AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 8 Ecology and Environment Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 8 Ecology and Environment

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define the term “ecology” and its branches.
Answer:
The word ‘ecology’ was derived from the Greek terms (‘Oikos house and ‘logos’ – ‘study’) and it can be defined as “the study of the relationship of organisms with their environment”.

Question 2.
What is an ecological population?
Answer:
A population is a group of organisms of the same species living in a specific area at a specific time.

Question 3.
Define a community.
Answer:
It is an association of the interacting members of populations of different autotrophic and heterotrophic species in a particular area.

Question 4.
What is an ecosystem?
Answer:
An ecosystem is a functional unit of the biosphere in which members of the community interact among themselves and with the surrounding environment.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 5.
Distinguish between ecosystem and biome.
Answer:

EcosystemBiome
1. Level of organization above the level of the biological community landscape.1. Level of organization above the level.
2. It can be as small as an aquarium/tiny puddle.2. It occupies a vast region.
3. Functional unit of the biosphere.3. Large community of plants and animals.

Question 6.
What is a biome? Name any two biomes you studied.
Answer:
A ‘biome’ is a large community of plants and animals that occupies a vast region.
Ex: Tropical rain forest, desert, tundra (terrestrial biomes) Freshwater biomes, marine biome (aquatic biomes).

Question 7.
What is meant by ecosphere?
Answer:
It is the part of the Earth that supports ‘life’. It extends several kilometers above the Earth’s surface into the atmosphere and extends several kilometers below the ocean’s surface.

Question 8.
Explain the difference between the ‘nich’ of an organism and its ‘habitat’.
Answer:

HabitatNich
1. It is the place in which an organism lives.1. Functional role of an organism in an ecosystem.
2. It is comparable to the address of a person.2. It is comparable to the profession of a person.

Question 9.
A population has more genetically similar organisms than a biotic community. Justify the statement.
Answer:
A population is a group of organisms of the same species, living in a specific area at a specific time.
Ex: The fish belongs to the species Catla. catla living at a given time.

Question 10.
How do the fish living in Antarctic waters manage to keep their body fluids from freezing?
Answer:
During the course of millions of years of their existence, many species (fish) would have evolved a relatively constant internal (within body) environment so it permits all biochemical reactions and physiological reactions to proceed with maximal efficiency and thus, enhance the overall “fitness” of the species.

Question 11.
How does your body solve the problem of altitude sickness, when you ascend tall mountains?
Answer:
The body compensates for low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production and increasing the rate of breathing.

Question 12.
What is the effect of light on body pigmentation?
Answer:
Light influences the colour of the skin. The animals which live in the regions of low intensity of light have less pigmentation than the animals exposed to light.

Question 13.
Distinguish the terms phototaxis and photokinesis.
Answer:
Phototaxis is the oriented locomotion of an organism towards or away from the direction of light.
Ex: As seen in Euglena
Photokinesis is the influence of light on the non-directional movement of organisms.
Ex: Mussel crab

Question 14.
What are circadian rhythms?
Answer:
Biological rhythms that occur in a time period of 24 hours are called circadian rhythms.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 15.
What is photoperiodism?
Answer:
The response of organisms to the photoperiod is called photoperiodism.
Ex: Reproduction of flowers, migration of birds.

Question 16.
Distinguish between photoperiod and critical photoperiod.
Answer:
Photoperiod: The duration of light hours is known as a photoperiod.
Critical photoperiod: The specific day length which is essential for the initiation of seasonal events is called critical photoperiod.

Question 17.
Mention the advantages of some UV rays to us.
Answer:

  • UV radiation kills the microorganisms present on the body surface of animals.
  • UV radiation helps in the conversion of sterols present in the skin into vitamin D in mammals.

Question 18.
What is cyclomorphosis? Explain its importance in Daphnia.
Answer:
The cyclic seasonal morphological variations among certain organisms are called “Cyclomorphosis”. In the case of Daphnia, it is an adaptation to “stabilize the movement” in water and can “resist the water currents better” to stay in the water rich in food materials.

Question 19.
What are ‘regulators’?
Answer:
Organisms that are able to maintain homeostasis by physiological means which ensure constant body temperature, and constant osmotic concentration are called, “regulators”.
Ex: Mammals, Birds

Question 20.
What are conformers?
Answer:
Living organisms that cannot maintain 3 constant internal environments are described as “conformers”.

Question 21.
Define commensalism. Give one example.
Answer:
This is the interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefited.
Ex: Barnacles growing on the back of a whale benefit while the whale derives no noticeable benefit.

Question 22.
Define mutualism. Give one example.
Answer:
This is the interaction that benefits both the interacting species.
Ex: Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic relationship between a fungus and photosynthesizing algae.

Question 23.
Define amensalism. Give one example.
Answer:
Amensalism is an interaction in which one species is harmed whereas the other one is unaffected.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 24.
What is meant by interspecific competition? Give one example.
Answer:
A process in which the fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another species is called interspecific competition.
Ex: Competition between visiting flamingos and resident fishes in shallow South American lakes.

Question 25.
What is camouflage? Give its significance.
Answer:
Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically coloured to avoid being detected easily by the predator. This phenomenon is called “Camouflage”.

Question 26.
What is Gause’s principle? When does it applicable?
Answer:
When the resources are limited, the competitively superior species will eventually eliminate the other species. It is relatively easy to demonstrate in laboratory experiments.

Question 27.
Name the association that exists in mycorrhiza.
Answer:
The association that exists in mycorrhiza is called “Mutualism”.

Question 28.
Distinguish between lotic and lentic habitats.
Answer:

Lotic habitatLentic habitat
The still water bodies fall under the lotic community.
Ex: Lakes, ponds
Flowing water bodies are called lentic habitats.
Ex: River, canals, streams

Question 29.
What is a zone of compensation in an aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:
The imaginary line that separates the limnetic zone from the profundal zone in a lake is called the zone of compensation (or) compensation point.

Question 30.
Distinguish between phytoplankton and zooplankton.
Answer:

Phyto planktonZooplankton
Microscopic organisms bear chlorophyll and form producers in the lakes.
Ex: Diatoms, Green algae, Euglenoids
Microscopic organisms that do not bear chlorophyll move through water currents and form primary consumer levels in the lakes.
Ex: Daphnia, rotifers and ostracods

Question 31.
Distinguish between neuston and nekton.
Answer:

NeustonNekton
The animals living at the air-water interface constitute the “neuston”.
Ex: Water strides beetles, the larva of mosquitoes.
The animals capable of swimming constitute the “nekton”.
Ex: Water scorpion, back swimmer, diving beetles.

Question 32.
What is periphyton?
Answer:
The animals that are attached to/creeping on the aquatic plants are called “periphyton”.
Ex: Water snails, hydras, nymphs of insects, etc.

Question 33.
Write three examples of man-made ecosystems.
Answer:
Cropland ecosystems, Aquaculture ponds, Aquaria.

Question 34.
What is meant by osmotrophic nutrition?
Answer:
The state of pre-digested food material through the body surface is known as osmotrophic nutrition.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 35.
Explaining the process of “leaching”.
Answer:
When the water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated as unavailable salts that entire process is called “leaching”.

Question 36.
What is PAR?
Answer:
PAR means “Photosynthetically Active Radiation”.

Question 37.
What is the percentage of PAR, in the incident solar radiation?
Answer:
Of the incident solar radiation, less than 50% of it is PAR.

Question 38.
Define entropy.
Answer:
As per the second law of thermodynamics, the energy dispersed is in the form of unavailable heat energy and constitutes entropy.

Question 39.
What is a standing crop?
Answer:
Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time and it is called the “Standing crop”.

Question 40.
Explain the terms GPP and NPP.
Answer:
GPP means Gross primary productivity.
NPP means Net primary productivity.

Question 41.
Distinguish between upright and inverted ecological pyramids.
Answer:

Upright PyramidInverted Pyramid
Producers (I – trophic level Biomass) are more in number than other trophic levels.
Ex: Grazing food chain
Producers are less in number biomass than other trophic levels.
Ex: Parasitic food chain

Question 42.
Distinguish between litter and detritus.
Answer:
Litter: Litter is just like manure that is formed by dead (Either plant (or) Animal clusters) organic matter. It is the primary food source in the detritus food chain.
Detritus: It is a decaying organic matter being decomposed into detritivores organisms.

Question 43.
Distinguish between primary and secondary productivity.
Answer:

Primary ProductivitySecondary Productivity
1. The amount of biomass produced per unit area over a period of time by plants.1. The rate formation of new organic matter by consumers.
2. It can be divided into gross primary productivity (GPP), net primary productivity (NPP)2. It also can be divided into two types cross secondary productivity, and net secondary productivity.

Question 44.
Which air pollutants are chiefly responsible for acid rains?
Answer:
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides are the major causes of acid rain.

Question 45.
What is BOD?
Answer:
BOD means Biological Oxygen Demand. It is a measure of the content of biologically degradable substances in sewage.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 46.
What is biological magnification?
Answer:
An increase in the concentration of the pollutant (or) toxicant at successive trophic levels in an aquatic food chain is called ‘Bio-magnification’.

Question 47.
Why are incinerators used in hospitals?
Answer:
Disposal of hospital wastes that contain disinfectants, harmful chemicals, and also pathogenic micro-organisms incinerators are used in hospitals.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Considering the benefits of a constant internal environment to the organism we tend to ask ourselves why the conformers had not evolved to become regulators.
Answer:
Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many organisms. This is particularly true in small animals like shrews and hummingbirds. Heat loss or heat gain is a function of the surface area. Since small animals have a larger surface area relative to their volume, they tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold outside. Then they have to spend much energy to generate body heat through metabolism. This is the main reason why very small animals are rarely found in polar regions. During the course of evolution, the costs and benefits of maintaining a constant internal environment are taken into consideration. Some species have evolved the ability to regulate, but only over a limited range of environmental conditions, beyond which they simply conform.

Question 2.
The individuals who have fallen through the ice and been submerged under cold water for long periods can sometimes be revived – explain.
Answer:
Temperature variations occur with seasonal changes. These differences in the temperature form thermal layers in water. Water shows maximum density at 4°C decrease its density. Generally, during the winter season the surface water cools down in the upper water phases in the temperature reaches 0°C. below the upper icy layer, the cool water occupies the lake. The aquatic animals continue their life below the icy layer at lower temperatures the activity of bacteria and the rate of oxygen consumption by aquatic animals decrease. Hence organisms can survive below the frozen (icy) upper water without being subject to hypoxia.

Question 3.
What is summer stratification? Explain.
Answer:
During summer in temperate lakes, the density of the surface water decreases because of an increase in its temperature (21-25°C). This ‘uppermost warm layer’ of a lake is called the epilimnion. Below the epilimnion, there is a zone in which the temperature decreases at the rate of 1°C per meter in-depth, and it is called thermocline or metalimnion. The bottom layer is the hypolimnion, where water is relatively cool, stagnant, and with low oxygen content (due to the absence of photosynthetic activity).
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment SAQ Q3
During autumn (also called fall). The epilimnion cools down, and the surface water becomes heavy when the temperature is 4°C and sinks to the bottom of the lake overturns bringing about a ‘uniform temperature’ in lakes during that period, this circulation during the autumn is known as fall. The upper oxygen-rich water reaches the hypolimnion and the nutrient-rich bottom water comes to the Surface. Thus there is a uniform distribution of nutrients and oxygen in the lake.

Question 4.
What is the significance of stratification in lakes?
Answer:
Temperature variations occur with seasonal changes in temperature regions. These differences in the temperature form thermal layers in water. These phenomena are called thermal stratification.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment SAQ Q4
During autumn (also called fall), the epilimnion cools down and the surface water becomes heavy when the temperature is 4°C and sinks to the bottom of the lake. Overturns bring about uniform temperatures in lakes during that period. This circulation during autumn is known as the fall or autumn overturn. The upper oxygen-rich water reaches the hypolimnion and the nutrient-rich bottom water comes to the surface. Thus there is a uniform distribution of nutrients and oxygen in the lake. In the spring season the temperatures start rising when it reaches 4°C, the water becomes more dense and heavy and sinks to the bottom, taking oxygen-rich sinks down and bottom nutrient-rich water reaches the surface.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 5.
Explain Vant’ Hoff’s rule.
Answer:
Van’t Hoff, a Nobel Laureate in thermo chemistry proposed that, with the increase of every 10°C, the rate of metabolic activities doubles. This rule is referred to as Van’t Hoff’s rule. Van’t Hoffs rule can also be stated in reverse saying that the reaction rate is halved with the decrease of every 10°C. The effect of temperature on the rate of a reaction is expressed in terms of the temperature coefficient of the Q10 value. Q10 values are estimated by taking the ratio between the rate of a reaction at X°C and the rate of reaction at (X – 10°C). In the living systems, the Q10 value is about 2.0. If the Q10 value is 2.0, it means, for every 10°C increase, the rate of metabolism doubles.

Question 6.
Unlike mammals, reptiles cannot tolerate environmental fluctuations in temperature. How do they adapt to survive in desert conditions?
Answer:
Some organisms show behavioural responses to cope with variations in their environment. Desert lizards manage to keep their body temperature fairly constant by behavioural means. They ‘bask’ (staying in the warmth of sunlight) in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below the comfort zone, but move into the shade when the temperature starts increasing. Some species are capable of burrowing into the soil to escape from the excessive heat above the ground level.

Question 7.
How do terrestrial animals protect themselves from the danger of being dehydration of bodies?
Answer:
In the absence of an external source of water, the kangaroo rat of the North American deserts is capable of meeting all its water requirements through oxidation of its internal fat (in which water is a by-product – of metabolic water). It also has the ability to concentrate its urine, so that minimal volume of water is lost in the process of removal of its excretory products.

Question 8.
How do marine animals adapt to hypertonic seawater?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of water loss, marine fishes have glomerular kidneys with less number of nephrons. Such kidneys minimize the loss of water through urine. To compensate for water loss marine fish drink more water and along with this water, salts are added to the body fluids and disturb the internal equilibrium. To maintain salt balance (salt homeostasis) in the body they have salt-secreting chloride cells in their gills. Marine birds like seagulls and penguins eliminate salts in the form of salty fluid that drips through their nostrils. In turtles, the ducts of chloride-secreting glands open near the eyes. Some cartilaginous fishes retain urea and trimethylamine oxide (TMO) in their blood to keep the body fluids isotonic to the seawater and avoid dehydration of the body due to exosmosis.

Question 9.
Discuss the various type of adaptations in freshwater animals.
Answer:
Animals living in fresh waters have to tackle the problem of endosmosis. The osmotic pressure of freshwater is very low and that of the body fluids of freshwater organisms is much higher. So water tends to enter into bodies by endosmosis. To maintain the balance of water in the bodies, the freshwater organisms acquired several adaptations such as contractile vacuoles in the freshwater protozoans, and large glomerular kidneys in fishes, etc., They send out large quantities of urine along which some salts are also lost. To compensate for the ‘salt loss’ through urine freshwater fishes have ‘salt absorbing chloride cells’ in their gills.

The major problem in freshwater ponds is in summer most of the ponds dry up. To overcome this problem most of the freshwater protists undergo encystment. The freshwater sponges produce asexual reproductive bodies, called gemmules, to tide over the unfavourable conditions of the summer. The African lungfish Protopterus burrows into the mud and forms a gelatinous cocoon around it, to survive, in summer.

Question 10.
Compare the adaptations of animals with fresh water and seawater mode of life.
Answer:

Adaptations in freshwaterAdaptations in seawater
1. Freshwater fishes have glomerular kidneys with more nephrons.1. Marine water fishes have glomerular kidneys with a number of nephrons.
2. They send out large quantities of urine.2. They minimize the loss of water through urine.
3. To compensate for the salt loss through urine freshwater fishes have salt-absorbing chloride cells in their gills.3. To maintain salt balance in the body they have salt-secreting chloride cells.
4. They undergo encystment to overcome the problems.4. Some fishes retain urea in their blood to keep the body fluid isotonic to the seawater.

Question 11.
Distinguish between euryhaline and stenohaline animals.
Answer:

EuryhalineStenohaline
Organisms that are adapted to stand wide fluctuations in salinity are called Euryhaline animals.
Ex: Salmon fish, eel fish, etc.
Those that cannot stand wild fluctuations in salinity are known as steno haline animals.
Ex: Aromatic insects, Aromatic insects

Question 12.
Many tribes living at high altitudes in the Himalayas normally have higher red blood cell count (or) total haemoglobin than the people living in the plains. Explain?
Answer:
Some organisms possess adaptations that are physiological and allow them to respond quickly to a stressful situation. If you had ever been to any high-altitude place (e.g. > 3,500 M Rohtang pass near Manali and Manasarovar, in Tibet) you must have experienced what is called altitude sickness. Its symptoms include nausea (vomiting sense), fatigue (tiredness), and heart palpitations (abnormality in heartbeat). This is because, in the low atmospheric pressure of high altitudes, the body does not get enough oxygen. But, you gradually get acclimatized and overcome the altitude sickness. How did your body solve this problem? The body compensates for low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production and increasing the rate of breathing.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 13.
An orchid plant is growing on the branch of the mango tree. How do you describe this interaction between the orchid and mango tree?
Answer:
An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch gets the benefit of exposure to light, while the mango tree does not drive any noticeable benefit. So in this interaction, one species (arched) get benefitted the other (Mango) is neither armed nor benefitted. So the interactions between orchids and mango trees are commensalism.

Question 14.
Predation is not an association. Support the statement.
Answer:
Predation is not an association (it is a feeding strategy), it is an interaction between two different species. The predator gets benefits at the cost of the prey. Besides acting as) pipelines for energy transfer across trophic levels predators play other important roles. They keep the prey populations under control. In the absence of predators, the prey species could achieve very high population densities and cause instability in the ecosystem.

Question 15.
What is the biological principle behind the biological control method of managing pest insects?
Answer:
The prickly pear cactus introduced in Australia in the early 1920s caused havoc by spreading rapidly into millions of hectares of Rangel and (vast natural grasslands). Finally, the invasive cactus was brought under control only after a cactus-feeding predator (a moth) was introduced into the country. Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ability of the predators to regulate prey populations.

Question 16.
Discuss competitive release.
Answer:
Another evidence for the occurrence of competition in nature comes from what is called competitive releases. Competitive release occurs when one of the two competing species is removed from an area, thereby releasing the remaining species from one of the factors that limited its distributional range dramatically when the competing species is experimentally removed. This is due to the phenomenon called competitive release, Connells field experiments showed that on the rocky sea coasts of Scotland the larger and competitively superior barnacle Balanus dominates the intertidal area, and excludes the smaller barnacle chathamalus from that zone. When the dominant one is experimentally removed, the population of the smaller one’s increases. In general, herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by competition than carnivores.

Question 17.
Write a short note on the parasitic adaptations.
Answer:
In order to lead successful parasitic life, parasites evolved special adaptations such as:

  • Loss of sense organs (which are not necessary for most parasites).
  • Presence of adhesive organs such as suckers, and hooks to cling to the host’s body parts.
  • Loss of digestive system and presence of high reproductive capacity.
  • The life cycles of parasites are often complex, involving one or two intermediate hosts or vectors to facilitate the parasitization of their primary hosts.

Examples:

  • The human liver fluke depends on two intermediates (secondary) hosts (a snail and a fish) to complete its life cycle.
  • The malaria parasite needs a vector (mosquito) to spread to other hosts. The majority of the parasites harm the host: they may reduce the survival, growth, and reproduction of the host and reduce its population density. They might render the host more vulnerable to predation by making it physically weak.

Question 18.
Explain brood parasitism with a suitable example.
Answer:
Certain birds are fascinating examples of a special type of parasitism, in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets/allows the host incubates them. During the course of evolution, the eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chances of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs and ejecting them from the nest.

Question 19.
How do predators act as biological control?
Answer:
The prickly pears cactus introduced in Australia in the early 1920s caused havoc by spreading rapidly into millions of hectares of Rangel and (vast natural grasslands) Finally, the invasive cactus was brought under control only after a cactus-feeding predator (a moth) was introduced into the country. Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ability of the predators to regulate prey populations.

Question 20.
Write notes on the structure and functioning of an ecosystem.
Answer:
‘An ecosystem’ is a functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact among themselves and also with the surrounding physical environment.

Ecosystem varies greatly in size from a small pond to a large forest or a sea. Many ecologists regard the entire biosphere as a global ecosystem as a composite of all local ecosystems on Earth. Since this system is too big and complex to be studied at one time it is convenient to divide it into two basic categories, namely natural and artificial. The natural ecosystems include aquatic ecosystems of water and terrestrial ecosystems of the land. Both types of natural and artificial ecosystems have several subdivisions.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment SAQ Q20
The Natural Ecosystem: These are naturally occurring ecosystems and there is no role of humans in the formation of such types of ecosystems. These are categorized mainly into two types – aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. These are man-made ecosystems such as agricultural or agroecosystems. They include cropland ecosystems, aquaculture ponds, and aquaria.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 21.
Explain the different types of aquatic ecosystems.
Answer:
Based on the salinity of water, three types of aquatic ecosystems are identified marine, fresh water, and estuarine.

  • The marine ecosystem: It is the largest of all the aquatic ecosystems. It is the most stable ecosystem.
  • Estuarine ecosystem: Estuary is the zone where the river joins the sea, and seawater ascends up into the river twice a day (effect of high tides and low tides). The salinity of water in an estuary also depends on the seasons. During the rainy season outflow of river water makes the estuary saline and the opposite occurs during the summer. Estuarine organisms are capable of withstanding the fluctuations in salinity.
  • The freshwater ecosystem: The freshwater ecosystem is the smallest aquatic ecosystem. It includes rivers, lakes, ponds, etc., It is divided into two groups the lentic and lotic. The still water bodies like ponds, lakes reservoirs, etc., fall under the category of lentic ecosystems, whereas streams, rivers, and flowing water bodies are called lotic ecosystems. The communities of the above two types are called lentic and lotic communities respectively. The study of freshwater ecosystems is called limnology.

Question 22.
Explain the different types of terrestrial ecosystems.
Answer:
The ecosystems of land are known as terrestrial ecosystems. Some examples of terrestrial ecosystems are the forest, grass, and desert.

  • The forest ecosystem: The two important types of forests seen in India are tropical rain forests and tropical deciduous forests.
  • The grassland ecosystems: These are present in the Himalayan region of India. They occupy large areas of sandy and saline soils in western Rajasthan.
  • Desert ecosystem: The areas having less than 25 cm of rainfall per year are called deserts. They have characteristic flora and fauna. The deserts can be divided into two types – hot type and cold type deserts, the desert in Rajasthan is an example of the hot type of desert. Cold-type desert is seen in Ladakh.

Question 23.
Discuss the main reason for the low productivity of the ocean.
Answer:
The Primary productivity is very low in the ocean ecosystem compared with the terrestrial ecosystem.

Unlike terrestrial ecosystems, the majority of primary production in the ocean is performed by feel living microscopic organisms called Phytoplankton, large autotrophs such as the seagrasses and macroalgae or seaweeds are generally confined to the littoral zone.

The sunlight zone of the ocean is called the photic zone or euphotic zone, it is a thin layer upto 10 to 100 m near the Ocean’s surface where there is sufficient light for photosynthesis to occur. Light is attenuated down the water column by its absorption or scattering by the water itself. Net photosynthesis in the water column is determined by the interaction between the photic zone and the mixed layer. In the deep water of the ocean (Demersal) there is no light penetration for photosynthesis.

Another factor relatively recently discovered to play a significant role in oceanic primary production is the micronutrient iron. The factors limiting primary production in the ocean are also very different from those on land. However, the availability of light, the source of energy for photosynthesis, and mineral nutrients, building the blocks for new growth, play a crucial role in regulating primary production in the ocean.

Question 24.
Explain the terms saprotrophs detritivores and mineralizers.
Answer:
Saprotrophs are microorganisms such as fungi and bacteria which live on dead organic matter. Detritivores ingest small fragments of decomposing organic materials, termed detritus mineralizers affect the mineralization of humans.

Question 25.
Define decomposition and describe the process and products of decomposition.
Answer:
When organisms die, their bodies and the waste materials passed from the bodies of living organisms form a source of energy and nutrient for the decomposer organisms like saprotrophs detritivores, and mineralizers. Saprotrophs absorb substances through the general body surface of the dead bodies. Detritivores ingest detritus as food. Mineralized mineralize humus these decomposers are referred to as micro consumers of the ecosystem. The decomposition of organic matter includes three phases. In the first phase, particulate detritus is formed by the action of saprotrophs. The second stage is the rapid action of saprotrophs and detritivores to convert detritus into humic substances. The third process is the slower mineralization of the hummus.

Decomposers also play an important role in an ecosystem by converting complex molecules of dead organisms into simpler and reusable molecules. The breakdown products of the dead organisms and waste materials are recycled in the ecosystem and are made available to the producers. The producers cannot continue to exist forever in the absence of the decomposers (as minerals are not returned to the environment).

Question 26.
Write a note on DFC. Give its significance in a terrestrial ecosystem.
Answer:
The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with dead organic matter (such as leaf litter, and bodies of dead organisms). It is made up of decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms ‘mainly’ the fungi’ and ‘bacteria’. They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic matter to detritus. These are also known as saprotrophs.

Decomposers secrete digestive enzymes that break down dead and waste materials (such as feces i) into simple absorbable substances. Some examples of detritus food chains are:

  • Detritus – Earthworm – Frogs – Snakes
  • Dead animals – Flies and maggots – Frogs – Snakes

In an aquatic ecosystem. GFC is the major conduit for the energy flow. As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food chain than through the GFC. The Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels. Some of the organisms of DFC may form the prey of the GFC animals. For example, in the detritus food chain given above, the earthworms of the DFC may become the food of the birds of the GFC. It is to be understood that food chains are not ‘isolated1 always.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 27.
What is primary productivity? Give a brief description of the factors that affect primary productivity.
Answer:
Primary productivity is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a period of time by plants, during photosynthesis. It can be divided into Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) and Net Primary Productivity (NPP).
(a) Gross Primary Productivity: Of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter
during photosynthesis. A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants for their catabolic process (respiration).
(b) Net Primary Productivity: Gross Primary Productivity minus respiratory loss (R), is the Net Primary Productivity (NPP). On average about 20-25 percent of GPP is used for catabolic (respiratory) activity.
GPP – R = NPP
The Net Primary productivity is the biomass available for the consumption of the heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).

Question 28.
Define ecological pyramids and describe with examples, pyramids of numbers and biomass.
Answer:
It is a graphical representation of the trophic structure and function of an ecosystem. The base of each pyramid represents the producers of the first trophic level, while the apex represents the tertiary or top-level/top-order consumers. The three types of ecological pyramids that are usually studied are (a) pyramid of numbers (b) pyramid of biomass and (c) pyramid of energy. These pyramids were first represented by Elton, hence the name ELTONIANpyramids/Ecological pyramids.

Any calculations of energy content, biomass, or numbers have to include all organisms at that trophic level. No generalizations we make will be true if we take only a few individuals of any trophic level into account. In most ecosystems, all the pyramids – of numbers, energy, and biomass are uprights. i.e., producers are more in number and biomass than the herbivores, and herbivores are more in number and biomass than the carnivores. Also, energy (available) at a lower trophic level is always more than that at a higher level.

There are exceptions to this generalization. In the case of a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is inverted. A large tree (single producer) may support many herbivores like squirrels and fruit-eating birds. On these herbivores, many ectoparasites such as ticks, mites, and lice (secondary consumers) may live. These secondary consumers may support many more top-level consumers and also the hyper-parasites. Thus in each trophic level from the bottom to the top, the numbers of organisms increase and form an ‘inverted pyramid’ of numbers.

The pyramid of biomass in the sea is also generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment SAQ Q28

Question 29.
What are the deleterious effects of depletion of ozone in the stratosphere?
Answer:
The depletion of ozone is particularly marked over the Antarctic region. This has resulted in the formation of a large area of thinned ozone layer commonly called the ‘ozone hole.

UV radiation with wavelengths shorter than that of UV-B is almost completely absorbed by Earth’s atmosphere, provided that the ozone layer is intact. But IJV-B damages DNA and may induce mutations. It causes aging of the skin, damage to skin cells, and various types of skin cancers. In the human eye, the cornea absorbs UV-B radiation, and a high dose of UV-B causes inflammation of the cornea called snow-blindness, cataract, etc., such exposure may permanently damage the cornea.

Question 30.
Describe the ‘Green House’ Effect.
Answer:
The term Green House effect’ has been derived from a phenomenon that occurs in a greenhouse. The greenhouse is a small glasshouse and is used for growing plants, especially during winter. In a greenhouse, the glass panel allows the passage of light into it but does not allow heat to escape (as it is reflected back). Therefore, the greenhouse warms up, very much like inside a car that has been parked in the sun for a few hours.

The greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon that is responsible for heating the Earth’s surface and atmosphere. It would be surprising to know that without the greenhouse effect the average temperature of the Earth’s surface would have been chilly – 18°C rather than the present average of 15°C.

When sunlight reaches the outermost layer of the atmosphere, clouds and gases reflect about one-fourth of the incoming solar radiation and absorb some of it. Almost half of the incoming solar radiation falls on the Earth’s surface and heats it up. While a small proportion is reflected back.

Question 31.
Discuss briefly the following:
(a) Greenhouse gases
(b) Noise pollution
(c) Organic farming
(d) Municipal solid wastes
Answer:
(a) Greenhouse gases: The Earth’s surface re-emits heat in the form of infrared radiation but part of this does not escape into space as atmospheric gases (e.g. carbon dioxide, methane, etc.) absorb a major fraction of it. The molecules of these gases radiate heat energy, a major part of which again comes back to the Earth’s surface, thus heating it up once again. The above-mentioned gases- Carbon dioxide and methane are commonly known as greenhouse gases.

(b) Noise pollution: Undesirably high sounds constitute noise pollution. Sound is measured in units called decibels. The human ear is sensitive to sounds ranging from 0 to 180 dB. 0 dB is the threshold limit of hearing and 120 dB is the threshold limit for the sensation of pain in the ear. Any noise above 120 dB is considered to be noise pollution. Brief exposure to the extremely high sound level. 150 dB or more generated by jet planes while taking off may damage eardrums causing permanent hearing impairment. Even long-term exposure to a relatively higher level of noise in cities may also cause hearing impairment. Noise also causes auditory fatigue, anxiety, sleeplessness/msommaj, increased heartbeat, and altered breathing pattern thus causing considerable stress to humans.

(c) Organic farming: Integrated organic farming is a zero waste procedure, where the recycling of waste products is efficiently carried out. This allows the maximum utilization of resources and increases the efficiency of production. A method practiced by Ramesh Chandra Dagar, all these processes support one another and allow an extremely economical and sustainable venture. Natural – biogas generated in the process can be used for meeting the energy needs of the farm. Enthusiastic about spreading information and helping in the practice of integrated organic farming, Dagar has created the Haryana Kisan welfare club.

(d) Municipal Solid waste: Anything (substance/material/articles/goods) that is thrown out as waste in solid form is referred to as solid waste. The municipal solid wastes generally consist of paper, food wastes, plastics, glass, metals, rubber, leather, textile, etc., The wastes are burnt to reduce the volume of the waste. As a substitute for open-burning dumps, sanitary landfills are adopted. There is a danger of seepage of chemicals and pollutants from these landfills, which may contaminate the underground water resources.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 32.
Discuss the causes and effects of global warming. What measures need to be taken to control ‘Global warming’?
Answer:
An increase in the level of greenhouse gases has led to considerable heating of the “Earth leading to global warming. During the past century, the temperature of the earth has increased by 0.6°C most of it during the last three decades. Scientists believe that this rise in temperature is leading to severe changes in the environment. Global warming is causing climatic changes (e.g. as El Nino effect) and is also responsible for the melting of polar ice caps and other snow caps of mountains such as the Himalayas. Over many years, this will result in a rise in sea levels, all over the world, that can submerge many coastal areas. The total spectrum of changes that global warming can bring about is a subject that is still under active research.

Global warming: Control measures

  • The measures include cutting down the use of fossil fuels.
  • Improving the efficiency of energy usage.
  • Planting trees and avoiding deforestation.

Question 33.
Write critical notes on the following:
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Biological magnification
Answer:
(a) Eutrophication: Natural ageing of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water is known as eutrophication. In a young lake, the water is cold and clear supporting little life. Gradually nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates are carried into the lake via streams, in course of time. This encourages the growth of aquatic algae and other plants. Consequently, animal life proliferates and organic matter gets deposited on the bottom of the lake. Over centuries, as silt and organic debris pile up the lake grows shallower and warmer. As a result, the aquatic organisms thriving in the cold environment are gradually replaced by warm-water organisms. Marsh plants appear by taking root in the shallow regions of the lake. Eventually, the lake gives way to large masses of floating plants (bog) and is finally converted into land.

(b) Biological magnification: Increase in the concentration of the pollutant or toxicant at successive trophic levels in an aquatic food chain is called biological magnification or Bio-magnification. This happens in the instance where a toxic substance accumulated by an organism is not metabolized or excreted and thus passes on to the next higher trophic level. This phenomenon is well known regarding DDT and mercury pollution.

As shown in the above example, the concentration of DDT is increased at successive trophic levels. Starting at a very low concentration of 0.003 PPb (PPb part per billion) in water, which ultimately reached an alarmingly high concentration of 25 ppm (ppm = parts per million) in fish-eating birds through biomagnification. High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes thinning of eggshells and their premature breaking, eventually causing a decline in bird populations.

(c) Groundwater depletion and ways for its replenishment: Sewage arising from homes and hospitals may contain undesirable pathogenic microorganisms. If it is released untreated into water courses, there is a likelihood of an outbreak of serious diseases, such as dysentery, typhoid, jaundice, cholera, etc.

Untreated industrial effluents released into water bodies pollute most of the rivers, freshwater streams, etc. Effluents contain a wide variety of both inorganic and organic pollutants such as oils, greases, plastics, metallic wastes, suspended solids, and tonics. Most of them are non-degradable. Arsenic, Cadmium, Copper, Chromium, Mercury, Zinc, and Nickel are the common heavy metals discharged from industries.

Effects: Organic substances present in the water deplete the dissolved oxygen content in water by increasing the BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) and COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand). Most of the inorganic substances render the water unit for drinking.

Removal of dissolved salts such as nitrates, phosphates, and other nutrients and toxic metal ions and organic compounds is much more difficult. Domestic sewage primarily contains biodegradable organic matter, which will be readily decomposed by the action of bacteria and other microorganisms.

Water-logging and soil salinity: Irrigation without proper drainage of water leads to water logging in the soil. Besides affecting the crops, water logging draws salt to the surface of the soil (salinization of the topsoil). The salt then is deposited as a thin crust on the land surface or starts collecting at the roots of the plants. This increased salt content is inimical (unfavourable) to the growth of crops and is extremely damaging to agriculture. Water logging and soil salinity are some of the problems that have come in the wake of the Green Revolution.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write an essay on temperature as an ecological factor.
Answer:
Temperature is a measure of the intensity of heat. The temperature on land or in water is not uniform. On land, the temperature variations are more pronounced when compared to the aquatic medium because land absorbs or loses heat much more quickly than water. The temperature on land depends on seasons and the geographical area on this planet. Temperature decreases progressively when we move from the equator to the poles. Altitude also causes variations in temperature. For instance, the temperature decreases gradually as we move to the top of the mountains.

Biological effects of Temperature:
Temperature Tolerance: A few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures they are called eurythermal, but, a vast majority of organisms are restricted to a narrow range of temperatures such organisms are called stenothermal. The levels of thermal tolerance of different species determine their geographical distribution.

Temperature and Metabolism: Temperature affects the working of enzymes and through it, the basal metabolism, and other physiological functions of the organism. The temperature at which the metabolic activities occur at the climax level is called the optimum temperature. The lowest temperature at which an organism can live indefinitely is called minimum effective temperature. It an animal or plant is subjected to a temperature below the minimum effective limit, enters into a condition of inactivity called a chill coma. The metabolic rate increases with the rise of temperature from the minimum effective temperature to the optimum temperature.

The maximum temperature at which a species can live indefinitely in an active state is called maximum effective temperature, the animals enter into a ‘heat coma’. The maximum temperature varies much in different animals.

Vant Hoffs’s rule: Vant Hoff, a Nobel Laureate the thermochemistry proposed that, with the increase of every 10°C, the rate of metabolic activities doubles. This rule is referred to as the Vant Hoffs rule. Vant Hoffs’s rule can also be stated in reverse saying that the reaction rate is halved with the decrease of every 10°C. The effect of temperature on the rate of a reaction is expressed in terms of temperature coefficient or Q10 value. Q10 values are estimated by taking the ratio between the rate of a reaction at X°C and the rate of reaction at (X-10°C). In the ‘living systems’ the Q10 value is about 2.0. If the Q10 value is about 20, it means, for every 10°C increase, the rate of metabolism doubles.

Cyclomorphosis: The cyclic seasonal morphological variations among certain organisms are called cyclomorphosis. This phenomenon has been demonstrated in the Cladoceran (a subgroup of Crustacea) and Daphnia (water flea). In the winter season, the head of Daphnia is ’round’ in shape (typical or non helmet morph). With the onset of the spring season, a small ‘helmet’/’hood’ starts developing on it. The helmet attains the maximum size in summer. In ‘autumn’ the helmet starts receding. By the winter season, the head becomes round. Some scientists are of the opinion that Cyclomorphosis is a seasonal adaptation to changing densities of the water in lakes. In summer as the water is less dense Daphnia requires a larger body surface to keep floating easily. During winter the water is denser, so it does not require a larger surface area of the body to keep floating.

Temperature adaptations: Temperature adaptations in animals can be dealt with under three heads:
(a) Behavioural adaptations
(b) Morphological and Anatomical adaptations and
(c) Physiological adaptations.

(a) Behavioural adaptations: Some organisms show behavioural responses to cope with variations in their environment. Desert lizards manage to keep their body temperature fairly constant by behavioural means. They bask (staying in the warmth of sunlight) in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below the comfort zone, but move into the shade when the temperature starts increasing. Some species are capable of burrowing into the soil to escape from the excessive heat above the ground level.

(b) Morphological and anatomical adaptations: In the polar seas, aquatic mammals such as the seals have a thick layer of fat (blubber) that acts as an insulator and reduces the loss of body heat, underneath their skin. The animals which inhabit the colder regions have larger body sizes with greater mass. The body mass is useful to generate more heat. As per Bergmann’s rule mammals and other warm-blooded living in colder regions have less surface area to body volume ratio. Then their counterparts live in the tropical regions. The small surface area helps to conserve heat. For instance, the body size of American moose/Eurasian elk (Alces alces), increases with the latitudes in which they live. Moose in the northern part of Sweden show 15-20% more body moss than the same species (counterparts) living in southern Sweden.

Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter earlobes and limbs (extremities of the body) to minimize heat loss. Large earlobes and long limbs increase the surface area without changing the body volume. This is known as Allen’s rule. For instance, the polar fox, Vulpes lagopus (formerly called Alopex lagopus) has short extremities to minimize the heat loss from the body. In contrast, the desert fox has short extremities to minimize heat loss from the body. In contrast, the desert fox, Vulpes zerda, has large ear lobes and limbs to facilitate better heat loss from the body.

(c) Physiological adaptations: In most animals, all the physiological functions proceed ‘optimally’ in a narrow temperature range (in humans, it is 37°C). But there are microbes (archaebacteria) that flourish in hot springs and in some parts of deep seas, where temperatures far exceed 100°C. Many fish thrive in Antarctic waters where the temperature is always below zero. Having realized that the abiotic conditions of many habitats may vary over a time period, we now ask. How do the organisms living in such habitats manage stressful conditions?

One would expect that during the course of millions of years of their existence, many species would have evolved a relatively constant internal (within the body) environment. It permits all biochemical reactions and physiological functions to proceed with maximal efficiency and thus, enhance the overall fitness of the species. This constancy could be chiefly in terms of optimal temperature and osmotic concentration of body fluids. So the organism should try to maintain the constancy of its internal environment (homeostasis) despite varying external environmental conditions that tend to upset its homeostasis. This is achieved by the processes described below.

Thermal migration: The organism can move away temporarily from the stressful habitat to a more hospitable (comfortable) area and return when the stressful period is over. In human analogy comparison, this strategy is comparable to a person moving from Delhi to Shimla for the duration of summer. Many animals, particularly birds, during winter undertake long-distance migrations to more hospitable areas. Every winter, many places in India including the famous Keoladeo Ghana National Park (Formerly – Bharatpur bird sanctuary) in Rajastan and Pulicat Lake in Andhra Pradesh host thousands of migratory birds coming from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions.

Diapause: Certain organisms show a delay in development, during periods of unfavourable environmental conditions and spend periods in a state of inactiveness called diapause. This dormant period in animals is a mechanism to survive extremes of temperature drought, etc. It is seen mostly in insects and embryos of some fish. Under unfavourable conditions, many zooplankton species in Lakes and ponds are known to enter diapause.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 2.
Write an essay on water as an ecological factor.
Answer:
Water is another important factor influencing the life of organisms. Life is unsustainable without water. Its availability is so limited in deserts that only certain special adaptations make it possible for them to live there. You might think that organisms living in oceans, lakes, and rivers should not face any water-related problems, but It is not true. For aquatic organisms the quality (chemical composition, pH, etc.) of water becomes important. The salt concentration is less than 5 percent in inland waters and 30-35 percent in seawater. Some organisms are tolerant to a wide range of salinities (euryhaline) but others are restricted to a narrow range (stenohaline) Many freshwater animals cannot live for long in seawater and vice versa because of the osmotic problems, they would face.

Adaptations in freshwater habitat: Animals living in freshwater have to tackle the problem of endosmosis. The osmotic pressure of freshwater is very low and that of the body fluids of freshwater organisms is much higher. So water tends to enter into bodies by endosmosis. To maintain the balance of water in the bodies, the freshwater organisms acquired several adaptations such as contractile vacuoles in the freshwater protozoans, large glomerular kidneys in fishes, etc… They send out large quantities of urine freshwater fishes have salt-absorbing ‘chloride cells’ in their gills. The major problem in freshwater ponds is – in summer most of the ponds dry up. To overcome this problem, most of the freshwater protists undergo encystment. The freshwater sponges produce asexual reproductive bodies, called gemmules to tide over the unfavorable conditions of the summer. The African lungfish, Protopterus, burrows into the mud and forms a gelatinous cocoon around it, to survive, in summer.

Adaptations in marine habitat: Seawater is high in salt content compared to that body fluids. So, marine animals continuously tend to lose water from their bodies by exosmosis and face the problem of dehydration. To overcome the problem of water loss marine fishes have glomerular kidneys with less number of nephrons. Such Kidneys minimize the loss of water through urine. To compensate for water loss marine fish drink more water, and along with this water, salts are added to the body fluids and disturb the internal equilibrium.

To maintain salt balance (salt homeostasis) in the body they have salt-secreting chloride cells in their gills. Marine birds like seagulls and penguins eliminate salts in the form of salty fluid that drips through their nostrils. In turtles, the ducts of chloride-secreting glands open near the eyes. Some cartilaginous fishes retain urea and trimethylamine oxide (TMO) in their blood to keep the body fluid isotonic to the seawater and avoid dehydration of the body due to exosmosis.

Water-related adaptations in brackish water animals: The animals of brackish water are adapted to withstand wide fluctuations in salinity. Such organisms are called euryhaline animals and those that cant with stand is known as stenohaline. The migratory fishes such as salmon and Hilsa are anadromous fishes i.e. they ‘migrate from the sea to freshwater, for breeding; Anguilla bengalensis is a catadromous fish i.e. it migrates from the river to sea, for breeding. In these fishes, their glomerular kidneys are adjusted to changing salinities. The chloride cells are adapted to excrete or absorb salts depending on the situation. On entering the river they drink more freshwater to maintain the concentration of body fluids equal to that of the surrounding water.

Water-related adaptations for terrestrial life: In the absence of an external source of water, the Kangaroo rat of the North American deserts is capable of meeting all its water requirements through oxidation of its internal fat (in which water is a by-product – of metabolic water). It also has the ability to concentrate its urine, so that minimal volume of water is lost in the process of removal of its excretory products.

Question 3.
Describe the lake as an ecosystem giving examples for the various zones and the biotic components in it.
Answer:
Deep water lakes contain three distinct zones namely

  • Littoral zone
  • Limnetic zone
  • Profundal zone

Littoral Zone: It is the shallow part of the lake closer to the shore. Light penetrates up to the bottom. It is euphotic (having good light) and has rich vegetation and a higher rate of photosynthesis, hence rich in oxygen.

Limnetic Zone: It is the open water zone away from the shore. It extends up to the effective light penetration level, vertically. The imaginary line that separates the limnetic zone from the profundal zone is known as the zone of compensation/compensation point light compensation level. It is the zone of effective light penetration. Here the rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration. The limnetic zone has no contact with the bottom of the lake.

Profundal Zone: It is the deep water area present below the limnetic zone and beyond the depth of effective light penetration. Light is absent. Photosynthetic organisms are absent and so the water is poor in oxygen content. It includes mostly the anaerobic organisms which feed on detritus. The organisms living in lentic habitats are classified into pedantic forms, which live at the bottom of the lake and those living in the open waters of lakes, away from the shore vegetation are known as limnetic forms.

Biota (animal and plant life of a particular region) of the littoral zone: Littoral zone is rich with pedantic flora (especially up to the depth of the effective light penetration). At the shore, proper emergent vegetation is abundant with firmly fixed roots at the bottom of the lake, and shoots and leaves are exposed above the level of water. These are amphibious plants. Certain emergent rooted plants of the littoral zone are the cattails (Typha), bulrushes (Scirpus) arrowheads (Sagittaria),. Slightly deeper are the rooted plants with floating leaves, such as the water lilies (Nymphaea), Nelumbo, Trapa, etc., still deeper are the submerged plants such as Hydrilla – Chara, Potamogeton, etc… The free-floating vegetation includes pistia, Wolffia, Lemna (duckweed), Azolla, Eichhornia, etc.

The phytoplankton of the littoral zone is composed of diatoms (Coscinodiscus, Nitzschia, etc) green algae (Volvox, spirogyra, etc), euglenoids (Euglena, phacus, etc), and dinoflagellates (Gymnodinium, Cystodinium, etc ….)

Animals, the consumers of the littoral zone, are abundant in this zone of the lake, these are categorized into zooplankton, neuston, nekton, periphyton, and benthos. The Zoo-plankton of the littoral zone consists of water fleas such as Daphnia, rotizers, and ostracods.

The animals living at the air-water interface constitute the neuston. They are of two types. The epineuston and hyponeuston. Water striders (Gerris), beetles, and water bugs (Dineutes) form the epineuston/ supraneuston and the hyponeuston/infraneuston includes the larvae of mosquitoes.

The animals such as fishes, amphibians, water-snakes, terrapins, insects like water scorpion (Ranatra), back swimmer (Notonecta), diving beetles (Dytiscus), capable of swimming constitute the nekton.

The animals that are attached to/creeping on the aquatic plants, such as the ‘water snails’, nymphs of insects, bryozoans, turbellarians, hydras, etc, constitute the periphyton. The animals that rest on or move on the bottom of the lake constitute the ‘benthos’, e.g.: red annelids, chironomid larvae, crayfishes, some isopods amphipods, clams, etc.

