AP State Important Questions

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 3rd Lesson ఉత్పత్తి, ఉపాధి will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP Board 10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Important Questions and Answers ఉత్పత్తి, ఉపాధి

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson ½ Mark Important Questions and Answers in Telugu Medium

1. ఉత్పత్తి అయిన అంత్య వస్తువుల, సేవల మార్కెటు విలువను ఏది నమోదు చేస్తుంది?
జవాబు:
స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి (GDP),

2. మాధ్యమిక వస్తువు కానిది క్రింది వానిలో ఏది?
ఇడ్లీ, వడ్లు, ఊక, బియ్యం
జవాబు:
ఇడ్లీ.

3. భారతదేశంలో ఆర్థిక సం||రం అంటే?
జవాబు:
ఏప్రిల్ 1 నుండి మార్చి 31

4. భారతదేశంలో అత్యధిక జనాభాకు ఉపాధిని అందించే రంగం ఏది?
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయం.

5. భారతదేశంలో అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో పనిచేస్తున్న వారి శాతము ఎంత?
జవాబు:
92%

6. 1972 నుండి స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో ఏ రంగం యొక్క వాటా క్రమేణా తగ్గుతున్నది?
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయం

7. ‘గనుల తవ్వకం’ ఏ రంగానికి చెందినది?
జవాబు:
ప్రాథమిక (వ్యవసాయ రంగం

8. మత్స్య పరిశ్రమ ఏ రంగానికి చెందినది?
జవాబు:
ప్రాథమిక (వ్యవసాయ) రంగం

9. అడవులు ఏ రంగానికి చెందినది?
జవాబు:
ప్రాథమిక (వ్యవసాయ) రంగం

10. ప్రకృతి ప్రధాన పాత్ర వహించే రంగం ఏది?
జవాబు:
ప్రాథమిక (వ్యవసాయ) రంగం

11.వస్తువులను నేరుగా తయారు చేయని రంగం ఏది?
జవాబు:
సేవా రంగం

12. క్రింది వానిలో అంతిమ వస్తువు కానిది ఏది?
కారు, నోటుబుక్, టి.వి., టైర్లు
జవాబు:
టైర్లు

13. క్రింది వానిలో మాధ్యమిక వస్తువు కానిది ఏది?
పెట్రోల్, మెటల్స్, కాగితపు గుజ్జు, కంప్యూటర్
జవాబు:
కంప్యూటరు

14. పూర్తి సామర్థ్యానికి తగినంతగా, తగినట్లుగా పని దొరకని స్థితిని ఏమంటారు?
జవాబు:
అల్ప ఉపాధి

15. గత 50 సం||రాలలో అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలలో ఏ రంగం నుండి ఏ రంగానికి ప్రాధాన్యత మారుతుంది?
జవాబు:
పారిశ్రామిక రంగం నుంచి సేవల రంగానికి

16. మొత్తం ఉత్పత్తిలో ఏ రంగం ప్రముఖ స్థానంలో ఉంది?
జవాబు:
సేవల రంగం

17. బ్యాంకులు, జీవిత భీమా, హోటళ్ళు, వ్యాపారం, రవాణా, ప్రసారాలు, ఆర్థిక, స్థిరాస్తి, ప్రజాసామాజిక, వ్యక్తిగత సేవలు ఏ రంగానికి చెందుతాయి?
జవాబు:
సేవల రంగం

18. కనబడని అల్ప ఉపాధిని ఏమంటారు?
జవాబు:
ప్రచ్ఛన్న నిరుద్యోగం.

19. వ్యవస్థీకృత, అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగాలలో పనిచేస్తున్న వారి శాతం వరుసగా ఎంత?
జవాబు:
8%, 92%.

20. ఆర్ధిక వ్యవస్థను ప్రధానంగా ఎన్ని రంగాలుగా విభజించారు?
జవాబు:
3 రంగాలు.

21. GDP ని విస్తరింపుము.
జవాబు:
స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి (గ్రాస్ డొమెస్టిక్ ప్రొడక్ట్)

22. ప్రస్తుతం అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలుగా పరిగణించ
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయం

23. వ్యవసాయం, పరిశ్రమలు, సేవలు అనే మూడు రంగాల ఉత్పత్తి కలిపితే ఏమి వస్తుంది?
జవాబు:
స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి

24. భారతదేశంలో ఇప్పటికి ఇదే ప్రధాన ఉపాధి రంగంగా ఉంది.
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయం

25. దేశంలోని కార్మికులలో సగం కంటే ఎక్కువ మంది వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో ఉండి ………. వంతు ఉత్పత్తికి మాత్రమే దోహదం చేస్తున్నారు.
జవాబు:
1/6 వంతు

26. GDP లో …….. శాతం వాటా ఉన్న పారిశ్రామిక, సేవారంగాలు మొత్తం కార్మికులలో దాదాపు సగానికి మాత్రమే ఉపాధి కల్పిస్తున్నాయి.
జవాబు:
75%

27. ప్రచ్ఛన్న నిరుద్యోగుల్లోని వారు కొంత మంది వేరే పనికి వెళితే ఉత్పత్తిలో ఎలాంటి మార్పు వస్తుంది?
జవాబు:
మార్పు ఉండదు.

28. ఏ రంగంలోని ఉద్యోగాలు అందరూ కోరుకుంటారు?
జవాబు:
వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం

29. భారతదేశంలోని గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతంలోని ఎంత శాతం కుటుంబాలు సన్న, చిన్న కారు రైతుల కిందికి వస్తాయి?
జవాబు:
80%

30. కేవలం 8% వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో ఉన్న కార్మికులు మొత్తం వస్తువులు, సేవలలో ఎంత శాతం ఉత్పత్తికి దోహదం చేశారు?
జవాబు:
50%

31. ఉపాధి షరతులు ఉండి, నమ్మకంగా పని ఉండే ప్రదేశాలు లేదా వ్యాపారాలకు ఏ రంగంగా వ్యవహరిస్తారు?
జవాబు:
వ్యవస్థీకృత

32. అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలోని కార్మికులలో సగం శాతం మంది ఎటువంటి ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు?
జవాబు:
స్వయం ఉపాధి

33. ఇతర వస్తువుల తయారీలో ఉపయోగించే వస్తువులను ఏమంటారు?
జవాబు:
మాధ్యమిక వస్తువులు

34. భారతదేశంలో ఇంతకు ముందు వ్యవసాయ క్షేత్రములో పనిచేసిన వాళ్లు ప్రస్తుతం వేటిలో ఎక్కువగా పని చేస్తున్నారు?
జవాబు:
కర్మాగారాలలో

35. 39 సం||రాల కాలంలో గణనీయంగా క్షీణించిన రంగం బడుతున్నా దేశం అభివృద్ధి తొలిదశల్లో ఏ రంగం ఏది? మరియు దాని అనుబంధ రంగాలు వాటి GDP పెరుగుదలకు అధికంగా దోహదం చేస్తాయి?
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయ రంగం

36. 2011 జనాభా లెక్కల ప్రకారం 120 కోట్ల జనాభాలో పనిచేస్తున్న వారి సంఖ్య ఎంత?
జవాబు:
46 కోట్లు

37. నిర్ణీత సమయ ప్రకారం పనిచేయటం, సెలవు దినాలు ఉపయోగించుకోవటం ఏ రంగం లక్షణం?
జవాబు:
వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం

38. క్రింది వారిలో అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగ కార్మికులకు ఉదాహరణ కానిది రోజు వారీ కూలీలు, బజారులో అమ్మకాలు చేసే వాళ్లు, బరువులు మోసేవాళ్లు, ప్రభుత్వ కంపెనీలో ఉద్యోగి.
జవాబు:
ప్రభుత్వ కంపెనీ ఉద్యోగి.

