AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 8th Lesson Oscillations Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 8th Lesson Oscillations

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples of periodic motion which are not oscillatory.
Answer:

  1. The motion of planets around the sun.
  2. The motion of an electron round the nucleus.

Question 2.
The displacement in S.H.M. is given by y = a sin (20t + 4). What is the displacement when it is increased by 2π/ω?
Answer:
The displacement in S.H.M. is y = a sin (20t + 4)
The time period T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\) is increased, the displacement of the particle remains the same.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 3.
A girl is swinging seated in a swing. What is the effect on the frequency of oscillation if she stands?
Answer:
Frequency (n) = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{g}{l}}\), n ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{l}}\)
A girl swinging in standing position location of centre of mass shifts upwards l decreases, frequency of oscillation increases.

Question 4.
The bob of a simple pendulum is a hollow sphere filled with water. How will the period of oscillation change, if the water begins to drain out of the hollow sphere ?
Answer:
The period of the pendulum is same, when the bob is hollow (or) completely filled with water. As water flows out from the bob, the centre of gravity of the bob lowered. The pendulum length increases. Hence time period also increases. When the bob becomes empty, again centre of gravity shifts upwards. The pendulum length decreases. The time period also decreases.

Question 5.
The bob of a simple pendulum is made of wood. What will be the effect on the time period if the wooden bob is replaced by an identical bob of aluminum ?
Answer:
Time period (T) = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\), Time period is independent of mass of the bob.
Hence wooden bob is replaced by an identical aluminium bob, Time period remains constant.

Question 6.
Will a pendulum clock gain or lose time when taken to the top of a mountain.?
Answer:
T ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{g}}\), At the mountain top, the value of g decreases, hence time period increases i.e. the pendulum will take longer time to complete one vibration. Hence pendulum clock will loose time on the mountain top.

Question 7.
A pendulum dock gives correct time at the equator. Will it gain or lose time if it is taken to the poles ? If so, why ?
Answer:
Time period (T) = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\)
g value at poles is greater than at equator.
If it is taken to the poles g value increases, time period decreases.
So pendulum clock gains time.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 8.
What fraction of the total energy is K.E when the displacement is one half of a amplitude of a particle executing S.H.M.
Answer:
Total energy (E) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω2 A2
Given y = \(\frac{\mathrm{A}}{2}\), Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2(A2 – y2) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω2\(\left(A^2-\frac{A^2}{4}\right)\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
K.E = \(\frac{3}{4}\) × E
∴ \(\frac{K \cdot E}{E}\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 9.
What happens to the energy of a simple harmonic oscillator if its amplitude is doubled ?
Answer:
Total energy (E) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
Given Amplitude A is doubled
E’ = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2(2A)2
E’ = 4 × \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
E’ = 4E
∴ Energy becomes four times.

Question 10.
Can a simple pendulum be used in an artificial satellite? (T.S. Mar. 16)
Answer:
No, in an artificial satellite acceleration due to gravity is zero. Hence we cannot use simple pendulum in an artificial satellite.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define simple harmonic motion. Give two examples.
Answer:
Simple harmonic motion : “A body is said to be in simple harmonic motion, if it moves to and fro along a straight line, about its mean position such that, at any point its acceleration is proportional to its displacement but opposite in direction and is directed always towards the mean position”.
w ∝ -x

If a is the acceleration of the body at any given displacement x from the mean position, the time for the body to be in S.H.M.
Displacement of a particle in S.H.M is given by
x(t) = A cos (ωt + ϕ)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 1

Example:

  1. Motion of a simple pendulum.
  2. Motion of mass attached to a spring.
  3. Motion of atoms in solids.
  4. Cork floating on water.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 2.
Present graphically the variations of displacement, velocity and acceleration with time for a particle in S.H.M.
Answer:
Let us put ϕ = 0 and write the expressions for x(t),
υ(t) and a(t).
x(t) = A cos ωt. υ(t) = -Aωsinωt
a(t) = -ω2A cos ωt. The corresponding plots are shown in figure. All quantities varies sinusoidally with time.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 2
x(t) varies between – A to A; υ(t) varies from -ωA to ωA and a(t) varies from – ω2A to ω2A with respect to displacement plot, velocity plot has a phase difference of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) and acceleration plot has a phase difference of π.

Question 3.
What is phase ? Discuss the phase relations between displacement, velocity and acceleration in simple harmonic motion.
Answer:
Phase : The phase of a particle executing S.H.M. at any instant is defined as its state (or) condition as regards to its position and direction of motion at that instant.

  1. Displacement : x = A cos (ωt – ϕ), (ωt – ϕ) is called phase and ϕ is epoch.
  2. Velocity : V = -Aω sin (ωt – ϕ), Here also (ωt – ϕ) is phase angle
  3. Acceleration : a = -ω2A cos (ωt – ϕ), Here also (ωt – ϕ) is phase angle.

Phase difference between displacement and velocity = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Phase difference between velocity and acceleration = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Phase difference between displacement and acceleration = π.

Question 4.
Obtain an equation for the frequency of oscillation of spring of force constant k to which a mass m is attached. Answer:
Let us consider a spring suspended vertically from a rigid support and loaded with a mass m. If it is now pulled down and released, it executes vertical oscillations about mean position.
Restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement, but oppositely directed
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 4
F ∝ -y
F = -ky —–> (1)
Where k is force constant
Ma = -ky (∴ F = Ma)
a = \(-\left(\frac{K}{M}\right) y\) —-> (2)
Since K and M are constant. We can write a ∝ -y
ie Acceleration is directly proportional to the displacement but oppositely directed. Hence oscillations of a loaded spring is S.H.M.
Comparing eq. (2) with a = -ω2y
ω2 = \(\frac{K}{M}\) ; ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{K}}{\mathrm{M}}}\)
T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\) ; T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{K}}}\)
Frequency of oscillation (n) = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{K}{M}}\) —> (3)

Question 5.
Derive expressions for the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator.
Answer:
Kinetic energy of simple harmonic oscillator : The velocity of a particle in S.H.M. is given by
v = \(\omega \sqrt{A^2-y^2}\) ∴ Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω2(A2 – y2)
When y = 0, (K.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω2A2 (Mean position)
When y = A, (K.E)Min = 0 (Extreme position)
K.E is maximum at mean position and minimum at extreme position.

Potential energy of simple harmonic oscillator: When the displacement of a particle executing simple Harmonic oscillations increases, the restoring force also increases. The restoring force is in the opposite direction to the displacement. Therefore work is done in moving through the displacement, against restoring force. If F is the restoring force at the displacement y.
The average force against which work is done = \(\frac{\mathrm{O}+\mathrm{F}}{2}\) = \(\frac{F}{2}\)

∴ Workdone on the particle for the displacement (y) = Average force × displacement F
i.e. w = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{2}\) × y
w = \(\frac{\max y}{2}\) —- (1) (∵ F = ma)
But acceleration of a particle in S.H.M. is given by
a = ω2y —– (2)
Using eq’s (1) and (2). we get
The work done (w) = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 y^2\) mw2y2
This work done is stored in the form of P.E.
∴ P.E. = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 y^2\) —– (3)
If y = 0, (P.E)Min = 0 (At mean position)
If y = A, (P.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\) (At extreme position).
∴ P.E. is maximum at extreme position and minimum at mean position.

Question 6.
How does the energy of a simple pendulum vary as it moves from one extreme position to the other during its oscillations?
Answer:
The total energy associated with a particle executing S.H.M. at any point is the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy at that point.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 5
Total energy (E) = K.E + P.E
K.E = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2\left(A^2-y^2\right)\)
P.E. = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 y^2\)
T.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2(A2 – y2) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2y2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
At mean position y = 0, P.E = 0
and (K.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\)
∴ T.E. = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\) = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\)
At extreme position y = A, K.E = 0 and P.E = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\)
∴ (P.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\)
From mean position to extreme position K.E. is to be converted into P.E.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 7.
Derive the expressions for displacement, velocity and acceleration of a particle executes S.H.M.
Answer:
Consider a particle P moves on the circumference of a circle of radius A with uniform angular velocity ω. Let PN be the perpendicular drawn to the diameter yy’ from P.
As P moves on the circumference of the circle, N moves on the diameter yy’ to and fro about the centre O.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 6
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 7

Velocity : The velocity of a partcile executing SHM is given by
v = \(\frac{d y}{d t}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) (A sin ωt)
= Aω cos ωt = Aω\(\sqrt{1-\sin ^2 \omega t}\)
v = \(A \omega \sqrt{1-\left(\frac{y}{A}\right)^2}\) (∵ sin ωt = \(\frac{y}{A}\))
v = ω\(\omega \sqrt{A^2-y^2}\) —- (2)

Acceleration : As the rate of change of velocity gives acceleration of the particle executing S.H.M is given by
a = \(\frac{d v}{d t}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)(Aω cos ωt) = -Aω2 sin ωt
∴ a = -ω2y —- (3)

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define simple harmonic motion. Show that the motion of (point) projection of a particle performing uniform circular motion, on any diameter, is simple harmonic. (AP – Mar. ‘18; TS – Mar. ‘16)
Answer:
Simple harmonic motion : A body is said to be in simple harmonic motion, if it moves to and fro along a straight line, about its mean position such that, at any point its acceleration is proportional to its displacement but opposite in direction and directed always towards the mean position.

Show that the projection of uniform circular motion on any diameter is simple harmonic : Consider a particle P moving on the circumference of a circle of radius A with uniform angular velocity ω. Let O be the centre of the circle. XX’ and YY’ are two mutually perpendicular diameters of the circle as shown in the figure. Let PN be drawn perpendicular to the diameter YY’ from P. As P moves on the circumference of the circle, N moves on the diameter YY’ to and fro about the centre O. Let us consider the position of N at any time t, after leaving the point ‘O’, during its motion. The corresponding angular displacement of the particle P is AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 8
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 33
Hence acceleration is directly proportional to the displacement and opposite direction. Hence motion of N is simple harmonic.

Question 2.
Show that the motion of a simple pendulum is simple harmonic and hence derive an equation for its time period. What is seconds pendulum ? (TS – Mar. ’18, ’17, ’15, ’14, ’13; AP – Mar. ’17, ’16, ’15, ’14, ’13)
Answer:

  1. Consider simple pendulum, a small bob of mass m tied to an inextensible mass less string of length L and other end of the string is fixed from a rigid support.
  2. Once the bob is slightly displaced and released, it begins to oscillate about mean position.
  3. Let θ be the angular displacement and T be the tension in the string.
  4. The forces acting on the bob are (a) tension T along the string (b) weight mg acts vertically downwards.
  5. The force mg can be resolved into two components (1) mg cos θ along the PA and (2) mg sin θ acts along PB.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 34
  6. From figure at point P,
    T = mg cos θ —– (1)
  7. The force mg sin θ will provide the restoring torque, which tends to bring the bob back to its mean position O.
  8. The restoring torque is given by
    \(\tau\) = Restoring force × ⊥lar distance
    \(\tau\) = -mg sin θ × L —– (2)
    Here negative sign shows that the torque acts to reduce θ.
    Then sin θ is replaced by θ i.e., sin θ ≈ θ
    x = -mg L θ —– (3) (∵ sin θ = θ – \(\frac{\theta^3}{3 !}\) + \(\frac{\theta^3}{5 !}\) …..)
  9. From equation (3), we note that \(\tau\) ∝ θ. and This \(\tau\) will bring the bob back towards its equilibrium position.
    So, if the bob is left free, it will execute angular simple harmonic motion.
    Comparing equation (3), with the equation \(\tau\) = -kθ, we have Spring factor, k = mgL.
  10. Here inertia factor = Moment of inertia of the bob about the point of suspension = mL2
  11. In S.H.M, Time period (T) = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\text { Inertia factor }}{\text { Spring factor }}}\)
    T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m L^2}{m g L}}\)
    T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\) — (4)
    Seconds pendulum : A pendulum whose time period is 2 seconds is called seconds pendulum.
    T = 2 seconds.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 3.
Derive the equation for the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator and show that the total energy of a particle in simple harmonic motion is constant at any point on its path.
Answer:
Kinetic energy : The velocity of a particle in S.H.M is given by v = ω\(\sqrt{A^2-y^2}\)
∴ Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\) = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2\left(A^2-y^2\right)\) —— (1)
We know that y = A sin ωt
K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2[1 – sin2ωt) —— (2)
When y = 0, (K.E)Max = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 (Mean position)
When y = A, (K.E)Min = 0 (At extreme position)
∴ K.E is maximum at mean position and minimum at extreme position.

Potential energy : When the displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic oscillations increase, the restoring force also increases. The restoring force is in the opposite direction to the displacement. Therefore work is done in moving through the displacement, against restoring force. If F is restoring force at the displacement y.
The average force against which work is done = \(\frac{\mathrm{O}+\mathrm{F}}{2}\) = \(\frac{F}{2}\)

∴ Workdone on the particle for the displacement (y) = Average force × displacement.
i.e., w = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × y
w = \(\frac{\max y}{2}\) —– (3) (∵ F = ma)
But acceleration of a particle in S.H.M is given by
a = -ω2y —– (4)
Using equations (3) and (4), we get
The work done (W) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2y2
This work done is stored in the form of P.E
∴ P.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2y2 —– (5)
∴ P.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 sin2ωt —– (6) (∵ y = A sin ωt)
If y = 0, (P.E)Min = 0 (At mean position)
If y = A, (P.E)Max = – \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 (At extreme position)
∴ P.E. is maximum at extreme position and minimum at mean position.

Total energy (E) : The total energy associated with a particle executing S.H.M at any point is the sum of RE and K.E at that point.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 35
Total energy (E) = K.E + P.E
K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2y2
∴ T.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2 (A2 – y2) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2y2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
At mean position y = 0, RE = 0, (KE)Max = – \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
∴ T.E = K.E + P.E
T.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 + 0 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
At extreme position, y = A, K.E = 0 and,
(P.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2.
∴ T.E = K.E + P.E
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 9
T.E. = O + \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
From mean position to extreme position K.E is to be converted into RE.

Problems

Question 1.
The bob of a pendulum is made of a hollow brass sphere. What happens to the time period of the pendulum, if the bob is filled with water completely ? Why?
Solution:
Time period (T) = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)
The period of the pendulum is same. When the bob is hollow (or) completely filled with water. As water flows out from the bob, the centre of gravity of the bob lowers.

The pendulum length increases. Hence time period also increases. When the bob becomes empty, again centre of gravity shifts upwards. The pendulum length decreases. The time period also decreases.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 2.
Two identical springs of force constant “k” are joined one at the end of the other (in series). Find the effective force constant of the combination.
Solution:
k1 = k2 = k
If two springs are connected in series
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 10

Question 3.
What are the physical quantities having maximum value at the mean position in SHM ?
Solution:

  1. Velocity, Vmax = Aω
  2. Kinetic energy, (K.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2.

Question 4.
A particle executes SHM such that, the maximum velocity during the oscillation is numerically equal to half the maximum acceleration. What is the time period ?
Solution:
Given VMax = \(\frac{1}{2}\)aMax
Aω = \(\frac{1}{2}\)ω2
ω = 2
T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{2}\) = π sec.

Question 5.
A mass of 2 kg attached to a spring of force constant 260 Nm-1 makes 100 oscillations. What is the time taken ?
Solution:
m = 2 kg, k = 260 N/m
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\) = 2 × 3.14\(\sqrt{\frac{2}{260}}\) = 0.5508sec.
∴ Time for 100 oscillations = 100 × 0.5508
= 55.08 sec.

Question 6.
A simple pendulum in a stationery lift has time period T. What would be the effect on the time period when the lift

(i) moves up with uniform velocity
(ii) moves down with uniform velocity
(iii) moves up with uniform acceleration a
(iv) moves down with uniform acceleration ‘a’
(v) begins to fall freely under gravity ?

Solution:

i) When the lift moves up with uniform velocity
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)
No change in time period.

ii) When the lift moves down with uniform velocity. No change in the time period.

iii) When the lift moves up with acceleration.
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{g+a}}\)
Time period decreases.

iv) When the lift moves down with acceleration.
T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{g-a}}\)
Time period increases.

v) Lift falls freely, a = g
T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{l}{g-g}}\) = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{0}}\) = ∝
Time period becomes infinity.

Question 7.
A particle executing SHM has amplitude of 4 cm and its acceleration at a distance of 1 cm from the mean position is 3 cm s-2. What will is velocity be when it is at a distance of 2 cm from its mean position ?
Solution:
A = 4 cm, x1 = 1 cm, a = 3 cm/s2
a = ω2x1
3 = ω2 × 1
ω = \(\sqrt{3}\)
Velocity v = ω\(\sqrt{A^2-x_2^2}\)
(∵ x2 = 2 cm)
v = \(\sqrt{3} \sqrt{4^2-2^2}\)
v = \(\sqrt{3} \times \sqrt{12}\)
v = \(\sqrt{36}\) = 6 cm/s.

Question 8.
A simple harmonic oscillator has a time period of 2s. What will be the change in the phase 0.25 s after leaving the mean position ?
Solution:
T = 2 sec
t = 0.25 sec
sin ωt = sin\(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\right) t\)
ϕ = ωt = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\) × t
= \(\frac{2 \pi}{2}\) × 0.25
ϕ = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 9.
A body describes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 5 cm and a period of 0.2 s. find the acceleration and velocity of the body when the displacement is
(a) 5 cm.
(b) 3 cm.
(c) 0 cm.
Solution:
A = 5 cm = 5 × 10-2 m
T = 0.2 sec.

i) y = 5 cm = 5 × 10-2 m
ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{0.2}\) = 10π
Acceleration (a) = -ω22y = -(10π)2 × 5 × 10-2
a = -5π2 m/s2
Velocity (v) = ω\(\sqrt{A^2-y^2}\)
= 10π\(\sqrt{\left(5 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2-\left(5 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2}\)

ii) y = 3 cm = 3 × 10-2 m
Acceleration (a) = -ω2y = -(10π)2 × 3 × 10-2
= -3π2 m/s2
Velocity (v) = ω\(\sqrt{A^2-y^2}\)
= 10π\(\sqrt{\left(5 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2-\left(3 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2}\)
= 10π\(\sqrt{25-9}\) × 10-2
v = 0.4π m/s.

iii) y = 0 cm
a = -ω2y = -(10π)2 × 0
Velocity (v) = ω\(\sqrt{A^2-y^2}\)
= 10π\(\sqrt{\left(5 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2-0}\)
= 0.5π m/s

Question 10.
The mass and radius of a planet are double that of the earth. If the time period of a simple pendulum on the earth is T, find the time period on the planet.
Solution:
g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\)
g ∝ \(\frac{M}{R^2}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 12

Question 11.
Calculate the change in the length of a simple pendulum of length 1 m, when its period of oscillation changes from 2 s to 1.5 s. (T.S. Mar. ’18)
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 13

Question 12.
A freely falling body takes 2 seconds to reach the ground on a plane, when it is dropped from a height of 8 m. If the period of a simple pendulum is seconds on the planet, calculate the length of the pendulum.
Solution:
u = 0, t = 2 sec, s = h = 8 m
s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at
s = 0 × t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × g × 22
g = 4m/s2
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)
π = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{4}}\)
l = 1 m = 100 cm.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 13.
The period of a simple pendulum is found to increase by 50% when the length of the pendulum is increased by 0.6 m. Calculate the initial length and the initial period of oscillation at a place where g = 9.8 m s-2.
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 14

Question 14.
A clock regulated by a second’s pendulum keeps correct time. During summer the length of the pendulum increases to 1.02 m. How much will the clock gain or lose in one day ?
Solution:
T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)
T ∝ \(\sqrt{l}\)
\(\frac{d T}{T}\) = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{d} l}{l}\)
T = 2 sec, l = \(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\pi^2}\) = 0.9927
dl = 1.02 – 0.9927 = 0.0273
\(\frac{d T}{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{0.0273}{0.9927}\right)\)
dT = \(\frac{0.0273}{0.9927}\)
No. of oscillations performed per day by seconds pendulum = \(\frac{\text { One day }}{2 \text { Sec. }}\)
= \(\frac{86,400}{2}\) = 43,200.

The gain (or) loss of time per day = No. of oscillations in one day to the change in time for one oscillation = 43,200 × \(\frac{0.0273}{0.9927}\)
= 1180 sec.

Question 15.
The time period of a body suspended from a spring is T. What will be the new time period if the spring is cut into two equal parts and the mass is suspended
(i) from one part
(ii) simultaneously from both the parts ?
Answer:
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
i) Spring is cut into two parts, k’ = 2k
T’ = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k^{\prime}}}\) = \(\frac{T}{\sqrt{2}}\)
ii) When the mass is suspended from both the parts
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{2 k+2 k}}\) = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{4 k}}\) = \(\frac{T}{2}\)

Additional Problems

Question 1.
Which of the following examples represent periodic motion ?
a) A swimmer completing one (return) trip from one bank of a river to the other and back. .
b) A freely suspended bar magnet displaced from its N – S direction and released.
c) A hydrogen molecule rotating about its centre of mass.
d) An arrow released from a bow.
Solution:
a) It is not a periodic motion. Though the motion of a swimmer is to and fro but will not have a definite period.
b) It is a periodic motion because a freely suspended magnet if once displaced from N-S direction and let it go, it oscillation about this position. Hence it is simple harmonic motion also.
c) It is also a periodic motion.
d) It is not a periodic motion.

Question 2.
Which of the following examples represent (nearly) simple harmonic motion and which represent periodic but not simple harmonic motion ?
a) The rotation of earth about its axis.
b) Motion of an oscillating mercury column in a U-tube.
c) Motion of a ball bearing inside a smooth curved bowl, when released from a point slightly above the lower most point.
d) General vibrations of a polyatomic molecule about its equilibrium position.
Solution:
a) It is periodic but not SHM because it is not to and fro motion about a fixed point.
b) It is SHM
c) It is SHM
d) It is a periodic but not SHM. A polyatomic gas molecule has a number of natural frequencies and its general motion is the resultant of S.H.M’s of a number of different frequencies. The resultant motion is periodic but not SHM.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 3.
Fig. depicts four x-t plots for linear motion of a particle. Which of the plots represent periodic motion ? What is the period of motion (in case of periodic motion)?
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 15
Solution:
a) Does not represent periodic motion, as the motion neither repeats nor comes to mean position.
b) Represents periodic motion with period equal to 2s.
c) Does not represent periodic motion, because it is not identically repeated.
d) Represents periodic motion with periodic equal to 2s.

Question 4.
Which of the following functions of time represent
(a) simple harmonic, (b) periodic but not simple harmonic, and (c) non-periodic motion ? Give period for each case of periodic motion (ω is any positive constant)
a) sin ωt – cos ωt
b) sin3 ωt
c) 3 cos (π/4 – 2ωt)
d) cos ωt + cos 3ωt + cos 5 ωt
e) exp (-ω2t2)
f) 1 + ωt + ω2t2.
Solution:
The function will represent a periodic motion, if it is identically repeated after a fixed interval of time and will represent SHM. If it can be written uniquely in the form of a
cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{t}}{\mathrm{T}}+\phi\right)\) or a
sin \(\left(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{t}}{\mathrm{T}}+\phi\right)\), where T is the time period.

a) sin ωt – cos ωt
= \(\sqrt{2}\)(\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)sin ωt – \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)cos ωt)
= \(\sqrt{2}\)(sin ωt cos \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) – cos ωt sin \(\frac{\pi}{4}\))
= \(\sqrt{2}\)(ωt\(\frac{\pi}{4}\))
It is a S.H.M and its period is 2π/ω.

b) sin3 ωt = \(\frac{1}{4}\)(3sin ωt – sin 3ωt)
Here each term sin ωt and sin 3ωt individually represents S.H.M. But (ii) which is the out come of the super position of two S.H.Ms will only be periodic but not S.H.M. its time period is 2π/ω.
(∵ cos (-θ) = cos θ).

c) 3 cos \(\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-2 \omega t\right)\) = 3 cos \(\left(2 \omega t-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
Clearly it represents S.H.M. and its time period is 2π/2ω.

d) cos ωt + cos 3ωt + cos 5ωt it represents the periodic but not S.H.M its time period is 2π/ω.

e) \(\mathrm{e}^{-\omega^2 t^2}\) it is an exponential function which never repeats itself. Therefore it represents non-periodic motion.

f) 1 + ωt + ω2t2 also represents non periodic motion.

Question 5.
A particle is in linear simple harmonic motion between two points, A and B, 10 cm apart. Take the direction from A to B as the positive direction and give the signs of velocity, acceleration and force on the particle when it is
a) at the end A
b) at end B
c) at the mid-point of AB going towards A
d) at 2 cm away from B going towards A
e) at 3 cm away from A going towards B and
f) at 4 cm away from B going towards A.
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 16
Refer figure here A and B represent the two extreme positions of a S.H.M. For velocity, the direction from A to B is taken as positive for acceleration and the force, the direction is taken positive if directed along AP and negative if directed along BP.
a) At the end A, the artice executing S.H.M is momentarily at rest being its extreme position of motion, hence its velocity is zero, acceleration is +ve because directed along AP. Force is also +ve since the force is directed towards AP i.e + ve direction.
b) At the end B, velocity is zero. Here acceleration and force are negative as they are directed along BP i.e. along negative direction.
c) At the mid point AB going towards A, the particle is at its mean position P, with a tendency to move along PA i.e. -ve direction. Hence velocity is -ve both acceleration and force are zero.
d) At 2 cm away from B going towards A, the particle is at Q, with a tendency to move along QP, which is a negative direction there velocity, acceleration and force are all -ve.
e) At 3 cm away from A going towards B, the particle is at R with a tendency to move along RP, which is positive direction, there, velocity, acceleration and force are all +ve.
f) At 4 cm away from A going towards A, the particle is at S, with a tendency to move along SA which is negative direction for velocity. Therefore velocity is negative but acceleration is directed towards mean position i.e., along SP, hence +ve. Similarly force is also +ve.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 6.
Which of the following relationships between the acceleration a and the displacement x of a particle involve simple harmonic motion ?
a) a = 0.7x
b) a = -200x2
c) a = -10x
d) a = 100x3
Solution:
In S.H.M acceleration a is related to displacement by the related of the form a = -kx which is for relation (c).

Question 7.
The motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is described by the displacement function.
x(t) = A cos (ωt + ϕ).
If the initial (t = 0) position of the particle is 1 cm and its initial velocity is ω cm/s, what are its amplitude and initial phase angle ? The angular frequency of the particle is πs-1. If instead of the cosine function, we choose the sine function to describe the SHM : x = B sin (ωt + α), what are the amplitude and initial phase of the particle with the above initial conditions.
Solution:
Here, at t = 0, x = 1 cm and v = ω cm s-1, ϕ = ?; ω = πs-1
Given x = A cos (ωt + ϕ)
1 = A cos (π × 0 + ϕ) or
= A cos ϕ —– (i)
Velocity, v = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = – Aω(sin ωt + ϕ)
∴ ω = -Aω sin (π × 0 + ϕ) or 1 = – A sin ϕ
or A sin ϕ = -1 —— (ii)
Squaring and adding (i) and (ii)
A2(cos2 ϕ + sin2 ϕ) = 1 + 1 = 2 or A2 = 2 or A = \(\sqrt{2}\) cm
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get
tan ϕ = -1 or ϕ = \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\) or \(\frac{7 \pi}{4}\)
For, x = B sin (ωt + α) —— (iii)
At t = 0, x = 1, so,
1 = B sin (ω × 0 + α) = B sin α —– (iv)
Differentiating (iii), w.r.t, t we have dx
velocity, v = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = Bω cos (ωt + α)
Applying initial conditions i.e. at t = 0, v = ω
ω = Bωcos (π × 0 + α)
or 1 = B cos α —– (v)
Squaring and adding (iv) and (v) we get
B2sin2α + B2 cos2 α = 12 + 12 = 2 or B2 = 2 or B = \(\sqrt{2}\) cm
Dividing (iv) by (v), we have
\(\frac{B \sin \alpha}{B \cos \alpha}\) = \(\frac{1}{1}\) or tan α = 1 or α = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) or \(\frac{5 \pi}{4}\).

Question 8.
A spring balance has a scale that reads from 0 to 50 kg. The length of the scale is 20 cm. A body suspended from this balance, when displaced and released, oscillates with a period of 0.6 s. What is the weight of the body ?
Solution:
Here. m = 50 kg, max. extension.
y = 20 – 0 = 20 cm = 0.2 m; T = 0.65
Max. Force, F = mg = 5 × 9.8 N
K = \(\frac{F}{y}\) = \(\frac{50 \times 9.8}{0.2}\) = 2450 Nm-1
As T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
m = \(\frac{T^2 k}{4 \pi^2}\)
= \(\frac{(0.6)^2 \times 2450}{4 \times(3.14)^2}\)
= 22.36 kg
∴ Weight of body = mg = 22.36 × 9.8
= 219.1 N
= 22.36 kgf

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 9.
A spring having with a spring constant 1200 Nm-1 is mounted on a horizontal table as shown in fig. A mass of 3 kg is attached to the free end of the spring. The mass is then pulled sideways to a distance of 2.0 cm and released.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 17
Determine
(i) the frequency of oscillations,
(ii) maximum acceleration of the mass, and
(iii) the maximum speed of the mass.
Solution:
Here, k = 1200 Nm-1, m = 3.0 kg, a = 2.0 cm = 0.02 m
a)
Frequency,
υ = \(\frac{1}{T}\) = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{2 \times 3.14} \sqrt{\frac{1200}{3}}\)
= 3.2s-1

b) Acceleration A = ω2y = \(\frac{k}{m}\)y
Acceleration will be maximum when y is maximum i.e. y = a
Max. acceleration, Amax = \(\frac{k_a}{m}\) = \(\frac{1200 \times 0.02}{3}\)
= 8 ms-2

c) Max. speed of the mass will be when it is passing through the mean position, which is given by
Vmax = aω = a\(\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\)
= 0.02 × \(\sqrt{\frac{1200}{3}}\) = 0.4 ms-1

Question 10.
In exercise, let us take the position of mass when the spring is unstreched as x = 0, and the direction from left to right as the positive direction of x-axis. Give x as a function of time t for the oscillating mass if at the moment we start the stopwatch (t = 0), the mass is
a) at the mean position
b) at the maximum stretched position and
c) at the maximum compressed position
In what way do these functions for SHM differ from each other, in frequency, in amplitude or the initial phase ?
Solution:
Here, a = 2.0 cm; ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{1200}{3}}\) = 20s-1

a) As time is noted from the mean position, hence using
x = a sin ωt, we have x = 2 sin 20t

b) At maximum stretched position, the body is the extreme right position, with an initial phase of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad. Then
x = a sin \(\left(\omega t+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)
= a cos ωt = 2 cos 20t

c) At maximum compressed position, the body is at the extreme left position, with an initial phase of \(\frac{3 \pi}{2}\) rad.
Then x = a sin (ωt + \(\frac{3 \pi}{2}\))
= -a cos ωt
= -2 cos 20t

Question 11.
Figures correspond to two circular motions. The radius of the circle, the period of revolution, the initial position, and the sense of revolution (i.e. clockwise or anti-clockwise) are indicated on each figure.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 18
Obtain the corresponding simple ‘ harmonic motions of the x-projection of the radius vector of the revolving particle P, in each case.
Solution:
In Fig. (a) T = 2s ; a = 3 cm
At t = 0, OP makes an angle \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) with X-axis
i.e., ϕ = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) radian.
While moving clockwise, here ϕ = +\(\frac{\pi}{2}\). Thus the X-projection of OP at time t will give us the equation of S.H.M. given by
x = a cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi t}{T}+\phi\right)\)
= 3cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi t}{2}+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\) or x = -3
sin πt (x is in cm)
In Fig. (b) T = 4s ; a = 2m
At t = 0, OP makes an angle π with the positive direction of X-axis i.e., ϕ = π. While moving anticlockwise, here ϕ = +π.
Thus the X-projection of OP at time t will give us the equation of S.H.M. as
x = a cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi t}{T}+\phi\right)\)
= 2 cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi t}{4}+\pi\right)\)
= -2 cos \(\left(\frac{\pi}{2} t\right)\) (x is in m)

Question 12.
Plot the corresponding reference circle for each of the following simple harmonic motions. Indicate the initial (t = 0) position of the particle, the radius of the circle, and the angular speed of the rotating particle. For simplicity, the sense of rotation may be fixed to be anticlockwise in every case : (x is in cm and t is in s).
a) x = -2 sin (3t + π/3)
b) x = cos (π/6 – t)
c) x = 3 sin (2πt + π/4)
d) x = 2 cos πt.
Solution:
If we express each function of the form
x = a cos (cot + ϕ) —— (i)
Where ϕ is the initial phase i.e., ϕ represents the angle which the initial radius vector of the particle makes with the -l-ve direction of X-axis.

a) x = -2 sin (3t + \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)) = 2 cos (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) + 3t + \(\frac{\pi}{3}\))
or x = 2 cos (3t + \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\))
Comparing it with equation (i), we note
that a = 2, ω = 3 and ϕ = \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\)
Hence, the reference circle will be shown in Fig. (a).

b) x = cos\(\left(\frac{\pi}{6}-t\right)\) = cos \(\left(t-\frac{\pi}{6}\right)\)
(∵ cos (-θ) = cos θ))
Comparing it with equation (i), we note
that a = 1, ω and ϕ = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
The reference circle will be as shown in Fig. (b).

c) x = 3 sin \(\left(2 \pi t+\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
= 3 cos \(\left(2 \pi t+\frac{3 \pi}{2}+\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
Comparing it with equation (i), we note that a = 3, ω = 2π and ϕ = \(\frac{3 \pi}{2}\) + \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) = \(\frac{7 \pi}{4}\)
The reference circle will be as in Fig. (c).

d) x = 2 cos πt
Comparing it with equation (i), we note
that a = 2, = π and ϕ = 0.
The reference circle will be as shown Fig. (d)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 19

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 13.
Figures (a) shows a spring of force constant k clamped rigidly at one end and a mass m attached to its free end. A force F applied at the free end stretches the spring. Figure (b) shows the same spring with both ends free and attached to a mass at either end. Each end of the spring in Fig. (b) is stretched by the same force F.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 20
a) What is the maximum extension of the spring in two cases ?
b) If the mass in Fig. (a) and the two masses in Fig. (b) are released, what is the period of oscillation in each case ?
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 21
a) The maximum extension of the spring in both the cases will be = \(\frac{F}{K}\), where K is the spring constant of the spring used.
b) In Fig. (a), if x is the extension in the spring, when mass m is returning to its mean posi-tion after being released free, then restoring force on the mass is F = -Kx i.e., F ∝ x.
As this F is directed towards mean position of the mass, hence the mass attached to the spring will execute SHM. Here, spring factor = spring constant
= K
Inertia factor = mass of the given mass
= m
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 22
In Fig.(b). we have a two body system of spring constant K and reduced mass,
μ = \(\frac{m \times m}{m+m}\) = \(\frac{m}{2}\)
Here, inertia factor = \(\frac{m}{2}\)
and spring factor = K
∴ Time period, T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{(m / 2)}{k}}\)
= 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{m}{2 K}}\)

Question 14.
The piston in the cylinder head of a locomotive has a stroke (twice the amplitude) of 1.0 m. If the piston moves with simple harmonic motion with an angular frequency of 200 rad/min. what is its maximum speed ?
Solution:
Given a = \(\frac{1}{2}\)m; ω = 200 rev/min ;
Vmax = aω
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 200
= 100 m/min.

Question 15.
The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon is 1.7 ms-2. What is the time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of moon if its time period on the surface of earth is 3.5 s ? (g on the surface of earth is 9.8 ms-2).
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 23

Question 16.
Answer the following questions :
a) Time period of a particle in SHM depends on the force constant k and mass m of the particle :
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{k}}}\). A simple pendulum executes SHM approximately. Why then is the time period of a pendulum independent of the mass of the pendulum ?
b) The motion of a simple pendulum is approximately simple harmonic for small angle oscillations. For larger angles of oscillation, a more involved analysis shows that T is greater than \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\). Think of a qualitative argument to appreciate this result.
c) A man with a wristwatch on his hand falls from the top of a tower. Does the watch give correct time during the free fall ?
d) What is the frequency of oscillation of a simple pendulum mounted in cabin that is freely falling under gravity ?
Solution:
a) For a simple pendulum, force constant or spring factor K is proportional to mass m, therefore, m cancels out in denominator as well as in numerator. That is why the time period of simple pendulum is independent of the mass of the bob.

b) The effective restoring force acting on the bob of simple pendulum in displaced position is
F = -mg sin θ. When θ is small, sin θ = θ. Then the expression for time period of simple pendulum is given by T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\mu \mathrm{g}}\) When θ is large sin θ < θ, if the restoring force mg sin θ is replaced by mgθ, this amounts to effective reduction in the value of ‘g’ for large angles and hence an increase in the value of time period T.

c) Yes, because the working of the wrist watch depends on spring action and it has nothing to do with gravity.

d) We know that gravity disappears for a man under free fall, so frequency is zero.

Question 17.
A simple pendulum of length l and having a bob of mass M is suspended in a car. The car is moving on a circular track of radius R with a uniform speed v. If the pendulum makes small oscillations in a radial direction about its equilibrium position, what will be its time period ?
Solution:
Centripetal acceleration, ac = \(\frac{v^2}{R}\), it is acting horizontally.
Acceleration due to gravity = g acting vertically downwards.
Effective acceleration due to gravity
g’ = \(\sqrt{g^2+\frac{v^4}{R^2}}\)
∴ Time period, T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)
= 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{g^2+v^4 / R^2}}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 18.
A cylindrical piece of cork of density of base area A and height h floats in a liquid of density ρ1. The cork is depressed slightly and then released. Show that the cork oscillates up and down simple harmonically with a period.
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{h \rho}{\rho_1 g}}\)
where ρ is the density of cork. (Ignore damping due to viscosity of the liquid).
Solution:
Mass of the cylinder (m) = volume × density
= Ahρ ——- (1)
F1 = weight of the liquid displaced by the length l of the cylinder
= (Al)ρ1g —— (2)
Weight of the cylinder = mg —– (3)
In equilibrium position, mg = Alρ1g
m = Alρ1 —– (4)
F2 = A(l + y)ρ1g —– (5)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 24
Restoring force (F) = -(F2 – mg)
= -[A(l + y)ρ1g – Alρ1g]
F = Ayρ1g = -(Aρ1g)y —— (6)
In S.H.M. F = -Ky —– (7)
From eqs. (6) & (7),
spring factor (K) = Aρ1g ——(8)
Inertia factor, m = Ahρ ——- (9)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 25

Question 19.
One end of a U-tube containing mercury is connected to a suction pump and the other end to atmosphere. A small pressure difference is maintained between the two columns. Show that, when the suction pump is removed, the column of mercury in the U-tube executes simple harmonic motion.
Solution:
Consider a liquid of density ρ contained in a vertical U-tube of cross-sectional area A. Total length of the liquid column from P to P1 is L.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 26
Mass (m) = LAρ
PQ = y, P1Q1 = y, QQ1 = 2y
Restoring force (F) = -(A2y)ρg
= -(2Aρg)y —– (1)
F ∝ -y
Hence oscillations in U-tube is S.H.M.

Question 20.
An air chamber of volume V has a neck area of cross section a into which a ball of mass m just fits and can move up and down without any friction (Fig.). Show that when the ball is pressed down a little and released, it executes SHM. Obtain an expression for the time period of oscillations assuming pressure-volume variations of air to be isothermal (see Fig.).
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 27
Solution:
Consider an air chamber of volume V with a long neck of uniform area of cross-section A, and a frictionless ball of mass m filled smoothly in the neck at position C. The pressure of air below the ball inside the chamber is equal to the atmospheric pressure. Increase the pressure on the ball by a little amount P, so that the ball is depressed to position D, where CD = y.
There will be decrease in volume and hence increases in pressure of air inside the chamber. The decrease in volume of the air inside the chamber.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 28
Here, negative sign shows that the increase in pressure will decrease the volume of air in the chamber.
Now, ρ = \(\frac{-E A y}{V}\)
Due to this excess pressure, the restoring force acting on the ball is
F = P × A = \(\frac{-E A y}{V} \cdot A\)
= \(\frac{-E A^2}{V} y\) —- (1)
Since F ∝ y and negative sign shows that the force is directed towards equilibrium position, if the applied increased pressure is removed from the ball, the ball with start executing linear SHM in the neck of chamber with C as mean position.
In a S.H.M., the restoring force,
F = -Ky —- (2)
Comparing (1) and (2), we have spring factor.
K = \(\frac{E A^2}{V}\)
Here, inertia factor = mass of ball = m
Inertia factor Spring factor
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 29

Note : If the ball oscillates in the neck of chamber under isothermal conditions, then E = P = Pressure of air inside the chamber, when ball is at equilibrium position. If the ball oscillates in the neck of chamber under adiabatic conditions, then E = υP, where v = \(\frac{c_p}{c_v}\).

Question 21.
You are riding in an automobile of mass 3000 kg. Assuming that you are examining the oscillation characteristics of its suspension system. The suspension sags 15 cm when the entire automobile is placed on it. Also, the amplitude of oscillation decreases by 50% during one complete oscillation. Estimate the values of (a) the spring constant k and (b) the damping constant b for the spring and shock absorber system of one wheel, assuming that each wheel supports 750 kg.
Solution:
Here, M = 3000 kg ; x = 0.15 cm ; if K is the spring constant of each spring, then spring constant of 4 springs in parallel to support the whole mass is, K = 4 K.
4 kx = Mg
k = \(\frac{M g}{4 x}\)
= \(\frac{3000 \times 10}{4 \times 0.15}\)
= 5 × 104 N/m.

b) If m is the mass supported by each spring, then m = \(\frac{3000}{4}\) = 750 kg.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 30

Question 22.
Show that for a particle in linear SHM the average kinetic energy over a period of oscillation equals the average potential energy over the same period.
Solution:
Consider a particle of mass m be executing S.H.M. with period T. The displacement of the particle at an instant t, when time period is noted from the mean position is given by
Y = a sin ωt
∴ Velocity 1 V = \(\frac{\mathrm{dy}}{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{t}}\) = aω cos ωt
K.E., EK = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)ma2ω2 cos2 ωt
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 31
Average P.E. over one cycle is
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 32

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 23.
A circular disc of mass 10 kg is suspended by a wire attached to is centre. The wire is twisted by rotating the disc and released. The period of torsional oscillations is found to be 1.5s. The radius of the disc is 15 cm. Determine the torsional spring constant of the wire. (Torsional spring constant a is defined by the relation J = -α θ, where J is the restoring couple and θ the angle of twist).
Solution:
Here, m = 10kg; R = 15 cm = 0.15m; T = 1.55, ∝ = ?
Moment of inertia of disc,
I = \(\frac{1}{2} m R^2\)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × (0.15)2 kgm2
Now T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{\alpha}}\)
so, α = \(\frac{4 \pi^2 1}{T^2}\)
= 4 × \(\left(\frac{22}{7}\right)^2\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{10 \times(0.15)^2}{(1.5)^2}\)
= 1.97Nm/rad.

Question 24.
A body describes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 5 cm and a period of 0.2 s. Find the acceleration and velocity of the body when the displacement is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 0 cm.
Solution:
Here, r = 5 cm = 0.05 m ; T = 0.25 ;
ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\mathrm{T}}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{0.2}\)
= 10p rad/s
When displacement is y, then acceleration
A = -ω2y
Velocity, v = ω\(\sqrt{r^2-y^2}\)

Case (a) : When y = x cm = 0.05 m
A = -(10π)2 × 0.05
= -5π2 m/s2
V = 10π\(\sqrt{(0.05)^2-(0.05)^2}\) = 0

Case (b) : When y = 3 cm = 0.03 m
A = -(10π)2 × 0.03
= -3π2 m/s2
V= 10π × \(\sqrt{(0.05)^2-(0.03)^2}\)
= 10π × 0.04
= 0.4π m/s

Case (c): When y = 0,
A = -(10π)2 × 0 = 0
V= 10π\(\sqrt{(0.05)^2-(0)^2}\)
= 10π × 0.05
= 0.5π m/s.

Question 25.
A mass attached to a spring is free to oscillate, with angular velocity ω, in a horizontal plane without friction or damping. It is pulled to a distance x0 and pushed towards the centre with a velocity v0 at time t = 0. Determine the amplitude of the resulting oscillations in terms of the parameters ω, x0 and V0.
[Hint : Start with the equation x = a cos (ωt + θ) and note that the initial velocity is negative.]
Solution:
x = A cos (ωt + θ) dx
Velocity, \(\frac{\mathrm{dx}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = -Aω sin (ωt + θ) dt
When t = 0, x = x0, and \(\frac{\mathrm{dx}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = -V0
∴ x0 = A cos θ
-V0 = -Aω sin θ or A sin θ = \(\frac{V_0}{\omega}\)
Squaring and adding- (i) and (ii), we get
A2(sin2 θ + cos2 θ) = \(\left(\frac{v_0^2}{\omega^2}\right)+x_0^2\)
A = \(\left[\frac{v_0^2}{\omega^2}+x_0^2\right]^{1 / 2}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 7th Lesson Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 7th Lesson Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Is it necessary that a mass should be present at the centre of mass of any system?
Answer:
No. Any mass need not be present at the centre of mass of a system.
Ex : a hollow sphere, centre of mass lies at its centre.

Question 2.
What is the difference in the positions of a girl carrying a bag in one of her hands and another girt carrying a bag in each of her two hands?
Answer:
When the girl carries a bag in one hand (left) her centre of mass shifts towards the other hands (right). In order to bring it in the middle, the girl has to lean towards her other side. When the girl carries a bag in each of her two hands (left and right), the centre of mass does not shift. The girl does not bend any side because of the same hags’ .w in her two hands.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 3.
Two rigid bodies have same moment of inertia about their axes of symmetry. Or the two, which body will have greater kinetic energy?
Answer:
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I ω2 = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{L}^2}{1}\) , E oc \(\frac{1}{l}\) (∵ L = constant)
The rigid body having less moment of inertia will have greater kinetic energy.

Question 4.
Why are spokes provided in a bicycle wheel ?
Answer:
By connecting to the rim of wheel to the axle through the spokes the mass of the wheel gets concentrated at its rim. This increases its moment of inertia. This ensures its uniform speed.

Question 5.
We cannot open or close the door by applying force at the hinges, why ?
Answer:
When the force is applied at the hinges, the line of action of the force passes through the axis of rotation i.e, r = 0, so we can not open or close the door by pushing or pulling it at the hinges.

Question 6.
Why do we prefer a spanner of longer arm as compared to the spanner of shorter arm ?
Answer:
The torque applied on the nut by the spanner is equal to the force multiplied by the perpendicular distance from the axis of rotaion.
A spanner with longer arm provides more torque compared to a spanner with shorter arm. Hence longer arm spanner is preferred.

Question 7.
By spinning eggs on a table top, how will you distinguish a hard boiled egg from a raw egg ? [Mar. 13]
Answer:
A raw egg has some fluid in it and a hard boiled egg is solid form inside. Both eggs are spinning on a table top, the fluid is thrown outwards. Therefore (Ir > Ib) That means M. I of raw egg is greater than boiled egg. As I × ω = constant; ∴ ωr < ωb. That means Angular Velocity of raw egg is less than angular velocity of boiled egg.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 8.
Why should a helicopter necessarily have two propellers ?
Answer:
If there were only one propeller in the hellicopter then, due tio conservation of angular momentum, the helicopter itself would have turned in the opposite direction. Hence, if should have two propellers.

Question 9.
It the polar ice caps of the earth were to melt, what would the effect of the length of the day be ?
Answer:
Earth rotates about its polar axis. When ice of polar caps of earth melts, mass concentrated near the axis or rotation spreads out. Therefore, moment of Inertia I increases.

As no external torgue acts, L = I × ω = \(I\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\right)\)= constant. With increase of I, T will increase i.e. length of the day will increase.

Question 10.
Why is it easier to balance a bicycle in motion?
Answer:
When a bicycle is in motion, it is easy to balance because the principle of conservation of angular momentum is involved.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity. [A.P. – Mar. ‘18, ‘16, ‘15, ‘14, ‘13; TS – Mar. ‘16, ‘15, ‘14, ‘13]
Answer:
Centre of mass

  1. Point at which entire mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated, and the motion of the point represents motion of the body.
  2. It refers mass of to body.
  3. In a uniform gravitational field centre of mass and centre of gravity coincide
  4. Centre of mass of the body is defined to describe the nature of motion of a body as a whole.

Centre of gravity

  1. Fixed point through which the weight of the body act.
  2. It refers to the weight acting on all particles of the body
  3. In a non-uniform gravitational field, centre of gravity and centre of mass do not coincide.
  4. Centre of gravity of body is defined to know the amount of stability of the body when supported.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 2.
Show that a system of particles moving under the influence of an external force, moves as if the force is applied at its centre of mass.
Answer:
Consider \(\overrightarrow{r_1}, \overrightarrow{r_2}, \overrightarrow{r_3} \ldots \ldots \overrightarrow{r_n}\) be the position vectors of masses m1, m2, m3 …………. mn of n particle system.
According to Defination of centre of mass.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 4
Differentiating the above equation w.r.t. time, we obtain
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 5
Where Fext represents the sum of all external forces acting on the particles of the system. This equation states that the centre of mass of a system of particles moves as if all the mass of the system was concentrated at the centre of mass and all the external forces were applied at that point.

Question 3.
Explain about the centre of mass of earth-moon system and its rotation around the sun.
Answer:
In the solar system the planets have different velocities and have complex two dimensional motion. But the motion of the centre of mass of the planet is simple and translational. consider the earth and moon system. We consider that the earth is moving around the sun in an elliptical path. But actually the centre of mass of earth and moon moves in an elliptical path round the sun. But the motion of either earth or moon is complicated when considered separately, more over we say that moon goes round the earth.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 6
But actually earth and moon are revolving round their centre of mass such that they are always on opposite sides of the centre of mass. Here the forces of attraction between earth and moon are internal forces.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 4.
Define vector product. Explain the properties of a vector product with two examples. [T.S. AP – Mar. 15]
Answer:
The cross product of two vectors is given by \(\vec{C}=\vec{A} \times \vec{B}\). The magnitude of the vector defined from cross product of two vectors is equal to product of magnitudes of the vectors and sine of angle between the vectors.

Direction of the vectors is given by right hand corkscrew rule and is perpendicular to the plane containing the vectors.
∴ \(|\vec{C}|\) = AB sin θ. and \(\vec{C}\) = AB sin θ \(\hat{n}\). Where, \(\hat{n}\) is the unit vector perpendicular to the plane containing the vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\)
Example: 1) Torque is cross product of position vector and Force. i.e., \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{T}}=\vec{r} \times \vec{F}\)
2) Angular momentum is cross product of position vector and momentum
i.e., \(\vec{L}=\vec{r} \times \vec{p}\)

Properties:

  1. Cross product does not obey commutative law. But its magnitude obeys commutative low.
    \(\vec{A} \times \vec{B} \neq \vec{B} \times \vec{A} \Rightarrow(\vec{A} \times \vec{B})=-(\vec{B} \times \vec{A}),|\vec{A} \times \vec{B}|=|\vec{B} \times \vec{A}|\)
  2. It obeys distributive law \(\vec{A} \times(\vec{B} \times \vec{C})=\vec{A} \times \vec{B}+\vec{A} \times \vec{C}\)
  3. The magnitude of cross product of two vectors which are parallel is zero.
    Since θ = 0; \(|\vec{A} \times \vec{B}|\) = AB sin 0° = 0
  4. For perpendicular vectors, θ = 90°, \(|\vec{A} \times \vec{B}|\) = AB sin 90° \(|\hat{n}|\)= AB

Question 5.
Define angular velocity(u). Derive v = r ω. [T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer:
Angular velocity (ω):
The rate of change of angular displacement of a body is called angular velocity, i.e., ω = \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \theta}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
Derivation of v = rω
consider a rigid body be moving with uniform speed (v)along the circumference of a circle of radius r. Let the body be displaced from A to B in a small interval of time At making an angle ∆θ at the cantre. Let the linear displacement be ∆x from A to B.
From the property of circle, length of arc = radius × angle
∆x = r ∆θ
This equation is divided by ∆t, and taking
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 1

Question 6.
Define angular acceleration and torque. Establish the relation between angular acceleration and torque. [T.S. Mar. 18]
Answer:
Angular acceleration :
The rate of change of angular velocity is called angular acceleration
i.e., α = \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \omega}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
Torque : The rate of change of angular momentum is called torque or The moment of Force is called Torque.

Relation between angular acceleration and Torque: Consider a rigid body of mass ‘M’ rotating in a circular path of radius ‘R’ with angular velocity ‘ωω’ about fixed axis.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 2
By definition, τ = \(\frac{\mathrm{dL}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\frac{\mathrm{d}(\mathrm{I} \omega)}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
Where I = MR2 = moment of inertia of a body
τ = I \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \omega}{\mathrm{dt}}\) [∵ I = constant]
But \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \omega}{\mathrm{dt}}\) α
∴ τ = Iα

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 7.
Write the equations of motion for a particle rotating about a fixed axis?
Answer:
Equations of motion for a particle rotating about a fixed axis:
1. ωf = ωf + αt [∵ like v = u + at]
2. θ = \(\left(\frac{\omega_f+\omega_t}{2}\right) t\) [∵ like v = \(\left(\frac{v_1+v_2}{2}\right) t\)]
3. θ = ωit + \(\frac{1}{2}\) α t2 [∵ like s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2]
4. ωf2 – ωi2 = 2 α θ [∵ like v2 – u2 = 2as]
Where ωi = Initial angular velocity
ωf = Final angular velocity
α = Angular acceleration
θ = Angujar displacement
t = time

Question 8.
Derive expressions for the final velocity and total energy of a body rolling without slipping.
Answer:
Expression of velocity of a body Rolling down an inclined plane:
Consider a rigid body of mass M and radius R rolling down an inclined plane from a height h . Let v the linear speed acquired by the body when it reaches the bottom of the plane and k is its radius of gyration.

According to law of conservation of Energy, we have P.E of body on top of inclined plane = K.E of a body at the bottom of inclimed plane
When a body rolls down an incline of height h, we apply the principle of conservation of energy.
P.E at the top – K.E of translation + K.E of rotation
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 3

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Expression of Total energy of a body Rolling down on an inclined plane:
Suppose a body (Sphere) is rolling on a surface. Its motion can be treated as a combination of the translation of the centre of mass and rotation about an axis passing through the centre of mass. The total kinetic energy E can written as
E = ET + ER
Where ET = Translational kinetic energy
and ER = Rotational kinetic energy
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) MR2 ω2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Mk2ω2
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) M ω2 (R2 + K2)
where k is radius of gyration
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Mv2 (1 + \(\frac{K^2}{R^2}\)) [∵ ω = \(\frac{V}{R}\)]

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
a) State and prove parallel axis theorem.
Answer:
Statement: The moment of inertia of a rigid body about any axis is equals to the sum of moment of inertia about a parallel axis passing through centre of mass (lg) and product of mass of body and square of perpendicular distance between two parallel axis.
∴ I = IG + mr2
Proof : Consider a rigid body of mass M. Let I and IG are the moment of inertia of a body about parallel axes X and Y respectively.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 7
Let ‘r’ be the perpendicular distance between two axes.
Moment of inertia about ‘X’ axes is
I = Σm(OP)2 ………………. (1)
Moment of inertia about Y axes is
IG = Σm(GP)2 …………….. (2)
from ∆4 OQP, OP2 = (OQ)2 + (PQ)2
= (OG + GQ)2 + (PQ)2
= OG2 + (GQ)2 + 2.OG.GQ + (PQ)2
= OG2 + (GP)2 + 2(OG) (GQ) (∴ (GP)2 = (GQ)2 + (PQ)2)
Multiplying both sides by Σm,
⇒ Σm(OP)2 = Σm(OG)2 + Σm(GP)2 + 2Σm(OG)(GQ)
from (1) and (2), I = mr2 + IG + 2Σm (OG) (GQ)
But sum of moments of particles about centre of mass is zero.
i.e., Σm (OG) (GQ) = 0
∴ I = IG + mr2
Hence proves.

b) For a thin flat circular disk, the radius of gyration about a diameter as axis is k. If the disk is cut along a diameter AB as shown in to two equal pieces, then find the radius of gyration of each piece about AB.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 8
Answer:
For thin circular disk, the radius of gyration about a diameter
AB is, K = \(\sqrt{\frac{I}{M}}\)
Where M = mass of disk
I = M.I of disk
The disk is cut into two halves about AB, when each,
Mass M’ = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{2}}\) and each M.I, I = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Therefore Radius of gyration of each piece is
K’ = \(\sqrt{\frac{I^{\prime}}{M^{\prime}}}=\sqrt{\frac{\left(\frac{I}{2}\right)}{\left(\frac{M}{2}\right)}}=\sqrt{\frac{I}{M}}\) = k

Question 2.
a) State and prove perpendicular axes theorem.
Answer:
Statement: The moment of inertia of a plane lamina about an axes perpendicular to its plane is equal to sum of moment of inertia of lamina about the perpendicular axes in its plane intersecting each other at a point, where the perpendicular axes passes.
i.e., Iz = Ix + Iy
Proof’ Consider a particle of mass’m’ at p. Let it be at a distance Y from Z-axis. Here ‘X’ and Y axes are in plane Ramina and Z-axes perpendicular to plane lamina.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 9
Now,
Moment of inertia about X-axix, Ix = Σmx2
Moment of inertia about Y-axis, Iy = Σmy2
Moment of inertia about Z-axis, Iz = Σmr2
From ∆4 OQP, r2 = x2 + y2
multiplying both side with Σm,
⇒ Σmr2 = Σmx2 + Σmy2
⇒ Iz = Ix + Iy
Hence proved.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

b) If a thin circular ring and a thin flat circular disk of same mass have same moment of inertia about their respective diameters as axes. Then find the ratio of their radii.
Answer:
For a thin flat circular dist, M.I., Ir = \(\frac{\mathrm{MR}_{\mathrm{r}}^2}{2}\)
For a thin flat circular dist, M.I., Id = \(\frac{\mathrm{MR}_{\mathrm{d}}^2}{2}\)
Given that Ir = Id
\(\frac{M R_r^2}{2}=\frac{M R_d^2}{4} \Rightarrow \frac{R_r^2}{R_d^2}=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)
∴ \(\frac{R_r}{R_d}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \text { or } R_r: R_d=1: \sqrt{2}\)

Question 3.
State and prove the principle of conservation of angular momentum. Explain the principle of conservation of angular momentum with examples. [A.P. Mar 16]
Answer:
Statement: Angular momentum of a body remains constant when the external torque is zero.
L = I ω = constant K.
or I1 ω1 = I2 ω2.
If the moment of Inertia of a body is lowered, the angular velocity of the body co increases.
Proof:
By derfination, the rate of change of angular momentum is called Torque.
i.e., τ = \(\frac{\mathrm{dL}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
If τ = 0 ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{dL}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = 0
or L = constant k
⇒ L1 = L2
∴ I1 ω1 = I2 ω2
Example 1): When a man with stretched out arms stands on a turn table which is revolving then his moment of inertia is high. If he folded his hands, the moment of inertia decreases and hence the angular velocity, linear velocity increase, but the period decreases. In both cases angular momentum remains constant.