Biota of the limnetic zone: Limnetic zone is the largest zone of a lake. It is the region of rapid variations of the level of the water, temperature, oxygen availability, etc., from time to time. The limnetic zone has autotrophs (photosynthetic plants) in abundance. The chief autotrophs of this region are the phytoplankton such as the euglenoids, diatoms, cyanobacteria, dinoflagellates, and green algae. The consumers of the limnetic zone are the zooplanktonic organisms such as the copepods, Fisher frogs, water snakes, etc., which form the limnetic nekton.

Biota of the profundal zone: It includes the organisms such as decomposers (bacteria), chironomid larvae, Chaoborus (phantom larva), red annelids, clams, etc., that are capable of living in low oxygen levels. The decomposers of this zone decompose the dead plants and animals and release nutrients that are used by the biotic communities of both littoral and limnetic zones.

The lake ecosystem performs all the functions of any ecosystem and of the biosphere as a whole, i.e., conversion of inorganic substances into organic material, with the help of the radiant solar energy by the autotrophs, consumption of the autotrophs by the heterotrophs; decomposition and mineralization of the dead matter to release them back for reuse by the autotrophs (recycling of minerals).

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 4.
Describe different types of food chains that exist in an ecosystem.
Answer:
The food energy passes from one trophic level to another trophic level mostly from the lower to higher trophic levels. When the path of food energy is ‘linear’ the components resemble the ‘links’ of a chain and it is called a ‘food chain’. Generally, a food chain ends with decomposers. The three major types of food chains in an ecosystem are the Grazing Food Chain, Parasitic Food Chain, and Detritus Food Chain.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment LAQ Q4

(i) Grazing food chain: It is also known as the predatory food chain, it begins with the green plants (producers), and the second third, and fourth trophic levels are occupied by the herbivores, primary carnivores, and secondary carnivores respectively. In some food chains, these are yet another trophic level – the climax carnivores. The number of trophic levels in food chains varies from 3 to 5 generally. Some examples from the grazing food chain (GFC) are given below.

I trophic levelII trophic levelIII trophic levelIV trophic levelV trophic level
Rosebush →Aphids →Spiders →Small birds →Hawk
Grass →Grasshopper →Frog →Snake →Hawk
Plants →Caterpillar →Lizard →Snake
Phytoplankton →Zooplankton →Fish →Bird
Grass →Goat →Man

(ii) Parasitic food chain: Some authors included the Parasitic Food Chains as a part of the GFC. As in the case of GFC’s, it also begins with the producers, the plants (directly or indirectly). However, the food energy passes from large organisms to small organisms in the parasitic chains. For instance, a tree that occupies the 1st trophic level provides shelter and food for many birds. These birds host many ectoparasites and endo parasites. Thus, unlike in the predator food chain, the path of the flow of energy includes fewer, large-sized organisms in the lower trophic levels and numerous, small-sized organisms in the successive higher trophic levels.

(iii) Detritus Food Chain: The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with dead organic matter (such as leaf litter, and bodies of dead organisms). It is made up of decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi’ and ‘bacteria’. They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic matter or detritus. These are also known as saprotrophs (sappro: to decompose).

Decomposers: Secrete digestive enzymes that break down dead and waste materials (such as feces) into simple absorbable substances. Some examples of detritus food chains are:

  • Detritus (formed from leaf litter) – Earthworms – Frogs – Snakes
  • Dead animals – Flies and maggots – Frogs – Snakes.

In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is the major ‘conduit for the energy flow. As against this in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food chain than through the GFC. The Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels. Some of the organisms of DFC may form the prey of the GFC animals. For example, in the detritus food chain given above, the earthworms of the DFC may become the food of the birds of the GFC. It is to be understood that food chains are not ‘isolated’ always.

Question 5.
Give an account of the flow of energy in an ecosystem.
Answer:
Except for the deep sea hydro-thermal ecosystem, the sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on Earth. Of the incident solar radiation, less than 50 percent of it is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). We know that plants and photosynthetic bacteria (autotrophs), fix the sun’s radiant energy to synthesize food from simple inorganic materials. Plants capture only 2-10 percent of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living world. So, it is very important to know how the solar energy captured by plants flows through different organisms of an ecosystem. All heterotrophs are dependent on the producers for their food, either directly or indirectly. The law of conservation of energy is the first law of thermodynamics. It states that energy may transform from one form into another form, but it is neither created nor destroyed. The energy that reaches the earth is balanced by the energy that leaves the surface of the earth as invisible heat radiation.

The energy transfers in an ecosystem are essential for sustaining life. Without energy transfers, there could be no life and ecosystem. Living beings are the natural proliferations that depend on the continuous inflow of concentrated energy. Further, ecosystems are not exempted from the Second Law of thermodynamics. It states that no process involving energy transformation will spontaneously occur unless there is the degradation of energy. As per the second law of thermodynamics – the energy dispersed is in the form of unavailable heat energy and constitutes the entropy (energy lost or not available for work in a system).

The organisms need a constant supply of energy to synthesize the molecules they require. The transfer of energy through a food chain is known as energy flow. A constant input of mostly solar energy is the basic requirement for any ecosystem to function. The important point to note is that the amount of energy available decreases at successive trophic levels. When an organism dies, it is converted to detritus or dead biomass that serves as a source of energy for the decomposers. Organisms at each trophic level depend on those at the lower trophic level, for their energy demands.

Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time and it is called the standing crop. The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number of organisms per unit area. The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight (dry weight is more accurate because water contains no usable energy).

The 10 percent Law: The 10 percent law for the transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next was introduced by Lindeman (the Founder of modern Ecosystem Ecology). According to this law, during the transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next, only about 10 percent of the energy is stored/converted as body mass/biomass. The remaining is lost during the transfer or broken down in catabolic activities (Respiration). Lindeman’s rule of trophic efficiency/Gross ecological efficiency is one of the earliest and most widely used measures of ecological efficiency. For example: If the NPP (Net Primary Production) in a plant is 100 kJ, the organic substance converted into the body mass of the herbivore which feeds on it is 10 kJ only. Similarly, the body mass of the carnivore-I is 1 kJ only.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 6.
List out the major air pollutants and describe their effects on human beings.
Answer:
Air pollutants cause injury to all living organisms. They reduce the growth and yield of crops. They are harmful to the respiratory system of humans and animals. An increase in the concentration of pollutants or duration of exposure increases the harmful effects on the organisms.
The major air pollutants:
1. Carbon monoxide (CO): It is produced mainly due to incomplete combustion of fossil fuels. Automobiles are a major cause of CO pollution in larger cities and towns. Automobile exhausts, fuels from factories, emissions from power plants, forest fires and even burning of firewood contribute to CO pollution. Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for CO and SO, and CO competitively interferes with oxygen transport. CO symptoms such aS headache and blurred vision at lower concentrations. In higher concentrations, it leads to coma and death.

2. Carbon Dioxide (CO2): Carbon dioxide is the main pollutant that is leading to global warming. Plants utilize CO2 for photosynthesis and all living organisms emit carbon dioxide in the process of respiration. With rapid urbanization, automobiles, aeroplanes, power plants, and other human activities that involve the burning of fossil fuels such as gasoline, carbon dioxide is turning out to be an important pollutant of concern.

3. Sulphur Dioxide (SO2): It is mainly produced by burning fossil fuels. Melting of sulphur ores is another important source of SO2 pollution. The metal smelting and other industrial processes also contribute to SO2 pollution. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are the major causes of acid rains, which cause acidification of soils, lakes, and streams and also accelerated corrosion of buildings and monuments. High concentrations of sulphur dioxide (SO2) can result in breathing problems in asthmatic children and adults. Other effects associated with long-term exposure to sulphur dioxide, include respiratory illness, alterations in the lungs defenses, and aggravation of existing cardiovascular problems.

To control SO2 pollution, the emissions are filtered through scrubbers. Scrubbers are devices that are used to clean the impurities in exhaust gases. Gaseous pollutants such as SO2 are removed by scrubbers.

4. Nitrogen Oxides: Nitrogen oxides are considered to be major primary pollutants. The source is mainly automobile exhaust. The air polluted by nitrogen oxide is not only harmful to humans and animals but also dangerous for the life of plants. Nitrogen oxide pollution also results in acid rain and the formation of photochemical smog. The effect of nitrogen oxides on plants includes the occurrence of necrotic spots on the surface of leaves. Photosynthesis is affected in crop plants and the yield is reduced. Nitrogen oxides combine with volatile organic compounds by the action of sunlight to form secondary pollutants called Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) which are found especially in photochemical smog. They are powerful irritants to the eyes and respiratory tract.

5. Particulate matter/Aerosols: Tiny particles of solid matter suspended in a gas or liquid constitute the particulate matter. Aerosols refer to particles and /or liquid droplets and the gas together (a system of colloidal particles dispersed in a gas) Combustion of “fossil fuels” (petrol, diesel, etc) fly ash produced in thermal plants, forest fires, cement factories, asbestos mining, and manufacturing units, spinning and ginning mills, etc., are the main sources of particulate matter pollution. According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) particles of 2.5 micrometers or less in diameter are highly harmful to man and other air-breathing organisms.

An electrostatic precipitator is a widely used filter’ for removing particulate matter from the exhaust of thermal power plants. It can remove 99% of particulate matter. It has high voltage electrodes which produce a ‘corona’ that releases electrons. These are collected by collecting plates that attract charged particles. The air flowing between the plates is kept at a low velocity so as to allow the dust particles to fall. Thus clean air is released into the atmosphere.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 7.
What are the causes of water pollution and suggested measures for control of water pollution?
Answer:
Domestic Sewage: Sewage is the major source of water pollution in large cities and towns. It mainly consists of human and animal excreta and other waste materials. It is usually released into freshwater bodies or the sea directly. As per the regulations the sewage has to be passed through treatment plants before it is released into the water sources. Only 0.1 percent of impurities from domestic sewage are making these water sources unfit for human consumption. In the treatment of sewage, solids are easy to remove. Removal of dissolved salts such as nitrates, phosphates, and other nutrients and toxic metal ions and organic compounds is much more difficult. Domestic sewage primarily contains biodegradable organic matter, which will be readily decomposed by the action of bacteria and other microorganisms.

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD): BOD is a measure of the content of biologically degradable substances in sewage. The organic degradable substances are broken down by microorganisms using oxygen. The demand for oxygen is measured in terms of the oxygen consumed by microorganisms over a period of 5 days (BOD 5) or seven days (BOD 7). BOD forms an index for measuring pollution load in the sewage. Microorganisms involved in the biodegradation of organic matter in water bodies consume a lot of oxygen and as a result, there is a sharp decline in dissolved oxygen causing the death of fish and other aquatic animals.

Algal blooms: The presence of large amounts of nutrients in waters also causes excessive growth of plankton algae and the phenomenon is commonly called “algal blooms1′. Algal blooms impart distinct colour to the bodies and deteriorate the quality of water. It also causes the mortality of fish. Some algae which are involved in algal blooms are toxic to human beings and animals.

Excessive growth of aquatic plants such as the common water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes), the world’s most problematic aquatic weed which is also called “Terror of Bengal” causes blocks in our waterways. They grow faster than our ability to remove them. They grow abundantly in eutrophic water bodies (water bodies rich in nutrients) and lead to an imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics of the water body.

Sewage arising from homes and hospitals may contain undesirable pathogenic microorganisms. If it is released untreated into water courses, there is a likelihood of an outbreak of serious diseases, such as dysentery, typhoid, jaundice, cholera, etc.

2. Industrial Effluents: Untreated industrial effluents released into water bodies pollute most of the rivers, freshwater streams, etc. Effluents contain a wide variety of both inorganic and organic pollutants such as oils, greases, plastics, metallic wastes, suspended solids, and toxins. Most of them are non-degradable. Arsenic, Cadmium, Copper, Chromium, Mercury, Zinc, and Nickel are the common heavy metals discharged from industries.

Effects: Organic substances present in the water deplete the dissolved oxygen content in water by increasing the BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) and COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand). Most of the inorganic substances render the water unfit for drinking. Outbreaks of dysentery, typhoid, jaundice, cholera, etc., are caused by sewage pollution.

Biomagnification: Increase in the concentration of the pollutant or toxicant at successive trophic levels in an aquatic food chain is called Biological Magnification or Bio-magnification. This happens in the instances where a toxic substance accumulated by an organism is not metabolized or excreted and thus passes on to the next higher trophic level. This phenomenon is well known regarding DDT and mercury pollution.

As shown in the above example, the concentration of DDT is increased at successive trophic levels starting at a very low concentration of 0.003 ppb (ppb = parts per billion) in water, which ultimately reached an alarmingly high concentration of 25 ppm (ppm = parts per million) in fish-eating birds, through biomagnification. High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes thinning of eggshells and their premature breaking, eventually causing a decline in bird populations.

Eutrophication: Natural ageing of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water is known as eutrophication. In a young lake, the water is cold and clear, supporting little life. Gradually nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates are carried into the lake via streams, in course of time. This encourages the growth of aquatic algae and other plants. Consequently, animal life proliferates and organic debris piles up, the lake grows shallower and warmer. As a result, the aquatic organisms thriving in the cold environment are gradually replaced by warm-water organisms. Marsh plants appear by taking root in the shallow regions of the lake. Eventually, the lake gives way to large masses of floating plants (bog) and is finally covered in land.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why do you call cockroaches a pest?
Answer:
The cockroach is a common household pest that contaminates our food with its excreta and can transmit a number of diseases.

Question 2.
Name the terga of thoracic segments of cockroaches.
Answer:
Tergum of prothorox is Pronotum.
The tergum of mesothorax is Mesonotum.
The tergum of metathorax is Metanotum.

Question 3.
What are the structures with which cockroach walks on smooth surfaces and on rough surfaces respectively?
Answer:
The claws and the arotium help in locomotion on rough surfaces whereas planulae are useful on smooth surfaces.

Question 4.
Why is the head in cockroach called hypognathous?
Answer:
It lies hinging almost a right angles to the body with the posterior wider part upwards and the mouth parts directed downwards.

Question 5.
How is a tripod formed With reference to locomotion in cockroach?
Answer:
Tripod is formed by foreleg and hind leg of one side middle leg of other side. The fore leg and hind leg of the tripod kept on the ground, pull and push the body, while the middle leg acts as a pivot.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 6.
Name the muscles that help in elevating and depressing the wings of a cockroach.
Answer:
Wings are elevated by the contraction of dorsoventral muscles. Contraction of the dorsa longitudinal muscles depresses the muscles.

Question 7.
Name the different blood sinuses in cockroach.
Answer:
The three sinuses of haemocoel are known as
Pericardial haemocoel/Dorsal sinus
Perivisceral haemocoel/middle sinus
Perineural haemocoel/ventral sinus.

Question 8.
How are the fat bodies similar to the liver of the vertebrates?
Answer:
Fat bodies have many cells that are similar to the liver of the vertebrates in certain functions, namely
Trophocytes (store food)
Mycetocytes (contain symbiotic bacteria)
Oenocytes (secrete lipids)
Urate cells (store uric acid)

Question 9.
Which part of the gut secretes the peritrophic membrane in cockroach?
Answer:
Peritrophic membrane is secreted by the funnel like stomodel valve of the gizzard of midgut.

Question 10.
In which part of the gut of cockroach, water is reabsorbed?
Answer:
Rectum reabsorbes the water in cockroach.

Question 11.
Write the names of mouthparts in cockroach that help in biting and tasting the food.
Answer:
Mandibles helps in biting and labrum helps in tasting the food.

Question 12.
What are alary muscles?
Answer:
A services of paired triangular muscles that are present in the dorsal and ventral diaphragm.

Question 13.
What is haemocoel?
Answer:
In cockroach blood (or) haemolymph flows freely with in the body cavity (or) haemocoel.

Question 14.
The three sinuses in a cockroach are not equal in size. Why?
Answer:
The middle sinus is very large as it contains most of the viscera. The dorsal and ventral sinuses are small as they have only heart and nerve cord.

Question 15.
Why is the blood of Periplaneta called haemolymph?
Answer:
The blood of periplaneta is colourless and it consists of fluid plasma and blood cells. Hence blood of periplaneta is called haemolymph.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 16.
What is the function of haemocytes found in the blood of Periplaneta?
Answer:
Haemocytes are phagocytic in nature. These are large in size and can ingest foreign particles.

Question 17.
Why does not the blood of Periplaneta help in respiration?
Answer:
Due to the absence of respiratory pigment the blood of cockroach can’t carry oxygen to different tissues.

Question 18.
Write important functions of blood in Periplaneta.
Answer:
1. It absorbs digest food from alimentary canal and distributes it to the rest of the body.
2. It transports secretions of the ductless glands to the target organs.

Question 19.
How many spiracles are present in cockroach? Mention their locations.
Answer:
Ten pairs of spiracles are present in cockroach.
Location: First two pairs of spiracles are present in the thoracic segments, remaining eight pairs present in first eight abdominal segments. Spiracles are located in the pleura of their respective segment.

Question 20.
What are trichomes? Write their functions.
Answer:
Trichomes are small hair-like structures of spiracles.
Function: Filtering the dust particles.

Question 21.
Why is the respiratory system of cockroaches called polytheistic and holocaustic systems?
Answer:
The spiracles of cockroaches are more in number (10 pairs) and all are functional so the respiratory system of cockroaches is called polytheistic and holocaustic systems.

Question 22.
What is intima?
Answer:
A cuticle layer that forms the inner layer of trachea is called intima.

Question 23.
During inspiration which spiracles are kept open and which are kept closed?
Answer:
Thoracic spiracles are kept open and the abdominal spiracles are kept closed.

Question 24.
Which factors regulate the opening of the spiracles?
Answer:
Opening and closing of spiracles is influenced by CO2 tension in haemolymph and oxygen tension in the trachea.

Question 25.
Inspiration in cockroach is a passive process and expiration is an active process. Justify?
Answer:
As air is drawn in due to the relaxation of the muscle inspiration is a “passive process”. Expiration involves the contraction of muscles, so it is described as active process.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 26.
The nitrogenous wastes in Periplaneta are removed from the body through alimentary canal. Why?
Answer:
Malphigian tubules collect nitrogenous acts from the body parts and releases into alimentary canal. So these nitrogenous wastes get mixed with facel matter and sent out through anus.

Question 27.
How does the cuticle of a cockroach help in excretion?
Answer:
Some nitrogenous waste materials are deposited on the cuticle and eliminated during moulting.

Question 28.
How do fat bodies help in excretion?
Answer:
Urate cells present in these bodies are associated with excretion in a way. Those cells absorb and store uric acid.

Question 29.
What is ‘storage excretion’?
Answer:
Urate cells present in the fat bodies absorb and store uric acid throughout life. This is called “storage excretion”.

Question 30.
Which structure of the cockroach acts as a sensory and endocrine centre?
Answer:
The brain of the cockroach acts as the sensory and endocrine centre.

Question 31.
Distinguish between scolopidia and sensillae.
Answer:

ScolopidiaSensillae
Sub-cuticular units of mechano receptors of chordotonal organs.Units of cuticular receptors and chemoreceptors.

Question 32.
How is the ommatidium of cockroaches different from that of diurnal insects?
Answer:
Retinulae are present deep below the vitrallae and crystalline cone. The retinal sheath is absent.

Question 33.
Which of the abdominal ganglia is the largest and why?
Answer:
6th abdominal ganglia are the largest of all the abdominal ganglia because it is formed by the fusion of the ganglia of the 7th, 8th, 9th & 10th abdominal segments.

Question 34.
Name the structural and functional unit of the compound eye of the cockroach. How many such units are present in a single compound eye?
Answer:
Each compound eye is composed of about 2000 functional units called ommatidia.

Question 35.
Why is the brain called the principal sensory centre in cockroaches?
Answer:
The brain receives sensory impulses from various mouth parts & compound eye. Hence the brain is the principally a sensory centre.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 36.
Distinguish between apposition image and superposition image.
Answer:

AppositionSuperposition
1. These images are formed in diurnal insects.1. These images are formed in nocturnal insects.
2. Mosaic image is formed.2. Overlapping (Blurred) image formed.
3. Vision is mosaic.3. Vision is not clear.

Question 37.
List out the characters that help in understanding the difference between male and Female cockroaches.
Answer:

MaleFemale
1. Eight terga are not visible.1. Both eighth & ninth terga are not visible.
2. Nine sterna are visible.2. Only seven sterna are visible.
3. Anal styles are present.3. Anal styles are absent.

Question 38.
What is the function of the mushroom gland in cockroaches?
Answer:
A characteristic mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6th and 7th abdominal segments which functions as an accessory reproductive gland.

Question 39.
Compare the utriculi majors and utriculi breviores of the mushroom gland functionally.
Answer:

  • Utriculi majores forms the inner layer of the spermatophore.
  • Utriculi breviores nourish the sperms.

Question 40.
What are Phallomeres?
Answer:
Surrounding the male genital opening there are chitinous and asymmetrical structures called phallic organs/phellomeres/gonapophyses which help in copulation.

Question 41.
What is gona Pophyses?
Answer:
Surrounding the male genital opening there are chitinous and asymmetrical structures called phallic organs/phellomeres/gonapophyses which help in copulation.

Question 42.
How is the colleterial gland helpful in the reproduction of Periplaneta?
Answer:
A pair of branched colleterial glands is present behind the ovaries. These glands open into the genital pouch separately. Secretions of the two collateral glands form a hard egg case called Ootheca.

Question 43.
What is paurometabolous development?
Answer:
Gradual development (metamorphosis) through nymph stages is called “parametabolous development”.
Ex: Periplaneta

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the mouthparts of cockroaches.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q1

Question 2.
Describe the physiology of digestion in cockroaches.
Answer:
Food collection: The cockroach is an omnivorous insect. It feeds on all types of organic matter.

Digestion: After swallowing, the food passes through the pharynx and oesophagus and reaches the crop. In the crop, food is mixed with digestive juices that are regurgitated into it through the grooves of the gizzard. Hence, most of the food is digested in the crop. The partly digested food is filtered by the bristles of the gizzard and later it passes through the stomodeal valve into the ventricular.

The enzyme amylase of the salivary juice converts starches into disaccharides. Invertase or sucrase digests sucrose into glucose and fructose. Maltose converts maltose into glucose. The enzyme lipase digests lipids into fatty acids and glycerol. Proteases digest proteins into amino acids. The cellulose of the food is digested by the enzyme cellulose secreted by the microorganisms present in the hindgut of cockroaches. Cellulose is converted into glucose.

In the ventriculus, the digested food is absorbed. The undigested food is passed into the ileum, and colon and then reaches the rectum, where water is reabsorbed by rectal papillae. Then the remaining material is finally defecated as dry pellets, through the anus.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 3.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the salivary apparatus of cockroaches.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q3

Question 4.
Describe the structure and function of the heart in Periplaneta.
Answer:
Heart: The heart lies in the pericardial hemocoel or dorsal sinus. It is a long muscular, contractile tube found along the mid-dorsal line, beneath the terga of the thorax and abdomen. It consists of 13 chambers. Every chamber opens into the other present in front of it. Three of the thirteen chambers are situated in the thorax and ten in the abdomen. Its posterior end is closed while the anterior end is continued forward as the anterior aorta. On the posterior side of each chamber, except the last, there is a pair of small apertures called ‘Ostia’ one on each side. Ostia have valves that allow the blood to pass only into the heart from the dorsal sinus.

Question 5.
Describe the process of blood circulation in Periplaneta.
Answer:
The blood flows forward in the heart by the contractions of its chambers. At the anterior end of the heart, the blood flows into the aorta and from there it enters the sinus of the head. From the head sinus, the blood flows into the perivisceral and sternal sinuses. On contraction of the alary muscles, the pericardial septum is pulled down. This increases the volume of the pericardial sinus. Hence blood flows from the perivisceral sinus into the pericardial sinus through the apertures of the pericardial septum. On relaxation of the alary muscles, the pericardial septum moves upwards to its original position. This forces the blood, to enter the chambers of the heart through the Ostia from the pericardial sinus.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q5

Question 6.
How do contraction and relaxation of alary muscles help in circulation?
Answer:
The blood flows forward in the heart by the contractions of its chambers. At the anterior end of the heart, the blood flows into the aorta and from there it enters the sinus of the head. From the head sinus, the blood flows into the perivisceral and sternal sinuses. On contraction of the alary muscles, the pericardial septum is pulled down. This increases the volume of the pericardial sinus. Hence blood flows from the pericardial septum. On relaxation of the alary muscles, the pericardial septum moves upwards to its original position. This forces the blood, to enter the chamber of the heart through the Ostia from the pericardial sinus.

Question 7.
What are the different excretory organs in Periplaneta? Describe the process of excretion in detail.
Answer:
The structures associated with excretory function are Malpighian tubules, Fat bodies, uricase glands, Nephrocytes, and Cuticles.

Malpighian tubule: The malpighian tubules are long, unbranched yellowish tubules, attached at the extreme anterior end of the hindgut, lying freely in the hemolymph, but do not open into it being bliand at the free ends. They are 100-150 in number arranged in 6-8 bundles, each bundle having 15-25 tubules. Each tubule is lined by a single layer of glandular epithelium with a brush border on the inner surface. The ‘distal portion’ of the tubule is secretory and the ‘proximal part’ is absorptive in nature.

The glandular cells of the malpighian tubules absorb water salts, CO2, and nitrogenous wastes from the hemolymph and secrete them into the lumen of the tubules. The cell of the proximal part of the tubules reabsorbs water and certain inorganic salts. By the contraction of the tubules, urine is pushed into the ileum. More water is reabsorbed from it when it moves into the rectum and almost solid uric acid is excreted along with faecal matter.

The removal of nitrogenous waste material through the alimentary canal helps in the complete reabsorption of water from the wastes and the formation of dry uric acid. It is an adaptation for the conservation of water as it is very important in terrestrial organisms.

Fat bodies: Fat body is a lobed white structure. Urate cells present in these bodies are associated with excretion in a way. These cells absorb and store uric acid throughout life. This is called storage excretion as they remain stored in the cells of the corpora adipose.

Uricose glands: Uric acid is stored in uriosa gland or utriculi majority of the mushroom gland in male cockroaches. It is discharged during copulation.

Cuticle: Some nitrogenous waste materials are deposited on the cuticle and eliminated during moulting.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 8.
How does Periplaneta conserve water? Explain it with the help of excretion in it.
Answer:
Periplaneta can conserve water by following methods. The removal of Nitrogenous waste material through the alimentary canal helps in the complete reabsorption of water from the wastes and the formation of dry uric acid. It is an adaption for the conservation of water as it is very important in terrestrial organisms.

Cuticle: Some nitrogenous waste materials are deposited on the cuticle and eliminated during moulting.

Question 9.
Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Ommatidium.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q9

Question 10.
How can you identify the male and female cockroaches? Explain it describing the chief structures of the external and internal genitalia.
Answer:
Periplaneta is dioecious or unisexual and both the sexes have well-developed reproductive organs. Sexual dimorphism is evident both externally and internally. The female is different from the male in respect of short and broad abdomen, presence of blood pouches, and absence of anal styles.

The eighth tergum in the male and both the eighth and ninth terga in the female are not visible. In the male ninth sterna are visible, whereas in the female only the seventh sterna are visible. The seventh, eighth, and ninth sterna together form a broad pouch.

The posterior end of the abdomen is a pair of anal cerci, a pair of anal styles and gonophophyses in the males, and cerci are jointed and arise from the lateral side of the tenth tergum and are found in both sexes. The anal styles are without joints and arise from the ninth sternum. But seen only in the males. The gonopophysis are small chitinous processes arising from the ninth sternum in males and the eighth, and ninth sterna in females. They are the external genital organs.

Question 11.
Describe the male reproductive system of cockroaches.
Answer:
The male reproductive system consists of a pair of testes. These are elongated and lobed structures lying on each lateral side in the fourth to sixth abdominal segments. They are embedded in the fat bodies. From the posterior end of each testis, there starts a thin duct, the vas deferens.

The two vasa deferentia run backward and inwards to open into a wide median duct, the ductus ejaculatory in the seventh segment. A characteristic mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6th and 7th abdominal segments which functions as an accessory reproductive gland.

The gland consists of two types of tubules:

  • Long slender tubules, the utriculi majors, or peripheral tubules.
  • Short tubules, the utriculi breviores, and secretion of utriculi majors form the inner layer of the spermatophore while the utricular breviores nourish the sperms. These tubules open into the anterior part of the ejaculatory duct.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q11

Question 12.
Describe the female reproductive system of cockroaches.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q12
The female reproductive system of Periplaneta consists of a pair of ovaries a pair of oviducts vagina, spermathecal papilla, colleterial glands, and ovaries.

A pair of large ovaries lie laterally in 2 to 6 abdominal segments. They are light yellow in colour surrounded by fat bodies. Each ovary consists of eight tubules called ovarian tubules or ovarioles. Each ovariole consists of a tapering anterior filament called germarium and a posterior wider vitellarium. The germarium contains various stages of developing ova and the vitellarium contains mature ova with the yolk. The tapering ends of the ovarioles of each ovary unite to form a single thread that attaches to the dorsal body wall.

The ovarioles, at their posterior end, unite to form a short wide oviduct. The oviducts unite to form a very short median vagina. The vertical opening of the vegina is called the female genital pore. It opens into a large genital pouch on the eighth sternum. A spermatheca or receptaculum seminis, consisting of a left-sac like and a right filamentous caecum, is present in the 6th segment which opens by a median aperture on a small spermathecal papilla in the dorsal wall of the genital pouch on the ninth sternum. In a fertile female, the spermatheca contains spermatophores, obtained during copulation.

A pair of branched colleterial glands is present behind the ovaries. These glands open into the genital pouch separately, just above the spermathecal aperture. Secretion of the two collateral glands forms a hard egg case called ootheca around the eggs.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the digestive system of cockroaches with the help of a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
The digestive system of cockroaches consists of an alimentary canal and the associated glands. The preoral cavity surrounded by the mouth parts is present in front of the mouth. The hypopharynx divides into two chambers called cibagium (anterior) and salivarium (posterior).

Alimentary canal: The alimentary canal of cockroaches is a long tube and is coiled in some places. It extends between the mouth and the anus. It is divided into three regions namely the foregut of stomodaeum, midgut or mesenteron, and hindgut is internally lined by ectoderm. The mesenteron is lined by the endodermal cells.

Forgut or stomodaeum: The foregut includes the pharynx oesophagus, crop, and gizzard. It is internally lined by a chitinous cuticle. The mouth opens into the pharynx, which in turn leads into a narrow tubular oesophagus. The oesophagus opens behind into a thin-walled distensible sac called a crop. The crop serves as a reservoir for storing food. Its outer surface is covered by a network of tracheae.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q1
Behind the crop, there is a thick-walled muscular proven- triculus or gizzard. The chitinous inner living of the gizzard has six powerful teeth, which form an efficient grinding apparatus. Behind each tooth is a hairy pad, which bears backwardly directed bristles. Among these plates, food is thoroughly ground into fine particles. These food particles are filtered by the bristles. The gizzard thus acts both as a grinding mill and also as a sieve. There is a membranous projection of the gizzard into the mesenteron in the form of a funnel called a stomodeal valve. This valve prevents the entry (regurgitation) of food from the mesenteron back into the gizzard.

Midgut (mesenteron or ventriculus): The midgut is a short and narrow tube behind the gizzard. It is also called mesenteron or ventriculus. Between the ventriculus and the gizzard, arising from the ventriculus there are six to the eighth finger-like diverticula called nepatic caecae. They are helpful in the digestion and absorption of digested food materials. Ventriculus is functionally divided into an anterior secretory part and a posterior absorptive part.

The secretory part of the ventriculus has many gland cells and it secretes several enzymes. The ‘bolus’ of food in the mesenteron is enveloped by a chitinous and porous membrane called a peritrophic membrane, which is secreted by the funnel-like stomodeal valve of the gizzard. Digested food is absorbed into the food through the peritrophic membrane in the posterior absorptive region of the ventriculus. The peritrophic membrane protects the wall of the ventriculus from hard food particles in the food. The opening of the ventriculus into the hindgut is controlled by a sphincture muscle. It prevents entry of undigested food from the hindgut into the midgut.

Hindgut or proctodaeum: The hindgut is a long coiled tube, consisting of three regions namely the ileum, colon, and rectum. It is internally lined by the chitinous cuticle. The ileum that lies behind the mesenteron is a short tube. Six bundles of fine yellow, blind tubules called Malpighian tubules open into the ileum near the junction of mesenteron and ileum. Malpighian tubules are excretory in function. The ileum collects uric acid from the malpighian tubules and undigested food from the mesenteron. The ileum opens behind into a long coiled tube called the colon. The colon leads into a short and wide rectum which opens out through the anus. The rectum bears on its inner side six longitudinal chitinous folds called rectal papillae. They are concerned with the reabsorption of water from undigested food.

Digestive gland: The digestive glands associated with the alimentary canal of cockroaches are salivary glands, hepatic caecae, and glandular cells of the mesenteron.

Salivary glands: There is a pair of salivary glands attached to the ventrolateral sides of the crop, one on each side. Each salivary gland has two lobes. Each lobe of the salivary gland has many lobules called acini. Each acinus is a group of secretory cells called zymogen cells with a small ductule. The ductules of both the lobes of a salivary gland unite to form a common salivary duct on each side.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q1.1
The two common salivary ducts are joined to form the median salivary duct. Between the two lobes of a salivary gland on each side is a sac called the salivary receptacular duct or common reservoir duct. The midious salivary duct opens into the common receptacular duct. Later these two form an efferent salivary duct. The efferent salivary duct opens at the base of the hypopharynx. Acinar cells secrete saliva, which contains a starch digesting enzymes such as amylase.

Hepatic caecae: The hepatic caecae are also termed midguts caecae. They contain secretory and absorptive cells.

Glandular cells of the mesenteron: The glandular cells of the mesenteron secrete enzymes such as maltase, invertase, proteases, and lipase.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 2.
Describe the blood circulatory system of Periplaneta in detail and draw a neat and labelled diagram of it.
Answer:
The circulatory system helps in the transportation of digested food, hormones, etc., from one part to another in the body. Periplaneta has an open type of circulatory system as the blood or hemolymph, flows freely within the body cavity or hemocoel, Blood vessels are poorly developed and open into spaces) Visceral organs located in the hemocoel are bathed in the blood. The three main parts associated with the blood circulatory system of Periplaneta are the hemocoel, heart, and blood.

Haemocoel: The haemocoel of cockroaches is divided into three sinuses by two muscular, horizontal membranes called dorsal diaphragm or pericardial septum and ventral diaphragm. Both diaphragms have pores. There is a series of paired triangular muscles called alary muscles. Every segment has one pair of these muscles situated on the lateral sides of the body. These are attached to the pericardial septum by their broad bases and to the terga by their broad bases and to the terga by their pointed ends or apices. The three sinuses of the haemocoel are known as pericardial haemocoel or the dorsal sinus, the perivisceral haemocoel or the middle sinus, and sternal haemocoel or ventral sinus or perineural sinus. The middle sinus is very large as it contains most of the viscera. The dorsal and ventral sinuses are small as they have only the heart and nerve cords, respectively.

Heart: The heart lies in the pericardial haemocoel or dorsal sinus. It is a long muscular, contractile tube found in a long mid-dorsal line, beneath the terga of the thorax and abdomen.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q2
It consists of 13 chambers. Every chamber opens into the other present in front of it. Three of the thirteen chambers are situated in the thorax and ten in the abdomen. Its posterior end is closed while the anterior end is continued forward as the anterior aorta. At the posterior side of each chamber, except the last, there is a pair of small apertures called ‘Ostia’ one on each side. Ostia have valves that allow the blood to pass only into the heart from the dorsal sinus.

Blood: The blood of Periplaneta is colourless and is called haemolymph. It consists of a fluid called plasma and free blood corpuscles or haemocytes, which are phagocytic. The phagocytic, the phagocytes are large in size and can ‘ingest’ foreign particles such as bacteria. There is no respiratory pigment in the blood and so it plays no major role in respiration.

Question 3.
Describe the respiratory system of cockroaches with the help of neat and labelled diagrams.
Answer:
Due to the absence of respiratory pigment, the blood of cockroaches is colourless and it cannot carry oxygen to different tissues. Therefore a tracheal system is developed to carry the air directly to the tissues. The respiratory system of cockroaches consists of stigmata, tracheae, and tracheoles.

Stigmata or spiracles: The tracheal system communicates with the exterior by ten pairs of openings called stigmata or spiracles. The first two pairs of spiracles are present in the thoracic segments, one pair in the mesothorax and one pair in the metathorax. The remaining eight pairs of abdominal segments.

Spiracles are located in the pleura of their respective segments. The respiratory system in insects is classified on the basis of the number and nature of spiracles. The spiracles of cockroaches are polypneustic (as they are more than 3 pairs) and holopneustic (as all of them are functional). All spiracles are valvular and each of them is surrounded by a chitinous ring called peritreme. All spiracles bear small hair-like structures called trichomes to filter the dust particles.

Each spiracle opens into a small chamber called the atrium.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q3
Tracheae: From the atrium of each thoracic spiracle several horizontal tracheae run inside. They join with each other in the thorax to form many tracheal trunks like dorsal cephalic, and ventral cephalic trunks and their branches. These branches enter all organs of the head. The thoracic region also contains lateral longitudinal trunks. The abdominal spiracles lead into the atria. From the atrium of each abdominal spiracle, three tracheal tubes arise. All these tracheal tubes on one side open into three separate longitudinal tracheal trunks. They are lateral dorsal and ventral longitudinal trunks. Lateral longitudinal trunks are the longest tracheal trunks. The three pairs of longitudinal tracheal trunks on both sides are interconnected by many commissural tracheae. From all the tracheal trunks several branches are given out, which enter different organs. All tracheal branches entering an organ end in a special cell called tracheoles cell.

The wall of the tracheae is made of three layers. They are an outer basement membrane, a middle one cell thick epithelium, and an inner layer of cuticle called the intima. The intima is produced into spiral thickening called taenidia. The taenidia keep the tracheae always open and prevent it from collapsing.

Tracheoles: The terminal cell of the trachea is called tracheoblast or tracheole cell. It has several intracellular tubular extensions called tracheoles. Tracheoles are devoid of intima and taenidia. They are formed of a protein called tracheal. Tracheolar fluid is present inside the tracheoles. The level of the tracheal fluid varies with the metabolic activity of the insect. It is more when the insect is inactive and completely reabsorbed into the tissues when the insect is more active. Tracheoles penetrate the cell and are intimately associated with mitochondria (to supply oxygen to them).

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 4.
Describe the reproductive system of Periplaneta and draw neat and labelled diagrams of it.
Answer:
Periplaneta is dioecious, or unisexual and both the sexes have well-developed reproductive organs. Sexual dimorphism is evident both externally and internally. The female is different. The female is different from the male in respect of short and broad abdomen, presence of brood pouches, and absence of anal styles.

Male Reproductive system: The male reproductive system consists of a pair of testes. These are elongated and lobed structures lying on each lateral side in the fourth to sixth abdominal segments. They are embedded in the fat bodies. From the posterior end of each testis, there starts a thin duct, the vas deferens, the two vasa deferentia run backward and inwards to open into a wide median duct, the ductus ejaculators in the seventh segment. A characteristic mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6th and 7th abdominal segments which functions as an accessory reproductive gland.

The gland consists of two types of tubules or i, long slender tubules, the utriculi majores or periphera tubules in short tubules, the utriculi breviores secretion of utriculi majores forms the inner layer of the spermatophore while that of utriculi breviores nourishes the sperms. These tubules open into the anterior part of the ejaculatory duct. The seminal vesicles are present on the ventral surface of the ejaculatory duct. These sacs store the sperms in the form of bundles called spermatophores. The ejaculatory duct is a muscular tube that extends posteriorly and opens at the gonopore or the male genital pore.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q4

Female reproductive system: The female reproductive system of Periplaneta consists of a pair of ovaries, a pair of oviducts, vagina, spermathecae, spermathecal papilla, and colleterial glands.

Ovaries: A pair of large ovaries lie laterally in 2 to 6 abdominal segments. They are light yellow in colour surrounded by fat bodies. Each ovary consists of eight tubules called ovarian tubules or ovarioles. Each ovariole consists of a tapering anterior filament germarium and a posterior wider vitellarium. The germarium contains various stages of developing ova and the vitellarium contains mature ova with the yolk.

The tapering ends of the ovarioles of each ovary unite-to form a single thread that attaches to the dorsal body wall. The ovarioles, at their posterior end, unite to form a short wide oviduct. The oviduct unite to form a very short median vagina. The vertical opening of the vagina is called the female genital pore. It opens into a large genital pouch on the eighth sternum. A spermatheca or receptaculum seminis. Consisting of a left-sac-like and a right filamentous caecum is present in the 6th segment which opens by a median aperture on a small spermathecal papilla in the dorsal wall of the genital pouch on the ninth sternum.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q4.1
In a fertile female, the spermatheca contains spermatophores obtained during copulation. A pair of branched colleterial glands is present behind the genital pouch separately just above the spermathecal aperture, secretion of the two collateral glands forms a hard egg case called ootheca a round the eggs.

Three pairs of a plate-like chitinous structures called gonapophyses are present around the female genital aperture. These gonapophyses guide the ova into ootheca as ovipositors. These are the female external genitalia.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 6 Biology in Human Welfare Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define parasitism and justify this term.
Answer:
An intimate association between two organisms of different species in which ‘one is benefited and the other one is often adversely affected’ is called parasitism. The word parasitism comes from the Greek word ‘parasitos’ (Para-at the side of Sitos – food or grain) which means one eating at another one’s table.

Question 2.
Distinguish between a vector and a reservoir host.
Answer:

Vector hostReservoir host
It is an organism that transfers the infective stages of parasites from one host to another.
Ex: Anopheles for malaria parasite.
It is the host that lodges the infective stage of the parasite. It remains in the body till the main host is available.
Ex: Monkey for Plasmodium.

Question 3.
Distinguish between mechanical vector and biological vector.
Answer:

Mechanical vectorBiological vector
It is the vector that merely transfers the infective stages of parasites without parasitic development.
Ex: Housefly and cockroach for Entamoeba.
It is the vector in which the parasite undergoes a part of the development before it gets transferred.
Ex: Female anopheles mosquito in the case of plasmodium.

Question 4.
What is a hyperparasite? Mention the name of one hyper-parasite.
Answer:
A parasite that parasitizes another parasite is called a Hyper parasite.
Ex: Nosema notabilis (a cnidosporan) is a parasite in Sphaerospora polymorpha (a cnidosporan parasite in the urinary bladder of the toadfish).

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Question 5.
What do you mean by parasitic castration? Give one example.
Answer:
Some parasites cause the degeneration of gonads of the host making it sterile. This effect is called parasitic castration.
eg: Sacculina (root-headed barnacle, a crustacean) causes the degeneration of ovaries in the crab Carcinus maenas.

Question 6.
What are the endo-parasitic adaptations observed in Fasciola hepatica?
Answer:
The life cycle of Fasciola hepatica (sheep liver fluke) is very complex involving many developmental stages and two intermediate hosts to increase the chances of reaching a new definitive host.

Question 7.
Define Neoplasia. Give one example.
Answer:
Some cause abnormal growth of the host cells in a tissue to form new structures. This effect is called Neoplasia which leads to cancers.
Ex: Some Viruses.

Question 8.
Define the most accurate definition of the term ‘health’ and write any two factors that affect health.
Answer:
Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of any disease or absence of physical fitness. Our health may be affected by crenetic disorders, infections, and lifestyle.

Question 9.
Distinguish between infectious and non-infectious diseases. Give two examples each.
Answer:

InfectiousNon-infectious
The diseases which are easily transmitted from one person to another are called infectious diseases. These are caused by pathogens. These are very common.
Ex: Amoebic dysentery, Malaria, Elephantiasis, Typhoid.
The diseases which are not transmitted from one person to another and are not caused by pathogens are called non-infectious diseases.
Ex: Genetic disorders, kidney problems.

Question 10.
Entamoeba histolytica is an obligatory anaerobe justify.
Answer:
Mitochondria is absent in the endoplasm of Entamoeba histolytica. The absence of mitochondria indicates the obligate anaerobic nature of Entamoeba histolytica.

Question 11.
Distinguish between the precystic stage and the cystic stage of E.histolytica.
Answer:

PrecysticCystic
(i) It is a non-feeding, non-pathogenic stage.(i) It is a feeding and infective stage.
(ii) It is small, oval, non motile form.(ii) It is found in a round shape and surrounded by a delicate membrane.

Question 12.
What is the reserve food in the precystic and early cyst stages of Entamoeba histolytica?
Answer:
The cytoplasm of the precystic stage stores glycogen granules and chromatoid bars (made of ribonucleic protein) which act as reserve food.

Question 13.
A person is suffering from bowel irregularity, abdominal pain, blood and mucus in stool, etc. Based on these symptoms, name the disease and its causative organism.
Answer:

  • The disease is Amoebiasis.
  • The causative agent is the Trophozoite of “Entamoeba histolytica”.

Question 14.
On the advice of a doctor, a patient has gone to a clinical laboratory for the examination of a sample of faeces. The lab technician, on observing the stool of the patient diagnosed that the patient was suffering from amoebiasis. Write any two characteristic features based on which the technician came to that conclusion.
Answer:

  1. Stool with blood and mucous.
  2. Presence of a tetra nucleated cyst.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Question 15.
Define ‘asymptomatic cyst passers’ with reference to Entamoeba histolytica.
Answer:
Some people do not exhibit any symptoms, such people are called carriers of asymptomatic cyst passers as their stand contains the tetranuclear cysts. They help in spreading the parasites to their persons.

Question 16.
What are the stages of plasmodium vivax that infect the hepatocytes of man?
Answer:
Sporozoite, Cryptozoite, Macrometacryptozoite.

Question 17.
Define the prepatent period. What is its duration in the life cycle of plasmodium vivax?
Answer:
The interval between the first entry of plasmodium into the blood in the form of sporozoites and the second entry of plasmodium into the blood in the form of Cryptozoics is called a prepatent period. It lasts approximately 8 days.

Question 18.
Define incubation period. What is its duration in the life cycle of Plasmodium vivax?
Answer:
The period between the entry of Plasmodium into the blood in the form of sporozoite and the first appearance of symptoms of malaria in man is called the incubation period which is approximately 10 to 14 days.

Question 19.
What are Schuffner’s dots? What is their significance?
Answer:
Small red coloured dots appear in the cytoplasm of the RBC known as Schuffner’s dots. These are believed to be the antigens released by the plasmodium (Malaria) parasites.

Question 20.
What are hemozoin granules? What is their significance?
Answer:
The malaria parasite digests the globin part of the ingested hemoglobin and converts the soluble heam into insoluble crystalline hemozoin. It is called the ‘malaria pigment’ which is a disposable product.

Question 21.
What is exflagellation and what are the resultant products called?
Answer:
Male gapnetes show lashing movements like flagella and get separated from the cytoplasm of microgametocyte. This process is called exflagellation and resultant products are called male (or) microgametes.

Question 22.
Why is the syngamy found in plasmodium called anisogamy?
Answer:
Since two gametes are dissimilar in size, the syngamy found in plasmodium is called anisogamy.

Question 23.
What is Ookinete? Based on the sets of chromosomes how do you describe it?
Answer:
Ookinete is a long, splendor, motile, vermiform, two sets of chromosomes are present in it. So it is described as diploid form.