39. క్రింది వానిని సరిగా జతపరచండి.
i) ప్రాథమిక రంగం ( ) a) అభద్రత
ii) ద్వితీయ రంగం ( ) b) సేవలు
iii) తృతీయ రంగం ( ) c) భద్రత
iv) వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం ( ) d) పరిశ్రమలు
v) అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం ( ) e) వ్యవసాయం
జవాబు:
i-e, ii-d, iii-b, iv- c, v-a

40. క్రింది వానిని సరిగా జతపరచండి.
i) కొరియర్ బాయ్ ( ) a) సేవారంగం
ii) భవన నిర్మాణ ( ) b) అవ్యవస్థీకృత కార్మికుడురంగం
iii) ప్రభుత్వ ఉద్యోగి ( ) c) వ్యవస్థీకృతరంగం
iv) కారు ( ) d) మాధ్యమిక వస్తువు
v) టైర్లు ( ) e) అంత్య వస్తువు
జవాబు:
i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – e, v – d

41. సరియైన జతను ఎంచుకొని, రాయండి.
i) వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో ఉపాధి ( ) a) 92%
ii) అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో ఉపాధి ( ) b) 8%
iii) వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో ఉపాధి ( ) c) 53%
iv) పరిశ్రమల రంగంలో ఉపాధి ( ) d) 22%
v) సేవల రంగంలో ఉపాధి ( ) e) 25%
జవాబు:
i – b, ii – a, iii – c, iv – d, v – e

42. 2009-10 సం||రంలో ఎంత శాతం గ్రామీణ కార్మికులు వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో ఉన్నారు?
జవాబు:
68%

43. 2009-10 సం||రంలో ఎంత శాతం గ్రామీణ కార్మికులు పారిశ్రామిక రంగంలో ఉన్నారు?
జవాబు:
17%

44. 2009-10 సం||రంలో ఎంత శాతం గ్రామీణ కార్మికులు సేవల రంగంలో ఉన్నారు?
జవాబు:
15%

45. 2009-10 సం||రంలో ఎంత శాతం మహిళా కార్మికులు వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో ఉన్నారు?
జవాబు:
69%

46. 2009-10 సం||రంలో ఎంత శాతం మహిళా కార్మికులు పారిశ్రామిక రంగంలో ఉన్నారు?
జవాబు:
16%

47. 2009-10 సం॥రంలో ఎంత శాతం మహిళా కార్మికులు సేవల రంగంలో ఉన్నారు?
జవాబు:
15%

48. 2009-10 సం||రంలో వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో ఎంత శాతం మంది ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు?
జవాబు:
53%

49. 2009-10 సం||రంలో పారిశ్రామిక రంగంలో ఎంత శాతం మంది ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు?
జవాబు:
22%

50. 2009-10 సం||రంలో సేవల రంగంలో ఎంత శాతం మంది ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు?
జవాబు:
25%

51. 2009-10 సం||రంలో GDPలో అత్యధిక వాటా ఏ పై వాక్యా లలో సరైనది ఏది? రంగం కలిగి ఉంది?
జవాబు:
సేవల రంగం

52. 2009-10 సం||రంలో GDPలో వ్యవసాయ రంగం వాటా ఎంత?
జవాబు:
17%

53. 2009-10 సం||రంలో GDPలో పారిశ్రామిక రంగం వాటా ఎంత?
జవాబు:
26%

54. 2011-12 ఆర్థిక సం||రంలో వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో పనిచేస్తున్న గ్రామీణ కార్మికుల శాతం ఎంత?
జవాబు:
67%

55. 2011-12 ఆర్థిక సం||రంలో పారిశ్రామిక రంగంలో పనిచేస్తున్న పట్టణ కార్మికుల శాతం ఎంత?
జవాబు:
31%

56. 2011-12 ఆర్థిక సం||రంలో సేవల రంగంలో పనిచేస్తున్న పట్టణ కార్మికుల శాతం ఎంత?
జవాబు:
60%

56. a) ప్రచ్ఛన్న నిరుద్యోగం ఎక్కువగా ఏ రంగంలో కన్పిస్తుంది?
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయ రంగం

57. భారతదేశంలో సేవారంగమునకు సంబంధించిన వ్యాఖ్యల సత్యము.
జవాబు:
→ సేవారంగం అభివృద్ధి చెందుతుండగా ఆ రంగంలో అన్ని కార్యకలాపాలు కూడా సమానంగా అభివృద్ధి చెందుతున్నాయి.
→ సేవారంగం అభివృద్ధి చెందుతున్నప్పటికి ఆ రంగంలో అన్ని కార్యకలాపాలు సమానంగా అభివృద్ధి చెందడం లేదు.
→ సేవారంగం ఉన్నత విద్యావంతులకు మాత్రమే ఉపాధిని కల్పిస్తుంది.
→ GDPలో సేవారంగం యొక్క వాటా చాలా తక్కువగా ఉంది.
జవాబు:
సేవారంగం అభివృద్ధి చెందుతున్నప్పటికి ఆ రంగంలో అన్ని కార్యకలాపాలు సమానంగా అభివృద్ధి చెందడం లేదు.

58. క్రింది వాక్యాలను పరిగణించండి.
i) గత 50సం||రాలలో అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలలో పారిశ్రామిక రంగం నుంచి సేవల రంగానికి ప్రాధాన్యత మారుతోంది.
ii) అయితే మొత్తం ఉత్పత్తిలో సేవారంగం ప్రముఖ స్థానంలో ఉంది.
A) (i) మాత్రమే
B) (ii) మాత్రమే
C) (i) మరియు (ii)
D) రెండూ కావు
జవాబు:
C) (I) మరియు (ii)

59. క్రింది వాక్యాలను పరిగణించండి.
i) ఆదాయ స్థాయి ముఖ్యమైనప్పటికి అభివృద్ధిని సూచించటానికి ఇదొక్కటే సరిపోదు.
ii) మానవాభివృద్ధి నివేదిక విద్యాస్థాయి, అరోగ్యస్థితి కన్నా తలసరి ఆదాయానికి ఎక్కువ ప్రాధాన్యత
ఇచ్చింది.
– పై వాక్యా లలో సరైనది ఏది ?
A) (1) మాత్రమే B) (ii) మాత్రమే
C) (1) మరియు (ii) D) రెండూ కావు
జవాబు:
A (i) మాత్రమే.