Example 2): An acrobat from a swing in a circus, leaves the swing with certain angular momentum, with his arms and legs stretched. As soon as he leaves the swing he pulls his hands and legs together thus lowering his M.I. and increasing his angular velocity. He then quickly makes somersaults in air and finally lands on a net or ground.

Problems

Question 1.
Show that a(b × c) is equal in magnitude to the volume of the parallelepiped formed on the three vectors a, b and c.
Solution:
Let a parallele piped be formed on three vectors.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 10
Which is equal in magnitude to the volume of the parallel piped.

Question 2.
A rope of negligible mass is wound 4. round a hollow cylinder of mass 3kg and redius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30N ? What is the linear acceleration of the rope ? Assume that there is no slipping.
Solution:
Here M = 3kg, R = 40 cm = 0.4 m
Moment of intertia of the hollow cylinder about its axis
I = MR2 = 3(0.4)2 = 0.48 kgm2
Force applied F = 30 N
∴ Torque, τ = F × R= 30 × 0.4 = 12 N – m.
If α is the angular acceleration, produced, then from τ = Iα
α = \(\frac{\tau}{\mathrm{l}}=\frac{12}{0.48}\) = 25 rads-2
Linear acceleration, a = Rα = 0.4 × 25 = 10 m/s2

Question 3.
A coin is kept a distance of 10 cm from the centre of a circular turntable. If the coefficient of static friction between the table and the coin is 0.8 find the frequency of rotation of the disc at which the coin will just begin to slip.
Solution:
Here, radius, r = 10cm = 0.1 m; μs = 0.8
F = μmg
mrω2 = μmg
2 = μg
ω = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{r}}=\sqrt{\frac{0.8 \times 9.8}{0.1}}=\sqrt{8 \times 9.8}\)
= 8.854 rad/s
w = 2πn
∴ frequency n = \(\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}=\frac{8.854}{2 \times 3.14}\) = 1 .409rps
n = 1.409 × 60 = 84.54 rpm

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 4.
Particles of masses 1g, 2g, 3g…. 100g are kept at the marks 1 cm. 2cm, 3cm ….100cm respectively on 2 meter scale. Find the moment of inertia of the system of particles about a perpendicular bisector of the meter scale. –
Solution:
By adding all the masses, we get M = 5050g
= 5.050 kg
= 5.1 kg
and L = 1 m
M.I. of the meter scale = \(\frac{\mathrm{mL}^2}{12}=\frac{5.1 \times 1^2}{12}\)
= 0.425kg m2
= 0.43kg -m2

Question 5.
Three particles each of mass 100g are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side length 10 cm. Find the moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the centroid Of the triangle and perpendicular to its plane.
Solution:
m = 100 g = 100 × 10-3kg
Side a = 10 cm
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 11

Question 6.
Four particles each of mass 100g are placed at the corners of a square of side 10 cm. Find the moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the centre of the square and perpendicular to its plane. Find also the radius of gyration of the system.
Solution:
mass m = 100g
= 100 × 10-3kg
M = 4m = 400 × 10-3kg
radius r = 10cm
= 10 × 10-2m
Moment of Inertia I = Mr2
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 12

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 7.
Two uniform circular discs, each of mass 1 kg and radius 20 cm, are kept in contact about the tangent passing through the point of contact. Find the moment of inertia of the system about the tangent passing through the point of contact.
Solution:
Mass m = 1kg; r = 20cm = 20 × 10-2m
I = I1 + I<sub2
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 13
I1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{MR}^2}{4}\) + MR2
I1 = \(\frac{5\mathrm{MR}^2}{4}\)
Similarly I2 = \(\frac{5\mathrm{MR}^2}{4}\)
∴ I = \(\frac{10 \mathrm{MR}^2}{4}=\frac{10 \times 1 \times\left(20 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2}{4}\) = 0.1 kg-m2

Question 8.
Four spheres, each diameter 2a and mass ‘m’ are placed with their centres on the four corners of a spuare of the side b. Calculate the moment of inertia of the system about any side of the square.
Solution:
I1 = mb2
I2 = \(\frac{2}{5}\) ma2
I3 = \(\frac{2}{5}\) ma2
I4 = mb2
∴ Moment of inertia of the system
I = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4
= mb2 + \(\frac{2}{5}\) ma2 + \(\frac{2}{5}\) ma2 + mb2
I = \(\frac{4}{5}\) ma2 + 2mb2
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 14

Question 9.
To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed or 200 rads-1, an engine needs to transmit a torque of 180 Nm. What is the power required by the engine ? (Note : uniform angular velocity in the absence of friction implies zero torque. In practice applied torque is needed to counter frictional torque). Assume that the engine is 100% efficient.
Solution:
Here, ω = 200 rad/s, torque τ = 180 N – m, power p = ?
As p = τ ω
∴ p = 180 × 200 = 3600.watt = 36 kw.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 10.
A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 5g are put one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the stick is found to be balanced at 45.0 cm. What is the mass of the metre stick ?
Solution:
Let M be the mass of stick concentrated at L, the 50 cm, mark.
For equilibrium about G’ the 45 cm mark,
10g (45 – 12) = mg(50 – 45)
10 g × 33 = mg × 5
M = \(\frac{10 \times 33}{5}\) = 66 gram.

Question 11.
Determine the kinetic energy of a circular disc rotating with a speed of 60 rpm about an axis passing through a point on its circumference and perpendicular to its plane. The circular disc has a mass of 5kg and radius 1m.
Solution:
Here M = 5kg; R = 1 m;
ω = 2π × \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{t}}\) = 2n × \(\frac{60}{60}\) rad /s = 2π rad/s
The M.I of disc about parallel axis passing through a point on its circumferance
I = \(\frac{\mathrm{MR}^2}{2}\) + MR2 = \(\frac{3}{2}\) MR2
∴ Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I ω2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{3}{2}\) MR2 ω2 = \(\frac{3}{4}\) × 5 × (1)2 × (2π)2
= \(\frac{3}{4}\) × 5 × 4π2 = 15 × (\(\frac{22}{7}\)2
∴ K.E = 148.16 J.

Question 12.
Two particles each of mass m and speed v Travel in opposite directions along parallel lines separated by a distance. Show that the vector angular momentum of the two particle system is the same whatever be the point about which the angular momentum is taken.
Solution:
Given that m1 = m2 = m;
\(\vec{V}_1=\vec{V}_2=\vec{V}\)
momentum of 1st particle p1 = \(\mathrm{m} \vec{\mathrm{V}}\)
∴ p1 = \(\mathrm{m} \vec{\mathrm{V}}\)
momentum of 2nd particle \(\vec{\mathrm{P}}_2=\mathrm{mV}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 15
If two particles moves oppositely on
Circumference of circle, distance d = 2r
Angular momentum of 1st particle w.r.t
Centre ‘O’ is \(\vec{L_1}=\vec{r} \times \vec{P}_1=\vec{r} \times m \vec{V}\)
Angular momentum of 2nd particle w.r.t
centre ‘O’ is \(\vec{\mathrm{L}_2}=\vec{\mathrm{r}} \times \vec{\mathrm{P}_2}=\vec{\mathrm{r}} \times \mathrm{m} \vec{\mathrm{V}}\)
∴ \(\vec{L_1}=\vec{L_2}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 13.
The moment of inertia of a fly wheel making 300 revolutions per minute is 0.3 kgm 2 Find the torque required to bring it to rest in 20s.
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 16

Question 14.
When 100 J of work is done on a fly wheel, its angular velocity is increased from 60 rpm to 180 rpm. What is the moment of inertia of the wheel ?
Solution:
Here, Initial frequency
n1 = \(\frac{60}{60}\) = 1Hz
Initial angular velocity
ω1 = 2π n1 = 2π rad /sec
Final frequency n2 = \(\frac{180}{60}\) = 3Hz
Final angular velocity
ω2 = 2π n2 = 2π × 3 = 6π rad/sec
Work done = 100 J from work – energy therorem,
Workdone = change in K.E.
W = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I ω22 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) I ω12
100 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I [(6π)2 – (2π)2]
100 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I (32π)2
I = \(\frac{200}{32 \pi^2}\) = 0.634 kg – m2
∴ I = 0.634 kg- m2

Additional Problems

Question 1.
Give the location of the centre of mass of a (i) sphere (ii) cylinder (iii) ring and (iv) cube. each of uniform mass density. Does the centre of mass of a body necessarily lie inside the body?
Solution:
In all the four cases, as the mass density is uniform, centre of mass is located at their respective geometrical centres.
No, it is not necessary that the center of mass of a body should lie on the body for example in caSe of a circular ring. Center of mass is at the centre of the ring, where there is no mass.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 2.
In the HCl molecule the separation between the nuclei of the two atoms Is about 1.27 Å(1 Å = 10-10m). Find the approximate location of the CM of the molecule, given that a chlorine atom is about 35.5 times as massive as a hydrogen atom and nearly all the mass of an atom Is concentrated in its nucleus.
Solution:
Let the mass of the H atom = m unit, mass of the Cl atom = 35.5 m units
Let cm be at the distance xÅ from Htom
∴Distance of cm from CL atom = (1.27 – x) Å
It cm is taken at the origin,
then mx + (1.27 – x) 55.5m = 0
mx = (1.27 – x) 35.5 m.
Negative sign indicates that if chlorine atom is on the right side of cm (+), the hydrogen atom is on the left side of cm, so leavning negative sign, we get
x + 35.5 x = 1.27 × 35.5
36.5 x = 45.085
x = \(\frac{45.085}{36.5}\)
= 1.235
x = 1.235 Å
Hence cm is located on the line joining centres of H and d atoms at a distance 1.235 Å from H.

Question 3.
A child sits stationary at one end of a long trolley moving uniformly with a speed V on a smooth horizontal floor. If the child gets up and runs about on the trolley in any manner, what is the speed of the CM of the (trolley + child) system ?
Solution:
The speed of the centre of mass of the system , (trolley + child) shall remain unchanged, when the child gets up and runs about on the trolley in any manner. This is because forces involved in the exercise are purely internal i.e., from within the system. No external force acts on the system and hence there is no change in velocity of the system.

Question 4.
Show that the area of the triangle contained between the vectors a and b is one half of the magnitude of a × b
Solution:
Let \(\vec{\mathrm{a}}\) represented by \(\vec{\mathrm{OP}}\) and \(\vec{\mathrm{b}}\) be represented by \(\vec{\mathrm{OQ}}\).
Let ∠POQ = θ
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 17
∴ area of ∆ OPQ = \(\frac{1}{2}|\vec{a} \times \vec{b}|\), which was to be proved.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 5.
Show that a.(b × c) is equal in magnitude to the volume of the parallelepiped formed on the three vectors a, b and c.
Solution:
Let a parallel piped be formed on three vectors.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 18
Where \(\hat{n}\) is unit vector along \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}\) perpendicular to the plane containing \(\) and \(\vec{\mathrm{b}}\). Now \(\vec{\mathrm{b}}\) = (a) (be) cos 0°
= abc
Which is equal in magnitude to the volume of the parallelepiped.

Question 6.
Find the components along the x. y. z axes of the angular momentum 1 of a particle whose position vector is r with components x, y, z and momentum is p with components px, py, and pz,. Show that if the particle moves only in the x-y plane the angular momentum has only a z-component.
Solution:
For motion in 3D, the position vector \(\vec{\mathrm{r}}\) and linear momentum vector \(\vec{\mathrm{p}}\) can be written in terms of their rectangular components as follows.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 19
Comparing the coefficient of k on both sides, we have Lz = xpy – ypx.
Therefore the particle moves only in x-y plane. The angular momentum has only z component.

Question 7.
Two particles, each of mass m and speed v. travel in opposite directions along parallel lines separated by a distance d. Show that the vector angular momentum of the two particle system is the same what ever be the point about which the angular momentum is taken.
Solution:
From fig, vector angular momentum of the two particle system any point A on x1 y1 is.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 20
Similary, vector angular momentum of the tw.o particle system, a bout any pt. B on x2y2 is
\(\vec{L_B}=m \vec{v} \times d+m \vec{v} \times 0=m \vec{v} d\)
Let us consider any other point (on AB, where AC = x)
∴ Vector angular momentum of the two particle system about c is
\(\vec{L_c}=m \vec{v}(x)+m \vec{v}(d-x)=m \vec{v} d\)
Clearly, \(\vec{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{A}}}=\vec{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{B}}}=\vec{\mathrm{L}_C}\)
Which has to be proved.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 8.
A non-uniform bar of weight W is suspended at rest by two strings of negligible weight as shown in figure. The angles made by the strings with the vertical are 36.9 and 53.1° respectively. The bar is 2 m long. Calculate the distance d of the centre of gravity of the bar from its left end.
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 21
From fig (b)
θ1 = 36.9°, θ2 = 53.1°
If T1, T2 are the tensions in two strings, then for equilibrium along the horizontal,
T1 sin θ1 = T2 sin θ2
(or) \(\frac{T_1}{T_2}=\frac{\sin \theta_2}{\sin \theta_1}=\frac{\sin 53.1^{\circ}}{\sin 36.9^{\circ}}\)
= \(\frac{0.7407}{0.5477}\) = 1.3523
Let d be the distance of center of gravity c of the bar from the left end.
For rotational equilibrium about c,
T1 cos θ1 Xd = T2 cos θ2 (2 – d)
T1 cos 36.9° × d = T2 cos 53.1° (2 – d)
T1 × 0.8366 d = T2 × 0.6718 (2 – d)
Put T1 = 1.3523 T2 and solve to get
d = 0.745 m.

Question 9.
A car weight 1800 kg. The distance between its front and back axles is 1.8 m. Its centre of gravity is 1.05 m behind the front axle. Determine the force exerted by the level ground on each front wheel and each back wheel.
Solution:
Here, m = 1800 kg
Distance between front and .back axles = 1.8 m
Distance of center of gravity (c) behind the front axle = 1.05 m
Let R1 and R2 be the forces exerted by the level ground on each front wheel and each back wheel. As it is dear from fig.
R1 + R2 = mg = 1800 × 9.8
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 22
For rotational equilibrium about C,
R1 × 1.05 = R2 (1.8 – 1.05) = R2 × 0.75 ………….. (i)
\(\frac{R_1}{R_2}=\frac{0.75}{1.05}=\frac{5}{7}\)
Putting in (i)
\(\frac{5}{7}\) R2 + R2 = 1800 × 9.8
R2 = \(\frac{7 \times 1800 \times 9.8}{12}\)
= 10290 N
R1 = \(\frac{5}{7}\) R2
= \(\frac{5}{7}\) × 10290
= 7350 N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 10.
(a) Find the moment of inertia of a sphere about a tangent to the sphere, given the moment of inertia of the sphere about any of its diameters to be 2 MR2/5. where M is the mass of the sphere and R is the radius of the sphere.
Solution:
a) Moment of inertia of sphere about any diameter = \(\frac{2}{5}\)MR2
Applying theorem of parallel axes,
Moment of inertia of sphere about a tangent to the sphere = \(\frac{2}{5}\)MR2 + M(R)2
= \(\frac{7}{5}\)MR2.

(b) Given the moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R about any of its diameters to be MR2/4, find its moment of inertia about an axis normal to the disc and passing through a point on its edge.
Solution:
We are given, moment of inertia of the disc about any of its diameters = \(\frac{1}{4}\)MR2.
i) Using theorem of perpindicular axes, moment of inertia of the disc about an axis passing through its center and normal to the disc = 2 × \(\frac{1}{4}\)MR2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)MR2
ii) Using theorem of parallel axes, moment of inertia of the disc passing through a point on its edge and normal to the disc
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)R2 + MR2 = \(\frac{3}{2}\) MR2.

Question 11.
Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry, and the sphere is free to rotate about an axis passing through its centre. Which of the two will acquire a greater angular speed after a given time.
Solution:
If M is mass and R is radius of the hollow cylinder and the solid sphere, then
M.I of hollow cylinder about its axis of symmetry I1 = MR2 and
M.I of solid sphere about an axis through its 2 , centre, I1 = \(\frac{2}{5}\) MR2
Torque applied, I = I1 α1 = I2 α2
\(\frac{\alpha_2}{\alpha_1}=\frac{l_1}{l_2}=\frac{M^2}{\frac{2}{5} M R^2}=\frac{5}{2}\)
α2 > α1
From ω = ω0 + αt, we find that for given ω0 and t, ω2 > ω1 to, i.e. angular speed of solid sphere will be greater than angular speed of hallow sphere.

Question 12.
A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg rotates about its axis with angular speed 100 rad s-1. The radius of the cylinder is 0.25m. What is the kinetic energy associated with the rotation of the cylinder ? What is the magnitude of angular momentum of the cylinder about its axis ?
Solution:
Here, M = 20 kg, R = 0.25 m, w – 100 g-1
Moment of inertia of solid cylinder
= \(\frac{\mathrm{MR}^2}{2}=\frac{20 \times(0.25)^2}{2}\) = 0.625 kg/m2
K.E of rotation = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.625 × (100)2 = 3125 J
Angular momentum, L = Iω
= 0.625 × 100
= 62.5 Js.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 13.
a) A child stands at the centre of a turntable with his two arms outstretched. The turntable is set rotating with an angular speed of 40 rev/miri. How much is the angular spped of the child if he folds his hands back and thereby reduces his moment of inertia to 2/5 times the initial value ? Assume that the turntable rotates without friction.
Solution:
Here, intial angular speed ω1 = 40 rev/min, ω2 = ?
Final moment of inertia, I2 = \(\frac{2}{5}\)I, Intial moment of Inertia
As no external torque acts in the process, therefore
Iω = constant
i.e. I2ω2 = I1ω1
ω2 = \(\frac{I_1}{I_2}\) ω1 = \(\frac{5}{2}\) × 40
= 100 rpm

b) Show that the child’s new kinetic energy of rotation is more than the initial kinetic energy of rotation. How do you account for this increase in kinetic energy ?
Solution:
Final K.E of rotation, E2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)I2ω22
Intial K.E of rotation, E1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)I2ω12
\(\frac{E_2}{E_1}=\frac{\frac{1}{2} l_2 \omega_2^2}{\frac{1}{2} l_1 \omega_1^2}=\left(\frac{l_2}{l_1}\right)\left(\frac{\omega_2}{\omega_1}\right)^2\)
= \(\frac{2}{5} \times\left(\frac{100}{40}\right)^2=\frac{5}{2}\) = 2.5
∴ K.E of rotation increase. This is because child spends internal energy folding back his hands.

Question 14.
A rope of negligible mass is wound roung a hollow cylinder of mass 3kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N ? what is the linear acceleration of the rope ? Assume that there is no slipping.
Solution:
Here M = 3kg, R = 40 cm = 0.4 m
Moment of Inertia of the hollow cylinder about its axis
I = MR2 = 3(0.4)2 = 0.48 kgm2
Force applied F = 30 N
∴ Torque, τ = F × R = 30 × 0.4 = 12 N – m.
If α is the angular acceleration, produced, then from τ = Iα
α = \(\frac{\tau}{\mathrm{I}}=\frac{12}{0.48}\) = 25 rads-2
Linear acceleration, a = Rα = 0.4 × 25 = 10 m/s2.

Question 15.
To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed of 200 rad s-1, an engine needs to transmit a torque of 180 N m. What is the power required by the engine ? (Note : uniform angular velocity in the absence of friction implies zero torque. In practice, applied torque is needed to counter frictional torque). Assume that the engine is 100% efficient.
Solution:
Here, ω = 200 rad/s, torque τ = 180 N – m, power p = ?
As p = τω
∴ p = 180 × 200 = 3600 watt = 36 kw.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 16.
From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular hole of radius R/2 is cut out. The centre of the hole is a R/2 from the centre of the original disc. Locate the centre of gravity of the resulting flat body.
Solution:
Suppose mass per unit area of the disc = M
∴ Mass of original disc
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 23
M = πR2 × m
Mass of portion removed from the disc
M’ = π\(\left(\frac{R}{2}\right)^2 \times m=\frac{\pi R^2}{4} m=\frac{M}{4}\)
In fig, mass M is connected at O and mass
M’ is concentrated at O’, where OO’ = \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{2}}\).
After the circular disc of mass M’ is removed, the remaining portion can be considered as a system of two masses M at 0 and – M’ = \(\frac{\mathrm{-M}}{\mathrm{4}}\) at O’. If x is the distance of centre of 4 mass (p) of the remaining part, then
x = \(\frac{M \times O-M^{\prime} \times \frac{R}{2}}{M-M^{\prime}}\)
= \(\frac{\frac{-M}{4} \times \frac{R}{2}}{M-\frac{M}{4}}=\frac{-M R}{8} \times \frac{4}{3 M}=\frac{-R}{6}\)
Negative sign shows that p is the left O.

Question 17.
A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 5g are put one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the stick is found to be balanced at 45.0 cm. What is the mass of the metre stick ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 24
Solution:
Let m be the mass of stick concentrated at c, the 50 cm, mark,
For equilibrium about c’ the 45 cm mark,
10g (45 – 12) = mg(50 – 45)
10 g × 33 = mg × 5
m = \(\frac{10 \times 33}{5}\)
= 66 gram.

Question 18.
A solid sphere rolls down two different inclined planes of the same heights but different angles of inclination, (a) Will it reach the bottom with the same speed in each case ? (b) Will jt take longer to roll down one plane than the other ? (c) If so, which one and why ?
Solution:
Let v be the speed of the solid sphere at the bottom of the incine. Applying principle of conservation of energy, we get
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2 = mgh
As I = \(\frac{2}{5}\) mr2; \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (\(\frac{2}{5}\) mr22 = mgh
as rω = v, \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{5}\) mv2 = mgh
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{10}{7} \mathrm{gh}} .\)
As h is same in two cases, v must be same i.e., It will reach the bottom with the same speed. Time taken to roll down the two planes will also be the same, as their height is the same.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 19.
A hoop of radius 2 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that its centre of mass has a speed of 20 cm/s. How much work has to be done to stop it ?
Solution:
Here, R = 2m, M = 100 kg v = 20 cm/s = 0.2 m/s.
Total energy of the hoop = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (MR)2ω2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2
= mv2.
Work required to stop the hoop = total energy of the hoop
w = mv2 = 100(0.2)2 = 4 joule.

Question 20.
The oxygen molecule has a mass of 5.30 × 10-26 kg and a moment of inertia of 1.94 × 10-46 kg m2 about an axis through its centre perpendicular to the lines joining the two atoms. Suppose the mean speed of such a molecule in a gas is 500 m/s and that its kinetic energy of rotation is two thirds of its kinetic energy of trans-lation. Find the average angular velocity of the molecule.
Solution:
Here, m = 5.30 × 10-26 kg
I = 1.94 × 10--46 . kgm2
v = 500 m/s
If \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{2}}\) is mass of each atom of oxygen and 2r is the distance between the two atoms as shown in fig. then
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 25
= 6.7 × 10-12 rod/s.

Question 21.
A solid cylinder rolls up an inclined plane of angle of inclination 30°. At the bottom of the inclined plane the centre of mass of the cylinder has a speed of 5 m/s.
a) How far will the cylinder go up the plane ?
b) How long will is take to return to the bottom ?
Solution:
Here θ = 30°, v = θm/s
Let the cylinder go up the plane upto a height h
From \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2 = mgh
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (\(\frac{1}{2}\) mr2) ω2 = mgh
\(\frac{3}{4}\) mv2 = mgh
h = \(\frac{3 v^2}{4 g}=\frac{3 \times 5^2}{4 \times 9.8}\) = 1.913 m
If s is the distance up the inclined plane, then as sin θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{s}^2}\)
s = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sin \theta}=\frac{1.913}{\sin 30^{\circ}}\) = 3.826 m
Time taken to return to the bottom
t = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 s\left(1+\frac{k^2}{r^2}\right)}{g \sin \theta}}=t \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 3.826\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)}{9.8 \sin 30^{\circ}}}\) = 1.53 s.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 22.
As shown in Fig. the two sides of a step ladder BA and CA are 1.6 m long and hinged at A. A rope DE, 0.5 m is tied half way up. A weight 40 kg is suspended from a point F.1.2 m from B along the ladder BA. Assuming the floor to be frictionless and neglecting the weight of the ladder, find the tension in the rope and forces exerted by the floor on the ladder.
(Take g = 9.8 m/s2)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 26
(Hint: Consider the equilibrium of each side of the ladder separately.)
Solution:
Data seems to be insufficient

Question 23.
A man stands on a rotating platform, with his arms stretched horizontally holding a 5 kg weight in each hand . The angular speed of the platform is 30 revolutions per minute. The man then brings his arms dose to his body with the distance of each weight from the axis changing from 90cm to 20 cm. Thd moment of inertia of the man together with the platform may be taken to be constant and equal to 7.6 kg m2
(a) What is his new angular speed ? (Neglect friction.)
b) Is kinetic energy conserved in the process ? If not, form where does the change come about ?
Solution:
Here l1 = 7.6 × 2 × 5(0.9)2 = 15.7 kgm2
ω1 = 30 rpm
l2 = 7.6 + 2 × 5(0.2)2 = 8.0 kgm2
ω2 = ?
According to the principle of conservation of angular momentum
l2ω2 = l1ω1
ω2 = \(\frac{l_1}{l_2} \omega_1=\frac{15.7 \times 30}{8.0}\) = 58.88 rpm

Question 24.
A bullet of mass 10 g and speed 500 m/s is fired into a door and gets embedded exactly at the centre of the door. The door is 1.0 m wide and weighs 12 kg. It is hinged at one end and rotates about a vertical axis practically without friction. Find the angular speed of the door just after the bullet embeds into it.
(Hint : The moment of inertia of the door about the vertical axis at one end is ML2/3.)
Solution:
Angular momentum imparted by the bullet
I_ = mv × r = (10 × 10-3) × 500 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 2.5
Also, L = \(\frac{M L^2}{3}=\frac{12 \times 1.0^2}{3}\) = 4kgm
As L = Lω
∴ ω = \(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{1}=\frac{2.5}{4}\) = 0.625 rad/sec.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 25.
Two discs of moments of inertia I, and I2 about their respective axes (normal to the disc and passing through the centre), and rotawing with angular speeds ω1, and ω2 are brought into contact face to face with their axes of rotation coincident,
(a) .What is the angular speed of the two-disc system ?
(b) Show that the kinetic energy of the combined system is less than the sum of the initial kinetic energies of the two discs. How do you account for this loss in energy ? Take ω1 ≠ ω1.
Solution:
Here, total intial angular momentum of the two discs L1 = I1ω1 + I2ω2
Under, the given conditions, moment of intertia of the two disc system = (I1 + I2)
If ω is angular speed of the combined system, the final angular momentum of the system
L2 = (I1 + I2
As no external torque is involved in this excercise, therefore, L2 = L1
(I1 + I2)ω = I1ω1 + I2ω2
ω = \(\frac{I_1 \omega_1+I_2 \omega_2}{I_1+I_2}\)

b) Initial K.E of two disc E1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I1ω12 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) I2ω22
Final K.E of the system E2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (I1 + I22
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 27
∴ E1 – E2 > 0 or E1 > E2 or E2 < E1
Hence there occurs a loss of K.E in the process. Loss of energy = E1 – E2. This loss must be due to friction in the contact of the two discs.

Question 26.
a) Prove the theorem of perpendicular axes.
(Hint: Square of the distance of a point (x, y) in the x – y plane from an axis through the origin and perpendicular to the plane is x2 + y2).
Answer:
Statement: The sum of moments of inertia of a plane lamina about any two perpendicular axes in its plane is equal to its moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to the plane and passing through the point of intersection of the first two axes.

Proof : Consider a plane lamina revolving about the Z axis. Let ‘O’ be the origin of the axis. Imagine a particle of mass ‘m’ lying at a distance ‘r’ from point ‘o’ on the plane. Let x, y be the coordinates of the point P.
Thus r2 = x2 + y2
Then the moment of the body about x-aixs
Ix = Σm y2
The moment of inertia of the body about y-axis.
Iy = Σm x2
Then the moment of inertia of the body about Z-axis
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 28
Iz = Σm r2
Iz = Σm(x2 + y2)
Iz = Σm x2 + Σm y2 = Iy + Ix
∴ Iz = Ix + Iy
Hence perpendicular axes theorem is proved.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

b) Prove the theorem of parallel axes.
(Hint: If the centre of mass is chosen to be the origin Σmiri = 0).
Answer:
Statement: The moment of inertia of a plane lamina about an-axis is equal to the sum of the moment of inertia about a parallel axis passing through the centre of mass and the product of its mass and square of the distance between the two axes i.e., I0 = IG + Mr2
Let IG is the moment of inertia of the plane lamina about the axis Z2 passing through the centre of mass.
I0 is the moment of inertia of the plane lamina about an axis Z1
Let M be the mass of the lamina and r be the distance between the two axes . Then
I0 = IG + mr2.
Proof : Let a particle of mass m is situated at P. Moment of inertia about the axis passing through 0 is
dl = m op2 or I = Σm op2.
Join the lines PO and PG and draw the line PQ and Join with the line extending from OG.
From the trainagle POQ, OP2 = OQ2 + PQ2
OP2 – (OG + GQ)2 + PQ2 + OQ = OG + GQ
OP2 = OG2 + 2OG . GQ + (GQ2 + PQ2)
OP2 – OG2 + 2OG. GQ + GP2
OP2 = OG2 + GP2 + 2OG.GQ
[∵ From the ∆le PGQ, GP2 = PQ2 + GQ2]
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 29
Multiplying with Σm on both side
Σm OP2 = Σm OG2 + Σm GP2 + Σm OG. GQ
But Σm OG2 = Mr2
(∵ OG is constant and Σm = M, total mass of the body)
Σm GP2 = IG
Σm OP2 = I0
∴ I0 = Mr2 – IG + 2r ΣmGQ
Σm.GQ = 0
[∵ The moment of all the particles about the centre of mass is always zero]
I0 = IG + Mr2
Thus the theorem is proved.

Question 27.
Prove the result that the velocity u of translation of a rolling body (like a ring, disc, cylinder or sphere) at the bottom of an inclined plane of a height h is given by υ2 = \(\frac{2 g h}{\left(1+k^2 / R^2\right.}\) using dynamical consideration (i.e. by consideration of forces and torques). Note k is the radius of gyration of the body about its symmetry axis, and R is the radius of the body. The body starts from rest at the top of the plane.
Solution:
When a body rolls down an incline of height h, we apply the principle of conservation of energy.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 30
K.E of translation + K.E of rotation = P.E at the top
i.e . \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2 = mgh
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (mk2) ω2 = mgh
As w = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
∴ \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)m \(\frac{k^2}{R^2}\)v2 = mgh
or mv2 (1 + \(\frac{k^2}{R^2}\)) = mgh
v2 = \(\frac{2 g h}{\left(1+\frac{K^2}{R^2}\right)}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 28.
A disc rotating about its axis with angular speed ω0 is placed lightly (without any translational push) on a perfectly frictionless table. The radius of the disc is R. What are the linear velocities of the points A, B and C on the disc shown in Fig. ? Will the disc roll in the direction indicated ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 31
Solution:
Using the reaction v = rω,
we get
for point A, VA = Rω0, along AX
for point B, VB = Rω0, along BX
for point C, Vc = (\(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{2}}\) ω0 parallel to AX,
The disc will not rotate, because it is placed on a perfectly frictionless table, without, rolling is not possible.

Question 29.
Explain why friction is necessary to make the disc in Figure roll in the direction indicated.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 31
(a) Give the direction of frictional force at B and the sense of frictional torque before perfect rolling begins.
(b) What is the force of friction after perfect rolling begins ?
Solution:
To roll a disc, we require a torque, which can be proved only by a tangential force. As force of friction is the only tangential force in this case, it is necessary.
(a) As frictional force at B opposes the velocity of point B, which is to the left, the frictional force must be to the right. The sense of frictional torque will be perpendicular to the plane of the disc and outwards.

(b) As frictional force at B decreases the velocity of the point of contact B with the surface, the perfect rolling begins only when velocity of point B becomes zero. Also, force of friction would become zero at this stage.

Question 30.
A solid disc and a ring, both of radius 10 cm are placed on a horizontal table simultaneously, with initial angular speed equal to 10 π rad s-1. Which of the two will start to roll earlier ? The co-efficient of kinetic friction is μk = 0.2.
Solution:
Here, intial velocity of centre of mass is zero i.e, u = 0.
Frictional force causes the GM to accelerate
μk mg = ma ∴ a = μk g
As v = u + at ∴ v = 0 + μk gt
Torque due to friction causes retardation in the intial angular speed ω0.
i.e. μk mg × R = – Iα
α = \(\frac{\mu_k \mathrm{mgR}}{\mathrm{I}}\)
ω = ω0 + αt
∴ ω = ω0 – \(\frac{\mu_k \mathrm{mgRt}}{\mathrm{I}}\)
Rolling begins, when v = Rω from (ii) and (iv)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 32
Comparing (vi) and (vii) we find that the disc would begin to roll earlier than the ring We can calculate the values of t from (vi) and (vii) using known values of μk, g, R and ω0.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 31.
A cylinder of mass 10kg and radius 15 cm is rolling perfectly on a plane of inclination 30°. The coefficient of static friction μs = 0.25.
(a) How much is the force of friction acting on the cylinder?
(b) What is the work done against friction during rolling?
(c) If the inclination θ of the plane is increased, at what value of θ does the cylinder begin to skid, and not roll perfectly?
Solution:
Here, m = 10 kg, r = 15 cm = 0.15 m
θ = 30°, μs = 0.25
Accelaration of the cylinder down the incline,
α = \(\frac{2}{3}\)g sin θ = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × 9.8 sin 30° = \(\frac{9.8}{3}\) m/s2
a) Force of friction, f = mg sin θ – ma = m(g sin θ – α) = 10(9.8 sin 30° – \(\frac{9.8}{3}\)) = 16.4 N
b) During rolling the point of contact is at rest. Therefore work done against friction is zero
c) For rolling without slipping/skidding μ = \(\frac{1}{3}\) tan θ
tan θ = 3μ
= 3 × 0.25 = 0.75
θ = 37°.

Question 32.
Read each statement below carefully, and state, with reasons, if it is true or false;
(a) During rolling, the force of friction acts in the same direction as the direction of motion of the CM of the body.
(b) The instantaneous speed of the point of contact during rolling is zero.
(c) The instantaneous acceleration of the point of contact during rolling is zero.
(d) For perfect rolling motion, work done against friction is zero.
(e) A wheel moving down a perfectly italic inclined plane will undergo slipping (not roiling) motion.
Solution:
a) The statement is false.

b) True. This is because rolling body can be imagined to be rotating about an axis passing through the point of contact of the body with the ground.
Hence its instantaneous speed is zero.

c) This is not true. This is because when the body is rotating its instantaneous acc is not zero.

d) It is true. This is because once the perfect rolling begins, force of friction becomes zero. Hence work done against friction is zero.

e) The statement is true. This is because rolling occurs only on account of friction which is tangential force capable of providing torque. When the inclined plane is perfectly smooth it will simply slip under the effect of its own weights.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 33.
Separation of Motion of a system of particles into motion of the centre of mass and motion about the centre of mass :
(a) Show P = \(\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{i}}^{-}+\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{V}\)
Where Pi is the momentum of the ii the particle (of mass mi) and p’i + miv’i. Note relative velocity of the ith particle relative to the centre of mass. Also, prove using the definition of the centre of mass Σp’i = 0
(b) Show K = K’ + 1/2MV2
Where K is the total kinetic energy of the system of particles. K’ is the total kinetic energy of the system when the particle velocities are taken with respect to the centre of mass and MV2/2 is the kinetic energy of the translation of the system as a whole (i.e. of the centre of mass motion of the system). The result has been used in Sec. 7.14.
(c) Show L = L’ + R × MV
Where L’ = Σri Pi is the angular momentum of the system about the centre of mass with velocities taken relative to the centre of mass. Remember r’i = ri – R rest of the notation is the standard notation used in the chapter. Note L1 and MR × V can be said to be angular momenta, respectively, about and of the centre of mass of the system of particles.
(d) Show \(\frac{d l^{\prime}}{d t}=\sum r_i^{\prime} \frac{d p^{\prime}}{d t}\)
Further, show that \(\frac{\mathrm{dL}^{\mathrm{l}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = τ’ext
Whereτ’ext is the sum of all external torques acting on the system about the centre of mass.
(Hint: Use the definition of centre of mass and Newton’s Third Law. Assume the internal forces between any two particles act along the line joining the particles.)
Solution:
a) Let m1, m2, … mi mass points have the position vectors \(\overrightarrow{r_1}, \overrightarrow{r_2}, \overrightarrow{r_i}\) w.r.t origin ‘O’. The position vector of C.M. say \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}\)
i.e., \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}=\frac{m_1 \overrightarrow{r_1}+m_2 \overrightarrow{r_2}+\ldots}{m_1+m_2+\ldots}=\frac{m_i r_i}{M}\)
where i = 1, 2, 3 .
Now, let us change the origin to O’ and assume that the C.M is now at p’ with
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 33
Multiplying eqn. (1) by mi and differentiating w.r.t to time, we get
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 34
even if we change the origin, the position of
centre of mass will not change i.e., Σp’i = 0

b) In rotational kinematics, K.ET of the system of particles = K.ET of the system when the particle velocities are taken w.r.t to CM + K.E of the translation of the system as a whole (i.e. of the C.M motion of the system)
i.e. \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1v12 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) m2v22 + …..
= [\(\frac{1}{2}\) m1v12 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)m2v2 +……] + \(\frac{1}{2}\)Mv2
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mivi2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mivi2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2
∴ k = k’ + \(\frac{1}{2}\)
where M = total mass of particles
and y = velocity of C.M motion of the system.

c) From eq. (1), we have
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 35
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 36

Textual Examples

Question 1.
Find the centre of mass of three particles at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The masses of the particles are 100g, 150 g, and 200 g respectively. Each side of the equilateral triangle is 0.5 long. [A.P. & T.S. Mar.18]
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 37
With the x – and y-axes chosen as shown in Fig. 7.9, the coordinates of points O, A and B forming the equilateral triangle are
respectively (0, 0), (0, 5, 0), (0.25. \(\sqrt{3}\) ). Let the masses 100 g, 150g and 200g be located at O, A and B be respectively. Then.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 38

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 2.
Find the centre of mass of a triangular lamina.
Solution:
The lamina (∆LMN) may be subdivided into narrow strips each parallel to the base (MN) as shown in Fig.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 39
By symmetry each strip has its centre of mass at its midpoint. If we joint the midpoint of all the strips we get the median LP. The centre of mass of the triangle as a whole therefore, has to lie on the median LP. Similarly, we can argue that it lies on the median MQ and NR. This means the centre of mass lies on the point of concurrence of the medians, i.e. on the centroid G of the triangle.

Question 3.
The density of the atmosphere at sea level is 1.29 kg/m3. Assume that it does not change with altitude. Then how high would the atmosphere extend ?
Solution:
The centres of mass C1, C2 and C3 of the squares are, by symmetry, their geometric centres and have coordinates (1/2,1/2), (3/ 2,1/2), (1/2,3/2) respectively.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 40

Question 4.
A 3m long ladder weighing 20 kg leans on a frictionless wall. Its feet reston the floor 1 m from the wall as shown in Fig. Find the reaction forcesof the wall and the floor.
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 41
Let AB is 3 m long, A is at distance AC = 1 m from the wall. Pythagoras theorem,
BC = 2\(\sqrt{2}\) m.
For translational equilibrium, taking the forces in the vertical direction, N – W = 0 ……….. (i)
Taking the forces in the horizontal direction,
F – F1 = 0 ……………. (ii)
taking the moments of the forces about A,
2\(\sqrt{2}\) F1 – (1/2) W = 0 ………….. (iii)
Now W = 20 g = 20 × 9.8 N = 1960.0 N
From (i) N = 196.0
From (iii) = F1 = W/4 \(\sqrt{2}\) = 196.0/4 \(\sqrt{2}\)
= 34.6 N
From (ii) F = F1 = 34.6 N
F2 = \(\sqrt{F^2+N^2}\) = 199.0 N

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 5.
Find the scalar and vector products of two vectors
a = \((3 \vec{i}-4 \vec{j}+5 \vec{k})\) and b = \((-2 \vec{i}+\vec{j}-3 \vec{k})\)
Solution:
a.b = (\((3 \vec{i}-4 \vec{j}+5 \vec{k})\)) . (\((-2 \vec{i}+\vec{j}-3 \vec{k})\))
= -6 – 4 – 15 = -25
a × b = \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
\vec{i} & \vec{j} & \vec{k} \\
3 & -4 & 5 \\
-2 & 1 & -3
\end{array}\right|=7 \vec{i}-\vec{j}-5 \vec{k}\)
Note b × a = \(7 \vec{i}-\vec{j}-5 \vec{k}\)

Question 6.
Obtain Equation from first principles.
Solution:
The angular acceleration is uniform,
ω = αt + c (as α is comstant)
At t = 0, ω = ω0 (given)
From (i) we get at t = 0, ω = c = ω0
Thus, ω = αt + ω0 as required

Question 7.
The angular speed of a motor wheel is increased from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm is 16 seconds, (i) What is its angular acceleration, assuming the acceleration to be uniform ? (ii) How many revolutions does the engine make during this time ?
Solution:
(i) We shall use ω = ω0 + αt
ω0 = initial angular speed in rad/s
= 2π × angular speed in rev/s
= \(\frac{2 \pi \times \text { angular speed in rev } / \mathrm{min}}{60 \mathrm{~s} / \mathrm{min}}\)
= \(\frac{2 \pi \times 1200}{60} \mathrm{rad} / \mathrm{s}\)
= 40π rad/ s
Similarly ω = final angular speed in rad /s
= \(\frac{2 \pi \times 3120}{60} \mathrm{rad} / \mathrm{s}\)
= 2π × 52 rad/s = 104 π rad/s
∴ Angular acceleration
α = \(\frac{\omega-\omega_0}{t}\) = 4π rad/s2
The angular acceleration of the engine = 4π rad/s2

(ii) The angular displacement in time t is given by
θ = ω0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) αt2
= (40π × 16 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 4π × 162) rad
= (640 π+ 512 π )rad
= 1150π rad
Number of revolutions = \(\frac{1152 \pi}{2 \pi}\) = 576

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 8.
Find the torque of a force \((\bar{i}-\bar{j}+\bar{k})\) about the origin. The force acts on a particle whose position vector is \((\bar{i}-\bar{j}+\bar{k})\) (Mar.’14, 13)
Answer:
Here r = \(\vec{i}-\vec{j}+\vec{k}\)
and F = \(7 \vec{i}-3 \vec{j}+5 \vec{k}\)
We shall use the determinant rule to find the torque τ = r × F
τ = \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
\vec{i} & \vec{j} & \vec{k} \\
1 & -1 & 1 \\
7 & 3 & -5
\end{array}\right|=(5-3) \vec{i}-(-5-7) \vec{j}\) + \((3-(-7)) \vec{k}\)
or τ = \(2 \vec{i}+12 \vec{j}+10 \vec{k}\)

Question 9.
Show that the angular momentum about any point of a single particle moving with constant velocity remains constant throughout the motion.
Solution:
Let the particle with velocity v be at point P at some instant t. We want to calculate the angular momentum of the particle about an arbitrary point O.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 42
The angular momentum is 1 = r × mv. Its magnitude is mvr. sine, where θ is the angle between r and v as shown in Fig. Although the particle changes position with time, the line of direction of v remains the same and hence OM = r sin θ ; a constant.

Question 10.
Show that moment of a couple does not depend on the point about which you take the moments.
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 43
The moment of the couple = sum of the moments of the two forces making the couple
= r1 × (-F) + r2 × F
= r2 × F + r1 × F
= (r2 – r1) × F
But r2 + AB = r2, and hence AB = r2 – r1.
The moment of the couple, therefore, is AB × F.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 11.
What is the moment of intertia of a disc about one of its diameters ?
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 44
x and y-axes lie in the plane of the disc and z is perpendicular Iz = Ix = Iy
Now, x and y axes are along two diameters of the disc, and by symmetry the moment of inertia of the disc is the same about any diameter. Hence
Ix = Iy
and Iz = 2Iy
But Ix = Iy
So finally, Ix = Iz/2 = MR2/4
Thus the moment of inertia of a disc about any of its diameter is MR2/4.
Find similarly the moment of inertia of a ring about any of its diameter. Will the theorem be applicable to a solid cylinder?

Question 12.
What is the moment of inertia of a rod of mass M, length l about an axis perpendicular to it through one end ?
Solution:
For the rod of mass M and length l, I = Ml2/ 12. Using the parallel axes theorem, I’ = I + Ma2 with a = l/2 we get.
I’ = \(\mathrm{M} \frac{l^2}{12}+\mathrm{M}\left(\frac{l}{2}\right)^2=\frac{\mathrm{M} l^2}{3}\)
We can check this independently since I is half the moment of inertia of a rod of mass 2M and length 21 about its midpoint,
I’ = \(2 \mathrm{M} \frac{4 l^2}{12} \times \frac{1}{2}=\frac{\mathrm{M} l^2}{3}\)

Question 13.
What is the moment of inertia of a ring about a tangent to the circle of the ring ?
Solution:
The tangent to the ring in the plane of the ring is parallel to one of the diameters of the ring. The distance between these two parallel axes is R, the radius of the ring. Using the parallel axes theorem.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 45
= 0.4kg m2
α = angular acceleration
= 5.0 Nm/0.4 kg m2 = 12.5 S-2

b)Work done by the pull unwinding 2m of the cord
= 25 N × 2 m = 50 J

(c) Let ω be the final angular velocity. The kinetic energy gained = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2
since the wheel starts from rest. Now,
ω2 = ω20 +2αθ, ω0 = 0
The angular displacement θ = length of unwound string / radius of wheel = 2m / 0.2 m = 10 rad
ω2 = 2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 12.5 × 10.0 = 250 (rad/s)2
∴ K.E. gained = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.4 × 250 = 50 J

(d) The answers are the same, i.e. the kinetic energy gained by the wheel work done by the force. There is no loss of energy due to friction.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 14.
A cord of negligible mass is wound round the rim of a fly wheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord as shown in Fig. The flywheel is mounted on a horizontal axle -with frictionless bearings.
(a) Compute the angular acceleration of the wheel.
(b) Find the work done by the pull, when 2m of the cord is unwound
(c) Find also the kinetic energy of the wheel at this point. Assume that the wheel starts from rest.
(d) Compare answers to parts (b) and (c).
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 46
a) We use Iα = τ
the toque τ = FR
= 25 × 0.20 Nm (as R = 0.20m)
= 5.0 Nm

Question 15.
Three bodies, a ring, a solid cylinder and a solid sphere roll down the same inclined plane without slipping. They start from rest. The radii of the bodies are identical. Which of the bodies reaches the ground with maximum velocity ?
Solution:
We assume conservation of energy of the rolling body, i.e. there is no loss of energy due to friction etc. The protential energy lost by the body in rolling down the inclined plane (= mgh) must, therefore, be equal to kinetic energy gained. (See fig.) Since the bodies start from rest the kinetic energy gained is equal tot he final kinetic energy of the odies. From K = \(\frac{1}{2} m v_{\mathrm{cm}}^2\left[1+\frac{\mathrm{k}^2}{\mathrm{R}^2}\right]\)
K = \(\frac{1}{2} m v^2 1+\left(\frac{K^2}{R^2}\right)\) Where v is the final velocity of (the centre of mass of) the body.
Equating K and mgh
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 47
Note v2 is independent of the mass of the rolling body:
For a ring, k2 = R2
vring = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 g h}{1+1}}=\sqrt{g h}\)
For a solid cylinder K2 = R2/0.2
vdisc = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 g h}{1+1 / 2}}=\sqrt{\frac{4 g h}{3}}\)
For a solid sphere K2 = 2R2/5
vsphere = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 g h}{1+1 / 52}}=\sqrt{\frac{10 g h}{7}}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 5th Lesson Laws of Motion Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 5th Lesson Laws of Motion

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is inertia ? What gives the measure of inertia ? [T.S. Mar. 17]
Answer:
The resistance of the body to change its state of rest of state of uniform motion in a straight line is called inertia of the body.
Acceleration = \(\frac{\text { Force }}{\text { Mass }}\)
∴ The more is the mass, less is the acceleration and more is the inertia. The mass of a body is a quantitative measure of its inertia.

Question 2.
According to Newton’s third law, every force is accompanied by an equal and opposite force. How can a movement ever take place ?
Answer:
Because both action and reaction are taking place on different bodies.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 3.
When a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun gives a kick in the backward direction. Explain. [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Due to law of conservation of momentum, Recoil of the gun V = \(\frac{\mathrm{mu}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
Where M – mass of the gun; m = mass of the bullet; u = velocity of the bullet

Question 4.
Why does a heavy rifle not recoil as strongly as a light rifle using the same cartridges ?
Answer:
Recoil of the Gun V = \(\frac{\mathrm{mu}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
Due to heavy mass of rifle the recoil is less.

Question 5.
If a bomb at . _st explodes into two pieces, the pieces must travel in opposite directions. Explain. [T.S. Mar. 16, 15]
Answer:
According to law of conservation of momentum,
Mu = m1v1 + m2v2
Initially the bomb is at rest u = 0
m1v1 + m2v2 = 0
or m1v1 – m2v2
(Negative sign indicates that the pieces must travel in opposite direction)

Question 6.
Define force. What are the basic forces in nature ?
Answer:
The force is on which changes or tends to change the state of rest or motion of a body. Basic forces :

  1. Gravitational force
  2. Electromagnetic force
  3. Nuclear force
  4. Weak interaction force

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 7.
Can the coefficient of friction be greater than one ?
Answer:
Yes, coefficient of friction may be greater than one. In some particular cases it is possible. They are

  1. Due to increase the inner molecular attractive forces between surfaces when the contact surfaces are highly polished.
  2. When the contact surfaces of the bodies are inter locking the coefficient friction may be greater than one.

Question 8.
Why does the car with a flattened tyre stop sooner than the one with inflated tyres ?
Answer:
Flattened deforms more than the inflated tyre. Due to greater deformation of the type rolling friction is large nence it stops soon.

Question 9.
A horse has to pull harder during the start of the motion than later. Explain. [Mar. 13]
Answer:
We know the limiting frictional force is greater than kinetic frictional force. For starting motion of the cart, the limiting friction is to be overcome. Once motion is set, frictional force reduces. Therefore, the horse has to pull harder during starting of the cart.

Question 10.
What happens to the coefficient of friction if the weight of the body is doubled? [A.P. – Mar. 16]
Answer:
If weight of a body is doubled, coefficient of friction does not change. Coefficient of friction is independent of normal reaction. If weight is doubled, normal reaction doubled and correspondingly frictional force doubled. So, coefficient of friction does not change.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
A stone of mass 0.1 kg is thrown vertically upwards. Give the magnitude and direction of the net force on the stone
(a) during its upward motion.
(b) during the downward motion.
(c) at the highest point, where it momentarily comes to rest.
Answer:
Given that, mass of stone, m = 0.1 kg, g = 9.8 ms-2.
a) During upward motion: Magnitude of net force on the stone,
F = |-mg|; F = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98N.
Direction of net force is in upward direction.

b) During downward motion: Magnitude of net force on the stone,
F = ma = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98N.
Direction of net force is in downward direction.

c) At the heighest point : Magnitude of net force, F = mg = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98N..
At highest point of stone, direction is indeterminate.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
Define the terms momentum and impulse. State and explain the law of conservation of linear momentum. Give examples.
Answer:
Momentum : The product of mass and velocity of a body is called momentum momentum p = mv .
Impulse : The product of force and time that produces finite change in momentum of the body is called impulse.
Impulse (I) = Force × time duration = mat = \(m \frac{(v-u)}{t} t\)
= (mv – mu)
Law of conservation of linear momentum : The total momentum of an isolated system of interacting particles remains constant it there is no resultant external force acting on it.

Explanation : Consider two smooth, non-rotating spheres of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2). Let u1 and u2 be their initial velocities. Let v1 and v2 be final velocities after head on collision. According to law of conservation of linear momentum, we have
Momentum of the system before collision = Momentum of the system after collision.
t.e., m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2
Examples :

  1. Motion of a Rocket
  2. Bullet-Gun motion

Question 3.
Why are shock absorbers used in motor cycles and cars ?
Answer:
When a scooter or a car moves on a rough road it receives an impulse due to the Jerkey motion. In case the shockers are used in the vehicle, the time of impact increases, and decreases the impulsive force, due to increased value of the time of impact the force of impact is reduced. So it saves the vehicle and its occupants from experiencing reverse jerks.

Question 4.
Explain the terms limiting friction, dynamic friction and rolling friction.
Answer:
Limiting friction : The maximum value of static friction is called “Limiting friction”.
It is denoted by FL = Fs(max) [∵ Fs ≤ μsN]
Dynamic friction (Kinetic friction) : The resistance encountered by a sliding body on a surface is called kinetic or dynamic friction Fk.
If the applied force overcomes the limiting friction and sets the body into motion. Then motion of the body is resisted by another friction called “Dynamic friction” or “Kinetic friction”.

Rolling friction : ‘The resistance encountered by a rolling body on a surface is called “Rolling friction”.
If a wheel or a cylinder or a spherical body like a marble rolls on horizontal surface, the speed of rolling gradually decreases and it finally stops.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 5.
Explain advantages and disadvantages of friction. [T.S., A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Advantages of friction :

  1. Safe walking on the floor, motion of vehicles etc., are possible only due to friction.
  2. Nails, screws are driven into walls (or) wooden surfaces due to friction.
  3. Friction helps the fingures hold the things (or) objects like pen, pencil and water tumbler etc.
  4. Speed running vehicles etc. can be stopped suddenly when friction is present, otherwise accidents become large. Due to friction vehicles move on the roads without slipping and they can be stopped.
  5. The mechanical power transmission of belt drive is possible due to friction.

Disadvantages of friction:

  1. Due to friction there is large amount of power loss in machines and engines.
  2. Due to friction wear and tear of the machines increases and reducing their life.
  3. Due to friction some energy gets converted into heat which goes as waste.

Question 6.
Mention the methods used in decrease friction [A.P. Mar. 18; T.S. Mar. 16, Mar. 14]
Answer:

  1. Polishing : By polishing the surfaces of contact, friction can be reduced.
  2. Bearings : The rolling friction.is less than the sliding friction hence free wheels of a cycle, motor
    car, dynamos etc., are provided with ball bearings to reduce friction. Bearings convert sliding motion into rolling motion.
  3. Lubricants: The lubricant forms a thin layer between surfaces of contact. It reduces the friction. In light vehicles or machines, oils like “three in one” are used as lubricants. In heavy machines greasure is used. In addition to this they guard the mechanical parts from over heating.
  4. Streamlining : Automobiles and aeroplanes are streamlined to reduce the friction due to air.

Question 7.
State the laws of rolling friction.
Answer:
Laws of friction – rolling friction :

  1. The smaller the area of contact, the lesser will be the rolling friction.
  2. The larger the radius of the rolling body, the lesser will be the rolling friction.
  3. The rolling friction is directly proportional to the normal reaction.
    If FR is the rolling friction and ‘N’ is the normal reaction at the contact, then FR ∝ N
    FR = μRN; where μR is the coefficient of rolling friction.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 8.
Why is pulling the lawn roller preferred in pushing it ?
Answer:
Pulling of lawn roller : Let a lawn roller be pulled on a horizontal road by a force ‘F, which makes an angle θ with the horizontal, to the right as shown in the figure. The weight of the body “mg” acts vertically downwards.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 1
Let the force ‘F’ be resolved into two mutually perpendicular components F sin θ, vertically upwards and F cos θ horizontally along the road.
∴ The normal reaction N = mg – F sin θ
Then the frictional force acting towards left is FR = μRN, where μR is the coefficient of rolling friction between he roller and the road, or FR= μR (mg – F sin θ)
∴ The net pulling force on roller is P = F cos θ – FR = F cos θ – (μR mg – F sin θ)
or P = F(cos θ + μR sin θ) – μR mg ………………(1)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 2
Pushing of lawn roller : When a lawn roller is pushed by a force ‘F1, which makes an angle ‘θ’ with the horizontal, the component of force acting vertically downwards is F sin θ. The horizontal component F cos θ pushes the roller to the right as shown in figure.
The weight ‘mg’ of the lawn roller acts vertically downwards. Therefore the normal reaction N of the surface on the roller
N = mg + F sin θ
Then the frictional force acting towards left.
FR = μRN = μR (mg + F sin θ)
The net pushing force on roller is
P’ = F cos θ – FR = F cos θ – μR (mg + F sin θ)
or P’ = F(cos θ – μR sin θ) – μR mg ……………… (2)
From equations (1) and (2) that it is easier to pull than push a lawn roller.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
a) State Newton’s second law of motion. Hence derive the equation of motion F = ma from it. [T.S. Mar. 18; A.P. Mar. 16, Mar. 13]
b) A body is moving along a circular path such that its speed always remains constant. Should there be a force acting on the body ?
Answer:
a) Newton’s Second of motion : “The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the external force applied and takes place in the same direction”.
To show F = ma : Let a body of mass ‘m’ moving with a velocity ‘v’ under the action of an external force F in the direction of velocity.
Momentum ‘P’ of a body is the product of the mass and velocity V.
∴ P = mv ……………… (1)
According to Newton’s second law of motion, we have
\(\frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dx}}\) ∝ F, where F = external force
(or)F = K\(\frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dx}}\) ………………. (2)
From equations (1) and (2) we have
F = \(K \frac{d(m v)}{d t}=K \cdot m \frac{d v}{d t}\)
= Kma …………………. (3)
Since the rate of change of velocity \(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dx}}\) is the acceleration ‘a’ of the body.
In SI system the unit of force is Newton and is defined as that force which when acting on a body of mass 1 kg produces in it an acceleration of 1 ms-2.
i.e., from equation (3),
If F = 1, m = 1 and a = 1
we get K = 1
Hence F = \(\frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dx}}\) = ma .
∴ F = ma

b) Suppose a body is moving along a circular part though its speed always remains constant its velocity changes at every point and resultant force acts on the body.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
a) Define angle of friction and angle of repose. Show that angle of friction is equal to angle of repose for a rough inclined place.
Answer:
Angle of friction : The angle of friction is defined as the angle made by the resultant of the normal reaction and the limiting friction with the normal reaction is called angle of friction.

Angle of repose : The angle of repose is defined as the angle of inclination of a plane with respect to horizontal for which the body will be in equilibrium on the inclined plane is called angle of repose.

Angle of friction is equal to angle of repose for a rough inclined plane : Let us consider a body of mass’m1 on a rough inclined plane. The angle of inclination of the rough surface is ‘θ’. By increasing the angle of inclination at one end, the body tends to slide on the surface. Then the angle of inclination ’0′ is called angle of repose.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 3
The weight (mg) of the body resolved into two components, the component mg cos 0 acts perpendicular to the inclined surface, which is equal to normal reaction ‘N‘.
i.e., N = mg cos θ ……………. (1)
The other component mg sin θ acts parallel to inclined plane and opposite to the frictional force ‘f’.
fs = my sin θ ……………… (2)
From \(\frac{(2)}{(1)} \Rightarrow \frac{f_s}{N}=\frac{m g \sin \theta}{m g{con} \theta}\)
= \(\frac{f_s}{N}\) = tan θ = µs
∴ µs = tan θ …………………. (3)
when ‘α’ is angle of friction then from the definition of co-efficient of static friction,
µs = tan α ………………… (4)
from (3) and (4)
⇒ tan θ = tan α
θ = α
Hence angle of friction is equal to angle of repose.

b) A block of mass 4 kg is resting on a rough horizontal plane and is about to move when a horizontal force of 30 N is applied on it. If g = 10 m/s2. Find the total contact force exerted by the plane on the block.
Solution:
Given m = 4kg
F = 30 N
g = 10 ms-2
a = \(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{30}{4}\) = 7.5 ms-2
µ = \(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{g}}=\frac{7.5}{10}=\frac{3}{4}\)
∴ Contact force = Frictional force
= µ mg
= \(\frac{3}{4}\) × 4 × 10 = 30 N.