Question 24.
A person is suffering from chills and shivering and high temperature. These symptoms are cyclically followed by profuse sweating and a return to normal body temperature. Based on these symptoms name the disease and its causative organism.
Answer:
The disease is malaria and the causative organism is Plasmodium vivax.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Question 25.
Describe the methods of biological control of mosquitoes.
Answer:
Introduction of larvivorous fishes like Gambusia, and insectivorous plants like Utricularia into the places where mosquitoes breed.

Question 26.
The eggs of Ascaris are called “mammillated eggs”. Justify it.
Answer:
Each egg of Ascaris is surrounded by a protein coat with a rippled surface. Hence the eggs of Ascaris are called “mammilated eggs”.

Question 27.
What is meant by nocturnal periodicity with reference to the life history of a nematode parasite you have studied?
Answer:
Microfilaria larvae of W.brancrofti migrate to the peripheral blood circulation during nighttime between 10 P.M – 4 A.M. This tendency is called nocturnal periodicity.

Question 28.
Distinguish between lymphadenitis and lymphangitis.
Answer:

LymphadenitisLymphangitis
Inflammation in the lymph glands is called lymphadenitis.Inflammation in the lymph vessels is called lymphangitis.

Question 29.
‘Elephantiasis is the terminal condition of filariasis’. Justify.
Answer:
Sweat glands of the skin in the affected region disintegrate and skin becomes rough so elephantiasis is the terminal condition of filariasis.

Question 30.
In which way does tobacco affect respiration? Name the alkaloid found in tobacco.
Answer:
Tobacco increases the carbon monoxide (CO) level and reduces the oxygen level in the blood. The alkaloid found in tobacco is “Nicotine”.

Question 31.
Define drug abuse.
Answer:
When drugs are used for a purpose other than medicinal use is called drug abuse.

Question 32.
From which substances ‘Smack’ and ‘coke’ are obtained?
Answer:
Smack is the common name for “Heroine”. It is obtained from the opium poppy plant. (Papaver somniferum).
Coke is the common name for “Cocaine”. It is obtained from the coca plant (Erythroxylum coca).

Question 33.
‘Many secondary metabolites of plants have medicinal properties. It is their misuse that creates problems. justify the statement with an example.
Answer:
Many secondary metabolites of plants like opioids, cannabinoids, and coca alkaloids are abused nowadays. Even though they have medicinal properties they cause some effects.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Question 34.
Why are cannabinoids and anabolic steroids banned in sports and games?
Answer:
These days some sports persons take drugs such as cannabinoids and anabolic steroids to enhance their performance (Doping) and abuse of such drugs also causes side effects that’s why such drugs are banned in sports and games.

Question 35.
Mention the names of any four drugs which are used as medicines to treat patients with mental illnesses like depression, insomnia, etc., that are often abused.
Answer:
Barbiturates, Amphetamines, Benzodiazepines, Lysergic aciddiethyl amides (LSD).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the need for parasites to develop special adarptations? Mention some special adaptations developed by the parasites.
Answer:
Parasites have to evolve mechanisms to counteract and neutralize the host’s defence in order to be successful within the host. For this purpose, the parasites have developed many special adaptations such as the loss of unnecessary sensory organs, formation of organs for adhesion, high reproductive capacity, etc.
Parasitic adaptations: Parasites have evolved special adaptations to meet the requirements and lead successful lives in the hosts.

  • In order to live in the host, some parasites have developed structures like hooks, suckers, rostellum, etc., for anchoring, e.g: Taenia solium.
  • Some intestinal parasites have developed protective cuticles to withstand the action of the digestive enzymes of the host, e.g: Ascaris lumbricoides.
  • Some intestinal parasites produce anti enzymes to neutralize the effect of the host’s digestive enzymes, e.g: Taenia solium.
  • Some parasites live as obligatory anaerobes as the availability of oxygen is very rare for them, e.g: Entamoeba histolytica, Taenia solium, etc.
  • Some intestinal parasites live as facultative anaerobes, i.e., if oxygen is not available, they live anaerobically and if oxygen is available, they respire aerobically, e.g: Ascaris lumbricoides.

Question 2.
Distinguish between hypertrophy and hyperplasia with an example for each.
Answer:

HypertrophyHyperplasia
It is an abnormal increase in the volume/size of the infected host cell caused by a parasite.
e.g: R.B.C of a man infected by plasmodium.
It is an increase in the number of cells caused by parasites.
e.g: Fasciola hepatica in the bile duct of sheep.

Question 3.
Describe the structure of a trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica.
Answer:
It is the most active, motile, feeding, and pathogenic stage that lives in the mucosa of the large intestine. It moves with the help of pseudopodium (lobopodium) which is produced anteriorly. The body of the trophozoite is surrounded by plasmalemma. Its cytoplasm is differentiated into an outer clear, viscous, non-granular ectoplasm and inner fluid-like granular, endoplasm.

Ribosomes, food vacuoles, and verticular cartwheel-shaped nucleus is present Absence of mitochondria indicates the obligate anaerobic nature of Entamoeba histolytica. It produces a proteolytic enzyme called histolytica which dissolves mucosas & sub-mucosa of the gut wall & releases blood, and tissue debris which are ingested by the trophozoite.

Hence food vacuoles are loaded with R.B.C & fragments of cells, and bacteria. The presence of R.B.C in the food vacuole and cart wheel-shaped nucleus are the characteristic features of the trophozoite.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Question 4.
Explain the life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica.
Answer:
The trophozoite undergoes binary fissions in the wall of the large intestine and produces a number of daughter entamoeba. They feed upon the bacteria and the hostly tissue elements, grow in size, and again multiply. After repeated binary fissions some of the young ones enter the lumen of the large intestine and transform into precystic stage.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare SAQ Q4
Here, the precystic stage transforms into the cystic stage. Which in turn develops into tetranuclear cysts. The entire process is completed only in a few hours. These tetra nucleated cysts come out along with the faecal matter and can remain alive for about 10 days. These cysts reach new hosts through contaminated food and water. They pass into the small intestine of a new human host. Where the cyst wall gets, ruptured by the action of the enzyme trypsin releasing tetra nucleated amoeba. Such tetra nucleated exocyst amoeba is called metacyst. The four nuclei of the metacyst undergo mitotic divisions and produce eight nuclei. Each nucleus gets a bit of cytoplasm and thus eight daughter entamoeba are produced. The young ones develop into trophozoites and invade the large intestine.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the pathogenicity of Entamoeba histolytica.
Answer:
The trophozoites ‘dissolve’ the mucosal lining by histolysin going deep into the submucosa and causing ulcers. These ulcers contain cellular debris, lymphocytes, blood corpuscles, and bacteria. It leads to the formation of abscesses in the wall of the large intestine. Ultimately it results in stools with blood and mucous. This condition is called amoebic dysentery (or) Intestinal amoebiasis. Some people don’t exhibit any symptoms such people are called ‘carriers’ (or) asymptomatic cyst passers as their stools contain tetranucleotide cysts.

Question 6.
Describe the structure of the sporozoite of plasmodium vivax.
Answer:
The ultrastructure of the sporozoite of P. vivax was studied by barnham. It is sickle-shaped with a swollen middle part and pointed at both ends of it’s body. It measures about 15 microns in length and one micron in width. The body is covered by an elastic pellicle with microtubules which help in the curiggling movement of the sporozoite. The cytoplasm contains cell organelles such as the Golgi complex, E.R. mitochondria, and a nucleus.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare SAQ Q6
The cytoplasm also shows many convoluted tubules of unknown function throughout the body. It contains a cup-like depression called an apical cup at the anterior end into which a pair of secretory organelles opens. They secrete a cytolytic enzyme which helps in the penetration of sporozoite into the liver cell.

Question 7.
Describe the cycle of Golgi in the life history of Plasmodium Vivax.
Answer:
It was first described by Camillo Golgi. Hence it is also called the Golgi cycle. This is initiated either by the trophozoites of the pre-erythrocytic cycle (or) the micro meta cryptozoites of the exo-erythrocytic cycle. In the fresh R.B.C, these stages assume the spherical shape and transform into trophozoite. It develops a small vacuole that gradually enlarges in size, and pushes the cytoplasm and nucleus to the periphery.

Now the plasmodium looks like a finger ring. Hence this stage is called the signet ring stage soon it loses the vacuole, develops pseudopodia, and becomes an amoeboid stage. With the help of pseudopodium, it actively feeds on the content of the R.B.C and increases in size. As a result, the R.B.C grows almost double the size. This process is called hypertrophy. The malaria parasite digests the globin part of the ingested hemoglobin and converts the soluble haem into insoluble Haemozine. It is called malaria pigment. During this stage, small red coloured dots appear in the cytoplasm of R.B.C known as “Schuffner’s dots’.

Now the parasite loses the pseudopodia and increases in size finally it occupies the entire R.B.C and becomes schizont. It undergoes schizogony and produces 12-24 erythrocytic merozoites. They are arranged in the form of a rose hence this stage is called the rosette stage. Finally, merozoites are released along with haemozoine into the blood.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Question 8.
Explain the pathogenicity of Wucheria bancrofti in Man.
Answer:
The infection causes filarial fever which is characterized by headache, mental depression, and an increase in the body temperature. In general, the infection of filarial worm causes inflammation effect in lymph vessels and lymph glands. Inflammation in the lymph vessels is called lymphangitis and that of lymph glands is called lymphadenitis. In the case of heavy infection, the accumulation of dead worms blocks the lymph vessels and lymph glands resulting in immense swelling of limbs, scrotum of males, and mammary glands in females. Fibroblasts accumulate in this tissue and form the fibrous tissue. In severe cases, the sweat glands of the skin in the affected region disintegrate and the skin becomes rough. This terminal condition is called elephantiasis.

Question 9.
Write short notes on typhoid fever and its prophylaxis.
Answer:
Typhoid fever: It is caused by salmonella typhi which is a gram-negative bacterium. It mainly lives in the small intestine of man and then migrates to other organs through blood. It can be confirmed by the Widal test.
Mode of infection: Contamination through food and water.
Symptoms: Sustained fever with high temperature upto 104°F. weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache, and loss of appetite. Intestinal perforation and death may also occur in severe cases.
Prophylaxis: Advancements made in biological science have armed us to deal with many infections effectively. The immunization programme by the use of vaccines has enabled us to completely irradicate like typhoid. Biotechnology is making available never cheaper vaccines, and the discovery of antibiotics and various other drugs also enabled us to treat typhoid.

Question 10.
Write short notes on Pneumonia and its prophylaxis.
Answer:
Pneumonia: It is caused by gram-positive bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumonia and Haemophilus influenza. They infect the alveoli of the lungs in human beings.
Mode of infection: Contamination by inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an infected person or even by sharing the utensils with an infected person.
Symptoms: The alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in respiration. In severe cases, the lips and fingernails may turn gray to bluish in colour.
Prophylaxis: Advancements made in biological science have armed us to deal with many infections effectively. The immunization programme by the use of vaccines has enabled us to completely irradicate pneumonia. Biotechnology is making available newer, cheaper vaccines, and the discovery of antibiotics and various other drugs also enabled us to treat pneumonia.

Question 11.
Write short notes on the common cold and its prophylaxis.
Answer:
Common cold: It is caused by a rhinovirus group of viruses. They infect the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
Mode of infection: Contamination is by direct inhalation of the droplets resulting from cough or sneezes of an infected person or indirectly through contaminated objects such as pens, books, cups, door knobs, computer keyboards or mice, etc.
Symptoms: Nasal congestion, discharge from the nose, sore throat, hoar senses, cough, headache, tiredness, etc., which usually last for 3-7 days.
Prophylaxis: Advancements made in biological science have armed to deal with many infections effectively. The immunization programme by the use of vaccines has enabled us to completely irradicate like viral diseases common cold. Biotechnology is making available newer cheaper vaccines, the discovery of antibiotics and various other drugs also enabled use to treat viral diseases like the common cold.

Question 12.
Write short notes on ‘ringworm’ and its prophylaxis.
Answer:
Ringworm: It is one of the most common infectious diseases in man. It is caused by many fungi belonging to the genera, Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton. Heat and moisture help these fungi grow in the skin folds such as those in the groin or between the toes.
Mode of infection: Contamination is by using towels, clothes or combs of the infected persons or even from the soil.
Symptoms: Appearance of dry, scaly, usually round lesions accompanied by intense itching on various parts of the body such as skin, nails, and scalp.

Question 13.
What are the adverse effects of tobacco?
Answer:
Effect: Smoking increases the carbon monoxide (CO) level and reduces the oxygen level in the blood. Nicotine stimulates the adrenal gland to release adrenaline and nor-adrenaline into the blood. These hormones raise blood pressure and increase the heart rate. Smoking is associated with bronchitis, emphysema, coronary heart disease, and gastric ulcer and increases the incidence of cancers of the throat, lungs, urinary bladder, etc. Smoking also paves the way to hard drugs. Yet smoking is very prevalent in society, both among young and old-. Tobacco chewing is associated with an increased risk of cancer of the oral cavity.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Question 14.
Write short notes on opioids.
Answer:
Opioids: These are the drugs obtained from the opium poppy plant Papaver somniferous (vernacular name: Nallamandu mokka): They bind to specific opioid receptors present in our central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract. Some of them are morphine, heroin, etc.
Morphine: It is extracted from the dried latex of the unripe seed capsule (Pod) of the poppy plant. It occurs as colourless crystals or a white crystalline powder.
Mode of abuse: Generally it is taken orally or by injection.
Effect: It is effective as a sedative and painkiller. It is very useful in patients who have undergone surgery.
Heroin: It is a white, bitter, odourless, and crystalline compound, obtained by the acetylation of morphine. Chemically it is diacetylmorphine. It is commonly called a snack.
Mode of abuse: Generally it is taken by shorting and injection.
Effect: Heroin is a depressant and slows down body functions.

Question 15.
Write short notes on Cannabinoids.
Answer:
Cannabinoids: These are a group of chemicals obtained from the Indian temp, plant cannabis Sativa (vernacular name Ganjai mokka). They interact with cannabinoid receptors present in the brain. The flower tops, leaves, and the resin of this plant are used in various combinations to produce marijuana, hashish, charas, and ganja. These daufs, cannabinoids are being abused by even some sports – persons (doping).
Mode of abuse: These are generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion.
Effect: Show their effects on the cardiovascular system of the body.

Question 16.
Write short notes on Cocaine.
Answer:
Coca alkaloid or cocaine: It is a white, crystalline alkaloid that is obtained from the leaves of the coca plant Erythroxylum coca, native to South America. It is commonly called coke or crack.
Mode of abuse: It is usually shorted.
Effect: It has a potent stimulating action on the central nervous system as it interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter dopamine. Hence it produces a sense of euphoria and increased energy. Its excessive dosage causes hallucinations.

Question 17.
Why adolescence is considered a vulnerable phase?
Answer:
Adolescence: It is the time period between the beginning of puberty and the beginning of adulthood. In other words. It is the bridge linking childhood and adulthood. The age between 12-18 years is considered adolescence period. It is both a period and process during which a child becomes muture. It is accompanied by several biological and behavioural changes. Thus, adolescence is a very vulnerable phase of the mental and psychological development of an individual.

Question 18.
Distinguish between addiction and dependence.
Answer:
Addiction: It is a psychological attachment to certain effects such as euphoria. The most important thing one fails to realize it, the inherent addictive nature of tobacco, drugs, and alcohol, with the repeated use of TDA, the tolerance level of the receptors present in our body increases. Consequently, the receptors respond only to higher doses leading to greater intake and addiction. However, it should be clearly borne in mind that the use of TDA even once, can be a forerunner to addiction. Thus, the addictive potential of tobacco, drugs, and alcohol pull the users into a vicious circle leading to their regular use (abuse) from which they may not be able to get out. In the absence of any guidance or counseling, people get addicted and become dependent on them.

Dependence: It is the tendency of the body of manifest a characteristic unpleasant condition (withdrawal syndrome). The regular dose of drugs or alcohol is abruptly discontinued. The withdrawal syndrome is characterized by anxiety. Shakiness (tremors), nausea, and sweating may be relieved when regular use is resumed again. Dependence leads the patients to ignore all social norms.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Question 19.
‘Prevention is better than cure. justify with regard to TDA abuse.
Answer:
The age-old adage of prevention is better than cure holds true here also.
Some of the measures successful in the prevention and control of TDA abuse among adolescents are:

  • Avoid undue parental pressure: Every child has his/her own choice. Capacity and personality. Parents should not force their children to perform beyond their capacity by comparing them with others in studies, games, etc.
  • Responsibility of parents and teachers: They should look for the danger signs and counsel such students who are likely to get into the ‘trap’.
  • Seeking help from peers: If peers find someone abusing drugs or alcohol immediately it should be brought to the notice of their parents or teachers so that they can guide them appropriately.
  • Education and counseling: Educating and counseling the children to face problems, stress, and failures as a part of life.
  • Seeking professional and medical help: A lot of help is available in the form of highly qualified psychologists, psychiatrists, and de-addiction and rehabilitation programmers.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the structure and life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica with the help of neat and labelled diagrams.
Answer:
Entamoeba histolytica (Gr. entos – within : amoiba – change histos – tissues ; lysis – dissolve) is a microscopic and monogenetic parasite that inhabits the large intestine and causes amoebic dysentery or amoebiasis in man.

It is cosmopolitan in distribution but more common in the tropical and subtropical regions of the world. It is common in the people of rural and densely populated urban areas wherever the hygienic conditions are poor.

Structure: Entamoeba histolytica passes through three distinct stages in its life cycle namely

  • Trophozoite stage
  • Precystic stage
  • Cystic stage

(i) Trophozoit stage: It is the most active, motile, feeding, and pathogenic stage that lives in the mucosa and sub-mucosa membrane of the large intestine; It moves with the help of a lobopodium which is produced anteriorly. The body of the trophozoite is surrounded by plasma-lemma. Its cytoplasm is differentiated into outer clear, viscous non-granular ectoplasm and inner fluid like granular endoplasm.

Ribosomes, food vacuoles, and vesicular, cartwheel-shaped nuclei are present in the endoplasm. The absence of mitochondria indicates the obligate anaerobic nature of Entamoeba histolytica. It produces the proteolytic enzyme called histolysis due to which the species name histolytica was assigned to it. Due to the effect of this enzyme the mucosa and submucosa of the gut wall are dissolved releasing some amount of blood, and tissue debris that are ingested by the trophozoites. Hence the food vacuoles are with erythrocyte fragments of epithelial cells and bacteria. The presence of RBC in food vacuoles and cartwheel-shaped nuclei are the characteristic features of the trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytic.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare LAQ Q1

(ii) Precystic stage: It is the non-feeding and non-pathogenic stage of Entamoeba histolytica that is found in the lumen of the large intestine. It is a small, spherical, or oval, non-motileform. The cytoplasm of the precystic stage stores glycogen granules and chromatid bars (made of ribonucleic protein) which act as reserve food.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare LAQ Q1.1

(iii) Cystic stage: It is round in shape and is surrounded by a thin, delicate, and highly resistant cyst wall. It is found in the lumen of the large intestine. The process of development of the cyst wall is called encystation. Which is a means of tiding over the un¬favourable conditions that the parasite is going to encounter while passing to a new host. Soon after the encystation, the nucleus undergoes two successive mitotic divisions to form four daughter nuclei. This type of cystic stage is called tetranuclear cyst or mature cyst which is the stage infective to man.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare LAQ Q1.2

Life cycle: The trophozoites undergo binary fissions in the wall of the large intestine and produce a number of daughter entamoeba. They feed upon the bacteria and the host’s tissue elements, grow in size, and again multiply. After repeated binary fission some of the young ones enter of the lumen of the large intestine and transform into precystic stages. Here, the precystic stages transform into cystic stages which in turn develop into tetranuclear cysts. The entire process is completed only in a few hours. These tetranuclear cysts come out along with the faecal matter and can remain alive for about 10 days. The cyst reaches a new host through contaminated food and water. In the small intestine of a new human host, the cyst wall gets ruptured releasing the tetranuclear amoebae. Such tetranuclear excystic amoebae are called metacysts.

The four nuclei of the metacyst undergo mitotic divisions and produce eight nuclei. Each nucleus gets a bit of the cytoplasm and thus eight daughter entamoeba or metacystic trophozoites are produced. These young ones develop into feeding stages called trophozoites. They invade the mucous membrane of the large intestine and grow into mature trophozoites.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare LAQ Q1.3

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Question 2.
Describe the life cycle of plasmodium vivax in man.
Answer:
The life cycle of plasmodium in man (The human phase): In man, the plasmodium reproduces by asexual reproduction called schizogony. It occurs in liver cells (hepatocytes) as well as in RBC. In liver cells, it is called hepatic schizogony and in RBC it is called erythrocytic schizogony.

Hepatic Schizogony: This was discovered by short and Cranham. Whenever a mosquito infected by plasmodium bites a man, nearly 2000 sporozoites are released into the blood of man through its saliva, within half an hour, they reach the hepatocytes where they undergo pre-erythrocytic and exo-erythrocytic cycles.

Pre-erythrocytic cycle: Whenever the sporozoites enter the liver cells they transform into trophozoites. They feed on the contents of the hepatic cells, assume a spherical shape, and attain the maximum size. This stage is called the schizont stage. Its nucleus divides several times Mitotically, followed by the cytoplasmic divisions resulting in approximately 12,000 daughter individuals called cryptozoites or the 1st generation merozoites. They enter the sinusoids of the liver by rupturing the cell membrane of the schizont and the liver cells. This entire process is completed approximately in 8 days. Now, these first-generation merozoites have two options, i.e., they can enter either fresh liver cells and continue the exo-erythrocytic cycle or they can enter RBC and continue the erythrocytic cycle.

Exo-erythrocytic cycle: If the trophozoites enter the fresh liver cells, they undergo changes similar to that of the pre-erythrocytic cycle and produce the second generation merozoites called meta cryptozoites. These are of two types the smaller micro-metacryptozoites and larger macro-metacry- photosites. This entire process is completed approximately in two days. The macro-metacryptozoites attack fresh liver cells and continue another exo-erythrocytic cycle, whereas the micro-metacryptozoites always enter the bloodstream and attack fresh RBC to continue the erythrocytic cycle.

Prepatent period: The interval between the first entry of plasmodium into the blood in the form of sporozoites and the second entry of plasmodium into the blood in the form of Cryptozoic is called a prepatent period. It lasts approximately 8 days. During this period, the host does not show any clinical symptoms of the disease. It is only a means of multiplication.

Erythrocytic cycle: It was first described by Camillo Golgi Hence it is also called Golgi cycle. This cycle is initiated either by the trophozoites of the pre-erythrocytic cycle or the micro metocryptozoites of the exo-erythrocytic cycle in the fresh RBC, these stages assume the spherical shape and transform into trophozoites. It develops a small vacuole that gradually enlarges in size pushing the cytoplasm and nucleus to the periphery.

Now the plasmodium looks like a fisher ring. Hence this stage is called the signet ring stage. Soon it loses the vacuole, develops pseudopodia, and becomes an amoeboid stage with the help of pseudopodia. It actively feeds on the contents of the RBC and increases in size. As a result, the RBC grows almost double its size. This process is called hypertrophy. The malaria parasite digests the globin part of the ingested hemoglobin and converts the soluble haem into insoluble crystalline haemozoin. It is called the ‘malaria pigment’ which is called a disposable product. During this stage, small red coloured dots appear in the cytoplasm of the RBC known as Schaffner’s dots. These are believed to be the antigens released by the parasite.

Now the plasmodium loses the pseudopodia, further increases in size, occupies the entire RBC, and becomes a schizont. It undergoes schizogony similar to that of the pre-erythrocytic cycle and produces 12 to 24 erythrocytic merozoites. They are arranged in the form of the petals of a rose in the RBC. Hence this stage is called the rosette stage] Finally the erythrocyte bursts and releases the merozoites along with haemozoin into the blood. This cycle is completed approximately in 48 hours.

Incubation period: The period between the entry of plasmodium into the blood in the form of sporozoite and the first appearance of symptoms of malaria in man is called the incubation period, which is approximately 10 to 14 days.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare LAQ Q2
Formation of gametocytes: After repeated cycles of erythrocytic schizogony when the number of fresh RBC decreases, some merozoites enter the RBC and transform into gametocytes instead of continuing the erythrocytic cycle. This process generally takes place when the RBCs are present in the spleen and bone marrow.

The gametocytes are of two types namely smaller microgametocytes or male gametocytes and larger macrogametocytes or female gametocytes. The gametocytes cannot undergo further development in man as the temperature and PH of the blood man are not suitable for further development. These gametocytes reach the blood circulation and wait to reach the next host. They degenerate and die if they are not transferred to mosquitoes within a week.

Question 3.
Describe the life cycle of plasmodium vivax in mosquitoes.
Answer:
Life cycle of plasmodium in mosquito (The mosquito phase) Ross cycle: When a female Anopheles mosquito bite and sucks the blood of a malaria patient the gametocytes along with the other stages of the erythrocytic cycle reach the crop of mosquito. Here all the stages are digested except the gametocytes. Further part of the life cycle consists of

  • Gametogony
  • Fertilization
  • Formation of ookinete & oocysts
  • Sporogony

(i) Gametogony: The formation of male and female gametes from the gametocytes is called gametogony. It occurs in the lumen of the crop of mosquitoes.

Formation of male gametes: During this process, the nucleus of the microgametocyte divides into eight daughter nuclei called pronuclei which reach the periphery. The cytoplasm is pushed out in the form of eight flagella-like processes. Into each flagellum-like process, one pronucleus enters and forms a micro gamete or male gamete. These male gametes show lashing movements like flagella and get separated from the cytoplasm of microgametocyte. This process is called exflagellation.

Formation of female gamete: The female gametocyte undergoes a few changes and transforms into a female gamete. This process is called maturation. The nucleus of the female gamete moves towards the periphery and the cytoplasm at that point forms a projection. This projected region is called the fertilization cone.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare LAQ Q3

Fertilization: The fusion of male and female gametes is called fertilization. It also occurs in the lumen of the crop of the mosquito. When an actively moving male gamete comes into contact with the fertilization cone of the female gamete, it enters it, and the pronuclei and cytoplasm of these two gametes fuse with each other, resulting in the formation of a synkaryon Since the two gametes are dissimilar in size this process is known as anisogamy. The female gamete that bears the synkaryon is called the zygote which is round and non-motile.

(iii) Formation of ookinete and oocysts: The zygote remains inactive for some time and then transforms into a long, slender, motile, vermiform ookinete or vermicule within 18 to 24 hours. It pierces the wall of the crop and settles beneath the basement membrane. It becomes round and secretes a cyst around its body. This encysted ookinete is now called an oocyst. About 50 to 500 oocysts are formed on the wall of the crop and appear in the form of small nodules.

(iv) Sporogony: The formation of sporozoites in the oocysts is called sporogony. According to Bano, the nucleus of the oocyst first undergoes reduction division followed by repeated mitotic divisions resulting in the formation of about 1,000 daughter nuclei. Each bit of the nucleus is surrounded by a little bit of the cytoplasm and transforms into a sickle-shaped sporozoite. Oocyst with such sporozoites is called sporocyst.

When this sporocyst raptures, the sporozoites are liberated into the haemocoel of the mosquito. From there, they travel into the salivary glands and are ready for infection. The life cycle of plasmodium in mosquitoes completes in about 10 to 24 days.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare

Question 4.
Describe the structure and life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides with the help of a neat and labelled diagram.
Answer:
Ascaris lumbricoides is commonly called the common roundworm. It lives in the small intestine of man, more frequently in children. It is cosmopolitan in distribution. The mode of infection is through contaminated food and water. The infective stage is the embryonated: egg with the 2nd stage rhabditiform larva.

Structure: Sexes are separate and sexual dimorphism is distinct. In both males and females, the body is elongated and cylindrical. The mouth is present at the extreme anterior end and is surrounded by three chitinous lips close to the mouth. Mid ventrally there is a small aperture called an excretory pore.

Male: It has a curved posterior end which is considered the tail. The posterior end possesses a cloacal aperture and a pair of equal-sized chitinous pineal spicules or pineal setae which serve to transfer the sperms during copulation.

Female: It has a straight posterior end, the tail. The female genital pore or vulva is present mid-ventrally at about one-third the length from the mouth. The anus is present a little in front of the tail end.

Life history: Copulation takes place in the small intestine of a man. After copulation, the female releases approximately two lakh eggs per day. Each egg is surrounded by a protein coat with a rippled surface. Hence the eggs of Ascaris are described as mammilla eggs. The protein coat is followed by a chitinous shelf and a lipid layer internally. These eggs come out along with faecal matter. In the moist soil, development takes place inside the egg so that the 1st stage rhabditiform larva is produced. It undergoes the 1st moulting and becomes the 2nd stage rhabditiform larva which is considered the stage infective to man. They reach the alimentary canal of man through contaminated food and water.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare LAQ Q4
In the small intestine, the shell gets dissolved so that the 2nd stage larva is released. Now it undergoes extra-intestinal migration. First, it reaches the liver through the hepatic portal vein. From there it reaches the heart through the post caval vein. It goes to the lungs through the pulmonary arteries.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare LAQ Q4.1
In the alveoli of the lungs, it undergoes the 2nd moulting to produce the 3rd stage larva. It undergoes the 3rd moulting so that the 4th stage larva is produced in the alveoli only. It leaves the alveoli and reaches the small intestine again through the bronchi, trachea, larynx, glottis, pharynx, oesophagus, and stomach. In the small intestine. It undergoes the 4th and final moulting to become a young one which attains sexual maturity within 8 to 10 weeks.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare LAQ Q4.2

Question 5.
Describe the life cycle of wucheria bancrofti.
Answer:
Wucheria bancrofti is commonly called the filarial worm as it causes filariasis in human beings. It is a digenetic parasite that lives in the lymph vessels of man. Sir Patrick Manson identified the female culex mosquito as its secondary host.

Life cycle: It completes its life cycle in two hosts namely man and female culex mosquito.

In man: Both male and female worms are found coiled together in the lymphatic vessels of man. After copulation, the female releases the sheathed microfilaria larvae into the lymph of the man. Each sheathed microfilaria larva measures 0.2 to 0.3 mm in length. It is surrounded by a loose cuticular sheath which is supposed to be the modified shell. They migrate to the blood circulation and reside in the deeper blood vessels during the daytime. They move to the peripheral blood circulation during the nighttime between 10.00 pm and 4.00 am. This tendency is referred to as nocturnal periodicity. When a female culex mosquito sucks the blood of an infected person. They enter the gut of mosquitoes. They die if they are not transferred to mosquitoes within 70 days.

In mosquito: In the midgut of a mosquito, the sheath of the larva is dissolved within 2 to 6 hours of the infection. The ex-sheathed microfilaria larva penetrates the gut wall and reaches the heamocoel of the mosquito. From there, it reaches the thoracic muscles and transforms into a sausage-shaped larva within two days. It is called the first stage larva or first stage microfilaria. This undergoes two moultings within 10 to 20 days and transforms into infective 3rd stage microfilaria. It reaches the labium of the mosquito.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 6 Biology in Human Welfare LAQ Q5
In man after the infection: When an infected mosquito bites a man, the 3rd stage microfilaria larvae enter the blood circulation of the man and finally reach the lymphatic vessels. Here they undergo the 3rd and the 4th moultings to produce young filarial worms. They attain sexual maturity within 5 to 18 months.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Draw a labelled diagram of the T.S of the flagellum.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa VSAQ Q1

Question 2.
List any two differences between a flagellum and a cilium.
Answer:

FlagellumCilium
1. Flagellum helps in locomotion only.1. Cilium helps in locomotion and feeding and acts as sensory structures.
2. Flagellum produces undular movement.2. Cilium produces pendular movement.
3. Flagellum is about 150µ in length.3. Cilium is small in size 5-10µ in length.

Question 3.
What are dynein arms? What is their significance?
Answer:
‘A’ tube of each peripheral doublet bears paired arms along its length called dynein arms made up of protein dynein.
The dynein arms of the ‘A’ tubule face the tubule ‘B’ of the adjacent doublet.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa

Question 4.
What is a kinety?
Answer:
In the ciliate protozoans, a longitudinal row of kinetosomes together with kinetodesmata constitute a unit called kinety.

Question 5.
Distinguish between synchronous and metachronous movements.
Answer:
Synchronous movement: Cilia in a transverse row beat simultaneously in one direction. It is called synchronous movement.
Metachronous movement: The sequential movement of cilia, in a longitudinal row, one after the other in one direction is called metachronous movement.

Question 6.
Why do we refer to the offspring, formed by the asexual method of reproduction, as a clone?
Answer:
As a result of the asexual method, the offsprings are, not only identical to one another but also exact copies of their parent. The term ‘clone’ is used to describe such morphologically and genetically similar individuals.

Question 7.
Distinguish between proter and opisthe.
Answer:
During transverse binary fission in Paramecium two daughters, individuals are formed. The anterior one is called proter and the posterior is called opisthe.

Question 8.
How is sexual reproduction advantageous in evolution?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction results the advantageous in evolution in genetic recombination occurs in sexual reproduction.

Question 9.
Distinguish between lobopodium and filopodium. Give an example to each of them.
Answer:
Lobopodium: The blunt and finger-like tubular pseudopodia containing both ectoplasm and endoplasm is called lobopodium.
Ex: Amoeba proteus
Filopodium: The slender filamentous pseudopodia with pointed tips, composed of only ectoplasm are called Filopodium.
Ex: Euglypha

Question 10.
Define conjugation with reference to ciliates. Give two examples.
Answer:
Conjugation is a temporary union between two senile ciliates that belong to two different ‘mating types’ for the exchange of nuclear material and its reorganization. – Wichterman.
Ex: Paramecium and Vorticella.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the system that controls the fastest swimming movement of protozoans and write its components.
Answer:
Ciliary locomotion is the fastest swimming movement of protozoans, Hence, ciliates are the fastest protozoans.
Cilia are small hair-like structures found in ciliate protozoans like Paramecium.

Infraciliary system: It is located just below the pellicle in the ectoplasm of a ciliate. It includes kinetosomes, kinetodesmal fibrils, and kinetodesmata. The kinetosomes are present at the bases of cilia in transverse and longitudinal rows. The kinetodesmal fibrils are connected to the kinetosomes and run along the right side of each row of kinetosomes as a ‘cord of fibres’ called kinetodesmata. A longitudinal row of kinetosomes together with kinetodesmata constitute a unit called ‘kinety’.

All the kineties together form an infraciliary system, which is connected to a ‘motorium’, located near the cytopharynx. The infraciliary system and motorium form the ‘neuromotor system’ that controls and coordinates the movement of cilia.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa

Question 2.
Write the mechanism of bending the flagellum and explain effectively recovery strokes.
Answer:
The bending movement of a flagellum is brought about by the sliding of microtubules past each other due to the functioning of ‘dynein arms’ utilizing ATP. A flagellum pushes the fluid medium at right angles to the surface of its attachment, by its bending movement.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa SAQ Q2
Bending movement of flagella and cilia: Dynein arms show a complex cycle of movements using energy provided by ATP (dynein arms are the sites of ATPase activity in the cilia and flagella). The dynein arms of each doublet attach to an adjacent doublet and pull the neighbouring doublet. So the doublets slide past each other in opposite directions. The arms release and reattach a little further on the adjacent doublet and again ‘puli’. As the doublets of a flagellum or cilium are physically held in place by the radial spokes, the doublets cannot slide past much. Instead, they curve and cause the bending of flagellum or cilium. Such bending movements of flagella and cilia play an important role in flagellar and ciliary locomotion.

The flagellar movement of many organisms is a sidewise-lash which consists of two strokes namely the effective or propulsive stroke and the recovery stroke.

  • Effective stroke: Flagellum becomes rigid and starts bending to one side beating against the water. This beating against water is at right angles to the body axis and the organism moves forwards.
  • Recovery stroke: Flagellum becomes comparatively soft so as to offer the least resistance to water and moves back to its original position. It is called ‘recovery stroke’.

Question 3.
What are lateral appendages? Based on their presence and absence, write the various types of flagella giving atleast one example for each type.
Answer:
Lateral appendages: Some flagella bear one or two or many rows of short, lateral hair-like fibrils called lateral appendages. They are of two types namely ‘mastigonemes’ and ‘flimmers’.
Types of Flagella: Based on the presence or absence and/or the number of rows of lateral appendages, five types of flagella are recognized.
(a) Stichonematic: This flagellum bears one row of lateral appendages on the axoneme.
E.g. Euglena and Astasia.
(b) Pantonematic: This flagellum has two or more rows of lateral appendages on the axoneme.
E.g. Peranema and Monas.
(c) Acronematic: This type of flagellum does not bear lateral appendages and the terminal part of the axoneme is naked without the outer sheath at its tip.
E.g. Chlamydomonas and Polytoma
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa SAQ Q3
(d) Pantacronematic: This type of flagellum is provided with two or more rows of lateral appendages and the axoneme ends in a terminal naked filament.
E.g. Urceolus.
(e) Anematic or simple: In this type of flagellum, lateral appendages and terminal filament are absent. Hence, it is called anematic (a-no; nematic-threads)
E.g. Chilomonas and Gryptomonas.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa

Question 4.
Describe the process of transverse binary fission in paramecium.
Answer:
Transverse binary fission is performed by Paramecium. Binary fission is the most common method of sexual reproduction in protozoans. During favourable conditions, Paramecium stops feeding after attaining its maximum growth.

At first, the micronucleus divides by mitosis and the macronucleus divides into two daughter nuclei by amitosis. The oral groove disappears. After karyokinesis, a transverse constriction appears in the middle of the body, which deepens and divides the parent cell into two daughter individuals, the anterior proper and the posterior opisthe. The proper receives the anterior contractile vacuole, cytopharynx, and cytosome from its parent individual. It develops a posterior contractile vacuole and a new oral groove.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa SAQ Q4
The opisthe receives the posterior contractile vacuole of its parent. It develops a new anterior contractile vacuole, cytopharynx, cytostome and a new oral groove. Binary fission is completed in almost two hours, in favourable conditions and Paramecium can produce four generations of daughter individuals by binary fission in a day. The transverse binary fission is also called homothetogenic fission because the plane of fission is at right angles to the longitudinal axis of the body. As it occurs at right angles to the kineties, it is also called perkinetal fission.

Question 5.
Describe the process of longitudinal binary fission in Euglena.
Answer:
Binary fission is the most common method of asexual reproduction in protozoans. Longitudinal binary fission is performed by Euglena. In this type of binary fission, the body divides into two halves longitudinally, hence called longitudinal binary fission.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa SAQ Q5
During the process of binary fission, the nucleus, basal granules, chromatophores, and cytoplasm undergo division. The nucleus divides by mitosis into two daughter nuclei. Then the kinetosomes and the chromatophores also divide. At first, a longitudinal groove develops in the middle of the anterior end. This groove extends gradually towards the posterior end until the two daughter individuals are separated. One daughter Euglena retains the parental flagella. The other daughter individual develops new flagella from the newly formed basal granules. The stigma, paraflagellar body, and contractile vacuole of the parent disappear. They develop afresh in both the daughter Euglenae. The longitudinal binary fission is known as symmetrogenic division because the two daughters Euglenae resemble each other like mirror images.

Question 6.
Write a short note on multiple fission.
Answer:
Multiple fission: It is the division Of the parent body into many smaller individuals (Multi-many; Fission- splitting). Normally multiple fission occurs during unfavourable conditions. During multiple fission, the nucleus first undergoes repeated mitotic divisions without cytokinesis. This causes the formation of many daughter nuclei. Then the cytoplasm also divides into as many bits as there are nuclei. Each cytoplasmic bit encircles one daughter nucleus. This results in the formation of many smaller individuals from a single-parent organism. There are different types of multiple fissions in protozoans such as Schizogony, malegametogony, sporogony in plasmodium, sporulation in Amoeba, etc.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa

Question 7.
Give an account of pseudopodia.
Answer:
Locomotion in protozoans is performed by cellular extensions such as pseudopodia found in rhizopods organisms. The pseudopodia are temporary extensions of cytoplasm that develop in the direction of the movement. These temporary structures are useful to move on the substratum as our legs do, hence the name ‘pseudopodia’. There are four kinds of pseudopodia in protozoans.

  1. Lobopodia: blunt + finger like Pseudopodia. Ex: Amoeba, Entamoeba.
  2. Filopodia: fiber like pseudopodia contain ectoplasm. Ex: Euglypha.
  3. Reticulopodia: net like pseudopodia. Ex: Elphidium.
  4. Axopodia or heliopodia: Sun ray-like pseudopodia. Ex: Actinophiys.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa SAQ Q7

Question 8.
Give an account of the ultrastructure of an axoneme.
Answer:
Ultrastructure of flagellum: The axial filament or axoneme shows 9+2 organisation under the electron microscope. Two central singlets are enclosed by a fibrous inner sheath. Nine peripheral doublets form a cylinder between the inner sheath and the outer sheath. The “A” microtubule of each doublet is connected to the inner sheath by radial spokes. It also has pairs of arms all along the length and is directed towards the neighbouring doublet.

These arms are made of a protein called dynein. These arms create the sliding force. The peripheral doublets are surrounded by an outer membranous sheath called a protoplasmic sheath, which is the extension of the plasma membrane. Some flagella bear lateral appendages called flimmers or mastigonemes along the length of the axoneme above the level of the pellicle. Each flagellum arises from a basal granule that lies below the cell surface in the ectoplasm.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa SAQ Q8

Question 9.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of Euglena.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa SAQ Q9

Question 10.
Draw a neat diagram of paramecium and label its important structures/components.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 5 Locomotion and Reproduction in Protozoa SAQ Q10

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 5th Lesson Morphology of Flowering Plants Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 5th Lesson Morphology of Flowering Plants

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate fibrous roots from adventitious roots. [T.S. May, 18]
Answer:

Fibrous rootsAdventitious roots
Several number of roots originate from the base of the stem called fibrous roots.Roots that arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle are called Adventitious roots.

Question 2.
Define modification. Mention how root is modified in Banyan tree and mangrove plants.
Answer:
Modification is defined as “A permanent morphological change in an organ in order to perform a special function”. In banyan tree, roots develop from the huge branches and grow into the soil become pillar like called prop roots or piller roots. In Mangroves – Many roots come out of the ground, grow vertically upwards called Pneumatophores, or Respiratory roots help in gaseous exchange.

Question 3.
What types of specialized roots are found in Epiphytic plants? What is their function?
Answer:
In Epiphytic plants, velamen roots are present. They help in absorption of moisutrefrom atmosphere.

Question 4.
How does the sucker of chrysanthemum differ from the stolon of Jasmine?
Answer:

SuckerStolon
The lateral branches originate from the basal and underground portion of the stem grow horizontally beneath the soil and then come out obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots.
Ex : Chrysanthemum, Mentha.
A slender lateral branch arises from the base of the main axis, grow aerially, arches downwards to touch the ground and produce adventitious roots.
Ex : Jasmine, Nerium.

Question 5.
What is meant by pulvinus leaf base? In members of which angiospermic family do you find them? [A.P. May, 18, 17. Mar, 14]
Answer:
The swollen leaf base is called pulvinous leaf base. It is seen is “Leguminasae” family.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 6.
Define venation. How do Dicots differ from Monocots with respect to venation. [A.P. Mar, 15]
Answer:
“The arrangement of veins and the veinlets in the lamina of the leaf” is called venation.

In Dicots, Midrib, lateral veins and veinlets form a network so called Reticulate venation.

In Monocots, the veins run parallel to each other within a lamina so called parallel venation.

Question 7.
How is Pinnately compound leaf is different from a palmately compound leaf? Explain with one example each.
Answer:
Lamina is divided into leaflets which are arranged on either side of the rachis is called pinnately compound leaf.
Ex : Neem

Lamina is divided into leaflets, which are arranged at the tip of the petiole, called Palmately compound leaf.
Ex : Bean, Citrus.

Question 8.
Which organ is modified to trap insects in Insectivorous plants? Give two examples. [Mar, 13]
Answer:
In Insectivorous plants, leaves (Lamina) are modified to trap insects.
Ex : Nepenthes, Drosera.

Question 9.
Differentiate between Racemose and Cymose inflorescences. [T.S. Mar, 15]
Answer:

Racemose InflorescenceCymose Inflorescence
1. Peduncle grows Indefinitely.1. Peduncle grows definitely.
2. Flowers are arranged in Acropetal manner.2. Flowers are arranged in Basipetal manner.

Question 10.
What is the morphology of cup like structure in Cyathium? In which family it is found?
Answer:
In Cyathium, cup like structure is formed from Involucre of Bracts. It is seen in “Euphorbiaceae” family.

Question 11.
What type of Inflorescence is found in fig trees ? Why does the insect Balstophaga visits the Inflorescence of fig tree?
Answer:
In ‘Fig’ trees, ‘Hypanthodium’ Inflorescence is seen. An Insect called ‘Blastophaga’ visits this inflorescence, because it lay its eggs in the gall flowers.

Question 12.
Differentiate actinomorphic from zygomorphic flower.
Answer:

Actinomorphic FlowerZygomorphic Flower
“A Flower that can be cut into two equal halves in any vertical plane”.
Ex : Datura, Hibiscus.
“A flower that can be cut into two equal halves in one vertical plane”.
Ex : Bean, Crotalaria.

Question 13.
How do the petals in pea plant are arranged? What is such type of arrangement called?
Answer:
In Pea and Bean Flowers, there are five petals. The largest petal (standard) overlaps the two lateral petals (wings) which in turn overlap the two smallest anterior petals (Keel). This type of aestivation is called Descendingly Imbricate aestivation. This type of corolla is called vexillary or papilionaceous corolla.

Question 14.
What is meant by eipetalous condition? Give an example.
Answer:
When the stamens are attached to the petals that condition is called Epipetalous condition.
Ex : Brinjal, Datura.

Question 15.
Differentiate between apocarpous and syncarpores ovary.
Answer:

Apocarpous ovarySyncarpores ovary
“When more than one carpel is present in a ovary, they may be free”
Ex : Rose
When morethan one carpel is present in a ovary, they are fused.
Ex : Tomato

Question 16.
Define placentation. What type of placentation is found in Dianthus. [T.S. Mar, 15]
Answer:
“The arrangement of ovules with in the ovary is known as placentation”. In Dianthus – Free Central placentation is seen.

Question 17.
What is meant by parthenocarpic fruit? How is it useful?
Answer:
The fruit which is formed without fertilization of the ovary is called parthenocarpic fruit. They are useful commercial production of seedless fruits and also useful in Juice Indus tries.

Question 18.
What is the type of fruit found in mango ? How does it differ from that of coconut?
Answer:
In Mango, the type of fruit is Drupe. In Mango Epicarp is thin, Mesocarp is fleshy and edible and endocarp is stony. Where as in coconut, the mesocarp is fibrous.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 19.
Why certain fruits are called false fruits? Name two examples of plants having false fruits. [T.S. May, 18. Mar, 13]
Answer:
Fruits which are formed form other parts of the flower along with ovary are called false fruits.
Ex : Apple – Thalamus develops into false fruit.
Cashewnut – Pedicel develops into False fruit,

Question 20.
Name any two plants having single seeded dry fruits.
Answer:
(1) Rice (Caryopsis) (2) Cashew nut (nut) (3) Tridax (Cypsela)

Question 21.
Define Schizocarpic dry fruits. Give an example.
Answer:
The fruits which split into one-seeded bits, called mericarps and are called Schizocarpic fruits.
Ex : Acacia, Castor. ,

Question 22.
Define mericarp. In which plant you find it?
Answer:
The one seeded bits of Schizocarpic fruits are called mericarps.
Ex : Acacia.

