set of systems which regulate the internal environment and strive to give our cells the necessary condition as they need to function.
4. We cannot use only the skeletal system or muscular system.
5. To do any function several other systems also have their own roles to play.
6. The pathway involving the way that our organs tissues and cells pickup signals from their surroundings and respond to them that triggers different functions in our body as well as by our body.
7. When all the organs and organ systems work as a unit then the organism will survive.
8. For example our eyes, ears, legs should coordinate with each other when crossing the road. Otherwise we may met with an accident.

Question 3.
Give an example of coordination in your body where both hormonal and nervous controls function together.
Answer:

1. Several functions in our body are controlled by nerves, while many others are controlled by hormones.
2. When we are afraid, the rate of heart beat increases, the breath rate will be faster, blood pressure increases, the hair on the body becomes errect and we get goose bumps.
3. We might not observe our pupil dilation, skin becomes more sensitive. We come to normally only after we reach a safe spot.
4. The various actions of the body are controlled by hormones and coordinated by nervous system.
5. In these type of conditions nervous system and endocrine system work together to bring about control and coordination.
6. Another example for nervous and hormonal coordination. When the mother feeds the baby, the baby sucks the nipple for milk. This information is send to the brain by sensory nerve. Brain orders the pituitary gland to release the hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin helps in the ejection of milk from the mammary glands.

Question 4.
Consider that you are passing by a garbage disposal area and you immediately
cover your nose. Arrange the events below in a logical order by marking them from 1 to 5 to trace the events that happen in the nervous system from detection of foul smell (stimulus generation) to covering your nose (response).
i) At the end of the axon, electrical impulse releases chemicals.
ii) Stimulus received by the dendrites of a neuron sets off chemical reaction that creates an electrical impulse.
iii) Electrical impulse transmitted through cell body and axon.
iv) The chemicals cross the synapse and reach the next neuron. Similarly, the electrical impulse crosses several neurons.
v) Finally, the impulse is delivered from neuron to the gland that helps in recognition of the foul smell and muscle cells that help in covering the nose.
Answer:
The following events occur in nervous system for detecting foul smell of garbage, ii, iii, i, iv, v

Question 5.
What is a Synapse? How is it useful in transfer information?
Answer:

1. Definition: Synapse is a functional region between two neurons where information from one neuron is transmitted or relayed to another neuron.
2. Through synaptic region is with minute gaps it does not have any protoplasmic connection between them.
3. Information is passed from one nerve cell to the other through these gaps either in the form of chemical or electrical signals or both.

Question 6.
Distinguish between
a) Stimulus and Response
b) Afferent and Efferent nerves
c) Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
d) Receptor and effector
Answer:
a) Stimulus and Response

b) Afferent and Efferent nerves

c) Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system :

d) Receptor and effector:

Question 7.
How does phototropism occur in plants?
Answer:

1. Bending of plants towards light is called phototropism. (Photo = light) (tropism = movement)
2. For example a creeper which is growing near the window bend towards sunlight.
3. Auxins are the phyto hormones which are present at the tip of the shoot respond the plant to bend towards sunlight.

Question 8.
Give an example and explain how plants may immediately respond to a stimulus.
Answer:

1. The plant responding to stimulus is mimosa pudica is the example.
2. Mimosa pudica leaves have pad like sweelings at the base are called PULVINI.
3. Here cells contain water and large intercellular spaces. Due to water pressure pulvini hold the leaf errect.
4. When we touch the leaves, an electrical impulse is generated due to plant hormone.
5. Because of this hormone water in the pulvini cells which are closer to the leaf vein migrate to other side’of the cells.
6. Then pulvini loss its fitness hence leaves become fold. After 20 to 30 minutes water comes back leaves become errect.

Question 9.
Suggest an experiment to show how roots grow away from light in most plants.
Answer:
Aim: To prove that roots grow away from light in most plants.
Material required: Glass jar, Bean seed.
Procedure:

1. A plant jar is taken and filled with mud.
   
2. A bean seed is sown just adjacent in the inner wall of the jar.
3. So that it is easy to observe the growth of root and shoot.
4. After 4-5 days the germination of the seed is observed.
5. Keep the jar in the sunlight. We observe the growth of roots and shoot.
6. Finally the jar is tilted to keep the growing plant horizontally.
7. After the growth of 4-5 days, tilt the glass jar and keep the plant horizontally.