Problems

Question 1.
The linear momentum of a particle as a function of time t is given by p = a + bt, where a and b are positive constants. What is the force acting on the particle ?
Answer:
Linear momentum of a particle p = a + bt
Force F = \(\frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)(a + bt) = 0 + b
∴ F = b

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
Calculate the time needed for a net force of 5 N to change the velocity of a 10 kg mass by 2 m/s.
Answer:
F = 5N, m = 10kg; (v-u) = 2m s-1, t = ?
F = \(m \frac{(v-u)}{t} \Rightarrow 5=\frac{10 \times 2}{t}\)
∴ t = 4s.

Question 3.
A ball of mass m is thrown vertically upward from the ground and reaches a height h before momentarily coming to rest. If g is acceleration due to gravity. What is the impulse received by the ball due to gravity force during its flight ? (neglect air resistance).
Answer:
mass = m
Initial velocity of a ball to reach h is,
u = \(\sqrt{2 g h}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 4
On return journey, velocity of a ball to reach the ground, v = –\(\sqrt{2 g h}\)
Impluse I = m (u – v) = m [\(\sqrt{2 g h}\) – (-\(\sqrt{2 g h}\))]
= m 2 \(\sqrt{2 g h}\) = 2m \(\sqrt{2 g h}\)
∴ I = \(\sqrt{8 m^2 g h}\)

Question 4.
A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg changes its speed from 2.0 in m s-1 to 3.5 m s-1 in 25 s. The direction of motion of the body remains unchanged. What is the magnitude and direction of the force ?
Answer:
m = 3.0 kg; u = 2.0 ms-1,
v = 3.5ms-1, t = 25 s;
F = m \(\left(\frac{v-u}{t}\right)\) = 3\(\left(\frac{3.5-2}{25}\right)\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 15}{25}=\frac{0.9}{5}\) = 0.18 N
This force acts in the direction of change in velocity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 5.
A man in a lift feels an apparent weight W when the lift is moving up with a uniform acceleration of 1/3rd of the acceleration due to gravity. If the same man were in the same lift now moving down with a uniform acceleration that is 1/2 of the acceleration due to gravity, then what is his apparent weight ?
Answer:
When the lift is moving up, a = \(\frac{g}{3}\)
Apparent weight W = m(g + a)
= m(g + \(\frac{g}{3}\)) = \(\frac{4mg}{3}\)
⇒ mg = \(\frac{3 W}{4}\) …………….. (1)
When the lift is moving down, a = \(\frac{g}{2}\)
Apparent weight W1 = m(g – a)
= m(g – \(\frac{g}{2}\)) = \(\frac{mg}{2}\)
∴ |W1| = \(\frac{\left[\frac{3 W}{4}\right]}{2}=\frac{3 W}{8}\)

Question 6.
A container of mass 200 kg rests on the back of an open truck, if the truck accelerates at 1.5 m/s2, what is the minimum coefficient of static friction between the container and the bed of the truck required to prevent the container from sliding off the back of the truck ?
Answer:
m = 200kg, a = 1.5 ms-2, g = 9.8 ms-2
ma = μsmg
μs = \(\frac{a}{g}=\frac{1.5}{9.8}\) = 0.153

Question 7.
A bomb initially at rest at a height of 40 m above the ground suddenly explodes into two identical fragments. One of them starts moving vertically down- wards with an initial speed of 10 m/s. If acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2. What is the separa-tion between the fragments 2s after the explosion ?
Answer:
Bomb explodes into two fragments say 1 and 2.
For 1st fragment, u1 = 10m/s, t = 2 sec; g = 10 m/s-2, s1 = ?
Now displacement of 1st fragment,
s1 = u1t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
= 10 × 2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × 22 = 40m
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 5
2nd fragment is move opposite to 1st fragment like an object from a tower.
For 2nd fragment u2 = – u1 = 10m/s
t = 2 sec; g = 10 m/s2
Now displacement of 2nd fragment
s2 = u2t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
= 10 × 2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × 22 = 0
∴ The seperation of two fragments
= s1 + s2 = 40 + 0 = 40 m

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 8.
A fixed pulley with a smooth grove has a light string passing over it with a 4 kg attached on one side and a 3 kg on the other side. Another 3 kg is hung from the other 3 kg as shown with another light string. If the system is released from rest, find the common acceleration ? (g = 10 m/s2).
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 6
Answer:
From fig,
m1 = 3 + 3
= 6 kg
m2 = 4 kg
g = 10ms-2
Acceleration of the system,
a = \(\left(\frac{\dot{m}_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2}\right) g=\left(\frac{6-4}{6+4}\right) \times 10\) = 2 ms-2

Question 9.
A block of mass of 2 kg slides on an inclined plane that makes an angle of 30% with the horizontal. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\).
(a) What force should be applied to the block so that it moves up without any acceleration ?
(b) What force should be applied to the block so that it moves up without any acceleration ?
Answer:
m = 2kg; θ = 30°; µ = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
i) Fdown = mg (sinθ – µ cosθ)
= 2 × 9.8 (sin30° – \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)cos30°)
= 2 × 98 [\(\frac{1}{2}\) – \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)] = 49 N

ii) Fup = mg (sinθ + µ cosθ)
= 2 × 9.8 [sin30° + \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) × cos30°]
= 2 × 9.8 [\(\frac{1}{2}\) + \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)] = 24.5 N

Question 10.
A block is placed on a ramp of parabolic shape given by the equation g = \(\frac{x^2}{20}\), see If is = 0.5, what is the maximum height above the ground at which the block can be placed without slipping ? (tan θ = µs = \(\frac{\mathrm{d} y}{\mathrm{~d} x}\))
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 7
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 8

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 11.
A block of metal of mass 2 kg on a horizontal table is attached to a mass of 0.45 kg by a light string passing over a frictionless pulley at the edge of the table. The block is subjected to a horizontal force by allowing the 0.45 kg mass to fall. The coefficient of sliding friction between the block and table is 0.2.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 9
Calculate (a) the initial acceleration, (b) the tension in the string, (c) the distance the block would continue to move if. after 2 s of motion, the string should break.
Answer:
Here, m1 = 0.45kg
m2 = 2kg
µ = 0.2
a) Initial acceleration.
a = \(\left(\frac{m_1-\mu m_2}{m_1+m_2}\right) g=\left[\frac{0.45-0.2 \times 2}{0.45+2}\right] \times 9.8\)
a = 0.2ms-2

b) From fig, we have
T – f = m2 a
T – 3.92 = 2 × 0.2
[∵ f = µm2g = 0.2 × 2 × 9.8] = 3.92 N
⇒ N = 0.4 + 3.92 = 4.32 N

c) Velocity of string after 2 sec
= u in this case: µ’ = 0
Stoping distance s = \(\frac{\mu^2}{2 \mu g}=\frac{0.4 \times 0.4}{2 \times 0.2 \times 9.8}\) = 0.0408 m

Question 12.
On a smooth horizontal . surface a block A of mass 10 kg is kept. On this block a second block B of mass 5 kg is kept. The coefficient of friction between the two blocks is 0.4. A horizontal force of 30 N is applied on the lower block as shown.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 10
The force of friction between the blocks is (take g = 10 m/s2).
Answer:
Here mA = 10kg; mB = 5kg;
F = 30N; µ = 0.4
F = (mA + mB)a
⇒ a = \(\frac{F}{\left(m_A+m_B\right)}\)
= \(\frac{30}{10+5}\) = 2ms-2
f = mBa = 5 × 2 = 10 N

Additional Problems

(For simplicity in numerical calculations, take g = 10 ms-2)

Question 1.
Give the magnitude and direction of the net force acting on
a) a drop of rain falling down with a constant speed,
b) a cork of mass 10 g floating on water,
c) a kite skillfully held stationary in the sky,
d) a car moving with a constant velocity of 30 km/h on a rough road,
e) a high-speed electron in space far from all material objects and free of electric and magnetic fields.
Answer:
a) As the rain drop is falling with a constant speed, its acceleration a = 0. Hence net force F = ma = 0.
b) As the cork is floating on water, its weight is being balanced by the upthrust (equal-to weight of water displaced). Hence net force on the cork is zero.
c) As the kite is held stationary, net force on the kite is zero, in accordance with Newton’s first law.
d) Force is being applied to overcome the force of friction. But as velocity of the car is constant, its acceleration, a = 0. Hence net force on the car F = ma = 0.
e) As no field (gravitational / electric / magnetic) is acting on the electron, net force on it is zero.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
A pebble of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards. Give the direction and magnitude of the net force on the pebble.
a) during its upward motion,
b) during its downward motion
c) at the highest point where it is momentarily at rest. Do your answers change if the pebble was thrown at ah angle of 45° with the horizontal direction ?
Ignore are resistance.
Answer:
When a body is thrown vertically upwards (or) it moves vertically downwards, gravitational pull of earth gives it a uniform acceleration a = + g = + 9.8 ms-2 in the downward direction. Therefore, the net force on the pebble in all the three cases is vertically downwards.
As m = 0.05 kg and a = + 9.8 m/s2
In all the three cases,
∴ F = ma
= 0.05 × 9.8 = 0.49 N, vertically downwards.
If the pebble were thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal direction, it will have horizontal and vertical components of velocity. These components do not affect the force on the pebble. Hence our answers do not alter in any case. However in each case (C), the pebble will not be at rest. It will have horizontal component of velocity at highest point.

Question 3.
Give the magnitude and direction of the net force acting on a stone of mass 0.1 kg.
a) just after it is dropped from the window of stationary train,
b) just after it is dropped from the window of a train running at a constant velocity of 36 km/h,
c) just after it is dropped from the window of a train accelerating with 1 ms-2,
d) lying on the floor of a train which is accelerating with 1 ms-2, the stone being at rest relative to the train.
Answer:
a) Here, m – 0.1 kg, a = +g = 9.8 m/s2
Net force, F = ma = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98 N This force acts vertically downwards.

b) When the train is running at a constant velocity its acc. = 0. No force acts on the stone due to this motion.
Therefore, force on the stone F = weight of stone mg = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98 N
This force also acts vertically downwards.

c) When the train is accelerating with 1m/s2, an additional force F1 = ma = 0.1 × 1 = 0.1 N acts on the stone in the horizontal direction. But once the stone is dropped from the train, F1 becomes zero and the net force on the stone is F = mg = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98 N, acting vertically downwards.

d) As the stone is lying on the horizontal direction of motion of the train. Note the weight of the stone in this case is being balanced by the normal reaction.

Question 4.
One end of a string of length l is connected to a particle of mass m and the other to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed v the net force on the particle (directed towards the centre) is ;
i) T,
ii) T – \(\frac{\mathrm{m} v^2}{l}\),
iii) T + \(\frac{\mathrm{m} v^2}{l}\),
iv) 0
T is the tension in the string. (Choose the correct Answer)
Answer:
The net force on the particle directed towards the center is T. This provides the necessary centripetal force to the particle moving in the circle.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 5.
A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with a speed of 15 ms-1. How long does the body take to stop ?
Answer:
Here, F = -50 N, m = 20 kg
μ = 15 m/s, v = 0, t = ?
From F = ma,
a = \(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{-50}{20}\) = -2.5 m/s2
From v = u + at
0 = 15 – 2.5t
t = \(\frac{15}{2.5}\) = 6s.

Question 6.
A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg changes its speed from 2.0 ms-1 to 3.5 ms-1 in 25 s. The direction of the motion of the body remains unchanged. What is the magnitude and direction of the force ?
Answer:
Here m = 3.0 kg
μ = 2.0 m/s
v = 3.5 m/s,
t = 25s, F = ?
F = ma = \(\frac{m(v-u)}{t}=\frac{3.0(3.5-2.0)}{25}\)
= 0.18 N.
The force is along the direction of motion.

Question 7.
A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by two perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N. Give the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the body ?
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 11
θ = 36° 52
This the direction of resultant force and hence the direction of acceleration of the body, fig.
Also a = \(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{10}{5}\) = 2ms-2

Question 8.
The driver of a three-wheeler moving with a speed of 36 km/h sees a child standing in the middle of the road and brings his vehicle to rest in 4.0 s just in time to save the child. What is the average retarding force on the vehicle ? The mass of the three wheeler is 400 kg and the mass of the driver is 65 kg.
Answer:
Here, u = 36km/h = 10 m/s, v = 0, t = s
m = 400 + 65 = 465 kg
Retarding force
F = ma = \(\frac{m(v-u)}{t}=\frac{465(0-10)}{4}\) = -1162 N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 9.
A rocket with a lift-off mass 20,000 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 5.0 ms-2. Calculate the initial thrust (force) of the blast.
Answer:
Here m = 20,000 kg = 2 × 104 kg
Initial ace = 5 m/s2
Thrust, F = ?
Clearly, the thrust should be such that it overcomes the force of gravity besides giving it an upward acceleration of 5 m/s2. Thus the force should produce a net acceleration of 9.8 + 5.0 = 14.8 m/s2 As thrust = force = mass × acceleration
∴ F = 2 × 104 × 14.8 = 2.96 × 105N

Question 10.
A body of mass 0.40 kg moving initially with a constant speed of 10 ms-1 to the north is subject to a constant force of 8.0 N directed towards the south for 30 s. Take the instant the force is applied to be t = 0, the position of the body at the time to be x = 0 and predict its position at t = -5 s, 25 s, 100 s.
Answer:
Here, m = 0.40 kg, µ = 10m/s due N
F = – 8.0 N
a = \(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{-8.0}{0.40}\) = -20 m/s2
for 0 ≤ t ≤ 30s.
i) At t = -5s, x = Ut = 10 × (-5) = -50 m

ii) At t = 25s, x = Ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
= 10 × 25 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-20) (25)2 = – 6000m

iii) At t = 100s, The problem is divided into two parts, upto 30s, there is force/acc.
∴ from x1 = Ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
= 10 × 30 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-20) (30)2
= -8700
At t = 30s, v = U + at = 10 – 20 × 30 = – 590 m/s,
∴ for motion from 30s to 100s
x2 = vt = – 590 × 70 = – 41300 m
x = x1 + x2 = -8700 – 41300
= -50,000 m = – 50km.

Question 11.
A truck starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 2.0 ms-2. At t = 10 s, a stone is dropped by a person standing on the top of the truck (6 m high from the ground). What are the (a) velocity and (b) acceleration of the stone at t = 11 s ? (Neglect air resistance).
Answer:
Here, u = 0, a = 2 m/s2, t = 10s
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 12
Let v be the velocity of the truck when the stone is dropped.
From v = u + at
v = 0 + 2 × 10 = 20m/s
a) Horizontal velocity of stone, when it is dropped, vx = v = 20 m/s.
As air Resistance is neglected, vx remains constant.
In the vertical direction, initial velocity of stone, µ = 0, a = g = 9.8 m/s2,
time t = 11 – 10 = 1s
From v = u + at
vy = 0 + 9.8 × 1 = 9.8 ms-1
Resultant velocity of stone, OC is given by
v = \(\sqrt{v_x^2+v_y^2}=\sqrt{20^2+(9.8)^2}\)
v = 22.3 m/s.
Let θ is the angle with the resultant velocity OC of stone makes with the horizontal direction OA, then from fig.
tan θ = \(\frac{v_y}{v_x}=\frac{9.8}{20}\) = 0.49
∴ θ = 29°

b) The moment the stone is dropped from the car, horizontal force on the stone = 0. The only acceleration the path followed by the stone is, however parabolic.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 12.
A bob of mass 0.1 kg hung from the ceiling of a room by a string 2 m long is set into oscillation. The speed of the bob at its mean position is 1 ms-1. What is the trajectory of the bob if the string is cut when the bob is (a) at one of its extreme positions, (b) at its mean position.
Answer:
a) We shall study in unit x that at each extreme position, velocity of the bob is zero. If the string is cut at the extreme position, it is only under the action of ‘g’. Hence the bob will fall vertically downwards.

b) At the mean position, velocity of the bob is 1m/s. along the tangent to the arc, which is in the horizontal direction. If the string is let at mean position, the bob will be have as a horizontal projectile. Hence it will follow a parabolic path.

Question 13.
A man of mass 70 kg stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving
a) upwards with a uniform speed of 10 ms-1
b) downwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms-2
c) upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms-2
What would be the readings on the scale in each case ?
d) What would be the reading if the lift mechanism failed and it hurtled down freely under gravity ?
Answer:
Here, m = 70 kg, g = 9.8 m/s2
The weighing machine in each case measures the reaction R i.e. the apparent weight.
a) When lift moves upwards with a uniform speed, its accelerations is zero.
R = mg = 70 × 9.8 = 686N

b) When the lift moves downwards with a = 5 m/s2
R = m(g – a) = 70 (9.8 – 5) = 336 N

c) When the lift moves upwards with a = 5 m/s2
R = m(g + a) = 70 (9.8 + 5) = 1036 N
If the lift were to come down freely under gravity, downward acc. a = g
∴ R = m (g – a) = m(g – g) = zero

Question 14.
Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle of mass 4 kg. What is the (a) force on the particle for t < 0, t < 4 s, 0 < t < 4s ? (b) impulse at t = 0 and t = 4 s ?
(Consider one-dimensional motion only)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 13
Answer:
i) For t < 0, the position time graph is OA which means displacement of the particle is zero.
i.e. particle is at rest at the origin. Hence force on the particle must be zero.

ii) For 0 < t < 4s, s, the position time graph OB has a constant slope. Therefore, velocity of the particle is constant in this interval i.e. particle has zero acceleration. Hence force on the particle must be zero. iii) For t > 4s, the position time graph BC is parallel to time axis. Therefore, the particle remains at a distance 3m from the origin, i.e. it is at rest. Hence force on the particle is zero.

iv) Impulse at t = 0 :
We know. Impulse = change in linear momentum, Before t = 0 particle is at rest i.e. u = 0. After t = 0, particle has a constant velocity v = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
= 0.75 m/s
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 14
∴ Impulse = m(v – u)
= u (0.75-0)
= 3kg m/s
∴ Impulse at t = 4s
Before t = 4s, particle has a constant velocity u = 0.75 m/s
After t = 4s, particle is at rest i.e. v = 0
Impulse = m(v – u) = 4 (0 – 0.75) = 3kg m/s.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 15.
Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 20 kg respectively kept on a smooth, horizontal surface are tied to the ends of a light string, a horizontal force F = 600 N is applied to (i) A, (ii) B along the direction of String. What is the tension in the string in each case ?
Answer:
Here, F = 500 N
m1 = 10kg, m2 = 20kg
Let T be the tension in the string and a be the acceleration of the system, in the direction of the force applied.
a = \(\frac{F}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{500}{10+20}=\frac{50}{3}\) m/s2
a) When force is applied on heavier block,
T = m1 a = 10 × \(\frac{50}{3}\) N
T = 166.66 N

b) When force is applied on lighter block,
T = m2a = 20 × \(\frac{50}{3}\) N
= 333.33 N
Which is different from value T in case (a) Hence our answer depends on which mass end, the force is applied.

Question 16.
Two masses 8 kg and 12 kg are connected at the two ends of a light inextensible string that goes over a frictionless pulley. Find the acceleration of the masses, and the tension in the string when the masses are released.
Answer:
Here, m2 = 8 kg, m1 = 12kg
as a = \(\frac{\left(m_1-m_2\right) g}{m_1+m_2}\)
a = \(\frac{(12-8) 9.8}{12+8}=\frac{39.2}{20}\)
= 1.96 m/s2
Again
T = \(\frac{2 m_1 m_2 g}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{2 \times 12 \times 8 \times 9.8}{(12+8)}\) = 94.1 N

Question 17.
A nucleus is at rest in the laboratory frame of reference. Show that if it disintegrates into two smaller nuclei the products must move in opposite directions.
Answer:
Let m1m2 be the masses of products and \(\vec{v}_1, \vec{v}_2\) be their respective velocities. Therefore total linear momentum after disintegration = \(m_1 \overrightarrow{v_1}+m_2 \overrightarrow{v_2}\). Before disintegration, the nucleus is at rest. There, its linear momentum before dis-integration is zero. According to the principle of conservation of linear momentum.
\(m_1 \overrightarrow{v_1}+m_2 \overrightarrow{v_2}\) (Or) \(\vec{v}_2=\frac{-m_1 \vec{v}_1}{m_2}\)
Negative sign shows that \(\overrightarrow{v_1}\) and \(\overrightarrow{v_2}\) are in opposite direction.

Question 18.
Two billiard balls each of mass 0.05 kg moving in opposite directions with speed 6 ms-1 collide and rebound with the same speed. What is the impulse imparted to each ball due to the other ?
Answer:
Here, initial momentum of the ball,
A = 0.05 (6) = 0.3 kg m/s
As the speed is reversed on collision, final momentum of the ball A = 0.05 (-6)
= – 0.3 kg ms-1
Impulse imparted to ball A = Change in momentum of ball A = Final momentum – Intial momentum = – 0.3 – 0.3 = – 0.6 kg m/s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 19.
A shell of mass 0.020 kg is fired by a gun of mass 100 kg. If the muzzle speed of the shell is 80 ms-1, what is the recoil speed of the gun ?
Answer:
Here, mass of shell m = 0.02 kg
Mass of gun M = 100 kg
Muzzle speed of shell v = 80 m/s
Recoil speed of gun V = ?
According to the principle of conservation of linear momentum mv + MV = 0
(Or) V = \(\frac{-\mathrm{mv}}{\mathrm{M}}=\frac{-0.02 \times 80}{100}\) = 0.016 m/s

Question 20.
A batsman deflects a ball by the angle of 45° without changing its initial speed which is equal to 54 km/h. What is the impulse imparted to the ball ? (Mass of the balls is 0.15 kg).
Answer:
In fig. the ball hits the bat KL along AO and is deflected by the bat along OB. Where LAOB = 45°. ON is normal to the portion of the bat KL deflecting the ball.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 15
∴ θ = LNOA
= 45°/2 = 22.5°
Intial vel along AO = u = 54 km/h
= 15 m/S1 and mass of ball m = 0.15 kg Intial velocity along AO has the two rectangular components : u cos θ along NO produced and u sin 6 along the horizontal OL.
Final velocity along OB has the same magnitude = u
It is resolved into two rectangular components u cos 6 along ON and u sin θ along OL. We observe that there is no change in velocity along the horizontal, but velocity along vertical is just reserved.
∴ Impulse imparted to the ball
= Change in linear momentum of the ball
= m u cos θ – (- m u cos θ)
= 2 m u cos θ
= 2 × 0.15 × 15 cos 22.5°
= 4.5 × 0.9239
= 4.16 kg m/s

Question 21.
A stone of mass 0.25 kg tied to the end of a string is whirled round in a circle of radius 1.5 m with a speed of 40 rev./ min in a horizontal plane. What is the tension in the string ? What is the maximum speed with which the stone can be whirled around if the string can withstand a maximum tension of 200 N?
Answer:
Here, m = 0.25 kg, r = 15m
n = 40 rpm = \(\frac{40}{60}\), rps = \(\frac{2}{3}\), T = ?
T = mrw2 = mr(2 π)2 = 4 π2m2
T = 4 × \(\left(\frac{22}{7}\right)^2\) × 0.25 × 1.5 × \(\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^2\) = 6.6N
If Tmax = 200 N. then from
Tmax = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}_{\max }^2}{r}\)
\(v_{\max }^2=\frac{T_{\max } \times r}{m}=\frac{200 \times 1.5}{0.25}\) = 1200
vmax = \(\sqrt{1200}\) = 34.6 m/s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 22.
If, in Exercise 5.21, the speed of the stone is increased beyond the maximum permissible value, and the string breaks suddenly, which of the following correctly describes the trajectory of the stone after the string breaks :
a) the stone moves radially outwards,
b) the stone flies off tangentially from the instant the string breaks,
c) the stone flies off at an angle with the tangent whose magnitude depends on the speed of the particle ?
Answer:
The instant the string, breaks, the stone flies off tangentialy, as per Newton’s first law of motion.

Question 23.
Explain why
a) a horse cannot pull a cart and run in empty space,
b) passengers are thrown forward from their seats when a speeding bus stops suddenly,
c) it is easier to pull a lawn mower than to push it.
d) a cricketer moves his hands back-wards while holding a catch.
Answer:
a) While trying to pull a cart, a horses pushes the ground backwards with a certain force at an angle. The ground offers an equal reaction in the opposite direction on the feet of the horse. The forward component of this reaction is responsible for the motion of the cart. In empty space, there is no reaction and hence a horse cannot pull the cart and run.

b) This is due to inertia of motion. When the speeding bus stops suddenly, lower part of the body in contact with the seats stops. The upper part of the body of the passengers tend to maintain its uniform motion. Hence the passengers are thrown forward.

c) While pulling a lawn roller, force is applied upwards along the handle. The vertical component of this force is upwards and reduces the effective weight of the roller, fig. (a) while pushing a lawn roller. Face is applied downwards along the handle. The vertical component of this force is downwards and increases the effective weight of the roller, fig. (b). As the effective weight is lesser in case of pulling than in a case of pushing, therefore pulling is easier than pushing.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 16
d) While holding a catch, the impulse receives by the hands F × t = Change in linear momentum of the ball is constant. By moving his hands, backwards, the cricketer increases the time of impact (t) to complete the catch. As t increases, F decreases and as a reaction, his hands are not hurt severly.

Question 24.
Figure shows the position-time graph of a body of mass 0.04 kg. Suggest a suitable physical context for this motion. What is the time between two consecutive impulses received by the body ? What is the magnitude of. each impulse ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 17
Answer:
Here, m = 0.04 kg. position time graph shows that the particle moves from x = 0 at 0 to x = 2 cm at A in 2 sec.
As x – t graph is a st. line, the motion is with a constant velocity.
μ = \(\frac{(2-0) \mathrm{cm}}{(2-0) \mathrm{s}}\) = 1 cm s-1
= 10-2 ms-1
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 18
From x = 2 cm at A, particle goes to x = 0 at B in 2 sec.
As AB is a stline, motion is with constant velocity v = 1 cm/s = 10-2 m/s
Negative sign indicates the reversal of direction of motion. This is being repeated. We can visualise a ball moving between two walls located at x = 0 and x = 2 cm, getting rebounded repeatedly on striking against each wall on every collision with a wall, linear momentum of the ball changes. Therefore, the ball receives impulse after every two seconds. Magnitude of impulse = Total change in linear momentum.
= mu -(mv) = mu – mv = m(u – v)
= 0.04(10-2 + 10-2)
= 0.08 × 10-2
= 8 × 10-4 kg m/s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 25.
Figure shows a man standing stationary with respect to a horizontal conveyor belt that is accelerating with 1 ms-2. What is the net force on the man ? If the coefficient of static friction between the man’s shoes and the belt is 0.2, up to what acceleration of the belt can the man continue to be stationary relative to the belt ? (Mass of the man = 65 kg).
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 19
Answer:
Here, acceleration of conveyer belt, a = 1 m/s2
As the man is standing stationary w.r.t the belt, acceleration of the man = Acceleration of belt = a = 1 m/s2
As m = 65 kg
∴ Net force on the man, F = ma = 65 × 1 = 65 N
Now, µ = 0.2
Force of limiting friction- F = µR = µmg
It the man remains stationary upto max.acc. a of the belt, then F = ma1 = g mg
a1 = mg = 0.2 × 9.8 = 1.96 ms-2

Question 26.
A stone of mass m tied to the end of a string revolves in a vertical circle of radius R. The net forces at the lowest and highest points of the circle directed vertically downwards are : (Choose the correct alternative)
Lowest Point – Highest Point
a) mg – T1 – mg + T2
b) mg + T1 – mg – T2
c) mg + T1 – (mυ12)/R – mg – T2 + (mυ12)/R
d) mg – T1 – (mυ12/R – mg + T2 + (mυ12)/R
T1 and υ1 denote the tension and speed at the lowest point T2 and υ2 denote corresponding values at the highest point.
Answer:
The net force at the lowest point α is
FL = (mg – T1) and the net force at the highest point H is FH = mg + T2. Therefore, alternative (a) is correct.

Question 27.
A helicopter of mass 1000 kg rises with a vertical acceleration of 15 ms-2. The crew and the passengers weight 300 kg. Give the magnitude and direction of the
a) force on the floor by the crew and passengers,
b) action of the rotor of the helicopter on the surrounding air,
c) force on the helicopter due to the surrounding air.
Answer:
Here, mass of the helicopter, m1 = 100 kg
Mass of the crew and passengers m2 = 300 kg
Upward acceleration a = 15 ms-2 and g = 10 ms-2
a) Force on the floor of helicopter by the crew and passengers = appeard weight of crew and passengers = m2(g + a)
= 300(10 + 15) = 7500 N

b) Action of rotor of helicopter on surrounding air is obviously vertically downwards because helicopter rises on account reaction to this force. Thus, force of action F = (m1 + m2) (g + a)
= (1000 + 300) (10 + 15)
= 1300 × 25 = 32500 N

c) Force on the helicopter due to surrounding air is the reaction. As action and reaction are equal and opposite, therefore, force of reaction F1 = 32500 N, vertically upwards.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 28.
A stream of water flowing horizontally with a speed of 15 ms-1 gushes out of a tube of cross-sectional area 10-2m2 and hits a vertical wall nearby. What is the force exerted on the wall by the impact of water, assuming it does not rebound ?
Answer:
Here v = 15 ms-1
Area of cross section a = 102 m-2, F = ?
Volume of water pushing out/sec
= a × v = 10-12 × m3 s-1
As density of water is 103 kg/m2, therefore, mass of water striking the wall per sec.
m = (15 × 10-2) × 103 = 150 kg/s
Change in linear momentum
As F = \(\frac{\text { Change in linear momentum }}{\text { Time }}\)
∴ F = \(\frac{m \times v}{t}=\frac{150 \times 15}{1}\) = 2250 N

Question 29.
Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other on a table. Each coin has a mass m. Give the magnitude and direction of
a) the force on the 7th coin (counted from the bottom) due to all the coins on its top
b) the force on the 7th coin by the eighth coin,
c) the reaction of the 6th coin on the 7th coin.
Answer:
a) The force on 7th coin is due to weight of the three coins lying above it. Therefore,
F (3m) kgf = (3mg)N
Where g is acceleration due to gravity. This force acts vertically downwards.

b) The eighth coin is already under the weight of two coins above it and it has its own weight too. Hence force on 7th coin due to 8th coin is sum of the two forces i.e.,
F = 2m + m = 3(m) kgf = (3mg)N
The force acts vertically downwards.

c) The sixth coin is under the weight of four coins above it.
Reaction, R = – F = -4m(kgf) = -(4 mg)N
Minor sign indicates that the reaction acts vertically upwards, opposite to the weight.

Question 30.
An aircraft executes a horizontal loop at a speed of 720 km/h with its wings banked at 15°. What is the radius of the loop ?
Answer:
Here θ = 15°
v = 720 km/h =\(\frac{720 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\) = 200 ms-1
g = 9.8 ms-2
From tan θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{v}^2}{\mathrm{rg}}\)
v2 = rg tan θ
r = \(\frac{v^2}{g \tan \theta}=\frac{(200)^2}{9.8 \times \tan 15^{\circ}}\)
= 15232 m = 15.232 km

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 31.
A train runs along an unbanked circular track of radius 30 m at a speed of 54 km/h. The mass of the train is 106 kg. What provides the centripetal force required for this purpose – The engine or the rails ? What is the angle of banking required to prevent wearing out of the rail ?
Answer:
The centripetal force is provided by the lateral thrust exerted by the rails on the wheels. By Newton’s 3rd law, the train exerts an equal and opposite thrust on the rails causing its wear and tear.
Obviously, the outer rail will wear out faster due to the larger force exerted by the train on it.
Here v = 54 km/h =\(\frac{54 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\) = 15 m/s
g = 9.8 ms-2
As tan θ = \(\frac{v^2}{r g}=\frac{15 \times 15}{30 \times 9.8}\) = 0.76
∴ θ = tan-1 0.76 = 37.4°

Question 32.
A block of mass 25 kg is raised by a 50 kg man in two different ways as shown in Fig. What is the action on the floor by the man in the two cases ? If the floor yields to a normal force of 700 N, which mode should the man adopt to lift the block without the floor yielding ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 20
Answer:
Here, mass of block m = 25 kg
Mass of man M = 50 kg
Force applied to lift the block
F = mg = 25 × 9.8 = 245 N
Weight of Man W = mg = 50 × 9.8 = 490 N
a) When block is raised by man as shown in Fig. force is applied by the man in the upward direction. This increases the apparent weight of the man. Hence action on the floor.
W1 = W + F
= 490 + 245
= 735 N

b) When block is raised by man as shown in Fig. force is app ed by the man in the downward direction. This decreases the apparent weight of the man. Hence action on the floor in this case would be
W1 = W – F = 490 – 245 = 245 N
As the floor yeilds to a normal force of 700 N, the mode (b) has to be adopted by the man to lift the block

Question 33.
A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a rope (Fig.) which can stand a maximum tension of 600 N. In which of the following cases will the rope break : the money
a) climbs up with an acceleration of 6 m s-2
b) climbs down with an acceleration of 4 ms-2
c) climbs up with a uniform speed of 5 ms-1
d) falls down the rope nearly freely under gravity ?
(ignore the mass of the rope)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 21
Answer:
Here, mass of monkey m = 40 kg
Maximum tension the rope can stand T = 600 N
In each case, actual tension in the rope will be equal to apparent weight of money (R). The rope will break when R exceeds T.
a) When monkey climbs up with a = 6 ms-2
R = m(g + a)
= 40(10 + 6)
= 640 N (Which is greater than T)
Hence the rope will break.

b) When monkey climbs down with a = 4 ms-2,
R = m(g – a) = 40(10 – 4) = 240 N
Which is less than T.
∴ The rope will not break.

c) When monkey climbs up with a uniform speed v = 5 ms-1.
Its acceleration, a = 0
∴ R = mg = 40 × 10 = 400 N,
which is less than T.
∴ The role will not break

d) When monkey falls down the rope nearly freely under gravity
a = g
∴ R = m(g – a) = m(g – g) = zero
Hence the rope will not break.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 34.
Two bodies A and B of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid wall (Fig.). The coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.15. A force of 200 N is applied horizontally to A. What are (a) the reaction of the partition (b) the action-reaction forces between A and B ? What happens when the wall is removed ? Does the answer to (b) change, when the bodies are in motion? Ignore the difference between μs and μk.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 22
Answer:
Here, mass of body A, m1 = 5 kg
Mass of body B, m2 = 10 kg
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 23
Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table, μ = 0.15
Horizontal force applied on A,
F = 200 N

a) Force of limiting friction acting to the left
f = μ (m1 + m2)g
= 0.15(5 + 10) × 9.8 = 22.05 N
∴ Net force to the right exerted on the partition
F’ = 200 – 22.05 = 177.95 N
Reaction of partition = 177.95 N to the left.

b) Force of limiting friction acting on body A
f1 = μm1g = 0.15 × 5 × 9.8
= 7.35 N
∴ Net force exerted by body A on body B.
F” = F -f1 = 200 – 7.35
= 19265 N
This is to the right
Reaction of body B on body A = 192.65
N to the left when the portion is removed, the system of two bodies will move under the action of net force.
F1 = 177.95 IM
Acceralation produced in the system
a = \(\frac{F^1}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{177.95}{5+10}\)
= 11.86 ms-2
Force producing motion in body A
F1 = m1 a = 5 × 11.86
= 59.3 N
∴ Net force exerted by A on body B, when partition is removed
= F” – F1 = 192.65 – 59.3
= 133.35 N.
Hence the reaction of body B on A, when partition is removed = 133.35 N to the left.
Thus answers to (b) do change.

Question 35.
A block of mass 15 kg is placed on a long trolley. The cofficient of static friction between the block and the trolley is 0.18. The trolley accelerates from rest with 0.5 ms-2 for 20 s and then moves with uniform velocity. Discuss the motion of the block as viewed by (a) a stationary observer on the ground, (b) an observer moving with the trolley.
Answer:
a) Flere, m = 15 kg;
μ = 0.18,
a = 0.5 ms-2
t = 20 s
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 24
Force on the block due to motion of the trolly F’ = ma = 15 × 0.5 = 7.5 N
Force of limiting friction on the block
= F = μR = μmg
= 0.18 × 15 × 9.8 = 26.46 N
This opposes the motion of the block. The block shall not move. The force of static friction F will adjust itself equal and opposite to F’, the applied force.

Flence to a stationary observer on the ground, the block will appear to be at rest relative to the trolly. When trolly moves with uniform velocity, the block will continue to be stationary. Because in that case, forward force is zero. Force of friction alone is acting on the block.

b) An observer moving with the trolly has accelerated motion. The observer is therefore non-inertial.. The law of inertia is no longer valid.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 36.
The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg mass is placed 5 m away from the open end as shown in Fig. The coefficient of friction between the box and the surface below it is 0.15. On a straight road, the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 2 ms-2. At what distance from the starting point does the box fall of the truck?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 25
Answer:
Here mass of the box m = 40 kg
Acceleration of truck a = 2 ms-2
Distance of box from open end S = 5m
Coeff. of friction μ = 0.15
Force on the box due to accelarated motion of the truck, F = ma = 40 × 2 = 80 N
This force F is in the forward direction Reaction F’ on the box is equal to F = 80 N in the backward direction. This is opposed by force of limiting friction
f = μ R = μ mg
= 0.15 × 40 × 9.8
= 58.8 N in the forward direction
∴ Net force on the box in the backward direction is p = F’ – F = 80 – 58.8 = 21.2 N
Backward acceleration produced in the box
a = \(\frac{p}{m}=\frac{21.2}{40}\) = 0.53 ms-2
It t is time taken by the box to travel S = 5 metre and fall off the truck, then from
S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
5 = 0 × t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.53 t2
t = \(\frac{\sqrt{5 \times 2}}{0.53}\) = 4.345
If the truck travels a distance x during this time, then again from
S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
x = 0 × 4.34 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2(4.34)2 = 18.84 m

Question 37.
A disc revolves with a speed of 33\(\frac{1}{3}\) rev/min, and has a radius of 15 cm. Two coins are placed at 4 cm and 14 cm away from the centre of the record. If the co-efficient of friction between the coins and the record is 0.15, which of the coins will revolve with the record ?
Answer:
The coin revolves with the record in the case when the force of friction is enough to provide the necessary centripetal force. If this force is not sufficient to provide centripetal force, the coin slips on the record.
Now the frictional force is µR where R is the
normal reaction and R = mg
Hence force of friction = µ mg and centripetal force required is \(\frac{m v^2}{r}\) or mrw2
µ1w are same for both the coins and we have different values of r for the two coins.
So to prevent slipping i.e., causing coins to rotate µ mg > mrω2 or µg > rω2 …………….. (1)
For 1st coin
r = 4 cm = \(\frac{4}{100}\) m
n = 33 \(\frac{1}{2}\) rev/min = \(\frac{100}{3 \times 60}\) rev/sec
w = 2πn = 2π × \(\frac{100}{180}\) = 3.49 S-1
∴ rw2 = \(\frac{4}{100}\) × (3.49)2 = 0.49 ms-2 and
µg = 0.15 × 9.8 = 1.47 ms-2
As µg > rw2, there fore this coin Will revolve with the record.
Note: We have nothing to do with the radius of the record = 15 cm

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 38.
You may have seen in a circus a motor-cyclist driving in verticle loops inside a ‘death-well’ (a hollow spherical chamber with holes, so the spectators can watch from outside). Explain clearly why the motorcyclist does not drop down when he is at the uppermost point, with no support from below. What is the minimum speed required at the uppermost position to perform a verticle loop if the radius of the chamber is 25 m ?
Answer:
At the uppermost point of the death well, with no support from below, the motorcyclist does not drop down. This is because his weight is being balance by the centrifugal force. Infact, the weight of the motorcyclist is spent up in providing the necessary centripetal force to the motorcyclist and hence he does not drop drown.

At the uppermost point, R + mg = \(\frac{m v^2}{r}\),
where R is the normal reaction (downwards) on the motor cyclist by the ceiling of the chamber.
Speed will be minimum, when N = 0
∴ mg = \(\frac{m v^2}{r}\) or
v = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{rg}}=\sqrt{25 \times 10}\)
= 15.8 m/s

Question 39.
A 70 kg man stands in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 3 m rotating about its vertical axis with 200 rev/min. The coefficient of friction between the wall and his clothing is 0.15. What is the minimum rotational speed of the cylinder to enable the man to remain stuck to the wall (without falling) when the floor is suddenly removed ?
Answer:
Here m = 70 kg, r = 3
n = 200 rpm = \(\frac{200}{60}\) rps
µ = 0.15
w = ?
The horizontal force N by the wall on the man provides the necessary centripetal force = mrω2. The frictional force (f) in this case is vertically upwards opposing the weight (mg) of the man.
After the floor is removed, the man will remain stuck to the wall, when
mg = f < µ N i.e., mg < µ mr ω2 or g < µ r ω2
∴ Minimum angular speed of rotation of the cylinder is ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{g}{\mu \mathrm{r}}}=\sqrt{\frac{10}{0.15 \times 3}}\)
= 4.7 rad/s

Question 40.
A thin circular loop of radius R rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency no. Show that a small bead on the wire loop remains at its
lowermost point for ω ≤ \(\sqrt{g / R}\) . What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = 2g/R ?
Answer:
In fig. we have show that radius vector joining the bead to the centre of the wire makes as angle θ with the vertical downward direction. It N is normal reaction, then as it is clear from the figure,
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 26
mg = N cos θ ………… (1)
m rω2 = N sin θ …………….. (2)
Or m(R sin θ) ω2 = N sin θ
Or mRω2 = N
From (i) mg = mRω2 cos θ
Or cos θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{R} \omega^2}\) ……………….. (3)
As |cos θ| ≤ 1, therefore, bead will remain at its lower most point for
\(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{R} \omega^2}\) ≤ 1 or w ≤ \(\sqrt{\frac{g}{R}}\)
When ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 g}{R}}\), from (iii),
cos θ = \(\frac{g}{R}\left(\frac{R}{2 g}\right)=\frac{1}{2}\)
∴ θ = 60°

Textual Examples

Question 1.
An astronaut accidentally gets separated out of his small spaceship accelerating in inter stellar space at a constant rate of 100 ms-2. What is the acceleration of the astronaut the instant after he is outside the spaceship ? (Assume that there are no nearby stars to exert gravitational force on him).
Answer:
Since there are no nearby starts to exert gravitational force on him and the small spaceship exerts negligible gravitational attraction on him, the net force acting on the astronaut, once he is out of the spaceship, is zero. By the first law of motion the acceleration of the astronaut is zero.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
A bullet of mass 0.04 kg moving with a speed of 90 m s-1 enters a heavy wooden block and is stopped after a distance of 60 cm. What is the average resistive force exerted by the block on the bullet ?
Answer:
The retardation ‘a’ of the bullet (assumed constant) is given by
a = \(\frac{-u^2}{2 s}=\frac{-90 \times 90}{2 \times 0.6}\) m s-2 = -6750 m s-2
The retarding force, by the second law of motion, is = 0.04 kg × 6750 ms-2 = 270 N
The actual resistive force, and therefore, retardation of the bullet may not be uniform. The answer therefore, only indicates the average resistive force.

Question 3.
The motion of a particle of mass m is described by y = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at2. Find the force acting on the particle.
Answer:
We know, y = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
Now, υ = \(\frac{\mathrm{dy}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)u + gt
acceleration, a = \(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = g
Then the force is given by F = \(\frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = ma
F = ma = mg

Question 4.
A batsman hits back a ball straight in the direction of the bowler without changing its initial speed of 12 m s-1. If the mass of the ball is 0.15 kg determine the impulse imparted to the ball. (Assume linerar motion of the ball) [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Change in momentum
= 0.15 × 12-(-0.15 × 12) = 3.6 N s
Impulse = 3.6 N s, in the direction from the batsman to the bowler.
This is an example where the force on the ball by the batsman and the time of contact of the ball and the bat are difficult to know, but the impulse is readily calculated.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 5.
Two identical billiard balls strike a rigid wall with the same speed but at different angles and get reflected without any change in speed, as shown in Fig. What is (i) the direction of the force on the wall due to each ball ? (ii) the ratio of the magnitudes of impulses imparted to the balls by the wall ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 27
Answer:
An instinctive answer to (i) might be that the force on the wall in case (a) is normal to the wall, while that in case (b) is inclined at 30° to the normal. This answer is wrong. The force on the wall is normal to the wall in both cases. How to find the force on the wall ? The trick . is to consider the force on the wall ? The trick is to consider the force (or impulse) on the ball due to the wall using the second law, and then use the third law to answer (i). Let u be the speed of each ball before and after collision with the wall and m the mass of each bah. Choose the x and y axes as shown in the figure, and consider the change in momentum of the ball in each case :
Case (a) :
(Px)initial = mu
(Px)initial = 0
(Px)final = – mu
(Py)final = 0
Impulse is the change in momentum vector.
Therefore,
x-component of impulse = -2mu
y-component of impulse – 0
Impulse and force are in the same direction. Clearly, from above, the force on the ball due to the wall is normal to the wall, along the negative x-direction. Using Newton’s third law of motion, the force on the wall due to the ball is normal to the wall along the positive x-direction. The magnitude of force cannot be ascertained since the small time taken for the collision has not been specified in the problem. .
Case (b) :
(Px)initial = mu cos 30°
(Py)initial = – m u sin 30°
(Px)final = – mu cos 30°
(Py)final = -m u sin 30°
Note, while px changes sign after collision, py does not. Therefore,
x-component of impulse = -2 m u cos 30°
y-component of impulse 0
The direction of impulse (and force) is the same as in (a) and is normal to the wall along the negative x direction. As before, using Newton’s third law, the force on the wall due to the ball is normal to the wall along the positive x direction.
The ratio of the magnitudes of the impulses imparted to the balls in(a) and (b) is
2 mu / (2 m u cos 30°) = \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\) ≈ 1.2

Question 6.
See Fig. A mass of 6 kg is suspended by a rope of length 2 m from the ceiling. A force of 50 N in the horizontal direction is applied at the mid point P of the rope, as show. What is the angle the rope makes with the vertical in equilibrium ? (Take g = 10 ms-2). Neglect the mass of the rope.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 28
Answer:
Figures (b) and (c) are known as free-body diagrams. Figure (b) is the free-body diagram of W and Fig. (c) is the free-body diagram of point P.
Consider the equilibrium of the weight W.
Clearly, T2 = 6 × 10 = 60 N.
Consider the equilibrium of the point P under the action of three forces – the tensions T1 and T2, and the horizontal force 50 N. The horizontal and vertical components of the resultant force must vanish separately :
T1 cos θ = T2 = 60N
T2 sin θ = T2 = 50N
which gives that tan θ = \(\frac{5}{6}\) or
θ = tan-1 (\(\frac{5}{6}\)) = 40°
Note the answer does not depend on the length of the rope (assumed massless) nor on the point at which the horizontal force is applied.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 7.
Determine the maximum acceleration of the train in which a box lying on the floor will remain stationary, given that the coefficient of static friction between the box and the train’s floor is 0.15.
Answer:
Since the acceleration of the box is due to the static friction,
ma = fs ≤ μs N = μs m g
i.e. a ≤ μs g
∴ amaximum = μs g = 0.15 × 10m s-2
= 1.5 ms-2

Question 8.
See Fig. A mass of 4 kg rests on a horizontal plane. The plane is gradually inclined unti at an angle θ = 15° with the horizontal, the mass just begins to slide. What is the coefficient of static friction between the block and the surface ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 29
Answer:
The forces acting on a block of mass …. at rest on an inclined plane are (i) the weight mg acting vertically downwards (ii) the normal force N of the plane on the block, and (iii) the static frictional force fs opposing the impending motion. In equilibrium, the resultant of these forces must be zero. Resolving the weight mg along the two directions shown, we have
m g sin θ = fs, m g cos θ = N
As θ increases, the self-adjusting frictional force fs increases until at θ = θmax, fs achieves its maximum value, (fs)max = μs N.
Therefore,
tan θmax = μs, or θmax = tan-1 μs
When θ becomes just a little more than there is a small net force on the block and θnm begins to slide. Note that θmax depends only on μs and is independent of the mass of the block
θmax = 15°, μs = tan 15° = t = 0.27

Question 9.
What is the acceleration of the book and trolley system shown in the Fig., if the coefficient of kinetic friction between the trolley and the suriace is 0.04 what is the tension in the string. Take g 10 ms-2). Neglect the mass of the string.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 30
Answer:
As the string is inextensible, and the pully is smooth, the 3 kg block and the 20 kg trolley both have same magnitude of acceleration. Applying second law to motion of the block (Fig. (b).
30 – T = 3a
Apply the second law to motion of the trolley (Fig. (c))
T – fk = 20a
Now fk = μk N,
Here μk = 0.04
N = 20 × 10 = 200N
Thus the equation for the motion of the trolley is
T – 0.04 × 200 = 20 a or T – 8 = 20a
These equations give a = \(\frac{22}{23}\) m s-2 = 0.96 m s-2 and T = 27.1 N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 10.
A cyclist speeding at 18 km/h on a level road takes a sharp circular turn of radius 3 m without reducing the speed. The co-efficient of static friction between the tyres and the road is 0.1. Will the cyclist slip while taking the turn ?
Answer:
On an unbanked road, frictional force alone can provide the centripetal force needed to keep the cyclist moving on a circular turn without slipping. If the speed is too large, or if the turn is too sharp (i.e. of too small a radius) or both, the frictional force is not sufficient to provide the necessary centripetal force, and the cyclist slips. The condition for the cyclist not to slip is given by
vmax = \(\sqrt{\mu_s R_g}\) v2 ≤ μs Rg
Now, R = 3m, g = 9.8 m s-2, μs = 0.1.
That is, μs R g = 2.94 m2 s-2. v = 18 km/h = 5 m s-1; i.e., = 25 v2. The condition is not obeyed. The cyclist will slip while taking the circular turn.

Question 11.
A circular racetrack of radius 300 m is banked at an angle of 15°. If the coefficient of friction between the wheels of a race-car and the road is 0.2, what is the(a) optimum speed of the race-car to avoid wear and tear on its tyres, and (b) maximum permissible speed to avoid slipping?
Answer:
On a banked road, the horizontal component of the normal force and the frictional force contribute to provide centripetal force to keep the car moving on a circular turn without slipping. At the optimum speed, the normal reaction’s component is enough to provide the needed centripetal force, and the frictional force is not needed. The optimum speed v0 is given by
v0 = (R g tan θ)1/2-
Here R = 300 m, θ = 15°, g = 9.8 m s-2; we have
v0 = 28.1 ms-1
The maximum permissible speed vmax is given by
vmax = R g\(\left(\frac{\mu_s+\tan \theta}{1-\mu_s \tan \theta}\right)^{1 / 2}\) = 38.1 m s-1

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 12.
See (Fig.) A wooden block of mass 2 kg rests on a soft horizontal floor. When an iron cylinder of mass 25 kg is placed on top of the block, the floor yields steadily and the block and the cylinder together go down with an acceleration of 0.1 ms-2. What is the action of the block on the floor (a) before and (b) after the floor yields ? Take g = 10 m s-2. Identify the action- reaction pairs in the problem.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 31
Answer:
(a) The block is at rest on the floor. Its free- body diagram shows two forces on the block, the force of gravitational attraction by the earth equal to 2 × 10 = 20 N; and the normal force R of the floor on the block. By the First Law, the net force on the block must be zero i.e., R = 20 N. Using third law the action of the block (i.e. the force exerted on the floor by the block) is equal to 20 N and directed vertically downwards.

(b)The system (block cylinder) accelerates downwards with 0.1 ms-2. The free – body diagram of the system shows two forces on the system : the force of gravity due to the earth (270 N); and the normal force R’ by the floor. Note, the free-body diagram of the system does not show the internal forces between the block and the cylinder. Applying the second law to the system,
270 – R’ = 27 × 0.1 N
i.e, R’ = 267.3 N
By the third law, the action of the system on the floor is equal to 267.3 N vertically downward.
Action-reaction pairs
For (a) :
(i) the force of gravity (20N) on the block by the earth (say, action); the force of gravity on the earth by the block (reaction) equal to 20 N directed upwards (not shown in the figure).
(ii) the force on the floor by the block (action); the force on the block by the floor (reaction).

For (b):
(i) the force of gravity (270 N) on the system by the earth (say, action), the force of gravity on the earth by the system (reaction), equal to 270 N, directed upwards (not shown in the figure).

(ii) the force on the floor by the system (action); the force on the system by the floor (reaction). In addition, for (b), the force on the block by the cylinder and the force on the cylinder by the block also constitute an action-reaction pair.

The important thing to remember is that an action-reaction pair consists of mutual fortes which are always equal and opposite between two bodies. Two forces on the same body which happen to be. equal and opposite can never constitute an action-reaction pair. The force of gravity on the mass in (a) or (b) and the normal force on the mass by the floor are not action-reaction pairs. These forces happen to be equal and opposite for (a) since the mass is at rest. They are not so for case (b), as seen already. The weight of the system is 270 N, while the normal force R’ is 267.3 N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 3rd Lesson Motion in a Straight Line Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 3rd Lesson Motion in a Straight Line

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
The states of motion and rest are relative. Explain.
Answer:
Rest and motion are relative. They are not absolute. A body can be in the rest or in motion w.r.t. reference frame. A man in a moving train is a rest w.r. to a co-passenger, but he is in motion w.r.t a man on the ground.

Question 2.
How is average velocity different from instantaneous velocity? [Mar. 13]
Answer:
The average velocity does not give any details of the motion of the particle. It gives only the result of the motion. The instantaneous velocity defines how fast the particle moves at a particular instant of time.
In uniform motion, the instantaneous velocity is equal to the average velocity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 3.
Give an example where the velocity of an object is zero but its acceleration is not zero.
Answer:
When the body is projected vertically upwards, at the highest point, its velocity is zero. But its acceleration (a = g) is not equal to zero.

Question 4.
A vehicle travels half the distance L with speed v1 and the other half with speed v2. What is the average speed ?
Answer:
Average speed = \(\frac{\text { Total length of the path }}{\text { Total time taken }}=\frac{\mathrm{L}}{\frac{\left(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{2}\right)}{\mathrm{V}_1}+\frac{\left(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{2}\right)}{\mathrm{V}_2}}=\frac{2 \mathrm{~V}_1 \mathrm{~V}_2}{\mathrm{~V}_1+\mathrm{V}_2}\)

Question 5.
A lift coming down is just about to reach the ground floor. Taking the ground floor as origin and positive direction upwards for all quantities, which one of the following is correct
a) x < 0, v < 0, a > 0, b) x > 0, v < 0, a < 0, c) x > 0, v < 0, a > 0, d)x > 0, V > 0, a > 0
Answer:
While lift is moving towards ground floor (origin), position x decreases, velocity decreases. Hence x < 0, v < 0. But a > 0. So(a) is correct option.

Question 6.
A uniformly moving cricket ball is hit with a bat for a very short time and is turned back. Show the variation of its acceleration with time taking the acceleration in the backward direction as positive.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 1

Question 7.
Give an example of one-dimensional motion where a particle moving along the positive x-direction comes to rest periodically and moves forward.
Answer:
When simple harmonic oscillator starts from left extreme position and comes to rest at that point periodically and moves forward.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 8.
An object falling through a fluid is observed to have an acceleration given by a = g – bv where g is the gravitational accelaration and b is a constant. After a long time it is observed to fall with a constant velocity. What would be the value of this constant velocity ?
Answer:
Given acceleration a = g – bv
\(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = g – bv [∵ a = \(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)]
If an object is moving through fluid with constant velocity, dv = 0
0 = g – bv ∴ v = \(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{b}}\)

Question 9.
If the trajectory of a body is parabolic in one frame, can it be parabolic in another frame that moves with a constant velocity with respect to the first frame ? If not, what can it be ?
Answer:
No. the trajectory is a vertical straight line.

Question 10.
A spring with one end attached to a mass and the other to a rigid support is stretched and released. When is the magnitude of acceleration a maximum ?
Answer:
The magnitude of acceleration is maximum at Extreme Positions.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Can the equations of kinematics be used when the acceleration varies with time ? If not, what form would these equations take ?
Answer:
No, the equations of kinematics be used when the acceleration varies with time.
If an object moves along a straight line with uniform acceleration (a), equations of kinematics are

  1. v = v0 + at;
  2. x = v0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2;
  3. v2 = v02 + 2ax

Where x is displacement, v0 is velocity at t = 0, v is velocity at time t, a is acceleration.
These are kinematic equations of rectilinear motion for constant acceleration.
If an object moves with non-uniform acceleration, the equations of motion are,

  1. v = v0 + at
  2. x = x0 + v0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at2
  3. v2 = v02 + 2a (x – x0)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 2.
A particle moves in a straight line with uniform acceleration. Its velocity at time t = 0 is v1 and at time t = t is v2. The average velocity of the particle in this time interval is (v1 + v2)/2. Is this correct ? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Consider a particle moving with uniform acceleration a.
At t = 0, the (initial) velocity = v1
At t = t, the (final) velocity = v2
time = t
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 2
∴ The given statement is true.

Question 3.
Can the velocity of an object be in a direction other than the direction of acceleration of the object ? If so, give an example.
Answer:
Yes, the velocity of an object be in a direction other than the direction of acceleration of the object.

Ex. : In the case of the upward motion of a projectile, the angle between velocity and acceleration is 180°. During its journey, the direction of velocity is in upwards and the direction of acceleration is in downwards.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 4.
A parachutist flying in an aeroplane jumps when it is at a height of 3 km above ground. He opens his parachute when he is about 1 km above ground. Describe his motion.
Answer:

  1. A parachutist is jumping from an air-plane at a height of 3 km from the ground. Upto 1 km above the ground, his motion is like a freely falling body. He falls with constant acceleration 9.8 ms-2.
  2. At a height of 1 km above the ground, when he opened the parachute, the air drag opposes the force of gravity resultant on it. The acceleration of parachutist gradually decreases since velocity increases (a = g – bv) and becomes zero.
  3. Further, the parachutist attains terminal speed (constant speed), where air drag (in upward direction) is equal to force of gravity (in downward).
  4. Hopefully this terminal speed is slow enough, so he can touch the ground without much difficulty.

Question 5.
A bird holds a fruit in its beak and flies parallel to the ground. It lets go of the fruit at some height. Describe the trajectory of the fruit as it falls to the ground as seen by
(a) the bird
(b) a person on the ground.
Answer:
A bird holds a fruit in its beak and flies parallel to the ground.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 3
It lets go of the fruit at some height, the trajectory of the fruit as it falls to the ground as seen by (a) the bird is a straight line (b) a person on the ground is a parabola.