Question 23.
What are aggregate fruits? Give two examples. [A.P. May, 18]
Answer:
In custard apple. Many carpels are present. Each carpel of apocarpous gynoecium develops into a fruitlet. Such bunch of fruitlets are called aggregate fruits.
Ex : Annona, Naravalia.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 24.
Name a plant that has single fruit developing from the entire inflorescence. What is such a fruit called? [Mar, 14]
Answer:
Pine apple. This fruit is called composite fruit.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain different regions of root with neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 1
The tip of the root is covered by Thimble like structure called root cap which protect the root apex. A few m.m above the root cap, meristematic zone is present which consists of small, thin walled cells with dense protoplasm. These cells divide repeatedly. The cells proximal to this zone undergo rapid elongation and enlargement and are responsible for growth of the root in length.

This region is called elongation region. The cells of the elongation zone gradually differentiate and mature so called maturation zone. From this zone, some of the epidermal cells form very thin and delicate thread like structures, called root hairs which help in absorption of water and Minerals from the soil.

Question 2.
Justify the statement, “Underground parts of plants are not always roots”.
Answer:
In some plants, stems are underground and help in storage of food materials, organs of perennation to tide over unfavourable conditions, vegetative propagation and also protect themselves form grazing animals. More over, underground stems bear nodes, internodes, buds and scale leaves. Because of this, they are treated as stems but not roots, so underground parts of plants are not root.
Ex : Stem tuber of Potato, Rhizome of Zinger, Turmeric, corm of Amorphophallus, Colocasia and Bulb of onion.

Question 3.
Explain with examples different types of phyllotaxy.
Answer:
Arrangement of leaves on the stem or on the branchs is called Phyllotaxy. It is of three types.
A) Alternate Phyllotaxy : A single leaf arises at each node arranged in alternate manner.
Ex : Hibiscus rosa-sinensis, mustard.

B) Opposite Phyllotaxy : A pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other.
Ex : Calotropis, Guava.

C) Whorled Phyllotaxy : More than two leaves arise at a node and form a whorl.
Ex : Nerium, Alstonia.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 2

Question 4.
How do leaf modifications help plants?
Answer:
Leaf modifications will help to plants in Many ways. They are
a) In weak stemmed plants like peas, leaves are converted into long, coiled tendrils and help in climbing.
b) In Desert plants like Cacti, leaves are modified into spines, which gave protection from grazing animals.
c) In Onion and Garlic : The fleshy leaves help in storage of food materials.
d) In Australian acacia, the leaves are pinnately compound in which leaflets are small and short lived. The petioles of these plants expand, become green and synthesize food called phyllodes.
e) In Insectivores plants, like Nepenthes, Dionea, leaves are modified into traps which kill insects for their nitrogen requirement.
f) In Bryophyllum, epiphyllous buds which arise from the notches of the leaves develop into new plants, thus help in vegetative Propagation.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 3

Question 5.
Describe any two special types of Inflorescences.
Answer:
1) Cyathium :
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 4
It is a single flower like special inflorescence found in Euphorbiaceae members. The inflorescence is covered by a deep cup like involucre of bracts. At the centre of the cup, there is a single female flower represented by a long stalked tricarpellary, Syncarpous pistil. Encircling this females flower, many male flowers are arranged in scorpioid cymes. Each male flower is represented by a single and stalked stamen. Male and female flowers are achlymadeous. Flowers are arranged in centrifugal manner.
Ex : Euphorbia and Poinsettia

2) Hypanthodium :
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 5
It is a fruit like inflorescence. The inflorescence axis is condensed and forms a fleshy, cup like structure with an apical opening. Small, sessile, unisexual flowers develop on the inner wall of the cup. Male flowers are near the apical opening and female flowers are at the base. In between these two types of flowers, some sterile female flowers called ‘gall flowers’ are present. The opening of flowers is not in a definite order.
Ex : Ficus species.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 6.
Describe the arrangement of floral membes in relation to their insertion on thalamus.
Answer:
Based on the position of Calyx, corolla and androecium on thalamus in respect to the ovary, the flowers are of three types.
They are :
A) Hypogynous,
B) Perigynous,
C) Epigynous

A) Hypogynous flower :
The gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the other parts are situated below it. The ovary is said to be superior.
Ex : Mustard, Brinjal.

B) Perigynous flower :
Gynoecium is present in the centre of the thalamus and other parts of the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus. The ovary is said to be half superior.
Ex : Rose, Pea.

C) Epigynous flower :
The ovary is completely embeded in the cup like thalamus. Other floral parts of the flower arise just above the ovary. In this, the ovary is said to be Inferior.
Ex : Guava, Cucumber.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 6

Question 7.
“The flower of many angiospermic plants which show sepals and petals differe with respect to the arrangement of sepals and petals in respective whorls” – Explain.
Answer:
The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud is knwon as Aestivation. It is of 4 types.
A) Valvate :
“When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margins without overlapping”.
Ex : Calotropis.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 7

B) Twisted :
“If the margin of the appendage overlaps that of the next one and so on”.
Ex : Cotton, Hibiscus. (Petals).

C) Imbricate :
If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction.
Ex : Cassia, gulmohar.

D) Vexillary :
5 petals are present, of which the largest Petal (standard) overlaps the two lateral petals (Wings) which in turn overlap the two smallest anterior petals (keel). This is known as vexillary or papilionaceous aestivation.
Ex : Pea, Bean.

Question 8.
Describe any four types of placentations found in flowering plants.
Answer:
The arrangement of ovules with in the ovary is known as placentation. It is of 5 types.
A) Marginal :
“The placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and the ovules are borne on this ridge forming two rows”.
Ex : Pea.

B) Axial :
The ovules are attached to central placenta in a multilocular ovary.
Ex : Tomato, lemon.

C) Parietal :
The ovules develop on the inner wall of the oary. Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the development of flase septum.
Ex : Mustard.

D) Free central :
The ovules are borne on central axis without septa.
Ex : Dianthus.

E) Basal :
The placenta develops at the base of the ovary and a single ovule is attached to it.
Ex : Sunflower.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 8

Question 9.
Describe in brief fleshy fruits you studied.
Answer:
Fruits which become fleshy at maturity one are called fleshy fruits. They are 5 types.
1) Berry :
It develops from Bi or multicarpellary syncarpous Gynoecium. The mesocarp and endocarp are fused to form the pulp and the seeds are hard.
Ex : Tomato, Guava.

2) Pepo :
It develops from Tricarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary. The epicarp is rigid, the mesocarp is fleshy and the endocarp is smooth.
Ex : Cucumber.

3) Pome :
It develops from Bi of multicarpellary inferior ovary and is surrounded by fleshy thalamus. The endocarp is cartilegumous.
Ex : Apple.

4) Hesperidium :
It develops from Multicarpellary syncarpous, superior ovary. The epicarp is leathery with volatile giands, Mesocarp is papery and endocarp is several chambered with juicy hairs.
Ex : Citrus.

5) Drupe :
It develops from Monocarpellary superior ovary. In Mango, the epicarp is thin, a middle fleshy edible mesocarp and inner stony hard endocarp. In coconut, the mesocarp is fibrous.

Question 10.
Describe with examples, the various dry fruits you studied.
Answer:
The fruits which become dry at maturity are called Dry fruits. They are of 3 types.
1) Dry dehiscent fruits :
“The fruits which breaks and liberate the seeds”.
Ex : (a) In legumes the fruit dehisces dorsiventrally into two halves and liberate the seeds,
(b) In Cotton, Datura – The capsule dehisce in different ways to liberate the seeds.

2) Dry Indehiscent fruits :
The fruits do not break and liberate the seeds only after the disintegration of pericarp.
Ex : (a) In Rice, The fruit is caryopsis. In this the pericarp and seed coat fuse together.
(b) In Cashew, the fruit is nut, whiph develops from multicarpellary, Syncarpous ovary. The pericarp is stony.
(c) In Tridax, The fruit is cypsela, Identified by the presence of persistent pappus like calyx.

3) Schizocarpic fruits :
“The fruit at maturity split into one – seeded bits called mericarps”.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 9

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define root. Mention the types of root systems. Explain how root is modified to perform different functions. [A.P & T.S. Mar, 17, 15, 13]
Answer:
The Radicle of the embryo elongates leads to the formation of primary root which grows into the soil is called root. In Angiosperms, two types of root systems are present namely, (a) Tap root system (b) Fibrous root system.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 10

a) Tap root system :
The primary root grows into the soil called tap root, which produce lateral roots and root lets constitutes tap root system. It is seen in Dicotyledonous plants.

b) Fibrous root system :
The primary root is short lived and is replaced by a large number of roots which orginate from the base of the stem constitutes fibrous root system. It is seen in Monocotyledonous plants.

Root Modifications :
In some plants, roots change their shape and structure to perform functions other than absorption and conduction of water and Minerals called root modifications. They are of different types.

1) Storage roots :
In Carrot, turnip (Tap roots), Sweat potato (Adventitious roots), Asparagus (Fibrous roots) become swollen due to storage of food called storage roots.

2) Prop roots :
In Banyan tree, Roots arise from the branches grow into the soil, become pillar like and give additional support called prop roots or pillar roots.

3) Stilt oots :
In Maize, sugarcane, roots arise from the lower nodes of the stem, give additional support called stilt roots.

4) Respiratorty roots :
In Mangroves like Rhizophora and Avicennia, Many roots come out of the ground and grow vertically upwards, help in respiration called Pneumatophores.

5) Epiphytic roots :
In Epiphytes like Vanda, special adventitious roots arise, help in absorption of moisture from almosphere called Velamen roots.

6) Parasitic roots :
In partial parasites like viscum and strga, some Haustorial roots enter into xylem of the host plant to get water and Minerals. In complete parasitic like cuscuta and Rafflesia, the haustorial roots enter into xylem and phloem of the host plant and obtain water and Minerals and food materials called Parasitic roots.

7) Nodular roots :
In the members of Fabaceae, the roots are inhabited by Rhizobium bacteria which helps in N2 fixation called Nodular roots.

8) Photosynthetic roots :
In some plants like Taeniophyllum, the roots are chlorophyllous and perform photosynthesis so called photosynthetic roots.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 11
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 12

Question 2.
Explain how stem is modified variously to perform different functions. [Mar, 14] [A.P & T.S. Mar, 18]
Answer:
Stems are modified in several ways to perform different functions.

In some plants stem grows into soil, not only stores food materials but also acts as organs of pennations. Such stems are called underground stem modifications. Further, they also help in vegetative propagation.
Ex : The stem tuber of potato, Rhizome of zingiber, corm of colocasia and Bulb of onion.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 13
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 14

In some plants, Aerial stems show many modifications.
1) Tendrils :
Slender, spirally coiled structures which may develop either from Auxiliary Bud [Cucumber, watermelon] or from Terminal Bud [Grapes] called stem Tendrils, help in climbing.

2) Thorns :
In some plants, buds are modified into woody, straight, pointed thorns, which protect plants from grazing animals.
Ex : Citrus, Bougainvillaea.

3) Phylloclade :
In some plants of arid regions, stems are modified into fleshy flattened (opuntia) or fleshy cylindrical (Euphorbia) or needle like structures (casuarina), called phylloclades. They carry out photosynthesis as their leaves are reduced to scales or spines to reduce the transpiration.

4) Bulbils :
In some plants, the vegetative buds (Diascorea) or floral buds (Agave) store food materials. At maturity they detach from the parent plants, develop adventitious roots and help in vegetative propagation. These are called Bulbils.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 15

In some plants, some part of the stem is aerial and some part is underground. Such stems are called sub aerial stem modifications.
1. Runners :
Sub aerial stems of “oxalis” spread to new niches and form new plants when older parts die. Such plants are called runners.

2. Stolons :
In plants like Nerium, Jasmine, a slender lateral branch called ‘stolon’ arises from the base of the main axis, grow vertically, arches downwards and touch the ground, produce adventitious roots.

3. Off-sets :
In some aquatic plants like pistia and Eichhornia, a lateral branch of one internode length called offset which bears a rosette of leaves at each node and a tuft of adventitious roots arising from the base of the discoid stem.

4. Suckers :
In plants like banana, chrysanthemum, the lateral branches originate from the basal portion of the main stem, grows horizontally, beneath the soil and then come out obliquely upwards giving rise to leafy shoots. These branches are called suckers. All these sub-aerial stem modifications help in vegetative propagation.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 16

Question 3.
Explain different types of Racemos inflorescences.
Answer:
Racemose Inflorescences are of several types. They are :
1) Simple Raceme :
The pedunde is simple, unbranched producing many pedicellate, bracteate flowers in Acropetal Manner.

2) Corymb :
The peduncle is long, and bears many flowers in Acropetal manner, but all the flowers are brought to the same level due to varied lengths of pedicels even through they are borne at different nodes.
Ex : Cassia, Cauliflower.

3) Umbel :
The flower appear to have arisen from the same point of the peduncle and is called umbel type. The Inflorescence is covered by a whorl of bracts called “Involucre”. Ex : Apiaceae, carrot.

4) Spike :
The peduncle is long and bears many sessile flowers, arranged in Aeropetal Manner.
Ex : Achy rant hus, poaceae.

5) Spadix :
In some plants, penduncle bears sessile unisexual and neutral flowers arranged in acropetal manner, covered and protected by modified Bract called spathe.
Ex : Cocos, colocasia.

6) Head :
In some plants, unisexual and bisexual sessile flowers develop centripetially on a condensed peduncle.
Ex : Tridax, sunflower.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 17

Additional Questions & Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by Scutellum? In which type of seeds it is present?
Answer:
Large and shield shaped cotyledon is known as scutllum. It is seen in Monocot seeds.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 2.
Define with examples endospermic and non-endospermic seeds.
Answer:
Endosperm may be completely consumed by the developing.

embryo before seed maturation. Such seeds are called non-endospermic seeds.

The seeds with endosperm after maturation are called endospermic seeds.
Ex : Castor, Coconut.

Intext Questions

Question 1.
In which plant, the underground stem grows horizontally in soil and helps in perennation?
Answer:
Zingiber officinalis (ginger) – Rhizome.
Curcuma tonga (Turmeric) – Rhizome.

Question 2.
Needle like phylloclades are found in which plant?
Answer:
Casuarina.

Question 3.
Why do plants like Nepenthes trap Insects?
Answer:
Nepenthes generally grow in Nitrogen deficient soils. In this, leaves are modified into pitcher to trap insects for their nitrogen requirement.

Question 4.
What is the characteristic Inflorescence found in members of Asteraceae?
Answer:
Head or Capitulum.

Question 5.
Can you name a plant that has least number of flowers in its inflorescence?
Answer:
Hibiscus, Datura.

Question 6.
Which family shows naked flowers?
Answer:
Euphorbiaceae.

Question 7.
In which flowers of the fig trees does the Insect Blastophaga lay its eggs ?
Answer:
Gall flowers.

Question 8.
What type of symmetry is shown by the flowers of Canna?
Answer:
Asymmetric.

Question 9.
On which side of the flower do the flowers of pea have the keel petals?
Answer:
Anterior side.

Question 10.
What is the ratio of overlapping margins of petals to overlapped ones in imbricate aestivation?
Answer:
5 : 4

Question 11.
How many ovules are found attached in Basal placentation?
Answer:
One

Question 12.
Which part of the flower in Cashew plant forms the false fruit?
Answer:
Pedicel

Question 13.
Which plant has hard, stony endocarp and fleshy edible mesocarp?
Answer:
Mango

Question 14.
What is the morphology of spathe in spadix Inflorescence?
Answer:
Bract (enlarged)

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 15.
What is the type of fruit known as if it develops from apocarpus ovary of a single flower?
Answer:
Aggregate fruits. (Anona squamosa)

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 3rd Lesson Science of Plants – Botany Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 3rd Lesson Science of Plants – Botany

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain how the term Botany has emerged.
Answer:
In ancient Greek language, the term Bouskein means Cattle feed. The term ‘Bouskein’ gave rise to “Botane” from which the term “Botany’’ is derived.

Question 2.
Name the books written Parasara and mention the important aspects discussed in those books. [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Parasara’s ‘Krishi Parasaram’ mentioned about agriculture and weeds. ‘Vrikshayurveda’ gives information about 14 types of forests; the external and internal characters of plants and about medicinal plants.

Question 3.
Who is popularly known as father of Botany ? What was the book written by him? [T.S. Mar, 18]
Answer:
“Theophrastus” is regarded as the Father of Botany. The book written by him was ‘De Historia plantarum”,

Question 4.
Who are Herbalists? What are the books written by them?
Answer:
The scientists who described the live Medicinal plants technically are called the Herbalists. The books written by them are called Herbals.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Carolus Von Linnaeus for the development of plant taxonomy?
Answer:
“Carolus Von Linnaeus” popularised Binomial Nomenclature. He also proposed the sexual system of classification.

Question 6.
Why is Mendel considered as the father of Genetics?
Answer:
Mendel conducted Hybridization experiments on pea plants and also introduced the laws of inheritance in 1866. Hence, he is considered as the Father of Genetics.

Question 7.
Who discovered the cell and what was the book written by him? [A.P. May 17, Mar 14]
Answer:
Robert Hooke first discovered the cell. “Micrographia” was the book written by him.

Question 8.
What is Palaeobotany? What is its use? [T.S. Mar, 17, 15, 13]
Answer:
Palaeobotany deals with the study of fossil plants. It helps in understanding the course of evolution in plants.

Question 9.
Name the branches of Botany which deal with the chlorophylfous autotrophic thallophytes and non-chlorophyllous heterotrophic thallophytes.
Answer:
Study of chlorophyllous autotrophic thallophytes is called Phycology. Study of non- chlorophyllous heterotrophic thallophytes is called Mycology.

Question 10.
What are the group of plants that live as symbionts in lichens? Name the study of Lichens. [T.S. May, 18]
Answer:
Algae and Fungi are the plant groups that live as symbionts in lichens. The study of lichens is called lichenology.

Question 11.
Which group of plants are called Vascular cryptogams ? Name the branch of Botany which deals with them?
Answer:
“Pteridophytes” are called vascular cryptogams. The branch of Botany that deals with them is called Pteridology.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Question 12.
Which group of plants are called amphibians of plant kingdom? Name the branch of Botany which deals with them.
Answer:
Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant Kingdom. The branch that deals with Bryophytes is called Bryology.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in brief the scope of Botany in relation to agriculture, horticulture and medicine.
Answer:

  1. The problems like decreasing resources and increasing population could be solved by enhancing crop yield through Green Revolution and.also by developing disease* pest resistance crops by utilizing the principles of Biotechnology.
  2. Progress in Agriculture, Forestry horticulture is possible through hybridization experiments and Genetic Engineering technology.
  3. New plant breeding techniques are useful to develop hybrid varieties in crop plants like Rice, Wheat, Maize, Sugarcane etc.
  4. Phytopathology is helpful in the prevention and eradication of several plant diseases.
  5. Knowledge on the role of plant hormones in plant growth and development is significant to improve Agriculture and Horticulture through herbicidal control of weed, breaking of seed dormancy etc., Experiments in tissue and organ culture is possible to produce large number of plants in the laboratory within a short duration.
  6. Several industries could be developed based on Botany.
  7. Studies in Medicinal plants like Arnica, Cinchona, Neem, Datura, Rauwolfia, Ocimum are also important to explore them for human health care.
  8. Production of Antibiotics, Bioinsecticides, single cell proteins is also made possible by study of these product yielding plants.

Question 2.
Explain the scope of Botany taking plant physiology as example.
Answer:

  1. The role of Minerals iri plant nutrition is useful in rational usage of chemical fertilizers and control of mineral deficiencies to improve Agricultural productivity.
  2. Knowledge on the role of plant hormones in plant growth and development’s highly significant to improve Agriculture and horticulture through herbicidal control of weeds, breaking of seed dormancy, enhancement of shelf-life period of leafy vegetables like spinach, artificial ripening of fruits like apple, banana and rooting of stem cuttings for Vegetative propogation.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Question 3.
What are the different branches of botany that deal with morphology of plants ? Give their salient features.
Answer:
Morphology deals with the study of different organs of a plant. It is a fundamental requisite for classification of plants. It is of two types,
a) External Morphology
b) Internal Morphology.

a) External Morphology :
It is the study and description of external characters of plant organs like root, stem, leaf, flower, seed and fruit etc.

b) Internal Morphology :
It is the study of internal structure of different plant organs. It is of two types. They are i) Histology ii) Anatomy.
i) Histology :
Study of different tissues present in the plant body.

ii) Anatomy :
Study of gross internal details of plant organs like root, stem, leaf, flower, etc.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Give a comprehensive account of the scope of Botany in different fields giving an example for each.
Answer:
I) Agriculture :

  1. Enhancement of crop yield through Green Revolution solves the problems like decreasing resources and increasing population.
  2. New plant breeding techniques are useful to develop hybrid varieties in crop plants like Rice, Wheat, Maize, Sugarcane etc.
  3. Phytopathology is helpful in prevention and eradication of several plant diseases.

II) Medicine :

  1. Studies in Medicinal plants like Arnica, Cinchona, Neem, Datura, Rauwolfia, Ocimum are important to explore them for human health care.
  2. Production of antibiotics, bioinsecticides, single cell proteins is made possible by study of these plants.

III) Environmental Issues :

  1. Control of Green house effect by tree plantation and soil pollution by bio-remediation, recycling of nutrients by saprophytic organisms, usage of biofertilizers to avoid soil and water pollution caused by chemical fertilizers and prevention of soil erosion by sand binding plants.
  2. Usage of algae (Chlorella) as food for astronauts in space research programmes and extraction of Iodine, agar-agar etc. from several sea weeds also indicate the scope of Botany for the Contemporary World.

IV) Commercial Products :
Knowledge of plants which yield commercially important and useful products like timber fibres, beverages such as coffe and tea, condiments, rubber, gums, resins, dyes, essential and aromatic oils is of great importance for their exploitation.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 13th Lesson Atoms Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 13th Lesson Atoms

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the angular momentum of electron in the second orbit of Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom ?
Answer:
Angular momentum of electron in second orbit of Hydrogen atom
L = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{2 \pi}\) = \(\frac{h}{\pi}\) (∵ L = \(\frac{h h}{2 \pi}\))

Question 2.
What is the expression for fine structure constant and what is its value ?
Answer:
Formula for fine structure constant
α = \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{2 \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{ch}}\); value of α = \(\frac{1}{137}\)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 3.
What is the physical meaning of ‘negative energy of an electron’ ?
Answer:
The ‘negative energy of an electron’ indicates that the electron bound to the nucleus due to force of attraction.

Question 4.
Sharp lines are present in the spectrum of a gas. What does this indicate ?
Answer:
Sharp lines in the spectrum of gas indicates bright lines against dark background.

Question 5.
Name a physical quantity whose dimensions are the same as those of angular momentum.
Answer:
Planck’s constant.

Question 6.
What is the difference between α – particle and helium atom ?
Answer:
Alpha particle

  1. It is a + 2e charged Helium nucleus.
  2. It contains 2 protons and 2 neutrons.

Helium atom

  1. It has no charge.
  2. It contains 2 protons, 2 electrons and 2 neutrons.

Question 7.
How is impact parameter related to angle of scattering ?
Answer:
The impact parameter related to angle of scattering is given by b = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \times \frac{\mathrm{Ze}^2}{\left(\frac{1}{2} m v^2\right)} \cot \theta_2\)

Question 8.
Among alpha, beta and gamma radiations, which get affected by the electric field ?
Answer:
Alpha and Beta radiations are get affected by the electric field.

Question 9.
What do you understand by the ‘phrase ground state atom’ ?
Answer:
If the electron is present in the ground state, it is called ground state atom.

Question 10.
Why does the mass of the nucleus not have any significance in scattering in Rutherford’s experiment ?
Answer:
The size of the atom is 10-10 m and size of the nucleus is 10-15 m. Hence atom has large empty space. So the mass of nucleus has no significance in Rutherford’s scattering experiment.

Question 11.
The Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the ultraviolet region. Why ? (A.P. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
The calculated values of wavelengths lie in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum well agree with the values of wavelengths observed experimentally by Lyman.

Question 12.
Write down a table giving longest and shortest wavelengths of different spectral series.
Answer:
Wavelength limits of some spectral series of hydrogen.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 1

Question 13.
The wavelengths of some of the spectral lines obtained in hydrogen spectrum are 1216 A, 6463 A and 9546A. Which one of these wavelengths belongs to the Paschen series ?
Answer:
The wavelength of spectral line 9546A belongs to the Paschen series.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 14.
Give two drawbacks of Rutherford’s atomic model.
Answer:
Drawbacks of Rutherford’s atom model:

  1. As the revolving electron loses energy continuously, it must spiral inwards and eventually fall into the nucleus. But matter is stable, we can not expect the atom collapse.
  2. The atoms should emit continuous spectrum, but what we observe is only a line spectrum.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is impact parameter and angle of scattering ? How are they related to each other ?
Answer:

  1. Impact parameter (b) : Impact parameter is defined as the perpendicular distance of the initial velocity vector of the alpha particle from the central line of the nucleus, when the particle is far away from the nucleus of the atom.
  2. Scattering angle (θ): The scattering angle (θ) is the angle between the asymtotic direction of approach of the α – particle and the asymptotic direction in which it receeds.
  3. The relation between b and θ is b = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \frac{Z \mathrm{e}^2}{E} \cot \frac{\theta}{2}\) where E = K.E. of α – particle = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\)

Question 2.
Derive an expression for potential and kinetic energy of an electron in any orbit of a hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s atomic model. How does P.E change with increasing n. (T.S. Mar. ’15)
Answer:

  1. According fo Bohr electrostatic force of attraction, Fe between the revolving electrons and nucleus provides the necessary centripetal force Fc to keep them in their orbits.
  2. Thus for dynamically state orbit in a hydrogen atom.
    Fc = Fe ⇒ \(\frac{m v^2}{r}\) = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \frac{e^2}{r_2}\)
  3. The relation between the orbit radius and the electron velocity is r = 2
    4e0 (m )
  4. The kinetic energy (K) and electrostatic potential energy (υ) of the electron in hydrogen atom are
    K = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{8 \pi \varepsilon_0 r}\) and υ = \(\frac{-\mathrm{e}^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{r}}\)
  5. The total energy E of the electron in a hydrogen atom is
    E = K + U = \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{8 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{r}}\) – \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{r}}\)
    ∴ E = \(\frac{-\mathrm{e}^2}{8 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{r}}\)
  6. With increase in ‘nr potential energy (U) also increases.

Question 3.
What are the limitations of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom ? (Mar. ’14)
Answer:
Limitations of Bohr’s theory of Hydrogen atom :

  1. This theory is applicable only to simplest atom like hydrogen, with z = 1. The theory fails in case of atoms- of other elements for which z > 1.
  2. The theory does not explain why orbits of electrons are taken as circular, while elliptlical orbits are also possible.
  3. Bohr’s theory does not say anything about the relative intensities of spectral lines.
  4. Bohr’s theory does not take into account the wave properties of electrons.

Question 4.
Explain the distance of closest approach and impact parameter.
Answer:
Distance of closest approach :

  1. Suppose an α-particle with initial kinetic energy (K.E) is directed towards the centre of the nucleus of an atom.
  2. On account of Coulomb’s repulsive force between nucleus and alpha particle, kinetic energy of alpha particle goes on decreasing and in turn, electric potential energy of the particle goes on increasing.
  3. At certain distance ‘d’ from the nucleus, K. E of α-particle reduces to zero. The particle stops and it can not go closer to the nucleus. It is repelled by the nucleus and therefore it retraces its path, turning through 180°.
  4. Therefore, the distance d is known as the distance of closest of approach.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 2
    The closest distance of approach,
    d = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \times \frac{Z e^2}{\left(\frac{1}{2} m v^2\right)}\)
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 3
  5. Impact parameter (b) : Impact parameter is defined as the ⊥r distance of the initial velocity vector of the α – particle from the central line of the nucleus, when the particle is far away from the nucleus of the atom.

Question 5.
Give a brief account of Thomson model of atom. What are its limitations ?
Answer:
Thomson’s model of atom :

  1. According to Thomson’s model, every atom consists of a positively charged sphere of radius of the order of 10-10 m in which entire mass and positive charge of the atom are uniformly distributed.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 4
  2. Inside this sphere, the electrons are embedded like seeds in a watermelon or like plums in a pudding.
  3. The negative charge of electrons is equal to the positive charge of the atom. Thus atom is electrically neutral.

Limitations :

  1. It could not explain the origin of spectral series of hydrogen and other atoms, observed experimentally.
  2. It could not explain large angle scattering of a-particles from thin metal foils, as observed by Rutherford.

Question 6.
Describe Rutherford atom model. What are the draw backs of this model.
Answer:
Rutherford atom model: The essential features of Rutherford’s nuclear model of the atom or planetary model of the atom are as follows :

  1. Every atom consists of tiny central core, called the atomic nucleus, in which the entire positive charge and almost entire mass of the atom are concentrated.
  2. The size of nucleus is of the order of 10-15m, which is very small as compared to the size of the atom which is of the order of 10-10m.
  3. The atomic nucleus is surrounded by certain number of electrons. As atom on the whole is electrically neutral, the total negative charge of electrons surrounding the nucleus is equal to total positive charge on the nucleus.
  4. These electrons revolve around the nucleus in various circular orbits as do the planets around the sun. The centripetal force required by electron for revolution in provided by the electrostatic force of attraction between the electrons and the nucleus.

Draw backs : According to classical E.M. theory.

  1. The revolving electron loses energy continuously, it must spiral inwards and eventually fall into the nucleus. As matter is stable, we cannot expect the atoms to collapse.
  2. Since the frequency of radiation emitted is the same as the frequency of revolution, the atom should radiate a continuous spectrum, but what we observe is only a line spectrum.

Question 7.
Distinguish between excitation potential and ionization potential.
Answer:
Excitation Potential:

1) When the electron jumps from lower orbit to higher orbit by absorbing energy is called excited electron and the process is known as excitation. The minimum accelerating potential which provides an electron energy sufficient to jump from the inner most orbit (ground state) to one of the outer orbits is called excitation potential or resonance potential.

2) a) For example, in case of hydrogen atom,
E1 = -13.6 eV. E2 = -3.4 eV E3 = -1.51eV and soon, E = 0
∴ Energy required to raise an electron from ground state (n = 1) to first excited state
(n = 2) is E = E2 – E1 = -3.4 – (-13.6) = 10.2 eV.
The corresponding excitation potential = 10.2 Volt,

b) Similarly, energy required to raise an electron from ground state (n = 1) to second excited , state (n = 3) is
E = E3 – E1 = -1.51 – (-13.6) = -1.51 + 13.6 = 12.09 eV
The corresponding excitation potential = 12.09 Volt and so on.

3) The excitation potential of an atom is not one. It can have many values, depending on the state to which the atom is excited.

Ionisation potential:

  1. The energy supplied is so large that it can remove an electron from the outer most orbit of an atom, the process is called Ionisation. Thus ionisation is the phenomenon of removal of an electron from the outer most orbit of an atom.
  2. The minimum accelerating potential which would provide an electron energy sufficient just to remove it from the atom is called Ionisation potential.
  3. For example, total energy of electron in ground state of hydrogen atom, + 13.6 eV energy is required.
    ∴ Ionisation energy of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV.
    Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom = 13.6 Volts.
  4. The general expression for ionisation potential of an atom is V = \(\frac{13.6 \mathrm{Z}^2}{\mathrm{n}^2}\) volt, Where Z is the charge number of the atom and n is number of orbit from which electron is to be removed.
  5. For a given element, ionisation potential is fixed, but for different elements, ionisation potentials are different.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 8.
Explain the different types of spectral series in hydrogen atom. (A.P. Mar. ’19, ’15; T.S. Mar. ’16)
Answer:
The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of five series.

  1. Lyman series : v = Rc \(\left(\frac{1}{1^2}-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\) where n = 2, 3, 4, ……
  2. Balmer series : v = Rc\(\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\) where n = 3, 4, 5, ………
  3. Paschen series : v = Rc\(\left(\frac{1}{3^2}-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\) where n = 4, 5, 6, …….
  4. Brackett series : v = Rc\(\left(\frac{1}{4^2}-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\) where n = 5, 6, 7, ……
  5. Pfund series : v = Rc\(\left(\frac{1}{5^2}-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\) where n = 6, 7, 8,……..

Question 9.
Write a short note on Debroglie’s explanation of Bohr’s second postulate of quantization.
Answer:
Debroglie’s explanation of Bohr’s second postulate of quantization :

  1. The second postulate of Bohr atom model says that angular momentum of electron orbiting around the nucleus is quantized i.e., mυr = \(\frac{\text { nh }}{2 \pi}\) where m = 1, 2, 3,….
  2. According to Debroglie, the electron in its circular orbit, as proposed by Bohr, must be seen as a particle wave.
  3. When a string fixed at two ends is plucked, a large number of wavelengths are excited and standing wave is formed.
  4. It means that in a string, standing waves form when total distance travelled by a wave down the string and back is an integral number of wavelengths.
  5. According to Debroglie, a stationary orbit is that which contains an integral number of Debrogile waves associated with the revolving electron.
  6. For an electron revolving in nth circular orbit of radius rn, total distance covered = circumference òf the orbit = 2πrn
    ∴ For permissible orbit, 2πrn = nλ
  7. According to Debrogile, λ = \(\frac{h}{m v_n}\) Where υn is speed of electron revolving in nth orbit
    ∴ mυnrn = \(\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi}\) = \(\mathrm{n}\left(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2 \pi}\right)\)
    i.e., angular momentum of electron revolrmg in nth orbit must be an integral multiple of \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2 \pi}\), which is the quantum condition proposed by Bohr in second postulate.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe Geiger-Marsden Experiment on scattering of α – particles. How is the size of the nucleus estimated in this experiment ?
Answer:

  1. The experimental set up used by Rutherford and his colaborators, Geiger and Marsden is shown in fig.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 5
  2. The α-particles emitted by radio active source contained in a lead cavity are collimated into a narrow beam with the help of a lead slit (collimator).
  3. The collimated beam is allowed to fall on a thin gold foil of thickness of the order of 2.1 × 10-7m.
  4. The α-particles scattered in different directions are observed through a rotatable detector consisting of zinc sulphide screen and a microscope.
  5. The α-particles produce bright flashes or scintillations on the ZnS screen.
  6. These are observed in the microscope and counted at different angles from the direction of incidence of the beam.
  7. The angle θ of deviation of an α-particle from its original direction is called its scattering angle θ.

Observations : We find that

  1. Most of the alpha particles pass straight through the gold foil. It means they do not suffer any collision with gold atoms.
  2. Only about 0.14% of incident α-particles scatter by more than 1°.
  3. About one α-particle in every 8000 α-particles deflect by more than 90°.

Estimation of size of the nucleus :

  1. This led to Rutherford postulate, that the entire positive charge of the atom must be concentration in a tiny central core of the atom. This tiny central core of each atom was called atomic nucleus.
  2. The electrons would be moving in orbits about the nucleus just as the planets do around the sun.
  3. Rutherford’s experiments suggested the size of the nucleus to be about 10-15m to 10-14m. From kinetic theory, the size of an atom was known to be 10-10m, about 10,000 to 1,00,000 times larger than the size of the nucleus.

Question 2.
Discuss Bohr’s theory of the spectrum of hydrogen atom.
Answer:

  1. According to Bohr’s model an electron continuous to revolve round the nucleus in fixed, stationary orbits. This is called groupd state of the atom. In ground state there is no emission of radiation.
  2. But when some energy is given to an atom the electron absorbs this energy. This is called excited state of the atom. In this state the electron jumps to the next higher orbit. But it can remain 10-8 sec and it immediatly returns back to its ground state and the balance of the energy is emitted out as a spectral line.
  3. According to Bohr’s third postulate, the emitted energy is given by E = hv = E2 – E1
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 6

Spectral series of Hydrogen atom:

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 7

Hydrogen atom has five series of spectral lines: They are

1. Lyman series: When an electron jumps from the outer orbits to the first orbit, the spectral lines are in the ultra – violet region. Here n1 = 1, n2 = 2, 3, 4, 5….
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[\frac{1}{1^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right]\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[1-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right]\)

2) Balmer Series : When an electron jumps from the outer orbits to the second orbit, the
spectral Lines are in the visible region. Here n1 = 2, n2 = 3, 4, 5…
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right]\)

3) Paschen series : When an electron jumps from the outer orbits to the third orbit, the spectral lines are in the near infrared region. Here n1 = 3, n2 = 4, 5, 6 ….
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[\frac{1}{3^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2{ }^2}\right]\)

4) Brackett series : When an electron jumps from outer orbits to the forth orbit, the spectral lines are in the infrared region. Here n1 = 4, n2 = 5, 6, 7…….
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[\frac{1}{4^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right]\)

5) Pfund series : When an electron jumps from outer orbits to the fifth orbit, the spectral lines are in the far infrared region. Here n1 = 5, n2 = 6, 7, 8, ………
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[\frac{1}{5^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right]\)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 3.
State the basic postulates of Bohr’s theory of atomic spectra. Hence obtain an expression for the radius of orbit and the energy of orbital electron in a hydrogen atom.
Answer:
a) Basic postulates of Bohr’s theory are
1) The electron revolves round a nucleus is an atom in various orbits known as stationary orbits. The electrons can not emit radiation when moving in their own stationary levels.

2) The electron can revolve round the nucleus only in allowed, orbits whose angular momentum is the integral multiple of \(momentum is the integral multiple of
i.e., mυnrn = [latex]\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi}\) ———> (1)
where n = 1, 2, 3…..

3) If an electron jumps from higher energy (E2) orbit to the lower energy (E1) orbit, the difference of energy is radiated in the form of radiation.
i.e., E = hv = E2 – E1 ⇒ v = \(\frac{E_2-E_1}{h}\) ——> (2)

b) Energy of emitted radiation : In hydrogen atom, a single electron of charge — e, revolves around the nucleus of charge e in a ciccular orbit of radius rn.

1) K.E. of electron : For the electron to be in circular orbit, centripetal force = The electrostatic force of attraction between the electron and nucleus,
From Coulomb’s law, \(\frac{\mathrm{m} \dot{v}_n^2}{r_n}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{Ke}^2}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}^2}\) ——> (3)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 8
where K = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0}\) —–> (4)
\(m v_n^2\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{Ke}^2}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}}\) —–> (5)
\(m v^2 r_n\) = Ke2 ——-> (6)
Dividing (5) by (1), υn = Ke2 × \(\frac{2 \pi}{\mathrm{nh}}\)
From (3), kinetic energy K = \(\frac{1}{2} m v_n^2\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{Ke}^2}{2 r_{\mathrm{n}}}\)

2) Potential energy of electron:
P.E. of electron, U = \(\frac{\mathrm{Ke}}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}} \times-\mathrm{e}\) [∵ W = \(\frac{I^{\prime}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \frac{Q}{d}\) × -Q]
∴ U = \(\frac{-\mathrm{Ke}^2}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}}\)

3) Radius of the orbit: Substituting the value of (6) in (2),
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 9

4) Total energy (En) : Revolving electron posses K.E. as well as P.E.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 10

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
The radius of the first electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10-11m. What is the radius of the second orbit ?
Solution:
rn ∝ n2
\(\frac{\mathrm{r}_2}{\mathrm{r}_1}\) = \(\frac{2^2}{1^2}\) = \(\frac{4}{1}\) ⇒ r2 = 4r1

Question 2.
Determine the radius of the first orbit of the hydrogen atom. What would be the velocity and frequency of the electron in the first orbit ?
Solution:
Given: h = 6.62 × 10-34 J-s,
m = 9.1 × 10-31kg,
e = 1.6 × 10-19 C,
k = 9 × 109Nm2C-2, n = 1

i)
r1 = \(\frac{n^2 h^2}{4 \pi^2 \mathrm{mke}^2}\)
= \(\frac{(1)^2 \times\left(6.62 \times 10^{-34}\right)^2}{4 \times(3.14)^2 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 9 \times 10^9\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right)^2}\)
∴ r1= 0.529 A \(\simeq\) 0.53 A

ii)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 11

iii)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 12

Question 3.
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the hydrogen atom is -3.4eV. What is the potential energy of the electron in this state ?
Solution:
In 1st orbit, E = -3.4eV
Total energy E = \(\frac{\mathrm{KZe}^2}{2 \mathrm{r}}\) – \(\frac{\mathrm{KZe}^2}{\mathrm{r}}\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{KZe}^2}{\mathrm{r}}\) = U(say)
E = \(\frac{\mathrm{U}}{2}-\mathrm{U}\) = \(\frac{-\mathrm{U}}{2}\)
U = -2E
∴ U = -2 × -3.4 = 6.8 eV.

Question 4.
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is -3.4eV. What is the kinetic energy of the electron in this state ?
Solution:
In Hydrogen like atom, we know that
K = – Total energy E
Here E = – 3.4eV
∴ K = -(-3.4) = 3.4 eV

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 5.
Find the radius of the hydrogen atom in its ground state. Also calculate the velocity of the electron in n = 1 orbit. Given
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J s, m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, K = 9 × 109N m2C-2
Solution:
n = 1, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s,
m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
e = 1.6 × 10-19C,
K = 9 × 109 Nm2C-2
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 13

Question 6.
Prove that the ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.
Solution:
n = 1 corresponds to ground state.
E = \(\frac{-13.6}{n^2} e V\)
E = \(\frac{-13.6}{1^2} \mathrm{eV}\)
E = -13.6 eV
∴ The minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of hydrogen atom
= 13.6 eV.
∴ Ionisation energy of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV

Question 7.
Calculate the ionization energy for a lithium atom.
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 14
∴ Ionization energy of Lithium = 30.6eV.

Question 8.
The wavelength of the first member of Lyman series is 1216 A. Calculate the wavelength of second member of Balmer series.
Solution:
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(R\left(\frac{1}{n_1^2}-\frac{1}{n_2^2}\right)\)
For 1st member of Lyman series, λ = 1216; n1 = 1, n2 = 2
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 15
For 2nd member of Balmer senes,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 16

Question 9.
The wavelength of first member of Balmer series is 6563 A. Calculate the wavelength of second member of Lyman series.
Solution:
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_1^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right)\)
For 1st member of Balmer senes,
\(\frac{1}{6563}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{3^2}\right)\)
\(\frac{1}{6563}\) = \(\frac{5 R}{36}\) —–> (1)
For 2nd member of Lyman senes,
\(\frac{1}{\lambda^1}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{1^2}-\frac{1}{3^2}\right)\)
\(\frac{1}{\lambda^1}\) = \(\frac{8 \mathrm{R}}{9}\) —–> (2)
\(\frac{(1)}{(2)}\) ⇒ \(\frac{\lambda^1}{6563}\) = \(\frac{5 \mathrm{R}}{36} \times \frac{9}{8 \mathrm{R}}\)
λ’ = \(\frac{5}{32} \times 6563\)
∴ λ’ = 1025.5A

Question 10.
The second member of Lyman series in hydrogen spectrum has wavelength 5400 A. Find the wavelength of first member.
Solution:
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_1^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right)\)
For second member of Lyman senes,
\(\frac{1}{5400}\) = \(R\left(\frac{1}{1^2}-\frac{1}{3^2}\right)\) ⇒ \(\frac{1}{5400}\) = \(\frac{8 \mathrm{R}}{9}\) —-> (1)
For first member of Lyman series,
\(\frac{1}{\lambda^1}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{1^2}-\frac{1}{2^2}\right)\)
\(\frac{1}{\lambda^1}\) = \(\frac{3 R}{4}\) —–> (2)
\(\frac{(1)}{(2)}\) ⇒ \(\frac{\lambda^1}{5400}\) = \(\frac{8 R}{9} \times \frac{4}{3 R}\)
∴ λ’ = \(\frac{32}{27}\) × 5400 = 6400A.

Question 11.
Calculate the shortest wavelength of Balmer series. Or Calculate the wavelength of the Balmer senes limit. Given : R = 10970000m-1.
Solution:
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_1^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right)\)
R = 10970000 = 1.097 × 107 ms-1
For Balmer senes limit n1 = 2 and n2 = ∞
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{\infty}\right)\) ⇒ \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{R}{4}\)
λ = \(\frac{4}{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\frac{4}{1.097 \times 10^7}\) = 3646.3A

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 12.
Using the Rydberg formula, calcûlate the wavelength of the first four spectral lines in the Balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum.
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 17

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
Choose the correct alternative from the clues given at the end of the each statement:
a) The size of the atom in Thomson’s model is ……… the atomic size in Rutherford’s model. (much greater than / no different from / much less than.)
b) In the ground state of ……. electrons are in stable equilibrium, while in …… electrons always experience a net force. (Thomson’s model / Rutherford’s model.)
c) A classical atom based on …… is doomed to collapse. (Thomson’s model / Rutherford’s model).
d) An atom has a nearly continuous mass distribution in a ……. but has a highly non-uniform mass distribution in ………. (Thomson’s model / Rutherford’s model.)
e) The positively charged part of the atom possesses most of the mass in …….. (Rutherford’s model / both the models.)
Answer:
a) No different from
b) Thomson’s model, Rutherford’s model
c) Rutherford’s model
d) Thomson’s model, Rutherford’s model
e) Both the models.

Question 2.
Suppose you are given a chance to repeat the alpha – particle scattering experiment using a thin sheet of solid hydrogen in place of the gold foil. (Hydrogen is a solid at temperatures below 14 K.) What results do you expect ?
Answer:
The basic purpose of scattering experiment is defeated because solid hydrogen will be much lighter target compared to the alpha particle acting as projectile. According to theory of elastic the collisions, the target hydrogen will move much faster compared to alpha after collision. We cannot determine the size of hydrogen nucleus.

Question 3.
What is the shortest wavelength present in the Paschen series of spectral lines ?
Answer:
From Rydberg’s formula
\(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = 13.6 × 1.6 × 10-19\(\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_1^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right)\)
For shortest wavelength in Paschen series n2 = ∞ and n1 = 3
\(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = 21.76 × 10-19\(\left[\frac{1}{3^2}-\frac{1}{\infty^2}\right]\)
= 2.42 × 10-19
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{2.42 \times 10^{-19}}\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{2.42 \times 10^{-19}} \mathrm{~m}\)
= 8.1818 × 10-7m = 818.18nm.

Question 4.
A difference of 2.3 eV separates two energy levels in an atom. What is the frequency of radiation emitted when the atom make a transition from the upper level to the lower level ?
Answer:
Here E = 2.3eV = 2.3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
As E = hv
∴ v = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}}{\mathrm{h}}\) = \(\frac{2.3 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}\) = 5.6 × 104 Hz

Question 5.
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and potential energies of the electron in this state ?
Answer:
Total energy E = -13.6 eV
K.E = -E = 13.6 eV
RE. = -2.K.E = -2 × 13.6
= -27.2eV.