Observation: It is observed that the roots extends downwards to the earth that is away from the sun light and the shoot grows towards sunlight.
Conclusion: By the above experiment it is proved that roots grow towards gravity (earth) away from sun light.

Question 10.
Give an example to show how hormones can influence visible changes in your body.
(OR)
What are the effects of hormones on human beings?
Answer:

1. Endocrine glands secrete chemical substances called Hormones directly into blood.
2. Hormones act on the cells of other organs and increase or decrease the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
3. The external features by which the males and females can be distinguished are called secondary sexual characters.
4. Testosterone in males and estrogen in females promotes the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
5. For example, if a dog chases us, our nervous system stimulate the adrenal glands to secrete more adrenaline hormone into our body.
6. When we are afraid, the rate of heart beat increases, the breath rate will be faster, blood pressure increases, the hair on the body becomes errect.
7. All these changes occur due to the production of Adrenaline hormone.

Question 11.
How does a neuron differ from an ordinary cell in structure? Write notes.
Answer:

Question 12.
Is the structure of neuron suitable for transmission of impulses? Analyse.
Answer:

1. Yes. The structure of neuron is suitable for transmission of impulses.
2. Neurons are the functional units which receive and process information and generate responses.
3. Cell body is the centre for all the synthetic activity of the neuron.
4. Dendrites arise from the cell body receive information from other neurons and carry this information to the cell body.
5. The axon or nerve fibre gives out several branches that end in nerve terminals. These make connect with the dendrites or the axons of another neuron.
6. Myelinated sheath prevents the leakage of electrical currents from axon. Myelinated axons conduct impulses much faster than unmyelinated axons.

Question 13.
Man is the most intelligent animal. What could be the fact that helped us to reach such a conclusion?
Answer:

1. Man is the most intelligent animal in animal kingdom.
2. This is possible by well development of brain and its marvellous function.
3. Human brain has abilities to learn from concepts.
4. It understands, applies logic and reason.
5. The brain also recognizes patterns and comprehends ideas.
6. The human brain has ability in making plans, solving problems, making decisions and retaining information.
7. Man is the only animal who uses language to communicate.
8. Intelligence enables humans to experience and think.
9. It has also consciousness and self-awareness.

Question 14.
The axon of nerve cell in hand is shorter than the axon of nerve cell in leg. Do you support this statement? Why?
Answer:

1. Yes, I support the above statement.
2. The axon of nerve cell in hand is shorter than the axon of nerve cell in leg.
3. The sciatic nerve is the large nerve in humans and animals. It begins in the lower back and runs through the buttock and lower limbs.
4. Sciatic nerve present in the leg is the largest and widest single nerve in the human body. It measures about 1 mt in length.
5. Usually the length of leg is more in size than hand. Hence the axon of nerve cell in hand is shorter than the axon of nerve cell in leg.

Question 15.
Organs respond to the external stimulus by a fraction of second. How do you feel about such controlling mechanism of human body?
Answer:

1. Organs responding for the external stimuli by a fraction of second are due to reflex action.
2. Reflex actions are very important as they save us from painful or dangerous stimuli.
3. Reflex actions or reflexus are fast, immediate automatic and involuntary responses of the body.
4. They help in the body as they save us from painful or dangerous stimuli.
5. Reflexes occur without our thinking.
6. Brain is not involved in the execution of several reflexes.
   Ex: Withdrawing our hand when we touch hot subject.

Question 16.
State whether the following actions are voluntary action, reflex action or conditioned reflex.

1. Blinking
2. Cleaning the table
3. Playing on the key board
4. Salivating when food is put in the mouth
5. We close our ears when we hear unbearable sound

Answer:

1. Blinking: Involuntary action or reflex action.
2. Cleaning the table: Voluntary action.
3. Playing on the keyboard: Conditioned reflex.
4. Salivating when food is put in the mouth: Involuntary or Reflex action.
5. We close our ears when we hear unbearable sound: Involuntary or reflex action.