Question 6.
A man runs across the roof of a tall building and jumps horizontally on to the (lower) roof of an adjacent building. If his speed is 9 ms-1 and the horizontal distance between the buildings is 10 m and the height difference between the roofs is 9 m, will he be able to land on the next building ? (take g = 10 ms-2).
Answer:
Difference of heights between two buildings h = 9 m; g = 10 ms-2
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 4
Time of flight of a man t = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{\mathrm{~g}}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 9}{10}}\)
= 1.341 sec
Horizontal speed of a man u = 9 ms-1
Horizontal distance travelled by a man dm
= Horizontal speed × Time of flight
= u × t = 9 × 1.341 = 12.07 m
Given, the horizontal distance between the buildings db = 10 m
Since dm > db, the man can able to land on the next building.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 7.
A ball is dropped from the roof of a tall building and simultaneously another ball is thrown horizontally with some velocity from the same roof. Which ball lands first? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Let height of the building = Displacement of ball = h
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 5
For first ball u = 0; S = h. a = g; t = t1
Substituting these values in S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
⇒ h = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt12
∴ t1 = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\) …………… (1)
For second ball, ux = u (say) uy = 0, aY = g, SY = h; t = t2
Substituting these values in
SY = uYt + \(\frac{1}{2}\) aYt2
h = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt22
∴ t2 = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\)
From equation (1) and equation (2), t1 = t2
∴ Two balls will reach the ground in same time.

Question 8.
A ball is dropped from a building and simultaneously another ball is projected upward with some velocity. Describe the change in relative velocities of the balls as a function of time.
Answer:
For first ball u = u1; v = v1; a = g; t = t
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 6
Substituting these values in equation
v = u + at, we get
v1 = u1 + gt1
For second ball u = u<sub2; v = v2; a = – g; t = t2
Substituting these values in equation, v = u + at,
We get, v2 = u2 + gt2 ………………. (2)
(1) – (2) ⇒ (v1 – v2) = (u1 – u2) + g(t1 + t2)
∴ (v1 – v2) – (u1 – u2) = g(t1 + t2)
[∵ u1 = 0]
∴ (v1 – v2) – (0 – u2) = g(t1 + t2)
∴ The change in final relative velocity and initial relative velocity of two balls = Function of time.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 9.
A typical raindrop is about 4 mm in diameter. If a raindrop falls from a cloud which is km above the ground, estimate its momentum when it hits the ground.
Answer:
Diameter of rain drop, D = 4 mm
Radius of ram drop r = 2 mm = 2 × 10-3 m
Volume of the rain atop, V = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3 = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × (2 × 10-3)3
Density of water drop = 103 kg/m3
Mass of water drop M = Vd = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 8 × 10-9 × 103
= 33.5 × 2 × 10-6 kg
The height of raindrop falls from a cloud, h = 1 km = 1000 m
Velocity of raindrop just before touching the ground V = \(\sqrt{2 g h}=\sqrt{2 \times 9.8 \times 1000}\) = 140 ms-1
Momentum of raindrop when it hits the ground P = mV = 33.52 × 10-6 × 140 = 469.28 × 10-5
= 0.004692 kg ms-1

Question 10.
Show that the maximum height reached by a projectile launched at an angle of 45° is one quarter of its range.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 7

Problems

Question 1.
A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km h-1. Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km h-1. What is the (a) magnitude of average velocity and (b) average speed of the man over the time interval 0 to 50 min.
Answer:
From home to market:
X1 = 2.5 km; v1 = 5 km h-1;
t1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{X_1}}{\mathrm{v_1}}=\frac{2.5}{5}=\frac{1}{2}\) h = 30 min.
From market to home:
X2 = 2.5 km; v2 = 7.5 km h-1
t2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{X_2}}{\mathrm{v_2}}=\frac{2.5}{7.5}=\frac{1}{3}\) h = 20 min.
a) Magnitude of average velocity
= \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{X}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{X}_1-\mathrm{X}_2}{\mathrm{t}_1+\mathrm{t}_2}=\frac{2.5-2.5}{50}\) = 0
b) Average speed
= \(\frac{X_1+X_2}{t_1+t_2}=\frac{2.5-2.5}{(30+20) \min }=\frac{5 \mathrm{~km}}{50 \times \frac{h}{60}}\)
= 6 km h-1

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 2.
A car travels the first third of a distance with a speed of 10 kmph, the second third at 20 kmph and the last third at 60 kmph. What is its mean speed over the entire distance ? [T.S. Mar 16]
Answer:
v1 = 10 km ph; v2 = 20 km ph; v1 = 60 km ph; v = ?
\(\frac{3}{v}=\frac{1}{v_1}+\frac{1}{v_2}+\frac{1}{v_3}\)
\(\frac{3}{v}=\frac{1}{10}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{60}, \frac{3}{v}=\frac{6+3+1}{60}=\frac{3}{v}=\frac{10}{60}\)
∴ v = 18 km ph

Question 3.
A bullet moving with a speed of 150 ms-1 strikes a tree and penetrates 3.5 cm before stopping. What is the magnitude of its retardation in the tree and the time taken for it to stop after striking the tree ?
Answer:
u = 150 m/s, s = 3.5 cm = 0.035 m, v = 0
v2 – u2 = 2as
0 – 1502 = 2 × a × 0.035
a = \(\left|\frac{-150 \times 150}{2 \times 0.035}\right|\)
= -3.214 × 105 m/s2 = -3.214 × 105 m/s2
Time = \(\frac{v-u}{a}=\frac{0-150}{3.214 \times 10^5}=\frac{-150}{3.214 \times 10^5}\)
= 4.67 × 10-4 sec.

Question 4.
A motorist drives north for 30 min at 85 km/h and then stop for 15 min. He continues travelling north and covers 130 km in 2 hours. What is his total displacement and average velocity ?
Answer:
v1 = 85 kmph, t = 35.0 min, S2 = 130 km
S1 = Displacement = \(\frac{85}{60}\) × 30 = 42.5 km
S2 = 130 km
a) S = S1 + S2 = 42.5 + 130 = 172.50 km
b) Avg.velocity = \(\frac{S_1+S_2+S_3}{t_1+t_2+t_3}\)
= \(\frac{42.5+0+130}{\frac{30}{60}+\frac{15}{60}+2}\)
= \(\frac{172.5 \times 60}{165}\)
= 62.7 km/hr

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 5.
A ball A is dropped from the top of a .building and at the same time an identical ball B is thrown vertically upward from the ground. When the balls collide the speed of A is twice that of B. At what fraction of the height of the building did the collison occur ?
Answer:
Let height of the building =H
Let two balls collide at a height = h
For ball A, u = 0; V = VA s = H – h; t = t; a = g
Substituting these values in s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
H – h = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
H – h = \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2 …………. (1)
and VA = gt ……………… (2)
For ball B, u = u; v = vB; s = h; a = -g
Substituting these values in s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
⇒ h = ut – \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2 ………. (3)
and VB = u – gt ……….. (4)
given VA = 2VB
gt = 2(u – gt)
u = \(\frac{3}{2}\) gt …………… (5)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 8

Question 6.
Drops of water fall at regular intervals from the roof of abuilding of height 16 m. The first drop strikes the ground at the same moment as the fifth drop leaves the roof. Find the distances between successive drops.
Answer:
H = 16 m
Time taken by the first drop to touch the ground t = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{\mathrm{~g}}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 16}{9.8}=\sqrt{3.26}}\)
sec = 1.8 sec
Time interval between two successive drops
= \(\frac{t}{n-1}\) Where n = no. of drops
= \(\frac{1.8}{5-1}=\frac{1.8}{4}\) = 0.45 sec
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 9
For second drop h2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × 1.35 × 1.35 = 8.93 m
d12 = 16 – 8.93 = 7.06 = 7 m
For 3rd drop h3 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × 0.90 × 0.90
= 3.97
d23 = 8.93 – 3.97 = 4.961 = 5 m
For 4th drop h4 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × 0.45 × 0.45
= 0.9922
d34 = 3.97 – 0.9922
d34 = 2.9778 = 3 m
Similarly for d45 = 0.9922 – 0 = 0.9922 = 1 m

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 7.
A hunter aims a gun at a monkey hanging from a tree some distance away. The monkey drops from the branch at the moment he fires the gun hoping to avoid the bullet. Explain why the monkey made a wrong move.
Answer:
Suppose a hunter aims the gun at a monkey hanging from a high tree branch some distance away d. The instant the monkey observes the flash of the gun it drops from the tree.
Here the time taken by the monkey from the tree to the ground is t1 = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\) ……………. (1)
The path of bullet from the gun is like a horizontal Projectile, vertical velocity uy = 0, Let S = h. Let t2 be the time taken by the bullet to reach the ground.
∴ S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)a t22
S = 0 × t + \(\frac{1}{2}\)a t22
∴ h = \(\frac{1}{2}\)g t22
t2 = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\) …………….. (2)
It is observed from equation (1) and (2),
t1 = t2
Both bullet and monkey reach the ground simultaneously.
Hence the bullet hits the monkey. Therefore Monkey made a wrong move.

Question 8.
A food packet is dropped from an aeroplane, moving with a speed of 360 kmph in a horizontal direction, from a height of 500 m. Find (i) its time of descent (ii) the horizontal distance between the point at which the food packet reaches the ground and the point above which it was dropped.
Answer:
Velocity of aeroplane v = 360 kmph
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 10
v = 360 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 100 m/s
h = 500 m
i) Time of descent =
t = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 500}{10}}\) = 10 sec
ii) Horizontal range R = u × \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{\mathrm{~g}}}\)
= 100 × 10 sec = 1000 sec

Question 9.
A ball is tossed from the window of a buliding with an initial velocity of 8 ms-1 at an angle of 20° below the horizontal. It strikes the ground 3 s later. From what height was the ball thrown ? How far from the base of the building does the ball strike the ground ?
Answer:
u = 8 m/s, θ = 20°, t = 35
a) Horizontal distance = (u cos θ) t = 8 cos 20° × 3 = 8 × 0.9397 × 3 = 22.6 m

b) Height h = (u sin θ)t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
= 8 sin 20° × 3 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × 9
= 8.208 + 44.1 = 52.31 m

c) The ball is thrown from a height of 44.1 m 1
h1 = (u sin θ)t1 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt12
10 = (8 sin 20°)t1 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) 9.8% t12
= 2.736 t1 + 4.9 t12
⇒ 4.9 t12 + 2.736 t1 – 10 = 0
t1 = \(\frac{-2.736 \pm \sqrt{(2.736)^2+4 \times 4.9 \times 10}}{2 \times 4.9}\)
⇒ t1 = \(\frac{-2.736 \pm \sqrt{203.48}}{9.8}\)
t1 = \(\frac{-2.736+14.265}{9.8}=\frac{11.5288}{9.8}\)
= 1.176 = 1.18 sec

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 10.
Two balls are projected from the same point in directions 30° and 60° with respect to the horizontal. What is the ratio of their initial velocities if they
(a) attain the same height ?
(b) have the same range 1
Answer:
θ1 = 30°, θ2 = 60°
a) First ball maximum height H1
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 11

Additional Problems

Question 1.
In which of the following examples of motion, can the body be considered approximately a point object:
a) a railway carriage moving without jerks between two stations.
b) a monkey sitting on top of a man cycling smoothly on a circular track.
c) a spinning cricket ball that turns sharply on hitting the ground.
d) a tumbling beaker that has slipped off the edge of a table.
Solution:
a) The carriage can be considered a point object because the distance between two stations is very large as compared to the size of the railway carriage.

b) The monkey can be considered as a point object if the cyclist describes a circular track of very large radius because in that case the distance covered by the cyclist is quite large as compared to the size of monkey. The monkey can not be considered as a point object. If the cyclist describes a circular track of small radius, because in that case the distance covered by the cyclist is not very large as compared to the size of the monkey.

c) The cricket ball can not be considered as a point object because the size of the spinning cricket ball is quite appreciable as compared to the distance through which the ball may turn on hitting the ground.

d) A beaker sleeping off the edge of a table cannot be considered as a point, object because the size of the beaker is not negligable as compared to the height of the table.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 2.
The position-time (x – t) graphs for two children A and B returning from their school O to their homes P and Q respectively are shown in fig. Choose the correct entries in the brackets below :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 12
a) (A/B) lives.closer to the school than (B/A).
b) (A/B) starts from the school earlier than (B/A).
c) (A/B) walks faster than (B/A).
d) A and B reach home at the (same/ different) time.
e) (A/B) overtakes (B/A) on the road (once/twice).
Solution:
a) As OP < OQ, A lives closer to the school than B.

b) For x = 0, t = 0 for A; while t has some finite value for B.
Therefore, A starts from the school earlier than B.

c) Since the velocity is equal to slope of x -1 graph in case of uniform motion and slope of x -1 graph for B is greater than for A, hence B walks faster than A.

d) Corresponding to points P and Q, the value of t from x – t graph for A and B is same, which can be checked by drawing lines through P and Q parallel to x axis. Thus both A and B reach home at the same time.

e) The x – t graph for A and B intersect each other only once. Since B starts from the school after- wards, therefore B overtakes A on the road once.

Question 3.
A woman starts from her home at 9.00 am, walks with a speed of 5 km h-1 on a straight road up to her office 2.5 km away, stays at the office up to 5.00 pm and returns home by an auto with a speed of 25 km h-1. Choose suitable scales and plot the x-t graph of her motion.
Answer:
Time taken in reaching office
= \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Speed }}=\frac{2.5}{5}\) = 0.5 hr.
Time taken in returning from office = \(\frac{2.5}{25}\)
= 0.1 hr = 6 min
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 13
It means the woman reaches the office at 9.30 am and returns home at 5.06 p.m. The x – t graph of this motion will be as shown in fig.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 4.
A man walking in a narrow lane takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, followed again by 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and so on. Each step is 1 m long and requires 1 s. Plot the x-t graph of his motion. Determine graphically and otherwise how long the drunkard takes to fall in a pit 13 m away from the start.
Answer:
The effective distance travelled by drunkard in 8 steps = 5 – 3 = 2 m.

Therefore he take 32 steps to walk 8 meters. Now he will have to cover 5 mt more to reach the pit, for which he has to take only 5 forward steps.

Therefore he will have to take = 32 + 5 = 37 steps to move 13 mts. Thus he will fall into pit after taking 37 steps i.e., after 37 seconds from the start.

Question 5.
A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 km h-1 ejects its products of combustion at the speed of 1500 km h-1 relative to the jet plane. What is the speed of the latter with respect to an observer on the ground ?
Answer:
Lt vp be the velocity of the products w.r.to ground
Lt us consider the direction of motion of airplane to be positive direction of x-axis.
Here, speed of jet plane vA = 500 km h-1
Relative speed of products of combustion w.r.to jet plane vρA = -1500 km h-1
Relative velocity of the products w.r.to air plane is
vPA – vP – vA = -1500
(Or)
vP = vA – 1500 = 500 – 1500
= – 1000 km h-1
Here -ve sign shows the direction of products of combustion is opposite to that of airplane. Thus the magnitude of relative velocity is 1000 km h-1.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 6.
A car moving along a straight highway with speed of 126 km h-1 is brought to a stop within a distance of 200 m. What is the retardation of the car (assumed uniform) and how long does it take for the car to stop ?
Answer:
Here, u = 126 km h-1 = \(\frac{126 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\) ms-1
= 35 ms-1; v = 0, S = 200 m, a = ?
and t = ?
We know v2 = u2 + 2as
0 = (35)2 + 2 × a × 200 (Or)
a = \(\frac{-(35)^2}{2 \times 200}=\frac{-49}{16}\)
= -3.06 ms-2
As v = u + at
0 = 35 + \(\left(\frac{-49}{16}\right) \mathrm{t}\) (Or)
t = \(\frac{35 \times 16}{49}=\frac{80}{7}\) = 11.43s

Question 7.
Two trains A and B of length 400 m each are moving on two parallel tracks with a uniform speed of 72 km h-1 in the same direction, with A ahead of B. The driver of B decides to overtake A and accelerates by 1 m s-2. If after 50 s, the guard of B just moves past the driver of A, what was the original distance between them ?
Solution:
For train A; u = 72 km h-1 = \(\frac{72 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\)
= 20 m s-2; t = 50s; a = 0, S = SA;
As S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
∴ SA = 20 × 50 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0 × 502
= 1000 m
For train B; u = 72 kms-1 = 20 ms-2;
a = 1 ms-2, t = 50/S, S = s-B
As, S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
∴ SB = 20 × 50 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 1 × 502 = 2250 m
Taking the guard of the train B in the last compartment of the train B, it follows that original distance between two trains + length of train A + length of train B = SB – SA.
(Or) Original distance between the two trains
400 + 400 = 2250 – 1000 = 1250
(Or) Original distance between the two trains
= 1250 – 800 = 450 m

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 8.
On a two-lane road, car A is travelling with a speed of 36 km h-1. Two cars B and C approach car A in opposite directions with a speed of 54 km h-1 each. At a certain instant, when the distance AB is equal to AC, both being 1 km, B decides to overtake A before C does. What minimum acceleration of car B is required to avoid an accident ?
Solution:
Velocity of car A = 36 km h-1 = 10 ms-1
Velocity of car B or C = 54 km h-1 = 15 ms-1
Relative velocity of B w.r.to
A = 15 – 10 = 5 ms-1
Relative velocity of C w.r.to
A = 15 + 10 = 25 ms-1
As, AB = AC = 1 km = 1000 m
Time available to B (Or) C for crossing
A = \(\frac{1000}{25}\) = 40s
If car B accelerates with acceleration a, to cross A before car C does, then
u = 5 ms-1, t = 40s, s = 1000 m, a = ?
Using s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
1000 = 5 × 40 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × a × 402 (Or)
1000-200 = 800 a (Or)
a = 1 m/s2

Question 9.
Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km h-1 in the direction A to B notices that a bus goes past him every 18 min in the direction of his motion and every 6 min in the opposite direction. What is the period T of the bus service and with what speed (assumed constant) do the buses ply on the road ?
Solution:
Let v km h-1 be the constant speed with which the buses ply between the towns A and B.
The relative velocity of the bus (for the motion A to B) w.r.to the cyclist C i.e., in the direction in which the cyclist is going = (v – 20) kmh-1.
The relative velocity of the bus from B to A W r to the cyclist = (v + 20) kmh-1.
The distance travelled by the bus in time T(min) = vT
As per question \(\frac{v T}{v-20}\) = 18 (Or) vT
= 18v – 18 × 20 ………………… (i)
and \(\frac{v T}{v+20}\) = 6 (Or) vT = 6v + 20 × 6 …………….. (ii)
Equations (i) and (ii) we get
18v- 18 × 20 = 6v + 20 × 6 (Or)
12v = 20 × 6 + 18 × 20 = 480
(Or) v = 40 kmh-1
Putting this value of v in (i) we get 40
T = 18 × 40- 18 × 20 = 18 × 20
(Or) T = 18 × 20/40 = 9 min.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 10.
A player throws a ball upwards with an initial speed of 29.4 ms-1.
a) What is the direction of acceleration during the upward motion of the ball ?
b) What are the velocity and accele-ration of the ball at the highest point of its motion ?
c) Choose the x = 0 m and t = 0 s to be the location and time of the ball at its highest point, vertically downward direction to be the positive direction of x-axis and give the signs of position, velocity and acceleration of the ball during its upward and downward motion.
d) To what height does the ball rise and after how long does the ball return to the player’s hands ?
(Take g = 9.8 ms-2 and neglect air resistance).
Solution:
a) Since the ball is moving under the effect of gravity, the direction of acceration due the gravity is always vertically downwards.

b) At the highest point, the velocity of the ball becomes zero and acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 ms-2 in vertically downward direction.

c) When the highest point is chosen as the location for x = 0 and t = 0 and vertically downward direction to be positive direction of x- axis and upward direction as negative direction of x-axis.
During upward motion, sign of position is negative, sign of velocity is negative and sign of acceleration is positive.
During downward motion, sign of position is positive, sign of acceleration is also positive.

d) Let the t be time taken by the ball to reach the highest point where height from ground to be S.
Taking vertical upward motion of the ball,
we have
u = -29.4 m/s-1, a = 9.8 m/s-2,
v = 0, S = 5, t = 2
As v2 – u2 = 2as
0 – (29.4)2 = 2 × 9.8 × s (Or)
S = \(\frac{-(29.4)^2}{2 \times 9.8}\) = -44.1 m
Here -ve sign shows that distance is covered in upward direction.
As v = u + at
∴ 0 = -29.4 + 9.8 × t (or) t = \(\frac{-29.4}{9.8}\) = 3s
It means time of ascent = 3s
When an objective move under the effect of gravity alone, the time of ascent is always equal to time of descent.
Therefore total time after which the ball returns the player’s hand = 3 + 3 = 6s

Question 11.
Read each statement below carefully and state with reasons and examples, if it is true or false :
A particle in one-dimensional motion
a) with zero speed at an instant may have non-zero acceleration at that instant
b) with zero speed may have non-zero velocity.
c) with constant speed must have zero acceleration.
d) with positive value of acceleration must be speeding up.
Solution:
a) True, when a body is thrown vertically upwards in the space. Then at the highest point, the body has zero speed but has downward acceleration equal to acceleration due to gravity.

b) False, because velocity is the speed of body in a given direction. When speed is zero, the magnitude of velocity of body is zero, hence velocity is zero.

c) True, when a particle is moving along a strait line with a constant speed, its velocity remains constant with time. Therefore, acceleration ( = Change in velocity/time) is zero.

d) The statement depends upon the choice of instant of time as origin, when the body is moving along a strait line with positive acceleration. The velocity of the body at on instant of time is v = u + at.

The given statement is not correct. If a is positive and μ is negative, at the instant of time taken as origin. Then for all times before the time for which v vanishes, there is slowing down of the particle i.e., The speed of the particle keeps on decreasing with time. It happens when body is projected vertically upwards. However the given statement is true if u is positive, at the instant of time as origin. When the body is moving along a straight line with positive acceleration. The velocity of body at any instant of time t is v = u + at.

The given statement is not correct if a is positive and u is negative, at the instant of time taken as origin. Then for all times before the time for which v vanishes, there is slowing down of the particle i.e., the speed of particle keeps on decreasing with time. It happens when body is projected vertically upwards. However, the given statement is true if u is positive and a is positive, at the instant of time taken as origin. It is so when the body is falling vertically upwards.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 12.
A ball is dropped from a height of 90 m on a floor. At each collision with the floor, the ball loses one tenth of its speed. Plot the speed-time graph of its motion between t = 0 to 12 s.
Solution:
Taking vertical downward motion of ball from a height 90 m We have
u = 0, a = 10 m/s2, S = 90 m, t = ?, v = ?
t = \(\sqrt{\frac{25}{a}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 90}{10}}=3 \sqrt{25}\) = 4.245
V = \(\sqrt{2 a \mathrm{~s}}=\sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 30}=30 \sqrt{2} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 14
Rebound velocity of ball,
u1 =\(\frac{9}{10} v=\frac{9}{10} \times 30 \sqrt{2}=27 \sqrt{2}\) m/g
Time to reach the highest point is
t1 = \(\frac{u^1}{a}=\frac{27 \sqrt{2}}{10}=2.7 \sqrt{2}\) = 3.81 S
Total time = t + t1 = 4.24 + 3.81 = 8.05 S
The ball will take further 3.1 S to fall back to floor, where its velocity before striking the floor = 2.7\(\sqrt{2}\) m/s.
Time to reach the highest point is,
t1 = \(\frac{u^1}{a}=\frac{27 \sqrt{2}}{10}=2.7 \sqrt{2}\) = 3.81 S
Total time = t + t1 = 4.24 + 3.81 = 8.05 S
The ball will take further 3.81 S fall back to floor, where its velocity before striking the
floor = 2.7\(\sqrt{2}\) m/s.
Velocity of ball after striking the floor
= \(\frac{9}{10}\) \(\sqrt{2}\) = 24.3 \(\sqrt{2}\) m/s.
Total time elapsed before upward motion of ball.
= 8.05 + 3.81 = 11.86 S
Thus the speed – time graph of this motion will be as shown in fig.

Question 13.
Explain clearly, with examples, the distinction between :
a) magnitude of displacement (sometimes called distance) over an interval of time and the total length of path covered by a particle over the same interval:
b) magnitude of average velocity over an interval of time and the average speed over the same interval. [Average speed of a particle over an interval of time is defined as the total path length divided by the time interval]. Show in both (a) and (b) that the second quantity is either greater than or equal to the first. When is the equality sign true ? [For simplicity, consider one-dimensional motion only].
Answer:
a) Magnitude of displacement of a particle in motion for a given time is shortest distance between the initial and final position of the particle in that time, where as the total length of the path covered by particle is actual path traversed by the particle in the given time. If particle goes from A to B and B to C in time t as shown in fig. Then magnitude of displacement = Distance AC.
Total path length = Distance AB + Distance AC
From the above we note that total path length (AB + AC) is greater than magnitude of displacement (AC).

If there is motion of the particle in one dimension i.e., along a straight line, then magnitude of displacement becomes equal to totalpath length transversed by the particle in the given time.

b) Magnitude of average velocity
= \(\frac{\text { Magnitude of displacement }}{\text { Time interval }}\)
= \(\frac{A C}{t}\) and average speed
= \(\frac{\text { Total path length }}{\text { Time interval }}=\frac{(A B+B C)}{t}\)
As, (AB + BC) AC, So average speed is greates than the magnitude of average velocity. If the particle is moving along a straight line, then in a given time the magnitude of displacement is equal to total path length transvered by particle in that time, so average speed is equal to magnitude of average velocity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 14.
A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km h-1. Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km h-1. What is the
a) magnitude of average velocity and
b) average speed of the man over the interval of time (i) 0 to 30 min, (ii) 0 to 50 m in, (iii) 0 to 40 min ? [Note: You will appreciate from this exercise why it is better to define average speed as total path length divided by time and not as magnitude of average velocity. You would not like to tell the tired man on his return home that his average speed was zero !]
Solution:
Time taken by man to go from his home to market t1 = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Speed }}=\frac{2.5}{5}=\frac{1}{2}\) h
Time taken by man to go from market to his home t2 = \(\frac{2.5}{7.5}=\frac{1}{3}\) h
Total time taken = t1 + t2 = \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}=\frac{5}{6}\)
h = 50 min.
i) 0 to 30 min
a) Average velocity
= \(\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { Time }}=\frac{2.5}{1 / 2}\) = 5 km/h
b) Average speed
= \(\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { Time }}=\frac{2.5}{1 / 2}\) = 5 km/h

ii) 0 to 50 min
Total distance travelled
= 2.5 + 2.5 = 5 km
Total displacement = zero
a) Average velocity = \(\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { Time }}\) = 0
b) Average speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time }}=\frac{5}{5 / 6}\) = 6 km/h

iii) 0 to 40 min
Distance moved in 30 min (from home to market) = 2.5 km
Distance moved in 10 min (from market to home) with speed 7.5 km/h = 7.5 × \(\frac{10}{60}\)
= 12.5 km
So displacement = 2.5 – 1.25 = 1.25 km
Distance travelled = 2.5 + 1.25 = 3.75 km
a) Avg velocity = \(\frac{1.25}{(40 / 60)}\) = 1.875 km/h
b) Avg speed = \(\frac{3.75}{(40 / 60)}=\) = 5.625 km/h

Question 15.
In Exercises 3.13and 3.14, we have carefully distinguished between average speed and magnitude of average velocity. No such distinction is necessary when we consider in ‘antaneous speed and magnitude of velocity. The instantaneous speed is alway equal to the magnitude of instantaneous velocity. Why ?
Solution:
Instaneous speed (vins) of the particle at an instant is the first derivative of the distance w.r.to time at that instant of time
i.e., vins = \(\frac{\mathrm{dx}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
Since in instantaneous speed we take only a small interval of time (dt) during which direction of motion of a body is not supposed to change, here there is no difference between total path length and magnitude of displacement for small interval of time dt. Hence instantaneous speed is always equal to magnitude of instantaneous velocity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 16.
Look at the graphs (a) to (d) (fig.) carefully and state, with reasons, which of these cannot possibly represent one-dimensional motion of a particle.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 15
Solution:
a) This graph does not represent one dimensional motion because, at the given instant of time, the particle will have two positions, which is not possible in one dimensional motion.

b) This graph does not represent one dimensional motion because, at the given instant of time, particle will have velocity in positive as well as in negative direction which is not possible in one dimensional motion.

c) It also does not represent one dimensional motion, because this graph tells that the particle can have the negative speed but the speed of the particle can never be negative.

d) It also does not represent one dimensional motion, because this graph tells that the total path length decreases after certain time but total path length of a moving particle can never decrease with time.

Question 17.
Figure shows the x – t plot of one-dimensional motion of a particle. Is it correct to say from the graph that the particle moves In a straight line for t < 0 and on a parabolic path for t > 0 ? If not, suggest a suitable physical context for this graph.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 16
Solution:
No, because the x – t graph does not represent the trajectory of the path followed by a particle.

From the graph, it is noted that at t = 0, x = 0 context. The above graph can represent the motion of a body falling freely from a tower uncles gravity.

Question 18.
A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km h-1 fires a bullet at a thief’s car speeding away in the same direction with a speed of 192 km h-1. If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 150 ms-1 with what speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car ? (Note : Obtain that speed which is relevant for damaging the thief’s car),
Solution:
Muzzle speed of bullet, υB = 150 m/s = 540 km h-1
Speed of police van, υp = 30 km/h
Speed of theif car, υT = 192 km/h
Since the bullet is sharing the velocity of the police van, its effective velocity is
υB = υB + υP = 540 + 30 = 570 km/h
The speed of bullet w.r.to the theifs car moving in the same direction.
vBT = vB – vT = 570 – 192 = 378 378 km/h
= \(\frac{378 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\) = 105 m/s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 19.
Suggest a suitable physical situation for each of the following graphs (Fig.):
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 17
Solution:
In fig(a) : The x – t graph shows that intially x is zero i.e, at rest, then it increases with time, attains a constant value and again reduces to zero with time, then it increases in opposite direction till it again attains a constant value i.e., comes to rest. The similar In fig(b) : The velocity changes sign again and again with passage of time and every time some similar speed is lost. The similar physical situation arises when a ball is thrown up with some velocity, returns back and falls freely on striking the floor, it rebounds with reduced speed each it strikes against the floor.

Question 20.
Figure gives the x – t plot of a particle executing one-dimensional simple harmonic motion. (You will learn about this motion in more detail in Chapter 14). Give the signs of position, velocity and acceleration variables of the particle at t = 0.3 s, 1.2 s, -1.2 s.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 18
Solution:
In the S.H.M. acceleration a = ω2x, where co (i.e., angular frequency) is constant.

i) At time t = 0.35, x is negative, the slope of x -1 graph plot is negative, hence position and velocity are negative, Since a =ω2x, hence, acceleration is positive.
ii) At time t = 1.25, x is positive, the slope of x – t plot is also positive hence position and velocity are positive. Since a = -ω2x, hence acceleration is negative.
iii) At t = 1.2S, x is negative, the slope of x – t plot is also negative. But since both x and t are negative here, hence velocity is positive. Finally acceleration ‘a’ is also positive.

Question 21.
Figure gives the x – t plot of a particle in one-dimensional motion. Three different equal intervals of time are shown. In which interval is the average speed greatest and in which is it the least ? Give the sign of average velocity for each interval.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 19
Solution:
We know that average speed in a small interval of time is equal to slope of x -1 graph in that interval of time. The avg speed is the greatest in the interval 3 because slope is greatest and the average speed is least in interval 2 because slope is last three.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 22.
Figure gives a speed-time graph of a particle in motion along a constant direction. Three equal intervals of time are shown. In which interval is the average acceleration greatest in magnitude ? In which interval is the average speed greatest ? Choosing the positive direction as the constant direction of motion, give the signs of v and a in the three intervals. What are the accelerations at the points A, B, C and D ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 20
Solution:
We know that average acceleration in a small interval of time is equal to slope of velocity-time graph in that interval. As the slope of v – t graph is maximum in interval 2 as compared to other intervals 1 and 3, hence the magnitude of average acceleration is greatest in interval 2.
The average speed is greatest in interval 3 for obvious reasons.
In interval 1, the speed of v – t graph is positive. Hence acceleration a is positive. The speed u is positive in this interval due to obvious reasons.

In interval 2, the slope of v – t graph is negative, hence acceleration a is negative. The speed u is positive in this interval due to obvious reasons.

In interval 3, the v – t graph is parallel to time axis, therefore acceleration a is zero in this interval but u is positive due to obvious reasons. At points A, B, C and D the v – t graph is parallel to time axis. Therefore acceleration is zero at ail the four points.

Question 23.
A three-wheeler starts from rest, accelerates uniformly with 1 ms-2 on a straight road for 10 s and then moves with uniform velocity. Plot the distance covered by the vehicle during the nth second (n = 1, 2, 3 ) versus n. What do you expect this plot to be during accelerated motion : a straight line or a parabola ?
Solution:
Here u = 0, a = 1 m/s2
Distance covered in n th second is
Dn = u + \(\frac{a}{2}\)(2n-1) = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (2n – 1) = 0.5 (2n – 1)
Putting n = 1, 2, 3, …………… we can find the value of Dn. The various values of n and corresponding values of Dn are shown below :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 21
On plotting a graph between Dn and n, we get a st. line AB as shown in fig. From (1) Dnn so the graph is a straight line. After 10S the graph is straight line BC parallel to time axis.

Question 24.
A boy standing on a stationary lift (open from above) throws a ball upwards with the maximum initial speed he can, equal to 49 ms-1. How much time does the ball take to return to his hands ? If the lift starts moving up with a uniform speed of 5 ms-1 and the boy again throws the ball up with the maximum speed he can how long does the ball take to return to his hands ?
Solution:
Taking vertical upward direction as the positive direction of x-axis.
When lift is stationary, consider the motion of the ball going vertically upwards and coming down to the hands of the body. We have
u = 49 m/s, a = 9.8 m/s2, t = ? x – x0 = S = 0
As S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
0 = 49 t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-9.8)t2 (Or) 49t = 4.9 t2 (Or)
t = 49/4.9 = 10 sec
When lift starts moving with uniform speed. As the lift starts moving upwards with uniform speed of 5 m/s, there is no change in the relative velocity of the ball w.r.to the boy which remains 49 m/s. Hence even in the case, the ball will return to the boys hand after 10 sec.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 25.
On a long horizontally moving belt a child runs to and fro with a speed 9 km h-1 (with respect to the belt) between his father and mother located 50 m apart on the moving belt. The belt moves with a speed of 4 km h-1. For an observer on a stationary platform outside, what is the
a) speed of the child running in the direction of motion of the belt ?
b) speed of the child running opposite to the direction of motion of the belt ?
c) time taken by the child in (a) and (b) ?
Which of the answer alter if motion is viewed by one of the parents ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 22
Solution:
Let us consider left to right to be the positive direction of x-axis.
a) Here, the velocity of belt υB = + 4 km/h; Speed of child w.r. to belt υC
= + 9 Km/h = \(\frac{5}{2}\) m/s
Speed of the child w.r.to stationary observer,
υC1 = υC + υB = 9 + 4 = 13 km/h

b) Here, υB = + 4 km/h, υC = -9 km/h
Speed of the child w.r.to stationary observer
υC1 = υC + υB = -9 + 4 = -5 km/h
Here negative sign shows that the child will appears to run in a opposite to the direction f motion of the belt.

c) Distance between the parents S = 540 m Since parents and child are located on the same belt, the speed of the child as observed by stationary observer in either direction (Either from mother to father (or) from father to mother) will be 9 km/h.
Time taken by child in case (a) and (b) is
t = \(\frac{50}{(5 / 2)}\) = 20 S
If motion is observed by one of the parents, answer to case (a) (Or) case (b) will be altered.
It is so because speed of child w.r. to either of mother (or) father is 9 km/h. But answer (c) remains unaltered due to the fact that parents and child are on the same belt and such all are equal affected by the motion of the belt.

Question 26.
Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 200 m high with initial speeds of 15 ms-1 and 30 ms-1. Verify that the graph shown in Fig. correctly represents the time variation of the relative position of the second stone with respect to the first. Neglect air resistance and assume that the stones do not rebound after hitting the ground. Take g = 10 ms-2. Give the equations for the linear and curved parts of the plot.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 23
Solution:
Time vertical upward motion of the first tone for time t, we have
x0 = 200 m, u = 15 m/s, a = -10 m/s2, t = t1, x = x1
As x = x0 + ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
x1 = 200 + 15 t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-10)t2 (Or)
x1 = 200 + 15 t – 5 t2 ……………….. (i)
Taking vertical upward motion of the second stone for time t,
We have
x0 = 200 m, u = 30 m/s-1, a = -10 m/s-2, t = t1, x = x2
Then x2 = 200 + 30 t – \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 t2
= 200 + 30 t – 5t2
When the first stone hits the ground x1 = 0,
So t2 – 3t – 40 = 0
(Or) (t – 8) (t + 5) = 0 ……………….. (ii)
∴ Either t = 8 S (Or) – 5S
Since t = 0 corresponds to the instant, when the stone was projected. Hence negative time has no meaning in this case. 50 t = 8S. When the second stone hits the ground, x2 = 0.
0 = 200 + 30 t – 5t2 (Or) t2 – 6t – 40 = 0 (Or) (t – 10) (t + 4) = 0
Therefore, either t = 10 s (Or) t = -4s
Since t = -4s is meaningless, So t = 10s
Relative position of second stone w.r.to first is
= x2 – x1 = 15 t …………………….. (ii)
From (i) and (ii)
Since (x2 – x1) and t are linearly related, therefore the graph is a straight line till t = 8s For maximum separation t = 8 S, so maximum separation = 15 × 8 = 120 m After 8 seconds only second tone would be in motion for 2 seconds, so the graph is in accordance with the aquadratic equation x2 = 200 + 30t – 5t2 for the interval of time 8 seconds to 10 seconds.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 27.
The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a fixed direction is shown in Fig. Obtain the distance traversed by the particle between (a) t = 0 s to 10 s, (b) t = 2s to 6s.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 24
What is the average speed of the particle over the intervals in (a) and (b) ?
Solution:
a) Distance travelled by the particle between 0 to 10s will be
= Area of ∆ OAB, whose base is 10s and height is 12 m/s
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × 12 = 60 m 60
Average speed = \(\frac{60}{10}\) = 6mS-1

b) Let s1 and s2 be the distances covered by the particle in the time interval t1 = 2s to 5s and t2 = 5s to 6s, then total distance covered in time interval t = 2s to 6s will be s = s1 + s2 ……………….. (i)

To find s1: let us consider u1 is the velocity of particle after 2 seconds and a1 is the acceleration of the particle during the time interval zero to 5 seconds.
Then u1 = 0, v = 12 m/s,
a = a , a1 and t = 5s
We have a1 = \(\frac{v-u}{t}=\frac{12-0}{5}=\frac{12}{5}\)
= 2.4 m/s2
∴ u1 = υ + a1t = 0 + 2.4 × 2 = 4.8 m/s-1 Thus for the distance travelled by particle in 3 seconds (i.e, time interval 2s to 5s), we have
u1 = 4.8 m/s, t1 = 3s, a1 = 2.4 m/s2, s1 = ?
As s1 = u1t1 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a1t12
S1 = 4.8 + 3 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2.4 × 32 = 25.2 m

To find s2 : let a2 be the acceleration of the particle during the motion t = 5s to t = 10s
We have a2 = \(\frac{0-12}{10-5}\) = -2.4 m/s2
Taking motion of the particle in time interval t = 5s to t = 6s We have
u1 = 12 m/s-1, a2 = -2.4 m/s2, t2 = 1s, s2 = ?
As s2 = u2t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a2t22
s2 = 12 × 1 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-2.4) 12 = 10.8 m
∴ Total distance travelled s = 25.2 + 10.8
= 36m
Average velocity = \(\frac{36}{6-2}=\frac{36}{4}\) = 9 m/s

Question 28.
The velocity-time graph of a particle in onedimensional motion is shown in Fig.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 25
Which of the following formulae are correct for describing the motion of the particle over the time-interval t1 to t2 :
a) x(t2) = x(t1) + v(t1) (t2 – t1) + (\(\frac{1}{2}\)) a(t2 – t1)2
b) v(t2) = v(t1) + a(t2 – t1)
c) vaverage = (x(t2) – x(t1)) / (t2 – t1)
d) vaverage = (v(t2) – v(t1)) / (t2 – t1)
e) x(t2) = x(t2) + Vaverage (t2 – t2) + (\(\frac{1}{2}\)) aaverage (t2 – t1)2
f) x(t2) = x(t1) = area under the y – t curve bounded by the t-axis and the dotted line shown.
Solution:
From the graph we note that the slope is not constant and is not uniform, hence the relations (iii), (iv), (v) are correct.

Textual Examples

Question 1.
A car is moving along a straight line. Say OP Fig. 3.1. It moves from O to P in 1 8s and returns from P to Q in 6.0s. What are the average velocity and average speed of the car in going (a) from O to P? arid (b) from O to P and back to Q?
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 26
Thus, in this case the average speed is equal to the magnitude of the average velocity.

b) In this case,
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 27

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 2.
The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by x = a + bt2 where a = 8.5 m, b = 2.5 ms-2 and t is measured in seconds. What is its velocity at t = 0s and t = 2-.0s. What is the average velocity between t = 2.0s and t = 4.0s ?
Solution:
In notation of differential calculus, the velocity is
υ = \(\frac{d x}{d t}=\frac{d}{d t}\)(a + bt2) = 2b t = 5.0 t ms-1
At t = 0s, υ = 0 ms-1 and at t = 2.0s, υ = 10 ms-1
Average velocity = \(\frac{x(4.0)-x(2.0)}{4.0-2.0}\)
= \(\frac{a+16 b-a-4 b}{2.0}\) = 6.0 × b
= 6.0 × 2.5 = 15 ms-1

Question 3.
Obtain equations of motion for cons-tant acceleration using method of calculus.
Answer:
By definition a = \(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
dυ = a dt
Integrating both sides
\(\int_{v_0}^v d v=\int_0^t a d t\)
= \(a \int_0^t d t\) (a is constant)
υ – υ0 = at
υ = υ0 + at
Further υ = \(\frac{\mathrm{dx}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
dx = υ dt
Integrating both sides
\(\int_{x_0}^x d x=\int_0^t v d t=\int_0^t\left(v_0+a t\right) d t\)
x – x0 = υ0 t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a t2
x = x0 + υ0 t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a t2
We can write
a = \(\frac{d v}{d t}=\frac{d v}{d x} \frac{d x}{d t}=v \frac{d v}{d x}\)
or, υ dυ = a dx
Integrating both sides,
\(\int_{v_0}^v v d v=\int_{x_0}^x a d x\)
\(\frac{v^2-v_0^2}{2}\) = a(x – x0)
υ2 = υ02 + 2a(x – x0)
The advantage of this method is that it can be used for motion with non-uniform acceleration also.
Now, we shall use these equations to some important cases.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 4.
A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 20 ms-1 from the top of a multistorey building. The height of the point from where the ball is thrown is 25.0 m from the ground. [T.S. A.P. Mar. 15]
(a) How high will the ball rise ? and
(b) how long will it be before the ball hits the ground ? Take g = 10 ms-2. (Actual valqp is 9.8 ms-2)
Solution:
a) Let us take the y—axis in the vertically upward direction with zero at the vertically upward direction with zero at the ground, as shown in fig. 3.13.
Now υ0 = + 20 ms-1
a = -g = -10 ms-2,
υ = 0 ms-1
If the ball rises to height y from the point of launch, then using the equation
υ2 + υ02 + 2a(y – y0)
we get
0 = (20)2 + 2(-10) (y – y0)
Solving, we get, (y – y0) = 20 m

b) We can solve this part of the problem in two ways. Note carefully the methods used.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 28
First Method : In the first method, we split the path in two parts : the upward motion (A to B) and the downward motion (B to C) and calculate the corresponding time taken t1 and t2. Since the velocity at B is zero, we have :
υ = υ0 + at
0 = 20 – 10 t1
t1 = 2s
Or,
This is the time in going from A to B. From B, or the point of the maximum height, the ball falls freely under the acceleration due to gravity. The ball is moving in negative y direction. We use equation
y = y0 + υ0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
We have, y0 = 45 m, y = 0, υ0 = 0,
a = -g = – 10 ms-2
0 = 45 + (\(\frac{1}{2}\)) (-10) t22
Solving, we get t2 = 3s
Therefore, the total time taken by the ball
before it hits the ground = t1 + t2 = 2s + 3s = 5s.

Second method : The total time taken can also be calculated by nothing the coordinates of initial and final positions of the ball with respect to the origin chosen and using equation.
y = y0 + υ0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
Now y0 = 25 m, y = 0 m
υ0 = 20 ms-1, a = -10 ms-2, t = ?
0 = 25 + 20t + (\(\frac{1}{2}\))(-10)t2
Or, 5t2 -20t – 25 = 0
Solving this quadratic equation for t, we get t = 5s

Question 5.
Free-fall : Discuss the motion of an object under fall. Neglect air resistance.
Solution:
An object released near the surface of the Earth is accelerated downward under the influence of the force of gravity. The magnitude of acceleration due to gravity is represented by g. If air resistance is neglected, the object is said to be in free fall. If the height through which the object falls is small compared to the earth’s radius, g can be taken to be constant, equal to 9.8 ms-2. Free fall is thus a case of motion with uniform acceleration.

We assume that the motion is in y-direction, more correctly in -y-direction because we choose upward direction as positive Since that acceleration due to gravity is always downward, it is in the negative direction and we have
a = – g = -9.8 ms-2
The object is released from rest at y = 0. Therefore, υ0 = 0 and the equations of motion become :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 29
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 30
Motion of an object under free fall.
a) Variation of acceleration with time.
b) Variation of velocity with time.
c) Variation of distance with time.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 6.
Galileo’s law of odd numbers : The distances traversed, during equal intervals of time, by a body falling from rest, stand to one another in the same ratio as the odd numbers beginning with unity (namely 1:3:5:7 )n Prove it.
Solution:
We have y = –\(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2 Using this equation, we can calculate the position of the object after different time intervals, 0, τ, τ2, τ3 which are given in second column of table 3.2. If we take (-1/2) gτ2 as y0 – the position coordinate after first time interval τ, then third column gives the positions in the unit of y0. The fourth column gives the distances traversed in successive τs. We find that the distances are in the simple ratio 1: 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 :11 as shown in the last column.

Question 7.
Stopping distance of vehicles : When brakes are applied to a moving vehicle, the distance it travels before stopping is called stopping distance. It is an important factor for road safety and depends on the initial velocity (-υ0) and the braking capacity or deceleration, – a that is caused by the braking. Derive an expression for stopping distance of a vehicle in terms of υ0 and a.
Solution:
Let the distance travelled by the vehicle before it stops be ds. Then, using equation of motion υ2 = υ02 + 2 ax and noting that υ = 0, we have the stopping distance
ds = \(\frac{-v_0^2}{2 a}\)
Thus, the stopping distance is proportional to the square of the initial velocity. Doubling the initial velocity increases the stopping distance by a factor of 4 (for the same deceleration).

For the car of a particular make, the braking distance was found to be 10 m, 20 m, 34 m and 50 m corresponding to velocities of 11, 15,20 and 25 m/s which are nearly consistent with the above formula.

Question 8.
Reaction time : When a situation demands our immediate action. It takes some time before we really respond. Reaction time is the time a person takes to observe, think and act. For example, if a person is driving and suddenly a boy appears on the road, then, the time elapsed before he slams the brakes of the car is the reaction time. Reaction time depends on complexity of the situation and on an individual.

You can measure your reaction time by a simple experiment. Take a ruler and ask your friend to drop it vertically through the gap between your thumb and forefinger (Fig. 3.15). After you catch it, find the distance d travelled by the ruler. In a particular case, d was found to be 21.0 cm. Estimate reaction time.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 31
Solution:
The ruler drops under free fall. Therefore υ0 = 0 and a = -g = -9.8 ms-2. The distance travelled d and the reaction time t, are related by d = –\(\frac{1}{2}\) gtr2 Or tr = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{~d}}{\mathrm{~g}}}\)s.
Given d = 21.0 cm and g = 0.8 ms-2 the reaction time is
tr = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 0.21}{9.8}}\) s ≅ 0.2 s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 9.
Two parallel rail tracks run north- south. Train A moves north with a speed of 54 km h-1 and train B moves south with a speed of 90 kmh-1. What is the
a) velocity of B with respect to A ?
b) velocity of ground with respect to B ?
c) velocity of a monkey running on the roof of the train A against. Its motion (with a velocity of 18 kmh-1 with respect to the train A) as observed by a man standing on the ground ?
Solution:
Choose the positive direction of x-axis to be from south to north. Then,
υA = + 54 km h-1 = 15 ms-1
υB = – 90 km h-1 = -25 ms-1
Relative velocity of B with respect to A = υA – υB = – 40 ms-1, i.e., the train B appears to A to move with a speed of 40 ms-1 from north to souch.
Relative velocity of ground with respect to B = 0 – υB = 25 ms-1
In.(c), let the velocity of the monkey with respect to ground be υM. Relative velocity of the monkey with respect to A,
υMA = υM – υA = – 18 km h = – 5 mh-1
Therefore, υM = (1 5 – 5)mh-1 = 10 mh-1.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 2nd Lesson Units and Measurements Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 2nd Lesson Units and Measurements

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between accuracy and precision. [A.P. Mar. 16, 15; T.S. Mar. 15, 13]
Answer:
Accuracy

  1. The accuracy of measurement of any physical quantity made by any measuring instrument is a measure of how close the measured value is to the true value of the quantity.
  2. The accuracy depends on errors.

Precision

  1. The precision of the measuring instrument denotes upto what limit (or) resolution the quantity can be measured with the given instrument.
  2. The precision does not depend on errors.

Question 2.
What are the different types of errors that can occur in a measurement?
Answer:
Mainly there are three types of errors.

  1. Systematic errors
  2. Random errors
  3. Gross errors.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 3.
How can systematic errors be minimised or eliminated ? [Mar. 14]
Answer:
Systematic errors can be minimised by improving experimental techniques, selecting better instruments and removing personal bias as far as possible. For a given set up, these errors may be estimated to a certain extent and the necessary corrections may be applied to the readings.

Question 4.
Illustrate how the result of a measurement is to be reported indicating the error involved. [T.S., A.P. – Mar. 17]
Answer:
To measure any physical quantity, we compare it with a standard (unit) of that quantity. No measurement is perfect as the errors involved in the process cannot be removed completely. Hence inspite of our best efforts, the measured value is always some what different from its actual value (or) true value.

Question 5.
What are significant figures and what do they represent when reporting the result of a measurement ? [Mar. 13]
Answer:
The digits of a number that are definitely known plus one more digit that is estimated are called significant digits (or) significant figures.
Example : Time period of a simple pendulum is 1.62, the digits 1 and 6 are reliable while the digit 2 is uncertain. The measured value has three significant figures.

Question 6.
Distinguish between fundamental units and derived units. [T.S. – Mar. 16]
Answer:

  1. Units of fundamental quantities are called fundamental units. Fundamental units can neither derived from one another, nor can they be resolved into other units.
  2. Units of derived quantities are called derived units.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 7.
Why do we have different units for the same physical quantity ?
Answer:
We have different systems like C.G.S system, M.K.S system, F.P.S system and S.l system. Hence we have different physical units for the same physical quantity.

Question 8.
What is dimensional analysis ?
Answer:
Dimensional analysis is the representation of derived physical quantities in terms of units of fundamental quantities.

With the help of dimensional analysis to check the correctness of the equation, convert one system of units into other system and derive certain equations relating physical quantities.

Question 9.
How many orders of magnitude greater is the radius of the atom as compared to that of the nucleus ?
Answer:
Size of atomic nucleus = 10-14 m
Size of atom = 10-10 m
Hence size of atom is 1CT4 m greater the size of the nucleus.

Question 10.
Express unified atomic mass unit in kg.
Answer:
1 unified atomic mass unit = \(\frac{1}{12}\) of the mass of carbon – 12 atom.
1 a.m.u = 1.66 × 10-27 kg

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
The vernier scale of an instrument has 50 divisions which coincide with 49 main scale divisions. If each main scale division is 0.5 mm, then using this instrument what would be the minimum inaccuracy in the measurement of distance ?
Answer:
Value of each main scale division = 0.5 mm
No. of vernier scale divisions = 50
In vernier callipers, L.C = \(\frac{S}{N}=\frac{\text { Value of one main scale division }}{\text { No. of vernier scale divisions }}\)
L.C. = \(\frac{0.5}{50}\) = 0.01 m.m
The minimum inaccuracy in the measurement of distance is 0.01 m.m. (Or)
Value of 1 MSD = 0.5 m.m
NV.S.D = (N – 1) M.S.D
50 V.S.D – 49 M.S.D
1 V.S.D = \(\) M.S.D. = \(\frac{49}{50}\) × 0.5
L.C = 1 M.S.D – 1 V.S.D
(0.5 – \(\frac{49}{50}\) × 0.5) = (1 – \(\frac{49}{50}\))0.5 = \(\frac{1}{50}\) × 0.5
L.C. = 0.01 m.
∴ Minimum inaccuracy in the measurement of distance is 0.01 m.m.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 2.
In a system of units, the unit of force is 100 IM. unit of length is 10 m and the unit of time is 100s. What is the unit of mass in this system ?
Answer:
Force (F) = 100 N; Length (L) = 10 m; Time (T) = 100 s F = ma
mass (m) = \(\frac{F}{a}=\frac{F}{L T^{-2}}\); m = \(\frac{\mathrm{FT}^2}{\mathrm{~L}}=\frac{100 \times(100)^2}{10}\) = 105 kg

Question 3.
The distance of a galaxy from Earth is of the order of 1025 m. Calculate the order of magnitude of the time taken by light to reach us from the galaxy.
Answer:
Distance of galaxy from earth = 1025 m
Velocity of light (C) = 3 × 108 m/s
Time taken by the light (t) = \(\frac{\text { Distance of galaxy from earth }}{\text { velocity of light }}\)
t = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{c}}\) ⇒ t = \(\frac{10^{25}}{3 \times 10^8}\) = 0.33 × 1017 s ⇒ t = 3.3 × 1016 sec.

Question 4.
The Earth-Moon distance is about 60 Earth radius. What will be the approximate diameter of the Earth as seen from the Moon?
Answer:
Distance between Earth-Moon = 60 R
Radius of the earth = R
r = 60R = 60 × 6400 × 103 (R = 6400km)
θ = 1 sec = \(\frac{1}{60}\) Min = \(\frac{1}{60 \times 60}\) degree ⇒ θ = \(\frac{1}{60 \times 60} \times \frac{\pi}{180}\) radian
Then r = \(\frac{l}{\theta}\) ⇒ l = rθ ⇒ l = 60 × 6400 × 103 × \(\frac{1}{60 \times 60} \times \frac{\pi}{180}\)
l = 11.16 × 103 km ⇒ Diamter (l) = 11.16 × 103 km

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 5.
Three measurements of the time for 20 oscillations of a pendulum give t1 = 39.6 s, t2 = 39.9 s and t3 = 39.5 s. What is the precision in the measurements? What is the accuracy of the measurements?
Answer:
No. of oscillations = 20
t1 = 39.6 sec, t2 = 39.9 sec, t3 = 39.5 sec
Mean value = \(\frac{t_1+t_2+t_3}{3}=\frac{39.6+39.9+39.5}{3}=\frac{119}{3}\) = 39.66
Mean value = 39.7 sec;
Precision = 0.1 sec.
Accuracy is the closeness of measured value with true value.
Hence 39.6 s is accuracy.

Question 6.
1 calorie = 4.2J where 1J = 1 kg m2s2. Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass is \(\hat{a}\) kg, the unit of length is \(\hat{a}\) m and the unit of time is \(\tilde{a}\) s, show that a calorie has a magnitude 4.2 \(\hat{\mathrm{a}}^{-1} \hat{a}^{-2} \tilde{\mathrm{a}}^{-2}\) in the new system.
Answer:
1 Calorie = 4. 2J ⇒ 1 J = 1 kg m2 s-2
1 calorie = 4.2 kg m2 s-2
In new system, 1 calorie = 4.2 \(\hat{a} \hat{a}^2 \hat{a}^{-2}\)

Question 7.
A new unit of length is chosen so that the speed of light in vacuum is 1 ms-2. If light takes 8 min and 20 $ to cover this distance, what is the distance between the Sun and Earth in terms of the new unit ?
Answer:
V = Speed of light in vacuum = 1 m/s
Time taken (t) = 8 min 20 sec = 500 sec
Distance between the sun and earth (d) = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{t}}\) ⇒ d = \(\frac{1}{500}\) = 0.002 m.