Question 6.
A hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs a photon, which excites it to the n = 4 level. Determine the wavelength and frequency of photon.
Answer:
For ground state n1 = 1 and n2 = 4
Energy of photon absorbed E = E2 – E1
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 18

Question 7.
a) Using the Bohr’s model calculate the speed of the electron in a hydrogen atom in the n = 1, 2 and 3 levels.
b) Calculate the orbital period in each of these levels.
Answer:
a) From v = \(\frac{c}{n} \alpha\), where α = \(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{Ke}^2}{\mathrm{ch}}\) = 0.0073
v1 = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{1}\) × 0.0073 = 2.19 × 106 m/s
v2 = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{2}\) × 0.0073 = 1.095 × 106 m/s
v3 = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{3}\) × 0.0073 = 7.3 × 105 m/s

b) Orbital period, T = \(\frac{2 \pi r}{V}\), As r1 = 0.53 × 10-10m
T1 = \(\frac{2 \pi \times 0.53 \times 10^{-10}}{2.19 \times 10^6}\) = 1.52 × 10-16S
As r2 = 4r1 and V2 = \(\frac{1}{2} V_1\)
T2 = 8T2 = 8 × 1.52 × 10-6 S = 1.216 × 10-15S
As r3 = 9r1 and V3 = \(\frac{1}{3} \mathrm{~V}_1\)
T3 = 27T1= 27 × 1.52 × 10-16 S = 4.1 × 10-15S

Question 8.
The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10--11m. What are the radii of the n = 2 and n = 3 orbits?
Answer:
As r = n2r
∴ r2 = 4r1 = 4 × 5.3 × 10-11 m = 2.12 × 10-10m ,
and r3 = 9r1 = 9 × 5.3 × 10-11 = 4.77 × 10-10m.

Question 9.
A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. What series of wavelengths will be emitted?
Answer:
In ground state, energy of gaseous hydrogen at room temparature = -13.6eV, when it is bombarded with 12.5 eV electron beam, the energy becomes 13.6 + 12.5 = -1.1eV.
The electron would jump from n = 1 to n = 3 where E3 = \(\frac{-13.6}{32}\) = -1.5eV
On de — excitation the electron may jump from n = 3 to n = 2 giving rise to Balmer series. It may also jump from n = 3 to n = 1 giving rise to Lýman series.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 10.
In accordance with the Bohr’s model, find the quantum number that characterises the earths revolution around the sun in an orbit of radius 1.5 × 1011 m with orbital speed 3 × 104m/s. (Mass of earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg.)
Answer:
Here r = 1.5 × 1011m, V = 3 × 104m/s, m = 6.0 × 1024kg
According to Bohrs model mvr = \(\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi}\)
n = \(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{mvr}}{\mathrm{h}}\) = 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × \(\frac{6.0 \times 10^{24} \times 3 \times 10^4 \times 1.5 \times 10^{11}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}\)
= 2.57 × 1074, which is too large.

Question 11.
Answer the following questions, which help you understand the difference between Thomson’s model and Rutherford’s model better.
a) Is the average angle of deflection of α — particles by a thin gold foil predicted by Thomson’s model much less, about the same, or much greater than that predicted by Rutherford’s model?
b) Is the probability of backward scattering (i.e., scattering of α – particles at angles greater than 90°) predicted by Thomson’s model much less, about the same, or much greater than that predicted by Rutherford’s model ?
c) Keeping other factors fixed, it is found experimentally that for small thickness t, the number of α – particles scattered at moderate angles is proportional to t. What clue does this linear dependence on t provide ?
d) In which model is it completely wrong to ignore multiple scattering for the calculation of average angle of scattering of a – particles by a thin foil ?
Answer:
a) About the same this is because we are talking of average angle of deflection.
b) Much less, because in Thomson’s model there is no such massive central core called the nucleus as in Rutherford’s model.
c) This suggests that scattering is predominantly due to a single collision increases with the number of target atoms which increases linearly with the thickness of the foil.
d) In Thomson model, positive charge is uniformly distributed in the spherical atom. Therefore a single collision causes very little deflection. Therefore average scattering angle can be explained only by considering multiple scattering may be ignored as a first approximation.

Question 12.
The gravitational attraction between electron and proton in a hydrogen atom is weaker than the coulomb attraction by a factor of about 10-40. An alternative way of looking at this fact is to estimate the radius of the first Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom if the electron and proton were bound by gravitational attraction. You will find the answer interesting.
Answer:
The radius of the first Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is
r0 = \(\frac{4 \pi \varepsilon_0(h / 2 \pi)^2}{m_e \mathrm{e}^2}\)
If we consider the atom bound by the gravitational force
= \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{Gm}_{\mathrm{p}} \mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}}}{\mathrm{r}^2}\right)\). We should replace \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0}\) by (Gmpme). In that case radius of first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom would be given by r0 = \(\frac{(\mathrm{h} / 2 \pi)^2}{\mathrm{Gm}_p \mathrm{~m}^2 \mathrm{e}}\)
Putting the standard values we get
r0 = \(\frac{\left(6.6 \times 10^{-34} / 2 \pi\right)^2}{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \times\left(9.1 \times 10^{-31}\right)^2}\)
= 1.2 × 1029 metre.
This is much greater than the estimated size of the whole universe!

Question 13.
Obtain an expression for the frequency of radiation emitted when a hydrogen atom de- excites from level n to level (n – 1). For large n, show that this frequency equals the classical frequency of revolution of the electron in the orbit.
Answer:
The frequency v of the emitted radiation when a hydrogen atom de-excites from level n to level (n – 1) is
E = hv = E2 – E1
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 19
In Bohr’s Atomic model, velocity of electron in nth orbit is v = \(\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi \mathrm{mr}}\)
and radius of nth orbital is v = \(\frac{n^2 h^2}{4 \pi^2 m K e^2}\)
Frequency of revolution of electron v = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{2 \pi \mathrm{r}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi \mathrm{mr}}\)
and radius of nth orbital is r = \(\frac{n^2 h^2}{4 \pi^2 m K e^2}\)
Frequency of revolution of electron
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 20
which is the same as (i) .
Hence for large values of n1 classical frequency of revolution of electron in nth orbit is the same as the frequency of radiation emitted when hydrogen atom de-excites from level (n) to level (n – 1)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 14.
Classically, an electron can be in any orbit around the nucleus of an atom. Then what determines the typical atomic size ? Why is an atom not, say, thousand times bigger than its typical size ? The question had greatly puzzled Bohr before he arrived at his famous model of the atom that you have learnt in the text. To simulate what he might well have done before his discovery, let us play as follows with the basic constants of nature and see if we can get a quantity with the dimensions of length that is roughly equal to the known size of an atom (~ 1010m).
a) Construct a quantity with the dimensions of length from the fundamental constants e, me, and c. Determine its numerical value.
b) You will find that the length obtained in (a) is many orders of magnitude smaller than the atomic dimensions. Further, it involves c. But energies of atoms are mostly in non- relativistic domain where c is not expected to play any role. This is what may have suggested Bohr to discard c and look for ‘something else’ to get the right atomic size. Now, the ‘Planck’s constant h had already made its appearance elsewhere. Bohr’s great insight lay in recognising that h, me, and e will yield the right atomic size. Construct a quantity with the dimension of length from h, me, and e and confirm that its numerical value has indeed the correct order of magnitude.
Answer:
a) Using fundamental constants e, me and c, we construct a quantity which has the dimensions of length. This quantity is \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{c}^2}\right)\)
Now \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{c}^2}\) = \(\frac{\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right)^2 \times 9 \times 10^9}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}\left(3 \times 10^8\right)^2}\) = 2.82 × 10-15m
This is of the order of atom sizes.

b) However when we drop c and use hc, me and e to construct a quantity which has dimensions of length the quantity we obtain is
\(\frac{4 \pi \varepsilon_0(\mathrm{~h} / 2 \pi)}{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{e}^2}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 21
= 0.53 × 10-10m
This is of the order of atom sizes.

Question 15.
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the hydrogen atom is about -3.4 eV
a) What is the kinetic energy of the electron in this state ?
b) What is the potential energy of the electron in this state ?
c) Which of the answers above would change if the choice of the zero of potential energy is changed ?
Answer:
We know kinetic energy of electron = \(\frac{K Z e^2}{2 r}\)
and P.E of electron = \(\frac{-\mathrm{KZe}^2}{\mathrm{r}}\)
P.E. = -2 (kinetic energy).
In this calculation electric potential and hence potential energy is zero at infinity.
Total energy = PE + KE = -2KE + KE = -KE
a) In the first excited state total energy = -3.4eV
∴ K.E = -(-3.4eV) = + 3.4 eV
b) P. E of electron in this first excited state = -2KE = -2 × 3.4 = -6.8eV.
c) If zero of potential energy is changed, KE does not change and continues to be +3.4 eV However, the P.E. and total energy of the state would change with the choice of zero of potential energy.

Question 16.
If Bohr’s quantisation postulate (angular momentum = nh/2π) is a basic law of nature, it should be equally valid for the case of planetary motion also. Why then do we never speak of quantisation of orbits of planets around the sun ?
Answer:
Bohr’s quantisation postulate is in terms of Plank’s constant (h), But angular momenta associated with planetary motion are = 1070 h (for earth). In terms of Bohr’s quantisation posulate this will correspond to n = 107. For such large values of n the differences in successive energies and angular momenta of the quantised levels are so small, that the levels can be considered as continuous and not discrete.

Question 17.
Obtain the first Bohr’s radius and the ground state energy of a muonic hydrogen atom [i.e., an atom in which a negatively charged muon (µ) of mass about 207me orbits around a proton].
Answer:
A muonic hydrogen is the atom in which a negatively charged muon of mass about 207 me revolves around a proton.
In Bohr’s atom model as, r ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~m}}\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{r}_\mu}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{e}}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}}}{\mathrm{m}_\mu}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}}}{207 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}}}\) = \(\frac{1}{207}\)
Here re is radius of first orbit of electron in hydrogen atom = 0.53A = 0.53 × 10-10m.
rm = \(\frac{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{e}}}{207}\) = \(\frac{0.53 \times 10^{-10}}{207}\) = 2.56 × 10-13m
Again in Bohr’s atomic model
E ∝ m
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_\mu}{\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{e}}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_\mu}{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}}}\) = \(\frac{207 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}}}{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}}}\), Eμ = 207Ee
As ground state energy of electron in hydrogen atom is Ee = -13.6 eV
Eμ = 207(-13.6)eV = -2815.2eV
= -2.8152KeV.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 12th Lesson Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 12th Lesson Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are “cathode rays”?
Answer:
Cathode rays are streams of fast-moving electrons or negatively charged particles.

Question 2.
What important fact did Millikan’s experiment establish?
Answer:
Millikan’s experiment established that electric charge is quantised. That means the charge on anybody (oil drop) is always an integral multiple of the charge of an electron, i.e., Q = ne.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 3.
What is a “work function”? (A.P. Mar. ’19 & T.S. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
The minimum energy required to liberate an electron from a photo metal surface is called the work function, ϕ0.

Question 4.
What is “photoelectric effect” ?
Answer:
When light of sufficient energy is incident on the photometal surface electrons are emitted. This phenomenon is called photoelectric effect.

Question 5.
Give examples of “photosensitive substances”. Why are they called so ?
Answer:
Examples of photosensitive substances are Li, Na, K, Rb and Cs etc.
The work function of alkali metals is very low. Even the ordinary visible light, alkali metals can produce photoelectric emission. Hence they are called photosensitive substances.

Question 6.
Write down Einstein’s photoelectric equation. (A.P. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by Kmax = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}_{\max }^2\) = hυ – ϕ0.

Question 7.
Write down de-Broglie’s relation and explain the terms there in. (A.P. & T.S. Mar. ’16)
Answer:
The de-Broglie wave length (λ) associated with a moving particle is related to its momentum (p) is λ = \(\frac{h}{p}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\), where h is planck’s constant.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 8.
State Heisenberg’s Uncertainly Principle. (A.P. Mar. ’19) (Mar. ’14)
Answer:
Uncertainity principle states that “it is impossible to measure both position (Δx) and momentum of an electron (Δp) [or any other particle] at the same time exactly”, i.e., Δx . Δp ≈ h where Δx is uncertainty in the specification of position and Δp is uncertainty in the specification of momentum.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the effect of
(i) intensity of light
(ii) potential on photoelectric current ?
Answer:
(i) Effect of intensity of light on photoelectric current:

1) When the intensity (I) of incident light, with frequency greater than the threshold frequency (υ > υ0) is increased then the number of photoelectrons emitted increases i.e. the value of photoelectric current (i) increases, ie. i ∝ I.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 10

ii) The effect of potential on photoelectric current:

  1. On increasing the positive potential on collecting electrode, the photoelectric current increases. At a particular positive potential, the photocurrent becomes maximum which is known as saturated current.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 11
  2. On increasing the value of negative potential on collecting electrode, the photoelectric current gradually goes on decreasing. At a particular negative potential the value of photoelectric current becomes zero. This is known as stopping potential.
  3. Stopping potential does not depend on the intensity of incident light. On increasing intensity, the value of saturated current increases, whereas the stopping potential remains unchanged.

Question 2.
Describe an experiment to study the effect of frequency of incident radiation on ‘stopping potential’.
Answer:
Experimental study of the effect of frequency of incident radiation on stopping potential:

  1. The experimental set up is shown in fig.
  2. Monochromatic light of sufficient energy (E = hv) from source ‘s’ is incident on photosensitive plate ‘C’ (emitter), electrons are emitted by it.
  3. The electrons are collected by the plate A (collector), by the electric field created by the battery.
  4. The polarity of the plates C and A can be reversed by a commutator.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 12
  5. For a particular frequency of incident radiation, the minimum negative (retarding) potential V0 given to the plate A for which the photo current stops or becomes zero is called stopping potential.
  6. The experiment is repeated with different frequencies, and their different stopping potential are measured with voltmeter.
  7. From graph, we note that
    1. The values of stopping potentials are different for different frequencies.
    2. The value of stopping potential is more negative for radiation of higher incident frequency.
    3. The value of saturation current depends on the intensity of incident radiation but it is independent of the frequency of the incident radiation.
      AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 13

Question 3.
Summarise the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation.
Answer:
We can summarise the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation as follows.

  1. In interaction of radiation with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made up of particles called photons.
  2. Each photon has energy E\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
    =\mathrm{hv} \\
    =\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}
    \end{array}\right]\) and momentum P \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
    =\frac{h v}{c} \\
    =\frac{h}{\lambda}
    \end{array}\right]\) and speed c, the speed of light.
  3. By increasing the intensity of light of given wave length, there is only an increase in the number of photons per second crossing a given area, with each photon having the same energy. Thus, photon energy is independent of intensity of radiation.
  4. Photons are not deflected by electric and magnetic field. This shows that photons are electrically neutral.
  5. In a photon-particle collision (such as photo-electron collision), the energy and momentum
    are conserved. However the number of photons may not be conserved in a collision. One photon may be absorbed or a new photon may be created.
  6. The rest mass of photon is zero. According to theory of relativity, the mass of moving particle is given by m = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_0}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\) where v is velocity of particle and c is velocity of light.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 4.
What is the deBroglie wavelength of a ball of mass 0.12 Kg moving with a speed of 20 ms-1 ? What can we infer from this result ?
Answer:
Given, m = 0.12 kg; υ = 20 m/s; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s;
λ = \(\frac{h}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{0.12 \times 20}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{2.4}\) ∴ λ = 2.762 × 10-34 m = 2762 × 10-21 A.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
How did Einstein’s photoelectric equation explain the effect of intensity and potential on photoelectric current ? How did this equation account for the effect of frequency of incident light on stopping potential ? (T.S. Mar. ’19)
Answer:

  1. Einstein postulated that a beam of light consists of small energy packets called photons or quanta.
  2. The energy of photon is E = hv. Where ‘h’ is Planck’s constant; v is frequency of incident light (or radiation).
  3. If the absorbed energy of photon is greater than the work function (ϕ0 = hυ0), the electron is emitted with maximum kinetic energy i.e., kmax = \(\frac{1}{2} m_{\max }^2\) = eV0 = hv – ϕ0. This equation is known as Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
  4. Effect of intensity of light on photoelectric current:
    When the intensity (I) of incident light, with frequency greater thanthe threshold frequency (υ > υ0) is increased then the number of photoelectrons emitted decreases i.e. the value of photoelectric current (i) increases, le. i ∝ I.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 14
  5. The effect of potential on photoelectric current:
    1. On increasing the positive potential on collecting electrode, the photoelectric current increases. At a particular positive potential, the photocurrent becomes maximum which is known as saturated current.
    2. On increasing the value of negative potential on collecting electrode, the photoelectric current gradually goes on decreasing. At a particular negative potential the value of photoelectric current becomes zero. This is known as stopping potential (v0).
      AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 15
    3. Stopping potential does not depend on the intensity of incident light. On increasing intensity, the value of saturated current increases, whereas the stopping potential remains unchanged.
  6. The effect of frequency of incident radiation on stopping potential:
    On increasing the frequency of incident light, the value of stopping potential goes on increasing gradually as shown in fig. That means kmax increases eV0 also increases.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 16
  7. From the graph, we note that
    1. For a given photosensitive metal, the cut off potential (v0) varies linearly with the frequency of the incident radiation.
    2. For a given photosensitive metal, there is a certain minimum cut off frequency v0 (called threshold frequency) for which the stopping potential is zero.
      AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 17
  8. From the graph we note that
    1. The value of cut-off potential is different for radiation of different frequency.
    2. The value of stopping potential is more negative for radiation of higher incident frequency.
  9. From above experiments, it is found that, if the incident radiation is of higher frequency than that of threshold frequency, the photoelectric emission is possible.

Question 2.
Describe the Davisson and Germer experiment. What did this experiment conclusively prove?
Answer:
Davisson and Germer experiment:

  1. The experimental arrangement is schematically shown in fig.
  2. Electrons from a filament F are rendered into a fine beam by applying a positive potential to the cylinder A.
  3. A fine narrow beam of electrons is incident on the nickel crystal. The electrons are scattered in all directions by the atoms of the crystal.
  4. The intensity of the electron beam scattered in a given direction, is measured by the electron detector (collector). The detector can be moved on a circular scale and is connected to a sensitive galvanometer, which records the current.
  5. The deflection of the galvanometer is proportional to the intensity of the electron beam entering collector.
  6. The apparatus is enclosed in an evacuated chamber.
  7. The experiment was performed by varying the accelerating voltage from 44 V to 68 V. It is found that the intensity is maximum at 50° for a critical energy of 54 V
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 18
  8. For θ = 50°, the glancing angle, ϕ (angle between the scattered beam of electron with the plane of atoms of the crystal) for electron beam will be given by
    ϕ + θ + ϕ = 180°
    ϕ = \(\frac{1}{2}\left[180^{\circ}-50^{\circ}\right]\) = 65°
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 19
  9. According to Bragg’s law for first order diffraction maxima (n = 1), we have 2 d sin ϕ = 1 × λ ⇒ λ = 2 × 0.91 × sin 65° = 1.65A = 0.165 nm. (experimentally).
    [∵ for Nickel crystal interatomic separation d = 0.91 A]
  10. According to de-Broglie hypothesis, the wavelength of the wave associated with electron is given by λ = AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 37
    = 1.67A = 0.167 nm, (Theoritically).
  11. The experimentally measured wavelength was found to be in confirmity with proving the existence of de-Broglie waves.

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
Find the
(a) maximum frequency, and
(b) minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by 30 kV electrons.
Solution:
Given voltage V = 30 kV = 30 × 103 V; e = 1.6 × 10-19 C; h = 6.63 × 10-34 j-s C = 3 × 108 m/s
a) Maximum frequency, v = \(\frac{\mathrm{eV}}{\mathrm{h}}\) = \(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 30 \times 10^3}{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}\) = 7.24 × 1018 Hz

b) Minimum wavelength of X-ray, λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{C}}{\mathrm{v}}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{7.24 \times 10^{18}}\) = 0.414 × 10-10 Hz
∴ λ = 0.0414 × 10-9m = 0.0414 nm.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 2.
The work function of caesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is incident on the metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What is the
(a) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons,
(b) stopping potential and
(c) maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons ?
Solution:
Given ϕ0 = 2.14 eV; v = 6 × 1014 Hz
a) KEmax = hv – ϕ0 = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 6 \times 10^{14}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) – 2.14 ∴ KEmax = 0.35 eV

b) KEmax = eV0 ⇒ 0.35 eV = eV0 ∴ V0 = 0.35 V
c) KEmax = \(\frac{1}{2} m v_{\max }^2\) ⇒ \(v_{\max }^2\) = \(\frac{2 K_{\max }}{m}\) = \(\frac{2 \times 0.35 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}}\) (∴ e = 1.6 × 10-19 C)
\(v_{\max }^2\) = 0.123 × 1012 ⇒ υmax = \(\sqrt{1230 \times 10^8}\) = 35.071 × 104 m/s ∴ υmax = 350.71 km/s.

Question 3.
The photoelectric cut-off voltage in certain experiment is 1.5 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted ?
Solution:
Given, V0 = 1.5 V; e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, KEmax = eV0 = 1.6 × 10-19 × 1.5 = 2.4 × 10-19 J.

Question 4.
Monochromatic light of wavelength 632.8 nm is produced by a helium-neon laser. The power emitted is 9.42 mW.
(a) Find the energy and momentum of each photon in the light beam,
(b) How many photons per second, on the average, arrive at a target irradiated by this beam ? (Assume the beam to have uniform cross-section which is less than the target area), and,
(c) How fast does a hydrogen atom have to travel in order to have the same momentum as that of the photon ?
Solution:
Given, λ = 632.8 nm = 632.8 × 10-9m; p = 9.42 mW = 9.42 × 10-3W
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s; c = 3 × 10-3 m/s

a) E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10}{632.8 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 3.14 × 10-19 J.
Momentum of each photon, p = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{632.8 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 1.05 × 10-27kg \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{s}}\)

b) No. of photons per second,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 20
∴ N = 3 × 1016 photons/s
c) Since, PHydrogen = Pphoton
⇒ mυ = p ⇒ υ = \(\frac{\mathrm{p}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = \(\frac{1.05 \times 10^{-27}}{1.66 \times 10^{-27}}\) [∴ mH = 1.66 × 10-27 kg] ∴ υ = 0.63 m/s.

Question 5.
The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the earth is 1.388 × 103 W/m2. How many photons (nearly) per square metre are incident on the Earth per second ? Assume that the photons in the sunlight have an average wavelength of 550 nm.
Solution:
Given, P = 1.388 × 103 W/m2; λ = 550 nm = 550 × 10-9 m
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s; e = 3 × 108 m/s
Energy of each photon E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{550 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 3.616 × 10-19 J
No. of photons incident on the earths surface, N = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{E}}\) = \(\frac{1.388 \times 10^3}{3.66 \times 10^{-19}}\)
∴ N = 3.838 × 1021 photons/m2 – s.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 6.
In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the slope of the cut-off voltage versus frequency of incident light is found to be 4.12 × 10-15 V s. Calculate the value of Planck’s constant.
Solution:
Given, slope of graph tan θ = 4.12 × 10-15 V — s; .
e = 1.6 × 10-19 c.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 21
For slope of graph, tan θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{v}}\)
We know that hv = eV
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{v}}\) = \(\frac{h}{e}\) ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{e}}\) = 4.12 × 10-15; h = 4.12 × 10-15 × 1.6 × 10-19 = 6.592 × 10-34 J-s

Question 7.
A 100W sodium lamp radiates energy uniformly in all directions. The lamp is located at the centre of a large sphere that absorbs all the sodium light which is incident on it. The wavelength of the sodium light is 589 nm. (a) What is the energy per photon associated with the sodium light ?
(b) At what rate are the photons delivered to the sphere ?
Solution:
Given, P = 100 W; λ = 589 nm = 589 × 10,sup>-9 m; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J – S; c = 3 × 108 m/s
a) E = \(\frac{\text { hc }}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{589 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 3.38 × 10-19J = \(\frac{3.38 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV = 2.11 eV.
b) No. of photons delivered per second, N = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{E}}\) = \(\frac{100}{3.38 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 3 × 1020 photons/s

Question 8.
The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident on the metal, predict the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission.
Solution:
Given, v0 = 3.3 × 1014 Hz; v = 8.2 × 1014 Hz; e = 1.6 × 10-19 c; KE = eV0 = hv – hv0
V0 = \(\frac{h\left(v-v_0\right)}{e}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times(8.2-3.3) \times 10^{14}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 10^{14} \times 4.9}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) ∴ V0 = 2.03 V.

Question 9.
The work function for a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric emission for incident radiation of wavelength 330 nm ?
Solution:
Given, ϕ0 = 4.2 eV = 4.2 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 6.72 × 10~1S J
λ = 330 nm = 330 × 10-9 m; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J – s ⇒ c = 3 × 108 m/s
E = \(\frac{\text { hc }}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{330 \times 10^{-9}}\) ∴ E = 6.027 × 10-19J
As E < ϕ0, no photoelectric emission takes place.

Question 10.
Light of frequency 7.21 × 1014 Hz is incident on a metal surface. Electrons with a maximum speed of 6.0 × 105 m/s are ejected from the surface. What is the threshold frequency for photoemission of electrons ?
Solution:
Given, v = 7.21 × 1014 Hz; m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg; υmax = 6 × 105 m/s
KEmax = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}_{\max }^2\) = hv – hv0 = h(v – v0)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 22

Question 11.
Light of wavelength 488 nm is produced by an argon laser which is used in the photoelectric effect. When light from this spectral line is incident on the emitter, the stopping (cut-off) potential of photoelectrons is 0.38 V. Find the work function of the material from which the emitter is made. .
Solution:
Given, λ = 488 nm = 488 × 10-9 m; V0 = 0.38 V; e = 1.6 × 10-19 c; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J – s
c = 3 × 108 m/s ⇒ KE = eV0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) – ϕ ⇒ 1.6 × 10-19 × 0.38 = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{488 \times 10^{-9}}\) – ϕ0
6.08 × 10-20 = 40.75 × 10-20 – ϕ0 ⇒ (40.75 – 6.08) × 10-20 = 34.67 × 10-20 J
= \(\frac{34.67 \times 10^{-20}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}} \mathrm{eV}\) ∴ ϕ0 = 2.17 eV.

Question 12.
Calculate the
(a) momentum, and
(b) de Broglie wavelength of the electrons accelerated through a potential difference of 56 V
Solution:
Given, V = 56 V; e = 1.6 × 10-19 c; m = 9 × 10-31 kg
a) As KE = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}^2}{2 \mathrm{~m}}\) ⇒ 2m (KE) = P2 ⇒ P = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{~m}(\mathrm{KE})}\) = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{~m} \mathrm{eV}}\) [∵ KE = eV]
∴ P = \(\sqrt{2 \times 9 \times 10^{-31} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-31} \times 56}\) = 4.02 × 10-24 kg – m/s
b) λ = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{V}}\) A = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{56}}\) A = 0.164 × 10-9m ∴ λ = 0.164 nm.

Question 13.
What is the
(a) momentum,
(b) speed, and
(c) de Brogue wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of 120 eV.
Solution:
Given, KE = 120 eV; m = 9.1 × 10-3 kg; e = 1.6 × 10-19 c
a) P = \(\sqrt{2 m(K E)}\) = \(\sqrt{2 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times\left(120 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right)}\) ∴ P = 5.91 × 10-24 kg – m/s
b) υ = \(\frac{\mathrm{p}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = \(\frac{5.91 \times 10^{-24}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}}\) = 6.5 × 106 m/s .
c) λ = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{\mathrm{V}}}\) A = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{120}}\) A = 0.112 × 10-9 m ∴ λ = 0.112 nm.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 14.
The wavelength of light from the spectral emission line of sodium is 589 nm Find the kinetic energy at which (a) an electron, and (b) a neutron, and would have the same de Brogue wavelength.
Solution:
Given, λ = 589 mn = 589 × 10-9 m; me = 9.1 × 10-31 kg.
mn = 1.67 × 10-27 kg; h = 6.62 × 10-34 J – s.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 23

Question 15.
What is the de Brogue wavelength of
(a) a bullet of mass 0.040 kg travelling at the speed of 1.0 km/s
(b) a ball of mass 0.060 kg moving at a speed of 1.0 m/s, and
(c) a dust particle of mass 1.0 × 10-9 kg drifting with a speed of 2.2 m/s?
Solution:
a) Given, for bullet m = 0.040 kg and o = 1000 m/s = 103 m/s
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{0.040 \times 10^3}\) = 1.66 × 10-35m
b)Given, for ball m = 0.060 kg and υ = 1 m/s ⇒ λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{0.060 \times 1}\) = 1.1 × 10-32 m
c) Given, for a dust particle m = 1 × 10-9 kg and υ = 2.2 m/s
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{1 \times 10^{-9} \times 2.2}\) = 3.0 × 10-25 m.

Question 16.
An electron and a photon each have a wavelength of 1.00 nm. Find
(a) their momenta,
(b) the energy of the photon, and
(c) the kinetic energy of electron.
Solution:
Given, λ = 1 mm = 10-9m; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-S; c = 3 × 108 m/S
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 24

Question 17.
(a) For what kinetic energy of a neutron will the associated de Brogue wavelength be 1.40 × 10-10 m?
(b) Also find the de Brogue wavelength of a neutron, in thermal equilibrium with matter, having an average kinetic energy of (3/2) k T at 300 K.
Solution:
(a) Given, for neutron, λ = 1.40 × 10-10 m and m = 1.675 × 10-27 kg
KE = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}^2}{2 \mathrm{~m}}\) = \(\frac{h^2}{2 \mathrm{~m} \lambda^2}\) = \(\frac{\left(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\right)^2}{2 \times\left(1.40 \times 10^{-10}\right)^2 \times 1.675 \times 10^{-27}}\) ∴ KE = 6.686 × 10-21J

b) Given, T = 300 k and K = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K
KE = \(\frac{3}{2}\) KT = \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 1.38 × 10-21 × 300 = 6.21 × 10-21 J
λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m(K E)}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{\sqrt{2 \times 1.675 \times 10^{-27} \times 6.21 \times 10^{-21}}}\) ∴ λ = 1.45 × 10-10m = 1.45 A

Question 18.
Show that the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de Broglie wavelength of its quantum (photon).
Solution:
The momentum of a photon of frequency v, wavelength λ is given by p = \(\frac{\mathrm{hv}}{\mathrm{c}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\lambda}\)
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{p}}\) ⇒ de-Broglie wavelength of photon, λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{h}{p}\) = \(\frac{\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{hv}}}{\mathrm{c}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{v}}\)
Thus, the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de-Broglie wavelength.

Question 19.
What is the de Broglie wavelength of a nitrogen molecule in air at 300 K ? Assume that the molecule is moving with the root-mean-square speed of molecules at this temperature. (Atomic mass of nitrogen = 14.0076 u)
Solution:
Given, T = 300 k; K = 1.38 × 10-23 J/k; m = 28.0152u = 28.0152 × 1.67 × 10-27 kg;
h = 6.63 × 10-34 Js; Mean KE of molecules \(\frac{1}{2}\) mυ2 = \(\frac{3}{2}\) KT
υ = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 \mathrm{KT}}{\mathrm{m}}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 \times 1.38 \times 10^{-23} \times 300}{28.0152 \times 1.66 \times 10^{-27}}}\)
∴ υ = 516.78 m/s
de-Broglie wavelength, λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{28.0152 \times 1.66 \times 10^{-27} \times 516.78}\) = 2.75 × 10-11 m
∴ λ = 0.0275 × 10-19 m = 0.028 nm.

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
(a) Estimate the speed with which electrons emitted from a heated emitter of an evacuated tube impinge on the collector maintained at a potential difference of 500 V with respect to the emitter. Ignore the small initial speeds of the electrons. The specific charge of the electron, i.e., its e/m is given to be 1.76 × 1011 C kg-1.
(b) Use the same formula you employ in (a) to obtain electron speed for an collector potential of 10 MV. Do you see what is wrong ? In what way is the formula to be modified ?
Solution:
a) Given, V = 500 V, \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = 1.76 × 1011 C/kg; KE = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\) = eV

b) V = 10 MV = 107 V; υ = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}} \times 2 \mathrm{~V}}\) = \(\sqrt{1.76 \times 10^{11} \times 2 \times 10^7}\) ∴ υ = 1.8762 × 109 m/s
This speed is greater than speed of light, which is not possible. As o approaches to c, then mass m = \(\frac{m_0}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 2.
(a) A monoenergetic electron beam with electron speed of 5.20 × 106 m s-1 is subject to
a magnetic field of 1.30 × 10-4 T normal to the beam velocity. What is the radius of the circle traced by the beam, given e/m for electron equals 1.76 × 1011 C kg-1.
(b) Is the formula you employ in (a) valid for calculating radius of the path of a 20 MeV electron beam ? If not, in what way is it modified ?
[Note : Exercises 20(b) and 21(b) take you to relativistic mechanics which is beyond the scope of this book. They have been inserted here simply to emphasise the point that the formulas you use in part (a) of the exercises are not valid at very high speeds or energies. See answers at the end to know what ‘very high speed or energy’ means.]
Solution:
a) Given, υ = 5.20 × 106 m/s; B = 1.30 × 10-4 T; \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = 1.76 × 1011 C/kg
Since centripetal force is balanced by Force due to magnetic field, \(\frac{\mathrm{m} v^2}{\mathrm{r}}\) = Bυ
[∵ (\(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}\)) = e υ B sin 90° = Beυ]
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 25

b) Given, E = 20 MeV = 20 × 1.6 × 10-13J; me = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
E = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\)
⇒ v = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 E}{m}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 20 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13}}{9.1 \times 10^{-32}}}\) ∴ v = 2.67 × 109 m/s

As υ > C, the formula used in (a) r = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}}{\mathrm{eB}}\) is not valid for calculating the radius of path of 20 MeV electron beam because electron with such a high energy has velocity in relatistic domain i.e., comparable with the velocity of light and the mass varies with the increase in velocity but we have taken it a constant.
∴ m = \(\frac{m_0}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\) ⇒ Thus, the modified formula will be r = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}}{\mathrm{eB}}\) = \(\left[\frac{m_0}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\right] \frac{v}{e B}\)

Question 3.
An electron gun with its collector at a potential of 100V fires out electrons in a spherical bulb containing hydrogen gas at low pressure (~ 10-2 mm of Hg). A magnetic field of 2.83 × 10-4 T curves the path of the electrons in a circular orbit of radius 12.0 cm. (The path can be viewed because the gas ions in the path focus the beam by attracting electrons and emitting light by electron capture; this method is known as the fine beam tube’ method.) Determine e/m from the data.
Solution:
Given, V = 100 V; B = 2.83 × 10-4 T; m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg; e = 1.6 × 10-19 C;
r = 12 cm = 0.12m; KE = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\) = eV ⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.1 × 10-31 × υ2 = 1.6 × 10-19 × 100
υ2 = \(\frac{2 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-17}}{9.1 \times 10^{-3.1}}\) = 3.516 × 1013 ∴ υ = \(\sqrt{3.516 \times 10^{13}}\) = 5.93 × 106 m/s
Specific charge of electron, \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = \(\frac{v}{r B}\) [∵ \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^2}{\mathrm{r}}\) = Beυ] = \(\frac{5.93 \times 10^6}{2.83 \times 10^{-4} \times 0.12}\)
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = 1.74 × 1011 C/kg.

Question 4.
(a) An X-ray tube produces a continuous spectrum of radiation with its short wavelength end at 0.45 A. What is the maximum energy of a photon in the radiation ?
(b) From your answer to (a), guess what order of accelerating voltage (for electrons) is required in such a tube ?
Solution:
a) Given, λ = 0.45 A = 0.45 × 10-10 m; E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{0.45 \times 10^{-10} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV
∴ E = 27.6 × 103 eV = 27.6 KeV

b) In X-ray tube, accelerating voltage provides the energy to the electrons which produce X-rays. For getting X-rays, photons of 27.51 KeV is required that the incident electrons must posess kinetic energy of 27.61 KeV.
Energy = eV = E; eV = 27.6 KeV; V = 27.6 KV .
So, the order of accelerating voltage is 30 KV.

Question 5.
In an accelerator experiment on high-energy collisions of electrons with positrons, a certain event is interpreted as annihilation of an electron-positron pair of total energy 10.2 BeV into two γ-rays of equal energy. What is the wavelength associated with each γ-ray ? (1 BeV = 109 eV)
Solution:
Given, energy of 2 γ-rays, 2E = 10.2 BeV
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 27
⇒ 2\(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = 10.2 BeV [∵ E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\)] ⇒ λ = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{hc}}{10.2 \mathrm{BeV}}\)
Here h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-S; c = 3 × 108m/s, 1 BeV = 109 eV = 109 × 1.6 × 10-19J
⇒ λ = \(\frac{2 \times 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{10.2 \times 10^9 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) ∴ λ = 2.436 × 10-16 m

Question 6.
Estimating the following two numbers should bé interesting. The first number will tell you why radio engineers do not need to worry much about photons ! The second number tells you why our eye can never count photons’, even in barely detectable light.
(a) The number of photons emitted per second by a Medium wave transmitter of 10 kW power, emitting radiowaves of wavelength 500 m.
(b) The number of photons entering the pupil of our eye per second corresponding to the minimum intensity of white light that we humans can perceive (~ 10-10 W m-2). Take the area of the pupil to be about 0.4 cm2, and the average frequency of white light to be about 6 × 1014 Hz.
Solution:
a) Given, P = 10kW = 10 × 103 W; λ = 500m; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J – s; C = 3 × 108
The no. of photons emitted per second, N = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{E}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{p} \lambda}{\mathrm{hc}}\) = \(\frac{10 \times 10^3 \times 500}{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}\)
∴ N = 2.51 × 1031 photons/s

b) Given, v = 6 × 10-4 Hz; I = \(\frac{E}{A-t}\) = 10-10 W/m2; Area of pupil, A = 0.4 cm2 = 0.4 × 10-4 m2.
Total energy falling on pupil in unit time, E’ = IA = 10-10 × 0.4 × 10-4 ∴ E’ = 4 × 10-155 J/s
Energy of each photon, E” = hv = 6.63 × 10-34 × 6 × 1014 = 3.978 × 10-19 J
No. of photons per second, N = \(\frac{E^{\prime}}{E^{\prime \prime}}\) = \(\frac{4 \times 10^{-15}}{3.978 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 1.206 × 104 photons/s
As this number is not so large a: in part (a), so it is large enough for us never to sense the individual photons by our eye.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 7.
Ultraviolet light of wavelength 2271 A from a 1oo W mercury source irradiates a photo cell made of molybdenum metal. If the stopping potential is -1.3 V, estimate the work function of the metal. How would the photo-cell respond to a high intensity (-105 W m-2) red light of wavelength 6328 A produced by a He-Ne laser?
Solution:
Given, for UV light, λ = 2271A = 2271 × 10-10 m
V0 = 1.3 V; P = 100W; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s; c = 3 × 108 m/s
From Einstein’s equation E = KE + ϕ0, hυ = eV0 + ϕ0
ϕ0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) – eV0 = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{2271 \times 10^{-10}}\) – 1.6 × 10-19 × 1.3 = 8.758 × 10-19 – 2.08 × 10-19
ϕ0 = \(\frac{6.678 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV = 4.17 eV ∴ ϕ0 = 4.2 eV
Given, for red light, λ = 6328Å = 6328 × 10-10m
E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{6328 \times 10^{-10}}\) = \(\frac{3.143 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV ∴ E = 1.96 eV
Here, E < ϕ0, So, the photocell will not respond to this red light. (It is independent of intensity).

Question 8.
Monochromatic radiation of wavelength 640.2 nm (1 nm = 10-9 m) from a neon, lamp irradiates photosensitive material made of caesium on tungsten. The stopping voltage is measured to be 0.54 V. The source is replaced by an iron source and its 427.2 nm line irradiates the same photo-cell. Predict the new stopping voltage.
Solution:
Given, for Neon X = 640.2 nm = 640.2 × 10-9 m ; V0 = 0.54 V
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s; c = 3 × 108 m/s; e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
ϕ = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) – eV0 = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{640.2 \times 10^{-9}}\) – 1.6 × 10-19 × 0.54
= 3.1 × 10-19 – 0.864 × 10-19 = 2.236 × 10-19J = \(\frac{2.236 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV ∴ ϕ = 1.4 eV
For iron; given ϕ0 = 1.4eV; λ = 427.2 nm = 427.2 × 10-9 m
Let V0 be the new stopping potential, eV0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) – ϕ0
eV0’ = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{427.2 \times 10^{-9} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) – 1.4 = 1.51 eV. Required stopping potential V0‘ = 1.51 V.

Question 9.
A mercury lamp is a convenient source for studying frequency dependence of photoelectric emission, since it gives a number of spectral lines ranging from the UV to the red end of the visible spectrum. In our experiment with rubidium photo-cell, the following lines from a mercury source were used:
λ1 = 3650Å, λ2 = 4047Å, λ3 = 4358Å, λ4 = 5461 Å, λ5 = 6907Å,
The stopping voltages, respectively, were measured to be:
V01 = 1.28 V, V02 = 0.95 V, V03 = 0.74 V, V04 = 0.16 V, V05 = 0V.
Determine the value of Plancks constant h, the threshold frequency and work function
for the material.
[Note : You will notice that, to get h from the data, you will need to know e(which you can take to be 1.6 × 10-19 C). Experiments of this kind on Na, Li, K, etc. were performed by Millikan, who, using his own value of e (from the oil-drop experiment) confirmed Einstein’s photoelectric equation and at the same time gave an independent estimate of the value of h.]
Solution:
Given λ1 = 3650 A = 3650 × 10-10 m
λ2 = 4047 A = 4047 × 10-10 m
λ3 = 4358 A = 4358 × 10-10 m
λ4 = 5461 A = 5461 × 10-10 m
λ5 = 6907 A = 6907 × 10-10 m
V01 = 1.28V, V02 = 0.95, V03 = 0.74 V; V05 = 0

a) v1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\lambda_1}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{3650 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 8.219 × 1014 Hz
v2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\lambda_2}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{4047 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 7.412 × 1014 Hz
v3 = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\lambda_3}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{4358 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 6.884 × 1014 Hz
v4 = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\lambda_4}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{5461 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 5.493 × 1014 Hz
v5 = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\lambda_5}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{6907 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 4.343 × 1014 Hz
As the graph between V0 and frequency v is a straight line.
The slope of this graph gives the values of \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{e}}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 28
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{e}}\) = \(\frac{V_{01}-V_{04}}{v_1-v_4}\) = \(\frac{1.28-0.16}{(8.219-5.493) \times 10^{14}}\)
h = \(\frac{1.12 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{2.726 \times 10^{14}}\) = 6.674 × 10-34 J . s

b) ϕ0 = hv0 = 6.574 × 10-34 × 5 × 1014
= 32.870 × 10-20 J = \(\frac{32.870 \times 10^{-20}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}} \mathrm{eV}\)
= 2.05 eV

Question 10.
The work function for the following metals is given:
Na : 2.75 eV; K: 2.30 eV; Mo : 4.17 eV; Ni : 5.15 eV. Which of these metals will not give photoelectric emission for a radiation of wavelength 3300 A from a He-Cd laser placed 1 m away from the photocell ? What happens if the laser is brought nearer and placed 50 cm away?
Solution:
Given λ = 3300 A = 3300 × 10-10 m
Energy of incident photon, E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{3300 \times 10^{-10} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) ∴ E = 3.75 eV
Here Na, K has lesser work function than 3.75 eV. So, they produce photoelectric effect. If the laser is brought nearer then only the intensity change or the number of photoelctrons change.

Question 11.
Light of intensity 10-5 W m-2 falls on a sodium photo-cell of surface area 2 cm2. Assuming that the top 5 layers of sodium absorb the incident energy, estimate time required for photoelectric emission in the wave-picture of radiation. The work function for the metal is given to be about 2 eV. What is the implication of your answer?
Solution:
Given, I = 10-5 W/m2; A = 2 cm2 = 2 × 10-4 m2; ϕ0 = 2eV
Let t be the time.
The effective atomic area of Na = 10-20 m2 and it contains one conduction electron per
atom.
No. of conduction electrons m five layers
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 29
We know that sodium has one free electron (or conduction electron) per atom.
Incident power on the surface area of photocell
= Incident intensity × Area on the surface area of photo cell
= 10-5 × 2 × 10-4 = 2 × 10-9 W.
The electron present in all the 5 layers of sodium will share the incident energy equally.
Energy absorbed per second per electron, E = AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 30
= \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-9}}{10^{17}}\) = 2 × 10-26 W.
Time required for emission by each electron,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 31 which is about 0.5 yr.
The answer obtained implies that the time of emission of electron is very large and is not agreement with the observed time of emission. There is no time lag between the incidence of light and the emission of photoelectron.
Thus, it is implied that the wave theory cannot be applied in this experiment.

Question 12.
Crystal diffraction experiments can be performed using X-rays, or electrons accelerated through appropriate voltage. Which probe has greater energy? (For quantitative. comparison. take the wavelength of the probe equal to 1 A, which is of the order of interatomic spacing in the lattice) (me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg).
Solution:
Given λ = 1 A = 10-10 m ; me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J – s; c = 3 × 108 m/s
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 32
Thus, for the same wavelength a X-ray photon has much KE than an electron.

Question 13.
(a) Obtain the de Brogue wavelength of a neutron of kinetic energy 150 eV. As you have seen in Exercise 31, an electron beam of this energy is suitable for crystal diffraction experiments. Would a neutron beam of the same energy be equally suitable ? Explain. (mn = 1.675 × 10-27 kg)
(b) Obtain the de Brogue wavelength associated with thermal neutrons at room temperature (27 °C). Hence explain why a fast neutron beam needs to be thermalised with the environment before it can be used for neutron diffráction experiments.
Solution:
a) Given, KE = 150 eV; m = 1.675 × 10-27 kg
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 33
The interatomic spacing is 10-10 m, which is greater than this wavelength. So, neutron beam of 150 eV is not suitable for diffraction experiment.

b) T = t + 273 = 27 + 273 = 300 K; K = 1.38 × 10-23 J/mol/K
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 34
This wavelength is order of interatomic spacing. So, the neutron beam first thermalised and then used for diffraction.

Question 14.
An electron microscope uses electrons accelerated by a voltage of 50 kV. Determine the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons. If other factors (such as numerical aperture, etc.) are taken to be roughly the same, how does the resolving power of an electron microscope compare with that of an optical microscope which uses yellow light?
Solution:
Given, V = 50 KV s 50000 V
λ =
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 38
= 0.055 A ⇒ λ = 5.5 × 10-12 m; For yellow light (λ) = 5.9 × 10-7m
As resolving power (RP) ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 35

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 15.
The wavelength of a probe is roughly a measure of the size of a structure that it can probe in some detail. The quark structure of protons and neutrons appears at the minute length-scale of 10-15 m or less. This structure was first probed in early 1970’s using high energy electron beams produced by a linear accelerator at Stanford, USA. Guess what might have been the order of energy of these electron beams. (Rest mass energy of electron = 0.5 11 MeV.)
Solution:
Given λ = 10-15 m; E = 0.5 11 MeV; P = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{10^{-15}}\) = 6.63 × 10-19 kgm/s
Rest mass energy; E0 = m0c2 = 0.511 MeV = 0.511 × 1.6 × 10-13 T.
From relativistic theory, E2 = p2c2 + \(m_0^2 c^4\)
= (3 × 108 × 6.63 × 10-19)2 + (0.511 × 10-13 × 1.6)2 = 9 × (6.63)2 × 10-22.
As the rest mass energy is negligible ∴ Energy E = \(\sqrt{p^2 c^2}\) = pc = 6.63 × 10-19 × 3 × 108
= \(\frac{1.989 \times 10^{-10}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)eV = 1.24 × 109 eV = 1.24 BeV
Thus, to energies the electron beam, the energy should be of the order of BeV.