Question 17.
What will happen to the potted plant kept near window in the room?
(OR)
Draw a diagram of a plant showing phototropism. Explain why plants possess such type of response.
(OR)
A plant which grows near a window bends towards sun light. Write the reason for it.
Answer:

1. The potted plant which is kept near the window in the room, grows towards light.
   
2. Auxins acts on bending of stem of show a response to the sun light.
3. More auxin collects on the light illuminated side of the stem. So cells on that side grow faster.
4. On opposite side cells grow slow to make the stem bend.
5. Auxins are the plant hormones responsible for the growing of the stem towards light.
6. Auxins are synthesized at the tip of the stem (meristematic tissue).
7. Bending of the plant towards light is called phototropism.

Question 18.
What happens if all the functions of the human body are controlled only by brain?
Brain controls all the functions of the human body. Comment on it.
Answer:

1. If all actions of the human body are controlled by brain, our body will get harm in dangerous situations.
2. Some actions may be delayed and our brain could not conduct reflex actions, which require immediate action to a stimulus.
3. For example, when we touch a hot object, we require an immediate response to save our hand. If the brain controls this action, the time taken will be more and our hand will burn.
4. So, it is controlled by spinal cord, the response will be quick, and we may escape the danger.
5. Nerves can not reach the every corner of the body, whereas hormones of endocrine glands can do that.
6. So it’s not good that all functions are controlled by brain.

Question 19.
If you visit a doctor, what doubts you would like to clarify about pancreas?
Answer:

1. What is pancreas?
2. Where is pancreas located in our body?
3. Why is it called mixed gland?
4. What is the exocrine part of pancreas?
5. What is the endocrine part of pancreas?
6. What are the cells that secrete hormone insulin?
7. What is the function of insulin?
8. What happens if required amounts of insulin is not produced?
9. What are the symptoms of diabetes?
10. How can diabetes be controlled?

Question 20.
Take a small potted plant. Cover base portion of the plant tightly and hang the part upside down. Observe the plant for a week. Based on your observation how can you support phototropism?
Answer:
Aim: To prove that phototropism is a character that is carried by stem.

Apparatus: Potted plant, a strong small rope.
Procedure : Take a small potted plant. Cover the base portion of the plant tightly so that the plant along with soil do not fell down. Now take a rope and hang the potted plant upside down to a support firmly.
Observe the plant after a week.
Observation: We observe that the end of the stem which is upside down takes ‘U’ turn and grows towards light.
Conclusion: Phototropism is a response of plants towards light. That the stem grows towards light that is negatively to gravitation. Auxins are responsible for phototropism.

Question 21.
Take a cock feather touch smoothly at different parts of your body. Findout which portion of the body has high sensation. Is this similar during sleeping ? Prepare a report on it.
Answer:
Aim: To prove that our body shows high sensation in different parts.
Apparatus : Cock feather.
Procedure: Take a cock feather. Touch smoothly at different parts of our body with the cock feather.
Observation : It is observed that some of the body parts like palms of hands and soles of feet there is less sensation than the other body parts because the skin is thick. Some other parts where the skin is thin, the sensation is more.
Report: The nerve endings are situated in the skin. These nerve endings are responsible for the sensation of the body.

Question 22.
What procedure you follow to understand the effect of plant growth hormones (in agar medium) in the terminal portion of the tip of stem (coleoptile)?
Answer:
Aim: To show the growth of Avena coleoptile involves a chemical substance.
Apparatus: Oat seedlings (Avena sativa), coleoptile, a slice of agar, a sharp blade. Procedure:

1. Take some oat seedlings.
2. Their coleoptile tips are cut off.
3. Place the tips on a slice of agar and leave them for about an hour.
4. Cut the agar into small blocks and place a block on one side each stump of the decapitated plants.
5. The plants were kept in the dark during the entire experiment.
6. Observe the plants after one hour.

Observation :

1. Within one hour a distinct bending away from the side on which the agar block was placed is observed.
2. Agar block that had not been contact with coleoptile doesn’t show any bending.
   

Conclusion : The coleoptile tip exerted its effect by means of a chemical stimulus such as an electrical impulse. This chemical stimuls came to be known as auxin.

Question 23.
Collect information on the actions controlled by spinal cord by using reference books from your school library.
Answer:
Spinal cord:

1. Spinal cord is a long and cylindrical structure. It passes through vertibral column extending all along the dorsal surface of trunk.
   