Question 8.
A student measures the thickness of a human hair using a microscope of magnification 100. He makes 20 observations and finds that the average thickness (as viewed in the microscope) is 3.5 mm. What is the estimate of the thickness of hair ?
Answer:
Magnification of microscope = M = 100
Observed thickness = 3.5 m.m
Magnification (M) = \(\frac{\text { Observed thickness }}{\text { Real thickness }}\) ⇒ 100 = \(\frac{3.5}{\text { Real thickness }(t)}\) ⇒ t = \(\frac{3.5}{100}\) = 0.035 m.m.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 9.
A physical quantity X is related to four measureable quantities a, b, c and d as follows. X = a2 b3 c5/2d-2
The percentage error in the measurement of a, b, c and d are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. What is the percentage error in X ?
Answer:
X = a2 b3 c5/2d-2
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{a}}\) × 100 = 1%, \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{b}}\) × 100 = 2%, \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{c}}\) × 100 = 3%, \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}}\) × 100 = 4%
Percentage error in X is
(\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{X}}{\mathrm{X}}\)) × 100 = 2(\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{a}}\) × 100) + 3(\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{b}}\) × 100) + \(\frac{5}{2}\) (\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{b}}\) × 100) + 2 \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}}\) × 100
= 2 × 1 + 3 × 2 + \(\frac{5}{2}\) × 3 + 2 × 4 = 2 + 6 + \(\frac{15}{2}\) + 8
⇒ (\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{X}}{\mathrm{X}}\) 100 = 23.5 %

Question 10.
The velocity of a body is given by v = At2 + Bt + C. If v and t are expressed in SI what are the units of A, B and C ?
Answer:
Given V = At2 + Bt + C
According to principle of homogeneity,

  1. V = At2 ⇒ A =\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{t}^2}=\frac{\mathrm{LT}^{-1}}{\mathrm{~T}^2}\) = [LT-3] ⇒ A = ms-3
  2. V = Bt ⇒ B = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{LT}^{-1}}{\mathrm{~T}}\) = [LT-1] ⇒ B = ms-2
  3. V = C ⇒ C = LT-1 ⇒ C = ms-1

Problems

Question 1.
In the expression P = E l2 m-5 G-2 the quantities E, l, m and G denote energy, angular momentum, mass and gravitational constant respectively. Show that P is a dimension-less quantity.
Solution:
P = E L2 m-5 G-2
Energy (E) = [ML2 T-2]
Angular momentum (L) = ML2 T-1
Mass = [M]
Universal gravitational constant
(G) = [M-1L3T-2]
P = [ML2 T-2] [ML2 T-1]2 [M]-5 [M-1 L3 T-2]-2
P = M1+2-5+2 L2+4-6 T-2-2+4
P = [M0 L0 T0]
Hence P is dimensional less quantity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 2.
If the velocity of light c. Planck’s constant h and the gravitational ‘ constant G are taken as fundamental quantities : then express mass, length and time in terms of dimensions of these quantities.
Solution:
i) M ∝ Gx Cy hz
[M1 L0 T0] = [M-1 L3 T-2]x [LT-1]y [ML2 T-1]z
[M1L0T0] = M-x+z L3x+y+2z T-2x-y-z = 0
– x + z = 1, 3x + y + 2z = 0, – 2x – y – z = 0
Solving these equations, we get
x = \(\frac{-1}{2}\), y = \(\frac{1}{2}\), z = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
M = G\(\frac{-1}{2}\) C\(\frac{1}{2}\) h\(\frac{1}{2}\)
M = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\mathrm{G}}}\)

ii) Length (l) ∝ Gx Cy hz
[M0 L1 T0] = [M-1 L3 T-2]x [LT-1]y [ML2 T-1]z
[M0L1T0] = M-x+z L3x+y+2z T-2x-y-z
Applying principle of homogeneity
-x + z = 0, 3x + y + 2z = 0, -2x – y – z = 0
Solving these equations, we get
x = \(\frac{1}{2}\), y = \(\frac{-3}{2}\), z = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
From equation (1), l = G\(\frac{1}{2}\) C\(\frac{-3}{2}\) h\(\frac{1}{2}\)
Length (l) = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{Gh}}{\mathrm{C}^3}}\)

iii) Time (T) ∝ Gx Cy hz
[M0 L0 T1] = [M-1 L3 T-2]x [LT-1]y [ML2 T-1]z
[M0L0T1] = M-x+z L3x+y+2z T-2x-y-z
Applying principle of homogeneity
-x + z = 0, 3x + y + 2z = 0, -2x – y – z = 1
Solving these equations, we get
x = \(\frac{1}{2}\), y = \(\frac{-5}{2}\), z = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
From equation (1), l = G\(\frac{1}{2}\) C\(\frac{-5}{2}\) h\(\frac{1}{2}\)
Length (l) = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{Gh}}{\mathrm{C}^5}}\)

Question 3.
An artificial satellite is revolving around a planet of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit of radius r. Using dimensional analysis show that the period of the satellite
T = \(\frac{k}{R} \sqrt{\frac{r^3}{g}}\)
where k is a dimensionless constant and g is acceleration due to gravity.
Solution:
T = \(\frac{k}{R} \sqrt{\frac{r^3}{g}}\)
L.H.S. : Time period = [T]
R.H.S. : \(\frac{k}{R} \sqrt{\frac{r^3}{g}}=\frac{1}{L} \sqrt{\frac{L^3}{L T^{-2}}}\) = [T]
∴ L.H.S. = R.H.S.
Above equation is correct.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 4.
State the number of significant figures in the following.
a) 6729
b) 0.024
c) 0.08240
d). 6.032
e) 4.57x
Solution:
a) 6729 – 4     Significant figures
b) 0024 – 2            ”
c) 008240 – 4         ”
d) 6.032 –  4           ”
e) 4.57 × 108 – 3     ”

Question 5.
A stick has a length of 12.132 cm and another has a length of 12.4 cm. If the two sticks are placed end to end what is the total length ? If the two sticks are placed side by side, what is the difference in their lengths?
Solution:
a) Let lengths of the rods are
l1 = 12.132 cm, l2 = 12.4 cm
Here has one decimal place and l1 has to be rounded to have only two decimal places.
l = l1 + l2 = 12.13 + 12.4 = 24.53
This is to be rounded off to have one decimal place only.
∴ The result is 24.5 cm

b) l1 = 12.132 cm, l2 = 12.4 cm
Here l1 is rounded only two decimal places,
l2 – l1 = 12.4 – 12.13 = 0.27
This should be rounded off to have only one decimal place, l2 – l1 = 0.3

Question 6.
Each side of a cube is measured to be 7.203 m. What is
(i) the total surface area and
(ii) the volume of the cube, to appropriate significant figures ?
Solution:
Length of a side = 7.203 m
(i) Total surface area = 6a2
= 6 × (7.203)2
= 311.29
This should be rounded off to four significant figure as 7.203 as 4 significant figures.
∴ The result = 311.3m2

(ii) Volume of the cube = a3
= (7.203)3
= 373.71
This should be rounded off to four significant figures has 7.203 has four significant figures.
∴ Volume = 373.7 m3

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 7.
The measured mass and volume of a body are 2.42 g and 4.7 cm3 respectively with possible errors 0.01 g and 0.1 cm3. Find the maximum error in density.
Solution:
M = 2.42 g, V = 4.7 cm3
∆M = 0.01 g, ∆V = 0.1 cm3
Density (ρ) = \(\frac{M}{V}\)
\(\frac{\Delta \rho}{\rho}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{M}}+\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}}=\frac{0.01}{2.42}+\frac{0.1}{4.7}\)
= 0.004 + 0.02 = 0.024
% error is \(\frac{\Delta \rho}{\rho}\) × 100 = 0.024 × 100
= 2.4% ≈ 2%

Question 8.
The error in measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. What is the error in the measurement of volume ?
Solution:
Radius of the sphere \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{r}}\) × 100 = 1%
Volume (V) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}}\) × 100 = 3 × \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{r}}\) × 100 = 3 × 1% = 3%

Question 9.
The percentage error in the mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. What is the maximum error in kinetic energy calculated using these quantities ?
Solution:
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{M}}\) × 100 = 2%, \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}}\) × 100 = 3%;
Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mV2
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{K}}{\mathrm{K}}\) × 100 = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{M}}\) × 100 + 2 \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}}\) × 100
= 2 + 2(3) = 2 + 6 = 8%

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 10.
One mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 L (molar volume). If the size of the hydrogen molecule is about 1A°, what is the ratio of molar volume to the atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen ?
Solution:
Molar volume = 22.4 lit = 22.4 × 1000 c.c.
= 22.4 × 10-3 m3
Diameter of the hydrogen molecule
= 1 A° = 10-10 m
Radius (r) = \(\frac{D}{2}=\frac{10^{-10}}{2}\) = 0.5 × 10-10 m
Volume (V) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 3.14 × (0.5 × 10-10)3
v = \(\frac{1.57}{3}\) × 10-30 = 0.5233 × 10-30 m3
Atomic volume = V × Avagadro’s number (N)
= 0.5233 × 10-30 × 6.023 × 1023 = 3.151 × 10-7
∴ \(\frac{\text { Molar volume }}{\text { Atomic volume }}=\frac{22.4 \times 10^{-3}}{3.151 \times 10^{-7}}\)
= 7.108 × 10-4

Additional Problems

Note : In stating numerical answers, take care of significant figures.

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks
a) The volume of a cube of side 1 cm is equal to …………….. m3
b) The surface area of a solid cylinder of radius 2.0 cm and height 10.0 cm is equal to ……………. (mm)2
c) A vehicle moving with a speed of 18 km h-1 covers ……………. m in 1 s
d) The relative density of lead is 11.3. Its density is …………….. g cm-3 or …………….. kg m-3.
Solution:
a) Here, length of slide L = 1 cm = 10-2 m
Volume of cube = L3 = (10-2 m)3 = 10-6 m3

b) Here, r = 2.0 cm = 20 mm
h = 10.0 cm = 100 mm
Surface area of solid cylinder = (2rcr) × h
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 20 × 100 mm2
= 1.26 × 104 mm2

c) Here, speed V = 18 km
h-1 = \(\frac{18 \times 1000 \mathrm{~m}}{60 \times 60 \mathrm{~s}}\) = 5 ms-1
∴ Distance covered in 1 second = 5 m

d) Here, relative density = 11.3
density = 11.3 g k.c = \(\frac{11.3 \times 10^{-3}}{\left(10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\right)^3}\)
= 11.3 × 103 kg m-3

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks by suitable conversion of units.
a) 1 kg m2 s-2 = ………….. g cm2 s-2
b) 1 m = ………….. 1y
c) 3.0 ms-2 = ………….. km h-2
d) G = 6.67 × 10-11 N m2 (kg)-2 = …………. (cm)3 s-2 g-1.
Solution:
a) 1 kg m2 s2
= 1 × 103 g (102 cm)2s-2 = 107 g cm2 s-2

b) We know, 1 light year = 9.46 × 1015 m
∴ 1 m = \(\frac{1}{9.46 \times 10^{15}}\) light year
= 1.053 × 10-16 light year

c) 3ms-2 = 3 × 10-3 km \(\left(\frac{1}{60 \times 60} h\right)^{-2}\)
= 3 × 10-3 × 3600 × 3600 km h-2

d) G = 6.61 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2
= 6.67 × 10-11 (kg ms-2) m2 kg-2
= 6.67 × 10-11 m3 s-2 kg-1
= 6.67 × 10-11 (100 cm)3 s-2 (1000 g)-1
= 6.67 × 10-8 cm3 s-2 g-1

Question 3.
A calorie is a unit of heat or energy and it equals about 4.2 J where 1J = 1 kg m2 s-2. Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass equals a kg, the unit of length equals b m, the unit of time is g s. Show that a calorie has a magnitude 4.2 a-1b-2 g2 in terms of the new units.
Solution:
Here 1 calorie = 4.2 J = 4.2 Kg m-3S-1 …………… (1)
As new unit of mass = 1kg
∴ 1 kg = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{a}}\) new unit of mass = a-1
similarly, 1m = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{b}}\) = b-1
1s = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{g}}\) = g-1
Putting these values in eq(1), we obtains.
1 calorie = 4.2 (a-1 new unit of mass)
(b-1 new unit of length)2
(g-1 new unit of time)2
1 calorie = 4.2 a-1 b-2 g2.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 4.
Explain this statement clearly :
‘To call a dimensional quantity ‘large1 or ‘small’ is meaningless without specifying a standard for comparison”. In view of this, reframe the following statements wherever necessary :
a) atoms are very small objects
b) a jet plane moves with great speed
c) the mass of Jupiter is very large
d) the air inside this room contains a large number of molecules
e) a proton is much more massive than an electron
f) the speed of sound is much smaller than the speed of light.
Solution:
i) The statement is true. This is because a dimensionless quantity can be large or small only in comparison to some standard. For example, angle is dimensionless ∠θ = 60° is larger than ∠θ = 30°, but smaller than ∠θ = 90°

ii) a) The size of an atom is smaller than the sharp tin of a pin.
b) A jet plane moves faster than a superfast train.
c) The mass of Jupiter is very large compared to the mass of earth.
d) The air inside this room contains more number of molecules than in one mole of air.
e) The statement is already correct.
f) The statement is already correct.

Question 5.
A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in vacuum in unity. What is the distance between the Sun and the Earth in terms of the new unit if light takes 8 min and 20 s to cover this distance ?
Solution:
We are given that velocity of light in vacuum, c = 1 new unit of length s-1
Time taken by light of Sun to reach the Earth,
t = 8 min 20 s = 8 × 60 + 20 = 500 s
∴ Distance between the Sun and the Earth,
x = C × t =1 new unit of length s-1 × 500 s
= 500 new units of length

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 6.
Which of the following is the most
precise device for measuring length :
a) a vernier cuHipers with 20 divisions on the sliding scale
b) a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale
c) an optical instrument that can measure length to within a wave-length of light ?
Solution:
The most precise device is that whose least count is minimum. Now
a) Least count of this vernier callipers
= 1 SD – 19 SD = 1 SD = \(\frac{19}{20}\) SD = \(\frac{1}{20}\) SD
= \(\frac{1}{20}\) mm = \(\frac{1}{200}\) cm = 0.005 cm

b) Least count of screw gauge
= \(\frac{\text { Pitch }}{\text { No. of divisions on circular scale }}\)
= \(\frac{1}{100}\) mm = \(\frac{1}{1000}\) cm = 0.01 cm

c) Wavelength of light,
λ = 10-5 cm = 0.00001 cm
Obviously, the most precise measurement is with optical instrument.

Question 7.
A student measures the thickness of a human hair by looking at it through a microscope of magnification 100. He makes 20 observations and finds that the average width of the hair in the field of view of the microscope is 3.5 mm. What is the estimate on the thickness of hair ?
Soution:
Magnification m = \(\frac{\text { observed with }(\mathrm{y})}{\text { real width }(\mathrm{x})}\)
x = \(\frac{\mathrm{y}}{\mathrm{m}}=\frac{3.5 \mathrm{~mm}}{100}\) = 0.035 mm

Question 8.
Answer the following :
a) You are given a thread and a metre scale. How will you estimate the diameter of the thread ?
b) A screw gauge has a pitch of 1.0 mm and 200 divisions on the circular scale. Do you think it is possible to increase the accuracy of the screw gauge arbitrarily by increasing the number of divisions on the circular scale ?
c) The mean diameter of a thin brass rod is to be measured by vernier callipers. Why is a set of 100 measurements of the diameter expected to yield a more reliable estimate than a set of 5 measurements only ?
Solution:
a) The diameter of a thread is so small that it cannot be measured using a metre scale. We wind a number of turns of the thread on the metre scale. So that the turns are closely touching one another. Measure the length (l) of the windings on the scale which contains n number of turns.
∴ Diameter of thread = \(\frac{1}{n}\)

b) As least count
= \(\frac{\text { Pitch }}{\text { Number of divisions on circular scale }}\)
∴ Theoretically speaking, least count decreases on increasing the number of divisions on the circular scale. Hence accuracy would increase. Practically, it may not be possible to take the reading precisely due to low resolution of human eye.

c) A large number of observations will give more reliable result than smaller number of observations. This is because of probability of making a positive random error of certain magnitude is equal to that of making a negative random errors are likely to cancel and the result may be more reliable.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 9.
The photograph of a house occupies an area of 1.75 cm2 on a 35 mm slide. The slide is projected on to a screen and the area of the house on the screen is 1.55 m2. What is the linear magnification of the projector-screen arrangement.
Solution:
Here, area of object = 1.75 cm2 and area of image = 1.55 m2 = 1.55 × 104 cm2
∴ Areal magnification = \(\frac{\text { area of image }}{\text { area of object }}\)
= \(\frac{1.55 \times 10^4}{1.75}\) = 8857
Linear magnification = \(\sqrt{8857}\) = 94.1

Question 10.
State the number of significant figures in the following :
a) 0.007 m2
b) 2.64 × 1024 kg
c) 0.2370 g cm-3
d) 6.320 J
e) 6.032 N m-2
f) 0.0006032 m2
Solution:
The number of significant figures is as given below.
a) one
b) three
c) four
d) four
e) four
f) four

Question 11.
The length, breadth and thickness of a rectangular sheet of metal are 4.234 m, 1.005 m, and 2.01 cm respectively. Give the area and volume of the sheet to correct significant figures.
Solution:
Here, length l = 4.234 m;
Breath, b = 1.005 m
Thickness, t = 2.01 cm = 2.01 × 10-2 m
Area of the sheet = 2(l × b + b × t + t × l)
= 2(4.234 × 1.005 + 1.005 × 0.0201 + 0.0201 × 4.234)
2(4.3604739) = 8.7209478 m2
As area can contain a maximum of three significant digits, therefore, rounding off, we get
Area = 8.72 m2
Also, volume = l × b × t
V = 4.234 × 1.005 × 0.0201
V = 0.0855289
V = 0.855 m3

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 12.
The mass of a box measured by a grocer’s balance is 2.300 kg. Two gold pieces of masses 20.15 g and 20.17 g are added to the box. What is (a) the total mass of the box, (b) the difference in the masses of the pieces to correct significant figures ?
Solution:
Here, mass of the box, m = 2.3 kg
Mass of one gold piece,
m1 = 20.15 g = 0.02015 kg
Mass of another gold piece,
m2 = 20.17g = 0.02017 kg
a) Total mass = m + m1 + m1
= 2.3 + 0.02015 + 0.02017
= 2.34032 kg
As the result is correct only upto one place of decimal, therefore, on rounding off total mass = 2.3 kg

b) Difference in masses
= m2 – m1 = 20.17 – 20.15
= 0.02g (correct upto two places of decimal)

Question 13.
A physical quantity P is related to four observables a, b, c and d as follows :
P = a3b2/ (\(\sqrt{c}\)d )
The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2%, respectively. What is the percentage error in the quantity P ? If the value of P calculated using the above relation turns out to be 3.763, to what value should you round off the result ?
Solution:
Here, P = \(\frac{a^3 b^2}{\sqrt{c} d}\)
Maximum fractional error in P is given by \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{P}}\)
= \(3 \frac{\Delta \mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{a}}+2 \frac{\Delta \mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{b}}+\frac{1}{2} \frac{\Delta \mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{c}}+\frac{\Delta \mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}}\)
= \(3\left(\frac{1}{100}\right)+2\left(\frac{3}{100}\right)+\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{4}{100}\right)+\frac{2}{100}\)
= \(\frac{13}{100}\) = 0.13
Percentage error in
P = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{P}}\) × 100 = 0.13 × 100 = 13%
As the result (13% error) has two significant figures, therefore if P turns out to be 3.763, the result would be rounded of to 3.8.

Question 14.
A book with many printing errors contains four different formulas for the displacement y of a particle undergoing a certain periodic motion :
a) y = a sin 2 π t/T) b) y = a sin vt,
c) y = (a/T) sin t/a,
d) y = (a\(\sqrt{2}\)) (sin 2πt /T + cos 2 πt/T)
(a = maximum displacement of the particle, v = speed of the particle. T = time- period of motion). Rule out the wrong formulas on dimensional grounds.
Solution:
The argument of a trigonometrical function i.e., angle is dimensionless. Now in
a) \(\frac{2 \pi t}{T}=\frac{T}{T}\) = 1 = (M0L0T0)
…………… dimensionless
b) vt = (LF-1) (T) = L = (M0L1T0)
………….. not dimensionless

c) \(\frac{\mathrm{t}}{\mathrm{a}}=\frac{\mathrm{T}}{\mathrm{L}}\) = (L-1T-1)
………….. not dimensionless

d) \(\frac{2 \pi t}{\mathrm{~T}}=\frac{\mathrm{T}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = 1 = [M0L0T0]
…………… dimensionless

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 15.
A famous relation in physics relates ‘moving mass’ m to the ‘rest mass’ m0 of a particle in terms of its speed v and the speed of light, c. (This relation first arose as a consequence of special relativity due to Albert Einsterin). A boy recalls the relation almost correctly but for-gets where to put the constant c. He writes :
m = \(\frac{m_0}{\left(1-v^2\right)^{1 / 2}}\)
Guess where to put the missing c.
Solution:
According to the principle of homogenity of dimensions power of M, L, T on either side of the formula must be equal. For this, on RHS, the denominator (1 – v2)1/2 should be dimensionless. Therefore, instead of (1 – v2)1/2,
we should write \(\left(\frac{1-v^2}{c^2}\right)^{1 / 2}\)
Hence the correct formula would be
m = \(\frac{m_0}{\left(\frac{1-v^2}{c^2}\right)^{1 / 2}}\)

Question 16.
The unit of length convenient on the atomic scale is known as an angstrom and is denoted byA° : 1A° = 1010m. The size of a hydrogen atom is about 0.5 A°. What is the total atomic volume in m3 of a mole of hydrogen atoms ?
Solution:
Here r = 0.5 A° = 0.5 × 10-10 m
Volume of each atom of hydrogen = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 3.14(0.5 × 10-10) = 5.236 × 10-31 m3
Number of hydrogen atoms in one gram mole of hydrogen = Avagadro’s number
= 6.023 × 1023
∴ Atomic volume of one gram mole of hydrogen atom
= 5.236 × 10-31 × 6.023 × 1023
= 3.154 × 10-7 m3

Question 17.
One mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 L of (molar volume). What is the ratio of molar volume to the atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen ? (Take the size of hydrogen molecule to about 1A°). Why is this ratio so large ?
Solution:
Atomic volume = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πR3 × N
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) (0.5 × 10-10)3 × 6.023 × 1023
= 3.154 × 10-7 m3
Molar volume = 22.4 lit = 22.4 × 10-3 m3
\(\frac{\text { Molar volume }}{\text { Atomic volume }}=\frac{22.4 \times 10^{-3}}{3.154 \times 10^{-7}}\) = 7.1 × 104
The ratio is large due to large intermolecular separations.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 18.
Explain this common observation clearly: If you look out of the window of a fast moving train, the nearby tr6es, houses etc., seem to move rapidly in a direction opposite to the train’s motion, but the distant objects (hill tops, the Moon, the stars etc.) seem to be stationary. (In fact, since you are aware that you are moving; these distant objects seem to move with you).
Solution:
The line joining the object to the eye is called the line of sight. When a train moves rapidly, the line of sight of a near by tree changes its direction of motion rapidly. Therefore, the trees appear to run in opposite direction. On the contrary, the line of sight of far off objects does not change its direction. So much, due to extremely large distance from the eye. Hence distant hill tops, moon, the stars etc., appear stationary.

Question 19.
The principle of ‘parallax’ in section 2.3.1 is used in the determination of distances of very distant stars. The baseline AB is the line joining the Earth’s two locations six months apart 21. in its orbit around the Sun. That is, the baseline is about the diameter of the Earth’s orbit 3 × 1011 m. However, even the nearest stars are so distant that with such a long baseline, they show parallax only of the order of 1″ (second) of arc or so. A parsec is a convenient unit of length on the astronomical scale. It is the distance of an object that will show a parallax of 1″ (second) of arc from opposite ends of a baseline equal to the distance from the Earth to Sol. the Sun. How much is a parsec in terms of metres ?
Solution:
Here, length of baseline
= distance from each to the sun
= 1 A.U = 1.5 × 1011 m
Parallax angle, θ = 1
\(\frac{1^1}{60}=\frac{1^{\circ}}{60 \times 60}=\frac{\pi}{180} \times \frac{1}{60 \times 60}\) radian
r = 1 par sec = ?; From l = rθ = \(\frac{l}{\theta}\)
= \(\frac{1.5 \times 10^{\prime \prime}}{\pi / 180 \times 60 \times 60} \mathrm{~m}\) = 3.1 × 1016 m
Hence 1 parsec = 3.1 × 1016 m

Question 20.
The nearest star to our solar system is 4.29 light years away. How much is this distance in terms of parasecs ? How much parallax would this star (named Alpha Centauri) show when viewed from two locations of the Earth six months apart in its orbit around the Sun ?
Solution:
x = 4.29 ly = 4.29 × 9.46 × 1015 m
= \(\frac{4.29 \times 9.46 \times 10^{15}}{3.08 \times 10^{16}}\) par sec
= 1.323 par sec
θ = \(\frac{l}{r}=\frac{2 A u}{x}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times 1.496 \times 10^4}{4.29 \times 9.46 \times 10^{15}}\) radian = 1.512 sec

Question 21.
Precise measurements of physical quantities are a need of science. For example, to ascertain the speed of an aircraft, one must have an accurate method to find its positions at closely separated instants of time. This was the actual motivation behind the discovery of radar in World War II. Think of different examples in modem science where precise measurements of length, time, mass etc., are needed. Also, wherever you can, give a quantitative idea of the precision needed.
Solution:
Precise measurements of physical quantities like length, mass and time are the primary requirements for development of quantitative laws of physics or any other science. For example, in the measurement of distance of moon from earth by laser beam, very accurate measurement of time taken is required. Similarly, for measuring distance, elevation and velocity of an aeroplane by radar method, time measurement has to be accurate. For measuring distances of near by stars, accurate measurement of parallax angle is required.

In the field of crystallography, precise measurement of length is needed to determine interatomic distances using a mass spectrometer, the precision measurement of masses of atoms are made.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 22.
Just as precise measurements are necessary in science, it is equally important to be able to make rough estimates of quantities using rudimentary ideas and common observations. Think of ways by which you can estimate the following (where an estimate is difficult to obtain, try to get an upper bound on the quantity):
a) the total mass of rain-bearing clouds over India during the Monsoon
b) the mass of an elephant
c) the wind speed during a storm
d) the number of strands of hair on * your head
e) the number of air molecules in your classroom.
Solution:
a) During the Monsoon, meteorologist record about 100 cm of rainfall, i.e.,
h – 100 cm = 1m
Area of our country,
A = 3.3 million square km
= 3.3 × 106 (103m2)
= 3.3 × 1012 m6
∴ Volume of rain water,
v = A × h = 3.3 × 1012 1m3
As density of water,
P = 103 km/m3
∴ Mass of rain water
= vP = 3.3 × 1012 × 103 kg
= 3.3 × 1015 kg
This must be the total mass of rain bearing clouds over India.

b) To estimate the mass of an elephant, we take a boat of known base area A. Measure the depth of boat in water. Let it be x1. Therefore, volume of water displaced by the boat , V1 = Ax1 move the elephant into this boat. The boat gets deeper into water. Measure the depth of boat now into water, Let it be x1
∴ Volume of water displaced by boat and elephant V2 = Ax2
∴ Volume of water displaced by the elephant V = V2 – V1 = A(x2 – x1)
If ρ is density of water, then mass of elephant
= mass of water displaced by it
= Vρ = A(X2 – X1) ρ

c) The wind speed during a storm can be estimated using a gas filled balloon. In figure OA is normal position of a gas filled balloon, when there is no wind. As the wind blows to the right, the balloon drifts to position B in one second. The angle of drift ∠AOB = θ is measured, if h is the height of the balloon, then AB = d = hθ This is the distance travelled by the balloon in one second it must be the wind speed.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 1

d) For this, we measure the area of the head . that carrier the hair let it be A. Using a screw guage, we measure thickness of hair, let it bad.
∴ Area of cross section of hair = πd2
Assuming that the distribution of hair over the head is uniform.
The number of strands of hair
= \(\frac{\text { total area }}{\text { area of cross section of each hair }}=\frac{\mathrm{A}}{\pi \mathrm{d}^2}\)
Calculations show that number of strands of hair on human head is of the order of one million.

e) Measure the volume of room. We know that one mole of air at NTP occupies a volume of 22.4 lit i.e., 22.4 × 10-3 m3
∴ Number of air molecules in 22.4 × 10-3 m3 = 6.023 × 1023
Number of air molecules in volume v of room = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{22.4 \times 10^{-3}}\)v

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 23.
The Sun is a hot plasma (ionized matter) with its inner core at a temperature exceeding 107 K and its outer surface at a temperature of about 6000 K. At these high temperatures, no substance remains in a solid of liquid phase. In what range do you expect the mass density of the Sun to be, in the range of densities of solids and liquids or gases ? Check if your guess is correct from the following data : mass of the Sun = 2.0 × 1030 kg, radius of the Sun = 7.0 × 108 m.
Solution:
Here, M = 2.0 × 1030 kg; R = 7.0 × 108 m
Density ρ = ?
ρ = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}=\frac{M}{\frac{4}{3} \pi R^3}=\frac{3 M}{4 \pi R^3}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 2.0 \times 10^{30}}{4 \times 3.14 \times\left(7 \times 10^8\right)^3}\)
= 1.392 × 103 kg/m3
This is the order of density of solids and liquids; and not gases.
The high density of Sun is due to inward gravitational attraction on outer layers, due to inner layers of the Sun.

Question 24.
When the planet Jupiter is at a distance of 824.7 million kilometers from the Earth, its angular diameter is measured to be 35.72, of arc. Calculate the diameter of Jupiter.
Solution:
Here, r = 824.7 × 106 km
θ = 35.72″ radian
= \(\frac{35.72}{60 \times 60} \times \frac{\pi}{180}\) radian
Diameter, l = ?; As l = rθ
∴ l = 824.7 × 106 × \(\frac{35.72 \times \pi}{60 \times 60 \times 180}\) km
= 1.429 × 105km

Question 25.
A man walking briskly in rain with speed u must slant his umbrella forward making an angle q with the vertical. A student derives the following relation between q and v : tan θ = v and checks that the relation has a correct limit: as v → 0, θ →0, as expected. (We are assuming there is no strong wind and that the rain falls vertically for a stationary man). Do you think this relation can be correct ? If not, guess the correct relation.
Solution:
The relation tan θ = v has a correct limit, as v → 0, θ → 0.
However, RHS = tan θ = [M0L0T0] and L.H.S = v = [M0L1T-1]
Therefore, the relation is not correct dimensionally.
We shall find the correct relation is
tan θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{v^2}}{\mathrm{rg}}\)

Question 26.
It is claimed that two cesium clocks, if allowed to run for 100 years, free from any disturbance, may differ by only about 0.02 s. What does this imply for the accuracy of the standard cesium clock in measuring a time-interval of 1 s ?
Solution:
Error in 100 years = 0.02s
Error in 1 sec
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 2
Hence the accuracy of the standard cesium clock is measuring a time interval of 1s is 10-12 s.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 27.
Estimate the average mass density of a sodium atom assuming its size to be about 2.5 A°. (Use the known values of Avogadro’s number and the atomic mass of sodium). Compare it with the density of sodium in its crystalline phase: 970 kg m-3. Are the two densities of the same order of magnitude ? If so why ?
Solution:
Atomic volume = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πR3 × N
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) (1.25 × 10-10)3 6.023 × 1023 m
= 4.93 × 10-6 m3
Average mass density
= \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}=\frac{23 \times 10^{-3}}{4.93 \times 10^{-6}}\)
= 4.67 × 103 kg/m3
The two densities are not of the same order. This is due to interatomic spacing in the crystalline phase.

Question 28.
The unit of length convenient on the nuclear scale is a fermi: 1 f = 10-15 m. Nuclear sizes obey roughly the following empirical relation :
r = r0A1/3
where r is the radius of the nucleus. A its mass number, and r0 is a constant equal to about 1.2 f. Show that the rule implies that nuclear mass density is nearly constant for different density of a sodium atom obtained in Exercise. 27.
Answer:
Let m be the average mass of nucleon (neutron or proton)
As the nucleus contains A nucleons,
∴ mass of nucleus μ = mA
Radius of nucleus r = r0A1/3
Nuclear density ρ = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}=\frac{\mu}{\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3}\)
= \(\frac{3 m A}{4 \pi\left(r_0 A^{1 / 3}\right)^3}=\frac{3 m}{4 \pi r_0^3}\)
As m and r0 are constant, therefore, nuclear density is constant for all nuclei.
using m = 1.66 × 10-27 kg and r0
= 1.2f = 1.2 × 10-15 m
We get ρ = \(\frac{3 m}{4 \pi r_0^3}=\frac{3 \times 1.66 \times 10^{-27}}{4 \times 3.14\left(1.2 \times 10^{-15}\right)^3}\)
= 2.29 × 1017 kg m-3
As ρ is constant for all nuclei, this must be the density of sodium nucleus also.
Density of sodium atom
ρ’ = 4.67 × 103 kg m-3
= \(\frac{\rho}{\rho^{\prime}}=\frac{2.29 \times 10^{17}}{4.67 \times 10^3}\) = 4.67 × 10-3

Question 29.
A LASER is a source or very intense, monochromatic and unidirectional beam of light. These properties of a laser light can be exploited to measure long distances. The distance of the Moon from the Earth has been already determined very precisely using a laser as a source of light. A laser light beamed at the Moon takes 2.56 s to return after reflection at the Moon’s surface. How much is the radius of the lunar orbit around the Earth ?
Solution:
Here, t = 2.56s
Velocity of laser light in vacuum,
c = 3 × 108 m/s
The radius of lunar orbit is the distance of moon from the earth. Let it be x.
As x = \(\frac{c \times t}{2}\)
∴ x = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8 \times 2.56}{2}\) = 3 84 × 108 m

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 30.
A SONAR (sound navigation and ranging) uses ultrasonic waves to detect and locate objects under water. In a submarine equipped with a SONAR the time delay between generation of a probe wave and the reception of its echo after reflection from an enemy submarine is found to be 77.0 s. What is the distance of the enemy submarine? (Speed of sound in waiter = 1450 ms-1).
Solution:
Here, t = 77.0 s, x = ? V = 1450 ms-1
As x = \(\frac{\mathrm{V} \times \mathrm{t}}{2}\)
= \(\frac{1450 \times 77.0}{2}\)m; x = 55825 m

Question 31.
The farthest objects in our Universe discovered by modern astronomers are so distant that light emitted by them takes billions of years to reach the Earth. These objects (known as quasars) have many puzzlingn features, which have not yet been satisfactorily explained. What is the distance in km of a quasar from which light takes 3.0 billion years to reach us ?
Solution:
Here, x = ?
Time taken t = 30 billion years = 3 × 109 yr
= 3 × 109 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 s
Velocity of light in vacuum, c = 3 × 108 m/s
= 3 × 105 km/s
As distance = velocity × time
x = (3 × 105) × 3 × 109 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 km.
= 2.84 × 1022 km

Question 32.
It is a well known fact that during a total solar eclipse the disk of the moon almost completely covers the disk of the Sun. From this fact and from the information you can gather from examples 3 and 4. determine the approximate diameter of the moon.
Solution:
Distance of moon from earth,
ME = 3.84 × 108 m
Distance of Sun from earth,
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 3
SE = 1.496 × 1011 m
Distance of Sun AB = 1.39 × 109 m
The situation during total solar eclipse is shown in figure.
As ∆s ABE of CDE are similar, therefore,
\(\frac{A B}{C D}=\frac{S E}{M E}\)
CD = AB × \(\frac{M E}{S E}=\frac{1.39 \times 10^9 \times 3.84 \times 10^8}{1.496 \times 10^{11}}\)
= 3.5679 × 106 m = 3567.9 km

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 33.
A great physicist of this century (P.A.M. Dirac) loved playing with numerical values of Fundamental constants of nature. This led him to an interesting observation. Dirac found that from the basic constants of atomic physics (c, e, mass of electron, mass of proton) and the gravitational costant G, he could arrive at a number with the dimension of time. Further, it was a very large number, its magnitude being close to the present estimate on the age of the universe (~ 15 billion years). From the table of fundamental constants in this book, try to see if you too can construct this number (or any other interesting number you can think of). If its coincidence with the age of the universe were significant, what would this imply for the constancy of fundamental constants ?
Solution:
Trying out with basic constants of atomic physics (speed of light c, charge on electron e, mass of electron mc, mass of proton mp) and universal gravitational constant G, we can arrive at a quantity which has the dimensions of time. One such quantity is
t = \(\left(\frac{c^2}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}\right)^2 \times \frac{1}{m_p m_{e^2} c^3 G}\)
Put e = 1.6 × 10-19 c
\(\frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}\) = 9 × 109,
c = 3 × 10<sup8 m/s and
G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2
t = (1.6 × 10-19)4 × (9 × 109)2 × \(\frac{1}{1.67 \times 10^{-27} \times\left(9 \times 10^{-31}\right) \times\left(3 \times 10^8\right)^3 \times 6.67 \times 10^{-11}}\)
t = 2.18 × 1016 sec; This time is of the order of age of universe.

Textual Examples

Question 1.
Calculate the angle at (a) 1° (degree) (b) V (minute of arc or arcmin) and (c) 1″ (second of arc or are second) in radians. Use 360° = 2π rad, 1° = 60′ and 1′ = 60″.
Answer:
(a) We have 360° = 2π rad
1° = (π/180) rad = 1.745 × 10-2 rad

(b) 1′ = 60′ = 1.745 × 10-2 rad
V = 2.908 × 10-4 rad, 2.91 × 10-4 rad

(c) 1′ = 60″ = 2.908 × 10-4 rad
1″ = 4.847 × 10-6 rad, 4.85 × 10-6 rad.

Question 2.
A man wishes to estimate the distance of a nearby tower from him. He stands at a point A in front of the tower C and spots a very distant object O in line with AC. He then walks perpendicular to AC up to B, a distance of 100 m and looks at O and C again. Since O is very distant, the direction BO is practically the same as AO; but he finds the line of sight of C shifted from the original line of sight by an angle θ = 40° (θ is known as parallax’) estimate the distance of the tower C from his original position A.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 4
Answer:
Parallax angle θ = 40°; AB = AC tan θ
AC = AB/tan θ = 100 m/tan 40°
= 100 m/0.8391 = 119 m.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 3.
The moon is observed from two diametrically opposite points A and B on Earth. The angle 6 subtended at the moon by the two directions of observation is 1°54‘. Given the diameter of the Earth to be about 1.276 × 107 m, compute the distance of the moon from the Earth.
Solution:
We have θ = 1°54′ = 114
= (114 × 60)” × (4.85 × 10-6) rad
= 3.32 × 10-2 rad.
Since 1″ = 4.85 × 10-6,; rad
Also b = AB = 1.276 × 107 m
Hence from D = b/θ, we have the earth-moon distance,
D = b/θ
= \(\frac{1.276 \times 10^7}{3.32 \times 10^{-2}}\) = 3.84 × 108 m.

Question 4.
The Sun’s angular diamater is mea-sured to be 1920″. The distance D of the Sun from the Earth is 1.496 × 10″ m. What is the diameter of the Sun ?
Answer:
Sun’s angular diameter α = 1920”
= 1920 × 4.85 × 10-6 rad
= 9.31 × 10-3 rad
Sun’s diameter d = α
D = (9.31 × 10-3) × (1.496 × 1011) m
= 1.39 × 109 m.

Question 5.
If the size of a nucleus in the range of 10-15 to 10-14 m) is scaled up to the tip of a sharp pin, what roughly is the size of an atom ? Assume tip of the pin to be in the range 10-5 m to 10-4 m.
Answer:
The size of a nucleus is in the range of 10-15m and 10-14 m. The tip of a sharp pin is taken to be in the range of 10-5 m and 10-4 m. Thus we are scaling up by a factor of 1010. An atom roughly of size 10-10 m will be scaled up to a size of 1 m. Thus a nucleus in an atom is as small in size as the tip of a sharp pin placed at the centre of a sphere of radius about a metre long.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 6.
Two clocks are being tested against a standard clock located in a national laboratory. At 12 : 00 : 00 noon by the standard dock, the readings of the two clocks are :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 5
If you are doing an experiment that requires ‘precision time interval’ measurements, which of the two clocks will you prefer ?
Answer:
The range of variation over the seven days of observations is 162 s for clock 1 and 31 s for clock 2. The average reading of clock 1 is much closer to the standard time than the average reading of clock 2. The important point is that a clock’s zero error is not as significant for precision work as its variation, because a ‘zero-error’ can always be easily corrected. Hence clock 2 is to be preferred to clock 1.

Question 7.
We measure the period of oscillation of a simple pendulum. In successive measurements, the readings turn out to be 2.63 s. 2.56 s, 2.42 s, 2.71 is and 2.80 s. Calculate the absolute errors relative error or percentage error.
Answer:
The mean period of oscillation of the pendulum
T = \(\frac{(2.63+2.56+2.42+2.71+2.80) s}{5}\)
= \(\frac{13.22}{5}\) s = 2.624 s = 2.62 s
As the periods are measured to a resolution of 0.01 s, all times are to the second decimal; it is proper to put this mean period also to the second decimal.
The errors in the measurements are
2.63 s – 2.62 s = 0.01 s
2.56 s – 2.62 s = -0.06 s
2.42 s – 2.62 s = -0.20 s
2.71 s – 2.62 s = 0.09 s
2.80 s – 2.62 s = 0.18 s
Note that the errors have the same units as the quantity to be measured.
The arithmetic mean of all the absolute errors (for arithmetic mean, we take only the magnitudes) is
∆Tmean = [(0.01 + 0.06 + 0.20 + 0.09 + 0.18)s]/5 = 0.54 s/5 = 0.11 s
That means, the period of oscillation of the simple pendulum is (2.62 ± 0.11) s i.e. it lies between (2.62 + 0.11) s and (2.62 – 0.11) s or between 2.73 s and 2.51 s. As the arithmetic mean of all the absolute errors is 0.11 s, there is already an error in the tenth of a second. Hence there is no point in giving the period to a hundredth. A more correct way will be to write T = 2.6 ± 0.1 s

Note that the last numeral 6 is unreliable, since it may be anything between 5 and 7. We indicate this by saying that the measurement has two significant figures. In this case, the two significant figures are 2, which is reliable and 6, which has an error associated with it. You will learn more about the significant figures in section 2.7.
For this example, the relative error or the percentage error is δa = \(\frac{0.1}{2.6}\) × 100 = 4.

Question 8.
The temperatures of two bodies measured by a thermometer are t1 = 20 °C ± 0.5 °C and t2 = 50 °C ± 0.5°C. Calculate the temperature difference and the error therein.
Answer:
t’ = t2 – t1
= (50 °C ± 0.5 °C) – (20 °C ± 0.5 °C)
t’ = 30 °C ± 1 °C.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 9.
The resistance R = V/I where V = (100 ± 5) V and I = (10 ± 0.2) A. Find the percentage error in R.
Answer:
The percentage error in V is 5 and in I it is 2.
The total error in R would therefore be 5 + 2 = 7%.

Question 10.
Two resistors of resistances R1 = 100 ± 3 ohm and R2 = 200 ± 4 ohm are connected (a) in series, (b) in parallel. Find the equivalent resistance of the (a) series combination, (b) parallel combination. Use for (a) the relation R
= R1 + R2 and for (b) \(\frac{1}{R^{\prime}}+\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}\) and \(\frac{\Delta R^{\prime}}{R^{\prime 2}}=\frac{\Delta R_1}{R_1^2}+\frac{\Delta R_2}{R_2^2}\)
Answer:
a) The equivalent resistance of series, combination
R = R1 + R2 = (100 ± 3)
ohm + (200 ± 4) ohm = 300 ± 7 ohm.

b) The equivalent resistance of parallel combination
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 6
Then, R’ = 66.7 ± 1.8 ohm
(Here, ∆R is expressed as 1.8 instead of 2 to keep in conformity with the rules of significant figures).

Question 11.
Find the relative error in Z, if Z = A4B1/3/CD3/2.
Answer:
The relative error in Z is ∆Z/Z = 4(∆A/A) + (1/3) (∆B/B) + (∆C/C) + (3/2) (∆D/D).

Question 12.
The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{L / g}\). Measured value of L is 20.0 cm known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90 s using a wrist watch of 1s resolution. What is the accuracy in the determination of g ?
Answer:
g = 4π2L/T2; Here, T = \(\frac{t}{n}\) and ∆T = \(\frac{\Delta t}{n}\)
Therefore, \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{T}}{\mathrm{T}}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{t}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
The errors in both L and t are the least count errors. Therefore, (∆g/g) = (∆L/L) + 2(∆T/T)
= \(\frac{0.1}{20.0}+2\left(\frac{1}{90}\right)\) = 0.027
Thus, the percentage error in g is 100 (∆g/g)
= 100(∆L/L) + 2 × 100 (∆T/T) = 3.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 13.
Each side of a cube is measured to be 7.203 m. What are the total surface area and the volume of the cube to appro¬priate significant figures ?
Answer:
The number of significant figures in the measured length is 4. The calculated area and the volume should therefore be rounded off to 4 significant figures.
Surface area of the cube = 6(7.203)2 m2
= 311.299254 m2
= 311.3 m2
Volume of the cube = (7.203)3 m3
= 373.714754 m3
= 373.7 m3

Question 14.
5.74 g of a substance occupies 1.2 cm3. Express its density by keeping the significant figures in view.
Answer:
There are 3 significant figures in the measured mass whereas there are only 2 significant figures in the measured volume. Hence the density should be expressed to only 2 significant figures.
Density = \(\frac{5.74}{1.2}\) cm-3 = 4.8 g cm-3.

Question 15.
Let us consider an equation \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = mgh where m is the mass of the body, v its velocity, g is the acceleration due to gravity and h is the height. Check whether this equation is dimensionally correct.
Answer:
The dimensions of LHS are
[M] [LT-1]2 = [M] [L2T-2] = [M L2T-2]
The dimensions of RHS are
[M] [LT-2] [L] = [M] [L2T-2] = [M L2T-2]
The dimensions of LHS and RHS are the same and hence the equation is dimensionally correct.

Question 16.
The SI unit of energy is J = kg m2s-2; that of speed v is ms-1 and of acceleration a is ms-2. Which of the formulae for kinetic energy (K) given below can you rule out on the basis of dimensional arguments (m stands for the mass of the body):
(a) K = m2V3
(b) K = (1/2) mv2
(c) K = ma
(d) K = (3/16) mv2
(e) K = (1/2) mv2 + ma.
Answer:
Every correct formula or equation must have the same dimensions on both sides of the equation. Also, only quantities with the same physical dimensions can be added or subtracted. The dimensions of the quantity on the right side are [M2 L3 T-3] for (a) : [ML2T-2] for (b) and (d); [MLT-2] for (c). The quantity on the right side of (e) has no proper dimensions since two quantities of different dimensions have been added. Since the kinetic energy K has the dimensions of [ML2T-2], formulas (a), (c) and (e) are ruled out. Note that dimensional arguments cannot tell which of the two, (b) or (d), is the correct formula. For this, one must turn to the actual definition of kinetic energy. The correct formula for kinetic energy is given by (b).

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 17.
Consider a simple pendulum, having a bob attached to a string, that oscillates under the action of the force of gravity. Suppose that the period of oscillation of the simple pendulum depends on its length (l), mass of the bob (m) and acceleration due to gravity (g). Derive the expression for its period using method of dimensions.
Answer:
The dependence of time period T on the quantities l, g and m as a product may be written as :
T = k lx gy mz
Where k is dimensionless constant and x, y and z are the exponents.
By considering dimensions on both sides, we have
[L°M°T1] = [L1]x [L1T-2]y [M1]2 = Lx+yT-2y Mz
On equating the dimensions on both sides, we have
x + y = 0; -2y = 1 and z = 0
So that x = \(\frac{1}{2}\), y = \(\frac{1}{2}\), z = 0
Then, T = kl1/2 g1/2 or T = \(\mathrm{k} \sqrt{\frac{l}{\mathrm{~g}}}\)
Note that value of constant k can hot be obtained by the method of dimensions. Here it does not matter if some number multiplies the right side of this formula because that does not affect its dimensions.
Actually, k = 2π so that T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 13 Ecological Adaptation, Succession and Ecological Services

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 13th Lesson Ecological Adaptation, Succession and Ecological Services Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 13th Lesson Ecological Adaptation, Succession and Ecological Services

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
The climax stage is achieved quickly in secondary succession as compared to primary succession. Why?
Answer:
In secondary succession, the species that Invade depend on the condition of the soil, availability of water, the environment and also the seeds or other propagules present. Since soil is already there, the rate of succession is much faster and hence climax stage is also reached more quickly than primary succession.

Question 2.
Among Bryophytes, lichens, and ferns which one is a pioneer species in a xeric succession?
Answer:
Among Bryophytes, lichens, and Ferns, lichens are the pioneer species in a xeric succession.

Question 3.
Give any two examples of xerarch succession.
Answer:
Crustose lichens – Rhizocarpon, Lecanora.
Foliose lichens – Parmelia, Dermetocarpon.
Mossess – Funaria

Question 4.
Name the type of land plants that can tolerate the salinities of the sea.
Answer:
Halophytes.
Ex : Rhizophora.

Question 5.
Define Heliophytes and Sciophytes. Name a plant from your locality that i$ either Heliophyte or Sciophyte.
Answer:
Plants grow in direct sunlight are called heliophytes.
Ex : Tridax, grass.

Plants grow in shady places are called Sciophytes.
Ex : Ferns, Mosses.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 13 Ecological Adaptation, Succession and Ecological Services

Question 6.
Define population and community.
Answer:
A group of similar individuals belonging to the same species found in an area is called population. An assemblage of all the populations belonging to different species occuring in an area is called community.

Question 7.
Define communities? Who classified plant communities into hydrophytes, meso- phytes and xerophytes?
Answer:
An assemblage of all the populations belonging to different species occuring in an area are called communities. “Eugene Warming” classified plant communities into Hydrophytes, mesophytes and xerophytes.

Question 8.
Hydrophytes show reduced xylem. Why?
Answer:
All submerged organs are capable of absorbing water that’s why Hydrophytes show reduced xylem.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are hydrophytes? Briefly discuss the different kinds of hydrophytes with example.
Answer:
Hydrophytes are the plants which grow in water or in very wet places. According to their relation to water and air hydrophytes are classified into five categories. They are

1. Free floating Hydrophytes :
They float freely on the surface of the water and have no contact with soil.
E.g. : Pistia, Eichhornia, Wolffia, Salvinia, Azolla.

2. Rooted hydrophytes with floating leaves :
They are attached to the muddy soil by roots. Their leaves have long petioles which keep them floating on the surface of water.
E.g. : Nymphaea, Nelumbo and Victoria regia.

3. Submerged suspended hydrophytes :
They are completely submerged and suspended in water, but not rooted in the mud and have no contact with air.
E.g. : Hydrilla, Ceratophyllum, Utricularia and Najas.

4. Submerged rooted hydrophytes :
These plants are completely submerged in water. They are attached to the muddy soil by roots.
E.g. : Vallisneria, Potamogeton etc.

5. Amphibious plants :
These live partly in water and partly in air.
E.g. : Sagittaria, Ranunculus, Limnophila.

Some amphibious plants grow around water bodies, with water touching them. They will survive in dry periods also.
E.g. : Typha, Cyperus etc.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 13 Ecological Adaptation, Succession and Ecological Services 1

Question 2.
Enumerate the morphological adaptations of hydrophytes,
Answer:

  1. Roots may be absent or poorly developed. In some plants (Salvinia) submerged leaves compensate for roots.
  2. Root caps are usually absent. In some amphibious plants which grow in mud, roots are well developed with root caps. In some plants root caps are replaced by root pockets.
    E.g. : Eichhornia.
  3. Roots if present, are generally fibrous, reduced in length, uribranched or poorly branched.
  4. Stem is long, slender and flexible.
  5. Leaves are thin and either long and ribbon shaped (vallisnaria) or long and linear {potamogeton) or finely dissected (caratophyllum).
  6. Floating leaves are large and flat with their upper surfaces coated with wax (Nymphaea, Nelumbium).

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 13 Ecological Adaptation, Succession and Ecological Services

Question 3.
List out the anatomical adaptations of hydrophytes.
Answer:

  1. Cuticle is totally absent in the submerged parts of the plants. It may be present in the form of a thin film on the surface of parts exposed to atmosphere.
  2. The epidermis is composed of thin walled cells. They perform absorption and assimilation as all cells contain chloroplasts.
  3. Stomata are totally absent in submerged hydrophytes as the gaseous exchange takes place by diffusion.
  4. In Nymphaea, Nelumbium, the leaves are epistomatous.
  5. All Hydrophytes contain aerenchyma that helps in gaseous exchange and buoyancy.
  6. Mechanical tissues like Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma are poorly developed.
  7. Xylem is poorly developed.
  8. Secondary growth is absent

Question 4.
Write a brief account on classification of xerophytes.
Answer:
On the basis of their Drought resisting Capacity, Xerophytes are generally classified into the following three categories.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 13 Ecological Adaptation, Succession and Ecological Services 2

1. Ephemerals :
They are called “drought evaders” or “drought escapers”. They are annuals which complete their life cycle with in a period of 6-8 weeks. They are found in dry zones, e.g. : Tribulus, chenopodium.

2. Succulents :
These are called “drought avoiding plants”. They are fleshy due to storage of water in the form of mucilage. The stored water is sparingly utilised during dry periods.
Examples :
a) Stem succulents : Opuntia, Euphorbia.
b) Leaf succulents : Bryophyllum, Aloe, Agave etc.
c) Root succulents : Asparagus, Ceiba.

Non-succulents :
They are called true xerophytes. These are perennial plants which can withstand prolonged period of drought.
E.g. : Casuarina, Nerium, Ziziphus, Calotropis, Acacia, etc. .

Question 5.
Enumerate the morphological adaptations of xerophytes.
Answer:

  1. Roots are long with extensive branching spread over wide areas.
  2. Root hairs and root caps are very well developed.
  3. Mostly the stem is stunted, woody, hard and covered with thick bark.
  4. Stems are usually covered by hairs or waxy coatings.
  5. Leaves are very much reduced to small, scale like and sometimes modified into spines to reduce the rate of transpiration.
  6. Certain Xerophytes shed their leaves during the dry period.
    Ex : Capparis.

Question 6.
Give in detail the anatomical adaptations shown by xerophytes.
Answer:

  1. Epidermis is covered with thick cuticle to reduce the rate of transpiration.
  2. Epidermal cells may have silica crystals.
  3. Epidermis may be multilayered as in leaves of Nerium.
  4. Stomata are generally confined to lower epidermis of leaves called hypostomatous. They are present in pits called sunken stomata.
  5. Hypodermis is parenchymatous to check evaporation of water.
    Ex : Calotropis.
  6. Mechanical tissues are very well developed.
  7. Vascular tissues are very well developed.

Question 7.
Define plant succession. Differentiate primary and secondary successions.
Answer:
The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called plant succession.

Differences :

Primary successionSecondary succession
1. It occurs on a primary bare area or reservoir.1. It occurs in areas where mutual biotic communities have been destroyed such as in abandoned form lands, burned forests.
2. It occurs in Biologically sterile area.2. It occurs in biologically fertile area.
3. It takes a long time to reach the climax stage.3. It is quite rapid to reach climax stage because of presence of soil.

Question 8.
Define ecosystem/ecological services. Explain in brief with regard to pollination.
Answer:
The processes by which the environment produces resources that we often take for granted such as cleen water, timber and habitat for fisheries and pollination of native and agricultural plants is called Ecosystem /Ecological services.

The transfer of pollengrains to fertilize the ovaries of flowers is called pollination. It is an essential part of a healthy ecosystem. Most flowering plants require pollinators to produce fruits and seeds. So pollinators play a significant role in the production of more food crops in the world. Declines of pollinator activity could have serious economic repercussions throughout the world.

The most important pollinator for Agriculture is Honeybee. Over 1,00,000 invertebrate species such as bees, moths, butterflies, beetles and flies serve as pollinators worldwide. At least 1035 species of vertebrates including birds, mammals and reptiles also pollinate many plant species. Continued declines in pollinator activity could mean rising costs for pollinator dependent fruits and vegetables and the disruption of entire ecological systems.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 13 Ecological Adaptation, Succession and Ecological Services

Question 9.
Write about the measure to be taken to sustain ecological functions.
Answer:

  1. Choose products produced with methods that conserve resources, minimize waste and reduce or eliminate environmental damage.
  2. Prefer products made with methods that reduce the use of pesticides and artificial fertilizers.
  3. Reduce consumption and waste production.
  4. Support usage of renewable energy alternatives.
  5. Use public transit, cycle or walk to conserve natural resources and to reduce pollution and enjoy the health benefits.
  6. Participate in developing community garden and tree plantation programmes.
  7. Avoid the usage of pesticides and follow methods of natural pest control.
  8. Use native plants in the garden and provide habitat for wildlife.

Question 10.
What measure do you suggest to protect the pollinators?
Answer:

  1. Creating own pollinator friendly garden using a wide variety of native flowering plants.
  2. Reducing the use of pesticides used in and around your home.
  3. Encouraging local clubs or school groups to build artificial habiutats like butterfly gardens, bee boards and bee boxes.
  4. Supporting agriculture enterprises with pollinato-friendly practices to minimize pesticide use.
  5. Encouraging government agencies to take into account the full economic benefits of wild pollinators when formulating policies for agriculture and other land uses.
  6. To develop techniques for cultivating native pollinator species for crot pollination.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Give an account of ecosystem services with reference to carbon fixation and oxygen release.
Answer:
Trees are essential to carbon sequestration keeping excess carbon from entering the atmosphere. The main chemical flow between forest and atmosphere is the exchange of CO2 and O2. Forests provide a vast bank for CO2 and a large amount of CO2 is deposited in its timber. It plays an essential role in maintaining a dynamic balance between CO2 & O2 in atmosphere. According to photosynthesis equation 180 gm of Glucose and 193 gm O2 are produced by using 264 gm of CO2 and 108 gm of water and 677.2 K.cal. of solar energy.

180 gm of Glucose can be transformed to 162 gm of polysaccharide inside the plant. So whenever plant produces, 162 gm of dry organic matter 264 gm of CO2 will be fixed. Then the total amount of the dry organic matter of the reserve forests can be estimated. It provides a foundation for reckoning the total amount of CO2 fixation by the forests in the reserve.

Natural ecosystems may have helped to stabilize climate and prevent overheating of the earth by removing more of the greenhouse gas, CO2 from the atmosphere. Many countries have established a carbon tax system to reduce emissions of the greenhouse gases, especially to cut down CO2 and CO in atmosphere.

Ecosystem services – oxygen release :
Trees and plankton play a big role in release of oxygen; which depends on the species of tree, its age, its health, and also on the trees surroundings. “A mature leafy tree produces as much oxygen in a season as 10 peole in hale in a year”, or A single mature tree can absorb carbon dioxide at a rate of 48 Ibs/year and release enough oxygen back into the atmosphere to support 2 human beings.

One acre of trees annually consumes the amount of CO2 equivalent to that produced by driving an average can for 26,000 miles. That same acre of trees also produces enough oxygen for 18 people to breathe for a year.

Submerged macrophytes release O2 and enrich dissolved O2 in water. The plants and planktons are described as “the Lungs of the World”, taking billion of tonnes of CO2 and exhaling billions of tones of O2.

Micro organisms also contribute to the oxygen release in direct and indirect ways.

Ex : Cyanobacteria releases O2 in a direct way. The other supporting services include Nutrient cycling through decomposition of fallen Logs in forests, soil formation by bacteria and lichens.

Intext Questions

Question 1.
Categorise the following plants into hydrophytes halophytes, mesophytes and xerophytes and give reasons.
a) Salvinia b) Opuntia c) Rhizophora d) Mangifera
Answer:
a) Salvinia is a hydrophyte, It grows on the surface of water.
b) Opuntia is a xerophyte, grows in xeric (dry) areas.
c) Rhizophora is a Halophyte which tolerates the salinities of the sea.
d) Mangifera is a mesophyte, grows in habitats where water is neither scarce nor not abundant.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 13 Ecological Adaptation, Succession and Ecological Services

Question 2.
In a pond, we see plants which are free-floating ; rooted-submerged; rooted emergent; rooted with floating leaves, write the type of plants against each of them.
Answer:

Plant nameType
a) HydrillaSubmerged suspendend Hydrophyte.
b) TyphaAmphibious plant.
c) NymphaeaRooted with floating leaves.
d) LemnaFree floating hydrophytes.
e) VallisnariaSubmerged, rooted hydrophyte.

Question 3.
Undertake the following a part of learning process.
a) Identify and assess ecological services found in your area.
b) Think of measures or means to sustain such ecological services.
c) Observe the type of plants or crops grown in your area.
d) Enumerate ecological servies of your area.
e) find out the ecological goods of natural forests commonly used in your area.
f) Observe the biotic agents of pollination for ornamental flowring plants and or agricultural crops in your locality.
Answer:
a) Ecological services :

  1. Purification of air and water.
  2. Detoxification and decomposition of water.

b) Measures to sustain Ecological services are

  1. Reduce consumption and waste production.
  2. Avoid the usage of pesticides.

c) Crops grown in our area are
a) Paddy b) Maize c) Black gram d) green gram e) Crotalaria (fodder) g) vegetables.

d) Ecological services :

  1. Purification of air and water.
  2. Mitigation of floods and droughts
  3. Decomposition of wastes

e) Ecological goods :
a) Clean air b) Fresh water c) Food d) fibre e) Timber f) Medicines.

f) Biotic agents of pollination
a) Insects b) Birds c) Animals (Bats, Snails, Snakes).