Question 16.
Find the typical de Brogue wavelength associated with a He atom in helium gas at room temperature (27 °C) and 1 atm pressure; and compare It with the mean separation between two atoms under these conditions.
Solution:
Given T = 27 + 273 = 300 K; K = 1.38 × 10-23 J/mol/K; p = 1 atm = 1.01 × 105 Pa
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 36
We can see that the wave length with mean separation r, it can be observed (r >> λ) that separation is larger than wave length.

Question 17.
Compute the typical de Broglie wavelength of an electron in a metal at 27 °C and compare it with the mean separation between two electrons in a metal which is given to be about 2 × 10-10 m.
[Note : Exercise 35 and 36 reveal that while the wave-packets associated with gaseous molecules under ordinary conditions are non-overlapping, the electron wave-packets in a metal strongly overlap with one another. This suggests that whereas molecules in an ordinary gas can be distinguished apart, electrons in a metal cannot be distinguished apart from one another. This indistinguishibility has many fundamental implications which you will explore in more advanced Physics courses.]
Solution:
Given, T = 27 + 273 = 300 K; r = 2 × 10-10m
Momentum, P = \(\sqrt{3 \mathrm{mKT}}\) = \(\sqrt{3 \times 9.11 \times 10^{-31} \times 1.38 \times 10^{-23} \times 300}\) = 1.06 × 10-25 kg-m/s
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{p}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{1.06 \times 10^{-25}}\) = 62.6 × 10-10m; Mean separation, r = 2 × 10-10 m
\(\frac{\lambda}{r}\) = \(\frac{62.6 \times 10^{-10}}{2 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 31.3
We can see that de-Broglie wavelength is much greater than the electron separation.

Question 18.
Answer the following questions :
(a) Quarks inside protons and neutrons are thought to carry fractional charges [(+2/3)e; (-1/3)e]. Why do they not show up in Millikan’s oil-drop experiment ?
Solution:
The quarks have fractional charges. These quarks are bound by forces. These forces become stronger when the quarks are tried to be pulled apart. That is why, the quarks always remain’ together. It is due to this reason that tough fractional charges exists in nature but the observable charges are always integral multiple of charge of electron.

(b) What is so special about the combination e/m ? Why do we not simply talk of e and m separately ?
Solution:
The motion.of electron in electric and magnetic fields are governed by these two equations.
\(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\) = eV or Beυ = \(\frac{m v^2}{\mathrm{r}}\)
In these equations, e and m both are together i.e. there is no equation in which e or m are alone. So, we always take e/m.

(c) Why should gases be insulators at ordinary pressures and start conducting at very low pressures ?
Solution:
At ordinary pressure, only very few positive ions and electrons are produced by the ionisation of gas molecules. They are not able to reach the respective electrodes and becomes insulators. At low pressure, density decreases and the mean free path becomes large. So, at high voltage, they acquire sufficient amount of energy and they collide with molecules for further ionisation. Due to this, the number of ions in a gas increases and it becomes a conductor.

(d) Every metal has a definite work function. Why do all photoelectrons not come out with the same energy if incident radiation is monochromatic ? Why is there an energy distribution of photoelectrons ?
Solution:
Because all the electrons in the metal do not belong to same level but they occupy a continuous band of levels, therefore for the given incident radiation, electrons come out from different levels with different energies.

(e) The energy and momentum of an electron are related to the frequency and wavelength of the associated matter wave by the relations :
E = h v, p = \(\frac{\mathbf{h}}{\lambda}\)
But while the value of λ is physically significant, the value of v (and therefore, the value of the phase speed v λ) has no physical significance. Why ?
Solution:
As λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{p}}\) = p = \(\frac{h}{\lambda}\) ⇒ E = hv = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\)
Energy of moving particle E’ = \(\frac{p^2}{2 m}\) = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{\left(\frac{h}{\lambda}\right)^2}{m}\) = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{h^2}{\lambda^2 \mathrm{~m}}\). For the relation of E and p, we note that there is a physical significance of λ but not for frequency v.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 11th Lesson Electromagnetic Waves Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 11th Lesson Electromagnetic Waves

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the average wavelength of X-rays? (A.P. Mar. ’16 )
Answer:
The wavelength range of X-rays is from 10-8m(10nm) to 10-13 m (10-4 nm).
Average wavelength of X – rays = \(\frac{10+0.0001}{2}\) = 5.00005nm.

Question 2.
Give anyone use of infrared rays. (T.S. Mar. ’19)
Answer:

  1. Infrared radiation plays an important role in maintaining the Earth warm.
  2. Infrared lamps are used in physical therapy.
  3. Infrared detectors are used in Earth Satellites.
  4. These are used in taking photographs during conditions of fog, smoke, etc.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 3.
If the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is doubled, what happens to the energy of photon? (T.S. Mar. ’16)
Answer:
Photon energy (E) = hv = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\)
E ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\)
Given λ1 = λ, λ2 = 2λ, E1 = E
\(\frac{\mathrm{E}_1}{\mathrm{E}_2}\) = \(\frac{\lambda_2}{\lambda_1}\)
\(\frac{E}{\mathrm{E}_2}\) = \(\frac{2 \lambda}{\lambda}\)
E2 = E/2
∴ The energy of photon reduces to half of its initial value.

Question 4.
What is the principle of production of electromagnetic waves ?
Answer:
If the charge is accelerated both the magnetic field and electric field will change with space and time, then electromagnetic waves are produced.

Question 5.
What is the ratio of speed of infrared rays and ultraviolet rays in vacuum ?
Answer:
The ratio of speed of infrared rays and ultraviolet rays in vacuum is 1 : 1.
All electromagnetic waves travel with same speed 3 × 108 m /s in vacuum.

Question 6.
What is the relation between the amplitudes of the electric and magnetic fields in free space for an electromagnetic wave ?
Answer:
E0 = CB0
Where E0 = Amplitude of electric field.
B0 = Amplitude of magnetic field.
C = velocity of light.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 7.
What are the applications of microwaves ? (T.S. Mar. ’15)
Answer:

  1. Microwaves are used in Radars.
  2. Microwaves are used for cooking purposes.
  3. A radar using microwave can help in detecting the speed of automobile while in motion.

Question 8.
Microwaves are used in Radars, why ? (Mar. ’14)
Answer:
As microwaves are of smaller wavelengths, hence they can be transmitted as a beam signal in a particular direction. Microwaves do not bend around the comers of any obstacle coming in their path.

Question 9.
Give two uses of infrared rays. (A.P. Mar. ’19)
Answer:

  1. Infrared rays are used for producing dehydrated fruits.
  2. They are used in the secret writings on the ancient walls.
  3. They are used in green houses to keep the plants warm.

Question 10.
The charging current for a capacitor is 0.6 A. What is the displacement current across its plates?
Answer:
i = charging current for a capacitor = 0.6 A
i = id = \(\varepsilon_0 \frac{\mathrm{d} \phi_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
∴ i = i = id = 0.6A
∴ Displacement current (id) = 0.6 A.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What does an electromagnetic wave consists of ? On what factors does its velocity in vacuum depend ?
Answer:
Maxwell concluded that the variation in electric and magnetic field vectors perpendicular to each other leads to the production of electromagnetic waves in space. They can travel in space even without any material medium. These waves are called electromagnetic waves.

According to Maxwell, electromagnetic waves are those waves in which there are sinusoidal variation of electric and magnetic field vectors at right angles to each other as well as at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Thus electomagnetic waves have transverse nature.

Electric field Ex = E0 Sin (kz – ωt)
Magnetic field By = B0 sin (kz – ωt)
Where K is propagation constant (K = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\))
The velocity of electromagnetic waves C = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}}\)

Velocity of E.M waves depends on

  1. Permeability in free space (μ0).
  2. Permittivity in free space (ε0).

Velocity of e.m waves is 3 × 108 m / s.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 2.
What is Greenhouse effect and its contribution towards the surface temperature of earth ?
Answer:
Green house effect: Temperature of the earth increases due to the radiation emitted by the earth is trapped by atmospheric gases like CO2, CH4, N2, Chlorofluoro carbons etc is called green house effect.

  1. Radiation from the sun enters the atmosphere and heat the objects on the earth. These heated objects emit infrared rays.
  2. These rays are reflected back to Earth’s surface and trapped in the Earth’s atmosphere. Due to this temperature of the earth increases.
  3. The layers of carbon dioxide (CO2) and low lying clouds prevent infrared rays to escape Earth’s atmosphere.
  4. Since day-by-day the amount of carbondioxide in the atmosphere increases, more infrared rays are entrapped in the atmosphere.
  5. Hence the temperature of the Earth’s surface increases day by day.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the brief history of discovery of knowledge of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:

  1. Faraday from his experimental study of electromagnetic induction magnetic field changing with time, gives rise to an electric field.
  2. Maxwell in 1865 from his theoritical study concluded that, an electric field changing with time gives rise to magnetic field.
  3. It is a consequence of the displacement current being a source of magnetic field.
  4. It means a change in electric (or) magnetic field with time produces the other field.
  5. Maxwell concluded that the variation in electric and magnetic field vectors perpendicular to each other leads to the production of electromagnetic waves in space.
  6. These electromagnetic waves travel in space without any material medium.
  7. Both electric and magnetic fields vary with time and space and have the same frequency.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 1
  8. The electric field vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and magnetic field vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) are vibrating along y and z axis and propagation of electromagnetic waves along x – axis.
  9. Maxwell found that the electromagnetic waves travel in vacuum with a speed is given by
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 2
    Where μ0 = 4π × 10-7 H/m = permeability in free space.
    ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 c2 N-1 m-2 = permittivity in free space.
  10. The velocity of electromagnetic waves in a medium is given by v = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu \varepsilon}}\)
  11. Maxwell also concluded that electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
  12. In 1888 Hertz demonstrated experimentally the production and detection of E.M waves using spark oscillator.
  13. In 1895 Jagadish Chandra Bose was able to produce E.M waves of wavelength 5m.m to 25 m.m.
  14. 1899 Marconi was the first to establish a wireless communication at a distance of about 50 km.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 2.
State six characteristics of electromagnetic waves. What is Greenhouse effect ?
Answer:
Characteristics (or) properties of electromagnetic waves :

  1. Electromagnetic waves do not require any material medium for their propagation. They propagate in vacuum as well as in a medium.
  2. Speed of E.M. waves in free space (or) vacuum is given by
    C = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}}\) = 3 × 108 m/s.
  3. Speed of E.M waves in a medium is given by
    v = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu \varepsilon}}\)
  4. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
    Electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) which constitute the E.M waves an mutually perpendicular to each other as well as perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
  5. Electromagnetic waves are self sustaining electric and magnetic field oscillations in space.
  6. Electromagnetic waves transport energy.
    Poynting vector (\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}\)) = \(\frac{1}{\mu_0}(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}})\)
  7. Relation between electric field vector E and magnetic field vector g in vacuum is given by
    C = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_0}{\mathrm{~B}_0}\)
  8. Electromagnetic waves are not deflected by magnetic and electric fields.
  9. Electromagnetic waves can be reflected, refracted, interferenced, diffracted and polarised.
  10. Electromagnetic wave follow the superposition principle.
  11. Average electric energy density of E.M wave is given by
    Uav = UE + UB
    Uav = \(\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{E}^2\) + \(\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{\mathrm{B}^2}{\mu_0}\)
    Uav = 2UE = 2UB
  12. Intensity of an E.M waves depends on its average energy density.
    I = \(\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{C} \mathrm{E}_0^2\)
  13. E.M. waves carry momentum and exert radiation pressure is given by
    P = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{A}}\) = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~A}} \frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{\text { Intensity (I) }}{C}\)

Green house effect:
The temperature of the Earth increases due to radiation emitted by the Earth.is trapped by atmospheric gases like CO2, CH4, N2O, chlorofluoro carbons etc is called green house effect.

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
The figure shows a capacitor made of two circular plates each of radius 12cm, and separated by 5.0 cm. The capacitor is being charged by an external source (not shown in the figure). The charging current is constant and equal to 0.15A.
a) Calculate the capacitance and the rate of charge of potential difference between the plates.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 3
b) Obtain the displacement current across the plates.
c) Is Kirchhoff’s first rule (junction rule) valid at each plate of the capacitor ? Explain.
Answer:
Given ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2
Here, R = 12cm = 0.12m, d = 5.0mm = 5 × 10-3m, I = 0.15A
Area, A = πR2 = 3.14 × (0.12)2m2

a) We know that capacity of a parallel plate capacitor is given by
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 4
b) Displacement current is equal to conduction current i.e., 0.15 A.
c) Yes, Kirchhoffs first rule is valid at each plate of the capacitor provided. We take the current to be the sum of the conduction and displacement currents.

Question 2.
A parallel plate capacitor in the figure made of circular plates each of radius R = 6.0 cm has a capacitance C = 100 pF. The capacitor is connected to a 230 V ac supply with a (angular) frequency of 300 rad s-1.
a) What is the rms value of the conduction current ?
b) Is the conduction current equal to the displacement current ?
c) Determine the amplitude of B at a point 3.0 cm from the axis between the plates.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 5
Answer:
a) Irms = \(\frac{E_{\mathrm{fms}}}{X_c}\) = \(\frac{E_{\mathrm{rms}}}{\frac{1}{\omega C}}\) = Erms × ωC
∴ Irms = 230 × 300 × 100 × 10-12 = 6.9 × 10-6A = 6.9µA

b) Yes, I = Id where I is steady d.c or a.c. This is shown below
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 6

c) We know, B = \(\frac{\mu_0}{2 \pi} \times \frac{\pi}{R^2} \times I_d\)
The formula is valid even if Id is oscillating. As Id = I, therefore
B = \(\frac{\mu_0 r \mathrm{I}}{2 \pi \mathrm{R}^2}\)
If I = I0, the maximum value of current, then
Amplitude of B = max. value of B = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{rI}_0}{2 \pi \mathrm{R}^2}\) = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{r} \sqrt{2} \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{rms}}}{2 \pi \mathrm{R}^2}\)
= \(\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 0.03 \times \sqrt{2} \times 6.9 \times 10^{-6}}{2 \times 3.14 \times(0.06)^2}\) = 1.63 × 10-11T.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 3.
What physical quantity is the same for X-rays of wavelength 10-10m, red light of wavelength 6800 A and radiowaves of wavelength 500m?
Answer:
The speed in vacuum is same for all the given wavelengths, which is 3 × 108 m/s.

Question 4.
A plane electromagnetic wave travels In vacuum aloñg z-direction. What can you say about the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors ? If the frequency of the wave is 30 MHz, what is its wavelength?
Answer:
In electromagnetic wave, the electric field vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and magnetic field vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) show their variations perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave as well as perpendicular to each other. As the electromagnetic wave is travelling along z – direction, hence \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) show their variation in x – y plane.
wave length λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{v}}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}}{30 \times 10^6 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}}\) = 10m

Question 5.
A radio can tune into any station in the 7.5 MHz to 12MHz band. What is-the corresponding wavelength band?
Answer:
λ1 = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{7.5 \times 10^6}\) = 40m
λ2 = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{12 \times 10^6}\) = 25m
Thus wavelength band is 40m to 25m.

Question 6.
A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency of 109 Hz. What is the frequency of the electromagnetic waves produced by the oscillator ?
Answer:
The frequency of electromagnetic wave is same as that of oscillating cliarged particle about its equilibrium position; which is 109Hz.

Question 7.
The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in vacuum is B0 = 510 nT. What is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave ?
Answer:
Here, B0 = 510nT = 510 × 10-9T
E0 = CB0 = 3 × 108 × 510 × 10-9 = 153 NC-1.

Question 8.
Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is E0 = 120 N/C and that its frequency is v = 50.0 MHz.
(a) Determine. B0, ω, k, and λ.
(b) Find expressions for E and B.
Answer:
a)
B0 = \(\frac{E_0}{\mathrm{c}}\) = \(\frac{120}{3 \times 10^8}\) = 4 × 10-7 T
ω = 2πv = 2 × 3.14 × (50 × 106) = 3.14 × 108 rad/s
K = \(\frac{\omega}{\mathrm{C}}\) = \(\frac{3.14 \times 10^8}{3 \times 10^8}\) = 1.05 rad/m
λ = \(\frac{C}{V}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{50 \times 10^6}\) = 6.00 m

b) Expression for \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) is E = E0 sin (kx – ωt)
= (120 N/c) Sin [(1.05 rad/m) x – (3.14 × 108 rad /s)t] \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\)
Expression for \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) is B = B0 sin (kx – ωt)
= (4 × 10-7 T) sin [(1.05 rad/m) x – (3.14 × 108 rad/s)t] \(\hat{\mathrm{k}}\).

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 9.
The terminology of different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum is given in the text. Use the formula E = hv (for energy of a quantum of radiation: photon) and obtain the photon energy in units of eV for different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum, in what way are the different scales of photon energies that you obtain related to the sources of electromagnetic radiation ?
Answer:
Energy of a photon of frequency v is given by E = hv joules = \(\frac{\mathrm{hv}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{ev}}\)
Where h = 6.6 × 10-34 J. The energy of photon of different parts of electromagnetic spectrum in joules and eV are shown in table below, along with their sources of origin.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 7
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 8

Question 10.
In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz and amplitude 48 V m-1.
a) What is the wavelength of the wave ?
b) What is the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field ?
c) Show that the average energy density of the E field equals the average energy density of the B field. [C = 3 × 108 ms-1].
Answer:
Here, v = 2.0 × 1010Hz, E0 = 48 Vm-1, C = 3 × 108 m/s

a) wavelength of the wave, λ = \(\frac{C}{v}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{2.0 \times 10^{10}}\) = 1.5 × 10-2 m

b) Amplitude of oscillating magnetic field,
B0 = \(\frac{E_0}{C}\) = \(\frac{48}{3 \times 10^8}\) = 1.6 × 10-7T

c) For average energy density
UE = \(\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{E}_0^2\) …… (1)
We know that \(\frac{E_0}{B_0}\) = C
Putting in Eq (1)
UE = \(\frac{1}{4} \varepsilon_0 \cdot C^2 \mathrm{~B}_0^2\) …. (2)
Speed of Electro magnetic waves, C = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \mathrm{E}_0}}\)
Putting in Eq (2) We get.
UE = \(\frac{1}{4} \varepsilon_0 B_0^2 \cdot \frac{1}{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}\)
UE = \(\frac{1}{4} \cdot \frac{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{O}}^2}{\mu_0}=\frac{\mathrm{Bo}^2}{2 \mu_0}\) = μB
Thus, the average energy density of E field equals the average energy density of B field.

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
Suppose that the electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is E = {(3.1 N/C) cos [(1.8 rad/m) y + {5.4 × 106 rad /s} t]} i.
a) What is the direction of propagation ?
b) What is the wavelength λ ?
c) What is the frequency v ?
d) What is the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the wave ?
e) Write an expression for the magnetic field part of the wave.
Answer:
a) From the given question it is clear that direction of motion of e.m. wave is along negative y direction i.e along – \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\)

b) Comparing the given question with equation E = E0 cos (ky + ωt).
We have, K = 1.8 rad/m, ω = 5.4 × 108 rad/s, E0 = 3.1 N/C
λ = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\mathrm{k}}\) = \(\frac{2 \times(22 / 7)}{1.8}\) = 3.492 m ≈ 3.5m

c) V = \(\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}\) = \(\frac{5.4 \times 10^8}{2 \times\left(\frac{22}{7}\right)}\) = 85.9 × 106 ≈ 86MHz

d) B0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_0}{\mathrm{C}}\) = \(\frac{3.1}{3 \times 10^8}\) = 1.03 × 10-8T ≈ 10.3nT

e) B = B0 cos (ky + ωt) \(\hat{\mathbf{k}}\) = (10.3nT) cos [(1.8 rad/m/y + (5.4 × 108 rad / s)t] \(\hat{\mathbf{k}}\)

Question 2.
About 5% of the power of a 100 W light bulb is converted to visible radiation. What is the average intensity of visible radiation
a) at a distance of lm from the bulb ?
b) at a distance of 10 m ?
Assume that the radiation is emitted isotropically and neglect reflection.
Answer:
a) Intensity,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 9
b) I = \(\frac{100 \times(5 / 100)}{4 \pi(10)^2}\) = 4 × 10-3 W/m2

Question 3.
Use the formula λm T = 0.29 cm K to obtain the characteristic temperature ranges for different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum. What do the numbers that you obtain tell you ?
Answer:
We know, every body at given temperature T1 emits radiations of all wavelengths in certain range. For a black body, the wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity of radiation at a given temperature.
λm T = 0.29cmk or T = \(\frac{0.29}{\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}}\)
For λm = 10-6m = 10-4cm, T = \(\frac{0.29}{10^{-4}}\) = 2900 k.

Temperature for other wavelengths can be similarly found. These numbers tell us the temperature ranges required for obtaining radiations in different parts of e.m spectrum. Thus to obtain visible radiation, say, λm = 5 × 10-5cm, the source should have a temperature
T = \(\frac{0.29}{5 \times 10^{-5}}\) = 6000 k
It is to be noted that, a body at lower temperature will also produce this wavelength but not with maximum intensity.

Question 4.
Given below are some famous numbers associated with electromagnetic radiations in different contexts in physics. State the part of the electromagnetic spectrum to which each belongs.
a) 21 cm (wavelength emitted by atomic hydrogen in interstellar space).
b) 1057 MHz (frequency of radiation arising from two close energy levels in hydrogen; known as Lamb shift).
c) 2.7 K [temperature associated with the isotropic radiation filling all space-thought to be a relic of the ‘big-bang’ origin of the universe].
d) 5890 A – 5896 A [double lines of sodium]
e) 14.4 keV [energy of a particular transition in 57Fe nucleus associated with a famous high resolution spectroscopic method (Mossbauer spectroscopy).
Answer:
a) This wavelength corresponds to radiowaves.

b) This frequency also corresponds to radiowaves.

c) Given T = 2.7 K As λm T = 0.29cm °k
∴ λm = \(\frac{0.29}{\mathrm{~T}}\) = \(\frac{0.29}{2.7}\) ≈ 0.11cm
This wavelength corresponds to microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

d) This wavelength lies in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

e) Here, Energy E = 14.4KeV = 14.4 × 103 × 1.6 × 10-19J
As E = hv
∴ v = \(\frac{E}{h}\) = \(\frac{14.4 \times 10^3 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}\) ≈ 3 × 1011 MHz
This frequency lies in the X-ray region of electromagnetic spectrum.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 5.
Answer the following questions :
a) Long distance radio broadcasts use short-wave bands. Why ?
b) It is neccessary to use satellites for long distance TV transmission. Why ?
c) Optical and radio telescopes are built on the ground, but X-ray astronomy is possible only from satellites orbiting the earth. Why ?
d) The small ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why ?
e) If the earth did not have an atmosphere, would its average surface temperature be higher or lower than what it is now ?
f) Some scientists have predicted that a global nuclear war on the earth would be followed by a severe ‘nuclear winter’ with a devastating effect on life on earth. What might be the basis of this prediction ?
Answer:
a) It is so because ionosphere reflects the waves in these bands.

b) Yes, television signals being of high frequency are not reflected by ionosphere, Therefore to reflect them satellites are needed. That is why, satellites are used for long distance TV transmission.

c) Optical and radiowaves can penetrate the atmosphere where as X-rays being of much smaller wavelength are absorbed by the atmosphere. That is why we can work with optical and radio telescopes on earth’s surface but X-ray astronomical telescopes must be used on the satellite orbiting above the earth’s atmosphere.

d) The small ozone layer present on the top of the stratosphere absorbs most of ultraviolet radiations from the sun which are dangerous and cause genetic damage to living cells, prevents them from reaching the earth’s surface and thus helps in the survival of life.

e) The temperature of earth would be lower because the green house effect of atmosphere would be absent.

f) The clouds by a global nuclear war would perhaps cover most parts of sky preventing solar light from reaching many parts of globe. This would cause a winter.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 10th Lesson Alternating Current Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 10th Lesson Alternating Current

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
A transformer converts 200 V ac into 2000 V ac. Calculate the number of turns in the secondary if the primary has 10 turns. (A.P. Mar.’19; T.S. Mar. ’16 )
Answer:
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{s}}}{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{p}}}\) = \(\frac{N_s}{N_p}\)
Vp = 200V, Vs = 2000V, Np = 10
Ns = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{s}}}{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{p}}} \times \mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{p}}\) = \(\frac{2000}{200} \times 10\)
Ns = 100.

Question 2.
What type of transformer is used in a 6V bed lamp ?
Answer:
Step down transformer is used in 6V bed lamp.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current

Question 3.
What is the phenomenon involved in the working of a transformer ? (T.S. Mar.19; A.P. Mar. 16, Mar. 14)
Answer:
Transformer works on the principle of mutual induction.

Question 4.
What is transformer ratio ?
Answer:
The ratio of secondary e.m.f to the primary e.m.f. (or) number of turns in secondary to the number of turns in the primary is called the transformer ratio.
Transformer ratio = \(\frac{V_s}{V_p}\) = \(\frac{N_s}{N_p}\).

Question 5.
Write the expression for the reactance of

  1. an inductor and
  2. a capacitor.

Answer:

  1. Inductive reactance (XL) = ωL
  2. Capacitive reactance (XC) = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\)

Question 6.
What is the phase difference between A.C emf and current in the following: Pure resistor, pure inductor and pure capacitor.
Answer:

  1. In pure resistor A.C. e.in.f and current are in phase with each other.
  2. In pure inductor, current lags behind the e.m.f. by an angle of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) (or) 90°.
  3. In pure capacitor, current leads the e.m.f by an angle \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) (or) 90°.

Question 7.
Define power factor. On which factors does power factor depend ?
Answer:
The ratio of true power and apparent power (virtual power) in an a.c circuit is called as power factor of the circuit.
Power factor (cosϕ) = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{rms}}}\). (∴ Prms = VrmsIrms)
Power factor depends on r.m.s voltage, r.m.s current and average power (P).

Question 8.
What is meant by wattless component of current ?
Answer:
Average power (P) = Vrms(Irms sinϕ)cos \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
The average power consumed in the circuit due to Irms sin ϕ) component of current is zero. This component of current is known as wattless current. (Irms sin ϕ) is the wattless component of current.

Question 9.
When does a LCR series circuit have minimum impedance?
Answer:
In LCR series circuit, Impedance (Z) = \(\sqrt{R^2+\left(\frac{1}{\omega C}-\omega L\right)^2}\)
At a particular frequency, ωL = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\)
The impedance is minimum (Z = R)
This frequency is called resonant frequency

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current

Question 10.
What is the phase difference between voltage and current when the power factor in LCR series circuit is unity ?
Answer:
In LCR series circuit power factor (cos ϕ) = 1
∴ Phase difference between voltage and current is zero. (ϕ = 0)

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Obtain an expression for the current through an inductor when an AC emf is applied.
Answer:
Circuit consists of pure inductor of inductance L. Let an ac e.m.f V = Vm sin ωt is applied to it. Let i be the instantaneous current.
Back e.m.f developed across the inductor = -L\(\frac{\mathrm{di}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 1
Total e.m.f = Vm sin ωt – L\(\frac{\mathrm{di}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) ——- (1)
According to ohms law this must be equal to iR = 0
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 2
This is the expression for the instantaneous current through inductor. Here current lags behind the e.m.f by \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) radian (or) 90°.

Question 2.
Obtain an expression for the current in a capacitor when an AC emf is applied.
Answer:
Circuit consists of pure capacitor of capacitance C. Let an A.C emf V = Vm sin ωt is applied to it. Let i and q be the instantaneous values of current and charge.
Potential difference across capacitor = –\(\frac{\mathrm{q}}{\mathrm{C}}\).
Total emf = Vm sin ωt –\(\frac{\mathrm{q}}{\mathrm{C}}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 3
According to Ohms law this must be equal to iR = 0
Vm sin ωt –\(\frac{\mathrm{q}}{\mathrm{C}}\) = 0
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 4
i0 is peak value of current. Here the current leads the applied e.m.f. by \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) or (or) 90°

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current

Question 3.
State the principle on which a transformer works. Describe the working of a transformer with necessary theory.
Answer:
Transformer is a device to convert a low alternating current of high voltage into high alternating current of low voltage and vice versa.
Principle : It works on the principle of mutual induction between two coils.
Working : When an alternating emf is applied across the primary coil, the input voltage changes with time. Hence the magnetic flux through the primary also changes with time.
This changing magnetic flux will be linked with secondary through the core. An emf is induced in the secondary.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 5
Theory: Let N1 and N2 be the number of turns in the primary and secondary. Let VP and Vs be the emf s across the primary and secondary.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 6
Efficiency of transformer:
It is the ratio of output power to the input power.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 7

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Obtain on expression for impedance and current in series LCR circuit. Deduce an expresssion for the resonating frequency of an LCR series resonating circuit
Answer:
Circuit consists of resistor of resistance R, inductor of inductance L and capacitor of capacitance C connected in series with an a.c Voltage V = Vm sin ωt.
Let i be the current and q be the charge at any instant t.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 8
Back e.m.f across inductor is -L\(\frac{\mathrm{di}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
and across capacitor is \(\frac{-\mathrm{q}}{\mathrm{C}}\)
Total e.m.f = Vm sin ωt – L\(\frac{\mathrm{di}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) – \(\frac{\mathrm{q}}{\mathrm{C}}\)
According to Ohms law, this must be equal to iR
Vm sinωt – L\(\frac{\mathrm{di}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) – \(\frac{q}{C}\) = iR
L\(\frac{\mathrm{di}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) + iR + \(\frac{q}{C}\) = Vm sin ωt ——- (1)
The current i any instant in the circuit is
i = im sin(ωt – ϕ) if ωL > \(\frac{1}{\omega \mathrm{C}}\) which is possible at high frequencies.
i = im sin (ωt + ϕ) if ωL which is possible at low frequencies.
The maximum current (im) is given by
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 9
Let ϕ be the phase difference between current and e.m.f
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 10

Resonant frequency(f0):
At this frequency, the impedance of LCR circuit is minimum and is equal to R. At this frequency current is maximum This frequency is called resonant frequency (f0).
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 11
In frequency response curve, at resonant frequency (f0), current is maximum. This series resonant circuit is called acceptor circuit.

Problems

Question 1.
An ideal inductor (no internal resistance for the coil) or 20 mH is connected in series with an AC ammeter to an AC source whose emf is given by e = 20\(\sqrt{2}\) sin(200t + π/3)V, where t is in seconds. Find the reading of the ammeter ?
Solution:
Given that L = 20 mH = 20 × 10-3H
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 12

Question 2.
The instantaneous current and instantaneous voltage across a series circuit containing resistance and inductance
are given by i = \(\sqrt{2}\) sin (100t – π/4)A and υ = 40 sin (100t) V. Calculate the resistance ?
Solution:
i = \(\sqrt{2}\) sin (100t – π/4)A
(∵ i = i0 sin(ωt – ϕ))
υ = 40 sin (100t)V (∵ V = V0sin(ωt))
i0 = \(\sqrt{2}\), V0 = 40, ω = 100, ϕ = π/4
R = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_0}{\mathrm{i}_0} \cos \phi\) = \(\frac{40}{\sqrt{2}} \cos \frac{\pi}{4}\)
R = \(\frac{40}{\sqrt{2}} \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
R = 20Ω

Question 3.
In an AC circuit, a condenser, a resistor and a pure inductor are connected in series across an alternator (AC generator). If the voltages across them are 20 V, 35 V and 20 V respectively, find the voltage supplied by the alternator.
Solution:
VC = 20V, VR = 35V, VL = 20V
V = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{R}}^2+\left(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{L}}^2-\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{C}}^2\right)}\)
V = \(\sqrt{(35)^2+\left(20^2-20^2\right)}\)
V = \(\sqrt{35^2}\)
V = 35 Volt.

Question 4.
An AC circuit contains a resistance R, an inductance L and a capacitance C connected in series across an alternator of constant voltage and variable frequency. At resonant frequency, it is found that the inductive reactance, the capacitive reactance and the resistance are equal and the current in the circuit
is i0. Find the current in the circuit at a frequency twice that of the resonant frequency.
Solution:
At Resonance R = ω0L = \(\frac{1}{\omega_0 C}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 13

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current

Question 5.
A series resonant circuit contains L1, R1 and C1. The resonant frequency is f. Another series resonant circuit contains L2, R2 and C2. The resonant frequency is also f. If these two circuits are connected in series, calculate the resonant frequency.
Solution:
Given that resonant frequency (f)
= \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{\mathrm{L}_1 C_1}}\) = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{\mathrm{L}_2 \mathrm{C}_2}}\)
L1C1 = L2C2
L1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{L}_2 \mathrm{C}_2}{\mathrm{C}_1}\) —— (1)
When these two circuits are connected in series
The total inductance L = L1 + L2
Total capacitance is given by
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{C}}\) = \(\frac{1}{C_1}\) + \(\frac{1}{C_2}\) (or) C = \(\frac{\mathrm{C}_1 \mathrm{C}_2}{\mathrm{C}_1+\mathrm{C}_2}\)
The resonant frequency of combined circuit is given by
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 14

Question 6.
In a series LCR circuit R = 200Ω and the voltage and the frequency of the mains supply is 200 V and 50 Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitance from the circuit the current lags behind the voltage by 45°. On taking out the inductor from the circuit the current leads the voltage by 45°. Calculate the power dissipated in the LCR circuit.
Solution:
R = 200Ω, V = 200V, f = 50Hz
ϕ = 45°, At resonance ωL = \(\frac{1}{\omega \mathrm{C}}\)
Power dissipated (P) = Vi = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}^2}{\mathrm{R}}\) (∵ i = \(\frac{V}{R}\))
P = \(\frac{(200)^2}{200}\) = 200ω

Question 7.
The primary of a transformer with primary to secondary turns ratio of 1: 2, is connected to an alternator of voltage 200 V. A current of 4A is flowing though the primary coil. Assuming that the transformer has no losses, find the secondary voltage and current are respectively.
Solution:
Given that \(\frac{\mathbf{N}_1}{\mathbf{N}_2}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
E1 = 200V, i1 = 4A

i)
Transformer ratio = \(\frac{E_2}{E_1}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_2}{\mathrm{~N}_1}\)
\(\frac{E_2}{200}\) = \(\frac{2}{1}\)
E2 = 400V

ii)
\(\frac{\mathrm{N}_2}{\mathrm{~N}_1}\) = \(\frac{i_1}{i_2}\)
\(\frac{2}{1}\) = \(\frac{4}{i_2}\)
i2 = 2A

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
A 100Ω resistor is connected to a 220 V. 50 Hz ac supply.
(a) What is the rms value of current in the circuit ?
(b) What is the net power consumed over a full cycle ?
Solution:
Given resistance R = 100Ω
Vrms = 220V
Frequency f = 50Hz

a) Current in the circuit
Irms = \(\frac{V_{r m s}}{R}\) = \(\frac{220}{100}\) = 2.2A

b) Net power consumed in full cycle
P = Vrms × Irms
= 220 × 2.2
= 474 W

Question 2.
(a) The peak voltage of an ac supply is 300 V. What is the rms voltage ?
(b) The rms value of current in an ac circuit is 10A. What is the peak current ?
Solution:
a) Given, peak value of voltage V0 = 300V
The rms value of current Irms = 10A
The rms value of voltage
Vrms = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_0}{\sqrt{2}}\) = \(\frac{300}{\sqrt{2}}\) = 212.1V

b) Using the formula
Irms = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_0}{\sqrt{2}}\)
The peak value of current
I0 = \(\sqrt{2} \times \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{rms}}\)
= \(\sqrt{2}\) × 10 = 1.414 × 10
I0 = 14.14 A

Question 3.
A 44 mH inductor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply. Determine the rms value of current in the circuit.
Solution:
Given inductance
L = 44mH = 44 × 10-3H
Vrms = 220V
Frequency of Inductor f = 50Hz
Inductive resistance XL = 2πfL
= 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 44 × 10-3
= 13.83Ω
The rms value of current in the circuit
Irms = \(\frac{V_{\text {rms }}}{X_L}\) = \(\frac{220}{13.83}\)15.9A

Question 4.
A 60 μF capacitor is connected to a 110V, 60 Hz ac supply. Determine the rms value of the current in the circuit.
Solution:
Given, capacitance of the capacitor C
= 60μF
= 60 × 10-6F
Vrms = 110
Frequency of AC supply f = 60Hz
Capacitive reactance
XC = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \mathrm{fC}}\) = \(\frac{1}{2 \times 3.14 \times 60 \times 60 \times 10^{-6}}\)
= 44.23Ω
The rms value of current in the circuit
Vrms = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{rms}}}{\mathrm{X}_{\mathrm{C}}}\) = \(\frac{110}{44.23}\) = 2.49A

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current

Question 5.
In Exercises 3 and 4, what is the net power absorbed by each circuit over a complete cycle. Explain your answer.
Solution:
In Exercise 3 Average power P = Vrms, Irms. cos ϕ

As we know that the phase difference between current and voltage in case of inductor is 90°.
P = Vrms. Irms. cos 90° = 0
In Exercise 4 Average power
P = Vrms. Irms. cos ϕ
We know that the phase difference between current and voltage in case of capacitor is 90°
P = Vrms. Irms. cos 90° = 0

Question 6.
Obtain the resonant frequency ωr of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0H. C = 32 μF and R = 10Ω. What is the Q-value of this circuit ?
Solution:
Given, L = 2H, C = 32μF, R = 10Ω
Resonant angular frequency
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 16

Question 7.
A charged 30 μF capacitor is connected to a 27 mH inductor. What is the angular frequency of free oscillations of the circuit ?
Solution:
Capacitance of capacitor C = 30μF = 30 × 10-6F
Inductance L = 27mH = 27 × 10-3H
For free oscillations, the angular frequency should be resonant frequency. Resonant angular frequency of oscillation of the circuit
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 30

Question 8.
Suppose the initial charge on the capacitor in Exercise 7 is 6 mC. What is the total energy stored in the circuit initially ? What is the total energy at later time ?
Answer:
Given, charge on the capacitor Q = 6mC = 6 × 10-3
C = 30μF = 30 × 10-6F
Energy stored in the circuit
E = \(\frac{Q^2}{2 C}\) = \(\frac{\left(6 \times 10^{-3}\right)^2}{2 \times 30 \times 10^{-2}}\) = \(\frac{36}{60}\) = 0.6J
After some time, the energy is shared between C and L, but the total energy remains constant.
So, we assume that there is no loss of energy.

Question 9.
A series LCR circuit with R = 20Ω, L = 1.5 H and C = 35µF is connected to a variable-frequency 200 V ac supply. When the frequency of the supply equals the natural frequency of the circuit, what is the average power transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle ?
Given resistance R = 200Ω
Inductance L = 1.5H, capacitance C = 35µF = 35 × 10-6F and voltage Vrms = 200V
When, the frequency of the supply equal to the natural frequency of the circuit, this is the condition of resonance. At the condition of resonance, Impedance Z = R = 20Ω
The rms value of current in the circuit
Irms = \(\frac{V_{r m s}}{Z}\) = \(\frac{200}{20}\) = 10A
ϕ = 0°
Power transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle.
P = Irms Vrms cos ϕ
= 10 × 200 × cos0° = 2000 ω = 2Kω

Question 10.
A radio can tune over the frequency range o a portion of MW broadcast band: (800 kHz to 1200 kHz). If its LC circuit has an effective inductance of 200 μH, what must be the range of its variable capacitor?

(Hint: For tuning, the natural frequency i.e., the frequency of free oscillations of the LC circuit should be equal to the frequency of the radiowave.)
Solution:
Given, minimum frequency
f1 = 800KHz = 8 × 105HZ
Inductance
L = 200μH = 200 × 10-5H = 2 × 10-4H.
Maximum frequency
f2 = 1200 KHz = 12 × 105Hz for tuning, the natural frequency is equal to the frequency of oscillations that means it is the case of resonance.
Frequency of oscillations f = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}}\)
For capacitance C1, f1 = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C_i}}\)
C1 = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi^2 \mathrm{f}_1^2 \mathrm{~L}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{4 \times 3.14 \times 3.14 \times\left(8 \times 10^5\right)^2 \times 2 \times 10^{-4}}\)
= 197.7 × 10-12F
= 197.7PF
for capacitance C2, f2 = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C_2}}\)
C2 = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi^2 f_1^2 \mathrm{C}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{4 \times 3.14 \times 3.14 \times\left(12 \times 10^5\right)^2 \times 2 \times 10^{-4}}\)
= 87.8 × 10-12F = 87.8pF
Thus, the range of capacitor is 87.8pF to 197.7pF.

Question 11.
Figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 230 V source. L = 5.0 H, C = 80μF, R = 40Ω.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 31
(a) Determine the source frequency which drives the circuit in resonance.
(b) Obtain the impedance of the circuit and the amplitude of current at the resonating frequency.
(c) Determine the rms potential drops across the three elements of the circuit. Show that the potential drop across the LC combination is zero at the resonating frequency.
Solution:
Given, the rms value of voltage
Vrms = 230V
Inductance L = 5H
Capacitance C = 80μf = 80 × 10-6F
Resistance R = 40Ω

a) For resonance frequency of circuit
ωr = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{LC}}}\) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{5 \times 80 \times 10^{-6}}}\) = 50 rad/s
Source frequency at resonance, then
υ0 = \(\frac{\omega_0}{2 \pi}\) = \(\frac{50}{2 \times 3.14}\) = 7.76 Hz

b) At the resonant frequency, XL = XC
So, impedance of the circuit Z = R
∴ Impedance Z = 40Ω
The rms value of current in the circuit
Irms = \(\frac{V_{r m s}}{Z}\) = \(\frac{230}{40}\) = 5.75A
Amplitude of current I0 = Irms\(\sqrt{2}\)
= 5.75 × \(\sqrt{2}\)
= 8.13A

c) The rms potential drop across L
VL = Irms XL
= Irms ωrL = 5.75 × 50 × 5 = 1437.5V
The rms potential drop across R
VR = Irms = R = 5.75 × 40 = 230V
The rms potential drop across C,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 18
Potential drop across LC combinations
= Irms(XL – XC)
= Irms(XL – XL) = 0 (∵ XL – XC)

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
An LC circuit contains a 20 mH inductor and a 50μF capacitor with an initial charge of 10 mC. The resistance of the circuit is negligible. Let the instant the circuit is closed be t = 0.
(a) What is the total energy stored initially ? Is it conserved during LC oscillations ?
(b) What is the natural frequency of the circuit ?
(c) At What time is the energy stored
(i) Completely electrical (i.e., stored in the capacitor) ?
(ii) completely magnetic (i.e., stored in the inductor) ?
(d) At what times is the total energy shared equally between the inductor and the capacitor ?
(e) As a resistor is inserted in the circuit, how much energy is eventually dissipated as heat ?
Solution:
Given Inductance L = 20mH = 20 × 10-3H
Capacitance of capacitor
C = 50μf = 50 × 10-6F
Initial charge on the capacitor,
Qi = 10mc = 10 × 103C

a) The total energy stored across the capacitor initially,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 19
Yes, this energy is conserved during LC oscillations.

b) To get the natural frequency or resonant frequency,
fr = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{2 \times 3.14 \times \sqrt{20 \times 10^{-3} \times 50 \times 10^{-6}}}\)
= \(\frac{7 \times 10^3}{44}\) = 159.2 Hz.
The natural frequency of the circuit
ω = 2πV = 2π × 159.2
= 999.78 ≈ 1000 = 103 rad/s

c)

i) Let at any instant the energy stored is completely electrical the charge on the capacitor Q = Q0 cos ωt
Q = Q0 cos \(\frac{2 \pi}{T} \cdot t\) —– (1)
Q is maximum as it is equal to Q0, only if cos \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\) t = ±1 = cosnπt or t
= \(\frac{\mathrm{nT}}{2}\), where n = 1, 2, 3. ..
t = 0, T/2, T, 3T/2, ………..
Thus, the energy stored is completely electrical at t = 0, T/2, T, 3/2……….

ii) Let at any instant, the energy stored is completely magnetic as when the electrical energy across the capacitor is zero.
q = 0
Q = Q0cos \(\frac{2 \pi t}{T}\) = 0 (from eq(i))
∴ cos \(\frac{2 \pi}{T} \cdot t\) = 0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{n} \pi}{2}\) or t = \(\frac{\mathrm{nT}}{4}\) = cos.
It happens if t = T/4, 3T/4, \(\frac{\mathrm{5T}}{4}\),………..
Thus, the energy stored is completely magnetic at
t = T/4, 3T/4, 5T/4………..

d) Equal sharing of energy between inductor and capacitor means the energy stored in capacitor = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × Maximum energy
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 20
or cos(2n + 1)π/4 = cos \(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{t}}{\mathrm{T}}\)
\(\frac{(2 n+1) \pi}{4}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi t}{T}\)
t = T/8(2n + 1) (n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ……..)
Hence the energy will be shared half on capacitor and half on inductor.
t = \(\frac{T}{8}\), \(\frac{3 \mathrm{~T}}{8}\), \(\frac{5 \mathrm{~T}}{8}\), ………..

e) As a resistor is inserted in the circuit, all of the energy loss during heating. Energy loss = 1J. The oscillations becomes damped and becomes disappear after sometime as the total energy loss in the form of heat.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current

Question 2.
A coil of inductance 0.50 H and resistance 100Ω is connected to a 240 V, 50Hz ac supply.
a) What is the maximum current in the coil ?
b) What is the time lag between the voltage maximum and the current maximum ?
Solution:
Given, Inductance L = 0.50H
Resistance R = 100Ω
The rms value of voltage
Vrms = 240V, f = 50Hz

a) Impedance of circuit
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 21
the rms value of current
Irms = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{rms}}}{\mathbf{Z}}\) = \(frac{240}{31400.15}\) = 0.00764
the maximum value of current in the circuit
I0 = \(\sqrt{2}\) Irms = 1.414 × 0.00764 = 1.824A

b) Using the formula of time lag,
t = \(\frac{\phi}{\omega}\)
tan ϕ = \(\frac{X_L}{R}\) = \(\frac{\omega \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{fL}}{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\frac{2 \times 3.14 \times 50 \times 0.50}{100}\)
ϕ = tan-6(1.571) = 57.5
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 33
Time lag t = \(\frac{\phi}{\omega}\) = \(\frac{57.5 \pi}{180 \times 2 \pi \mathrm{f}}\)
= \(\frac{57.5}{180 \times 2 \times 50}\)
= 3.19 × 10-3S
Thus, the time lag between the voltage maximum and the current maximum is 3.19 × 10-3S

Question 3.
Obtain the answers (a) to (b) in Exercise 13 if the circuit is connected to a high frequency supply (240V, 10 kHz). Hence, explain the statement that at very high frequency an inductor in a circuit nearly amounts to an open circuit. How does an inductor behave in a dc circuit after the steady state?
Answer:
Given frequency f = 10kHz = 104Hz
the rms value of voltage Vrms = 240v
from Exercise 13
Resistance R = 100Ω
Inductance L = 0.5H
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 32

Question 4.
A 100μF capacitor in series with a 40Ω resistance is connected to a 110V. 60 Hz supply.
(a) What is the maximum current in the circuit?
(b) What is the time lag between the current maximum and the voltage maximum?
Answer:
Given capacitance of capacitor
C = 100µF= 100 × 10-6F
Resistance R = 40Ω
the rms value of voltage Vrms = 110V
Frequency f = 60Hz

(a) Impedance Z
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 22

(b) Time lag (t) = \(\frac{\phi}{\omega}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 23
Thus, the time lag between the voltage maximum and the current maximum is 1.55 × 10-3S.