2. Vertebrae of the vertebral column protects the spinal cord.
3. The spinal cord has two major functions, a) carrying information b) coordinating reflexes.
4. It receives sensory information through the afferent nerves from the sensory receptors throughout the body and send them to the brain.
5. It also carries information from the brain through efferent fibres to the muscles and glands.
6. It coordinates reflexes without the involvement of the brain.

Thus the spinal cord has both communicative and integrative functions.

Reflex actions:

1. Excepting the sensory and motor functions spinal cord controls some other important function also. These are called as reflex actions.
2. The spinal cord does not take any assistance from the brain. Reflex actions are automatic, unlearned, involuntary and in born responses.
3. Therefore these actions are suddenly in nature and have a purpose of protecting the individuals or his / her organs from sudden danger.

Question 24.
Read the following sentences and compare with endocrine glands.

Pheromones are chemical substances secreted by organisms. These act as chemical signals secreted by exocrine glands. Pheromones are used as signals by the members of same species. Honey bee secretes pheromones that attract other bees to the location of food.
Answer:

Question 25.
Collect the information about cranial nerves, spinal nerves from internet or from your school library.
Answer:
Spinal cord :

1. Spinal cord is a long and cylindrical structure passing through the vertebral column.
2. The vertebrae (back bones) of the vertebral column protect the spinal cord from injuries.
3. From the sides of spinal cord, 31 pairs of nerves take their origin one from each side and supply branches to various parts of the body.
4. Basic function of spinal cord is to act as a relay station – receiving information from various parts of the body parts below the head and send this information to the brain.
5. Similarly, it receives information from brain and sends this information to other parts of the body.
6. In addition to this, spinal cord also plays a major role in the RFELEX ACTIONS.
7. The message received from the sensory nerve is passed into spinal cord. It is analyzed by the INTER NEURON present in the spinal cord and response is given. It is conveyed to the effector organ through motor nerve. The effector organ shows the response.
8. Thus spinal cord saves us from dangerous stimuli through it’s REFLEX ACTIONS.

Question 26.
Draw a picture representing connection between dendrite – dendrite, axon – dendrite. Why do they connect like that?
Answer:

1. The nerve cell is the structural and functional unit of nervous system.
   
2. It consists of more than 100 billion of them, which communicate with each other in a specific manner.
3. Dendrites of one nerve cell connects to the other or to the axons of another nerve cell through connect points called as a synapse.

Question 27.
Draw a neatly labelled diagram of Brain and write few points how it is protected.
Answer:
Protection of Brain :

1. Brain is present in the hard bony box called CRANIUM.
   
2. It is covered by three layers called MENINGES.
3. The space between the inner layer is filled with fluid called cerebrospinal fluid,
4. It serves a shock-absorbing medium and protects brain against shocks/ jerks along with the meninges and cranium.

Question 28.
You are walking in the traffic suddenly you heard a loud sound. How does coordination take place in this situation among respected organs? Draw a block diagram to explain this situation.
Answer:

Question 29.
Make a model of neuron using suitable materials.
Answer:
Required materials: A chart, twine thread, fevicol, sticker.

Question 30.
Observe different actions performed by your classmate for a period of 45 minutes. Out of these actions which are controlled by voluntary and involuntary pathways?
Answer:
Voluntary actions:

1. Standing
2. sitting
3. laughing
4. drinking
5. moving
6. clapping
7. carrying books
8. reading
9. writing
10. talking

Involuntary actions:

1. Blinking of eyes
2. swallowing
3. breathing
4. listening etc.

Question 31.
Its very interesting to watch a creeper entwining its tendril to the support. Is not it? How do you express your feelings in this situation?
(OR)
Plants also respond to external stimuli. How do you feel about this?
Answer:

1. A very interesting thing in plants is movement of tendrils.
   
2. All plants show positive response to phototropism.
3. But creepers like cucumber, bittergourd the stem is weak and thin. Hence plant cannot grow erect.
4. Tendrils play a vital role to make the plant erect. Tendrils are thin thread-like growth on the leaves or stems of climbing plants.
5. They grows towards support and wind around them.
6. This type of response to make contact or touch is called thigmotropism.
7. Nature only finds it’s way to grow and survive on the earth.