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 10th Lesson Biomolecules Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 10th Lesson Biomolecules

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Medicines are either man-made (i.e., synthetic) or obtained from living organisms like plants, bacteria, animals etc. and hence the latter are called natural products. Sometimes natural products are chemically altered by man to reduce toxicity or side effects. Write against each of the following whether they were initially obtained as a natural product or as a synthetic chemical.
a) Pencillin_ b) Sulfonamide_ c) Vitamin C_ d) Growth Hormone_
Answer:
a) Penicillin – Natural
b) Sulfonamide – Synthetic
c) Vitamin C – Natural
d) Growth Hormone – Natural.

Question 2.
Select an appropriate chemical bond among ester bond, glycosidic bond, peptide bond and hydrogen bond and write against each of the following.
a) Polysaccharide b) Protein c) Fat d) Water
Answer:
a) Polysacharide – Glycosidic Bond
b) Protein – Peptide Bond
c) Fat – Ester Bond
d) Water – Hydrogen Bond.

Question 3.
Give one example for each of aminoacids, sugars, nucleotides and fatty acids.
Answer:
Aminoacids – Glycine, Alanine
Sugars – Cellulose [Glucose, Ribose)
Nucleotides – “Adenylic acid”
Fatty acids – Lecithin.

Question 4.
Explain the Zwitterionic form of an amino acid.
Answer:
At a specific PH the amino acid carries both the +ve and -ve charges in equal number and exists as dipolar ion. It is also called as zwitterionic form. At his point, the net charge on it is zero.

Question 5.
What constituents of DNA are linked by glylosidic bond?
Answer:
Individual Monosacharides are linked by glycosidic bond.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules

Question 6.
Glycine and Alanine are different with respect to one substituent on the a cabron. What are the other common substituent groups?
Answer:
Hydrogen, Carboxyl group, amino group and a variable group designated as R group.

Question 7.
Starch, Cellulose, Glycogen, Chitin are polysaccharides found among the following. Choose the one appropriate and write against each.
a) Cotton fibre_ b) Exoskeleton of cockroach_ c) Liver_ d) Peeled potato_
Answer:
a) Cotton fibre – Cellulose
b) Exoskeleton of cockroach – Chitin
c) Liver – Glycogen
d) Peeled Potato – Starch.

Question 8.
What are primary and secondary metabolites? Give examples.
Answer:
Primary metabolites :
The metabolites have identifiable functions and play known roles in normal physiological processes are called as primary metabolites.
Ex : Hydrogen, Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen etc.

Secondary metabolites :
Metabolic products that do not have identifiable functions in the host organism are called as secondary metabolites.
Ex : Alkaloids, Flavonoids, Rubbers, Resins etc.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain briefly the metabolic basis for ‘living’.
Anwer:
Metabolic pathways can lead to a more complex structure from a simpler structure. (Anabolic pathways). [For example lactic acid becomes cholesterol or sucrose formation from C02 and water in Mesophyll] or lead to a simple structure from a complex structure (catabolic pathways) [glucose becomes lactic acid in our skeletol muscle). Anabolic pathways consume energy whereas catabolic pathways lead to the release of energy.

For example when glucose is degraded to lactic acid in our skeletal muscle, energy is liberated called Glycolysis, Living organisms have learnt to trap this energy and store it in the form of chemical bonds. When ever requires, this energy is utilised for biosynthetic, osmotic and mechanical work that we perform. The most important form of energy currency in living systems is adenorine triphosphate (ATP).

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules

Question 2.
Schematically represent primary, secondary and tertiary structures of a hypothetical polymer using protein as an example.
Answer:
The sequence of amino acids, i.e., the positional information in a protein is called the primary structure of a protein. A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by the first amino acid called N- terminal amino acid and the right end represented by the last aminoacid called C-terminal aminoacid In proteins, only, right handed helics are observed. Other regions of the protein thread are folded into other forms in what is called the secondary structure. In addition, the long protein chain is also folded upon itself like a hollow woolen ball giving rise to the tertiary structure.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules 1

Question 3.
Nucleic acids exhibits secondary structure. Justify with example.
Answer:
Nucleic acids exhibit a wide variety of seconary structure. For example, one of the secondary structures exhibited by DNA is Watson – Crick model. According to this, DNA exists as a double helix. The two stands of polynucleotides are antiparallel i.e., run in the opposite direction. The back bone is formed by the sugar-phosphate, sugar chain. The nitrogen bases are projected more or less perpendiular to this backbone but face inside. A combines with T by two hydrogen bonds where G combines with C by three hydrogen bonds. One full turn of the helical strand would involve ten base pairs. The length of one coil is 34 A and the distance between base pair is 3.4 A . This type of DNA is called B-DNA.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules 2

Question 4.
Comment on the statement living sate is a non-equilibrium steady – state to be able to perform work1.
Answer:
Several chemical compounds are present in a living organism called metabolites or biomolecules are present at concentrations characteristic of each of them. For example the blood concentration of Glucose in a normal healthy individual is 4.5 – 5.0 mp. All living organisms exist in a steady state characterised by concentrations of each of these biomolecules. These are in a metabolic flux. Any chemical or physical process moves spontaneously to equilibrium, The steady state is a non equilibrium state. The systems cannot work at equilibrium. As living organisms work continuously, they cannot afford to reach equilibrium. Hence the living state is a non-equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work.

Question 5.
Is rubber a primary metabolite or a secondary metabolite ? Write four sentences about rubber.
Answer:
Rubber is a secondary metabolite. Rubber is an elastic hydro carbon polymer that was orginally derived from latex, d milky colloid produced-by some plants. The purified form of natural rubber is the chemical polyisoprene. It is used extensively in many products, as a synthetic rubber. It is normally very strechy and flexible and extremely waterproof.

Question 6.
Dynamic state of body constituents is a more realistic concept than the fixed concentrations of body constituents at any point of time. Elaborate.
Answer:
All the living organisms contains biomolecules in certain concentrations, which have a turn over. They are constantly being changed into some other biomolecules and also made from some other biomolecules. This breaking and making occurs through chemical reactions called metabolism. Each of the metabolic reactions results in the transformation of biomolecules.

Example :
Removal of CO2 from amino acids making into an amine removal of amino group in a nucleotide base. Majority of metabolic reactions do not occur in isolation but are linked to some other reactions. Metabolites are converted into each other by a series of linked reactions called metabolic pathways. Flow of metabolites through metabolic pathways has a definite rate and direction like auto¬mobile traffic. This metabolic flow is called the dynamic state of body constituents.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are secondary metabolites? Enlist them indicating their usefulness to man.
Answer:
Metabolic products that do not have identifiable functions in the host organism are called secondary Metabolites. They are Alkaloids, Flavinoids, Rubber, Essential oils. Antibiotics, Coloured pigments, Scents, Gums and Spices.

Alkaloids :

  1. Alkaloids from plant extracts have been used as ingredients in lotions (liquid medicine) and poisons.
  2. Ancient people used plant extracts containing alkaloids for treating a large number of ailments including snake bite, fever and insanity.

Flavinoids :
These are a widely distributed group of polyphenolic compounds with health related properties which include anticancer, antiviral, anti inflamatory activities, effects on capillary fregility and can ability to inhibit human platelet aggregation.

Rubber :

  1. Uncured rubber is used for cements for adhesive, insulating and friction tapes. The flexibility of rubber is dften used in hose, tires and rollers for a wide variety of devices.
  2. Its elasticity makes it suitable for various kinds of shock absorbers.
  3. It is impermeable to gases, it is useful in the manufacture of articles such as air hoses, balloons, bulls and cushions.

Essential oils :

  1. An essential oil is a concentrated hydrophobic liquid containing volatile aroma compounds from plants.
  2. These are also known as volatile oils, etheral oils or aetherolea. These are used in aromatherapy.

Antibiotics :

  1. Antibiotics are defined as chemicals of natural organic origin that will till certain harmful pathogens.
  2. They should not be toxic or have side effects to the host.
  3. An antibiotic is a substance that harms or destroys the bacteria that cause infection and disease. We take antibiotics to fight bacterial infections.

Spices :

  1. Asafoetida is a good remedy for whooping cough and stomach ache caused due to gas.
  2. Cardamon (elachi) helps to control bad breath and digestive disorder.

Question 2.
What are the processes used to analyse elemental composition, organic constituents and inorganic constituents of living tissue? What are the inferences on the most abundant constituents of living tissue? Support the inferences with appropriate data.
Answer:
Take a living tissue (a vegetable or a piece of liver) and grind it in trichloroacetic acid with the help of Mortar and pestle. The thick slurry obtained was strained through a cheese cloth or cotton, two fractions are formed. The first one is filtrate or acid soluble pool which consists of thousands of organic compounds and the second one is retentate or acid insoluble fraction. All the carbon compounds that we get from living tissues can be called biomolecules.

Weigh a small amount of living tissue and dry it. After the evaporation of water the material is burnt to oxidise all the carbon compounds. The remaining ash contains inorganic elements like sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium and inorganic compounds like sulphate, phosphate etc., therefore chemical analysis gives elemental composition of living tissues in the form of hydrogen, oxygen, chlorine, carbon etc. From a biological point of view the organic constituents are classified into amino acids, nucleotide bases, fatty acids etc.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules

Question 3.
Nucleic acids exhibit secondary structure. Describe through Watson – Crick Model.
Answer:
Nucleic acids exhibit a wide variety of secondary structure. For example, one of the secondary structures exhibited by DNA is Watson – Crick model. According to this, DNA exists as a double helix. The two stands of polynucleotides are antiparallel i.e., run in the opposite direction. The back bone is formed by the sugar-phosphate, sugar chain. The nitrogen bases are projected more or less perpendiular to this backbone but face inside. A combines with T by two hydrogen bonds where G combines with C by three hydrogen bonds. One full turn of the helical strand would involve ten base pairs. The length of one coil is 34 A° and the distance between base pair is 3.4 A°. This type of DNA is called B-DNA.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules 2

Question 4.
What is the difference between a nucleotide and nucleoside? Give two examples of each with their structure.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules 3

Question 5.
Describe various forms of lipid using a few examples.
Answer:
Lipids are orgnaic compounds which are insoluble in water. They are fats and fatty acids, oils, triglycerides, phospholipids, steroids, waxes etc.,
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules 4

Fattyacids :
They have a carboxyl group attahed to an R group. The R group could be a methyl or ehtyl or higher number of CH2 groups. For example pulmitic acid has 16 carbons including arboxyl carbon. Fatty acids could be saturated or unsaturated.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules 5
Glycolipids :
They are composed mainly of mono-di and trisubstituted Glycerols, the most well-known being the fatty acid esters of Glycerol called Triglycerides. In these compounds, the three hydroxyl groups of Glycerol are each esterified usually by different fatty acids. They function as a food store.

Phospholipids :
Some lipids have phophorous and phsophorylated organic compound in them called phospholipids. They are found in cell membrane.
Ex : Lecithin.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules 6

Intext Questions

Question 1.
What are macromolecules? Give examples.
Answer:
Acid Insoluble, high molecular weight substances of the living tissue are called macromolecules or Biomacromolecules.
Ex : Polysacharides, Polypeptides, Nucleic acid.

Question 2.
Illustrate a glycosidic, peptide and a phospho-diester bond.
Answer:
Glycosidic Bond :
Bond involving carbons of adjacent sugar molecules.

Peptide bond :
Bond between aminoacids in a protein.

Phosphodiester bond :
The bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar is called ester bond.

The ester bond an either side of phosphate is called phosphodjester bond.

Question 3.
What is meant by tertiary structure of proteins?
Answer:
3 Dimensional view of a protein essential for many biological activities is called Tertiary structure of proteins.

Question 4.
Find and write down structures of 10 interesting small molecular weight bio-molecules. Find if there is any industry, which manufactures the compounds by isolation. Find out who are the buyers.
Answer:
Aminoacids, Monosacharide and disacharide sugars, fatty acids, Glycerol, Nucleotides, Nucleosides, nitrogen bases are the biomolecules which have low molecular weight.

Question 5.
Proteins have primary sturcture. If you are given a method to known which aminoacid is at either of the two termini (ends) of a protein, can you connect this information to purity or homogeneity of a protein?
Answer:
Proteins are the polymers of a-amino acids. The linear sephence of amino acid is called primary structure. Most of proteins starts with an amino acids called Methionine but they are not homologous. Hence, the detection of N termeni (Or) C-termeni amino acid is not give information of homogeneity of a protein.

Question 6.
Find out and make a list of proteins used as therapeutic agents. Find other applications of proteins (eg. Cosmotics etc.,)
Answer:
Erythroproteins, Monoclenal Antibodies. Interferons thrombin and fibrinogen. Insulin, Renin, Proteins are also commonly used in the manufacture of cosmotics, toxins and as biological buffers.

Question 7.
Explain the composition of triglyceride.
Answer:
Triglycerides consist entirely of just three elements, carbon, Hydrogen and oxygen. The molecules of life all have carbon ‘back bones’ meaning the basic shape of the molecule comes from of connected carbon atoms. There are many hydrogen atoms connected to the carbon backbone of a molecule of life. Each triglyceride contains a small amount of O2.

Triglycerides have four basic parts, one glycerol molecule and three fatty acids. A glycerol is a three carbon molecule the fatty acids are long chains of carbon and hydrogen with two oxygen atoms at one end to produce a Triglyceride.

Question 8.
Can you describe what happens when milk is converted into curd or yoghurt based on your understanding of proteins.
Answer:
Proteins are macromolecules formed by the polymerization of amino acids. Structurally proteins are of 4 types.

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. quaternary.

Structure :
More than are polyreptide chains assemble to form the quaternary structure. When milk is converted to curd, these complex proteins get denatured, thus converting globuler proteins into fibrous proteins. Therefore by the process of denaturation, the secondary and tertiary structures of proteins are destroyed.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules

Question 9.
Draw the sturcture of the amino acid, alanine.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules 7

Question 10.
What are gums made of? Is Fevicol different?
Answer:
Gums are hetero polysacharides. They are made from two or more different types of mono sacharides. On the other hand, Fevicol is polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) glue. It is not a polysacharide.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell: The Unit of Life

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 9th Lesson Cell: The Unit of Life Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 9th Lesson Cell: The Unit of Life

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the significance of vacuole in a plant cell?
Answer:
In plnats, vacuole contains sap mainly composed of water, metabolic byproducts, excretions and other waste materials. They also play an important role in osmoregulation.

Question 2.
What does ‘s’ refer to a 70s and 80s ribosome?
Answer:
In both 70 ‘s’ ribosomes, and 80 ‘S’ ribosomes, ‘s’ stands for the sedimentation coefficient, [expressed in Svedberg unit]. It is indirectly a measure of density and size.

Question 3.
Mention a single membrane bound organelle which is rich in hydrolytic enzymes.
Answer:
Lysosome.

Question 4.
What are gas vacuoles 7 State their functions.
Answer:
Gas vacuoles are the aggregates of a number of small hollow cylindrical vesicles present in the cytoplasm of the floating purple and green photosynthetic bacteria. They are peroneable to atmospheric gases and help the bacteria to help floating on the surface of water.

Question 5.
What is the function of a polysome?
Answer:
Several ribosomes may attach to a single m-RNA and form a chain called polyribosomes or polysome. The ribosomes of a polysome translate the m-RNA into proteins.

Question 6.
What is the feature of a metacentric chromosome?
Answer:
The metacentric chromosome has middle centromere forming two equal arms of the chromosome.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 7.
What is refered to as satellite chromosome?
Answer:
A few chromosomes have non-staining secondary constrictions at a constant location, which gives the appearence of a small fragment called satellite. The chromosome with satellite is called satellite chromosome.

Question 8.
What are microbodies? What do they contain?
Answer:
Peroxysomes and glyoxisomes are called Microbodies. Peroxysomes are involved in the convertion of fatty acids into carbohydrates and in photorespiration. Glyoxysomes contain the enzymes of glyoxylatic cycle which convert stored lipids to carbohydrates.

Question 9.
What is middle lamella made of? What is its functional significance?
Answer:
Middle lamella is mainly composed of calcium pectate and holds or glues the different . neighbouring cells together.

Question 10.
What is osmosis?
Answer:
Movement of molecules or ions or water from low concentrated place to high concentrated place through semi permeable membrane is called osmosis.

Question 11.
Which part of the Bacterial cell is targeted in gram staining?
Answer:
Chemical composition of the cell envelope.

Question 12.
Which of the following is not correct? a) Robert Brown discovered the Cell. b) Schleden and Schwann formulated the cell theory c) Virchow explained that cells ae formed from pre existing cells d) Aunicellular organism carries out its lofe activities with in a single cell.
Answer:
a) is not correct. The cell was discovered by “Robert Hooke”.
b) is correct.
c) is correct.
d) is correct.

Question 13.
New cells generate from a) Bacterical Fermentation b) regeneration of old cells c) Pre existing cells d) Abiotic materials.
Answer:
Pre existing cells.

Question 14.
Match the following :

a) Cristaei) Flat membranous sacs in stroma
b) Cisternaeii) infoldings in mitochondria
c) Thylakoidsiii) Disc shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus.

Answer:

a) Cristaeii) Infoldings in Mitochondria
b) Cisternaeiii) Disc shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
c) Thylakoidsi) Flat membranous sacs in stroma

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 15.
Which of the following is correct : a) Cells of all living organisms have a nucleus b) Both animals and plant cells have a well defined cell wall, c) In Prokaryotes, there are no membrane bound organcells. d) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials.
Answer:
“C” is correct. In Prokaryotes, there are no membrane bound organelles like chloroplast. Mitochondria, ER of Golgi complex.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the cell organelle which contains chlorophyll Pitments.
Answer:
The chlorophyll containing cell organelle is chloroplast. They are found in mesophyll cells of the leaves. They are lens shaped, oval, spherical or discoid or ribbon shaped, having 5 – 10 pm length and 2 – 4 pm width. They varies in number from one (chlamydomonus) to 20 – 40 per cell in the masophyll.

Each chloroplast is a double membrane bound structure with periplastidial space in between them. Inner to Inner membrane fluid filled space is present called the stroma. A number of organised flattened membranous sacs called the thylakoids are present in the stroma, which are arranged like a pile of coins called grana. The grana are inter connected by flat membranous tubules called stroma lamellae.

The stroma of the chlorplast contains enzymes required for the synthe is of carbohydrates proteins, small circular double stranded DNA molecules and 70s Ribosomes, photosynthetic pigments are present in thylakoids, involve in high reaction of photosynthesis.

Question 2.
Describe the structure and function of celi organelle that can be considered as power house of the cell.
Answer:
Mitochondria is considered as power house of the cell.

Each mitochondria is sausage shaped or cylindrical having a diameter of 0.2 to 1.0 µm and length of 1.0 to 4.1 µm. Mitochondria is a double membrane bound cell organelle of which outer membrane is smooth and inner membrane forms a number of infoldings towards inside called the cristae.

The space inner to inner membrane is fluid filled called matrix. The cristae contains several stalked particles called oxysomes or elementary particles. Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration. They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP hence they are called power house of the cell. The matrix also contains single circular DNA molecule, 80s RNA molecules and 70s Ribosomes.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell The Unit of Life 1

Question 3.
Describe the structure of nucleus.
Answer:
The cell organelle that controls all the metabolic activities of the cell is called nucleus. It was first described by Robert Brown in 1831. Each nucleus is a spherical ball like structure, consists of 4 parts. They are A) Nuclear membrane, B) Nucleoplasm, C) Chromatin material and D) Nucleolus.

A) Nuclear membrane :
Nucleus is covered by double layered lipoprotenous membrane with perinuclear space in between them. At certain places, Nuclear pores are present which acts as passages between nucleoplasm and the cyloplasm in both directions.

B) Nucleoplasm :
Inner to nuclear membrane, nucleoplasm in present. It consists of chromatin material, nucleolus and RNA molecules nucleoplasm is also called karyoplasm.

C) Chromation material:
Inter phase nucleus has a loose and indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin. It contains DNA and some basic proteins called histones some on histone proteins and also RNA. The chromation is furthur classified into Heterochromatin and Euchromatin of these, Euchromatin is delicate, less condensed and active.

D) Nucleolus :
It is a dense, spherical shaped structure present inside the nucleus. It plays an indirect role in protein synthesis by producing rib somes.

Functions :

  1. It controls the heriditary characterestics of an organism.
  2. It is responsible for the protein synthesis, cell division, growth and differentiation.
  3. It controls all the metabolic activities of the cell.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell The Unit of Life 2

Question 4.
Comment on the cartwheel Structure of centriole.
Answer:
Centrosome is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structure called centrioles. They are surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar materials. Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other in which each has an organisation like “cartwheel”. They are made up of nine evenly spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin. Each of the peripheral fibril is a triplet. The adjacent triplets are also linked.

The central part of the centriole is also proteinaceous and called the ‘Hub’, which is connected with tubules of the peripheral triplets by radial spokes made of protein. The centrioles form the basal body of cilia and flagella and spindle fifres that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal cells.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 5.
Briefly describe the cell theory.
Answer:
Schwann proposed the hypothesis that the bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and products of cells. Schleiden, examined a large number of plants and observed that all plants are composed of different kinds of cells which form the tissues of the plant. Schleiden and Schwann together formulated cell theory. But this theory did not explain as to how new cells were formed. Rudolf virchow first explained that cells divided and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells. He modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann and give a definite shape to cell theofy- Which states that,

  1. all living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells
  2. all cells arise from the pre-existing cells.

Question 6.
Differentiate between Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) and Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER).
Answer:

Rough ERSmooth ER
i. Rough ER is studded with ribosomes.i. Smooth ER is not associated with ribosomes.
ii. These are mainly composed of cisternaeii. These ae mainly composed of tubules
iii. Generally associated with nuclear membrane.iii. Generally associated with plasma membrane.
iv. Main function is protein synthesis.iv. Main function is lipid synthesis.

Question 7.
Give the biochemical composition of plasma membrane. How are lipid molecules arranged in the membrane?
Answer:
Plasma membrane is made up of lipids that are arranged in fila. Later biochemical investigations clearly revealed that the cell membrane also posses protein and Carbohydrate. The lipids are arranged with in the membrane, with the polar (hydrophilic) head towards the outer sides and the tail (hydrophobic)towards the inner part. With in the lipids, proteins are classified into integral or peripheral proteins.

An improved model Nicholson (1972) widely accepted as “Fluid Mosaic Model”, According to this, the quasi fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer.

Question 8.
What are plasmids? Describe their role in Bacteria.
Answer:
Plasmids are small circular DNA molecules outside the genomic DNA. The plasmid DNA conferms certain unique phenotypic characters to Bacteria i.e„ resistance to antibiotics, the plasmid DNA is used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign DNA.

Question 9.
What are histones? What are their functions?
Answer:
Histones are the proteins closely associated with DNA molecules. They are responsible for structure of chromatin and play an important role in the regulation of gene expression. Five types of histone have been identified H1, H2A, H2B, H3and H4. The other 4 types of histones associate with DNA to form Nucleosomes. They plan an instrumental role in the regulation of many important biological process involving DNA such as transcription, DNA repair & cell cycle.

Question 10.
What is cytoskeleton? What functions is it involved in?
Answer:
An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton. Eukaryotic cells contain three major components of cytoskeleton, microfilaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules. Cytoskeleton is involved in mechanical support, maintanance of cell shape, cell motility, intracellular transport, signaling across the cell and Karyokinesis.

Question 11.
What is endomembrane system? What cell organelles are not included in it? Why?
Answer:
A group of cell organelles with coordinate functions is called endomembrane system. Mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisomes are not associated with endomembrane system. Because their functions are not coordinated with the ER, Golgicomplx, lysosomes and vacuoles.

Question 12.
Distinguish between Active transport and Passive transport?
Answer:

Active transportPassive transport
1. Movement of molecules or ions across the plasma membrane by utilising ATP is called Active transport.1. Movement of molecules across the plasma membrane without utilising metabotic energy is called passive transport.
2. It is carried out against the concentration gradient.
Ex : uptake of salt by cells through solution pump.
2. It is carried out along the concentration gradient.
Ex: If the concentration of water is more outside the cell than inside, water will flow into the cell, called diffusion.

Question 13.
What are mesosomes? What do they help in?
Answer:
Extensions of the plasma membrane into the cell are called mesosomes. These extensions are in the form of vesicles, tubules and cisternae. They help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and its distribution to daughter cells, help in respiration, secretion processes to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane to absorb nutrients and enzymetic content.

Question 14.
What are nucleosomes? What are they made of?
Answer:
Under electron Microscope, chromation appears as “beads on string”. These beads are known as Nucleosomes. Atypical nucleosome contains 20,0 bp of DNA double helix wrapped around a core of histone octamer having two copies of each of four types of histone proteins viz H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. HI Histone lies outside the nucleosome core and seals the two turns of DNA by binding at the point where DNA enters and leaves the core. The DNA continues between two nucleosomes is called linker DNA.

Question 15.
How do neutral solutes move across the Plasma membrane? Can the polar molecules also move a cross it in the same way? If not then how are these transported across the membrane.
Answer:
Neutral solutes move a cross the plasma membrane by the process of simple diffusion along the concentration gradient i.e., from higher concentration to the lower concentration. Polar molecules can not pass through the non polar lipid bilayer. Beacuse they require a carriers protein of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the membrane.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 16.
Name two cell organelles that are double membrane bound. What are the .characteristics of these two organelles. State their functions and draw labelled diagrams of both.
Answer:
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are double membrane found cell organelles. Mitochondria is a rod shaped cell organelle or sausage shaped or cylindrical having a diameter of 0.2 to 1.0 mµ and length of 1.0 to 4 mµ. They are the sites of aerobic respiration and produce cellular energy in the form of ATP hence they are called “Power houses of the cell”.

Chloroplasts are lens shaped, oval, spherical or ribbon like bodies having 5-10 mp length and 2.4 mµ width. They contain enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell The Unit of Life 1

Question 17.
What are the characteristics of a prokaryotic cell?
Answer:

  1. Nuclear envelope is absent. Cell shows a single circular, supercoiled naked DNA called nucleoid.
  2. Nucleous is absent.
  3. Endomembrane system is absent.
  4. Mitochondria, plastids, lysosomes, peroxisomes and cytoskeleton are absent.
  5. Respiratory enzymes are located in cell membrane.
  6. 70 s type of ribosomes are present.
  7. Cell is surrounded by a cell wall, made up of polysaccharides, lipids and proteins.
  8. Cells divide amitotically.

Question 18.
Cell is the basic unit of life. Discuss in brief.
Answer:
Schleiden explained a large number of plants and observed that all plants are composed Of different kinds of cells which form the tissues of the plant. All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells. All cells arise from pre-existing cells. A cell is the basic unit of life. It is the smallest unit (or building block) of a living organism that is capable of life. Within cells, there are structures that work togehter to allow the cell to live. Some structures transport materials throughout the cell other structures make food and others release energy for the cell to use.

When you look at a green plant, there is a green chemical called chlorophyll. This chemical enables’ plants to use the sun’s energy to make food for themselves. This is found in the cell part called the chloroplast. The nucleus of plant cells is the control centre of the cells. It directs everything a cell’does. The cytoplasm’ is a fluid inside the cell and the cell parts float in it.

Question 19.
Both lysosomes and vacuoles are endomembrane structures, yet they differ in terms of their functions. Give a critical comment.
Answer:
Lysosomes are the membrane found vesicular structures, filled with hydrolytic enzymes capable of digesting proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. These enzymes are optimally active at the acidic pH. Under starvation, lysosomes digest cellular contents by releasing hydrylyzing enzymes and cause death of cells called acetolysis.

Vacuole is the membrane found space present in the cytoplasm, contains mainly water, metabolic bye products, excretions and other waste materials. In some plant cells, vacuolar sap contains some pigments like anthocyanin which impart colour to the plant part; The vacuole is covered by single membrane called Tonoplast. The tonoplast facilitates the transport of number of ions and other materials against concentration gradients, into the vacuole. Vacuoles play an important role in osmoregulation.

Question 20.
Briefly give the contributions of the following scientists in formulating the cell theory, a) Rudolf Virchow b) Schleiden and Schwann.
Answer:
a) Rudolf Virchow :
He first explained that cells divided and new cells are formed from pre existing cells (Orhnis cellula – e cellula). He modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann to give the cell theory a final shape cell theory states that all living organisms are composed of cells and porducts of cells. All cells arise from pre-existing cells.

b) Schleiden and Schwann :
In 1838, Mathias Schleiden, examined a large number of plants and observed that cell plants are composed of different kinds of cells which form the tissues of the plant. Theodoe Schwann (1839), a British Zoologist, studied different types of animal cells and reported that cells had a thin outer layer which is called plasma membrane. He also concluded, based on his studies ‘ on plant tissues, the presence of cell wall is a unique character of the plant cells. Based on this, Schwann proposed the hypothesis that the bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and products of cells.

Question 21.
Is extra genomic DNA present in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? If yes, indicate their location in both the types of organisms.
Answer:
Yes, Extra genome DNA is present in prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. In Prokaryotes, extra genome DNA (plasmid) is present along with Nucleoid and floats freely with in the cytoplasm. In Eukaryotes well defined nucleus is present with specific number of chromosomes. But a extra genome DNA is present in cell organelles like Mitochondria and chloroplast. These two organelles are believed to have originally been independent prokaryotes.

Question 22.
Structure and function are correlatabie in living organisms. Can you justify this by taking plasma membrane as an example?
Answer:
Plasma membrane is made up of bilayered lipids. Later biochemical investigations clearly revealed that the plasma membrane also possess protein and carbohydrate. The lipid component of the membrane is phosphoglycerides. The proteins present in the membrane are integral or peripheral type. Integral proteins are burried in the membrane. Peripheral proteins are on the surface of the membrane. Plasma membrane play an important role in transport of the molecules into and out of cells. This membrane is selectively permeable to some molecules present on either side of it. Many molecules can move freely across the membrane without utilising energy is called passive transport of ions.

As the polar molecules cannot pass through non-polar lipid bilayer, they require carrier protein of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the membrane against concentration gradient i.e, from lower to higher concentration. Such a transport by utilising energy is called active transport of ions.
Ex : Na+/K+ Pump.

Question 23.
Discuss briefly the role of nucleolus in the cells actively involved in protein synthesis.
Answer:
The nucleoplasm contains nucleous and chromatin material. The nucledi are spherical structures, involved in the synthesis of ribosomal RNA. Longer and more numerous nucledi are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis. The nucleous develops from the secondary constriction of a specialized chromosome known as the “nucleolar organiser”. The nucleolus consists of RNA, protein and small amount of DNA. It disappears during the end of prophase and reappears at the end of Telophase. It is also called Plasmosome or ‘Ribosomal factory1. –

Question 24.
Explain the association of Carbohydrate to the plasma membrane and its significance.
Answer:
Plasma membrane is made up of lipids and proteins. Later, biochemicals investigations clearly revealed that the cell membrance also possess protein and carbohydrate. They are present s short, unfranched or branched chains of sugars (oligosaccharides) attached either to exterior ectoproteins or the polar ends of phospholipids at the external surface of the plasma membrane. All types of oligosaccharides of the plasma membrane are formed by various combinations of six principle sugars like D-galactose, D-mannose, L-fructose, N-acetyl neuramic acid (sialic acid), N-acetyl D-glucosamine and N-acetyl – D – gaiactosamine.

Significance :

  1. Glycophorins are found to contain certain antigenic determinants for the ABO Blood groups and MN flood groups.
  2. Sialic acid contents a high negative change to the cell surface of erythrocyte.

Question 25.
Multicellular organisms have division of labour. Explain.
Answer:
Multicellular organisms are made up of millions and trillions of cells. All these cells perform specific functions. All the cells specialised for performing similar functions are grouped together as tissues in the body. Hence a particular function is carried out by a group of cells at a definite plae in the body. Similarly different functions are carried out by different groups of cells in an organism. By dividing labour, multicelled organisms are able to complete more complex tasks.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 26.
What are nuclear pores? State their function.
Answer:
The nuclear membrane is interupted by a minute pores. Which are formed by the fusion of its two membranes. These pores are called Nuclear pores. These regulate the transportation of molecular, between the nucleus and cytoplasm. In eukaryotic cells, the nucleus is separated from the cytoplasm by nuclear envelope. The envelope safeguards the DNA contained in the nucleus. Inspite of this barrier, there is still communication between the nucleus and cytoplasm by nuclear pores.

Each nuclear pore is a large complex of proteins that allows small molecules and ions to freely pass of diffuse into or out of the nucleus. Nuclear pores also allow necessary proteins to enter the nucleus from the cytoplasm ; if the proteins have special sequences that indicate, they belong to the nucleus. These sequences tags are known as nuclear localization signals. Similarly RNA transcribed in the nucleus and proteins are destined to enter the cytoplasm have nuclear export sequences that tag them for release through the nuclear pores.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What structural and functional attributes must a cell have to be called a living cell?
Answer:
All living organisms are made up of cells and product of cells. Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organism. Each cell have different organelles and perform different functions.

  1. Cells obey laws of energetics i.e., they transform energy.
  2. Cells highly structured with emergent properties.
  3. Cells have an evolutionary origin.
  4. Cells metabolize means possess metabolic pathways, process nutrients, self adjust to environment.
  5. Cells self replicate – nucleic acids, ribosomes.
  6. Cells osmoregulate – vacuoles, vesicles.
  7. Cells communicate – Glycoproteins.
  8. Cells shows animation Cyclosis.
  9. Cell grow, divide and differentiate.
  10. Cells die.

Question 2.
Eukaryotic cells have organelles which may
a) Not be bound by a membrane
b) Bound by a single membrane
c) Bound by a double membrane.
Give the various sub-cellular organelles into these three categories.
Answer:
a) Not be bound by a membrane : Nucleolus
b) Bound by a single membrane : Lysosomes, vacuoles.
c) Bound by a double membrane : Mitochondria, chloroplast, nucleus..

Question 3.
The genomic content of the nucleus is constant for a given species where as the extra chromosomal DNA is found to be variable among the members of a population. Explain.
Answer:
In Prokaryotes (Bacteria) in addition to the genomic DNA, small circular DNA molecules are present in the cytoplasm. These small DNA molecules are called plasmids. They confers unique phenotypic character to such bacteria (i.e.,) resistance to antibiotics. It is also used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign DNA.

In Eukaryotes, extra DNA molecules are present both in chloroplast (stroma) and mitochondria (matrix). Because of the presence of this DNA molecules, they are treated as self – autonomous cell organelles.

Question 4.
Justify the statement. “Mitochondria are power houses of the cell.
Answer:
Mitochondria is sausage – shaped or cylindrical structure having a diameter of 0.2 to 1.0 µm and length 1.0 to 4.1 µm. Each mitochondrion is a double membrane bound structure with outer membrane and inner membrane dividing its lumen distinctly into two aqueous compartments. The inner compartment is called the matrix. The outer membrane forms the continuous limiting boundary of the organelle. The inner membrane forms a number of infoldings called the cristae towards the matrix.

The cristae increase the surface area. The mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration. They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP, hence they are called “power houses” of the cell. The matrix also possesses a single circular DNA molecule, a few RNA molecules, ribosomes (70s) and the compartments required for the synthesis of proteins.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell The Unit of Life 3

Question 5.
Is there a species specific or region specific type of plastids? How does on distinguish one from the other?
Answer:
Plastids are species specific and are found in all plant cells and in euglenoides. They bear some specific pigments thus imparting specific colours to the part of the plant which posseses them. Based on the type of pigments, plastids are classified into three types. They are Leucoplasts, Chromoplasts, Chloroplasts.

Leucoplasts :
They are the colourless plastids which store food materials. Based on the storage product, they are of 3 types namely Amyloplasts (store starch), elaioplasts (store oils) and aleuroplasts (store proteins).

Chromoplasts :
They are coloured pigments which were in yellow, orange or red in colour. In these plastids, fat soluble carotenoids like carotene and xanthophylls are present which imparts orange, red or yellow colour.

Chlorplasts :
These are green coloured plastids which help in synthesis of food materials by photosynthesis. They contain chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments which trap light energy. Each chloroplast is a oval or spherical, double membrane bound cell organelle. The space present inner to inner membrane is called stroma. A number of organised flattened membranas sacs called thyloukoids are present in the stroma.

Thylakoids are arranged in stacks like the piles of coins called grana. The thylakoids of the different grana are connected by membranous tubules called the stroma lamellae. The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes required for the syntheis of carbohydrates and proteins.

Question 6.
Write the functions of the following.
a) Centromere b) Cell wall c) Smooth ER d) Golgi complex e) Centrioles
Answer:
a) Centromere :
It is required for proper chromosome seggregation. The centromere keeps the two sister chromatids together. It is also where the chromosomes attaches to the spindle apparatus during Mitosis and Meiosis.

b) Cell wall:
It gives a definite shape to the cell and protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection. It also helps in cell-to-cell interaction and acts as a barrier to undesirable macromolecules.

c) Smooth ER :
It helps in synthesis of lipids, metabolism of carbohydrates and calcium concentration, drug detoxification and attachment of receptors on cell membrane proteins. The smooth ER also contains the enzyme Glucose – 6 – Phosphatase which converts Glucose – 6 – Phosphate to Glucose.

d) Golgi complex :
It is the important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids. It is also involved in the synthesis of cell wall materials and also plays a main role in the formation of cell plate during cell division.

e) Centrioles :
They form the basal body of cilia and flagella and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal cells.

Question 7.
Are the different types of plastids interchangeable? If yes, give examples where they are getting converted from one type to another.
Answer:
Yes. Plastids are inter changeable in form. Generally three types of plastids are present in plant cells namely, leucoplasts (storage), chromoplasts (coloured, attraction) and chloroplasts (synthesis of food). Chromoplasts are coloured plastids (orange, yellow or red), occurs in the cells of petals, fruits etc.

They contain less chlorophylls.and more carotenes (orange) or (red) and xanthophylls (yellow). The red colour of tomato is due to the presence of lycopene in the chromoplasts. The chromoplasts of red algae contain phycocyanin and phycoerythrin. The chromoplasts of Brown algae contain fucoxanthin.

Depending upon circumstances, one type of plastid may be converted into another type.
For Ex :

  1. The leucoplasts in stem tubers of potato, on exposure to sunlight transofrm into chloroplasts.
  2. In capsicum, the cells of ovary consists of leucoplasts. When ovary changes into fruit, leucoplasts are transformed into chloroplasts. When the fruit ripens chloroplasts are changed into chromoplasts.

Question 8.
Describe the structure of the following with the help of labelled diagrams.
i) Nucleus ii) Centrosome.
Answer:
i) Nucleus :
It was first discovered by Robert Brown. Later the material of the nucleus stained by the basic dyes was given the name chromatin by Flemming. The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin, nuclear matrix and one or two nucleoli. Electron micrsocopy has revealed that the nucleus is covered by double layered nuclear envelope, with a space between called perinuclear space, forms a barrier between materials present inside the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell The Unit of Life 2

The outer nuclear envelope remains continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum and also bears ribosomes. At a number of places, the nuclear envelope is interrupted by nuclear pores, which allows the passage of RNA and protein molecules in both directions between the nucleus and cytoplasm. The nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin. The nucleoli and spherical structures, involved in active ribosomal RNA synthesis. The chromatin, in different stages of cell division, become chromosomes. They contain DNA and some basic proteins called histones and also RNA. Nucleus plays an important role in biogensis of ribosomes. It plays a significant role in mitosis.

ii) Centrosome :
Centrosome is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structures called centrioles. They are surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar materials. Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other in which each has an organisation like cartwheel. They are made up of nine evenly spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin. Each of the peripheral fibril is a triplet. The adjacent triplets are also linked. The central part of the centriol is also proteinaceous and called the ‘hub’, which is connected with tubules of the peripheral triplets by radial spokes made of protein. The centrioles form the basal body of cilia and flagella and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell divirsion in animal cells.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell The Unit of Life 4

Question 9.
What is a centromere? How does the position of centromere form the basis of classification of chromosomes. Support your answer with a diagram showing the position of centromere on different types of chromosomes.
Answer:
Centromere is the region of chromosome that becomes attached to spindle fibres. Special proteins surrounded the centromere. They form a disc shaped structures called kinetochores.

Each chromosome shows centromere at a specific position. Basing on the position of centromere, four types of chromosomes are recognised. They are :
1) Metacentric :
“If the centromere is situated at mid point of a choromosome”. It is “V” shaped and consists of two equal arms.

2) Sub-metacentric :
“If the centromere is situated slightly away from mid point of a chromosome”. It is ‘L’ shaped. It consists of two unequal arms.

C) Acrocentric :
If the centromere is situated at the sub terminal position of a chromosome. It is rod shaped or “J” shaped. It consists of very long arm and a very small arm.

D) Telocentric :
“If the centromere is situated at the terminal position of a chromosome”. It is “i” shaped and has only one arm.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell The Unit of Life 5

Intext Questions

Question 1.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention the functions that it performs.
Answer:
Extensions of plasma membrane into the cell in the form of vesicles, tubules and lamellae are called mesosomes. They help in cell wall formation, DNA Replication and its distribution to daughter cells, in respiration, secretion and to increase the surface area of plasma membrane (absorption of nutrients) and enzymatic content.

Question 2.
How do neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecules also move across it in the same way? If not, then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane by the process of simple diffusion along the concentration gradient. Polar molecules cannot pass through the non polar lipid bilayer, they require a carrier protein of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the membrane.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 3.
Name the two cell-organelles that are double membrane bound. What are the characteristics of these two organelles? State their functions and draw labelled diagrams of both.
Answer:
Chloroplast and Mitochondria.

  1. Chlorplast is a lens shaped, oval or spherical or even ribbon like organelle, involves in photosynthesis.
  2. Mitochondria is a sausage shaped or cylindrical cell organelle, involved in Respiration.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell The Unit of Life 1

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of prokaryotic cells.
Answer:
i) Nuclear envelope is absent. Cell shows a single circular, supercoiled naked DNA called nucleoid.
ii) Nucleous is absent.
iii) Endomembrane system is absent.
iv) Mitochondria, plastids, lysosomes, peroxisomes and cytoskeleton are absent.
v) Respiratory enzymes are located in cell membrane.
vi) 70 s type of ribosomes are present.
vii) Cell is surrounded by a cell wall, made up of polysaccharides, lipids and proteins.
viii) Cells divide amitotically.

Question 5.
Multicellular organisms have division of labour. Explain.
Answer:
Multicellular organisms are made up of millions and trillions of cells. All these cells perform specific functions. All the cells specialised for performing similar functions are grouped together as tissues in the body. Hence a particular function is carried out by a group of cells at a definite plae in the body. Similarly different functions are carried out by different groups of cells in an organism. By dividing labour, multicelled organisms are able to complete more complex tasks.

Question 6.
Cell is the basic unit of life. Discuss in brief.
Answer:
Schleiden explained a large number of plants and observed that all plants are composed Of different kinds of cells which form the tissues of the plant. All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells. All cells arise from pre-existing cells. A cell is the basic unit of life. It is the smallest unit (or building block) of a living organism that is capable of life. Within cells, there are structures that work togehter to allow the cell to live. Some structures transport materials throughout the cell other structures make food and others release energy for the cell to use.

Question 7.
What are nuclear pores ? State their function.
Answer:
The nuclear membrane is interupted by a minute pores. Which are formed by the fusion of its two membranes. These pores are called Nuclear pores. These regulate the transportation of molecular, between the nucleus and cytoplasm. In eukaryotic cells, the nucleus is separated from the cytoplasm by nuclear envelope. The envelope safeguards the DNA contained in the nucleus. Inspite of this barrier, there is still communication between the nucleus and cytoplasm by nuclear pores.

Each nuclear pore is a large complex of proteins that allows small molecules and ions to freely pass of diffuse into or out of the nucleus. Nuclear pores also allow necessary proteins to enter the nucleus from the cytoplasm ; if the proteins have special sequences that indicate, they belong to the nucleus. These sequences tags are known as nuclear localization signals. Similarly RNA transcribed in the nucleus and proteins are destined to enter the cytoplasm have nuclear export sequences that tag them for release through the nuclear pores.

Question 8.
Both lysosomes and vacuoles are endomembrane structures, yet they differ in terms of their functions. Comment.
Answer:
Lysosomes are the membrane found vesicular structures, filled with hydrolytic enzymes capable of digesting proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. These enzymes are optimally active at the acidic pH. Under starvation, lysosomes digest cellular contents by releasing hydrylyzing enzymes and cause death of cells called acetolysis.

Vacuole is the membrane found space present in the cytoplasm, contains mainly water, metabolic bye products, excretions and other waste materials. In some plant cells, vacuolar sap contains some pigments like anthocyanin which impart colour to the plant part; The vacuole is covered by single membrane called Tonoplast. The tonoplast facilitates the transport of number of ions and other materials against concentration gradients, into the vacuole. Vacuoles play an important role in osmoregulation.

Question 9.
Describe the structure of the following with the help of labelled diagrams.
(i) Nucleus (ii) Centrosome
Answer:
i) Nucleus :
It was first discovered by Robert Brown. Later the material of the nucleus stained by the basic dyes was given the name chromatin by Flemming. The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin, nuclear matrix and one or two nucleoli. Electron micrsocopy has revealed that the nucleus is covered by double layered nuclear envelope, with a space between called perinuclear space, forms a barrier between materials present inside the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

The outer nuclear envelope remains continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum and also bears ribosomes. At a number of places, the nuclear envelope is interrupted by nuclear pores, which allows the passage of RNA and protein molecules in both directions between the nucleus and cytoplasm. The nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin. The nucleoli and spherical structures, involved in active ribosomal RNA synthesis. The chromatin, in different stages of cell division, become chromosomes. They contain DNA and some basic proteins called histones and also RNA. Nucleus plays an important role in biogensis of ribosomes. It plays a significant role in mitosis.

ii) Centrosome :
Centrosome is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structures called centrioles. They are surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar materials. Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other in which each has an organisation like cartwheel. They are made up of nine evenly spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin. Each of the peripheral fibril is a triplet. The adjacent triplets are also linked. The central part of the centriol is also proteinaceous and called the ‘hub’, which is connected with tubules of the peripheral triplets by radial spokes made of protein. The centrioles form the basal body of cilia and flagella and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell divirsion in animal cells.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 9 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 10.
What is a centromere? How does the position of centromere form the basis of classification of chromosomes. Support your answer with a diagram showing the position of centromere on different types of chromosomes.
Answer:
Centromere is the region of chromosome that becomes attached to spindle fibres. Special proteins surrounded the centromere. They form a disc shaped structures called kinetochores.

Each chromosome shows centromere at a specific position. Basing on the position of centromere, four types of chromosomes are recognised. They are :
1) Metacentric :
“If the centromere is situated at mid point of a choromosome”. It is “V” shaped and consists of two equal arms.

2) Sub-metacentric :
“If the centromere is situated slightly away from mid point of a chromosome”. It is ‘L’ shaped. It consists of two unequal arms.

C) Acrocentric :
If the centromere is situated at the sub terminal position of a chromosome. It is rod shaped or “J” shaped. It consists of very long arm and a very small arm.

D) Telocentric :
“If the centromere is situated at the terminal position of a chromosome”. It is “i” shaped and has only one arm.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 8th Lesson Taxonomy of Angiosperms Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 8th Lesson Taxonomy of Angiosperms

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is ‘Omega Taxonomy’?
Answer:
Omega Taxonomy is the Taxonomy based on information from other branches i.e., Embryology, Cytology, Palynology, Phytochemistry, Serology etc., along with Morphological characters.

Question 2.
What is the Natural system of plant classification? Name the scientists who followed it.
Answer:
Plants are classified on the basis of all possible Morphological characters is called the Natural system of classification. It was proposed by ‘Bentham’ and ‘Hooker’.

Question 3.
Explain the scope and significance of ‘Numerical Taxonomy’.
Answer:
Numerical Taxonomy is a branch of taxonomy that use mathematical methods to evaluate observable differences and similarities between taxonomic groups. In this, number and codes are assigned to all the characters and the data are then processed. Each character is given equal importance and at the same time hundreds of charactes can be considered.

Question 4.
What is geocarpy? Name the plant which exhibits this phenomenon.
Answer:
Geocarpy is the development of fruits inside the soil. It is seen in Arachis (ground nut).

Question 5.
Name the type of pollination mechanism found in members of Fabaceae.
Answer:
‘Piston Mechanism’.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms

Question 6.
Write the floral formula of solanum plant.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 1

Question 7.
Give the technical description of ovary in solanum nigrum.
Answer:
Bicarpellarly, Syncarpous, bilocular,superior ovary with many ovules on swollen axile placentation. Carpels are arranged obliquely at 45°.

Question 8.
Give the technical description of anther of Allium cepa.
Answer:
In Allium cepa. Anthers are dithecs, basifixed, Introrse and dehisce longitudinally.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a brief note on semi technical description of a typical flowering plant.
Answer:
The plant is described beginning with its habit, habitat, vegetative characters (root, stem, leaves) and floral characters (inflorescence, flower and its parts) followed by fruit. Then floral diagram and a floral formula are presented. In floral formula, Br stands for bracteate (bracts are present), Ebr stands for ebracteate (bracts are absent). Brl stands for bracteolate (bracteoles are present), Ebrl stands for ebracteolates
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 2

Floral formula also indicates the number of free or united (within brackets) numbers Of the each whorl and also show cohesion or adhesion of stamens. Floral diagram provides information about the number of parts of a flower, their arrangement and the relation they have with one another. The mother axis represents the posterior side of the flower indicates as a dot or circle at the top of the floral diagram. K, C, A and G are drawn in successive whorls. The bract represents the anterior side of the flower and is indicated at the bottom of the floral diagram.

Question 2.
Describe the non-essential floral parts of plants belonging to Fabaceae.
Answer:
In Fabaceae, non-essential floral parts are Calyx and Corolla.

Calyx :
Sepals 5, gamosepalous, imbricate aestivation, odd sepal anterior.

Corolla :
Petals 5, polypetalous, papilionaceous type consists of a large posterior petal (standard) two laterals (wings). Two anterior fused petals (keel) enclosing essential organs. They show vexillary/descendingly imbricate aestivation.

Question 3.
Give an account of floral diagram.
Answer:
A floral diagram representing the number of parts of flower, the structure, arrangement, aestivation, cohesion and adhesion of stamens and position with respect to mother axis. The mother axis represents the posterior side of the flower and is indicated as dot at the top of the floral diagram. K, C, A, G are drawn in successive whorls. Calyx being the outermost and the gynoecium being the centre represented by T.S. of ovary. The bract represents the anterior side of the flower and is indicated at the bottom of the floral diagram.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 3

Question 4.
Describe the essential floral parts of plants belonging to Lilliaceae.
Answer:
The essential floral parts of Lilliaceae are Androecium and Gynoecium.
Androecium :
Six stamens in two whorls, free or Epipyllous, anthers are Dithecus Basifixed, Introrse and dehisce longitudinally.

Gynoecium :
Tricarpellary, Syncarpous, trilocular superior ovary with many ovules on axile placentation. Style is terminal and stigma is trifid and capitate.

Question 5.
Write a brief account on the class of Dicotyledanae of Bentham and Hooker’s classification.
Answer:
In Bentham and Hookers classification, the class Dicotyledonae was divided into three sub classes namely Polypetalae, Gamopetalae and Monochlamydae. Polypetalae, sub class is divided into three series namely Thalamiflorae (6 orders), disciflorae (4 orders) and Calyciflorae (5 orders). Gamopetalae, sub class is divided into three series namely Inferae (3 orders), Heteromerae (3 orders) and Bicarpellatae (4 orders). Monochlamydae was divided into eight series.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms

Question 6.
Explain floral formula.
Answer:
The floral formula is represented by some symbols of floral parts. In it, Br stands for bracteate (bracts are present), Ebr stands for ebracteate, (bracts are absent), Brl stands for bracteolate (bracteoles are present).

Ebrl stands for ebracteolates (bracteoles are absent).
⊕ stands for actinomorphic flower,
% stands for zygomorphic flower.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 4
ovary. Floral formula also indicates the number of free or united members of the corresponding whorls. It also shows cohesion or adhesion of stamens.

Question 7.
Give economic importance of plants belonging to Fabaceae.
Answer:
Economic importance :

  1. Pulses like red gram (Cajanus cajan), black gram (Phaseolus mungo), green gram (Phaseolus aureus), Bengal gram (Cicer aritetinum) are a rich source of proteins.
  2. Pods of Dolichos, Glycine are used as vegetables.
  3. Seeds of Pisurn and Arachis are edible.
  4. Groundnut oil from Arachis hypogea seeds and soyabean oil from seeds of Glycine max are used in cooking.
  5. The oil cake from Arachis hypogea is used as fodder.
  6. The oil from the seeds of Derris indica is used in the making of medicines.
  7. Goldsmiths use the seeds of Abrus precatorius for weighting.
  8. Several crops are used in crop rotation due to their nitrogen fixing ability.
  9. Seeds of Trigonella are used as condiment and medicine. The leaves are used as vegetable.
  10. Sesbania andTephrosia are used as green manure.
  11. Crotalaria and Phaseolus are used as fodder.
  12. Fibre from Crotalaria is used in making ropes.
  13. Indigofera yields blue dye, which is used as a fabric whitener.
  14. Wood from pterocarpus is used for making musical instruments.
  15. Wood from Da/zberg/a is used for making furniture.

Question 8.
Describe the essential organs of Solanaceae.
Answer:
Androecium :
There are five epipetalous stamens alternating witht he petals and are free. Anthers are dithecous, basifixed and introse. The dehiscence may be longitudinal (Datura) or Porous (So/anum).

Gynoecium :
The ovary is superior, bicarpellary and syncarpous. It is oblique in position and anterior carpel to the left at an angle of 45°. Usually bilocular occassionally unilocular (Capsicum). There are numerous anatropous ovules arranged on axile placeritation on swollen placenta. The style is terminal and stigma is capitate,

Long Answer type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the characteristics of plants belonging to Fabaceae.
Answer:
VEGETATIVE CHARACTERISTICS :
Habitat:
Most of the members of this family are mesophytes.

Habit :
The plants are annual herbs, some are shrubs, some others are trees. Some are weak stemmed that climb as twiners (Dolichos) or with tendrils (Pisum).

Root System :
It is tap root system. The roots bear root nodules in which the symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria. Rhizobia are present.

Stem :
It is aerial, erect, herbaceous or woody. In some plants stem is weak and prostrate or twinner (Dolichos) or a tendril Climber (Pisum, Lathyrus).

Leaf:
Leaves are cauline, alternate, stipulate, petiolate and dorsiventral. The leaf base is pulvinous. They are simple or pinnately compound, the entire leaf except stipules in Lathyrus and terminal leaflets in Pisum are modified into tendrils. In ulex, the leaflets are modified into spines. Venation is Reticulate.

Floral characteristics :
Inflorescence :
It is usually an axillary or terminal raceme (Crotalaria).

Flower :
Flowers are bracteate, bracteoles may be present or absent, pedicellate, complete, zygomorphic, bisexual, pentamerous and perigynous. The thalamus is cup shaped.

Calyx :
There are five sepals which are fused. The aestivation is valvate. The odd sepal is anterior in position.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 5

Corolla :
It consists of five petals which are free (Polypetalous). The corolla is papilionaceous. The posterior petal is largest and is called ‘Standard petal or Vexillum’. The two lateral petals are called ‘Wings or Alae’. The two boat shaped petals are called ‘Keel or Carina’. These are fused and encloses the essential organs. The aestivation is ‘descendingly imbricate’.

Androecium :
It consists of 10 stamens occasionally there may be only 9 stamens (Abrus, Datbargis). Usually the filaments of the stamens unite to form two bundles of 9 + 1 (Diadelphous) as in Dofichos, Tephrosia, Pisum etc., or a single bundle (Monadelphous) as in Crotalaria, Arachis etc. Anthers are dithecous, introrse and dehisce longitudinally.

Gynoecium :
It consists of monocarpellary, unilocular, half-inferior ovary. Usually many pendulous ovules are arranged in two vertical rows on marginal placentation. Style is long and curved at the apex. Stigma is capitate.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 6

Pollination :
As flowers are protandrous, usually cross pollination occurs. In lathyrus andpisum, there is self pollination.

Fruit:
Mostly the fruit is a legume or pod (Pisum, Cajanus, Dolichos). In pterocarpus and Dalbergia it is a samara while in Arachis the pods are indehiscent and geocarpic.

Seed :
It is non-endospermic and dicotyledonous. The cotyledons store proteins in large quantities.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms

Question 2.
Write about the key characteristics of Solanaceae.
Answer:
VEGETATIVE CHARACTERS :

Habitat :
These plants are mostly mesophytes. A few are xerophytes. (Solarium surattense).

Habit :
Mostly annual or perennial herbs. Some are shrubs (Oestrum sps).

Root system :
Tap root system.

Stem :
It is aerial, erect and mostly herbaceous. Stem is an underground tuber in Solanum tuberosum (potato). Bicollateral vascular bundles are present in the stem.

Leaf :
Leaves are exstipulate, petiolate and show alternate phyllotaxy. They are usually or pinnately lobed. Venation is reticulate.

FLORAL CHARACTERS :
Inflorescence :
It is usually cymose type. It may be terminal or axillary in position. In some species of Solarium, it is an axillary. In Datura, it is solitary and terminal, panicle in tobacco.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 7

Flower :
The flowers are bracteate or ebracteate, ebracteolate, pedicellate, actinomorphic, complete, bisexual, pentamerous and hypogynous.

Calyx :
It consists of 5 speals which are fused (gamosepalous) and persistent (Capsicum, Solatium). The aestivation is valvate.

Corolla :
The corolla consists of 5 petals and is gamopetalous. The aestivation is valvate or twisted. (Datura)

Androecium :
There are five epipetalous stamens alternating with the petals and are free. Anthers are dithecous, basifixed and introse. The dehiscence may be longitudinal (Datura) or porous (So/anum).

Gynoecium :
The ovary is superior, bicarpellary and syncarpous. It is oblique in position due to the tilting of posterior carpel to the right and anterior carpel to the left at an angle of 45°. Usually bilocular occasionally unilocular (Capsicum). There are numerous anatropous ovules arranged on axile placentation on swollen placenta. The style is terminal and stigma is capitate.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 8

Pollination :
Flowers are usually protandrous. Some species of So/anum are protogynous. Cross pollination through insects (entomophily) is common.

Fruit:
The fruit is mostly berry (Capsicum, Solatium, Lycopersicon, Physalis etc.). It is septifragal capsule in Datura and Nicotiana.

Seeds :
The seeds are endospermic and dicotyledonous.

Question 3.
Give an account of the family Liliaceae.
Answer:
VEGETATIVE CHARACTERS :
Habitat:
Plants may be mesophytes (Allium, Ulium) as well as xerophytes (Asparagus, Ruscus, Aloe) are found in this family.

Habit :
Plants are mostly perennial herbs. In some plants like Dracaena, Yucca, Aloe etc., Shrubs or trees are also found. Few are climbers (Gloriosa, Smilax).

Root system :
It is adventitious root system. In Asparagus fasciculated tuberous roots are present.

Stem :
In majority of the species the stem is underground and perennial. It may be a bulb (Sci/la, Allium, Ulium), a Rhizome (Gloriosa) or a corm (Colchicum). The aerial stem is weak in tendril climbers like Gloriosa, Smilax etc. Stem is aerial and shows anomalous secondary growth in Dracaena and Yucca. Branches are modified into cladophyllus (Asperagus, Ruscus).