60. శ్రీనివాస్ ప్రభుత్వ ఉద్యోగి అయితే అతనికి వర్తించని అంశం ఏది?
→ భవిష్య నిధి
→ జీతంతో కూడిన సెలవు
→ సక్రమ జీతం
→ పరిమితిలేని పనివేళలు
జవాబు:
పరిమితిలేని పనివేళలు

61. క్రింది వాక్యాలను పరిగణించండి.
i) వినియోగానికి సిద్ధంగా ఉన్న వస్తువును అంత్య వస్తువు అంటారు.
ii) GDP లో అంత్య వస్తువు, మాధ్యమిక వస్తువులను కలిపి లెక్కిస్తారు.
పై వాక్యా లలో సరైనది ఏది?
A) (1) మాత్రమే
B) (ii) మాత్రమే
C) (i) మరియు (ii)
D) రెండూ కావు
జవాబు:
A (i) మాత్రమే.

62. క్రింది కార్యకలాపాల్లో (వ్యవసాయం) ప్రాథమిక రంగానికి చెందనిది ఏది?
A) రఘుపతి గనిలో పనిచేసే కార్మికుడు
B) ఈశ్వరమ్మ చేపలు అమ్మే వ్యక్తి
C) శైలజ అటవి ఉత్పత్తులు అమ్ముతుంది.
D) లక్ష్మీ ఇంటి దగ్గరలోని ప్లాస్టిక్ కార్మాగారంలో పని చేస్తుంది.
జవాబు:
D) లక్ష్మీ ఇంటి దగ్గరలోని ప్లాస్టిక్ కార్మాగారంలో పని చేస్తుంది.

క్రింది వాక్యాలు పరిగణించండి.
63. i) పూర్తి సామర్థ్యానికి తగినట్లుగా పని ఉండటాన్ని అల్ప ఉపాధి అంటారు.
ii) కనపడని అల్ప ఉపాధిని ప్రచ్ఛన్న నిరుద్యోగం అంటారు.
పై వాక్యా లలో సరైనది ఏది?
A) (i) మాత్రమే
B) (ii) మాత్రమే
C) i) మరియు (ii)
D) రెండూ కావు
జవాబు:
C (i) మరియు (iii)

64. క్రింది వానిలో భిన్నంగా ఉన్న దానిని గుర్తించి, రాయండి.
పోస్టమ్యాన్, చెప్పులు కుట్టేవ్యక్తి, సైనికుడు, పోలీసు
జవాబు:
చెప్పులు కుట్టేవ్యక్తి

ఇవ్వబడిన పట్టికను పరిశీలించి క్రింది ప్రశ్నకు సమాధానము వ్రాయుము.

65. ఏ రంగంలో ఉత్పత్తి రెండింతలు పెరిగింది?
జవాబు:
పారిశ్రామిక రంగం

66. ఏ రంగం ఎక్కువ మందికి ఉపాధి కల్పిస్తుంది?
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయ రంగం

ఇవ్వబడిన పట్టికను పరిశీలించి క్రింది ప్రశ్నకు సమాధానము వ్రాయుము.

67. ఏ రంగంలో ఉపాధి ఎక్కువగా ఉండి, ఉత్పత్తి తక్కువగా ఉంది?
జవాబు:
అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం

68. ఏ రంగంలో ఉపాధి తక్కువగా ఉంది, ఉత్పత్తి ఎక్కువగా ఉంది?
జవాబు:
వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం.

ఇవ్వబడిన పట్టికను పరిశీలించి క్రింది ప్రశ్నకు సమాధానము వ్రాయుము.

69. గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతంలో ఎక్కువ మందికి ఉపాధి కల్పిస్తున్న రంగం ఏది?
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయ రంగం

70. పట్టణ ప్రాంతంలో ఎక్కువ మంది ఏ రంగంలో పని చేస్తున్నాయి?
జవాబు:
సేవల రంగం

71. ప్రచ్ఛన్న నిరుద్యోగంలో ఉపాంత ఉత్పత్తి ఎంత?
జవాబు:
శూన్యం.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers in Telugu Medium

ప్రశ్న 1.
అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలోని కార్మికుల పరిస్థితులను మెరుగుపరచడానికి కొన్ని సంస్కరణలను సూచించుము.
జవాబు:

• వేతనం పెంచటం
• ఉద్యోగ భద్రత కల్పించటం
• ఎక్కువ పనికి ఎక్కువ వేతనం ఇవ్వటం
• పనిచేసే ప్రదేశంలో సౌకర్యాలను మెరుగుపరచటం
• వైద్య సదుపాయాలు కల్పించటం
• అనారోగ్య సెలవులకు అవకాశాన్ని కల్పించటం

ప్రశ్న 2.
మాధ్యమిక వస్తువులకు ఉదాహరణలు రాయండి.
జవాబు:
1) వరిధాన్యం (వడ్లు),
ii) బియ్యం,
iii) దారం,
iv) రబ్బరు అందు చేతులు

ప్రశ్న 3.
అల్ప ఉపాధి అనగానేమి?
జవాబు:
కార్మికులకు తమ పూర్తి సామర్థ్యానికి తగినట్లుగా, తగినంతగా పని దొరకని స్థితిని “అల్ప ఉపాధి” అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 4.
అల్ప ఉపాధికి ఒక ఉదాహరణ రాయండి.
జవాబు:
అల్ప ఉపాధికి ఉదాహరణలు :

1. తమ సామర్థ్యం మేరకు పని దొరకకపోయినా పని చెయ్యడం అనేది వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో ఎక్కువగా ఉండటం.
2. సేవా రంగం – రంగులు వెయ్యటం, నీటి పైపుల పని, మరమ్మతులు చెయ్యటం.

ప్రశ్న 5.
అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో ఏయే అంశాలు ఉంటాయి?
జవాబు:
అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో అంశాలు : తక్కువ వేతనం, ఉద్యోగ భద్రత లేకపోవడం, వైద్య, ఆరోగ్య సౌకర్యాల లేమి, ఆర్జిత సెలవులు లేకపోవడం, భవిష్య నిధి, బీమా వంటివిల ఏకపోవడం మొదలగునవి.

ప్రశ్న 6.
కింది ‘పై’ చార్టును పరిశీలించి ఇచ్చిన ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు రాయండి.
మూడు రంగాలలో ఉపాధి వాటా 2011-12

ఎ) అత్యల్ప ఉపాధి అవకాశాలను కల్పించే రంగం ఏది?
జవాబు:
అత్యల్ప ఉపాధి అవకాశాలను కల్పించే రంగం : పరిశ్రమలు.

బి) వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో అధిక ఉపాధికి రెండు కారణాలను పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో అధిక ఉపాధికి రెండు కారణాలు: –

• పారిశ్రామిక, సేవారంగంలో తగినంత ఉపాధి కల్పించబడకపోవడం.
• అక్షరాస్యతతో సంబంధం లేకుండా గ్రామీణ ప్రజలు వ్యవసాయంపై ఆధారపడటం.
• ఎక్కువ పనులకు అవకాశం సులభంగా లభించడం.

ప్రశ్న 7.
అంతిమ వస్తువులకు రెండు ఉదాహరణలు ఇవ్వండి.
జవాబు:
అంతిమ వస్తువులకు ఉదాహరణలు : ఇడ్లీ, దోశ, కారు, కంప్యూటర్, నోటు పుస్తకము మొదలైనవి.