Question 32.
Hormones are released at a specific place, specific time for a specific function. Prepare a cartoon on the hormones with a nice caption.
Answer:

Fill in the blanks.

1. The largest region of the brain is ———–.
2. A point of contact between two neurons is ———–.
3. ———– phytohormone is responsible for cell elongation and differentiation of shoots and roots.
4. Thyroxine is responsible for ———–.
5. Gibberellins and auxins promote growth in plants while absciscic acid arrests the same. Some situations are discussed here. State which hormones would be needed and why?
   a) A gardener wants large dahlias, he should use along with nutrients and other things ———– hormone.
   b) In a dwarf plant the branches have to be thickened one would use the ———– hormone.
   c) Seeds are to be stored a long time ———– hormone can help.
   d) Cutting the apex or tip of plants so that there are several lateral buds ———– hormone can be used.
   e) The part of the brain that helps you in solving puzzles is ———–.

Answer:

1. cerebrum
2. synapse
3. Auxin
4. General growth rate and metabolic rate
5. a) Auxin b) Gibberellin c) Absciscic acid d) Cytokinins e) Cerebrum

Choose the correct answer.

1. A person has loss of control on emotions, which part of brain stops its function ? [ ]
   A) Cerebrum
   B) Diencephalon
   C) Mid brain
   D) Cerebellum
2. Leaf movement in mimosa helps to [ ]
   A) Reduce photosynthesis
   B) Protect from grazers
   C) Releasing phytohormones
   D) Regulate its growth
3. Diabetes is related to this gland. [ ]
   A) Thyroid
   B) Pancreas
   C) Adrenal
   D) Pituitary

10th Class Biology 5th Lesson Coordination – The Linking System InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 95

Question 1.
What helps us to respond to such signals?
Answer:
There is a sequence of events that bring about responses. They start from detecting changes in environment.

Question 2.
Why does the living body respond to such signals?
Answer:
The ability to react to particular stimulus in a particular situation must be of great importance in ensuring the survival of the organism.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 96

Question 3.
What did Galen conclude after his observations?
Answer:
After the observations of his patient, Galen a Greek physiologist concluded that nerves were of two types – those of sensation and those of action.

Question 4.
Why do you think Galen drew such a conclusion?
Answer:
According to Galen the blow in the neck of his patient had damaged the nerves of sensation but had not affected its action. Then Galen concluded that nerves were of two types.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 98

Question 5.
Which organ of our body was the detector and which was the effector in Activity -1?
Answer:
In Activity -1, Eye was the detector and fingers were the effector.

Question 6.
What do you think that the information carried on the afferent and efferent nerves?
Answer:
The information carried by afferent nerve is “scale is falling”.
The information carried by the efferent nerve is “to hold the scale”.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 99

Question 7.
What other effectors would act under these circumstances?
Answer:

1. Withdraw our hands, when our fingers touch a hot object.
2. Closing eyes when bright light is focussed on eyes.
3. We sneeze when something enters the nose.
4. We cough when inhaled dust or some other circumstances.

Question 8.
What does this tell us about the association nerves?
Answer:
The sensory nerves in the spinal cord makes connections with other neurons in the grey matter. These neurons are called association neurons or interneurons. The association neurons process the information and generate responses.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 100

Question 9.
Think of any action and try to make a sketch of reflex arc.
Answer:

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 102

Question 10.
According to you what would be the function of the spinal cord?
Answer:
Functions of the spinal cord :

1. Spinal cord sends information received from different parts of the body to brain.
2. Also it sends the information to various parts received from brain.
3. Spinal cord also play a major role in reflex actions.

Question 11.
Are all functions of our body under direct control of the brain and spinal cord? Why do you think so?
Answer:
Yes. All the functions of our body are under direct control of the brain and spinal cord. The 43 pairs of peripheral nervous system associated with brain and spinal cord plays an important role in disposing our body functions.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 103

Question 12.
Which root according to you gets signals from afferent nerves?
Answer:
The dorsal root of the spinal cord gets signals from afferent nerves.