Leaf:
The leaves may be radical (Allium; Ulium) or cauline (Smilax, Gloriosa). Alternat phyllotaxy is common. Leaves are petiolate, simple stipulate or exstipulate.Venation is usually parallel, but exceptionally reticulate in Smilax. Leaves are succulent in yucca and Aloe.

FLORAL CHARACTERS :

Inflorescence : Solitary cyme or umbel or raceme.
Flower :
The flowrs are usually bracteate, ebracteolate, pedicellate, actinomorphic, complete. Bisexual, homochlamydeous, trimerous and hypogynous. Exceptionally flowers are unisexual in Smilax and Ruscus.

Perianth :
It consists of six tepals arranged in two whorls of three each. The odd tepal is anterior in position. The aestivation is valvate.

Androecium :
Stamens are six, arranged intwo whorls of three each. Epiphyllous (Asparagus). Anthers are dithecous, basifixed, introrse and dehiscence is longitudinal.

Gynoecium :
It is tricarpellary and syncarpous. The oary is superior and trilocular with several anatropous ovules on axile placentation. The style is terminal and stigma is trifid and capitate.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 9

Pollination :
It is of entomophilous type. Flowers may be protandrous (Allium) or protogynous (Colchicum) in Glorisa flowers show herkogamy.

Fruit:
It may be a berry (Asparagusr, Smilax) or loculicidal capsule (Lilium) or septicidal capsule (Gloriosa).

Seed :
It is endospermic with straight or sometimes curved embryo and monocotyledonous. Polyembryony is seen in some memebrs (Allium).
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 10

Question 4.
Write the characteristics of plants that are necessary for classification. Describe them in brief.
Answer:
VEGETATIVE CHARACTERS :
Habit:
Herbs (Plants grow to a height of 1 – 3 feet)

Shrubs (Plants which grow in the form of a bush)
Trees (Plants with erect, woody branched or unbranched)
Habitat : Hydrophytes : (Plants which grow in water)
Mesophytes : (Plants which grow in Moderate climatic conditions)
Xerophytes : (Plants which grow in dry areas)
Root system : Taproot system : (The main root called Tap root, which inturn forms lateral roots and Root lets).
Ex : Dicots.
Fibrous Root system : (Cluster of roots which arise from the base of the stem)
Ex : Monocots.

Stem :
Aerial (which grows aerially) or underground (which grows into the soil), erect (Stands in upright position) or creeping (which grows on the soil Horizontally) Tendril climbers (Climbing with the help of Tendrils) Stragglers (Woody plants that climb up with the help of Hooks or thorns) Lianes (Large woody perennial twinners) Branched (Stem with Branches) or unbranched (stem without Branches) green or Brown or black in colour.

Leaf : Leaf Base :
Pulvinous (Swollen) or sheathing (Broad and surround the stem as envelope).
Stipules : Stipulate (Leaf with stipules)
Exstipulate (Leaf without stipules).

Petiole : Petiolate (Leaf with petiole)
Sessile (Leaf without petiole).

Lamina :
Shape – Ovate (oval) or Linear (Long and slightly Broader) Reniform (Kidney shaped) Cordate (Heart Shaped) Centric (hollow).

Venation :
Reticulate (Midrib, Laterial veins and veinlats are arranged in the form of net like).

Parallel :
(Mid rib produce lateral veins and veinlets arranged parallely).

Kind :
Simple (Leaf with undivided Lamina) .
Compound (Lamina is divided into leaflets).

Phyllotaxy :
Alternate (only one leaf arises at a node)
Opposite (Two leaves arises at each node)
Whorled (More than 2 leaves arises at each node).

FLORAL CHARACTERS :
Inflorescence : Racemose (Peduncle is long)
Cymose (Peduncle is short) ‘
Special (Verticillester or Hypanthodium or Cyathium).

Flower : Bracteate (The flower with Bracts)
Ebracteate (The flower without Bracts)
Bracteolate (The flower with Bracteoles)
Ebracteolate (The flower without Bracteoles)
Pedicillate (The flower with Pedicel)
Sessile (The flower without Pedicel)
Complete (The flower with all four floral parts)
Incomplete (The flower without an any one of the floral parts).

Arrangement of Floral parts Acyclic : The floral parts are spirally arranged.

Cyclic : The floral parts are arranged in whorls.
Hemicyclic : K & C are in whorls and A & G are in spiral Manner).
Sex : Bisexual : The flower with both sex organs.
Unisexual: The flower with any one of the sex organs.

Gynoecium Position : Hypogynous : The flower with superior ovary.
Epigynous : The flower with Inferior ovary.
Perigynous : The flower with Half superior ovary.
Merosity : Trimerous : Three parts in each whorl
Tetramerous : Four parts in each whorl.
Pentamerous : Five parts in each whorl.

Symmetry :
Actinomorphic: A flower can be cut into two equal halves in any vertical plane.

Zygmorphic :
A flower can be cut into two equal halves in one vertical plane.

Calyx :
Number of sepals 3 or 4 or 5, polysepalous (free) or gamo$epalous (fused) valvate (arranged in a whorl) or twristed Aestivation (arranged in one whole with one margin Inside and one margin outside). Imbricate Aestivation (arranged with overlapping pattern).

Corolla :
Number of petals, polypetalous (free) or gamopetalous (fused), Aestivation (valvate or Twisted or Imbricate).

Androecium :
Number of stamens 4 or 5 or 10 or many.
Monadelphous : All are in one Bundle
Diadelphous : All are in two Bundles
Polyadelphous : All are in. more than two Bundles.
dithrecous : Anther with two Theca.
Monothecous : Anther with one Theca.
Basifixed ; Filament gets attached to the Base of the Anther.
Dorsifixed : Filament gets attached to the Dorsal side of the anther.

Dehiscence : Longitudinal (Breaks vertically)
Transverse (Breaks Transversely)
Porous (Pollengrains are released through Apical pore).

Gynoecium :
Monocarpellary – The ovary with one carpel.
Bicarpellary – The ovary with Two carpels.
Tricarpellary – The ovary with Three carpels.
Tetracarpellary – The ovary with Four carpels.
Pentacarpellary – The ovary with Five carpels. .
Multicarpellary – The ovary with more than five carpels.
Syncarpous : All the carpels are fused.
Apocarpous : All the carpels are free.
Superior ovary : K, C, A develops from the base of the ovary.
Interior ovary : K, C, A develops from the upper part of the ovary.
Half superior ovary : K, C, A develops from the centre (Half) of the ovary.

Placentation :
Marginal (Ovules are arranged on Placenta present along the margins).
Axile (Ovules are arranged on the centre)
Basal (Ovules are arranged at the Base of the ovary).

Style : Terminal (develops above the ovary)
Laferal (develops from the latual side).

Stigma : Capitate (Round) Bifid (divided Hairy (with hairs).

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms

Question 5.
Describe typical flowering plant in the taxonomic perspective.
Answer:
The plant is described beginning with vegetative characters like Habit (Herb or Shrub or Tree or Climber), Habitat (Hydrophyte, Mesophyte or Xerophyte), roots (Taproot or Fibrous root). Stem (aerial, erect, herbacious or woody), leaves (Simple or Compound, Reticulate or Parallel venation stipulate or exstipulate, Alternate or opposite or cyclic phyllotaxy) and then floral characters. Inflorescence (Recemose or Cymose) Flower and its floral parts followed fruit. After this, a floral diagram and floral flormula, are presented.

The floral formula is represented by some symbols of floral parts. In it, Br stands for Bracteate (Bracts are present). Ebr stands for Ebracteate (Bracts are absent) Brl stands for Bracteolate (Bracteoles are present). Ebrl stands for Ebrapteolates (Bracteoles are absent).
⊕ stands for Actinomorphic flower,
% stands for Zygomorphic flower.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 11
for inferior ovary. Floral formula also indicates the number of free or united members of the corresponding whorls. It also shows cohesion or Adhesion of stamens.

A floral diagram representing the number of parts of flower, the structure, arrangement, aestivation, cohesion and adhesion of stamens and position with respect to mother axis. The mother axis represents the posterior side of the flower and is indicated as dot at the top of the floral diagram. K, C, A, G are drawn in successive whorls. Calyx being the outermost and the gynoecium being the centre represented by T.S. of ovary. The bract represents the anterior side of the flower and is indicated at the bottom of the floral diagram.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms 3

Question 6.
Give an account of Bentham and Hooker’s classification of plants.
Answer:
Bentham and Hooker divided the flowering plants into three classes namely Dicotyledonae, Gymnospermae and Monocotyledonae. Dicotyledonae was divided into three subclasses namely polypetalae Gamopetalae and Monochlamydae. Polypetalae was divided into three series namely Thalamiflorae, disciflorae, Calyciflorae.

Thalamiflorae includes 6 order, disciflorae with 4 orders and Calyciflorae is with 5 orders. Gamopetalae was divided into three series namely Inferae (3 order) Heteromerae (3 orders) and Bicarpellatae (4 orders). Monocotyledonae was divided into seven series. Thus they grouped the flowering plants into 202 natural orders now called as families. Of these 165 families belongs Dicottyledonae, 3 to Gymnospermae and 34 belong to Monocotyledonae.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 8 Taxonomy of Angiosperms

Question 7.
What is taxonomy 7 Give a brief account of different types of plant classification.
Answer:
Plant taxonomy deals with characterization, Identification nomenclature and classification of plants.

Several classifications were proposed by different taxonomists based on various criteria. All these classifications can be grouped into 3 types.

  1. Artificial systems,
  2. Natural systems,
  3. Phylogenetic systems.

1) Artificial systems :
These systems are based on one or few easily comparable characters like morphology, nutritional habits etc.
e.g.: A) Classification of plants into herbs, shrubs, trees etc., on the basis of form by Theophrastus in his book “Historia Plantarum”.

B) Sexual system of Linnaeus, in which he classify the plants on the basis of morphological nature of stamens and carpels.

2) Natural systems :
These are the systems in which plants are grouped on the basis of their natural reltionships taking into consideration all possible morphological characters. They believed that all species are specially created by God and they do not undergo any change.
E.g. : Classification of Bentham and Hooker.

3) Phylogenetic systems :
The classification of post-Darwinian period considered evolutionary trends in plants and so they are considered as Phylogenetic systems. In a phylogenetic system, primitive and advanced characters an recognised. While considering the status of a taxon, a comprehensive picture of all the characters is taken into account. The system proposed by Engler and Prantl in their book, “Die Naturlichen Planzenfamilien” (1887-1893) and by J.Hutchinson (1954) in his book, “Families of flowering plants” are examples. The latest phylogenetic system is APG (Angiospermic Phyogenetic Group) system.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 6 Modes of Reproduction

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 6th Lesson Modes of Reproduction Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material 6th Lesson Modes of Reproduction

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the dominant phase in the life cycle of an angiosperm?
Answer:
The dominant phase in the life cycle of an angiosperm is the Diploid sporophyte.

Question 2.
What is meant by heterospory? Mention the two types of spores developed in an angiospermic plant?
Answer:
Heterospory means the formation of more than one type of spores. Microspores and Megaspores are developed in an angiospermic plant.

Question 3.
Mention the modes of reproduction in Algae and Fungi.
Answer:
In Algae (Chlamydomonas) Reproduction is by motile zoospores and by fragmentation. In fungi (Rhizopus), reproduction is by non motile spores produced in the sporangia and by fragmentation.

Question 4.
How do Liver worts reproduce vegetatively?
Answer:
Reproduction in liver worts is by specialized structure via fragmentation called ‘Gemmae’.

Question 5.
Mention any two characteristics of bacteria and yeast that enable them to reproduce asexually.
Answer:

  1. Rapid Growth.
  2. The offsprings produced asexually are not only identical to one another but are also exact copies of their parent.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 6 Modes of Reproduction

Question 6.
Why do we refer to offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction as clones?
Answer:
There is no involvement of sex organs. Hence the offsprings produced by Asexual Reproduction are called clones.

Question 7.
Between an annual and a perinneal plant, which one has a shorter juvenile phase? Give one reason.
Answer:
Annual have a shorter Juvenile phase because they show clear cut vegetative reproductive and senescent phases.

Question 8.
Rearrange the following events of sexual reproduction in the sequence in which they occur in a flowering plant : embryogenesis, fertilisation, gametogenesis, pollination.
Answer:
Gametogenesis, Pollination, Fertilisation, Embryogenesis.

Question 9.
Is there a relationship between the size of an organism and its life span?
Answer:
No relationship between the size of an organism and its life span.

Question 10.
Give reasons as to why cell division can or cannot be a type of reproduction in multicellular organisms.
Answer:
In Multicellular organisms, cell division cannot be a type of Reproduction because, Reproduction in them takes place by vegetative Asexual and Sexual Methods.

Question 11.
Which of the following are monoecious and dioecious organisms :
a) Date palm b) Coconut c) Chara d) Marchantia.
Answer:
a) Date Palm – Dioecious
b) oconut – Monoecious
c) Chara – Monoecious
d) Marchantia – Dioecious

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 6 Modes of Reproduction

Question 12.
Match the following given in Column A with the vegetative propagules given in Column B.

Column AColumn B
i) Bryophyiiuma. Offset
ii) Agaveb. Eyes
iii) Potatoc. leaf buds
iv) Water hyacinthd. fragmentation
v) Charae. Sucker
vi) Menthaf. bulbils

Answer:

Column AColumn B
i) BryophyiiumLeaf buds
ii) AgaveBulbils
iii) PotatoEyes
iv) Water hyacinthOffsets
v) CharaFragmentation
vi) MenthaSuckers

Question 13.
What do the following parts of a flower develop into after fertilisation?
a) Ovary b) Stamens c) Ovules d) Calyx.
Answer:
After fertilisation.
a) The ovary develops into a fruit
b) Stamens – wither away
c) Ovules – develop into seeds
d) Calyx – Wither away or persistent in some species (Capsicum, Solanum).

Question 14.
Define vivipary with an example.
Answer:
In Mangrooves, the seeds germinate while still attached to the mother plant is called vivipary”.
Ex : Rhizophora.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the gametogeneis with suitable example.
(Or)
Write a brief account on gametogenesis with examples.
Answer:
Gametogenesis is a process by which diploid or haploid precursor cells undergo cell division and differentiation to form mature haploid gametes. They are two types.
1) Homogametogenis :
In some algae like cladophora the two gametes are so similar in appearance that it is not possible to categorize them into male and female gametes. They are called hormogametes and process is called homogametogenesis.

2) Heterogametogenesis :
In a majority of sexual reproducing organisms the gametes produced are of two morphologically distinct types. In such organisms, the male gamete is called the authorized and the female gamete is called the egg.
Ex : Funaria, Cycas, Pteris.

Question 2.
Give an account of sexuality in organisms.
(Or)
Describe Sexuality in living organisms.
Answer:
Sexuality involves formation and fusion of the male and female gametes, either by the same individual or by different individuals of the opposite sex. Sexuality in plants is varied, particularly in angiosperms, due to the production of diverse types of flowers. Plants are defined as monoecious and dioecious.

Monoecious :
If the male and female flowers may be present ont he same individual such plants are called as monoecious plants.
Ex : Cucurbita and coconuts.

Dioecious :
If the male and female flowers may be present on the separate individual such plants are called Dioecious plants.
Ex : Papaya and date palm.

In Angiosperms based on sexualty flowers divided into two types. They are :
1) Staminate flowers :
The flowers bearing stamens are called as staminate flowers.

2) Pistillate flowers :
The flowers bearing pistil or Gynoecium are called as pistillate flowers.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 6 Modes of Reproduction

Question 3.
In haploid organisms that undergo sexual reproduction, name the stage in the lifecycle where meiosis occurs. Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Zygote :
It goes through Meiosis, it develops into spore or some other in structure. Meiosis produces 4 cells from each zygote and go through Mitosis to become an organism. Then it reproduce a either by Asexual method or by sexual method. It produce gametes, which fuse together, resulting in the formation of zygote. It is called Zygotic life cycle.
Ex : Volvox, Ocologonium.

Question 4.
The number of taxa exhibiting asexual reproduction is drastically reduced in higher plants (angiosperms) when compared to the lower groups of paints. Analyse the possible reasons for this situation.
Answer:
Reproduction is defined as a biological process in which an organism gives rise to young ones similar to itself. Reproduction becomes a vital process without which species cannot survive for long days. Each individual leaves its progeny by asexual or sexual means. Sexual mode of Reproduction enables creation of new variants; So that survival advantage is enhanced.

The plants obtained through asexual reproduction produce offsprings which are identical to each other and to their parent They cannot withstand in different environmental condition. Thats why, the number of taxa exhibiting asexual reproduction is drastically reduced in Higher plants, where as in lower groups of plants. Asexual Reproduction results in formation of large number of spores or cinidia which germinate, increase their Race.

Question 5.
Is it possible to consider vegetative propagation observed in plants like bryophyllum, water hyacinth and ginger as a type of asexual reproduction? Give two/three reasons.
Answer:
In Bryophyllum, buds formed on Knotches of the leaf develop into new Individuals in which no involvement of two parents. So this process is called asexual mode of Reproduction.

In water hyacinth, a weed is formed growing wherever there is stanoling water. It can propagate vegetatively at a phenomenal rate and spread all over the water body in a short period of time. So it is also called asexual mode of Reproduction.

In Ginger, a underground stem modification nodes and internodes are present. At each node, an auxiliary bud is present which develops into new plant, so treated as Asexual Reproduction.

Question 6.
“Fertilisation is not an obligatory event for fruit production in certain plants”. Explain the statement.
Answer:
Production of fruits without fertilisation of ovules is called parthenocarpy. It is common in Banana, grapes, Cucurbita, pollination or other stimulation is required for parthenocarpy called stimulative parthenocarpy. Plants that do not require pollution or simulation to produce parthenocarpic fruits have vegetative parthenocarpy. Seedless cucumbers, watermelons.

Panthenocarp is also desirable in fruit crops that may be difficult to pollinate or fertilize, such as tomato and summer squash. If plant harmones, gibberellin, auxin and cytokinins are sprayed on flowers, they induce parthenocarpy called artificial parthenocarpy. It is also induced by natural agents like low light cool conditions, to produce seedless fruits. Parthenocarpic fruits are advantageous because they are bigger in size, flavour is more :

  1. Easier to eat with less waste.
  2. Shelf like longer due to reduced ethylene generated by seeds.
  3. Seedless fruits have higher total soluble contents so fertilization is not an obligatory event in fruit production.

Question 7.
List the changes observed in angiosperm flower subsequent to pollination and fertilisation.
Answer:
Event in sexual Reproduction after the formation of zygote are called post fertilisation events. They are

  1. Calyx, Corolla, Stamens, style and stigma wither away.
  2. Ovary develops into fruit.
  3. Ovules develop into seeds.
  4. The zygote develops into an embryo.
  5. Primary endosperm nucleus develops into endosperm which provides nourishment to the developing embryo.
  6. The synergid and antipodals degenerate after fertilization.
  7. Funicle of the ovule changes into stalk of the seed.
  8. Outer antegumentofthe ovule changes into testa (outer seed coat). Inner integument changes into Inner seed coat (Tegmen).
  9. Micropyle changes into seed pore.
  10. Hilum changes into scar of the seed.

Question 8.
Suggest a possible explanation why the seeds in a pea pod are arranged in a row where as the tomato are scattered in the juicy pulp.
Answer:
In Pea :
Fruit is legume. It is a dry dehiscent fruit developed from Monocarpellary, unilocular and half superior ovary. At maturity, the fruit splits along the dorsal and ventral sutures and discharge its seeds. More over, the ovules are arranged in Marginal placentation (i.e.,) placentation axis is present along the Margin of Ventral suture. Thats why seeds are arranged in a row in legume (Pea) pod.

In tomato, the fruit is Bery. It is a fleshy fruit develop from superior or Inferior ovary. In this, the margins of the carpels grow inwards to the centre of the ovary forming locules. So that ovules are arranged in a divided central column. Thats why the seeds are scattered in the Juicy pulp which are dispersed after the delay of pulp. ‘

Question 9.
Justify the statement “Vegetative reproduction is also a type of asexual “reproduction”.
Answer:
In multicellular or colonjal forms of algae, moulds and mushrooms, the body may break into smaller fragments. Each fragment thus formed develops into a mature Individual. This process is called Fragmentation. Some plants have specialized structures for reproduction called Gemmae (in liverworts).

In flowering plants, the units of vegetative propagation such as Runners, Stolons, Suckers, Offset, Rhizome, Corm, Stem tuber, Bulb, Bulbil, Reproductive leaves, are cell capable of giving rise to new offsprings. These structures are called vegetative propagules. In all these plant. No involvement of sex organs takes place. So vegetative reproduction is also a asexual Reproduction and formed progeny are called clones.

Question 10.
Define : a) Juvenile phase, b) Reproductive phase.
Answer:
a) All organisms have to reach a certain stage of growth and Maturity in their life, before they can reproduce sexually and this storage is known as Juvenile stage or vegetative pahse.

b) The stage which occurs after the Juvenile stage, which can be seen easily in the higher plants when they came to flower is called Reproductive phase. In this, reproduction occurs either by asexual or by sexual means produce offsprings.

Question 11.
Distinguish between asexual and sexual reproduction. Why is vegetative reproduction also considered as a type of asexual reproduction?
Answer:

Asexual ReproductionSexual Reproduction
1. Single parent is involved.1. Two parents take part in reproduction.
2. Offspring are genetically identical to each other and to their parent.2. Variation occurs in offsprings due to Genetic recombinations.
3. No fertilisation.3. Fertilisation takes place.
4. No gametes are formed.4. Gametes are involved.
5. No mixing of hereditary material.5. Mixing of hereditary material.

In multicellular or colonial forms of algae, moulds and mushrooms, the body may break into smaller fragments. Each fragment thus formed develops into a mature Individual. This process is called Fragmentation. Some plants have specialized structures for reproduction called Gemmae (in liverworts). In flowering plants, the units of vegetative propagation such as Runners, Stolons, Suckers, Offsets, Rhizome, Corm, Stem tuber. Bulb, Bulbil, Reproductive leaves, are capable of giving rise to new offsprings. These structures are called vegetative propagules. In all these plants, sex organs are not involved. So vegetative reproduction is also a asexual Reproduction.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 6 Modes of Reproduction

Question 12.
Identify each part in a flowering plant and write whether it is haploid (n) or diploid (2n).
a) Ovary —– b) Anther —– c) Egg —– d) Pollen —– e) Male gamete —– f) Zygote
Answer:
a) Ovary – Diploid (2n)
b) Anther – Diploid (2n)
c) Egg – Haploid (n)
d) Pollen – Haploid (n)
e) Male gamete – Haploid (n)
f) Zygote – Diploid (2n)

Question 13.
Give a brief account on the phases of the life cycle of an angiosperm plant.
Answer:
In the life cycle of an angiospermic plant, two phases occur alternately. They are
A) Sporophytic phase :
It is diploid (2n) and dominant phase of the life cycle. It is developed from the zygote. Reproductive organs develop on this plant.

B) Gametophytic phase :
It is haploid (n). It is derived from a spore which is a product of meiotic division of spore mother cell. In angiosperms, microspore mother cells and megaspore mother cells are present. Microspore mother cells develop in an anther while megaspore mother cells develop from the nucleus of the ovule. Each of these cells in turn gives microspores and megaspores after meiotic division.

These micro and megaspores develop into male and female gametophytes respectively. The male gametophyte gives male gametes & the female gametophyte forms the egg cell. Male and female gametes (Egg) fuse to form a diploid zygote which develops into embryo in the seed. When the seed germinates, the embryo develops into sporophytic plant.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Enumerate the differences between asexual and sexual reproduction. Describe the types of asexual reproduction exhibited by unicellular organisms.
Answer:

Asexual ReproductionSexual Reproduction
1. Single parent is involved.1. Two parents take part in reproduction.
2. Offspring are genetically identical to each other and to their parent.2. Variation occurs in offsprings due to Genetic recombinations.
3. No fertilisation.3. Fertilisation takes place.
4. No gametes are formed.4. Gametes are involved.
5. No mixing of hereditary material.5. Mixing of hereditary material.

Asexual Reproduction in Unicellular organisms :
In Protista and Monereans, the organism or the parent cell divides into two to give rise to hew individuals. Many single celled organisms reproduce by binary fission, where a cell divides into two halves and each rapidly grows into an adult. (Euglena, Bacteria). In yeast, asexual reproduction takes place by budding, where the division is unequal. Small buds are produced that remain attached initially to the parent cell which, eventually get separated and mature into new yeast organisms.

Question 2.
Describe the post – fertilisation changes in a flower.
Answer:
After fertilisation many changes takes place in the embryo sac ovule, ovary and flower. These changes are called post fertilisation changes. The sepals, petals, stamens, styles and stigmas fall off. Ovary stores food materials and develops into a fruit. The fertilized ovules develop into seeds. The various changes that occur in the ovule are as follows :

The parts of ovule and embryo sacChanges occurring after fertilization
1. FuniculusStalk of the seed
2. Outer integumentTesta (outer seed coat)
3. Inner integumentTegmen (inner seed coat)
4. MicropyleSeed pore
5. ZygoteEmbryo
6. SynergidsDegenerate
7. AntipodalsDegenerate
8. Primary endosperm nucleusEndosperm
9. HilumScar, of the seed

Endosperm :
In majority of angiosperms, endosperm is triploid and formed after fertilisation. In gymnosperms, endosperm is haploid and formed from female gametophyte before fertilisation.

In certain plants, the developing embryo utilises the endosperm completely. The seed contains only embryo. Endosperm is absent. Such seeds are called the non-endospermic seeds or ex-albuminous seeds.
E.g. : Dolichos, Cicer, capsella etc.

In certain plants, the developing embryo utilises the endosperm partially and the seed contains some amount of endosperm. Such seeds are called the endospermic seeds at albuminous seeds.
E.g. : Ricinus, Datura, Cocos etc.

In members of Orchidaceae endosperm is not formed (Podestamaceae).

Perisperm :
As the embryo and endosperm are developing in the embryo sac, this embryosac grows by absorbing the nutrients from the nucellus. Hence Nucellus gets depleted when the seed reaches maturity. But in some seeds, some amount of nucellus is left out called perisperm.
E.g. : Seeds of Piperaceae, Nymphaeaceae, Coffee seeds etc.

Additional Question & Answer

Question 1.
Although sexual reproduction is long drawn, energy-intensive complex form of reproduction, many groups of organisms in kingdom plantae prefer this mode of reproduction. Give atleast three reasons for this.
Answer:
Sexual reproduction is a long drawn, energy Intensive, Complex and slow process as compared to asexual reproduction but Mung organisms in kingdom plantae prefer sexual reproduction because,

  1. The fusion of Male and female gametes results in offspring that are not identical to the parents or amongst themselves.
  2. Sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable variations as compared with asexual reproduction. These variations further helps plant to survive in different climatic conditions.
  3. Sexual reproduction may prove advantageous in plant defense.
  4. Seeds produced by sexual reproduction can be dispersed in more locations and grow in more favourable environments efficiently.
  5. Seed dormancy allows the plant to survive until bad environmental conditions are reversed.

Intext Questions

Question 1.
Why is reproduction essential for organisms?
Answer:
Reproduction is a vital process without which species can not survive for long. It enables the continuity of species, generation on after generation.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 6 Modes of Reproduction

Question 2.
Which is a better mode of reproduction sexual or asexual? Why?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction is better mode of reproduction because it enables creation of new variants. So that survival advantage is enhanced.

Question 3.
Why is the offspring formed by asexual reproduction referred to as clone?
Answer:
In Asexual reproduction, a single parent is capable of producing offsprings. As a result, the offspring produced are not ony identical to one another but are also exact copies of their parent so referred to as clones.

Question 4.
How does the progeny formed from asexual reproduction differ from those formed by sexual reproduction?
Answer:
The progeny formed from asexual reproduction are identical to one another and also exact copies of their parent. Their survival chance in different environments is low.

The progeny obtained from sexual reproduction are not identical to the parents. So their survival chance is enhanced. ‘

Question 5.
What is vegetative propagation? Give two suitable examples.
Answer:
It is a form of asexual reproduction in plants, in which multicellular structures become detached from the parent plant and develop into new individuals that are genetically identical to the parent plant.
Ex : Bryophyllum, Zinger, Turmeric, Colacasia, Gemmae (Liver worts)

Question 6.
Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its complexity. Why?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction varies the gene pool; as all offspring are slightly different from the parents and their ability to adapt over time is good.

Question 7.
Explain why meiosis and gametogenesis are always interlinked?
Answer:
In Angiosperms, Meiosis occurs in Microspore mother cells and Megaspore mother cells, without which male and female gametes are not formed.

Question 8.
Define external fertilisation. Mention its disadvantages.
Answer:
In Aquatic organisms, syngamy occurs outside the body of the organism. This type of gametic fusion is called external fertilisation. In this method, zygote is formed in the external medium (water).

Question 9.
Differentiate between a zoospore and a zygote.
Answer:

ZoosporeZygote
It is a motile asexual spore that uses a flagellum for locomotion. They are found in Algae, Bacteria fungi.It is a diploid cell formed by the fusion of one male gamete and one female gamete.

Activity :

Question 10.
Examine a few flowers of any cucurbit plant and try to identify the staminate and pistillate flowers. Do you know any other plant that bears unisexual flowers?
Answer:
In Cucurbitaceae family – flowers are unisexual rarely bisexual in Schizo pepon.

In All unisexual flowers, In Luffa cylindrica and Thladiantha – stamens with Monothecus anthers are present.

In Citrullus, Legenaria, Cucumis (all unisexual) stamens are three, one with Monothecus (all unisexual) stamens are three, one with Monothecus and two with Dithecous anthers. In female flowers, stamens are represented by staminodes. In Male flowers, Gynoecium is represented by Pistiollodes.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Study Material Chapter 6 Modes of Reproduction

Question 11.
What is a bisexual flower? Collect five bisexual flowers from your neighbourhood and with the help of your teacher find out their common and scientific names.
Answer:
The flower with both Androecium and Gynoecium is called bisexual flower.

  1. Hibiscus rosa – sinensis – shoe flower
  2. Gloriosa superba – Adavinabhi
  3. Datura metal – Thorn apple
  4. Dolichos lab – lab – Bean
  5. Solanum melongena – Brinjal

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 8 Ecology and Environment Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 8 Ecology and Environment

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define the term “ecology” and its branches.
Answer:
The word ‘ecology’ was derived from the Greek terms (‘Oikos house and ‘logos’ – ‘study’) and it can be defined as “the study of the relationship of organisms with their environment”.

Question 2.
What is an ecological population?
Answer:
A population is a group of organisms of the same species living in a specific area at a specific time.

Question 3.
Define a community.
Answer:
It is an association of the interacting members of populations of different autotrophic and heterotrophic species in a particular area.

Question 4.
What is an ecosystem?
Answer:
An ecosystem is a functional unit of the biosphere in which members of the community interact among themselves and with the surrounding environment.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 5.
Distinguish between ecosystem and biome.
Answer:

EcosystemBiome
1. Level of organization above the level of the biological community landscape.1. Level of organization above the level.
2. It can be as small as an aquarium/tiny puddle.2. It occupies a vast region.
3. Functional unit of the biosphere.3. Large community of plants and animals.

Question 6.
What is a biome? Name any two biomes you studied.
Answer:
A ‘biome’ is a large community of plants and animals that occupies a vast region.
Ex: Tropical rain forest, desert, tundra (terrestrial biomes) Freshwater biomes, marine biome (aquatic biomes).

Question 7.
What is meant by ecosphere?
Answer:
It is the part of the Earth that supports ‘life’. It extends several kilometers above the Earth’s surface into the atmosphere and extends several kilometers below the ocean’s surface.

Question 8.
Explain the difference between the ‘nich’ of an organism and its ‘habitat’.
Answer:

HabitatNich
1. It is the place in which an organism lives.1. Functional role of an organism in an ecosystem.
2. It is comparable to the address of a person.2. It is comparable to the profession of a person.

Question 9.
A population has more genetically similar organisms than a biotic community. Justify the statement.
Answer:
A population is a group of organisms of the same species, living in a specific area at a specific time.
Ex: The fish belongs to the species Catla. catla living at a given time.

Question 10.
How do the fish living in Antarctic waters manage to keep their body fluids from freezing?
Answer:
During the course of millions of years of their existence, many species (fish) would have evolved a relatively constant internal (within body) environment so it permits all biochemical reactions and physiological reactions to proceed with maximal efficiency and thus, enhance the overall “fitness” of the species.

Question 11.
How does your body solve the problem of altitude sickness, when you ascend tall mountains?
Answer:
The body compensates for low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production and increasing the rate of breathing.

Question 12.
What is the effect of light on body pigmentation?
Answer:
Light influences the colour of the skin. The animals which live in the regions of low intensity of light have less pigmentation than the animals exposed to light.

Question 13.
Distinguish the terms phototaxis and photokinesis.
Answer:
Phototaxis is the oriented locomotion of an organism towards or away from the direction of light.
Ex: As seen in Euglena
Photokinesis is the influence of light on the non-directional movement of organisms.
Ex: Mussel crab

Question 14.
What are circadian rhythms?
Answer:
Biological rhythms that occur in a time period of 24 hours are called circadian rhythms.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 15.
What is photoperiodism?
Answer:
The response of organisms to the photoperiod is called photoperiodism.
Ex: Reproduction of flowers, migration of birds.

Question 16.
Distinguish between photoperiod and critical photoperiod.
Answer:
Photoperiod: The duration of light hours is known as a photoperiod.
Critical photoperiod: The specific day length which is essential for the initiation of seasonal events is called critical photoperiod.

Question 17.
Mention the advantages of some UV rays to us.
Answer:

  • UV radiation kills the microorganisms present on the body surface of animals.
  • UV radiation helps in the conversion of sterols present in the skin into vitamin D in mammals.

Question 18.
What is cyclomorphosis? Explain its importance in Daphnia.
Answer:
The cyclic seasonal morphological variations among certain organisms are called “Cyclomorphosis”. In the case of Daphnia, it is an adaptation to “stabilize the movement” in water and can “resist the water currents better” to stay in the water rich in food materials.

Question 19.
What are ‘regulators’?
Answer:
Organisms that are able to maintain homeostasis by physiological means which ensure constant body temperature, and constant osmotic concentration are called, “regulators”.
Ex: Mammals, Birds

Question 20.
What are conformers?
Answer:
Living organisms that cannot maintain 3 constant internal environments are described as “conformers”.

Question 21.
Define commensalism. Give one example.
Answer:
This is the interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefited.
Ex: Barnacles growing on the back of a whale benefit while the whale derives no noticeable benefit.

Question 22.
Define mutualism. Give one example.
Answer:
This is the interaction that benefits both the interacting species.
Ex: Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic relationship between a fungus and photosynthesizing algae.

Question 23.
Define amensalism. Give one example.
Answer:
Amensalism is an interaction in which one species is harmed whereas the other one is unaffected.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 24.
What is meant by interspecific competition? Give one example.
Answer:
A process in which the fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another species is called interspecific competition.
Ex: Competition between visiting flamingos and resident fishes in shallow South American lakes.

Question 25.
What is camouflage? Give its significance.
Answer:
Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically coloured to avoid being detected easily by the predator. This phenomenon is called “Camouflage”.

Question 26.
What is Gause’s principle? When does it applicable?
Answer:
When the resources are limited, the competitively superior species will eventually eliminate the other species. It is relatively easy to demonstrate in laboratory experiments.

Question 27.
Name the association that exists in mycorrhiza.
Answer:
The association that exists in mycorrhiza is called “Mutualism”.

Question 28.
Distinguish between lotic and lentic habitats.
Answer:

Lotic habitatLentic habitat
The still water bodies fall under the lotic community.
Ex: Lakes, ponds
Flowing water bodies are called lentic habitats.
Ex: River, canals, streams

Question 29.
What is a zone of compensation in an aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:
The imaginary line that separates the limnetic zone from the profundal zone in a lake is called the zone of compensation (or) compensation point.

Question 30.
Distinguish between phytoplankton and zooplankton.
Answer:

Phyto planktonZooplankton
Microscopic organisms bear chlorophyll and form producers in the lakes.
Ex: Diatoms, Green algae, Euglenoids
Microscopic organisms that do not bear chlorophyll move through water currents and form primary consumer levels in the lakes.
Ex: Daphnia, rotifers and ostracods

Question 31.
Distinguish between neuston and nekton.
Answer:

NeustonNekton
The animals living at the air-water interface constitute the “neuston”.
Ex: Water strides beetles, the larva of mosquitoes.
The animals capable of swimming constitute the “nekton”.
Ex: Water scorpion, back swimmer, diving beetles.

Question 32.
What is periphyton?
Answer:
The animals that are attached to/creeping on the aquatic plants are called “periphyton”.
Ex: Water snails, hydras, nymphs of insects, etc.

Question 33.
Write three examples of man-made ecosystems.
Answer:
Cropland ecosystems, Aquaculture ponds, Aquaria.

Question 34.
What is meant by osmotrophic nutrition?
Answer:
The state of pre-digested food material through the body surface is known as osmotrophic nutrition.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 35.
Explaining the process of “leaching”.
Answer:
When the water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated as unavailable salts that entire process is called “leaching”.

Question 36.
What is PAR?
Answer:
PAR means “Photosynthetically Active Radiation”.

Question 37.
What is the percentage of PAR, in the incident solar radiation?
Answer:
Of the incident solar radiation, less than 50% of it is PAR.

Question 38.
Define entropy.
Answer:
As per the second law of thermodynamics, the energy dispersed is in the form of unavailable heat energy and constitutes entropy.

Question 39.
What is a standing crop?
Answer:
Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time and it is called the “Standing crop”.

Question 40.
Explain the terms GPP and NPP.
Answer:
GPP means Gross primary productivity.
NPP means Net primary productivity.

Question 41.
Distinguish between upright and inverted ecological pyramids.
Answer:

Upright PyramidInverted Pyramid
Producers (I – trophic level Biomass) are more in number than other trophic levels.
Ex: Grazing food chain
Producers are less in number biomass than other trophic levels.
Ex: Parasitic food chain

Question 42.
Distinguish between litter and detritus.
Answer:
Litter: Litter is just like manure that is formed by dead (Either plant (or) Animal clusters) organic matter. It is the primary food source in the detritus food chain.
Detritus: It is a decaying organic matter being decomposed into detritivores organisms.

Question 43.
Distinguish between primary and secondary productivity.
Answer:

Primary ProductivitySecondary Productivity
1. The amount of biomass produced per unit area over a period of time by plants.1. The rate formation of new organic matter by consumers.
2. It can be divided into gross primary productivity (GPP), net primary productivity (NPP)2. It also can be divided into two types cross secondary productivity, and net secondary productivity.

Question 44.
Which air pollutants are chiefly responsible for acid rains?
Answer:
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides are the major causes of acid rain.

Question 45.
What is BOD?
Answer:
BOD means Biological Oxygen Demand. It is a measure of the content of biologically degradable substances in sewage.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 46.
What is biological magnification?
Answer:
An increase in the concentration of the pollutant (or) toxicant at successive trophic levels in an aquatic food chain is called ‘Bio-magnification’.

Question 47.
Why are incinerators used in hospitals?
Answer:
Disposal of hospital wastes that contain disinfectants, harmful chemicals, and also pathogenic micro-organisms incinerators are used in hospitals.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Considering the benefits of a constant internal environment to the organism we tend to ask ourselves why the conformers had not evolved to become regulators.
Answer:
Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many organisms. This is particularly true in small animals like shrews and hummingbirds. Heat loss or heat gain is a function of the surface area. Since small animals have a larger surface area relative to their volume, they tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold outside. Then they have to spend much energy to generate body heat through metabolism. This is the main reason why very small animals are rarely found in polar regions. During the course of evolution, the costs and benefits of maintaining a constant internal environment are taken into consideration. Some species have evolved the ability to regulate, but only over a limited range of environmental conditions, beyond which they simply conform.

Question 2.
The individuals who have fallen through the ice and been submerged under cold water for long periods can sometimes be revived – explain.
Answer:
Temperature variations occur with seasonal changes. These differences in the temperature form thermal layers in water. Water shows maximum density at 4°C decrease its density. Generally, during the winter season the surface water cools down in the upper water phases in the temperature reaches 0°C. below the upper icy layer, the cool water occupies the lake. The aquatic animals continue their life below the icy layer at lower temperatures the activity of bacteria and the rate of oxygen consumption by aquatic animals decrease. Hence organisms can survive below the frozen (icy) upper water without being subject to hypoxia.

Question 3.
What is summer stratification? Explain.
Answer:
During summer in temperate lakes, the density of the surface water decreases because of an increase in its temperature (21-25°C). This ‘uppermost warm layer’ of a lake is called the epilimnion. Below the epilimnion, there is a zone in which the temperature decreases at the rate of 1°C per meter in-depth, and it is called thermocline or metalimnion. The bottom layer is the hypolimnion, where water is relatively cool, stagnant, and with low oxygen content (due to the absence of photosynthetic activity).
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment SAQ Q3
During autumn (also called fall). The epilimnion cools down, and the surface water becomes heavy when the temperature is 4°C and sinks to the bottom of the lake overturns bringing about a ‘uniform temperature’ in lakes during that period, this circulation during the autumn is known as fall. The upper oxygen-rich water reaches the hypolimnion and the nutrient-rich bottom water comes to the Surface. Thus there is a uniform distribution of nutrients and oxygen in the lake.

Question 4.
What is the significance of stratification in lakes?
Answer:
Temperature variations occur with seasonal changes in temperature regions. These differences in the temperature form thermal layers in water. These phenomena are called thermal stratification.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment SAQ Q4
During autumn (also called fall), the epilimnion cools down and the surface water becomes heavy when the temperature is 4°C and sinks to the bottom of the lake. Overturns bring about uniform temperatures in lakes during that period. This circulation during autumn is known as the fall or autumn overturn. The upper oxygen-rich water reaches the hypolimnion and the nutrient-rich bottom water comes to the surface. Thus there is a uniform distribution of nutrients and oxygen in the lake. In the spring season the temperatures start rising when it reaches 4°C, the water becomes more dense and heavy and sinks to the bottom, taking oxygen-rich sinks down and bottom nutrient-rich water reaches the surface.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 5.
Explain Vant’ Hoff’s rule.
Answer:
Van’t Hoff, a Nobel Laureate in thermo chemistry proposed that, with the increase of every 10°C, the rate of metabolic activities doubles. This rule is referred to as Van’t Hoff’s rule. Van’t Hoffs rule can also be stated in reverse saying that the reaction rate is halved with the decrease of every 10°C. The effect of temperature on the rate of a reaction is expressed in terms of the temperature coefficient of the Q10 value. Q10 values are estimated by taking the ratio between the rate of a reaction at X°C and the rate of reaction at (X – 10°C). In the living systems, the Q10 value is about 2.0. If the Q10 value is 2.0, it means, for every 10°C increase, the rate of metabolism doubles.

Question 6.
Unlike mammals, reptiles cannot tolerate environmental fluctuations in temperature. How do they adapt to survive in desert conditions?
Answer:
Some organisms show behavioural responses to cope with variations in their environment. Desert lizards manage to keep their body temperature fairly constant by behavioural means. They ‘bask’ (staying in the warmth of sunlight) in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below the comfort zone, but move into the shade when the temperature starts increasing. Some species are capable of burrowing into the soil to escape from the excessive heat above the ground level.

Question 7.
How do terrestrial animals protect themselves from the danger of being dehydration of bodies?
Answer:
In the absence of an external source of water, the kangaroo rat of the North American deserts is capable of meeting all its water requirements through oxidation of its internal fat (in which water is a by-product – of metabolic water). It also has the ability to concentrate its urine, so that minimal volume of water is lost in the process of removal of its excretory products.

Question 8.
How do marine animals adapt to hypertonic seawater?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of water loss, marine fishes have glomerular kidneys with less number of nephrons. Such kidneys minimize the loss of water through urine. To compensate for water loss marine fish drink more water and along with this water, salts are added to the body fluids and disturb the internal equilibrium. To maintain salt balance (salt homeostasis) in the body they have salt-secreting chloride cells in their gills. Marine birds like seagulls and penguins eliminate salts in the form of salty fluid that drips through their nostrils. In turtles, the ducts of chloride-secreting glands open near the eyes. Some cartilaginous fishes retain urea and trimethylamine oxide (TMO) in their blood to keep the body fluids isotonic to the seawater and avoid dehydration of the body due to exosmosis.

Question 9.
Discuss the various type of adaptations in freshwater animals.
Answer:
Animals living in fresh waters have to tackle the problem of endosmosis. The osmotic pressure of freshwater is very low and that of the body fluids of freshwater organisms is much higher. So water tends to enter into bodies by endosmosis. To maintain the balance of water in the bodies, the freshwater organisms acquired several adaptations such as contractile vacuoles in the freshwater protozoans, and large glomerular kidneys in fishes, etc., They send out large quantities of urine along which some salts are also lost. To compensate for the ‘salt loss’ through urine freshwater fishes have ‘salt absorbing chloride cells’ in their gills.

The major problem in freshwater ponds is in summer most of the ponds dry up. To overcome this problem most of the freshwater protists undergo encystment. The freshwater sponges produce asexual reproductive bodies, called gemmules, to tide over the unfavourable conditions of the summer. The African lungfish Protopterus burrows into the mud and forms a gelatinous cocoon around it, to survive, in summer.

Question 10.
Compare the adaptations of animals with fresh water and seawater mode of life.
Answer:

Adaptations in freshwaterAdaptations in seawater
1. Freshwater fishes have glomerular kidneys with more nephrons.1. Marine water fishes have glomerular kidneys with a number of nephrons.
2. They send out large quantities of urine.2. They minimize the loss of water through urine.
3. To compensate for the salt loss through urine freshwater fishes have salt-absorbing chloride cells in their gills.3. To maintain salt balance in the body they have salt-secreting chloride cells.
4. They undergo encystment to overcome the problems.4. Some fishes retain urea in their blood to keep the body fluid isotonic to the seawater.

Question 11.
Distinguish between euryhaline and stenohaline animals.
Answer:

EuryhalineStenohaline
Organisms that are adapted to stand wide fluctuations in salinity are called Euryhaline animals.
Ex: Salmon fish, eel fish, etc.
Those that cannot stand wild fluctuations in salinity are known as steno haline animals.
Ex: Aromatic insects, Aromatic insects

Question 12.
Many tribes living at high altitudes in the Himalayas normally have higher red blood cell count (or) total haemoglobin than the people living in the plains. Explain?
Answer:
Some organisms possess adaptations that are physiological and allow them to respond quickly to a stressful situation. If you had ever been to any high-altitude place (e.g. > 3,500 M Rohtang pass near Manali and Manasarovar, in Tibet) you must have experienced what is called altitude sickness. Its symptoms include nausea (vomiting sense), fatigue (tiredness), and heart palpitations (abnormality in heartbeat). This is because, in the low atmospheric pressure of high altitudes, the body does not get enough oxygen. But, you gradually get acclimatized and overcome the altitude sickness. How did your body solve this problem? The body compensates for low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production and increasing the rate of breathing.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 13.
An orchid plant is growing on the branch of the mango tree. How do you describe this interaction between the orchid and mango tree?
Answer:
An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch gets the benefit of exposure to light, while the mango tree does not drive any noticeable benefit. So in this interaction, one species (arched) get benefitted the other (Mango) is neither armed nor benefitted. So the interactions between orchids and mango trees are commensalism.

Question 14.
Predation is not an association. Support the statement.
Answer:
Predation is not an association (it is a feeding strategy), it is an interaction between two different species. The predator gets benefits at the cost of the prey. Besides acting as) pipelines for energy transfer across trophic levels predators play other important roles. They keep the prey populations under control. In the absence of predators, the prey species could achieve very high population densities and cause instability in the ecosystem.

Question 15.
What is the biological principle behind the biological control method of managing pest insects?
Answer:
The prickly pear cactus introduced in Australia in the early 1920s caused havoc by spreading rapidly into millions of hectares of Rangel and (vast natural grasslands). Finally, the invasive cactus was brought under control only after a cactus-feeding predator (a moth) was introduced into the country. Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ability of the predators to regulate prey populations.

Question 16.
Discuss competitive release.
Answer:
Another evidence for the occurrence of competition in nature comes from what is called competitive releases. Competitive release occurs when one of the two competing species is removed from an area, thereby releasing the remaining species from one of the factors that limited its distributional range dramatically when the competing species is experimentally removed. This is due to the phenomenon called competitive release, Connells field experiments showed that on the rocky sea coasts of Scotland the larger and competitively superior barnacle Balanus dominates the intertidal area, and excludes the smaller barnacle chathamalus from that zone. When the dominant one is experimentally removed, the population of the smaller one’s increases. In general, herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by competition than carnivores.

Question 17.
Write a short note on the parasitic adaptations.
Answer:
In order to lead successful parasitic life, parasites evolved special adaptations such as:

  • Loss of sense organs (which are not necessary for most parasites).
  • Presence of adhesive organs such as suckers, and hooks to cling to the host’s body parts.
  • Loss of digestive system and presence of high reproductive capacity.
  • The life cycles of parasites are often complex, involving one or two intermediate hosts or vectors to facilitate the parasitization of their primary hosts.

Examples:

  • The human liver fluke depends on two intermediates (secondary) hosts (a snail and a fish) to complete its life cycle.
  • The malaria parasite needs a vector (mosquito) to spread to other hosts. The majority of the parasites harm the host: they may reduce the survival, growth, and reproduction of the host and reduce its population density. They might render the host more vulnerable to predation by making it physically weak.

Question 18.
Explain brood parasitism with a suitable example.
Answer:
Certain birds are fascinating examples of a special type of parasitism, in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets/allows the host incubates them. During the course of evolution, the eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chances of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs and ejecting them from the nest.

Question 19.
How do predators act as biological control?
Answer:
The prickly pears cactus introduced in Australia in the early 1920s caused havoc by spreading rapidly into millions of hectares of Rangel and (vast natural grasslands) Finally, the invasive cactus was brought under control only after a cactus-feeding predator (a moth) was introduced into the country. Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ability of the predators to regulate prey populations.

Question 20.
Write notes on the structure and functioning of an ecosystem.
Answer:
‘An ecosystem’ is a functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact among themselves and also with the surrounding physical environment.

Ecosystem varies greatly in size from a small pond to a large forest or a sea. Many ecologists regard the entire biosphere as a global ecosystem as a composite of all local ecosystems on Earth. Since this system is too big and complex to be studied at one time it is convenient to divide it into two basic categories, namely natural and artificial. The natural ecosystems include aquatic ecosystems of water and terrestrial ecosystems of the land. Both types of natural and artificial ecosystems have several subdivisions.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment SAQ Q20
The Natural Ecosystem: These are naturally occurring ecosystems and there is no role of humans in the formation of such types of ecosystems. These are categorized mainly into two types – aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. These are man-made ecosystems such as agricultural or agroecosystems. They include cropland ecosystems, aquaculture ponds, and aquaria.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 21.
Explain the different types of aquatic ecosystems.
Answer:
Based on the salinity of water, three types of aquatic ecosystems are identified marine, fresh water, and estuarine.

  • The marine ecosystem: It is the largest of all the aquatic ecosystems. It is the most stable ecosystem.
  • Estuarine ecosystem: Estuary is the zone where the river joins the sea, and seawater ascends up into the river twice a day (effect of high tides and low tides). The salinity of water in an estuary also depends on the seasons. During the rainy season outflow of river water makes the estuary saline and the opposite occurs during the summer. Estuarine organisms are capable of withstanding the fluctuations in salinity.
  • The freshwater ecosystem: The freshwater ecosystem is the smallest aquatic ecosystem. It includes rivers, lakes, ponds, etc., It is divided into two groups the lentic and lotic. The still water bodies like ponds, lakes reservoirs, etc., fall under the category of lentic ecosystems, whereas streams, rivers, and flowing water bodies are called lotic ecosystems. The communities of the above two types are called lentic and lotic communities respectively. The study of freshwater ecosystems is called limnology.

Question 22.
Explain the different types of terrestrial ecosystems.
Answer:
The ecosystems of land are known as terrestrial ecosystems. Some examples of terrestrial ecosystems are the forest, grass, and desert.

  • The forest ecosystem: The two important types of forests seen in India are tropical rain forests and tropical deciduous forests.
  • The grassland ecosystems: These are present in the Himalayan region of India. They occupy large areas of sandy and saline soils in western Rajasthan.
  • Desert ecosystem: The areas having less than 25 cm of rainfall per year are called deserts. They have characteristic flora and fauna. The deserts can be divided into two types – hot type and cold type deserts, the desert in Rajasthan is an example of the hot type of desert. Cold-type desert is seen in Ladakh.

Question 23.
Discuss the main reason for the low productivity of the ocean.
Answer:
The Primary productivity is very low in the ocean ecosystem compared with the terrestrial ecosystem.

Unlike terrestrial ecosystems, the majority of primary production in the ocean is performed by feel living microscopic organisms called Phytoplankton, large autotrophs such as the seagrasses and macroalgae or seaweeds are generally confined to the littoral zone.

The sunlight zone of the ocean is called the photic zone or euphotic zone, it is a thin layer upto 10 to 100 m near the Ocean’s surface where there is sufficient light for photosynthesis to occur. Light is attenuated down the water column by its absorption or scattering by the water itself. Net photosynthesis in the water column is determined by the interaction between the photic zone and the mixed layer. In the deep water of the ocean (Demersal) there is no light penetration for photosynthesis.

Another factor relatively recently discovered to play a significant role in oceanic primary production is the micronutrient iron. The factors limiting primary production in the ocean are also very different from those on land. However, the availability of light, the source of energy for photosynthesis, and mineral nutrients, building the blocks for new growth, play a crucial role in regulating primary production in the ocean.

Question 24.
Explain the terms saprotrophs detritivores and mineralizers.
Answer:
Saprotrophs are microorganisms such as fungi and bacteria which live on dead organic matter. Detritivores ingest small fragments of decomposing organic materials, termed detritus mineralizers affect the mineralization of humans.

Question 25.
Define decomposition and describe the process and products of decomposition.
Answer:
When organisms die, their bodies and the waste materials passed from the bodies of living organisms form a source of energy and nutrient for the decomposer organisms like saprotrophs detritivores, and mineralizers. Saprotrophs absorb substances through the general body surface of the dead bodies. Detritivores ingest detritus as food. Mineralized mineralize humus these decomposers are referred to as micro consumers of the ecosystem. The decomposition of organic matter includes three phases. In the first phase, particulate detritus is formed by the action of saprotrophs. The second stage is the rapid action of saprotrophs and detritivores to convert detritus into humic substances. The third process is the slower mineralization of the hummus.

Decomposers also play an important role in an ecosystem by converting complex molecules of dead organisms into simpler and reusable molecules. The breakdown products of the dead organisms and waste materials are recycled in the ecosystem and are made available to the producers. The producers cannot continue to exist forever in the absence of the decomposers (as minerals are not returned to the environment).

Question 26.
Write a note on DFC. Give its significance in a terrestrial ecosystem.
Answer:
The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with dead organic matter (such as leaf litter, and bodies of dead organisms). It is made up of decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms ‘mainly’ the fungi’ and ‘bacteria’. They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic matter to detritus. These are also known as saprotrophs.

Decomposers secrete digestive enzymes that break down dead and waste materials (such as feces i) into simple absorbable substances. Some examples of detritus food chains are:

  • Detritus – Earthworm – Frogs – Snakes
  • Dead animals – Flies and maggots – Frogs – Snakes

In an aquatic ecosystem. GFC is the major conduit for the energy flow. As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food chain than through the GFC. The Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels. Some of the organisms of DFC may form the prey of the GFC animals. For example, in the detritus food chain given above, the earthworms of the DFC may become the food of the birds of the GFC. It is to be understood that food chains are not ‘isolated1 always.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 27.
What is primary productivity? Give a brief description of the factors that affect primary productivity.
Answer:
Primary productivity is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a period of time by plants, during photosynthesis. It can be divided into Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) and Net Primary Productivity (NPP).
(a) Gross Primary Productivity: Of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter
during photosynthesis. A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants for their catabolic process (respiration).
(b) Net Primary Productivity: Gross Primary Productivity minus respiratory loss (R), is the Net Primary Productivity (NPP). On average about 20-25 percent of GPP is used for catabolic (respiratory) activity.
GPP – R = NPP
The Net Primary productivity is the biomass available for the consumption of the heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).

Question 28.
Define ecological pyramids and describe with examples, pyramids of numbers and biomass.
Answer:
It is a graphical representation of the trophic structure and function of an ecosystem. The base of each pyramid represents the producers of the first trophic level, while the apex represents the tertiary or top-level/top-order consumers. The three types of ecological pyramids that are usually studied are (a) pyramid of numbers (b) pyramid of biomass and (c) pyramid of energy. These pyramids were first represented by Elton, hence the name ELTONIANpyramids/Ecological pyramids.

Any calculations of energy content, biomass, or numbers have to include all organisms at that trophic level. No generalizations we make will be true if we take only a few individuals of any trophic level into account. In most ecosystems, all the pyramids – of numbers, energy, and biomass are uprights. i.e., producers are more in number and biomass than the herbivores, and herbivores are more in number and biomass than the carnivores. Also, energy (available) at a lower trophic level is always more than that at a higher level.

There are exceptions to this generalization. In the case of a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is inverted. A large tree (single producer) may support many herbivores like squirrels and fruit-eating birds. On these herbivores, many ectoparasites such as ticks, mites, and lice (secondary consumers) may live. These secondary consumers may support many more top-level consumers and also the hyper-parasites. Thus in each trophic level from the bottom to the top, the numbers of organisms increase and form an ‘inverted pyramid’ of numbers.

The pyramid of biomass in the sea is also generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment SAQ Q28

Question 29.
What are the deleterious effects of depletion of ozone in the stratosphere?
Answer:
The depletion of ozone is particularly marked over the Antarctic region. This has resulted in the formation of a large area of thinned ozone layer commonly called the ‘ozone hole.

UV radiation with wavelengths shorter than that of UV-B is almost completely absorbed by Earth’s atmosphere, provided that the ozone layer is intact. But IJV-B damages DNA and may induce mutations. It causes aging of the skin, damage to skin cells, and various types of skin cancers. In the human eye, the cornea absorbs UV-B radiation, and a high dose of UV-B causes inflammation of the cornea called snow-blindness, cataract, etc., such exposure may permanently damage the cornea.

Question 30.
Describe the ‘Green House’ Effect.
Answer:
The term Green House effect’ has been derived from a phenomenon that occurs in a greenhouse. The greenhouse is a small glasshouse and is used for growing plants, especially during winter. In a greenhouse, the glass panel allows the passage of light into it but does not allow heat to escape (as it is reflected back). Therefore, the greenhouse warms up, very much like inside a car that has been parked in the sun for a few hours.

The greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon that is responsible for heating the Earth’s surface and atmosphere. It would be surprising to know that without the greenhouse effect the average temperature of the Earth’s surface would have been chilly – 18°C rather than the present average of 15°C.

When sunlight reaches the outermost layer of the atmosphere, clouds and gases reflect about one-fourth of the incoming solar radiation and absorb some of it. Almost half of the incoming solar radiation falls on the Earth’s surface and heats it up. While a small proportion is reflected back.