ప్రశ్న 8.
క్రింద పట్టికలో ఇవ్వబడిన సమాచారమును పరిశీలించి, ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు రాయండి.
పట్టిక : మూడు రంగాలలో ఉపాధి మరియు స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి వాటా

a) స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో వ్యవసాయరంగం వాటా ఎంత?
జవాబు:
స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో వ్యవసాయరంగం వాటా – 16%

b) స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో ఎక్కువ వాటా కల్గి ఉన్నప్పటికీ, సేవా రంగంలో ఉపాధి తక్కువగా ఉండుటకు కారణం ఏమిటి?
జవాబు:
స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో ఎక్కువ వాటా కల్గి ఉన్నప్పటికి సేవా రంగంలో ఉపాధి తక్కువగా ఉండుటకు కారణం

• నైపుణ్యం లేకపోవడం.
• ఉపాధి అవకాశాలు అందుబాటులో లేకపోవడం.

ప్రశ్న 9.
ఇవ్వబడిన పట్టికను పరిశీలించి క్రింది ప్రశ్నకు సమాధానము వ్రాయుము.

ప్రశ్న : ఉపాధి కల్పన ఏ రంగంలో తగ్గుతున్నది?
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయ రంగం

ప్రశ్న 10.
ప్రాథమిక రంగం అని దేనినంటారు?
జవాబు:
ఉత్పత్తి ప్రక్రియలో ప్రకృతి ప్రధాన పాత్ర వహించే వ్యవసాయం, మత్స్య పరిశ్రమ, అటవీ, గనులకు సంబంధించిన పనులు మొదలైనవి “ప్రాథమిక రంగం” అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 11.
ద్వితీయ రంగం అనగానేమి?
జవాబు:
యంత్రాలు, పరికరాలు ఉపయోగించి వస్తువులు ఉత్పత్తి చేయడం, ఇతర పరిశ్రమలను “ద్వితీయ రంగం” అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 12.
తృతీయ రంగంలోని అంశాలేవి?
జవాబు:
తృతీయ రంగంను “సేవా రంగం” అని కూడా అంటారు. వస్తువులను నేరుగా తయారుచేయకుండా వస్తువుల ఉత్పత్తికి, ప్రజలకు అవసరమైన సేవలు అందించే కార్యకలాపాలు.

ప్రశ్న 13.
స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి అనగానేమి?
జవాబు:
ఒక సంవత్సర కాలంలో ఆర్థిక వ్యవస్థలో ఉత్పత్తి చేసిన అన్ని అంతిమ వస్తు, సేవల విలువే ‘స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి” (GDP) అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 14.
ఆర్థిక సంవత్సరమని ఏ నెల నుండి ఏ నెల దాకా అంటారు?
జవాబు:
ఏప్రిల్ నుండి (తర్వాతి) మార్చి వరకు.

ప్రశ్న 15.
ప్రచ్ఛన్న నిరుద్యోగం అనగానేమి?
జవాబు:
అందరూ పనిచేస్తున్నట్టు ఉంటుంది కానీ ఎవ్వరికీ తమ పూర్తి సామర్థ్యానికి తగినట్టుగా పని ఉండటం లేదు. ఈ రకమైన అల్ప ఉపాధి ఎవరికీ కనబడదు, అందుకే దానిని “ప్రచ్ఛన్న నిరుద్యోగం” అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 16.
వ్యవస్థీకృతరంగం అనగానేమి?
జవాబు:
కొన్ని క్రమబద్ధ విధానాలు, ప్రక్రియలు ఉండి నిర్వచనీయమైన పద్ధతిలో ఉత్పత్తి, ఉపాధి కల్పనలున్న రంగంను “వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం” అంటారు.
ఉదా :
భారీ పరిశ్రమలు.

ప్రశ్న 17.
అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం అనగానేమి? ఒక ఉదాహరణ నిమ్ము.
జవాబు:
ఉద్యోగాలలో కాని, జీతాలలో కాని ఒక నియత పద్ధతిలేని కార్మికులు, కర్షకులు ఉండే చిన్న చిన్న సంస్థలున్న రంగంను “అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం” అంటారు.
ఉదా :
చేనేత పరిశ్రమ, బీడీ పరిశ్రమ.

ప్రశ్న 18.
అంత్యవస్తువులు అని వేనినంటారు? ఉదాహరణనిమ్ము.
జవాబు:
వినియోగానికి సిద్ధంగా ఉన్న వస్తువులు.
ఉదా :
టీవీ, కారు, నోటు పుస్తకం.

ప్రశ్న 19.
మాధ్యమిక వస్తువులు అని వేనినంటారు? ఉదాహరణనిమ్ము.
జవాబు:
వినియోగ వస్తువుల తయారీలో ఉపయోగించే వస్తువులను “మాధ్యమిక వస్తువులు” అంటారు.
ఉదా : గోధుమపిండి (బిస్కట్ల తయారీ, రొట్టెల తయారీలో ఉపయోగిస్తారు.)

ప్రశ్న 20.
భారతదేశంలో వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో, అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో ఎంత శాతం పనిచేస్తున్నారు?
జవాబు:
92% మంది అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలోను, 8% మంది వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలోను పనిచేస్తున్నారు.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers in Telugu Medium

ప్రశ్న 1.
వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగము అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగము కంటే ఏ విధంగా భిన్నమైనది?
జవాబు:

1. ఉపాధి షరతులు ఉండి, నమ్మకంగా పని ఉండే ప్రదేశాలు లేదా వ్యాపారాలను వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంగా వ్యవహరిస్తారు.
2. ఉపాధి షరతులు ఏమీ లేకుండా ఉండే చిన్న చిన్న సంస్థలను అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం అంటారు. ఇవి ప్రభుత్వ నియంత్రణలో ఉండవు. నియమ నిబంధనలు ఉంటాయి. కానీ వీటిని అనుసరించరు.

కనుక వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగము అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగము కంటే భిన్నమైనది అని చెప్పవచ్చును.

ప్రశ్న 2.
ఈ క్రింది పట్టిక పరిశీలించి, ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు రాయండి.
కింది పట్టిక భారతదేశంలో 1972-73 మరియు 2009-10 సంవత్సరాలలో వివిధ రంగాలలో ఉపాధి పొందిన వారి వివరాలను తెలుపుతుంది.

a) పై పట్టికలో నీవు గమనించిన ప్రధాన మార్పులేవి?
b) ఈ మార్పులకు గల కారణాలేవి?
జవాబు:
a)

• వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో ఉపాధి అవకాశాలు 74% నుండి 530కి తగ్గిపోయాయి.
• పారిశ్రామిక రంగంలో 11% నుండి 22% శాతంకు, అంటే దాదాపు రెట్టింపు.
• సేవల రంగంలో 15% నుండి 25% శాతంకు ఉపాధి అవకాశాలు పెరిగాయి.

b) ఈ మార్పునకు కారణాలు:

• విత్తనాల ధరలు పెరగడం, వర్షాలు తగ్గడం, విద్యుత్ కోతలు, మద్దతు ధర లభించకపోవడం మొదలైన కారణాల వలన వ్యవసాయం లాభసాటిగా లేకపోవడంతో ఈ రంగంలో క్షీణత ఏర్పడింది.
• ప్రైవేట్ రంగం విస్తరించడంతో పరిశ్రమల స్థాపన పెరిగిపోయింది.
• సమాచార, శాస్త్ర సాంకేతిక రంగాలలో పురోగతి వలన ఈ రంగాలు బాగా విస్తృతమైనాయి.
• ఉత్పత్తి పెరగడం, మార్కెట్స్ పెరగడం, వ్యాపారం, వాణిజ్యం, రవాణా పెరగడం వలన సేవారంగంలో ఉపాధి పెరిగింది.