Question 13.
What do you think the end of these nerves act at the muscular end?
Answer:
At the ends of these nerves can involuntarily control several functions of regions like internal organs, blood vessels, smooth and cardiac muscles and is called an autonomous nervous system. It has voluntary control of muscles of some areas of skin and the skeletal muscle.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 104

Question 14.
To which organs of the body do the nerves go from the ganglions near the vertebral column?
Answer:
The organs like heart, lungs, stomach, intestines, urinary bladder, kidneys, hand fingers of the body, the nerves go from the ganglions near the vertebral column.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 105

Question 15.
What are the organs that receives nerves starting from the brain?
Answer:
Eye, mouth, tongue, salivary glands are the organs receives nerves starting from the brain.

Question 16.
Which are the organs whose activities are influenced by the sympathetic nervous system?
Answer:
Eye – pupil, heart, lungs, blood vessels, sweat glands, digestive tract, kidneys, penis are the organs influenced by the sympathetic nervous system.

Question 17.
Which are the organs whose activities are influenced by the parasympathetic system?
Answer:
Stomach, intestines, salivary glands, reproductive organs, etc., are influenced by para sympathetic system.

Question 18.
What do you understand about the functions of parasympathetic nervous system?
Answer:
Parasympathetic nervous system slows down the body functions such as feed & breed, rest & digest, sexual arose, lacrimation, urination, defecation and digestion.

Question 19.
What do you understand about the functions of sympathetic nervous system?
Answer:
Sympathetic nervous system speeds up the body functions. Dilates pupil, heart – increases rate, force of contraction, lungs dilates, blood vessels contraction, etc. are the functions controlled by sympathetic nervous system.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 107

Question 20.
Have you ever observed the duration of anger?
Answer:
The duration of anger will be sometimes ten minutes or fifteen minutes or according to the situation.

Question 21.
Why does anger come down?
Answer:
Anger is always short lived factor. Increased levels of adrenalin are responsible for anger. When the levels of adrenalin in the blood come down slowly. We came to normal state.

Question 22.
What may happen if anger persists for a longer period?
Answer:
If anger persists for longer time, regular metabolic activities are disturbed.

Question 23.
What will happen if it is continued for longer periods of time?
Answer:
The sugar levels in the blood rise than normal level. Blood pressure increases, burning sensation in the heart, stomach upsets are the some of the abnormal conditions may happen.

10th Class Biology 5th Lesson Coordination – The Linking System Activities

Activity – 1

Holding a falling stick.
Answer:
Take a long scale or stick at least around V2 meter. Keep your fingers in holding position. Ask your friend to hold the stick / scale near the end and let the other end be suspended between your fingers.
Let there be a very small gap around a centimeter between your thumb and stick/scale and fore finger. Now let you friend allow it to fall. Try to hold it.

1. Could you hold it exactly at the point where it was suspended between your fingers?
   Answer:
   No. I cannot hold it exactly at the point.
2. How far up was this point from the end suspended between your fingers?
   Answer:
   2 cm up (nearly at the end of the scale).
3. Why did this happen?
   Answer:
   Because it is the sudden action. To hold it fastly. The exact point went up.
4. How fast do you think the process was?
   Answer:
   The process was so fast in a fraction of a second.
5. What makes this kind of communication possible?
   Answer:
   Rapidity of response indicates an efficient communication system linking those parts that pick up stimuli that trigger a response by the nervous system.

Activity – 2

Observe the permanent slide of nerve cell or neuron under microscope and try to find out its parts. Compare with the following diagram.
Answer:
Structural unit of the nervous system is the nerve cell or neuron. Neuron is highly specialised cell. Neurons carry impulses or messages. New nerve cells are not produced to replace the damaged or destroyed nerve cell. A neuron has three parts. They are

1. cyton
2. axon and
3. dendrites

1. The cyton:

1. It is also called the cell body.
2. It has a large and round nucleus.
3. In the cytoplasm of the cyton, nissl granules are present.

2. Axon:

1. It is the long and cylindrical process that arises from the cyton.
2. In some nerve cells, axon is surrounded by a layer of fatty material known as myelin sheath.
3. The myelin sheath is not continuous throughout length of the axon.
4. It is broken at regular intervals.
5. These broken spots are called as nodes of Ranvier.