Question 5.
Obtain the answers to (a) and (b) in Exercise 15 if the circuit is connected to a 110 V, 12 kHz supply? Hence, explain the statement that a capacitor is a conductor at very high frequencies. Compare this behaviour with that of a capacitor in a dc circuit after the steady state.
Answer:
Given, the rms value of voltage,
Vrms = 110V
The frequency of capacitor
f = 12kHz = 12000 Hz.
Capacitance of conductor C = 10-4F.
Resistance R = 40Ω
Capacitive Resistance
XC = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \mathrm{fC}}\) = \(\frac{1}{2 \times 3.14 \times 12000 \times 10^{-4}}\)
= 0.133Ω
The rms value of current
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 24
The maximum value of current,
I0 = \(\sqrt{2}\) Irms
= 1.414 × 2.75
= 3.9A
Here, the value of XC is very small, so term containing C is negligible.
tan ϕ = \(\frac{1}{\omega \mathrm{CR}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{2 \times 3.14 \times 12000 \times 10^{-4} \times 40}\)
= \(\frac{1}{96 \pi}\)
It is very very small.
In DC circuits, ω = 0
XC = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\) = ∞
So, it behaves like an open circuit.

Question 6.
Keeping the source frequency equal to the resonating frequency of the series LCR circuit, if the three elements L, C and R are arranged in parallel, show that the total current in the parallel LCR circuit is minimum at this frequency. Obtain the current rms value in each branch of the circuit for the elements and source specified in Exercise 11 for this frequency.
Solution:
As they are corrected in the parallel combination
\(\frac{1}{Z}\) = \(\frac{1}{R}\) + (\(\frac{1}{X_L}\) + \(\frac{1}{X_C}\))
As the reactance (XC – XL) is perpendicular to the ohmic resistance R, therefore we can write as
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 25
That means \(\frac{1}{Z}\) = minimum and thus Z = maximum. As Z is maximum, current will be minimum, current through inductor
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 26

Question 7.
A circuit containing a 80 mH inductor and a 60μF capacitor in series is connected to a 230 V 50 Hz supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible.
(a) Obtain the current amplitude and rms values.
(b) Obtain the rms values of potential drops across each element.
(c) What is the average power transferred to the inductor?
(d) What is the average power transferred to the capacitor?
(e) What is the total average power absorbed by the circuit? [‘Average’ implies ‘averaged over one cycle’]
Answer:
Given Inductance
L = 80mH = 80 × 10-3H
Capacitance of capacitor
C = 60μF = 60 × 10-6F .
The rms value of voltage
Vrms = 230V
Frequency f = 50Hz; Resistance R = 0

a) Impedance of circuit
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 27
As ZCO, means XL < XC, emf lags by current by 90°
The rms value of current
Irms = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{rms}}}{\mathrm{Z}}\) = \(\frac{230}{27.95}\) = 8.29A
The maximum value of current
I0 = \(\sqrt{2} I_{\text {rms }}\) = 1.414 × 8.29 = 11.64A

b) Potentiál drop acrõss L
VrmsL = Irms × XL = 8.29 × 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 80 × 10-3
= 208.25 V
Potential drop across C
VrmsC = Irms × XC
= 8.29 × \(\frac{1}{2 \times 3.14 \times 50 \times 60 \times 10^{-6}}\)
= 440.02 V
∴ Applied rms voltage = VC – VL
= 440 – 208.25 = 231.75V

c) Average power transferred to the inductor
P = Irms Vrms. cosϕ
As the phase difference is 90°, So P = 0

d) Average power transferred to the capacitor.
P = Irms Vrms. cosϕ
As the phase difference is 90°, So P = 0

e) As there is no resistance in the circuit, so average power is equal to sum of average power due to inductor and capacitor. That means the average power consumed is zero.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current

Question 8.
Suppose the circuit in Exercise 18 has a resistance of 15Ω. Obtain the average power transferred to each element of the circuit, and the total power absorbed.
Solution:
Given, the rms value of voltage V = 230V
Vrms = 230V
Resistance R = 15Ω
Frequency f = 50Hz
Average power across inductor and capacitor is zero as the phase difference between current and voltage is 90°.
Total power absorbed = power absorbed in resistor, Pav
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 28
Total power absorbed = 790.6W

Question 9.
A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R = 23Ω is connected to a 230 V variable frequency supply.
a) What is the source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum. Obtain this maximum value.
b) What is the source frequency for which average power absorbed by the circuit is maximum. Obtain the value of this maximum power.
c) For which frequencies of the source is the power transferred to the circuit half the power at resonant frequency ? what is the current amplitude at these frequencies ?
d) What is the Q-factor of the given circuit ?
Answer:
Inductance L = 0.12H,
Capacitance C = 480nF = 480 × 10-9F
Resistance R = 23Ω
The rms value of voltage
Irms = \(\frac{V_{r m s}}{Z}\) = \(\frac{230}{23}\) = 10A
The maximum value of current I0 = \(\sqrt{2}\)
Irms = 1.414 × 10 = 14.14A.
At natural frequency, the current amplitude is maximum.
ω = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{LC}}} \frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{0.12 \times 480 \times 10^{-9}}}\) = 4166.6
= 4167 rad/s

b) Average power is maximum for resonance.
Pav(max) = I2rms R = 10 × 10 × 23 = 2300W.

c) Power transferred to the circuit is half the power at resonant frequency
Δω = \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{2 \mathrm{~L}}\) = \(\frac{23}{2 \times 0.12}\) = 95.83 rad/s
ΔV = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{W}}{2 \pi}\) = 15.2Hz
The frequencies at which power transferred is half .
V = V0 ± ΔV = 663.48 ± 15.26
So, frequencies are 448.3Hz and 678.2Hz, the maximum current
I = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_0}{\sqrt{2}}\) = \(\frac{14.14}{\sqrt{2}}\) = 10A

d) Q-factor = \(\frac{\omega_{\mathrm{r}}}{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\frac{4166.7 \times 0.12}{23}\) = 21.74

Question 10.
Obtain the resonant frequency and Q-factor of series LCR circuit with L = 3.0 H, C = 27μF, and R = 10.4Ω. It is desired to improved the sharpness of the resonance of the circuit by reducing its ‘full width at half maximum’ by a factor of 2. Suggest a suitable way.
Solution:
Given, inductance L = 3H
Capacitance of capacitor
C = 27μF = 27 × 10-6F
Resistance R = 7.4Ω
the resonant frequency of circuit
ωr = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{LC}}}\) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3 \times 27 \times 10^{-6}}}\) = \(\frac{1000}{9}\)
= 111.1 rad/s.
Q-factor of a series LCR circuit
Q-factor = \(\frac{\omega_{\mathrm{r}} \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\frac{111.1 \times 3}{7.4}\) = 45.04
To reduce the full width at half by factor Q, we have to reduce the value of R as R/2
\(\frac{R}{2}\) = \(\frac{7.4}{2}\) = 3.7Ω

Question 11.
Answer the following questions :
a) In any ac circuit, is the applied Instantaneous voltage equal to the algebraic sum of the instantaneous voltages across the series elements of the circuit ? Is the same true for rms voltage ?
Answer:
Yes, the applied voltage equal to the algebraic sum of the instantaneous voltages across the series elements of the circuit
No, it is not true for rms voltage because there is some phase differences across different elements of circuits.

b) A capacitor is used in the primary circuit of an induction coil.
Answer:
A capacitor is used in the primary circuit of an induction coil because when the circuit is broken, a large induced voltage is used up in charging the capacitor. So, the parking or any damages are avoided.

c) An applied voltage signal consists of a superposition of a dc voltage and an ac voltage of high frequency. The circuit consists of an inductor and a capacitor in series. Show that the dc signal will appear across C and the ac signal across L.
Solution:
As we know that
XC = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi f c}\), XL = 2πfL
f = 0, XC = ∞, XL = 0

d) A choke coil in series with a lamp is connected to a dc line. The lamp is seen to shine brightly. Insertion of an Iron core in the choke causes no change in the lamp’s brightness. Predict the corresponding observations if the connection is to an ac line.
Answer:
When the choke coil is connected to dc, there is no change in the brightness. Because f = 0, XL = 6. So, no change in the brightness. In Ac, the choke offers impedance, so, it glows dim. As we insert an iron core the magnetic field increases and hence inductance increases.
BA = LI = ϕ
L ∝ B
So, XL also increases and the brightness of bulb decreases.

e) Why is choke coil needed in the use of fluorescent tubes with ac mains ? Why can we not use an ordinary resistor instead of the choke coil ?
Answer:
We use the choke coil instead of resistance because the power loss across resistor is maximum while the power loss across choke is zero.
For resistor, ϕ = 0
P = Irms. Vrms. cos ϕ
= Irms. Vrms = maximum
For Inductor ϕ = 90°
P = Irms. Vrms. cos 90° = 0

Question 12.
A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a stepdown transformer with its primary windings having 4000 turns, what should be the number of turns in the secondary in order to get output power at 230 V ?
Solution:
Given Primary voltage VP = 2300V NP = 4000 turns
Secondary voltage VS = 230V
Using formula,
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{S}}}{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{P}}}\) = \(\frac{N_S}{N_P}\)
\(\frac{230}{2300}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{S}}}{4000}\)
NS = 400
∴ thus, the number of turns in secondary are 400.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current

Question 13.
At a hydroelectric power plant, the water, pressure head is at a height of 300 m and the water flow available is 100 m3s-1. If the turbine generator efficiency is 60%, estimate the electric power available from the plant (q = 9.8 ms-2).
Answer:
Given, height of water h = 300m
Rate of flow of water V = 100m3/s
efficiency η = 60%
g = 9.8m/s2.
As we know that input power is required to raised the water up to height
h = 300 m
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 29
Suppose, the power output is Pout which is equal to the power available from the plant. The efficiency of generator
η = \(\frac{P_{\text {out }}}{P_{\text {in }}}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Alternating Current 34
pout = 176.4MW = 1764 × 105W

Question 14.
A small town with a demand of 800 kW of electric power at 220 V is situated 15 km away from an electric plant generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the two wire line carrying power in 0.5 Ω per km. The town gets power from the line through a 4000 – 220V step-down transformer at a substation in the town.
(a) Estimate the line power loss in the form of heat.
(b) How much power must the plant supply, assuming there is negligible power loss due to leakage ?
(c) Characterise the step up transformer at the plant.
Answer:
Generating power of Electric plant = 800 kW at V = 220V
Distance = 15km,
Generating voltage = 440V
Resistance/length = 0.50Ω/km
Primary voltage VP = 4000V
Secondary voltage VS = 220V
(a) Power = Ip. Vp
800 × 1000 = Ip × 4000
Ip = 200A
Line power loss in form of heat
= (Ip)2 × Resistance of line
= (Ip)2 × 0.5 × 15 × 2
= (200)2 × 0.5 × 15 × 2
= 60 × 104W
= 600KW

(b) If there is no power loss due to leakage the plant supply should be =
800 + 600 = 1400KW

(c) Voltage drop across the line
= IP. R
= 200 × 0.5 × 15 × 2
= 3000V
Voltage from transmission
= 3000 + 4000 = 7000V
As it is given that the power generated at 440V
So, the step-up transformer needed at the plant is 440V – 7000V

Question 15.
Do the same exercise as above with the replacement of the earlier transformer by a 40,000-220V step-down transformer (Neglect, as before, leakage losses though this may not be a good assumption any longer because of the very high voltage transmission involved). Hence, explain why high voltage transmission is preferred ?
Answer:
Given primary voltage VP = 40,000V
Let the current in primary is IP
∴ VPIP = P
800 × 1000 = 40000 × IP
IP = 20A
a) Line power loss = (IP)2 × R
= (20)2 × 2 × 0.5 × 15
= 6000W = 6KW

b) Power supply by plant
= 800 + 6 = 806KW

Voltage drop of line = IP.R
= 20 × 2 × 0.5 × 15
= 300V
Voltage for transmission
= 40000 + 300 = 40300V
Power loss at higher voltage
= \(\frac{6}{800}\) × 100 = 0.74%
Power loss at lower voltage
= \(\frac{600}{1400}\) × 100 = 42.8%
Hence, the power loss is minimum at higher voltage. So, the high voltage transmission is preferred.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 9th Lesson Electromagnetic Induction Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 9th Lesson Electromagnetic Induction

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What did the experiments of Faraday and Henry show?
Answer:
The discovery and understanding of electromagnetic induction are based on a long series of experiments carried out by Faraday and Henry.

Question 2.
Define magnetic flux.
Answer:
Magnetic flux is defined as the number of magnetic lines of force crossing through the surface.
ϕB = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) = BA cos θ
C.G.S unit → Maxwell
S.I. unit → Weber (wb)
Magnetic flux is a scalar.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 3.
State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:
“Magnitude of induced e.m.f is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux”
ε ∝ \(-\frac{d \phi}{d t}\)

Question 4.
State Lenz’s law.
Answer:
The direction of induced e.m.f (or) current is such that it opposes the cause which produce it. Lenz’s law is in accordance with law of conservation of energy.

Question 5.
What happens to the mechanical energy (of motion) .when a conductor is moved in a uniform magnetic field ?
Answer:
Motional e.m.f is produced to the motion of the conductor,in a magnetic field.
Motion e.m.f (ε) = Blυ

Question 6.
What are Eddy currents ? (T.S. Mar. ’19; A.P. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
Eddy currents (or) Foucault currents : The induced circulating currents produced in a conductor itself due to change in magnetic flux linked with the conductor are called Eddy currents.
Due to Eddy currents, the energy is dissipated in the form of heat energy.

Question 7.
Define ‘inductance’.
Answer:
Inductance is a coefficient of electromagnetic induction and is an intrinsic property of a material just like capacitance.
Inductance is an important scalar quantity which depends upon the geometry (i.e, dimensions) of a coil.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 8.
What do you understand by ‘self inductance’ ?
Answer:
Self inductance of a coil is defined as the induced e.m.f produced in the coil through which the rate of change of current is unity.
ε = \(-\mathrm{L} \frac{\mathrm{dI}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) ; ε = -L, If \(\frac{\mathrm{dI}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = 1 A/s.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Obtain an expression for the emf induced across a conductor which is moved in a uniform magnetic field which is perpendicular to the plane of motion.
Answer:
Consider a conductor PQ of length l moving freely in a uniform magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) with uniform velocity u on a rectangular conductor ABCD. Let any arbitrary charge q in the conductor also move in the field with same velocity.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 1
Magnitude of Lorentz force on this charge (F) = Bqυ —– (1)
Workdone in moving the charge from P to Q is given by
W = Force × displacement
W = Bqυ × l —– (2) (∵ Direction of force on the charge as per Fleming’s left hand rule)
Electromotive force (ε) = \(\frac{W}{Q}\)
ε = \(\frac{\mathrm{Bqv} l}{\mathrm{q}}\) ⇒ ε = Blυ —- (3)

Question 2.
Describe the ways in which Eddy currents are used to advantage. (A.P. Mar. ’16, AP & T.S. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
Eddy currents are used to advantage in

  1. Magnetic braking in trains : A strong magnetic field is applied across the metallic drum rotating with the axle of the electric train. Thus large eddy currents are produced in the metallic drum. These currents oppose the motion of the drum and hence the axle of the train which ultimately makes the train come to rest.
  2. Induction Motor: Eddy currents are used to rotate the short circuited rotor of an induction motor. Ceiling fans are also induction motors which run on single phase alternating current.
  3. Electromagnetic damping : Certain galvanometers have a fixed core made of non magnetic metallic material. When the coil oscillates, the eddy currents generated in the core oppose the motion and bring the coil to rest quickly.
  4. Induction furnace : Induction furnace can be used to produce high temperatures and can be utilised to prepare alloys, by melting the constituent metals. A high frequency alternating current is passed through a coil. The eddy currents generated in the metals produce high temperatures sufficient to melt it.
  5. Analogue energy meters : Concept of eddy currents is used in energy meters to record
    the consumption of electricity. Aluminium disc used in these meters get induced due to varying magnetic field. It rotates due to eddy currents produced in it.

Question 3.
Obtain an expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids. (A.P. Mar. ’19)
Answer:
Consider two solenoids as shown in figure. The length of primary coil be l and are a of cross section A. Let N1 and N2 are the total number of turns in the primary and secondary solenoids. Let n1 and n2 be the number of turns per unit length
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 2
(n1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_1}{l}\) and n2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_2}{l}\)). Current in the primary coil is i.
∴ Magnetic field inside the primary (B) = μ0n1 I = μ0\(\frac{\mathrm{N}_1}{l}\) I —– (1)
Magnetic flux through each turn of primary
ϕB = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) = μ0\(\frac{\mathrm{N}_1}{l} \mathrm{I} \times \mathrm{A}\) —— (2)

The same magnetic flux is linked with the secondary coil.
∴ Total magnetic flux linked with secondary = μ0\(\frac{\mathrm{N}_1 \mathrm{i}}{l} \times \mathrm{A} \times \mathrm{N}_2\) ——– (3)
If M be mutual inductance of the two coils, the total flux linked with the secondary is Mi
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 4

Question 4.
Obtain an expression for the magnetic energy stored a solenoid in terms of the magnetic field, area and length of the solenoid.
Answer:
When the current flows through the inductor of inductance L, an e.m.f is induced in it is given by
ε = -L\(\frac{\mathrm{dI}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) —– (1)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 5
(-ve sign shows that e.m.f opposes the passage of current)
Let an infinite small charge dq be driven through the inductor. So the work done by the external voltage is given by
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 6
Total work done to maintain the maximum current (I0) is given by
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 7
This work done is stored in the form of potential energy in the magnetic field (U)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 8
In case of solenoid B = μ0nI0 (or) I0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\mu_0 \mathrm{n}}\) and L = μ0n2Al
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 9

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Outline the path-breaking experiments of Faraday and Henry and highlight the contributions of these experiments to our understanding of electromagnetism.
Answer:
Faraday’s and Henry’s experiments :

Experiment 1: A magnet induces current due to relative motion

  1. The apparatus consists of a coil with a galvanometer G and a bar magnet.
  2. When the bar magnet (NS) was at rest, the galvanometer shows no deflection.
  3. When North pole of the bar magnet moved towards the coil, galvanometer shows the deflection in one direction indicating the flow of current in the coil.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 10
  4. When North pole of the bar magnet moved away from the coil, galvanometer again showed the deflection but now in the opposite direction.
  5. The deflection of the galvanometer was large when the bar magnet was moved faster towards (or) away from the coil.
  6. When south pole of the magnet was brought near the coil (or) moved away from the coil, the deflections in the galvanometer are opposite to that observed with the north pole for similar movements.

Conclusion:

  1. Whenever there is a relative motion between a coil and a magnet, induced current flows through the coil.
  2. Large induced e.m.f. (or) current is produced in the coil if the relative motion between magnet and the coil is large.

Experiment 2 : Current induces current due to relative motion of coils :
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 11

  1. The bar magnet is replaced by a secondary coil C2 connected to a battery as shown in figure.
  2. The steady current in the coil C2 produces a steady magnetic field.
  3. As coil C2 is moved towards the coil C1, the galvanometer shows a deflection. This indicates current is induced in the coil C1.
  4. When coil C2 is moved away, the galvanometer shows a deflection again, but opposite direction.
  5. The deflection lasts as long as coil C2 is in motion.
  6. When the coil C2 is held fixed and C1 is moved, the same effects are observed.

Conclusion : Induced e.m.f (or) current is produced, when there is a relative motion between the coils.

Experiment 3: Changing current, Induces current without relative motion:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 12

  1. Faraday showed that this relative motion is not an absolute requirement.
  2. Figure shows two coils C1 and C2 held stationary.
  3. Coil C1 is connected to a battery through a tap key K and coil C2 is connected to a galvanometer (G).
  4. it is observed that the galvanometer shows a momentary deflection when the tap key K is pressed.
  5. The pointer in the galvanometer returns to zero immediately.
  6. If the key is held pressed continuously, there is no deflection in the galvanometer.
  7. When the key is released, the galvanometer shows deflection again but in the opposite direction.
  8. Deflection of the galvanometer increases a lot when wooden bar is replaced by iron bar.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 2.
Describe the working of a AC generator with the aid of a simple diagram and necessary expressions.
Answer:
“An electrical machine used to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy is known as A.C generator/altemator”.
Principle : It works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.

Construction :

  1. Armature : Armature coil (ABCD) consists of a large number of turns of insulated copper wire wound over a soft iron core.
  2. Strong field magnet : A strong permanent magnet (or) an electromagnet whose poles (N and S) are cylindrical in shape used as a field magnet. The armature coil rotates between the pole pieces of the field magnet.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 13
  3. Slip rings: The two ends of the armature coil are connected to two brass slip rings R1 and R2. These rings rotate along with the armature coil.
  4. Brushes : Two carbon brushes B1 and B2 are pressed against the slip rings. The brushes remain fixed while slip rings rotate along with the armature. These brushes are connected to the load through which the out put is obtained.

Working : When the armature coil ABCD rotates is the magnetic field provided by the strong field magnet, it cuts the magnetic line of force. The magnetic flux linked with the coil changes due to the rotation of the armature and hence induced e.m.f is set up in the coil.

The current flows out through the brush B in one direction of half of revolution and through the brush B2 in the next half revolution in the reverse direction. This process is repeated, therefore e.m.f produced is of alternating nature.

Theory:

  1. When the coil is rotated with a constant angular velocity (ω)
  2. The angle between the normal to the coil and magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) at any instant is given by θ = ωt —— (1)
  3. The component of magnetic field normal to the plane of the coil = B cos θ = B cosωt —— (2)
  4. Magnetic flux linked with the single turn of the coil = (B cos ωt) A —— (3)
    where A is the area of the coil, if the coil has n turns
  5. Total magnetic flux linked with the coil (ϕ) = n(B cos ωt) A —– (4)
    According to Faraday’s law,

ε = \(-\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(-\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)(nBA cos ωt) = -nBA(-ω sin ωt)
ε = nBA ω sin ωt —— (5)
Where nBAω is the maximum value of e.m.f. (ε0)
ε = ε0 sin ωt —– (6) (∵ ω = 2πυ)

Instantaneous current is the circuit is given by
I = \(\frac{\varepsilon}{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\frac{\varepsilon_0}{\mathrm{R}}\) sin ωt [∵ i = \(\frac{\varepsilon_0}{\mathrm{R}}\)]
I = I0 sin ωt
The direction of the current changes periodically and therefore the current is called alternating current (a.c.).

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
Predict the direction of induced current in the situations described by the following (a) to (f).
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 14
Answer:
a) Here south pole is moving towards the coil, so according to Lenz’s law this end becomes s-pole. (To oppose the motion of south pole by repelling it). Hence, the direction of current is clockwise (by using clock rule) and the current flows from p to q.

b) In coil p-q at the end q ⇒ s-pole is moving towards end q, so it behaves like a south pole (by lenz’s law). The direction of current is clockwise (by clock rule) i.e. from p to q. North pole is moving away so this end will behave like south pole (To oppose its away motion by attracting it). In coil x-y, S-pole is induced (by Lenz’s law) and the direction of current is clockwise i.e. x to y.

c) As the tapping key is just, closed, the current in coil increases so, the magnetic flux and field increases. According to Maxwell’s right hand grip rule, the direction of magnetic field is left wards. Thus, the direction of induced current in the neighbouring coil is such that it try to decrease the field, thus the direction of field in the neighbouring coil should be rightwards i.e., according to Maxwell’s right hand rule the direction of induced current is anti clock wise i.e. xyz.

d) As the rheostat setting is changed, the current is changed. The direction of field due to the coil is leftwards according to Maxwell’s right hand grip rule. The direction of induced current in the left coil is such that the magnetic field produced by it in rightwards, thus the direction of current in left coil is Anticlockwise i.e from zyx.

e) As the key is just released, the current which is flowing anticlockwise goes on decreasing. Thus, the induced current developed in such a sense the magnetic field due to left coil increases (which is towards right). So, the magnetic field due to the right coil should also towards right and hence the induced current is in anticlockwise, i.e., x to yx – direction.

f) The magnetic field lines due to the current carrying wire are in the plane of the loop. Hence, no induced current is produced in the loop (because no flux lines crosses the area of loop).

Question 2.
Use Lenz’s law to determine the direction of induced current in the situations described by fig. a, b.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 15
(a) A wire of irregular shape turning into a circular shape.
(b) A circular loop being deformed into a narrow straight wire.
Answer:
a) Here, the direction of magnetic field is perpendicularly inwards to the plane of paper. If a wire of irregular shape turns into a circular shape then its area increases (∵ the circular loop has greater area than the loop of irregular shape) so that the magnetic flux linked also increases. Now, the induced current is produced in a direction such that it decreases the magnetic field (i.e.) the current will flow in such a direction so that the wire forming the loop is pulled inwards in all directions (to decreases the area) i.e., current is in anticlockwise direction, i.e., adcba

b) When a circular loop deforms into a narrow straight wire, the magnetic flux linked with it also decreases. The current induced due to change in flux will flow in such a direction that it will oppose the decrease in magnetic flux so it will flow anti clockwise i.e along a’d’c’b’a’, due to which the magnetic field produced will be out of the plane of paper.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 3.
A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm2 placed inside the solenoid normal to its axis. If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from 2.0 A to 4.0 A in 0.1 s, what is the induced emf in the loop while the current is changing ?
Solution:
Given number of turns (n) = 15 per cm = 1500 per metre. .
Area of small loop A = 2 cm2 = 2 × 10-4m2
Change in current \(\frac{\mathrm{dI}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{4-2}{0.1}\) = \(\frac{2}{0.1}\) = 20 A/s
Let e be the induced emf, According to Faraday’s law,
e = \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)(BA) or e = \(\text { A. } \frac{\mathrm{dB}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) (∵ ϕ = BA)
e = A. \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}\left(\mu_0 \mathrm{nI}\right)\) (∵ Magnetic field inside the solenoid B = μ0nI)
or e = Aμ0n\(\frac{\mathrm{dI}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
e = 2 × 10-4 × 4 × 3.14 × 10-7 × 1500 × 20
e = 7.5 × 106v (∵ μ0 = 4π × 10-7) Thus, the induced emf in the loop is 7.5 × 106V.

Question 4.
A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 2 cm with a small cut is moving out of region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the loop. What is the emf developed across the cut if the velocity of the loop is 1 cm s-1 in a direction normal to the (a) longer side, (b) shorter side of the loop ? For how long does the induced voltage last in each case ?
Solution:
Given length of the loop l = 8 cm = 8 × 10-2 m.
Width of the loop b = 2 cm = 2 × 10-2 m.
Velocity of the loop = 1 cm/s = 0.01 m/s.
Magnitude of magnetic field (B) = 0.3
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 16
a) When velocity is normal to the longer side .
(l = 8 cm = 8 × 10-2 m)
In this case, motional emf
e = B/υ = 0.3 × 8 × 10-2 × 0.01 = 2.4 × 10-4 V
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 17

b) When velocity is normal to the shorter side
(l = 2cm = 2 × 10-2 m)
In this case, the developed emf
e = Blυ = 0.3 × 2 × 10-2 × 0.01
e = 0.6 × 10-4 V.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 19
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 18

Question 5.
A 1.0 m long metallic rod is rotated with an angular frequency of 400 rad s-1 about an axis normal to the rod passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in contact with a circular metallic ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T parallel to the axis exists everywhere. Calculate the emf developed between the centre and the ring.
Solution:
Length of rod l = 1 m
Angular frequency of rod ω = 400 rad/s
Magnetic field B = 0.5 T
The linear velocity of fixed end = 0
The linear velocity of other end = lω (∵ V = rω)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 20
Average linear velocity V = \(\frac{0+l \omega}{2}\)
V = \(\frac{l \omega}{2}\) —– (i) By using the formula of motional emf,
e = Bυl = \(\frac{\mathrm{B} l \omega}{2}\) (from equation (i)), e = \(\frac{0.5 \times 1 \times 400 \times 1}{2}\), e = 100.
Thus, the emf developed between the centre and ring is 100 V

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 6.
A circular coil of radius 8.0 cm and 20 turns is rotated about its vertical diameter with an angular speed of 50 rad s-1 in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 3.0 × 10-2 T. Obtain the maximum and average emf induced in the coil. If the coil forms a closed loop of resistance 10Ω, calculate the maximum value of current in the coil. Calculate the average power loss due to Joule heating. Where does this power come from ?
Solution:
Given radius of coil = 8 cm = 0.08 m, Number of turns = 20
Resistance of closed loop = 10Ω, Angular speed ω = 50 rad/s
Magnitude of magnetic field B = 3 × 10-2 T
Induced emf produced in the coil e = NBA W sin ωt
For maximum emf, sin ωt = 1
∴ Maximum emf e0 = NBAω
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 21
The source of power dissipated as heat in the coil is the external rotar. The current induced in the coil causes a torque which opposes the rotation of the coil, so the external agent rotar counter this torque to keep the coil rotating uniformly.

Question 7.
A horizontal straight wire 10 m long extending from east to west is falling with a speed of 5.0 m s-1, at right angles to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field, 0.30 × 10-4 Wb m2.
(a) What is the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire ?
(b) What is the direction of the emf ?
(c) Which end of the wire is at the higher electrical potential ?
Solution:
Given, velocity of straight wire = 5 m/s
Magnetic field of straight wire,
B = 0.30 × 10-4 Wb/m2
length of wire l = 10m
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 22
a) Emf induced in the wire e = B/υsin θ
Here, θ = 90°
∴ sin θ = 1 .
(∴ wire is falling at right angle to earth’s horizontal magnetic field component)
= 0.3 × 10-4 × 10 × 5 = 1.5 × 10-3 V.

b) According to the Fleming’s right hand rule, the force is downward, then the direction of induced emf will be from west to east.

c) As the direction of induced emf or current is from west to east, the west end of the wire is at higher potential.
(∵ current always flows from a point at higher potential to a point at lower potential).

Question 8.
Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V induced, give an estimate of the self-inductance of the circuit. (T.S. Mar. ’16, Mar. ’14)
Solution:
Change in current, dI = 5 – 0 = 5A, Time taken in current change dt = 0.1 s
Induced average emf eav = 200 V
Induced emf in the circuit e = L. \(\frac{\mathrm{dI}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) ⇒ 200 = L\(\left(\frac{5}{0.1}\right)\) or L = \(\frac{200}{50}\) = 4H

Question 9.
A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the current in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil ?
Solution:
Given, mutual inductance of coil M = 1.5 H, Current change in coil dl = 20 – 0 = 20 A
Time taken in change dt = 0.5s, Induced emf in the coil e = M\(\frac{\mathrm{dI}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
dϕ = M.dl = 1.5 × 20, dϕ = 30 Wb, Thus the change of flux linkage is 30 Wb.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 10.
A jet plane is travelling towards west at a speed of 1800 km/h. What is the voltage difference developed between the ends of the wing having a span of 25 m, if the Earth’s magnetic field at the location has a magnitude of 5 × 10-4 T and the dip angle is 30°.
Solution:
Speed of jet plane V = 1800 km/h = 1800 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 500 m/s
l = Distance between the ends of wings = 25 m
The magnitude of magnetic field B = 5 × 10-4 T
Angle of dip γ = 30°.
Use the formula of motional emf
e = BvVl, e = B sin γ Vl (Bv = B sin γ),
e = 5 × 10-4 × sin 30° × 500 × 25, e = 3.1 V
Thus, the voltage difference developed between the ends is 3.1 V

Additional Question

Question 1.
Obtain an expression for the self inductance of a solenoid.
Answer:
i) Consider a long solenoid of length l, area of cross-section A. Let n be the number of turns per unit length (n = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{l}\))

ii) Let i be the current flows through it. The magnetic field inside the solenoid is given by
B = μ0ni —— (1)

iii) Magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid = B.A = μ0niA —— (2)

iv) Total magnetic flux linked with whole solenoid
ϕ = μ0niA × N (∵ N = nl)
ϕ = μ0ni A × nl (Where N Total number of turns in the solenoid)
ϕ = μ0n2iAl —— (3) Also, ϕ = Li —– (4) From eq’s (3) & (4), Li = μ0n2iAl
L = μ0n2Al —– (5) (or) L = μ0\(\frac{\mathrm{N}^2}{l}\)A —– (6)

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
Suppose the loop in Textual Exercise 4 is stationary but the current feeding the electromagnet that produces the magnetic field is gradually reduced so that the field decreases from its initial value of 0.3 T at the rate of 0.02 T s-1. If the cut is joined and the loop has a resistance of 1.6Ω how much power is dissipated by the loop as heat ? What is the source of this power ?
Solution:
Area of loop = 8 × 2 = 16 cm2
Rate of change of magnetic field \(\frac{\mathrm{dB}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = 0.02 T/S,
Resistance of loop R = 1.6Ω
Induced emf of loop e = \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}(\mathrm{BA})\) (∵ ϕ = BA)
e = A. \(\frac{\mathrm{dB}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) ⇒ e = 16 × 10-4 × 0.02 ⇒ e = 0.32 × 10-4V
Induced current in the loop I = \(\frac{e}{R}\) = \(\frac{0.32 \times 10^{-4}}{1.6}\) = 0.2 × 10-4A
Power of source as heat P = I2R = (0.2 × 10-4)2 × 1.6 = 6.4 × 10-10 W ⇒ P = 6.4 × 10-10W
The agency which changing the magnetic field with time is the source of this power.

Question 2.
A square loop of side 12 cm with its sides parallel to X and Y axes is moved with a velocity of 8 cm s-1 in the positive x-direction in an environment containing a magnetic field in the positive z-direction. The field is neither uniform in space nor constant in time. It has a gradient of 10-3 T cm-1 along the negative x-direction (that is it increases by 10-3 T cm-1 as one moves in the negative x-direction), and it is decreasing in time at the rate of 10-3 Ts-1. Determine the direction and magnitude of the induced current in the loop if its resistance is 4.50 mΩ.
Solution:
Given, side of loop a = 12 cm
∴ Area of loop (A) = a2 = (12)2 = 144 cm2 = 144 × 10-4 m2 (∵ Area of square = (side)2)
Velocity v = 8 cm/s = 8 × 10-2 m/s.
Rate of change of magnetic field with distance \(\frac{\mathrm{dB}}{\mathrm{dx}}\) = 10-3 T/cm
Rate of change of magnetic field with time \(\frac{\mathrm{dB}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = 10-3 T/s
Resistance of the loop R = 4.5 mΩ = 4.5 × 10-3Ω
Rate of change of magnetic flux with respect to time
\(\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}(\mathrm{BA})}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{dB}}{\mathrm{dt}}\right) \mathrm{A}\) = 10-3 × 144 × 10-4
= 1.44 × 10-5 Wb/s
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 23
Rate of change of magnetic flux due to the motion of loop
\(\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{dB}}{\mathrm{dx}} \cdot \mathrm{A} \cdot \frac{\mathrm{dx}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = 10-3 × 144 × 10-4 × 8 = 11.52 × 10-5 Wb/s
Both of the effects cause a decrease in magnetic flux along the positive z-direction.
Total induced emf in the loop e = 1.44 × 10-5 + 11.52 × 10-5
e = 12.96 × 10-5 V
Induced current in the loop = \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\frac{12.96 \times 10^{-5}}{4.5 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 2.88 × 10-2A.
The direction of induced current is such as to increase the flux through the loop along positive z-direction.

Question 3.
It is desired to measure the magnitude of field between the poles of a powerful loud speaker magnet. A small flat search coil of area 2 cm2 with 25 closely wound turns, is positioned normal to the field direction and then quickly snatched out of the field region. Equivalently, one can give it a quick 90° turn to bring its plane parallel to the field direction). The total charge flown in the coil (measured by a ballistic galvanometer connected to coil) is 7.5 mC. The combined resistance of the coil and the galvanometer is 0.50Ω Estimate the field strength of magnet.
Solution:
Area of coil A = 2cm2 = 2 × 10-4 m2, Number of turns N = 25
Total charge in the coil θ = 7.5 mC (1 mC = 10-3 C) = 7.5 × 10-3 C
Resistance of coil R = 0.5Ω
When the coil is removed from the field, the flux is zero ϕf = 0. Induced current in the coil
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 24
Thus, the strength of magnetic field is 0.75 T.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 4.
Following figure shows a metal rod PQ resting on the smooth rails AB and positioned between the poles of a permanent magnet. The rails, the rod and the magnetic field are in three mutual perpendicular directions. A galvanometer G connects the rails through a switch K. Length of the rod = 15 cm, B = 0.50 T, resistance of the closed loop containing the rod = 9.0 mΩ. Assume the field to be uniform.
(a) Suppose K is open and the rod is moved with a speed of 12 cm s-1 in the direction shown. Give the polarity and magnitude of the induced emf.
(b) Is there an excess charge built up at the ends of the rods when K is open ? What if K is closed ?
(c) With K open and the rod moving uniformly, there is no net force on the electrons in the rod PQ even though they do experience magnetic force due to the motion of the rod. Explain.
(d) What is the retarding force on the rod when K is closed ?
(e) How much power is required (by an external agent) to keep the rod moving at the same speed (= 12 cm s-1) when K is closed ? How much power is required when K is open ?
(f) How much power is dissipated as heat in the closed circuit ? What is source of this power ?
(g) What is the induced emf in the moving rod if the magnetic field is parallel to the rails instead of being perpendicular ?
Solution:
Given, length of the rod l = 15 cm = 15 × 10-2, Magnetic field B = 0.50 T
Resistance of the closed – loop containing the rod, R = 9mΩ ⇒ 9 × 10-3Ω
Velocity of rod V = 12 cm/s = 12 × 10-2 m/s,
a) The magnitude of the motional emf
e = BVl = 0.50 × 12 × 10-2 × 15 × 10-2, e = 9 × 10-3 V.
According to the Fleming’s left hand rule, the direction of Lorentz force (f = -e(V × B)) on electrons in PQ is from P to Q. So, p would acquire positive charge and Q would acquire negative charge.

b) Yes, an excess positive charge developes at P and the same amount of negative charge developes at Q as the key is open. When the key K is closed, the induced current flows and maintains the excess charge.

c) When key is open, there is no net force on the electrons because the presence of excess charge at P and Q sets up an electric field and magnetic force on the electrons is balanced by force on them due to force by the electric field. So, there is no net force on the rod.

d) When the key K is closed, current flow in the loop and the current carrying wise experience a retarding force in the magnetic field which is given by
Force = BIl = B . \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{R}}\) . l = \(\frac{0.5 \times 9 \times 10^{-3} \times 15 \times 10^{-12}}{9 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 7.5 × 10-2 N.

e) To keep the rod moving at the same speed the required power
= retarding force × velocity = 7.5 × 10-2 × 12 × 10-2 = 9 × 10-3 W

f) Power dissipated in closed circuit due to flow of current = I2R
= \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{R}}\right)^2\) × R = \(\frac{\left(9 \times 10^{-3}\right)^2}{9 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 9 × 10-3 W2 The source of this power is the external agent.

g) When the field is parallel to length of rails θ = 0°, induced emf = e = BVl sin θ = 0 (∵ sin θ° = 0). In this situation, the moving rod will not cut the field lines so that flux change is zero and hence induced emf is zero.

Question 5.
An air-cored solenoid with length 30 cm, area of cross-section 25 cm2 and number of turns 500, carries a current of 2.5 A. The current is suddenly switched off in a brief time of 10-3s. How much is the average back emf induced across the ends of the open switch in the circuit? Ignore the variation in magnetic field near the ends of the solenoid.
Solution:
Given, length of solenoid I = 30 cm = 30 × 10-2 m
Area of cross-section A = 25 cm2 = 25 × 10-4 m2
Number of turns N = 500, Current I1 = 2.5A, I2 = 0, Brief time dt = 10-3s.
Induced emf in the solenoid e = \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}(\mathrm{BA})}{\mathrm{dt}}\) (∵ ϕ = BA)
Magnetic field induction B at a point well inside the long solenoid carring current I is
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 25

Question 6.
Obtain an expression for the mutual inductance between a long straight wire and a square loop of side a as shown in the figure.
(b) Now assume that the straight wire carries a current of 50 A and the loop is moved to the right with a constant velocity, υ = 10 m/s. Calculate the induced emf in the loop at the instant when x = 0.2 m.
Take α = 0.1 m and assume that the loop has a large resistance.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 26
Solution:
a) Let us assume that an elementary strip of width dx a at distance x from the wire carring current I.
Side of square = a.
The magnetic field due to current carring wire at a distance x from the wire is
B = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \cdot \frac{2 I}{x}\) —— (i)
Small amount of magnetic flux associated with the strip
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 27
As we know that ϕ = MI —— (iii)
where, M is mutual inductance. From equations (ii) and (iii) we get
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 32
This is mutual inductance between wire and square loop.

b) Given current I = 50 A, Velocity V = 10 m/s, x = 0.2 m and a = 0.1 m
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 28

Question 7.
A line charge λ per unit length is lodged uniformly onto the rim of a wheel of mass M and radius R. The wheel has light non-conducting spokes and is free to rotate without friction about its axis (figure). A uniform magnetic field extends over a circular region within the rim. It is given by,
B = B0k (r ≤ a, a < R)
= 0 (otherwise)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 29
What is the angular velocity of the wheel after the field is suddenly switched off?
Solution:
Given Linear charge density
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 30
Radius of rim = R,
Mass of rim = M,
Magnetic field extends over a circular region
B = -B0 (r ≤ a, a < R) = O (otherwise).
Let the angular velocity of the wheel be w, then induced emf e = \(\frac{-\mathrm{d} \phi}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
E exist along circumference of radius a due to change in magnetic flux.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Electromagnetic Induction 31

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 8th Lesson Magnetism and Matter Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 8th Lesson Magnetism and Matter

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
A magnetic dipole placed in a magnetic field experiences a net force. What can you say about the nature of the magnetic field?
Answer:
The nature of the magnetic field is uniform, magnetic dipole (bar magnet) experiences a net force (or torque).

Question 2.
What happens to compass needles at the Earth’s poles?
Answer:
At the poles, the earth’s field is exactly vertical. So, the compass needles are free to rotate in a horizontal plane only, it may point out in any direction.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 3.
What do you understand by the ‘magnetization’ of a sample? (A.P. Mar. ’16)
Answer:
When a magnetic sample is placed in a magnetic field, its magnetic moments add up in the direction of the magnetic field. Hence the sample get a net magnetic moment (mnet ≠ 0)
Magnetisation is defined as the net magnetic moment per unit volume i.e., M = \(\frac{m_{\text {net }}}{V}\)

Question 4.
What is the magnetic moment associated with a solenoid?
Answer:
Magnetic dipole moment in a solinoid m = NIA
Where ‘N’ is the number of turns in the loop, ‘I’ the current and A the area vector.

Question 5.
What are the units of magnetic moment, magnetic induction and magnetic filed ?
Answer:
Unit of

  1. magnetic moment m is Am2 or J T-1.
  2. Magnetic induction – wb m-2 or Tesla (T)
  3. magnetic field – Tesla.

Question 6.
Magnetic lines form continuous closed loops. Why ? (A.P. Mar. 16)
Answer:
Magnetic lines of force always start from north pole and forming curved path, enter south pole and travel to north pole inside the magnet. Thus lines of force are forming closed loops.

Question 7.
Define magnetic declination. (Mar. ’14)
Answer:
Magnetic Declinatin (D) : The angle between the true geographic north and the north shown by a compass needle is called magnetic declination or simply declination (D).
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 36

Question 8.
Define magnetic inclination or angle of dip. (A.P. & T.S. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
Inclination or Dip (I) : The angle which the total intensity of earth’s magnetic field makes with the horizontal at any place is called inclination (I).

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 9.
Classify the following materials with regard to magnetism : Manganese, Cobalt, Nickel, Bismuth, Oxygen, Copper. (A.P. Mar. ’19 & T.S. Mar. ’16, ’15)
Answer:
Ferromagnetic materials → Cobalt, Nickel.
Paramagnetic materials → Oxygen, Manganese
Diamagnetic materials → Bismuth, Copper

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Derive an expression for the axial field of a solenoid of radius “a”, containing “n” turns per unit length and carrying current “i”.
Answer:
Expression for the axial field of a solenoid :

  1. Consider a solinoid of length ‘2l’ and radius ‘a’ having ‘n’ turns per unit length.
  2. Let ‘I’ be the current in the solenoid.
  3. We have to calculate magnetic field at any point P on the axis of solenoid, where OP = r.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 1
  4. Consider a small element of thickness dx of the solenoid, at a distance ‘x’ from ‘O’.
  5. Number of turns in the element = ndx.
  6. Magnitude of magnetic field at P due to this current element is dB = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{ndx} \cdot \mathrm{Ia}^2}{2\left[(\mathrm{r}-\mathrm{x})^2+\mathrm{a}^2\right]^{3 / 2}}\)
  7. If P lies at a very large distance from 0, i.e., r > > a and r > > x, then [(r – x)2 + a2]3/2 = r3.
    ⇒ dB = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{ndx} \mid \mathrm{a}^2}{2 \mathrm{r}^3}\)
  8. To get total magnetic field, integrating the above equation between the limits from X = -l to X = +l.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 2
  9. The magnitude of the magnetic moment of the solenoid is, m = n(2l) I (πa2).
    B = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{2 \mathrm{~m}}{\mathrm{r}^3}\)
  10. Therefore, magnetic moment of a bar magnet is equal to magnetic moment of an equivalent solenoid that produces the same magnetic field.

Question 2.
The force between two magnet poles separated by a distance’d’ in air is ‘F. At what distance between them does the force become doubled ?
Answer:
Force between two magnetic poles, F1 = F;
Distance between two magnetic poles, d1 = d
Force between two magnetic poles increased by double F2 = 2F
Distance between two magnetic poles, d2 = ?
From Coulombs law, \(\mathrm{F}_1 \mathrm{~d}_1^2\) = \(\mathrm{F}_2 \mathrm{~d}_2^2\)
Fd2 = 2 F \(\mathrm{d}_2^2\)
⇒ \(\mathrm{d}_2^2\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}^2}{2}\)
∴ d2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 3.
Compare the properties of para, dia and ferromagnetic substances.
Answer:
Diamagnetic substances

a) When these materials placed in a magnetic field, they are magnetised feebly in the opposite direction to the applied external field.
b) When a rod of diamagnetic material is suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field, it comes to rest in the perpendicular direction to the magnetic field.
c) When they kept in a non uniform magnetic field, they moves from the region of greater field strength to the region of less field strength.
d) The relative permeability is less than 1. μr < 1 and negative.
e) The susceptibility \((\chi)\) is low and negative.
E.g. : Copper, Silver, Water, Gold, Antimony, Bismuth, Mercury Quartz Diamond etc.