ప్రశ్న 3.
అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం కన్నా వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం ఎందుకు మెరుగైనదో కారణాలు తెలియజేయండి.
జవాబు:

1. ప్రభుత్వ నిబంధనలను వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం అనుసరిస్తుంది. అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం అనుసరించదు.
2. వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో కార్మికులకు ఉద్యోగ భద్రత ఉంటుంది.
3. వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో కార్మికులు నిర్ధారిత గంటలు మాత్రమే పనిచేయాల్సి ఉంటుంది.
4. జీతంతో కూడిన సెలవు, సెలవులలో వేతనం, భవిష్యనిధి, వైద్య సదుపాయాలు వంటి అనేక ఇతర ప్రయోజనాలు అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో ఉన్నాయి. ఇవి అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో పనిచేసేవారికి ఉండవు.
5. పై కారణాల దృష్ట్యా అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం కంటే వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం మెరుగైనది.

ప్రశ్న 4.
ఈ క్రింది పట్టిక ఆధారంగా బార్ గ్రాఫ్ తయారుచేయుము.

జవాబు:

ఈ గ్రాఫ్ ప్రజలు ఏ రంగంలో ఎంత శాతం ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారో తెలియజేస్తుంది.

ప్రశ్న 5.
క్రింది ‘పై’ చార్ట్ ను పరిశీలించి, విశ్లేషిస్తూ రాయండి.

జవాబు:
పైన ఇవ్వబడిన గ్రాఫ్ వలన భారతదేశంలో ప్రజలు ఏ రంగంలో ఎంత శాతం మంది ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారో తెలియజేయుచున్నది.

1. వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్న వారి శాతం 49% మాత్రమే.
2. పరిశ్రమల రంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్న వారి శాతం గణనీయంగా పెరుగుతూ 24%కి చేరుకున్నది.
3. సేవల రంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్న వారి శాతం గణనీయంగా పరిశ్రమల రంగం కన్నా పెరుగుతూ వచ్చింది.
   దీనిని బట్టి భారతదేశం ఆర్థికంగా అభివృద్ధి చెందుచున్నదని చెప్పవచ్చును.

ప్రశ్న 6.
ఈ క్రింది పట్టికను పరిశీలించి, దిగువ నివ్వబడిన ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానములు వ్రాయండి.
వ్యవస్థీకృత, అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగాల పాత్ర

a) అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్న కార్మికుల శాతం ఎంత?
b) ఏ రంగంలో వారికి మంచి ఉద్యోగ భద్రత ఉంటుంది?
జవాబు:
a) 92%
b) వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం

ప్రశ్న 7.
వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో పనిచేసే కార్మికులకు కలుగు సౌకర్యాలను తెలుపుము.
జవాబు:

1. ఉద్యోగ భద్రత
2. నిర్ధారిత పనిగంటలు
3. ఎక్కువ పనికి ఎక్కువ వేతనం
4. జీతంతో కూడిన సెలవు
5. సెలవులలో వేతనం
6. భవిష్యనిధి
7. వైద్య ప్రయోజనాలు
8. పింఛను
9. భద్రతతో కూడిన పనివాతావరణం

ప్రశ్న 8.
క్రింది ‘పై’ ను పరిశీలించి విశ్లేషించండి.

జవాబు:

1. గ్రాఫ్ స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో వివిధ రంగాల వాటాను తెలియచేస్తుంది.
2. A – వ్యవసాయం, B – పరిశ్రమలు, C – వ్యాపారం, హోటళ్ళు, రవాణా, ప్రసారాలు, D – ఆర్థిక, బీమా, స్థిరాస్తి, E – ప్రజా, సామాజిక, వ్యక్తిగత సేవలు గురించి తెలియచేస్తాయి.
3. 1972-73లో అధిక ఉత్పత్తి వ్యవసాయ రంగం నుండి వచ్చింది. అత్యల్ప ఆదాయం ఆర్ధిక, భీమా, స్థిరాస్థి నుండి వచ్చింది.
4. 2011-12కు వచ్చేప్పటికి ఇది మార్పు చెంది వ్యాపారం, హోటళ్ళు, రవాణా, ప్రసారాల ఉత్పత్తి పెరిగి వ్యవసాయ రంగం వాటా తగ్గిపోయింది. పరిశ్రమలు రెండుసార్లు రెండవ స్థానంలోనే ఉంది.
5. సేవారంగంలో ఉత్పత్తి పెరిగినట్లయితే దేశం అభివృద్ధి చెందుతుంది. కాబట్టి దానిని పెంచేటట్లు చూడాలి.

ప్రశ్న 9.
సంఘటిత రంగంలో పనిచేసే కార్మికులకు గల సౌకర్యాలేవి?
జవాబు:
సంఘటిత రంగంలో పనిచేసే కార్మికులకు గల సౌకర్యాలు:

1. ఉద్యోగ భద్రత
2. నిర్ణీత పనిగంటలు
3. వేతనంతో కూడిన సెలవులు
4. పని పరిసరాలలో భద్రత మొదలగునవి.

ప్రశ్న 10.
ప్రజలు అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో పనిచేయడానికి సాధారణంగా ఇష్టపడరు. ఎందువలన?
జవాబు:

1. అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం చాలావరకు ప్రభుత్వ నియంత్రణలో ఉండదు.
2. నియమ నిబంధనలు తరచు పాటించబడవు.
3. ఉద్యోగాలు క్రమపద్ధతిలో ఉండవు.
4. వేతనాలు తక్కువ.
5. సెలవు పెట్టుకోవడం కష్టం.
6. వేతనంతో కూడిన సెలవులు ఉండవు.
7. ఉద్యోగ భద్రత ఉండదు.
8. పని పరిస్థితులు సాధారణంగా బాగుండవు.
9. పని ప్రదేశాలలో భద్రతా చర్యలు పాటించబడవు.
10. ఆరోగ్య సమస్యలు తలెత్తుతుంటాయి.

ప్రశ్న 11.
గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాలలో ఉపాధి అవకాశాలు పెరగటానికి మీరిచ్చే సూచనలు తెలపండి.
జవాబు:
గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాలలో ఉపాధి అవకాశాలు పెరగటానికి సూచనలు :

1. వ్యవసాయానికి ప్రభుత్వ మద్దతు అందించాలి.
2. కుటీర పరిశ్రమలను ప్రోత్సహించాలి.
3. గ్రామీణ ఉపాధి పథకాలను సమర్ధవంతంగా అమలు చేయాలి.