3. Dendrites: Arise from the cyton they are much branched, when compared to axon.

Activity – 3

What is knee jerk reflex?
Answer:
Cross the legs, in a seated position, so that the lower half of the uppermost leg hangs freely over the other. Strike the area below the knee cap sharply, while firmly grasping the front part of the thigh with the other hand. Note the changes in shape of the thigh muscles.

1. What changes do you observe in the thigh muscle?
   Answer:
   The thigh muscles get contracted and becomes short.
2. What do we call this type of response?
   Answer:
   This type of responses are called involuntary actions. Such type of actions in the body are carried by without our involvement and our knowledge.
3. What do we call the action of kicking a foot ball?
   Answer:
   Kicking of a foot ball is a voluntary action’ These actions are within our control.
4. How is the knee jerk action takes place?
   Answer:
   In the knee jerk action a nerve pathway was involved.
   v) Do you think most of the functions in our body go about in an involuntary manner? Why ? Why not ?
   Answer:
   Most of our body functions are done without the involvement of our knowledge. For example, heart beating, respiration, digestion, etc., are the involuntary actions which are carried by our body.

Activity – 4

Touch the leaves of Mimosa pudica (athipathi, touch me not) plant and observe the response of leaves.

1. Are they folding?
   Answer:
   When the leaves of Mimosa are touched the leaves get folding. Touching the leaves is the stimulus and folding is the response.
2. In which direction the folding of the leaves take place?
   Answer:
   The folding of the leaves take place inward direction.
3. Give some examples of situations in plants responding to a certain stimulus.
   Answer:
   Examples: The sun flower turning to the direction of sun, the bending response of the plant when it is kept in the dark. Some of leaves of the trees opens at the day time and closes after sun set.
   Phototropism of stem and geotropism of roots, hydrotropism of roots of plants growing towards water and thigmotropism where the creepers like cucumber, bitter – gourd takes the help of tendrils and wind around the support are some of the examples of response to stimulus in plants.

Activity – 5

Take a glass jar and fill with soil. Sow a bean seed near the wall of the jar. After 4 – 5 days you will notice seed germination. Keep the jar under the sun. Observe how root and shoot grows. Then tilt the glass jar and keep the plant horizontally. Observe the direction of the root and shoot growth for more than a week.

1. Does the shoot take a horizontal tilt after a week?
   Answer:
   After a week the shoot takes a horizontal tilt.
2. Which side of the shoot may have grown more and which side less to bring about this effect?
   Answer:
   The shoot grown more towards the light and less where light is not falling.
3. Do you find any difference in the shape of epidermal cells?
   Answer:
   The straight portions of the epidermal cells shows no bending but the bending portions of epidermal cells shows bending.
4. Who performed experiments on phototropism?
   Answer:
   Charles Darwin and his son Francis Darwin performed some experiments on phototropism.
5. What did they do in their experiment?
   Answer:
   Charles Darwin and his son Francis Darwin performed experiments on phototropism. They covered the terminal portion of the tip of stem (coleoptile) with a cylinder of metal foil. Exposed the plant to light coming from the side.
6. What did they observe by that experiment?
   Answer:
   They observed that the bending towards the light (characteristic) of the seedling did not occur. If light was permitted to penetrate the cylinder bending occurred normally.
7. What did Charles Darwin and his son Francis Darwin state on their experiment?
   Answer:
   They stated that when seedlings are freely exposed to a lateral light some ‘influence’ is transmitted from upper to the lower part causing the material to bend.
8. What are the experiments of F.W. Went and how did he succeeded in separating ‘influence’ from the plant?
   Answer:
   F.W. Went cut off coleoptile tips from oat seedlings. He placed the tips on a slice of agar and left them for about an hour.
   He then cut agar into small blocks and placed a block on one side each stump of the decapitated plants. They were kept in the dark during the entire experiment. Within one hour he observed a distinct bending away from the side on which agar block was placed.
9. How did Went come to know about auxin?
   Answer:
   Went interpreted these experiments as showing that the coleoptile tip exerted it’s effect by means of chemical stimulus rather than a physical stimulus such as an electrical impulse.
   This chemical stimulus came to be known as auxin. In this way the first plant hormone auxin was discovered by F.W. Went.
10. What is the meaning of auxin in Greek?
    Answer:
    The Greek word auxin means to increase.