Paramagnetic Substance

a) When these materials placed in a magnetic field, they are magnetised feebly in the direction of the applied magnetic field.
b) When a rod of paramagnetic material is suspended freely in a uniform magneticfield, it comes to rest in the direction of the applied magnetic field.
c) When they kept in a non-uniform magnetic field, they moves from the region of less field strength to the region of greater field strength.
d) The relative permeability is greater than 1. μr > 1 and positive.
e) The susceptibility \((\chi)\) is small and positive.
E.g. : Aluminium, Magnetiam, Tungsten, Platinum, Manganese, liquid oxygen, Ferric chloride, Cupric chloride etc.

Fêrromagnetic substances

a) When these materials placed in a magnetic field, they are magnetised strongly in the direction of the applied external field.
b) When a rod of ferromagnetic material is suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field, it comes to rest in the direction of the applied magnetic field.
c) When they kept in a non-uniform magnetic field they moves from the regions of lesser (magnetic field) strength to the regions of stronger (magnetic field) strength.
d) The relative permeability is much greater than μr >> 1 and positive.
e) The stisceptibility \((\chi)\) is high and positive.
E.g. : Iron, Cobalt, Nickel, Gadolinium and their alloys.

Question 4.
Explain the elements of the Earth’s magnetic field and draw a sketch showing the relationship between the vertical component, horizontal component and angle of dip.
Answer:
The magnetic field of the earth at a point on its surface can be specified by the declination D, the angle of dip or the inclination I and the horizontal component of the earth’s field HE. These are known as the elements of the earth’s magnetic field.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 3

Explanation:

  1. The total magnetic field at P can be resolved into a horizontal component HE and a vertical component ZE.
  2. The angle that BE makes with HE is the angle of dip, I.
  3. Representing the vertical component by ZE, we have
    ZE = BE Sin I
    HE = BE Cos I
    Which gives Tan I = \(\frac{\mathrm{Z}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{H}_{\mathrm{E}}}\)

Question 5.
Define retentivity and coercivity. Draw the hysteresis curve for soft iron and steel. What do you infer from these curves ?
Answer:

  1. Retentivity : The value of magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) left in the specimen, when the magnetising force (H) is reduced to zero is called Retentivity or Remanence or Residual magnetism.
  2. Coercivity : To reduce the retentivity to zero, we have to apply a magnetising force in opposite direction. This value of magnetising force is called coercivity or coercive force.
  3. Hysterisis eurve: The curve represents the relation between magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) (or) intensity of magnetization (I) of a ferromagnetic material with magnetizing force (or) magnetic intensity (\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{H}}\)) is called Hystersis curve.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 4
  4. Hysterisis curve for soft Iron and steel is shown below.
    The hysterisis loops of soft iron and steel reveal that

    1. The retentivity of soft iron is greater than the retentivity of steel.
    2. Soft Iron is more strongly magnetised than steel.
    3. Coercivity of Soft Iron is less than coercivity of steel. It means soft Iron loses its magnetisation more rapidly than steel does.
    4. As area of I – H loop for soft Iron is smaller than the area of I – H loop for steel. Therefore hysterisis loss in case of soft Iron is smaller than the hysterisis loss in case of steel.

Question 6.
If B is the magnetic field produced at the centre of a circular coil of one turn of length L carrying current I then what is the magnetic field at the centre of the same coil which is made into 10 turns ?
Answer:
For first circular coil; B1 = B, n1 = 1; I1 = I; a1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{2 \pi}\)
For second circular coil, B2 = ? n2 = 10; I2 = I; a2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{2 \pi}\)
As B = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{n} I \mathrm{a}^2}{2 \mathrm{r}}\), B ∝ n
\(\frac{\mathrm{B}_2}{\mathrm{~B}_1}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}_2}{\mathrm{n}_1}\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{B}_2}{\mathrm{~B}}\) = \(\frac{10}{1}\)
∴ B2 = 10 B

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 7.
If the number of turns of a solenoid is doubled, keeping the other factors constant, how does the magnetic field at the axis of the solenoid change?
Answer:
B1 = B (say); n1 = n; n2 = 2n; B2 =?
Magnetic field at the centre of a solinoid is given by B = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{nI} \mathrm{a}^2(2 l)}{2 \mathrm{r}^3}\)
⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{B}_2}{\mathrm{~B}_1}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}_2}{\mathrm{n}_1}\) ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{B}_2}{\mathrm{~B}}\) = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{n}}{\mathrm{n}}\)
∴ B2 = 2 B

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Derive an expression for the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a current carrying circular loop.
Answer:
Expression for the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a current carrying circular loop:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 5

  1. Consider ‘O’ is the centre of a circular coil of one turn and radius ‘a’.
  2. Let P is a point at a distance r from the centre, along the axis of coil.
  3. The plane of the coil is ⊥r to the plane of paper.
  4. Consider two elements AB and AB’ each of length dl which are diametrically opposite.
  5. Then, the magnetic fields at P due to these two elements will be dB and dB in the direction PM and PN respectively.
  6. These directions are ⊥r to the lines joining the mid-points of the elements with the point P
  7. Resolve these fields into two components parallel (dB sin θ) and perpendicular (dB cos θ) to the axis of the coil.
  8. The dB cos θ components cancel one another and dB sin θ components are in the same direction and add up due to the symmetric elements of the circular coil.
  9. Therefore, the total magnetic field along the axis = B = \(\int \mathrm{dB}\) sin θ of the circular coil along PC —– (1)
  10. The magnetic field at ‘P’ due to current element of length ‘dl’ is
    ‘dB’ = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{I d l \sin \phi}{\left(a^2+x^2\right)}\) = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{Id} l}{\left(\mathrm{a}^2+\mathrm{r}^2\right)}\) —– (II) [∵ φ = 90°]
  11. From equation (I) and (II), B = \(\int \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{Id} l}{\left(\mathrm{a}^2+\mathrm{r}^2\right)} \sin \theta\)
    From Δle OPE, sin θ = \(\frac{a}{\sqrt{\left(a^2+r^2\right)}}\)
    ⇒ B = \(\int \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{Id} l \mathrm{a}}{\left(\mathrm{a}^2+\mathrm{r}^2\right)^{3 / 2}}\) = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{Ia}}{4 \pi\left(\mathrm{a}^2+\mathrm{r}^2\right)^{3 / 2}} \int \mathrm{d} l\)
    But \(\int \mathrm{d} l\) = Circumference of the coil = 2πa
    ∴ B = \(\frac{\mu_0 \text { I a }}{4 \pi\left(a^2+r^2\right)^{3 / 2}}\) × 2πa = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{Ia}^2}{2\left(\mathrm{a}^2+\mathrm{r}^2\right)^{3 / 2}}\), Tesla along the direction of PC.
  12. If the coil contains N turns, then B = \(\frac{\mu_0 \text { NIa }^2}{2\left(a^2+r^2\right)^{3 / 2}}\)
  13. At the centre of the coil r = 0, B = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{NI} \mathrm{a}^2}{2 \mathrm{a}^3}\) = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{NI}}{2 \mathrm{a}}\)
    Note: If r >> a, B = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{NI}\left(\pi \mathrm{a}^2\right)}{2 \pi \mathrm{r}^3}\) = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{NI}_{\mathrm{A}}}{2 \pi^3}\)
    A = πa2 = Area of current loop.

Question 2.
Prove that a bar magnet and a solenoid produce similar fields.
Answer:
Bar magnet produce similar field of Solenoid:

  1. We know that the current loop acts as a magnetic dipole. According to Ampere’s all magnetic phenomena can be explained interms of circulating currents.
  2. Cutting a bar magnet is like a solenoid. We get two similar solenoids with weaker magnetic properties.
  3. The magnetic field lines remain continuous, emerging from one face of solenoid and entering into other face of solenoid.
  4. If we were to move a small compass needle in the neighbourhood of a bar magnet and a current carrying solenoid, we would find that the deflections of the needle are similar in both cases as shown in diagrams.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 6
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 7
    The axial field of a finite solenoid in order to demonstrate its similarity to that of a bar magnet –
  5. The magnetic field at point P due to bar magnet in the form of solenoid is B = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{2 m}{r^3}\)
  6. The total magnetic field, at a point P due to solenoid is given by
  7. The magnitude of the magnetic moment of the solenoid is, m = n(2l) I (πa2).
    ∴ B = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{2 \mathrm{~m}}{\mathrm{r}^3}\)
  8. Therefore, magnetic moment of a bar magnet is equal to magnetic moment of an equivalent solenoid that produces the same magnetic field.

Question 3.
A small magnetic needle is set into oscillations in a magnetic field B obtain an expression for the time period of oscillation.
Answer:
Expression for time period of oscillation :

  1. A small compass needle (magnetic dipole) of known magnetic moment m and moment of Inertia AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 8 is placing in uniform magnetic field B and allowing it to oscillate in the magnetic field.
  2. This arrangement is shown in Figure.
  3. The torque on the needle is \(\tau\) = m × B
  4. In magnitude \(\tau\) = mB sin θ.
    Here \(\tau\) is restoring torque and θ is the angle between m and B.
  5. Therefore, in equilibrium
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 9
    Negative sign with mB sin θ implies that restoring torque is in opposition to deflecting torque.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 10
  6. For small values of θ in radians, we approximate sin θ ≈ θ and get
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 11
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 12
    This represents a simple harmonic motion.
  7. From defination of simple harmonic motion, we have \(\) = -ω2θ ——– (II)
    From equation (1) and (II), we get ⇒ ω2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{mB}}{\mathcal{J}}\)
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 13
  8. Therefore, the time period is
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 14

Question 4.
A bar magnet, held horizontally, is set into angular oscillations in the Earth’s magnetic field. It has time periods T1 and T2 at two places, where the angles of dip are θ1 and θ2 respectively. Deduce an expression for the ratio of the resultant magnetic fields at the two places.
Answer:

  1. Suppose, the resultant magnetic fields is to be compared at two places A and B.
  2. A bar magnet, held horizontally at A and which is set into angular oscillatins in the Earths magnetic field.
  3. Let time period of a bar magnet at place ‘A’ is T1 and angular displacement or angle of dip is θ1.
  4. As the bar magnet is free to rotate horizontally, it does not remain vertical component (B1sin θ1) It can have only horizontal component (B1 cos θ1)
  5. The time period of a bar magnet in uniform magnetic field is given by T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{mB}_{\mathrm{H}}}}\)
  6. Now, in this case T = T1 and BH = B1cosθ1
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 15
  7. Therefore time period of a bar magnet at place ‘A’ is given by
    T1 = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{I}{m B_1 \cos \theta_1}}\) —– (1) Where I is moment of Inertia of a barmagnet and m is magnitude of magnetic moment.
  8. Similarly, the same bar magnet is placed at B and which is set into angular oscillations in the earths magnetic field.
  9. Let time period of a bar magnet at place B is T2 and angle of dip is θ2.
  10. Since horizontal component of earths field at B is BH = B2 cos θ2, time period,
    T2 = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{\mathrm{mB}_2 \cos \theta_2}}\) —— (2)
  11. Dividing equation (1) by equation (2), we get \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_1}{\mathrm{~T}_2}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{mB}_2 \cos \theta_2}{\mathrm{mB}_1 \cos \theta_1}}\)
    Squaring on both sides, we have \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_1^2}{\mathrm{~T}_2^2}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{B}_2 \cos \theta_2}{\mathrm{~B}_1 \cos \theta_1}\)
  12. But B1 = μ0H1 and B2 = μ0H2
    \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_1^2}{\mathrm{~T}_2^2}\) = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{H}_2 \cos \theta_2}{\mu_0 \mathrm{H}_1 \cos \theta_1}\)
  13. Therefore, \(\frac{\mathrm{H}_1}{\mathrm{H}_2}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_2^2 \cos \theta_2}{\mathrm{~T}_1^2 \cos \theta_1}\)
    H2 T?cosOi .
  14. By knowing T1, T2 and θ1, θ2 at different places A and B, we can find the ratio of resultant magnetic fields.

Question 5.
Define magnetic susceptibility of a material. Name two elements one having positive susceptibility and other having negative susceptibility. (A.P. Mar. ’15)
Answer:

  1. SusceptIbility: When a material is placed in a magnetic field, the ratio of the intensity of magnetization acquired by it to the intensity of the applied magnetic field is called its susceptibility.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 16
  2. The susceptibility of a material represents its ability to get magnetism.
  3. Susceptibility is a dimension less quantity.
  4. Relation between μr and \(\chi\):
    • Suppose that material is placed in a magnetic field of intensity H. Let I be the intensity of magnetisation acquired by it.
    • Then the magnetic induction with in the material is
      B = μ0H + μ0I ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\mathrm{H}}\) = μ0[1 + \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{H}}\)]
      ⇒ μ = μ0[1 + \(\chi\)] ⇒ \(\frac{\mu}{\mu_0}\) = 1 + \(\chi\)
      μr = 1 + \(\chi\) [∵ μr = \(\frac{\mu}{\mu_0}\)]
  5. Negative susceptibility (y) of diamagnetic elements4are Bismuth (-1.66 × 10-5) and copper (-9.8 × 10-6).
  6. Positive susceptibility of Ferromagnetic elements are Aluminium (2.3 × 10-5) and oxygen at STP (2.1 × 10-6).
  7. Large and positive susceptibility of Ferromagnetic elements are Cobalt and Nickel.

Question 6.
Obtain Gauss Law for magnetism and explain it. (T.S. Mar. ’19)
Answer:
Gauss law for Magnetism:

  1. According to Gauss’s law for magnetism, the net magnetic flux (ϕB) through any closed surface is always zero.
  2. The law implies that the no. of magnetic field lines leaving any closed surface is always equal to the number of magnetic field lines entering it.
  3. Suppose a closed surface S is held in a uniform magnetic field B. Consider a small vector area element ΔS of this surface as shown in figure.
  4. Magnetic flux through this area element is defined as
    ΔϕB = B. ΔS. Then the net flux ϕB, is,
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 17
  5. If the area elements are really small, we can rewrite this equation as
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 18
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 19
  6. Comparing this equation with Gauss’s law of electrostatics i.e., electric flux through a closed surface S is given by
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 20
    Where q is the electric charge enclosed by the surface.
  7. In an electric dipole were enclosed by the surface equal and opposite charges in the dipole add upto zero. Therefore, ϕE would be zero.
  8. The fact that ϕB = 0 indicates that the simplest magnetic element is a dipole or current loop.
  9. The isolated magnetic poles, called magnetic monopoles are not known to exist.
  10. All magnetic phenomena can be explained interms of an arrangement of magnetic dipoles and /or current loops.
  11. Thus corresponding to equation (II) of Gauss’s theorem in electrostatics, we can visualize equation (I) as
    ϕB = \(\int_{S_{,}} B . d S\) = µ0 (m) + µ0 (-m) = 0 where m is strength of N-pole and -m is strength of S -pole of same magnet.
  12. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 7.
What do you understand by “hysteresis” ? How does this propetry influence the choice of materials used in different appliances where electromagnets are used ?
Answer:

  1. Cycle of magnetisation : When a fen or magnetic specimen is slowly magnetised, the intensity of magnetisation varies with magnetic field through a cycle is called cycle of magnetisation.
  2. Hysterisis : The lagging of intensity of magnetisation (I) and magnetic induction (B) behind magnetic field intensity (H) when a magnetic specimen is subjected to a cycle of magnetisation is called hysterisis.
  3. Retentivity : The value of I for which H = 0 is called retentivity or residual magnetism.
  4. Coercivity: The value of magnetising force required to reduce I is zero in reverse direction of H is called coercive force or coercivity.
  5. Hysterisis curve : The curve represents the relation between B or I of a ferromagnetic material with magnetising force or magnetic intensity H is known as Hysterisis curve.
  6. Explanation of hysterisis loop or curve :
    • In fig, a closed curve ABCDEFA in H – I plane, called hysterisis loop is shown in fig.
    • When ferromagnetic specimen is slowly magnetised, I increases with H.
    • Part OA of the curve shows that I increases with H.
      AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 21
    • At point A, the value I becomes constant is called saturation value.
    • At B, I has some value while H is zero.
    • In fig. BO represents retentivity and OC represents coercivity.
  7. Uses : The properties of hysterisis curve, i.e., saturation, retentivity, coercivity and hysterisis loss help us to choose the material for specific purpose.
    1. Permanent magnets : A permanent magnet should have both large retentivity and large coercivity. Permanent magnets are used in galvanometers, voltmeres, ammeters, etc.
    2. An electromagnet core : The electromagnet core material should have maximum induction field B even with small fields H, low hysterisis loss and high initial permeability.
    3. Transformer cores, Dynamocore, Chokes, Telephone diaphragms: The core material should have high initial permeability, low hysterisis loss and high specific resistance to reduce eddy currents. Soft iron is the best suited material.

Problems

Question 1.
What is torque acting on a plane coil of “n” turns carrying a current “i” and having an area A, when placed in a constant magnetic field B ?
Answer:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 22
For Rectangular LOOP PQRS :
Length PR = QS = l
breadth PQ = RS = b
Current = i
Magnetic field Induction = B
Angle made by normal to plane of coil with B = θ
Forces on conductor PR and SQ, F = Bil sin θ
Force on conductor PQ and RS, F = 0
Torque on a rectangular coil, T – F × ⊥r distnace (b) ⇒ \(\tau\) – Bil sin θ (b)
∴ \(\tau\) = BiA sinθ[∵ A = l × b]
If the loop has n turns, then \(\tau\) = B in A sin θ.

Question 2.
A coil of 20 turns has an area of 800 mm2 and carries a current of 0.5A. If it is placed in a magnetic field of intensity 0.3T with its plane parallel to the field, what is the torque that it experiences ?
Answer:
n = 20; A = 800 mm2 = 800 × 10-6 m2; i = 0.5A; B = 0.3T; θ = 0°.
When the plane parallel to the field,
T = B in A cos θ = 0.3 × 0.5 × 20 × 800 × 10-6 × cos 0°
\(\tau\) = 2.4 × 10-3 Nm

Question 3.
In the Bohr atom model the electrons move around the nucleus in circular orbits. Obtain an expression the magnetic moment (μ) of the electron in a Hydrogen atom in terms of its angular momentum L.
Answer:
Consider an electron of charge e, moves with constant speed v in a circular orbit of radius ‘r’ in Hydrogen atom as shown in fig.
Time period of orbiting electron,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 23
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 24
The current constitute by revolving electron in circular motion around a nucleus, I = \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{T}}\).
orbital magnetic moment, μ = IA = I (πr2)
⇒ μ = \(\frac{\mathrm{ev}}{2 \pi \mathrm{r}}\left(\pi \mathrm{r}^2\right)=\frac{\mathrm{evr}}{2}\)
μ = \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{2 \mathrm{~m}}(\mathrm{mvr})\) [∵ Multiplying and dividing with ‘m’ on right side]
∴ μ = \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{2 \mathrm{~m}} \mathrm{~L}\) where L = mvr = angular momentum.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 4.
A solenoid of length 22.5 cm has a total of 900 turns and carries a current of 0.8 A. What is the magnetising field H near the centre and far away from the ends of the solenoid ?
Answer:
l = 22.5 cm = 22.5 × 10-2 m = \(\frac{45}{2}\) × 10-2m
N = 900; I = 0.8A ; H = ?
H = \(\frac{\mathrm{NI}}{l}\) = \(\frac{900 \times 0.8}{\left(\frac{45}{2}\right) \times 10^{-2}}\)
H = \(\frac{900}{45}\) × 0.8 × 102 × 2
∴ H = 3200Am-1

Question 5.
A bar magnet of length 0.1 m and with a magnetic moment of 5Am2 is placed in a uniform amagnetic field n of intensity 0.4T, with its axis making an angle of 60° with the field. What is the torque on the magnet ? (Mar. ’14)
Answer:
Given, 2l = 0.1m; m = 5A – m2; B = OAT; θ = 60°.
Torque, T = mB sin θ = 5 × 0.4 × sin 60° = 2 × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
∴ T = 1.732 N-m

Question 6.
If the Earth’s magnetic field at the equator is about 4 × 105T, What is its approximate magnetic dipole moment ?
Answer:
Given, BE = 4 × 10-5 T; r = 6.4 × 106m; m = ?
BE = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{r}^3}\)
4 × 10-5 = \(\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7}}{4 \pi}\) × \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\left(6.4 \times 10^6\right)^3}\)
m = 4 × 102 × (6.4 × 106)3
∴ m = 1.05 × 1023 Am2 ≈ 1 × 1023 Am2

Question 7.
The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at a certain place is 2.6 × 10-5T and the angle of dip is 60°. What is the magnetic field of the earth at this location ?
Answer:
Given HE = 2.6 × 10-5T;
D (or) δ = 60°
BE = \(\frac{\mathrm{H}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\cos \mathrm{D}}\) = \(\frac{2.6 \times 10^{-5}}{\cos 60^{\circ}}\) = \(\frac{2.6 \times 10^{-5}}{(1 / 2)}\) = 5.2 × 10-5T
∴ BE = 5.2 × 10-5T

Question 8.
A solenoid, of insulated wire, is wound on a core with relative permeability 400. If the number of turns per metre is 1000 and the solenoid carries a current of 2A, calculate H, B and the magnetisation M.
Answer:
Given, µr = 400, I = 2A, n = 1000
H = nI = 1000 × 2 = 2 × 103 A/m
B = µrµ0 H = 400 × 4π × 10-7 × 2 × 103 = 1.0 T Magnetisation M = (µr – 1) H = (400 – 1)H = 399 × 2 × 103
∴ M \(\simeq\) 8 × 105 A/m

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
Answer the following questions regarding earth’s magnetism :
a) A vector needs three quantities for its specification. Name the three independent quantities conventionally used to specify the earth’s magnetic field.
Answer:
The three independent quantities used to specify earth’s magnetic field are, Magnetic declination (θ), Magnetic dip (δ) and Horizontal component of earth’s field (H).

b) The angle of dip at a location in southern India is about 18°. Would you expect a greater or smaller dip angle in Britain ?
Answer:
Yes, we expect greater dip angle in Britian, because it is located close to North pole; δ = 70° in Britain.

c) If you made a map of magnetic field lines at Melbourne in Australia, would the lines seem to go into the ground or come out of the ground ?
Answer:
As Melbourne is situated in Southern hemisphere where north pole of earth’s magnetic field lies, therefore, magnetic lines of foece seem to come out of the ground.

d) In which direction would a compass free to move in the vertical plane point to, if located right on the geomagnetic north ro south pole ?
Answer:
At the poles, earth’s field is exactly vertical. As the compass needle is free to rotate in a horizontal plane only, it may point out in any direction.

e) The earth’s field, it is claimed, roughly approximates the field due to a dipole of magnetic moment 8 × 1022 J T-1 located at its centre. Check the order of magnitude of this number in some way.
Answer:
Here, M = 8 × 1022 J T-1.
Let us calculate magnetic field intensity at magnetic line of short mangetic dipole for which, d = R = radius of earth 6,400 km = 6.4 × 106 m.
B = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{d}^3}\) = 10-7 × \(\frac{8 \times 10^{22}}{\left(6.4 \times 10^6\right)^3}\) = 0.31 × 10-4T.
= 0.31 gauss
This value is in good approximation with observed values of earth’s magnetic field.

f) Geologists claim that besides the main magnetic N-S poles, there are several local poles on the earth’s surface oriented in different directions. How is such a thing possible at all ?
Answer:
The earth’s magnetic field is only approximately a dipole field. Therefore, local N-S poles may exist oriented in different directions. This is possible due to deposits of magnetised minerals.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 2.
Answer the following questions :
a) The earth’s magnetic field varies from point to point in space. Does it also change with time ? If so, on what time scale does it change appreciably ?
Answer:
Yes, earth’s field undergoes a change with time. For example, daily changes, annual changes secular changes with period of the order of 960 years and irregular changes like magnetic storms. Time scale for appreciable change is roughly a few hundred years.

b) The earth’s core is known to contain iron. Yet geologists do not regard this as a source of the earth’s magnetism. Why ?
Answer:
The earth’s core does contain iron but in the molten form only. This is not ferromagnetic and hence it cannot be treated as a source of earth’s magnetism.

c) The charged currents in the outer conducting regions of the earth’s core are thought to be responsible for earth’s magnetism. What might be the ‘battery’ (i.e., the source of energy) to sustain these currents ?
Answer:
One of the possibilities is radioactivity in the interior of the earth. But it is not certain.

d) The earth may have even reversed the direction of its field several times during its history of 4 to 5 billion years. How can geologists know about the earth’s field in such distant past ?
Answer:
Earth’s magnetic field gets recorded weakly in certain rocks during their solidification. An analysis of these rocks may reveal the history of earth’s magnetism.

e) The earth’s field departs from its dipole shape substantially at large, distances (greater than about 30,000 km). What agencies may be responsible for this distortion?
Answer:
The earth’s magnetic field gets modified by the field produced by motion of ions in earth’s ionosphere.

f) Interstellar space has an extremely weak magnetic field of the order of 10-12 T. Can such a weak field be of any significant consequence? Explain.
[Note : Exercise 2 is meant mainly to arouse your curiosity. Answers to some questions above are tentative or unknown. Brief answers wherever possible are given at the end. For details, you should consult a good text on geomagnetism.)
Answer:
When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, it is deflected along a circular path such that BeV = \(\frac{\mathrm{mV}^2}{\mathrm{r}}\) ∴ r = \(\frac{\mathrm{mV}}{\mathrm{Be}}\)
When B is low, r is high i.e., radius of curvature of path is very large. Therefore, over the gigantic inter stellar distance, the deflection of charged particles becomes less noticeable.

Question 3.
A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.25 T experiences a troque of magnitude equal to 4.5 × 10-2 J. What is the magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet?
Answer:
Here θ = 30°, B = 0.25 T, r = 4.5 × 10-2 J, M =?
As r = mB sin θ ∴ m = \(\frac{r}{B \sin \theta}\) = \(\frac{4.5 \times 10^{-2}}{0.25 \sin 30^{\circ}}\) = 0.36JT-1

Question 4.
A short bar magnet of magnetic moment m = 0.32 JT-1 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15T. If the bar is free to rotate in the plane of the field, which orientation would correspond to its (a) stable, and (b) unstable equilibrium ? What is the potential energy of the magnet in each case?
Answer:
Here m = 0.32JT-1, B = 0.15T

  1. In stable equilibrium, the bar magnet is aligned along the magnetic field, i.e., θ = 0°.
    Potentiâl Energy = -mB cos θ° = -032 × 0.15 × 0 = -4.8 × 10-2J.
  2. In unstable equilibrium the magnet is so oriented that magnetic moment is at 180° to the magnetic field i.e., θ = 180°.
    Potential Energy = -mB cos 180° = – 0.32 × 0.15 (-1) = 4.8 × 10-2 J.

Question 5.
A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross section 2.5 × 10-4 m2 carries a
current of 3.0A. Explain the sense in which the solenoid acts like a bar magnet. What is its associated magnetic moment ?
Answer:
Here n = 800, a = 2.5 × 10-4 m2, I = 3.0 A
A magnetic field develop along the axis of the solenoid. Therefore the current carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet m = N IA = 800 × 3.0 × 2.5 × 10-4
= 0.6 JT-1 along the axis of solenoid.

Question 6.
If the solenoid in Exercise 5 is free to turn about the vertical direction and a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 0.25 T is applied, what is the magnitude of torque on the solenoid when its axis makes an angle of 30° with the direction of applied field ?
Answer:
Here M = 0.6 JT-1 (from Question 5)
B = 0.25 T r = ? q = 30°
As r = m B sin θ’ ∴ r = 0.6 × 0.25 sin 30° = 0.075 N.m.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 7.
A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 JT-1 lies aligned with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.22T.
a) What is the amount of work required by an external torque to turn the magnet so as to align its magnetic moment:
(i) normal to the field direction,
(ii) opposite to the field direction ?
Answer:
Here m = 1.5 JT-1, B = 0.22 T, W = ?

a) Here θ1 = 0° (along the field)
θ2 = 90° (⊥ to the field)
As W = -mB (cos θ2 – cos θ1)
W =-1.5 × 0.22 (cos 90° – cos 0°) = -0.33 (0 – 1)
= 0.33 f

ii) Here θ1 = 0°, θ2 = 180°
W = -1.5 × 0.22 (cos 180° – cos 0°)
= – 0.33 (-1 – 1) = 0.66 J.

b) What is the torque on the magnet in cases (i) and (ii) ?
Answer:
Torque r = mB sin θ
i) Here θ = 90°, r = 1.5 × 0.22 sin 90° = 0.33 Nm
ii) Here θ = 180°, r = 1.5 × 0.22 sin 180° = 0

Question 8.
A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6 × 10-4 m2, carrying a current of 4.0 A, is suspended through its centre allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane.
a) What is the magnetic moment associated with the solenoid ?
Answer:
N = 2000, A = 1.6 × 10-4 m2, I = 4 amp, M = ?
As m = NIA
∴ M = 2000 × 4 × 1.6 × 10-4 = 1.28 JT-1

b) What is the force and torque on the solenoid if a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 7.5 × 10-2 T is set up at an angle of 30° with the axis of the solenoid ?
Answer:
Net force on the solenoid = 0
Torque, r = m B sin θ = 1.28 × 7.5 × 10-2 sin 30°
= 1.28 × 7.5 × 10-2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\)
r = 4.8 × 10-2 Nm.

Question 9.
A circular coil of 76 turns and radius 10 cm. carrying a current of 0.75 A rests with its plane normal to an external field of magnitude 8.0 × 10-2 T. The coil is free to turn about an axis in its plane perpendicular to the field direction. When the coil is turned slightly and released, it oscillates about its stable equilibrium with a frequency of 2.0 s-1. What is the moment of inertia of the coil about its axis of rotation.
Answer:
Here n = 16, r = 10 cm = 0.1 m, I = 0.75A, B = 5.0 × 10-2T
v = 2.0 s-1, I = ?
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 25

Question 10.
A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has its north tip pointing down at 22° with the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is known to be 0.35 G. Determine the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at the place.
Answer:
Here θ = 22° 1 + 0.35 G, R = ?
As H = R cos θ
R = H/cos θ = \(\frac{0.35}{\cos 22^{\circ}}\) = \(\frac{0.35}{0.9272}\) = 0.38 G

Question 11.
At a certain location in Africa, a compass points 12° west of the geographic north. The north tip of the magnetic needle of a dip circle placed in the plane of magnetic meridian points 60° above the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s field is measured to be 0.16 G. Specify the direction and magnitude of the earth’s field at the location.
Answer:
Here declination θ = 12° west, dip θ = 60°
H = 0.16 gauss = 0.16 × 10-4 tesla. R = ?
As H = R cos θ
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 26
R = \(\frac{\mathrm{H}}{\cos \theta}\) = \(\frac{0.16 \times 10^{-4}}{\cos 60^{\circ}}\)
R = \(\frac{0.16 \times 10^{-4}}{1 / 2}\) = 0.32 × 10-4T
The earth’s field lies in a vertical plane 12° west of geographic meridian at an angle of 60° above the horizontal.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 12.
A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0.48 J T-1. Give the direction and magnitude of the magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance of 10 cm from the centre of the magnet on (a) the axis, (b) the equitorial lines (normal bisector) of the magnet.
Answer:
Here M = 0.48 J T-1, B = ?
d = 10 cm = 0.1 m

a) On the axis of the magnet
B = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \cdot \frac{2 M}{d^3}\) = 10-7 × \(\frac{2 \times 0.48}{(0.1)^3}\)
= 0.96 × 10T along S – N direction

b) On the equitorial line of the magnet
B = \(\frac{\mu_{\mathrm{0}}}{4 \pi} \times \frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{d}^3}\) = 10-7 × \(\frac{0.48}{(0.1)^3}\) = 0.48 × 10-4T, along N – S direction.

Question 13.
A short bar magnet placed in a horizontal plane has its axis aligned along the magnetic north-south direction. Null points are found on the axis of the magnet at 14 cm from the centre of the magnet. The earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.36 G and the angle of dip is zero. What is the total magnetic field on the normal bisector of the magnet at the same distance as the null-point- (i.e., 14 cm) from the centre of the magnet ? (At null distants, field due to a magnet is equal and opposite to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field.)
Answer:
As null points are on the axis of the magnet, therefore
B1 = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{2 \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{d}^3}\) = H
On the equitorial line of magnet at same distance (d), field due to the magnet is
B2 = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{d}^3}\) = \(\frac{B_1}{2}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{H}}{2}\)

∴ Total Magnetic field at this point on equitorial line is
B = B2 + H = H + \(\frac{\mathrm{H}}{2}\) = \(\frac{3}{2} \mathrm{H}\)
B = \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 0.36 = 0.54G

Question 14.
If the bar magnet in Exercise 13 is turned around by 180°, where will the new null points be located ?
Answer:
When the bar magnet is turned through 180°, neutral points would lie on equitorial line, so that
B2 = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{M}{d_2^3}\) = H
On the equitorial line of magnet at same direction (d), field due to the magnet is
B2 = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{d}_2^3}\) = H
In the previous question
B1 = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{2 \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{d}_1^3}\)
\(\mathrm{d}_2^3\) = \(\frac{d_1^3}{2}\) = \(\frac{(14)^3}{2}\)
d2 = \(\frac{14}{2^{1 / 3}}\) = 11.1 cm

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 15.
A short bar magnet of magnetic movement 5.25 × 10-2 J T-1 is placed with its axis perpendicular to the earth’s field direction. At what distance from the centre of the magnet, the resultant field is inclined at 45° with earth’s field on (a) its normal bisector and (b) its axis. Magnitude of the earth’s field at the place is given to be 0.42 G. Ignore the length of the magnet in comparison to the distances involved.
Answer:
Here M = 5.25 × 10-2 J T-1 r = ?
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 27
Earth’s field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{e}}\) = 0.42 G = 0.42 × 10-4 T
a) At a point P distant r on normal bisector, fig, field due to the magnet is
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_2\) = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{M}{r^3}\) along PAI/NS.
The resultant field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) will be inclined at 45° to the earth’s field along PQ only when
|\(\vec{B}_2\)| = |\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{e}}\)|
\(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \cdot \frac{M}{r^3}\) = 0.42 × 10-4
which gives, r = 0.05 m = 5 cm

b) When the point P lies on axis of the magnet such that OP = r, field due to magnet [fig.] is
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 28
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_1\) = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \cdot \frac{2 \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{r}^3}\) along PO, Earth’s field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{e}}\) is along \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{PA}}\). The resultant field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) will be inclined at 45° to Earth’s field [Figure.] only when
|\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_1\)| = |\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{e}}}\)|
\(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \cdot \frac{2 \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{r}^3}\) = 0.42 × 10-4 which gives
r = 6.3 × 10-2 m = 6.3 cm

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
Answer the following Questions :
a) Why does a paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same magnetising field) when cooled ?
Answer:
This is because at lower temperatures, the tendency to disrupt the alignment of dipoles (due to magnetising field) decreases on account of reduced random thermal motion.

b) Why is diamagnetism, in contrast, almost independent of temperature ?
Answer:
In a diamagnetic sample, each molecule is not a magnetic dipole in itself. Therefore, random thermal motion of molecules does not affect the magnetism of the specimen. This is why diamagnetism is independent of temperature.

c) If a toroid uses bismuth for its core,’ will the field in the core be (slightly) greater or (slightly) less than when the core is empty ?
Answer:
As bismuth is diamagnetic, therefore, the field in the core will be slightly less than when the core is empty.

d) Is the permeability of a ferromagnetic material independent of the magnetic field ? If not, is it more for lower or higher fields ?
Answer:
No, permeability of a ferromagnetic material is not independent of magnetic field. As is clear from the hysteresis curve, μ is greater for lower fields.

e) Magnetic field lines are always nearly normal to the surface of a ferromagnet at every point. (This fact is analogous to the static electric field lines being normal to the surface of a conductor at every point.) Why ?
Answer:
Magnetic field lines are always nearly normal to the surface of a ferromagnet at every point. The proof of this important fact is based on the boundary conditions of magnetic fields (B and H) at the interface of two media.

f) Would the maximum possible magnetisation of a paramagnetic sample be of the same order of magnitude as the magnetisation of a ferromagnet ?
Answer:
The magnetic permeability of a ferromagnetic material μ > > 1. That is why the field lines meet this medium normally.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions :
a) Explain qualitatively on the basis of domain picture the irreversibility in the magnetisation curve of a ferromagnet.
Answer:
Since, in a ferromagnetic substance the magnetic properties are due to alignment of domains, therefore on with drawing the magnetising field the original domain formation does not take place.

b) The hysteresis loop of a soft iron piece has a much smaller area than that of a carbon steel piece. If the material is to go through repeated cycles of magnetisation, which piece will dissipate greater heat energy ?
Answer:
Carbon steel piece, because heat lost per cycle is proportional to the area of the hysteresis loop.

c) A system displaying a hysterisis loop such as a ferromagnet, is a device for storing memory ?’ Explain the meaning of this statement.
Answer:
Magnetisation of a ferromagnet is not a single – valued function of the magnetizing field. Its value for a particular field depends both on the field and also on the history of magnetisatiop. In other words, the value of magnetisation is a record or ‘memory’ of its cycle of magnetisation. If information bits can be made to correspond these cycles, the system displaying such a hysterisis loop can act as a device for storing information.

d) What kind of ferromagnetic material is used for coating magnetic tapes in a cassette player, or for building ‘memory stores’ in a modern computer ?
Answer:
Ceramics (specially treated barium iron oxides) also called ferrites.

e) A certain region of space is to be shielded from magnetic fields. Suggest a method.
Answer:
Surround the region by soft iron rings. Magnetic field lines will be drawn into the rings, and the enclosed space will be free of magnetic field. But this shielding is only approximate, unlike the perfect electric shielding of a cavity in a conductor placed in an external electric field.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 3.
A long straight horizontal cable carries a current of 2.5 A in the direction 10° south of west to 10° north of east. The magnetic meridian of the place happens to be 10° west of the geographic meridian. The earth’s magnetic field at the location is 0.33 G, and the angle of dip is zero. Locate the line of neutral points (ignore the thickness of the cable) ? (At neutral points, magnetic field due to a current – carrying cable is equal and opposite to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field).
Answer:
Here i = 2.5 amp
R = 0.33G = 0.33 × 10-4 T; θ = 0°
Horizontal component of earth’s field
H = R cos θ = 0.39 × 10-4 cos 35°
= 0.39 × 10-4 × 0.8192
= 3.9 × 10-5 tesla.
Vertical component of earth’s field.
H = R cos θ = 0.33 × 10-4 cos 0°
= 0.33 × 10-4 tesla.
Let the neutral points lie at a distance r from the cable
Strength of magnetic field on this line due to current in the cable = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{i}}{2 \pi \mathrm{r}}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 29
At neutral point,
\(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{i}}{2 \pi \mathrm{r}}\) = H
r = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{i}}{2 \pi \mathrm{H}}\) = \(\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 2.5}{2 \pi \times 0.33 \times 10^{-4}}\) = 1.5 × 10-2m
Hence neutral points lie on a straigt line parallel to the cable at a perpendicular distance of 1.5 cm above te plane of the paper.

Question 4.
A telephone cable at a place has four long straight horizontal wires carrying a current of 1.0 A in the same direction east to west. The earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.39 G, and the angle of dip is 35°. The magnetic declination is nearly zero. What are the resultant magnetic fields at points 4.0 cm below the cable ?
Answer:
There, no. of wires, n = 4, i = 1.0 amp
Earth’s field R = 0.39 G = 0.39 × 10-4 T
dip, θ = 35 declination θ = 0°
R1 = ?, R2 = ?
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 30
r = 4 cm each 4 × 10-2 m
Magnetic field at 4 cm due to currents in 4 wires
B = 4 × \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{i}}{2 \pi \mathrm{r}}\) = 4 × \(\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 1}{2 \pi \times 4 \times 10^{-2}}\)
Horizontal component of earth’s field
H = R cos θ = 0.39 × 10-4 cos 35°
= 0.39 × 10-4 × 0.8192 = 3.19 × 10-5tesla
Vertical component of Earth’s field
V = R sin θ = 0.39 × 10-4 sin 35°
= 0.39 × 10-4 × 0.5736 = 2.2 × 10-5 tesla.
At point Q, 4 cm below the wire, horizontal component due to Earth’s field and field due to current are in opposite directions (fig.)
H1 = H – B
∴ H1 = 3.19 × 10-5 – 2 × 10-5
= 1.19 × 10-5 tesla.
Hence R1 = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{H}_1^2+\mathrm{V}^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{\left(1.19 \times 10^{-5}\right)^2+\left(2.2 \times 10^{-5}\right)^2}\)
= 2.5 × 10-5 tesla.
At point P, 4 cm above the wire, horizontal component of Earth’s field and field due to current are in the same direction [fig.]
H2 = H + B = 3.19 × 10-5 + 2 × 10-5 = 5.19 × 10-5 T
R2 = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{H}_2^2+\mathrm{V}^2}\) = \(\sqrt{\left(5.19 \times 10^{-5}\right)^2+\left(2.2+10^{-5}\right)^2}\) = 5.54 × 10-5 tesla.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 5.
A compass needle free to turn in a horizontal plane is placed at the centre of circular coil of 30 turns and radius 12 cm. The coil is in a vertical plane making an angle of 45° with the magnetic meridian. When the current in the coil is 0.35 A, the needle points west to east.
a) Determine the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the location.
b) The current in the coil is reversed, and the coil is rotated about its vertical axis by an angle of 90° in the anticlockwise sense looking from above. Predict the direction of the needle. Take the magnetic declination at the places to be zero.
Answer:
a) Here n = 30, r = 12 cm = 12 × 10-2 m
i = 0.35 amp, H = ?
As is clear from fig. 11 the needle can point west to east only when H = B sin 45°
Where B = Magnetic field strength due to current in coil = \(\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{2 \pi \mathrm{ni}}{\mathrm{r}}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 31
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 32

b) When current in coil is reversed and coil is turned through 90° anticlock wise, the direction of needle will reverse (i.e., it will point from East to West). This follow from the figure.

Question 6.
A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two magnetic fields. The angle between the field directions is 60°, and one of the fields has a magnitude of 1.2 × 10-2 T. If the dipole comes to stable equilibrium at an angle of 15° with this field, what is the magnitude of the other field ?
Answer:
Here θ = 60°; B1 = 1.2 × 10-2 tesla
θ1 = 15°; θ2 = 60° – 15° = 45°
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 33
In equilibrium, torque due to two fields must balance i.e., r1 = r2
MB1 sin θ1 = MB2 sin θ2
B2 = \(\frac{B_1 \sin \theta_1}{\sin \theta_2}\) = \(\frac{1.2 \times 10^{-2} \sin 15^{\circ}}{\sin 45^{\circ}}\)
B2 = \(\frac{1.2 \times 10^{-2} \times 0.2588}{0.7071}\) = 4.4 × 10-3 tesla.

Question 7.
A monoenergetic (18 keV) electron beam initially in the horizontal direction is subjected to a horizontal magnetic field of 0.04 G normal to the initial direction. Estimate the up or down deflection of the beam over a distance of 30 cm (me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg).
[Note : Data in this exercise are so chosen that the answer will give you an idea of the effect of earth’s magnetic field bn the motion of the electron beam from the electron gun to the screen in a TV set] .
Answer:
Here energy E = 18 KeV = 18 × 1.6 × 10-19J
B = 0.40 G = 0.40 × 10-4 T
x = 30 cm = 0.3 m
As E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mυ2 ∴ υ = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 E}{m}}\)
In a magnetic field electron beam is deflected along a circular arc of radius r, such that
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 34
BeV = \(\frac{m v^2}{r}\) or r = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}}{\mathrm{Be}}\)
r = \(\frac{m}{B e} \sqrt{\frac{2 E}{m}}\) = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{Be}} \sqrt{2 \mathrm{Em}}\) = 11.3 m
If y is the deflection at the end of the path it is clear from fig.
θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{x}}{\mathrm{r}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{y}}{\mathrm{x} / 2}\) = 2\(\frac{y}{x}\)
or y = \(\frac{x^2}{2 r}\) = \(\frac{0.30 \times(0.30)}{2 \times 11.3}\)m = 0.004m = 4mm

Question 8.
A sample of paramagnetic salt contains 2.0 × 1024 atomic dipoles each of dipole moment 1.5 × 10-23 J T-1. The sample is placed under a homogeneous magnetic field of 0.64 T, and cooled to a temperature of 4.2 K. The degree of magnetic saturation achieved is equal to 15%. What is the total dipole moment of the sample for a magnetic field of 0.98 T and a temperature of 2.8 K ? (Assume Curie’s law)
Answer:
Here no. of dipoles n = 2 × 1024
Magnetic moment of each dipole M = 1.5 × 10-23 J T-1.
Total dipole moment of sample = n × M = 2 × 1024 × 1.5 × 10-23 = 30
As saturation achieved is 15% therefore, effective dipole moment
M1 = \(\frac{15}{100}\) × 30 = 4.5 J T-1; B1 = 0.64T, T1 = 4.2 k,
M2 = ?; B2 = 0.98 T,T2 = 2.8 k
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter 35

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Magnetism and Matter

Question 9.
A Rowland ring of mean radius 15 cm has 3500 turns of wire wound on a ferromagnetic core of relative permeability 800. What is the magnetic field B in the core for a magnetising current of 1.2 A?
Answer:
Here r = 15 cm = 15 × 10-2 m, N = 3500, Mr = 800
I = 1.2A, B =?
Number of turns, length, n = \(\frac{N}{2 \pi r}\) = \(\frac{3500}{2 \pi \times 15 \times 10^{-2}}\)
B = μ0μrnI
= 4π × 10-7 × 800 × \(\frac{3500 \times 1.2}{2 \pi \times 15 \times 10^{-2}}\)
= 4.48T

Question 10.
The magnetic moment vectors μs and μl associated with the intrinsic spin angular momentum S and orbital angular momentum 1, respectively, of an electron are predicted
by quantum theory (and verified experimentally to a high accuracy) to be given by:
ms = -(e/m) S,
μl = -(e/2m)l
Which of these relations is in accordance with the result expected classically? Outline the derivation of the classical result.
Answer:
Out of the two relations given only one is in accordance with classical physics. This is
\(\vec{\mu}_1\) = \(-\left(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{2 \mathrm{~m}}\right) \vec{l}\)
It follows from the definitions of μ1 and l.
μ = iA = \(\left(\frac{-\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{T}}\right) \pi \mathrm{r}^2\)
l = mvr = \(\mathrm{m}\left(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{T}}\right) \mathrm{r}\)
Where r is the radius of the circular orbit, which the electron of mass m and charge (-e) completes in time T.
Divide (i) by (ii) \(\frac{\mu_1}{l}\) = \(\frac{-\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{T}} \pi \mathrm{r}^2 \times \frac{\mathrm{T}}{\mathrm{m}^2 \pi \mathrm{r}^2}=\frac{-\mathrm{e}}{2 \mathrm{~m}}\)
\(\vec{\mu}_1\) = \(\left(\frac{-\mathrm{e}}{2 \mathrm{~m}}\right) \vec{l}\)
‘Clearly \(\vec{\mu}_1\) and \(\vec{l}\) will be antiparallel (both being normal to the plane of the orbit)
In contrast \(\frac{\mu_{\mathrm{S}}}{\mathrm{S}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}}\). It is obtained on the basis of quantum mechanics.