ప్రశ్న 12.
దిగువ నీయబడిన ‘పై’ చార్టులు పరిశీలించి, ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు రాయండి.

a) గణనీయ పురోగతి సాధించిన రంగమేది?
జవాబు:
సేవలు రంగం గణనీయ పురోగతిని సాధించింది.

b) స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో వ్యవసాయ రంగం వాటా ఎందుకు తగ్గింది?
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో ఉత్పత్తి ఆశించినంతగా అభివృద్ధి చెందలేదు. అందువలన స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో వ్యవసాయ రంగం వాటా తగ్గింది.

ప్రశ్న 13.
గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాలలో ఉద్యోగ అవకాశాలు పెంచాల్సిన ఆవశ్యకత గురించి సంబంధిత అధికారికి లేఖ వ్రాయండి.
జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 14.
క్రింది వాటిలో వేరుగా ఉన్నదానిని గుర్తించండి. కారణం తెల్పండి.
పోస్ట్ మ్యాన్, చేపలు పట్టే వ్యక్తి, సైనికుడు, పోలీస్ కానిస్టేబుల్
జవాబు:

1. ఇచ్చిన వానిలో వేరుగా ఉన్నది. – చేపలు పట్టే వ్యక్తి. కారణం :
2. మిగిలిన మూడు పోస్ట్ మ్యాన్, సైనికుడు, పోలీస్ కానిస్టేబుల్’ సేవా రంగానికి చెందినవి. అలాగే వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగానికి చెందినవి.

ప్రశ్న 15.
క్రింద ఇచ్చిన చార్టులను పరిశీలించి క్రింది ప్రశ్నలకు సరియైన సమాధానములిమ్ము.
‘పై’ చార్టు : స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో వివిధ రంగాల వాటా

1) 1972-73 నుండి 2009-10 నాటికి GDPలో వ్యవసాయ రంగం వాటా పెరిగిందా, తగ్గిందా? ఎంత మేర?
జవాబు:
వ్యవసాయ రంగం వాటా (GDP) తగ్గింది, 43%-26% = 17% మేర తగ్గింది.

2) 2009-10 నాటికి GDPలో మొత్తం సేవల రంగం విలువ ఎంత శాతం వాటా కలిగి ఉంది?
జవాబు:
27% + 17% + 13% = 57% వాటా కలిగి ఉంది.

3) స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో పరిశ్రమ రంగం వాటా 1972-73 నుండి 2009-10 నాటికి ఎంత మేర పెరిగింది?
జవాబు:
26% – 22% = 4% మేర పెరిగింది.

4) సేవా రంగంలోని ఏ సేవలు ఎక్కువ వృద్ధి చెందినాయి?
జవాబు:
వ్యాపారం, సూటళ్లు, రవాణా, ప్రసారాలు.

5) 37 సం||రాల కాలంలో వివిధ రంగాల వాటా మార్పుల గురించి ఏమి గమనించావు?
జవాబు:
37 సం||రాల కాలంలో వ్యవసాయ రంగం వాటా గణనీయంగా క్షీణించింది. పారిశ్రామిక రంగం వాటా కొంచెం పెరిగింది. సేవా కార్యకలాపాల్లోని మూడింట రెండు రంగాలలో గణనీయమైన వృద్ధి ఉంది.

ప్రశ్న 16.
పట్టిక : వ్యవస్థీకృత, అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగాల పాత్రలు

పైన ఇవ్వబడిన పట్టిక ఆధారంగా క్రింది ప్రశ్నలకు సరియైన సమాధానములిమ్ము.
1) వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో ఎంత శాతం మంది ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు?
జవాబు:
8% మంది.

2) అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో ఎంత శాతం మంది ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు?
జవాబు:
92% మంది

3) స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం వాటా ఎంత శాతం ఉంది?
జవాబు:
50%

4) స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం వాటా ఎంత శాతం ఉంది?
జవాబు:
50%

5) పై గణాంకాల ఆధారంగా ఏమి అర్థం అవుతున్నది?
జవాబు:
కేవలం 8 శాతం కార్మికులు భద్రతతో కూడిన మంచి ఉద్యోగం ఉండి, మొత్తం వస్తువులు, సేవల్లో 50% ఉత్పత్తికి దోహదం చేశారు.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers in Telugu Medium

ప్రశ్న 1.
స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిని ఎలా లెక్కిస్తారు ? ఉదాహరణలతో వ్రాయండి.
(లేదా)
స్థూల జాతీయోత్పత్తి అనగానేమి? స్థూల జాతీయోత్పత్తిని ఎలా అంచనా వేస్తారు?
జవాబు:

1. దేశ ఆదాయాన్ని లెక్కకట్టడంలో దేశంలో ఉత్పత్తి అయిన మొత్తం వస్తువులు, సేవల విలువను తీసుకుంటే దానిని ‘స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి (జాతీయోత్పత్తి) అంటాం.
2. వ్యవసాయ, పరిశ్రమ, సేవా రంగాలలో ఆర్థిక కార్యకలాపాలు చేపట్టే ప్రజలు పెద్దమొత్తంలో ఉత్పత్తిచేసే వస్తువుల / సేవల విలువే ఇది.
3. ఆర్థికవేత్తలు ఉత్పత్తి అయిన వస్తువుల / సేవల సంఖ్య కాకుండా ఆయా వస్తువుల, సేవల విలువలు జోడిస్తారు.
4. మాధ్యమిక వస్తువుల విలువలు కూడకుండా అంతిమ విలువలే లెక్కించే పద్ధతిలో స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి లెక్కించవచ్చు.
   ఉదా|| Kg రూ. 25 చొప్పున 100 Kg వడ్లు కొని మిల్లర్ కిలో రూ. 40 చొప్పున 80 Kg బియ్యం , కిలో రూ. 20 చొప్పున 20 Kg ఊక అమ్మడం. అవి కొన్న హోటల్ యజమాని ఇడ్లీ, దోశలతో రూ. 5000 సంపాదించడం.
   ఈ ప్రక్రియలో మొత్తం అంతిమ విలువ రూ. 5000.
5. ప్రతి దశలో జోడించబడిన అదనపు విలువ మాత్రమే లెక్కించే మరో పద్ధతి స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తికి కలదు.
   

ప్రశ్న 2.
వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం, అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో పనిచేస్తున్న కార్మికుల మధ్య భేదాలు తెల్పుము.జవాబు:
జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 3.
ఈ రోజుల్లో ఆర్థిక వ్యవస్థలోని ఏ రంగములో ఉద్యోగావకాశాలు పెరుగుతున్నాయి ? కారణాలు తెల్పండి.
జవాబు:

• ఈ రోజుల్లో ఆర్థిక వ్యవస్థలోని ద్వితీయ, తృతీయ రంగాలలో ఉపాధి ఎక్కువ అయింది.
• గత 50 సంవత్సరాలుగా స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలోని వివిధ రంగాల వాటాలో వచ్చినంత మార్పు ఉపాధిలో రాలేదు. అయినప్పటికిని ద్వితీయ, తృతీయ రంగాలలో ఉపాధి మెరుగయ్యింది.