Question 31.
Discuss briefly the following:
(a) Greenhouse gases
(b) Noise pollution
(c) Organic farming
(d) Municipal solid wastes
Answer:
(a) Greenhouse gases: The Earth’s surface re-emits heat in the form of infrared radiation but part of this does not escape into space as atmospheric gases (e.g. carbon dioxide, methane, etc.) absorb a major fraction of it. The molecules of these gases radiate heat energy, a major part of which again comes back to the Earth’s surface, thus heating it up once again. The above-mentioned gases- Carbon dioxide and methane are commonly known as greenhouse gases.

(b) Noise pollution: Undesirably high sounds constitute noise pollution. Sound is measured in units called decibels. The human ear is sensitive to sounds ranging from 0 to 180 dB. 0 dB is the threshold limit of hearing and 120 dB is the threshold limit for the sensation of pain in the ear. Any noise above 120 dB is considered to be noise pollution. Brief exposure to the extremely high sound level. 150 dB or more generated by jet planes while taking off may damage eardrums causing permanent hearing impairment. Even long-term exposure to a relatively higher level of noise in cities may also cause hearing impairment. Noise also causes auditory fatigue, anxiety, sleeplessness/msommaj, increased heartbeat, and altered breathing pattern thus causing considerable stress to humans.

(c) Organic farming: Integrated organic farming is a zero waste procedure, where the recycling of waste products is efficiently carried out. This allows the maximum utilization of resources and increases the efficiency of production. A method practiced by Ramesh Chandra Dagar, all these processes support one another and allow an extremely economical and sustainable venture. Natural – biogas generated in the process can be used for meeting the energy needs of the farm. Enthusiastic about spreading information and helping in the practice of integrated organic farming, Dagar has created the Haryana Kisan welfare club.

(d) Municipal Solid waste: Anything (substance/material/articles/goods) that is thrown out as waste in solid form is referred to as solid waste. The municipal solid wastes generally consist of paper, food wastes, plastics, glass, metals, rubber, leather, textile, etc., The wastes are burnt to reduce the volume of the waste. As a substitute for open-burning dumps, sanitary landfills are adopted. There is a danger of seepage of chemicals and pollutants from these landfills, which may contaminate the underground water resources.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 32.
Discuss the causes and effects of global warming. What measures need to be taken to control ‘Global warming’?
Answer:
An increase in the level of greenhouse gases has led to considerable heating of the “Earth leading to global warming. During the past century, the temperature of the earth has increased by 0.6°C most of it during the last three decades. Scientists believe that this rise in temperature is leading to severe changes in the environment. Global warming is causing climatic changes (e.g. as El Nino effect) and is also responsible for the melting of polar ice caps and other snow caps of mountains such as the Himalayas. Over many years, this will result in a rise in sea levels, all over the world, that can submerge many coastal areas. The total spectrum of changes that global warming can bring about is a subject that is still under active research.

Global warming: Control measures

  • The measures include cutting down the use of fossil fuels.
  • Improving the efficiency of energy usage.
  • Planting trees and avoiding deforestation.

Question 33.
Write critical notes on the following:
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Biological magnification
Answer:
(a) Eutrophication: Natural ageing of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water is known as eutrophication. In a young lake, the water is cold and clear supporting little life. Gradually nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates are carried into the lake via streams, in course of time. This encourages the growth of aquatic algae and other plants. Consequently, animal life proliferates and organic matter gets deposited on the bottom of the lake. Over centuries, as silt and organic debris pile up the lake grows shallower and warmer. As a result, the aquatic organisms thriving in the cold environment are gradually replaced by warm-water organisms. Marsh plants appear by taking root in the shallow regions of the lake. Eventually, the lake gives way to large masses of floating plants (bog) and is finally converted into land.

(b) Biological magnification: Increase in the concentration of the pollutant or toxicant at successive trophic levels in an aquatic food chain is called biological magnification or Bio-magnification. This happens in the instance where a toxic substance accumulated by an organism is not metabolized or excreted and thus passes on to the next higher trophic level. This phenomenon is well known regarding DDT and mercury pollution.

As shown in the above example, the concentration of DDT is increased at successive trophic levels. Starting at a very low concentration of 0.003 PPb (PPb part per billion) in water, which ultimately reached an alarmingly high concentration of 25 ppm (ppm = parts per million) in fish-eating birds through biomagnification. High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes thinning of eggshells and their premature breaking, eventually causing a decline in bird populations.

(c) Groundwater depletion and ways for its replenishment: Sewage arising from homes and hospitals may contain undesirable pathogenic microorganisms. If it is released untreated into water courses, there is a likelihood of an outbreak of serious diseases, such as dysentery, typhoid, jaundice, cholera, etc.

Untreated industrial effluents released into water bodies pollute most of the rivers, freshwater streams, etc. Effluents contain a wide variety of both inorganic and organic pollutants such as oils, greases, plastics, metallic wastes, suspended solids, and tonics. Most of them are non-degradable. Arsenic, Cadmium, Copper, Chromium, Mercury, Zinc, and Nickel are the common heavy metals discharged from industries.

Effects: Organic substances present in the water deplete the dissolved oxygen content in water by increasing the BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) and COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand). Most of the inorganic substances render the water unit for drinking.

Removal of dissolved salts such as nitrates, phosphates, and other nutrients and toxic metal ions and organic compounds is much more difficult. Domestic sewage primarily contains biodegradable organic matter, which will be readily decomposed by the action of bacteria and other microorganisms.

Water-logging and soil salinity: Irrigation without proper drainage of water leads to water logging in the soil. Besides affecting the crops, water logging draws salt to the surface of the soil (salinization of the topsoil). The salt then is deposited as a thin crust on the land surface or starts collecting at the roots of the plants. This increased salt content is inimical (unfavourable) to the growth of crops and is extremely damaging to agriculture. Water logging and soil salinity are some of the problems that have come in the wake of the Green Revolution.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write an essay on temperature as an ecological factor.
Answer:
Temperature is a measure of the intensity of heat. The temperature on land or in water is not uniform. On land, the temperature variations are more pronounced when compared to the aquatic medium because land absorbs or loses heat much more quickly than water. The temperature on land depends on seasons and the geographical area on this planet. Temperature decreases progressively when we move from the equator to the poles. Altitude also causes variations in temperature. For instance, the temperature decreases gradually as we move to the top of the mountains.

Biological effects of Temperature:
Temperature Tolerance: A few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures they are called eurythermal, but, a vast majority of organisms are restricted to a narrow range of temperatures such organisms are called stenothermal. The levels of thermal tolerance of different species determine their geographical distribution.

Temperature and Metabolism: Temperature affects the working of enzymes and through it, the basal metabolism, and other physiological functions of the organism. The temperature at which the metabolic activities occur at the climax level is called the optimum temperature. The lowest temperature at which an organism can live indefinitely is called minimum effective temperature. It an animal or plant is subjected to a temperature below the minimum effective limit, enters into a condition of inactivity called a chill coma. The metabolic rate increases with the rise of temperature from the minimum effective temperature to the optimum temperature.

The maximum temperature at which a species can live indefinitely in an active state is called maximum effective temperature, the animals enter into a ‘heat coma’. The maximum temperature varies much in different animals.

Vant Hoffs’s rule: Vant Hoff, a Nobel Laureate the thermochemistry proposed that, with the increase of every 10°C, the rate of metabolic activities doubles. This rule is referred to as the Vant Hoffs rule. Vant Hoffs’s rule can also be stated in reverse saying that the reaction rate is halved with the decrease of every 10°C. The effect of temperature on the rate of a reaction is expressed in terms of temperature coefficient or Q10 value. Q10 values are estimated by taking the ratio between the rate of a reaction at X°C and the rate of reaction at (X-10°C). In the ‘living systems’ the Q10 value is about 2.0. If the Q10 value is about 20, it means, for every 10°C increase, the rate of metabolism doubles.

Cyclomorphosis: The cyclic seasonal morphological variations among certain organisms are called cyclomorphosis. This phenomenon has been demonstrated in the Cladoceran (a subgroup of Crustacea) and Daphnia (water flea). In the winter season, the head of Daphnia is ’round’ in shape (typical or non helmet morph). With the onset of the spring season, a small ‘helmet’/’hood’ starts developing on it. The helmet attains the maximum size in summer. In ‘autumn’ the helmet starts receding. By the winter season, the head becomes round. Some scientists are of the opinion that Cyclomorphosis is a seasonal adaptation to changing densities of the water in lakes. In summer as the water is less dense Daphnia requires a larger body surface to keep floating easily. During winter the water is denser, so it does not require a larger surface area of the body to keep floating.

Temperature adaptations: Temperature adaptations in animals can be dealt with under three heads:
(a) Behavioural adaptations
(b) Morphological and Anatomical adaptations and
(c) Physiological adaptations.

(a) Behavioural adaptations: Some organisms show behavioural responses to cope with variations in their environment. Desert lizards manage to keep their body temperature fairly constant by behavioural means. They bask (staying in the warmth of sunlight) in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below the comfort zone, but move into the shade when the temperature starts increasing. Some species are capable of burrowing into the soil to escape from the excessive heat above the ground level.

(b) Morphological and anatomical adaptations: In the polar seas, aquatic mammals such as the seals have a thick layer of fat (blubber) that acts as an insulator and reduces the loss of body heat, underneath their skin. The animals which inhabit the colder regions have larger body sizes with greater mass. The body mass is useful to generate more heat. As per Bergmann’s rule mammals and other warm-blooded living in colder regions have less surface area to body volume ratio. Then their counterparts live in the tropical regions. The small surface area helps to conserve heat. For instance, the body size of American moose/Eurasian elk (Alces alces), increases with the latitudes in which they live. Moose in the northern part of Sweden show 15-20% more body moss than the same species (counterparts) living in southern Sweden.

Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter earlobes and limbs (extremities of the body) to minimize heat loss. Large earlobes and long limbs increase the surface area without changing the body volume. This is known as Allen’s rule. For instance, the polar fox, Vulpes lagopus (formerly called Alopex lagopus) has short extremities to minimize the heat loss from the body. In contrast, the desert fox has short extremities to minimize heat loss from the body. In contrast, the desert fox, Vulpes zerda, has large ear lobes and limbs to facilitate better heat loss from the body.

(c) Physiological adaptations: In most animals, all the physiological functions proceed ‘optimally’ in a narrow temperature range (in humans, it is 37°C). But there are microbes (archaebacteria) that flourish in hot springs and in some parts of deep seas, where temperatures far exceed 100°C. Many fish thrive in Antarctic waters where the temperature is always below zero. Having realized that the abiotic conditions of many habitats may vary over a time period, we now ask. How do the organisms living in such habitats manage stressful conditions?

One would expect that during the course of millions of years of their existence, many species would have evolved a relatively constant internal (within the body) environment. It permits all biochemical reactions and physiological functions to proceed with maximal efficiency and thus, enhance the overall fitness of the species. This constancy could be chiefly in terms of optimal temperature and osmotic concentration of body fluids. So the organism should try to maintain the constancy of its internal environment (homeostasis) despite varying external environmental conditions that tend to upset its homeostasis. This is achieved by the processes described below.

Thermal migration: The organism can move away temporarily from the stressful habitat to a more hospitable (comfortable) area and return when the stressful period is over. In human analogy comparison, this strategy is comparable to a person moving from Delhi to Shimla for the duration of summer. Many animals, particularly birds, during winter undertake long-distance migrations to more hospitable areas. Every winter, many places in India including the famous Keoladeo Ghana National Park (Formerly – Bharatpur bird sanctuary) in Rajastan and Pulicat Lake in Andhra Pradesh host thousands of migratory birds coming from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions.

Diapause: Certain organisms show a delay in development, during periods of unfavourable environmental conditions and spend periods in a state of inactiveness called diapause. This dormant period in animals is a mechanism to survive extremes of temperature drought, etc. It is seen mostly in insects and embryos of some fish. Under unfavourable conditions, many zooplankton species in Lakes and ponds are known to enter diapause.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 2.
Write an essay on water as an ecological factor.
Answer:
Water is another important factor influencing the life of organisms. Life is unsustainable without water. Its availability is so limited in deserts that only certain special adaptations make it possible for them to live there. You might think that organisms living in oceans, lakes, and rivers should not face any water-related problems, but It is not true. For aquatic organisms the quality (chemical composition, pH, etc.) of water becomes important. The salt concentration is less than 5 percent in inland waters and 30-35 percent in seawater. Some organisms are tolerant to a wide range of salinities (euryhaline) but others are restricted to a narrow range (stenohaline) Many freshwater animals cannot live for long in seawater and vice versa because of the osmotic problems, they would face.

Adaptations in freshwater habitat: Animals living in freshwater have to tackle the problem of endosmosis. The osmotic pressure of freshwater is very low and that of the body fluids of freshwater organisms is much higher. So water tends to enter into bodies by endosmosis. To maintain the balance of water in the bodies, the freshwater organisms acquired several adaptations such as contractile vacuoles in the freshwater protozoans, large glomerular kidneys in fishes, etc… They send out large quantities of urine freshwater fishes have salt-absorbing ‘chloride cells’ in their gills. The major problem in freshwater ponds is – in summer most of the ponds dry up. To overcome this problem, most of the freshwater protists undergo encystment. The freshwater sponges produce asexual reproductive bodies, called gemmules to tide over the unfavorable conditions of the summer. The African lungfish, Protopterus, burrows into the mud and forms a gelatinous cocoon around it, to survive, in summer.

Adaptations in marine habitat: Seawater is high in salt content compared to that body fluids. So, marine animals continuously tend to lose water from their bodies by exosmosis and face the problem of dehydration. To overcome the problem of water loss marine fishes have glomerular kidneys with less number of nephrons. Such Kidneys minimize the loss of water through urine. To compensate for water loss marine fish drink more water, and along with this water, salts are added to the body fluids and disturb the internal equilibrium.

To maintain salt balance (salt homeostasis) in the body they have salt-secreting chloride cells in their gills. Marine birds like seagulls and penguins eliminate salts in the form of salty fluid that drips through their nostrils. In turtles, the ducts of chloride-secreting glands open near the eyes. Some cartilaginous fishes retain urea and trimethylamine oxide (TMO) in their blood to keep the body fluid isotonic to the seawater and avoid dehydration of the body due to exosmosis.

Water-related adaptations in brackish water animals: The animals of brackish water are adapted to withstand wide fluctuations in salinity. Such organisms are called euryhaline animals and those that cant with stand is known as stenohaline. The migratory fishes such as salmon and Hilsa are anadromous fishes i.e. they ‘migrate from the sea to freshwater, for breeding; Anguilla bengalensis is a catadromous fish i.e. it migrates from the river to sea, for breeding. In these fishes, their glomerular kidneys are adjusted to changing salinities. The chloride cells are adapted to excrete or absorb salts depending on the situation. On entering the river they drink more freshwater to maintain the concentration of body fluids equal to that of the surrounding water.

Water-related adaptations for terrestrial life: In the absence of an external source of water, the Kangaroo rat of the North American deserts is capable of meeting all its water requirements through oxidation of its internal fat (in which water is a by-product – of metabolic water). It also has the ability to concentrate its urine, so that minimal volume of water is lost in the process of removal of its excretory products.

Question 3.
Describe the lake as an ecosystem giving examples for the various zones and the biotic components in it.
Answer:
Deep water lakes contain three distinct zones namely

  • Littoral zone
  • Limnetic zone
  • Profundal zone

Littoral Zone: It is the shallow part of the lake closer to the shore. Light penetrates up to the bottom. It is euphotic (having good light) and has rich vegetation and a higher rate of photosynthesis, hence rich in oxygen.

Limnetic Zone: It is the open water zone away from the shore. It extends up to the effective light penetration level, vertically. The imaginary line that separates the limnetic zone from the profundal zone is known as the zone of compensation/compensation point light compensation level. It is the zone of effective light penetration. Here the rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration. The limnetic zone has no contact with the bottom of the lake.

Profundal Zone: It is the deep water area present below the limnetic zone and beyond the depth of effective light penetration. Light is absent. Photosynthetic organisms are absent and so the water is poor in oxygen content. It includes mostly the anaerobic organisms which feed on detritus. The organisms living in lentic habitats are classified into pedantic forms, which live at the bottom of the lake and those living in the open waters of lakes, away from the shore vegetation are known as limnetic forms.

Biota (animal and plant life of a particular region) of the littoral zone: Littoral zone is rich with pedantic flora (especially up to the depth of the effective light penetration). At the shore, proper emergent vegetation is abundant with firmly fixed roots at the bottom of the lake, and shoots and leaves are exposed above the level of water. These are amphibious plants. Certain emergent rooted plants of the littoral zone are the cattails (Typha), bulrushes (Scirpus) arrowheads (Sagittaria),. Slightly deeper are the rooted plants with floating leaves, such as the water lilies (Nymphaea), Nelumbo, Trapa, etc., still deeper are the submerged plants such as Hydrilla – Chara, Potamogeton, etc… The free-floating vegetation includes pistia, Wolffia, Lemna (duckweed), Azolla, Eichhornia, etc.

The phytoplankton of the littoral zone is composed of diatoms (Coscinodiscus, Nitzschia, etc) green algae (Volvox, spirogyra, etc), euglenoids (Euglena, phacus, etc), and dinoflagellates (Gymnodinium, Cystodinium, etc ….)

Animals, the consumers of the littoral zone, are abundant in this zone of the lake, these are categorized into zooplankton, neuston, nekton, periphyton, and benthos. The Zoo-plankton of the littoral zone consists of water fleas such as Daphnia, rotizers, and ostracods.

The animals living at the air-water interface constitute the neuston. They are of two types. The epineuston and hyponeuston. Water striders (Gerris), beetles, and water bugs (Dineutes) form the epineuston/ supraneuston and the hyponeuston/infraneuston includes the larvae of mosquitoes.

The animals such as fishes, amphibians, water-snakes, terrapins, insects like water scorpion (Ranatra), back swimmer (Notonecta), diving beetles (Dytiscus), capable of swimming constitute the nekton.

The animals that are attached to/creeping on the aquatic plants, such as the ‘water snails’, nymphs of insects, bryozoans, turbellarians, hydras, etc, constitute the periphyton. The animals that rest on or move on the bottom of the lake constitute the ‘benthos’, e.g.: red annelids, chironomid larvae, crayfishes, some isopods amphipods, clams, etc.

Biota of the limnetic zone: Limnetic zone is the largest zone of a lake. It is the region of rapid variations of the level of the water, temperature, oxygen availability, etc., from time to time. The limnetic zone has autotrophs (photosynthetic plants) in abundance. The chief autotrophs of this region are the phytoplankton such as the euglenoids, diatoms, cyanobacteria, dinoflagellates, and green algae. The consumers of the limnetic zone are the zooplanktonic organisms such as the copepods, Fisher frogs, water snakes, etc., which form the limnetic nekton.

Biota of the profundal zone: It includes the organisms such as decomposers (bacteria), chironomid larvae, Chaoborus (phantom larva), red annelids, clams, etc., that are capable of living in low oxygen levels. The decomposers of this zone decompose the dead plants and animals and release nutrients that are used by the biotic communities of both littoral and limnetic zones.

The lake ecosystem performs all the functions of any ecosystem and of the biosphere as a whole, i.e., conversion of inorganic substances into organic material, with the help of the radiant solar energy by the autotrophs, consumption of the autotrophs by the heterotrophs; decomposition and mineralization of the dead matter to release them back for reuse by the autotrophs (recycling of minerals).

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 4.
Describe different types of food chains that exist in an ecosystem.
Answer:
The food energy passes from one trophic level to another trophic level mostly from the lower to higher trophic levels. When the path of food energy is ‘linear’ the components resemble the ‘links’ of a chain and it is called a ‘food chain’. Generally, a food chain ends with decomposers. The three major types of food chains in an ecosystem are the Grazing Food Chain, Parasitic Food Chain, and Detritus Food Chain.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment LAQ Q4

(i) Grazing food chain: It is also known as the predatory food chain, it begins with the green plants (producers), and the second third, and fourth trophic levels are occupied by the herbivores, primary carnivores, and secondary carnivores respectively. In some food chains, these are yet another trophic level – the climax carnivores. The number of trophic levels in food chains varies from 3 to 5 generally. Some examples from the grazing food chain (GFC) are given below.

I trophic levelII trophic levelIII trophic levelIV trophic levelV trophic level
Rosebush →Aphids →Spiders →Small birds →Hawk
Grass →Grasshopper →Frog →Snake →Hawk
Plants →Caterpillar →Lizard →Snake
Phytoplankton →Zooplankton →Fish →Bird
Grass →Goat →Man

(ii) Parasitic food chain: Some authors included the Parasitic Food Chains as a part of the GFC. As in the case of GFC’s, it also begins with the producers, the plants (directly or indirectly). However, the food energy passes from large organisms to small organisms in the parasitic chains. For instance, a tree that occupies the 1st trophic level provides shelter and food for many birds. These birds host many ectoparasites and endo parasites. Thus, unlike in the predator food chain, the path of the flow of energy includes fewer, large-sized organisms in the lower trophic levels and numerous, small-sized organisms in the successive higher trophic levels.

(iii) Detritus Food Chain: The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with dead organic matter (such as leaf litter, and bodies of dead organisms). It is made up of decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi’ and ‘bacteria’. They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic matter or detritus. These are also known as saprotrophs (sappro: to decompose).

Decomposers: Secrete digestive enzymes that break down dead and waste materials (such as feces) into simple absorbable substances. Some examples of detritus food chains are:

  • Detritus (formed from leaf litter) – Earthworms – Frogs – Snakes
  • Dead animals – Flies and maggots – Frogs – Snakes.

In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is the major ‘conduit for the energy flow. As against this in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food chain than through the GFC. The Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels. Some of the organisms of DFC may form the prey of the GFC animals. For example, in the detritus food chain given above, the earthworms of the DFC may become the food of the birds of the GFC. It is to be understood that food chains are not ‘isolated’ always.

Question 5.
Give an account of the flow of energy in an ecosystem.
Answer:
Except for the deep sea hydro-thermal ecosystem, the sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on Earth. Of the incident solar radiation, less than 50 percent of it is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). We know that plants and photosynthetic bacteria (autotrophs), fix the sun’s radiant energy to synthesize food from simple inorganic materials. Plants capture only 2-10 percent of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living world. So, it is very important to know how the solar energy captured by plants flows through different organisms of an ecosystem. All heterotrophs are dependent on the producers for their food, either directly or indirectly. The law of conservation of energy is the first law of thermodynamics. It states that energy may transform from one form into another form, but it is neither created nor destroyed. The energy that reaches the earth is balanced by the energy that leaves the surface of the earth as invisible heat radiation.

The energy transfers in an ecosystem are essential for sustaining life. Without energy transfers, there could be no life and ecosystem. Living beings are the natural proliferations that depend on the continuous inflow of concentrated energy. Further, ecosystems are not exempted from the Second Law of thermodynamics. It states that no process involving energy transformation will spontaneously occur unless there is the degradation of energy. As per the second law of thermodynamics – the energy dispersed is in the form of unavailable heat energy and constitutes the entropy (energy lost or not available for work in a system).

The organisms need a constant supply of energy to synthesize the molecules they require. The transfer of energy through a food chain is known as energy flow. A constant input of mostly solar energy is the basic requirement for any ecosystem to function. The important point to note is that the amount of energy available decreases at successive trophic levels. When an organism dies, it is converted to detritus or dead biomass that serves as a source of energy for the decomposers. Organisms at each trophic level depend on those at the lower trophic level, for their energy demands.

Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time and it is called the standing crop. The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number of organisms per unit area. The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight (dry weight is more accurate because water contains no usable energy).

The 10 percent Law: The 10 percent law for the transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next was introduced by Lindeman (the Founder of modern Ecosystem Ecology). According to this law, during the transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next, only about 10 percent of the energy is stored/converted as body mass/biomass. The remaining is lost during the transfer or broken down in catabolic activities (Respiration). Lindeman’s rule of trophic efficiency/Gross ecological efficiency is one of the earliest and most widely used measures of ecological efficiency. For example: If the NPP (Net Primary Production) in a plant is 100 kJ, the organic substance converted into the body mass of the herbivore which feeds on it is 10 kJ only. Similarly, the body mass of the carnivore-I is 1 kJ only.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 6.
List out the major air pollutants and describe their effects on human beings.
Answer:
Air pollutants cause injury to all living organisms. They reduce the growth and yield of crops. They are harmful to the respiratory system of humans and animals. An increase in the concentration of pollutants or duration of exposure increases the harmful effects on the organisms.
The major air pollutants:
1. Carbon monoxide (CO): It is produced mainly due to incomplete combustion of fossil fuels. Automobiles are a major cause of CO pollution in larger cities and towns. Automobile exhausts, fuels from factories, emissions from power plants, forest fires and even burning of firewood contribute to CO pollution. Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for CO and SO, and CO competitively interferes with oxygen transport. CO symptoms such aS headache and blurred vision at lower concentrations. In higher concentrations, it leads to coma and death.

2. Carbon Dioxide (CO2): Carbon dioxide is the main pollutant that is leading to global warming. Plants utilize CO2 for photosynthesis and all living organisms emit carbon dioxide in the process of respiration. With rapid urbanization, automobiles, aeroplanes, power plants, and other human activities that involve the burning of fossil fuels such as gasoline, carbon dioxide is turning out to be an important pollutant of concern.

3. Sulphur Dioxide (SO2): It is mainly produced by burning fossil fuels. Melting of sulphur ores is another important source of SO2 pollution. The metal smelting and other industrial processes also contribute to SO2 pollution. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are the major causes of acid rains, which cause acidification of soils, lakes, and streams and also accelerated corrosion of buildings and monuments. High concentrations of sulphur dioxide (SO2) can result in breathing problems in asthmatic children and adults. Other effects associated with long-term exposure to sulphur dioxide, include respiratory illness, alterations in the lungs defenses, and aggravation of existing cardiovascular problems.

To control SO2 pollution, the emissions are filtered through scrubbers. Scrubbers are devices that are used to clean the impurities in exhaust gases. Gaseous pollutants such as SO2 are removed by scrubbers.

4. Nitrogen Oxides: Nitrogen oxides are considered to be major primary pollutants. The source is mainly automobile exhaust. The air polluted by nitrogen oxide is not only harmful to humans and animals but also dangerous for the life of plants. Nitrogen oxide pollution also results in acid rain and the formation of photochemical smog. The effect of nitrogen oxides on plants includes the occurrence of necrotic spots on the surface of leaves. Photosynthesis is affected in crop plants and the yield is reduced. Nitrogen oxides combine with volatile organic compounds by the action of sunlight to form secondary pollutants called Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) which are found especially in photochemical smog. They are powerful irritants to the eyes and respiratory tract.

5. Particulate matter/Aerosols: Tiny particles of solid matter suspended in a gas or liquid constitute the particulate matter. Aerosols refer to particles and /or liquid droplets and the gas together (a system of colloidal particles dispersed in a gas) Combustion of “fossil fuels” (petrol, diesel, etc) fly ash produced in thermal plants, forest fires, cement factories, asbestos mining, and manufacturing units, spinning and ginning mills, etc., are the main sources of particulate matter pollution. According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) particles of 2.5 micrometers or less in diameter are highly harmful to man and other air-breathing organisms.

An electrostatic precipitator is a widely used filter’ for removing particulate matter from the exhaust of thermal power plants. It can remove 99% of particulate matter. It has high voltage electrodes which produce a ‘corona’ that releases electrons. These are collected by collecting plates that attract charged particles. The air flowing between the plates is kept at a low velocity so as to allow the dust particles to fall. Thus clean air is released into the atmosphere.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 7.
What are the causes of water pollution and suggested measures for control of water pollution?
Answer:
Domestic Sewage: Sewage is the major source of water pollution in large cities and towns. It mainly consists of human and animal excreta and other waste materials. It is usually released into freshwater bodies or the sea directly. As per the regulations the sewage has to be passed through treatment plants before it is released into the water sources. Only 0.1 percent of impurities from domestic sewage are making these water sources unfit for human consumption. In the treatment of sewage, solids are easy to remove. Removal of dissolved salts such as nitrates, phosphates, and other nutrients and toxic metal ions and organic compounds is much more difficult. Domestic sewage primarily contains biodegradable organic matter, which will be readily decomposed by the action of bacteria and other microorganisms.

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD): BOD is a measure of the content of biologically degradable substances in sewage. The organic degradable substances are broken down by microorganisms using oxygen. The demand for oxygen is measured in terms of the oxygen consumed by microorganisms over a period of 5 days (BOD 5) or seven days (BOD 7). BOD forms an index for measuring pollution load in the sewage. Microorganisms involved in the biodegradation of organic matter in water bodies consume a lot of oxygen and as a result, there is a sharp decline in dissolved oxygen causing the death of fish and other aquatic animals.

Algal blooms: The presence of large amounts of nutrients in waters also causes excessive growth of plankton algae and the phenomenon is commonly called “algal blooms1′. Algal blooms impart distinct colour to the bodies and deteriorate the quality of water. It also causes the mortality of fish. Some algae which are involved in algal blooms are toxic to human beings and animals.

Excessive growth of aquatic plants such as the common water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes), the world’s most problematic aquatic weed which is also called “Terror of Bengal” causes blocks in our waterways. They grow faster than our ability to remove them. They grow abundantly in eutrophic water bodies (water bodies rich in nutrients) and lead to an imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics of the water body.

Sewage arising from homes and hospitals may contain undesirable pathogenic microorganisms. If it is released untreated into water courses, there is a likelihood of an outbreak of serious diseases, such as dysentery, typhoid, jaundice, cholera, etc.

2. Industrial Effluents: Untreated industrial effluents released into water bodies pollute most of the rivers, freshwater streams, etc. Effluents contain a wide variety of both inorganic and organic pollutants such as oils, greases, plastics, metallic wastes, suspended solids, and toxins. Most of them are non-degradable. Arsenic, Cadmium, Copper, Chromium, Mercury, Zinc, and Nickel are the common heavy metals discharged from industries.

Effects: Organic substances present in the water deplete the dissolved oxygen content in water by increasing the BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) and COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand). Most of the inorganic substances render the water unfit for drinking. Outbreaks of dysentery, typhoid, jaundice, cholera, etc., are caused by sewage pollution.

Biomagnification: Increase in the concentration of the pollutant or toxicant at successive trophic levels in an aquatic food chain is called Biological Magnification or Bio-magnification. This happens in the instances where a toxic substance accumulated by an organism is not metabolized or excreted and thus passes on to the next higher trophic level. This phenomenon is well known regarding DDT and mercury pollution.

As shown in the above example, the concentration of DDT is increased at successive trophic levels starting at a very low concentration of 0.003 ppb (ppb = parts per billion) in water, which ultimately reached an alarmingly high concentration of 25 ppm (ppm = parts per million) in fish-eating birds, through biomagnification. High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes thinning of eggshells and their premature breaking, eventually causing a decline in bird populations.

Eutrophication: Natural ageing of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water is known as eutrophication. In a young lake, the water is cold and clear, supporting little life. Gradually nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates are carried into the lake via streams, in course of time. This encourages the growth of aquatic algae and other plants. Consequently, animal life proliferates and organic debris piles up, the lake grows shallower and warmer. As a result, the aquatic organisms thriving in the cold environment are gradually replaced by warm-water organisms. Marsh plants appear by taking root in the shallow regions of the lake. Eventually, the lake gives way to large masses of floating plants (bog) and is finally covered in land.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Lesson 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why do you call cockroaches a pest?
Answer:
The cockroach is a common household pest that contaminates our food with its excreta and can transmit a number of diseases.

Question 2.
Name the terga of thoracic segments of cockroaches.
Answer:
Tergum of prothorox is Pronotum.
The tergum of mesothorax is Mesonotum.
The tergum of metathorax is Metanotum.

Question 3.
What are the structures with which cockroach walks on smooth surfaces and on rough surfaces respectively?
Answer:
The claws and the arotium help in locomotion on rough surfaces whereas planulae are useful on smooth surfaces.

Question 4.
Why is the head in cockroach called hypognathous?
Answer:
It lies hinging almost a right angles to the body with the posterior wider part upwards and the mouth parts directed downwards.

Question 5.
How is a tripod formed With reference to locomotion in cockroach?
Answer:
Tripod is formed by foreleg and hind leg of one side middle leg of other side. The fore leg and hind leg of the tripod kept on the ground, pull and push the body, while the middle leg acts as a pivot.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 6.
Name the muscles that help in elevating and depressing the wings of a cockroach.
Answer:
Wings are elevated by the contraction of dorsoventral muscles. Contraction of the dorsa longitudinal muscles depresses the muscles.

Question 7.
Name the different blood sinuses in cockroach.
Answer:
The three sinuses of haemocoel are known as
Pericardial haemocoel/Dorsal sinus
Perivisceral haemocoel/middle sinus
Perineural haemocoel/ventral sinus.

Question 8.
How are the fat bodies similar to the liver of the vertebrates?
Answer:
Fat bodies have many cells that are similar to the liver of the vertebrates in certain functions, namely
Trophocytes (store food)
Mycetocytes (contain symbiotic bacteria)
Oenocytes (secrete lipids)
Urate cells (store uric acid)

Question 9.
Which part of the gut secretes the peritrophic membrane in cockroach?
Answer:
Peritrophic membrane is secreted by the funnel like stomodel valve of the gizzard of midgut.

Question 10.
In which part of the gut of cockroach, water is reabsorbed?
Answer:
Rectum reabsorbes the water in cockroach.

Question 11.
Write the names of mouthparts in cockroach that help in biting and tasting the food.
Answer:
Mandibles helps in biting and labrum helps in tasting the food.

Question 12.
What are alary muscles?
Answer:
A services of paired triangular muscles that are present in the dorsal and ventral diaphragm.

Question 13.
What is haemocoel?
Answer:
In cockroach blood (or) haemolymph flows freely with in the body cavity (or) haemocoel.

Question 14.
The three sinuses in a cockroach are not equal in size. Why?
Answer:
The middle sinus is very large as it contains most of the viscera. The dorsal and ventral sinuses are small as they have only heart and nerve cord.

Question 15.
Why is the blood of Periplaneta called haemolymph?
Answer:
The blood of periplaneta is colourless and it consists of fluid plasma and blood cells. Hence blood of periplaneta is called haemolymph.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 16.
What is the function of haemocytes found in the blood of Periplaneta?
Answer:
Haemocytes are phagocytic in nature. These are large in size and can ingest foreign particles.

Question 17.
Why does not the blood of Periplaneta help in respiration?
Answer:
Due to the absence of respiratory pigment the blood of cockroach can’t carry oxygen to different tissues.

Question 18.
Write important functions of blood in Periplaneta.
Answer:
1. It absorbs digest food from alimentary canal and distributes it to the rest of the body.
2. It transports secretions of the ductless glands to the target organs.

Question 19.
How many spiracles are present in cockroach? Mention their locations.
Answer:
Ten pairs of spiracles are present in cockroach.
Location: First two pairs of spiracles are present in the thoracic segments, remaining eight pairs present in first eight abdominal segments. Spiracles are located in the pleura of their respective segment.

Question 20.
What are trichomes? Write their functions.
Answer:
Trichomes are small hair-like structures of spiracles.
Function: Filtering the dust particles.

Question 21.
Why is the respiratory system of cockroaches called polytheistic and holocaustic systems?
Answer:
The spiracles of cockroaches are more in number (10 pairs) and all are functional so the respiratory system of cockroaches is called polytheistic and holocaustic systems.

Question 22.
What is intima?
Answer:
A cuticle layer that forms the inner layer of trachea is called intima.

Question 23.
During inspiration which spiracles are kept open and which are kept closed?
Answer:
Thoracic spiracles are kept open and the abdominal spiracles are kept closed.

Question 24.
Which factors regulate the opening of the spiracles?
Answer:
Opening and closing of spiracles is influenced by CO2 tension in haemolymph and oxygen tension in the trachea.

Question 25.
Inspiration in cockroach is a passive process and expiration is an active process. Justify?
Answer:
As air is drawn in due to the relaxation of the muscle inspiration is a “passive process”. Expiration involves the contraction of muscles, so it is described as active process.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 26.
The nitrogenous wastes in Periplaneta are removed from the body through alimentary canal. Why?
Answer:
Malphigian tubules collect nitrogenous acts from the body parts and releases into alimentary canal. So these nitrogenous wastes get mixed with facel matter and sent out through anus.

Question 27.
How does the cuticle of a cockroach help in excretion?
Answer:
Some nitrogenous waste materials are deposited on the cuticle and eliminated during moulting.

Question 28.
How do fat bodies help in excretion?
Answer:
Urate cells present in these bodies are associated with excretion in a way. Those cells absorb and store uric acid.

Question 29.
What is ‘storage excretion’?
Answer:
Urate cells present in the fat bodies absorb and store uric acid throughout life. This is called “storage excretion”.

Question 30.
Which structure of the cockroach acts as a sensory and endocrine centre?
Answer:
The brain of the cockroach acts as the sensory and endocrine centre.

Question 31.
Distinguish between scolopidia and sensillae.
Answer:

ScolopidiaSensillae
Sub-cuticular units of mechano receptors of chordotonal organs.Units of cuticular receptors and chemoreceptors.

Question 32.
How is the ommatidium of cockroaches different from that of diurnal insects?
Answer:
Retinulae are present deep below the vitrallae and crystalline cone. The retinal sheath is absent.

Question 33.
Which of the abdominal ganglia is the largest and why?
Answer:
6th abdominal ganglia are the largest of all the abdominal ganglia because it is formed by the fusion of the ganglia of the 7th, 8th, 9th & 10th abdominal segments.

Question 34.
Name the structural and functional unit of the compound eye of the cockroach. How many such units are present in a single compound eye?
Answer:
Each compound eye is composed of about 2000 functional units called ommatidia.

Question 35.
Why is the brain called the principal sensory centre in cockroaches?
Answer:
The brain receives sensory impulses from various mouth parts & compound eye. Hence the brain is the principally a sensory centre.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 36.
Distinguish between apposition image and superposition image.
Answer:

AppositionSuperposition
1. These images are formed in diurnal insects.1. These images are formed in nocturnal insects.
2. Mosaic image is formed.2. Overlapping (Blurred) image formed.
3. Vision is mosaic.3. Vision is not clear.

Question 37.
List out the characters that help in understanding the difference between male and Female cockroaches.
Answer:

MaleFemale
1. Eight terga are not visible.1. Both eighth & ninth terga are not visible.
2. Nine sterna are visible.2. Only seven sterna are visible.
3. Anal styles are present.3. Anal styles are absent.

Question 38.
What is the function of the mushroom gland in cockroaches?
Answer:
A characteristic mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6th and 7th abdominal segments which functions as an accessory reproductive gland.

Question 39.
Compare the utriculi majors and utriculi breviores of the mushroom gland functionally.
Answer:

  • Utriculi majores forms the inner layer of the spermatophore.
  • Utriculi breviores nourish the sperms.

Question 40.
What are Phallomeres?
Answer:
Surrounding the male genital opening there are chitinous and asymmetrical structures called phallic organs/phellomeres/gonapophyses which help in copulation.

Question 41.
What is gona Pophyses?
Answer:
Surrounding the male genital opening there are chitinous and asymmetrical structures called phallic organs/phellomeres/gonapophyses which help in copulation.

Question 42.
How is the colleterial gland helpful in the reproduction of Periplaneta?
Answer:
A pair of branched colleterial glands is present behind the ovaries. These glands open into the genital pouch separately. Secretions of the two collateral glands form a hard egg case called Ootheca.

Question 43.
What is paurometabolous development?
Answer:
Gradual development (metamorphosis) through nymph stages is called “parametabolous development”.
Ex: Periplaneta

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the mouthparts of cockroaches.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q1

Question 2.
Describe the physiology of digestion in cockroaches.
Answer:
Food collection: The cockroach is an omnivorous insect. It feeds on all types of organic matter.

Digestion: After swallowing, the food passes through the pharynx and oesophagus and reaches the crop. In the crop, food is mixed with digestive juices that are regurgitated into it through the grooves of the gizzard. Hence, most of the food is digested in the crop. The partly digested food is filtered by the bristles of the gizzard and later it passes through the stomodeal valve into the ventricular.

The enzyme amylase of the salivary juice converts starches into disaccharides. Invertase or sucrase digests sucrose into glucose and fructose. Maltose converts maltose into glucose. The enzyme lipase digests lipids into fatty acids and glycerol. Proteases digest proteins into amino acids. The cellulose of the food is digested by the enzyme cellulose secreted by the microorganisms present in the hindgut of cockroaches. Cellulose is converted into glucose.

In the ventriculus, the digested food is absorbed. The undigested food is passed into the ileum, and colon and then reaches the rectum, where water is reabsorbed by rectal papillae. Then the remaining material is finally defecated as dry pellets, through the anus.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 3.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the salivary apparatus of cockroaches.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q3

Question 4.
Describe the structure and function of the heart in Periplaneta.
Answer:
Heart: The heart lies in the pericardial hemocoel or dorsal sinus. It is a long muscular, contractile tube found along the mid-dorsal line, beneath the terga of the thorax and abdomen. It consists of 13 chambers. Every chamber opens into the other present in front of it. Three of the thirteen chambers are situated in the thorax and ten in the abdomen. Its posterior end is closed while the anterior end is continued forward as the anterior aorta. On the posterior side of each chamber, except the last, there is a pair of small apertures called ‘Ostia’ one on each side. Ostia have valves that allow the blood to pass only into the heart from the dorsal sinus.

Question 5.
Describe the process of blood circulation in Periplaneta.
Answer:
The blood flows forward in the heart by the contractions of its chambers. At the anterior end of the heart, the blood flows into the aorta and from there it enters the sinus of the head. From the head sinus, the blood flows into the perivisceral and sternal sinuses. On contraction of the alary muscles, the pericardial septum is pulled down. This increases the volume of the pericardial sinus. Hence blood flows from the perivisceral sinus into the pericardial sinus through the apertures of the pericardial septum. On relaxation of the alary muscles, the pericardial septum moves upwards to its original position. This forces the blood, to enter the chambers of the heart through the Ostia from the pericardial sinus.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q5

Question 6.
How do contraction and relaxation of alary muscles help in circulation?
Answer:
The blood flows forward in the heart by the contractions of its chambers. At the anterior end of the heart, the blood flows into the aorta and from there it enters the sinus of the head. From the head sinus, the blood flows into the perivisceral and sternal sinuses. On contraction of the alary muscles, the pericardial septum is pulled down. This increases the volume of the pericardial sinus. Hence blood flows from the pericardial septum. On relaxation of the alary muscles, the pericardial septum moves upwards to its original position. This forces the blood, to enter the chamber of the heart through the Ostia from the pericardial sinus.

Question 7.
What are the different excretory organs in Periplaneta? Describe the process of excretion in detail.
Answer:
The structures associated with excretory function are Malpighian tubules, Fat bodies, uricase glands, Nephrocytes, and Cuticles.

Malpighian tubule: The malpighian tubules are long, unbranched yellowish tubules, attached at the extreme anterior end of the hindgut, lying freely in the hemolymph, but do not open into it being bliand at the free ends. They are 100-150 in number arranged in 6-8 bundles, each bundle having 15-25 tubules. Each tubule is lined by a single layer of glandular epithelium with a brush border on the inner surface. The ‘distal portion’ of the tubule is secretory and the ‘proximal part’ is absorptive in nature.

The glandular cells of the malpighian tubules absorb water salts, CO2, and nitrogenous wastes from the hemolymph and secrete them into the lumen of the tubules. The cell of the proximal part of the tubules reabsorbs water and certain inorganic salts. By the contraction of the tubules, urine is pushed into the ileum. More water is reabsorbed from it when it moves into the rectum and almost solid uric acid is excreted along with faecal matter.

The removal of nitrogenous waste material through the alimentary canal helps in the complete reabsorption of water from the wastes and the formation of dry uric acid. It is an adaptation for the conservation of water as it is very important in terrestrial organisms.

Fat bodies: Fat body is a lobed white structure. Urate cells present in these bodies are associated with excretion in a way. These cells absorb and store uric acid throughout life. This is called storage excretion as they remain stored in the cells of the corpora adipose.

Uricose glands: Uric acid is stored in uriosa gland or utriculi majority of the mushroom gland in male cockroaches. It is discharged during copulation.

Cuticle: Some nitrogenous waste materials are deposited on the cuticle and eliminated during moulting.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 8.
How does Periplaneta conserve water? Explain it with the help of excretion in it.
Answer:
Periplaneta can conserve water by following methods. The removal of Nitrogenous waste material through the alimentary canal helps in the complete reabsorption of water from the wastes and the formation of dry uric acid. It is an adaption for the conservation of water as it is very important in terrestrial organisms.

Cuticle: Some nitrogenous waste materials are deposited on the cuticle and eliminated during moulting.

Question 9.
Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Ommatidium.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q9

Question 10.
How can you identify the male and female cockroaches? Explain it describing the chief structures of the external and internal genitalia.
Answer:
Periplaneta is dioecious or unisexual and both the sexes have well-developed reproductive organs. Sexual dimorphism is evident both externally and internally. The female is different from the male in respect of short and broad abdomen, presence of blood pouches, and absence of anal styles.

The eighth tergum in the male and both the eighth and ninth terga in the female are not visible. In the male ninth sterna are visible, whereas in the female only the seventh sterna are visible. The seventh, eighth, and ninth sterna together form a broad pouch.

The posterior end of the abdomen is a pair of anal cerci, a pair of anal styles and gonophophyses in the males, and cerci are jointed and arise from the lateral side of the tenth tergum and are found in both sexes. The anal styles are without joints and arise from the ninth sternum. But seen only in the males. The gonopophysis are small chitinous processes arising from the ninth sternum in males and the eighth, and ninth sterna in females. They are the external genital organs.

Question 11.
Describe the male reproductive system of cockroaches.
Answer:
The male reproductive system consists of a pair of testes. These are elongated and lobed structures lying on each lateral side in the fourth to sixth abdominal segments. They are embedded in the fat bodies. From the posterior end of each testis, there starts a thin duct, the vas deferens.

The two vasa deferentia run backward and inwards to open into a wide median duct, the ductus ejaculatory in the seventh segment. A characteristic mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6th and 7th abdominal segments which functions as an accessory reproductive gland.

The gland consists of two types of tubules:

  • Long slender tubules, the utriculi majors, or peripheral tubules.
  • Short tubules, the utriculi breviores, and secretion of utriculi majors form the inner layer of the spermatophore while the utricular breviores nourish the sperms. These tubules open into the anterior part of the ejaculatory duct.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q11

Question 12.
Describe the female reproductive system of cockroaches.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) SAQ Q12
The female reproductive system of Periplaneta consists of a pair of ovaries a pair of oviducts vagina, spermathecal papilla, colleterial glands, and ovaries.

A pair of large ovaries lie laterally in 2 to 6 abdominal segments. They are light yellow in colour surrounded by fat bodies. Each ovary consists of eight tubules called ovarian tubules or ovarioles. Each ovariole consists of a tapering anterior filament called germarium and a posterior wider vitellarium. The germarium contains various stages of developing ova and the vitellarium contains mature ova with the yolk. The tapering ends of the ovarioles of each ovary unite to form a single thread that attaches to the dorsal body wall.

The ovarioles, at their posterior end, unite to form a short wide oviduct. The oviducts unite to form a very short median vagina. The vertical opening of the vegina is called the female genital pore. It opens into a large genital pouch on the eighth sternum. A spermatheca or receptaculum seminis, consisting of a left-sac like and a right filamentous caecum, is present in the 6th segment which opens by a median aperture on a small spermathecal papilla in the dorsal wall of the genital pouch on the ninth sternum. In a fertile female, the spermatheca contains spermatophores, obtained during copulation.

A pair of branched colleterial glands is present behind the ovaries. These glands open into the genital pouch separately, just above the spermathecal aperture. Secretion of the two collateral glands forms a hard egg case called ootheca around the eggs.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the digestive system of cockroaches with the help of a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
The digestive system of cockroaches consists of an alimentary canal and the associated glands. The preoral cavity surrounded by the mouth parts is present in front of the mouth. The hypopharynx divides into two chambers called cibagium (anterior) and salivarium (posterior).

Alimentary canal: The alimentary canal of cockroaches is a long tube and is coiled in some places. It extends between the mouth and the anus. It is divided into three regions namely the foregut of stomodaeum, midgut or mesenteron, and hindgut is internally lined by ectoderm. The mesenteron is lined by the endodermal cells.

Forgut or stomodaeum: The foregut includes the pharynx oesophagus, crop, and gizzard. It is internally lined by a chitinous cuticle. The mouth opens into the pharynx, which in turn leads into a narrow tubular oesophagus. The oesophagus opens behind into a thin-walled distensible sac called a crop. The crop serves as a reservoir for storing food. Its outer surface is covered by a network of tracheae.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q1
Behind the crop, there is a thick-walled muscular proven- triculus or gizzard. The chitinous inner living of the gizzard has six powerful teeth, which form an efficient grinding apparatus. Behind each tooth is a hairy pad, which bears backwardly directed bristles. Among these plates, food is thoroughly ground into fine particles. These food particles are filtered by the bristles. The gizzard thus acts both as a grinding mill and also as a sieve. There is a membranous projection of the gizzard into the mesenteron in the form of a funnel called a stomodeal valve. This valve prevents the entry (regurgitation) of food from the mesenteron back into the gizzard.

Midgut (mesenteron or ventriculus): The midgut is a short and narrow tube behind the gizzard. It is also called mesenteron or ventriculus. Between the ventriculus and the gizzard, arising from the ventriculus there are six to the eighth finger-like diverticula called nepatic caecae. They are helpful in the digestion and absorption of digested food materials. Ventriculus is functionally divided into an anterior secretory part and a posterior absorptive part.

The secretory part of the ventriculus has many gland cells and it secretes several enzymes. The ‘bolus’ of food in the mesenteron is enveloped by a chitinous and porous membrane called a peritrophic membrane, which is secreted by the funnel-like stomodeal valve of the gizzard. Digested food is absorbed into the food through the peritrophic membrane in the posterior absorptive region of the ventriculus. The peritrophic membrane protects the wall of the ventriculus from hard food particles in the food. The opening of the ventriculus into the hindgut is controlled by a sphincture muscle. It prevents entry of undigested food from the hindgut into the midgut.

Hindgut or proctodaeum: The hindgut is a long coiled tube, consisting of three regions namely the ileum, colon, and rectum. It is internally lined by the chitinous cuticle. The ileum that lies behind the mesenteron is a short tube. Six bundles of fine yellow, blind tubules called Malpighian tubules open into the ileum near the junction of mesenteron and ileum. Malpighian tubules are excretory in function. The ileum collects uric acid from the malpighian tubules and undigested food from the mesenteron. The ileum opens behind into a long coiled tube called the colon. The colon leads into a short and wide rectum which opens out through the anus. The rectum bears on its inner side six longitudinal chitinous folds called rectal papillae. They are concerned with the reabsorption of water from undigested food.

Digestive gland: The digestive glands associated with the alimentary canal of cockroaches are salivary glands, hepatic caecae, and glandular cells of the mesenteron.

Salivary glands: There is a pair of salivary glands attached to the ventrolateral sides of the crop, one on each side. Each salivary gland has two lobes. Each lobe of the salivary gland has many lobules called acini. Each acinus is a group of secretory cells called zymogen cells with a small ductule. The ductules of both the lobes of a salivary gland unite to form a common salivary duct on each side.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q1.1
The two common salivary ducts are joined to form the median salivary duct. Between the two lobes of a salivary gland on each side is a sac called the salivary receptacular duct or common reservoir duct. The midious salivary duct opens into the common receptacular duct. Later these two form an efferent salivary duct. The efferent salivary duct opens at the base of the hypopharynx. Acinar cells secrete saliva, which contains a starch digesting enzymes such as amylase.

Hepatic caecae: The hepatic caecae are also termed midguts caecae. They contain secretory and absorptive cells.

Glandular cells of the mesenteron: The glandular cells of the mesenteron secrete enzymes such as maltase, invertase, proteases, and lipase.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 2.
Describe the blood circulatory system of Periplaneta in detail and draw a neat and labelled diagram of it.
Answer:
The circulatory system helps in the transportation of digested food, hormones, etc., from one part to another in the body. Periplaneta has an open type of circulatory system as the blood or hemolymph, flows freely within the body cavity or hemocoel, Blood vessels are poorly developed and open into spaces) Visceral organs located in the hemocoel are bathed in the blood. The three main parts associated with the blood circulatory system of Periplaneta are the hemocoel, heart, and blood.

Haemocoel: The haemocoel of cockroaches is divided into three sinuses by two muscular, horizontal membranes called dorsal diaphragm or pericardial septum and ventral diaphragm. Both diaphragms have pores. There is a series of paired triangular muscles called alary muscles. Every segment has one pair of these muscles situated on the lateral sides of the body. These are attached to the pericardial septum by their broad bases and to the terga by their broad bases and to the terga by their pointed ends or apices. The three sinuses of the haemocoel are known as pericardial haemocoel or the dorsal sinus, the perivisceral haemocoel or the middle sinus, and sternal haemocoel or ventral sinus or perineural sinus. The middle sinus is very large as it contains most of the viscera. The dorsal and ventral sinuses are small as they have only the heart and nerve cords, respectively.

Heart: The heart lies in the pericardial haemocoel or dorsal sinus. It is a long muscular, contractile tube found in a long mid-dorsal line, beneath the terga of the thorax and abdomen.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q2
It consists of 13 chambers. Every chamber opens into the other present in front of it. Three of the thirteen chambers are situated in the thorax and ten in the abdomen. Its posterior end is closed while the anterior end is continued forward as the anterior aorta. At the posterior side of each chamber, except the last, there is a pair of small apertures called ‘Ostia’ one on each side. Ostia have valves that allow the blood to pass only into the heart from the dorsal sinus.

Blood: The blood of Periplaneta is colourless and is called haemolymph. It consists of a fluid called plasma and free blood corpuscles or haemocytes, which are phagocytic. The phagocytic, the phagocytes are large in size and can ‘ingest’ foreign particles such as bacteria. There is no respiratory pigment in the blood and so it plays no major role in respiration.

Question 3.
Describe the respiratory system of cockroaches with the help of neat and labelled diagrams.
Answer:
Due to the absence of respiratory pigment, the blood of cockroaches is colourless and it cannot carry oxygen to different tissues. Therefore a tracheal system is developed to carry the air directly to the tissues. The respiratory system of cockroaches consists of stigmata, tracheae, and tracheoles.

Stigmata or spiracles: The tracheal system communicates with the exterior by ten pairs of openings called stigmata or spiracles. The first two pairs of spiracles are present in the thoracic segments, one pair in the mesothorax and one pair in the metathorax. The remaining eight pairs of abdominal segments.

Spiracles are located in the pleura of their respective segments. The respiratory system in insects is classified on the basis of the number and nature of spiracles. The spiracles of cockroaches are polypneustic (as they are more than 3 pairs) and holopneustic (as all of them are functional). All spiracles are valvular and each of them is surrounded by a chitinous ring called peritreme. All spiracles bear small hair-like structures called trichomes to filter the dust particles.

Each spiracle opens into a small chamber called the atrium.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q3
Tracheae: From the atrium of each thoracic spiracle several horizontal tracheae run inside. They join with each other in the thorax to form many tracheal trunks like dorsal cephalic, and ventral cephalic trunks and their branches. These branches enter all organs of the head. The thoracic region also contains lateral longitudinal trunks. The abdominal spiracles lead into the atria. From the atrium of each abdominal spiracle, three tracheal tubes arise. All these tracheal tubes on one side open into three separate longitudinal tracheal trunks. They are lateral dorsal and ventral longitudinal trunks. Lateral longitudinal trunks are the longest tracheal trunks. The three pairs of longitudinal tracheal trunks on both sides are interconnected by many commissural tracheae. From all the tracheal trunks several branches are given out, which enter different organs. All tracheal branches entering an organ end in a special cell called tracheoles cell.

The wall of the tracheae is made of three layers. They are an outer basement membrane, a middle one cell thick epithelium, and an inner layer of cuticle called the intima. The intima is produced into spiral thickening called taenidia. The taenidia keep the tracheae always open and prevent it from collapsing.

Tracheoles: The terminal cell of the trachea is called tracheoblast or tracheole cell. It has several intracellular tubular extensions called tracheoles. Tracheoles are devoid of intima and taenidia. They are formed of a protein called tracheal. Tracheolar fluid is present inside the tracheoles. The level of the tracheal fluid varies with the metabolic activity of the insect. It is more when the insect is inactive and completely reabsorbed into the tissues when the insect is more active. Tracheoles penetrate the cell and are intimately associated with mitochondria (to supply oxygen to them).

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach)

Question 4.
Describe the reproductive system of Periplaneta and draw neat and labelled diagrams of it.
Answer:
Periplaneta is dioecious, or unisexual and both the sexes have well-developed reproductive organs. Sexual dimorphism is evident both externally and internally. The female is different. The female is different from the male in respect of short and broad abdomen, presence of brood pouches, and absence of anal styles.

Male Reproductive system: The male reproductive system consists of a pair of testes. These are elongated and lobed structures lying on each lateral side in the fourth to sixth abdominal segments. They are embedded in the fat bodies. From the posterior end of each testis, there starts a thin duct, the vas deferens, the two vasa deferentia run backward and inwards to open into a wide median duct, the ductus ejaculators in the seventh segment. A characteristic mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6th and 7th abdominal segments which functions as an accessory reproductive gland.

The gland consists of two types of tubules or i, long slender tubules, the utriculi majores or periphera tubules in short tubules, the utriculi breviores secretion of utriculi majores forms the inner layer of the spermatophore while that of utriculi breviores nourishes the sperms. These tubules open into the anterior part of the ejaculatory duct. The seminal vesicles are present on the ventral surface of the ejaculatory duct. These sacs store the sperms in the form of bundles called spermatophores. The ejaculatory duct is a muscular tube that extends posteriorly and opens at the gonopore or the male genital pore.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q4

Female reproductive system: The female reproductive system of Periplaneta consists of a pair of ovaries, a pair of oviducts, vagina, spermathecae, spermathecal papilla, and colleterial glands.

Ovaries: A pair of large ovaries lie laterally in 2 to 6 abdominal segments. They are light yellow in colour surrounded by fat bodies. Each ovary consists of eight tubules called ovarian tubules or ovarioles. Each ovariole consists of a tapering anterior filament germarium and a posterior wider vitellarium. The germarium contains various stages of developing ova and the vitellarium contains mature ova with the yolk.

The tapering ends of the ovarioles of each ovary unite-to form a single thread that attaches to the dorsal body wall. The ovarioles, at their posterior end, unite to form a short wide oviduct. The oviduct unite to form a very short median vagina. The vertical opening of the vagina is called the female genital pore. It opens into a large genital pouch on the eighth sternum. A spermatheca or receptaculum seminis. Consisting of a left-sac-like and a right filamentous caecum is present in the 6th segment which opens by a median aperture on a small spermathecal papilla in the dorsal wall of the genital pouch on the ninth sternum.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Type Study of Periplaneta Americana (Cockroach) LAQ Q4.1
In a fertile female, the spermatheca contains spermatophores obtained during copulation. A pair of branched colleterial glands is present behind the genital pouch separately just above the spermathecal aperture, secretion of the two collateral glands forms a hard egg case called ootheca a round the eggs.

Three pairs of a plate-like chitinous structures called gonapophyses are present around the female genital aperture. These gonapophyses guide the ova into ootheca as ovipositors. These are the female external genitalia.