కారణాలు:

1. ప్రణాళికాబద్ధ చర్యలు, ప్రభుత్వ చొచొరవ మొదలైన వాటితో పరిశ్రమలు అధికంగా స్థాపించబడటం వలన.
2. స్వదేశీ, విదేశీ సాంకేతిక పరిజ్ఞానం అందిపుచ్చుకోవటం (పెంచుకోవటం) వలన.
3. విద్యావకాశాలు మెరుగవ్వటం.
4. ప్రపంచీకరణ వలన బహుళజాతి సంస్థలు ప్రవేశించటం వలన పరిశ్రమలు, సేవారంగం అభివృద్ధి చెందటం.
5. అన్ని రకాల రవాణా సౌకర్యాలు మెరుగుపడటం.
6. మేధోవలసలు పెరగడం.
7. పొదుపు చర్యల వలన, ప్రపంచీకరణ కారణంగా స్వదేశీ, విదేశీ పెట్టుబడుల లభ్యత పెరగడం.
8. శాస్త్ర, సాంకేతిక రంగాలలో నైపుణ్యాలను పెంపొందించే జాతీయ, అంతర్జాతీయ ప్రమాణాలతో కూడిన శిక్షణా సంస్థలు పెరగటం వలన.

ప్రశ్న 4.
మీ ప్రాంతంలో ఉపాధి అవకాశాలు కల్పించడానికి తీసుకోవలసిన చర్యలను సూచించండి.
జవాబు:
మా ప్రాంతంలో ఉపాధి అవకాశాలు కల్పించడానికి తీసుకోవలసిన చర్యలు :

1. వ్యవసాయేతర ఉత్పత్తి కార్యకలాపాలను ప్రోత్సహించాలి.
2. పాడి పరిశ్రమను అభివృద్ధి చేయడం.
3. స్థానిక చేతివృత్తులను ప్రోత్సహించడం.
4. బ్యాంకు రుణాల ద్వారా స్వయం ఉపాధి అవకాశాలను కల్పించడం.
   ఉదా : పిండిమర, కిరాణాషాపు, హోటల్ మొ||నవి.
5. స్వీట్ల తయారీ, పచ్చళ్ళ తయారీ మొదలగు వాటిని ప్రోత్సహించి దగ్గరలోని మార్కెట్లకు తరలించేలా రవాణా వ్యవస్థను ఏర్పాటు చేయడం.
6. ప్రభుత్వ సహాయంతో కుట్టుమిషన్ల పంపిణీ.
7. కూరగాయల ప్రొసెసింగ్ పరిశ్రమ, పట్టుపురుగుల పెంపకం మరియు తేనె సేకరించి దగ్గరలోని మార్కెట్లలో అమ్మడం.

ప్రశ్న 5.
అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగ కార్మికుల పరిస్థితులను మెరుగుపరచడానికి నీవు చేసే సూచనలేవి?
జవాబు:
అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగ కార్మికుల పరిస్థితులను మెరుగుపరచడానికి సూచనలు :

1. వేతనాల పెరుగుదల,
2. సక్రమంగా వేతనాలు ఇవ్వడం,
3. అదనపు పనికి అదనపు వేతనం,
4. ఆర్జిత సెలవులు,
5. పనిచేసే చోట అనుకూల సౌకర్యాలు కల్పించడం,
6. పదవీ విరమణ ప్రయోజనాలు,
7. ఉద్యో గ భద్రత,
8. వైద్య, ఆరోగ్య సౌకర్యాలు.

ప్రశ్న 6.
“సేవారంగం అభివృద్ధి చెందినా ఆ రంగంలో అన్ని కార్యకలాపాలు సమానంగా పెరగటం లేదు. భారతదేశంలో సేవారంగంలో అనేక రకాల వ్యక్తులు ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు. ఒకవైపున బాగా చదువుకున్న, నైపుణ్యాలున్న వ్యక్తులకు ఉపాధి ఇచ్చే కొద్దిపాటి సేవలు ఉన్నాయి. ఇంకోవైపున చిన్న చిన్న దుకాణాలు నడిపేవాళ్ళు, మరమ్మతులు చేసేవాళ్ళు, రవాణా సేవలు అందించే వాళ్ళు పెద్ద సంఖ్యలో ఉన్నారు. వాళ్ళ జీవనం అతికష్టం మీద సాగుతుంది, అయినా మరోదారి లేక ఈ సేవలలో కొనసాగుతున్నారు.”

ప్రశ్న : “సేవారంగంలో పనిచేసే వారందరి జీవన పరిస్తితులు ఒకేలా లేవు.” వ్యాఖ్యానించండి.
జవాబు:

1. సేవా రంగమునకు సంబంధించి వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో పనిచేస్తున్న నైపుణ్యం గల కార్మికులు మెరుగైన వేతనాలు పొందుతున్నారు. కానీ వీరి సంఖ్య పరిమితంగా ఉంది.
2. మరోవైపున అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలోనే పనిచేస్తున్న అసంఖ్యాకమైన కార్మికులు కనీస వేతనాలు సైతం పొందలేక దుర్భరమైన పరిస్థితులలో జీవిస్తున్నారు.
3. స్వయం ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నవారు, దుకాణదారులు, వలస కార్మికులు మొదలగు వారికి స్థిర ఉపాధి, మెరుగైన పని పరిస్థితులు, ఇతర సదుపాయాలు ఉండవు.
4. నైపుణ్యాల లేమి వల్ల, ఉపాధి అవకాశాల కొరత వల్ల, ప్రత్యామ్నాయ అవకాశాలు లేకపోవడం వల్ల తప్పనిసరియై ఆయా వృత్తులలోనే కొనసాగుతున్నారు.
5. ఈ విధమైన పరిస్థితులను పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకొని ప్రభుత్వాలు సరైన విధానాలు రూపొందించి సేవారంగంలో సంతులిత అభివృద్ధికి కృషి చేయాలి.

ప్రశ్న 7.
“అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలలో గత 50 సం||లుగా జరుగుతున్న పరిణామాలలో అభివృద్ధి పారిశ్రామిక రంగం నుండి సేవా రంగానికి మారడం ఒకటి. మొత్తం ఉత్పత్తిలో సేవారంగం వాటా పెరగడంతో దాని ప్రాముఖ్యత పెరిగింది. పనిచేసే వాళ్ళలో ఎక్కువ మంది సేవారంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు. ఉత్పాదక కార్యకలాపాలలో అధిక భాగం ఇప్పుడు వస్తువుల ఉత్పత్తి కాకుండా సేవలు అందించడంలో ఉన్నాయి. అన్ని అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలలో ఇదే తీరు కనపడుతుంది.
ప్రశ్న: భారతదేశంలో కూడా ఇలాగే జరుగుతోందా? లేక భిన్నంగా ఉందా? మీ అభిప్రాయాన్ని వివరించండి.
జవాబు:

1. ఆర్థిక రంగాల ప్రాధాన్యతా క్రమం భారతదేశంలో కూడా కొంతవరకూ అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాల వలెనే ఉన్నది.
2. కానీ కొన్ని ప్రధానమైన తేడాలు కూడా ఉన్నాయి.
3. భారతదేశంలో కూడా ఇటీవల కాలంలో సేవారంగం చాలా ప్రాముఖ్యతను సంతరించుకుంటున్నది.
4. కానీ, ఈనాటికీ దేశంలో అత్యధికులకు ఉపాధిని కల్పిస్తున్నది వ్యవసాయ రంగమే.

ప్రశ్న 8.
క్రింది పేరాగ్రాఫ్ ను చదివి, వ్యాఖ్యానించుము.
గత 50 సంవత్సరాలలో అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలలో పారిశ్రామిక రంగం నుంచి సేవల రంగానికి ప్రాధాన్యత మారుతోంది. మొత్తం ఉత్పత్తిలో సేవారంగం ప్రముఖ స్థానంలో ఉంది. పని చేసేవాళ్ళల్లో కూడా ఇప్పుడు ఎక్కువ మంది సేవల రంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు. ఉత్పాదక కార్యకలాపాలలో అధిక భాగం ఇప్పుడు వస్తువుల ఉత్పత్తి కాకుండా సేవలు అందించడంలో ఉన్నాయి.
జవాబు:
పైన పేరాగ్రాను కనుక పరిశీలించినట్లయితే అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలలో పనిచేసే వారిలో ఎక్కువ మంది పారిశ్రామిక రంగం నుండి సేవల రంగానికి వలస వెళ్ళడం జరుగుతుంది. ఆర్థిక వ్యవస్థలో కూడా సేవా రంగం ప్రముఖపాత్రను పోషిస్తుంది అని గమనించవచ్చు. పనిచేసేవారు కూడా ఎక్కువ మంది సేవా రంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు. ఉత్పాదక కార్యకలాపాలలో అధిక భాగం ఇప్పుడు వస్తువుల ఉత్పత్తి కాకుండా సేవలు అందించడంలో ఉన్నాయి అని చెప్పవచ్చు.

ఆర్థిక వ్యవస్థలో మూడు రంగాలు ఉన్నాయి. అవి వ్యవసాయ, పారిశ్రామిక మరియు సేవల రంగాలు. అభివృద్ధి చెందుతున్న దేశాలలో ఎక్కువ శాతం ప్రజలు వ్యవసాయ రంగం మీద మరియు అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలలో ఎక్కువ శాతం ప్రజలు పారిశ్రామిక రంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందడం మనం గమనిస్తున్నాం. కాని ఈ మధ్య కాలంలో అభివృద్ధి చెందిన మరియు చెందుతున్న దేశాలలో ప్రజలు పారిశ్రామిక రంగం నుండి సేవా రంగమునకు ఉపాధి కోసం తరలి వెళ్ళడం మనం గమనిస్తున్నాం. కారణం ఏమిటంటే వ్యవసాయ మరియు పారిశ్రామిక రంగాలలో ఉన్న భౌతిక శ్రమ సేవా రంగంలో లేకపోవడమే. కంప్యూటర్, లాప్టాప్లు వచ్చిన తరువాత ప్రజలు ఇంటి వద్ద కూర్చుని కూడా వారి సేవలను ఇవ్వడం జరుగుతుంది. అంతేకాకుండా సేవా రంగంలో GDP శాతం ఎక్కువగా ఉండటం మనం గమనించవచ్చు. ప్రజలకు ఆదాయం కూడా ఎక్కువగా ఉంది.

దేశ, విదేశాలలో సేవా రంగానికి ఎక్కువ ప్రాముఖ్యం ఉండటంతో మన ప్రజలు ఇతర దేశాలపట్ల ఎక్కువ ఆకర్షితులవు తున్నారు. ఈ రంగంలో ఉపాధితోపాటు భద్రత, గౌరవం కూడా లభిస్తున్నాయి. మొత్తం మీద సేవా రంగం దేశ ఆర్థికాభివృద్ధిలో తన వంతు పాత్రను పోషిస్తోంది.

ప్రశ్న 9.
A) దిగువ నీయబడిన సమాచారం ఆధారంగా మీ పరిశీలనను వ్రాయండి.
పట్టిక : భారతదేశంలో పరిశ్రమలవారీగా కార్మికుల వివరాలు నివాస స్థానం స్త్రీ, పురుషులు

జవాబు:

1. గ్రామీణ కార్మికులలో ఎక్కువమంది వ్యవసాయరంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు.
2. పట్టణ ప్రాంత కార్మికులలో ఎక్కువమంది సేవారంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారు.
3. వ్యవసాయ కార్మికులలో అత్యధికులు స్త్రీలు.
4. సేవారంగంలో మహిళా కార్మికుల సంఖ్య తక్కువగా ఉన్నది.
5. మొత్తం మీద అత్యధిక శాతం మందికి ఉపాధిని కల్పిస్తున్నది వ్యవసాయ రంగము.
6. మొత్తం మీద అతి తక్కువ మందికి ఉపాధి కల్పిస్తున్నది పారిశ్రామిక రంగము.

ప్రశ్న 10.
క్రింది సమాచారాన్ని ఒక కమ్మీ రేఖాచిత్రం (బార్ గ్రాఫ్) లో చూపి, విశ్లేషించండి.
వివిధ రంగాలు – ఉపాధి (2009-10)

జవాబు:

విశ్లేషణ :

1. 2009-10లో అత్యధిక మందికి ఉపాధి కల్పిస్తున్న రంగం – వ్యవసాయం.
2. ఉపాధికల్పనలో సేవారంగం రెండవ స్థానంలో కలదు.
3. అతి తక్కువ మందికి ఉపాధి కల్పిస్తున్నది పారిశ్రామిక రంగం.

ప్రశ్న 11.
వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో ఉద్యోగాలను అందరూ కోరుకుంటారు. కానీ ఈ రంగంలోని ఉపాధి అవకాశాలు చాలా నిదానంగా పెరుగుతున్నాయి. ఫలితంగా, అధిక శాతం కార్మికులకు చాలా తక్కువ వేతనానికి అవ్యవస్థీకృత ఉద్యోగాలు తప్పించి మరో దారి లేదు.
ప్రశ్న : అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం కన్నా వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం మెరుగైనది అనుకుంటున్నారా? మీ అభిప్రాయం తెలుపండి.
జవాబు:
వ్యవస్థీకృతరంగం మెరుగైనది – అభిప్రాయం :

1. అవును. అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం కంటే వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగం మెరుగైనదని భావిస్తాను.
2. వ్యవస్థీకృతరంగంలో క్రమబద్ధమైన ఉపాధి షరతులు ఉండి నమ్మకంగా పని ఉంటుంది.
3. ప్రభుత్వ నియమ నిబంధనలు పాటించబడతాయి.
4. ఈ రంగంలో కార్మికులకు ఉద్యోగ భద్రత ఉంటుంది.
5. వారు నిర్ధారిత పనిగంటలు మాత్రమే పనిచేస్తారు.
6. వారికి జీతంతో కూడిన సెలవు, సెలవులలో వేతనం, భవిష్యనిధి వంటి ప్రయోజనాలు ఉంటాయి.

ప్రశ్న 12.
నేటి కాలంలో అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో పనిచేసేవారు ఎదుర్కొంటున్న సమస్యలను వివరించుము.
జవాబు:
నేటి కాలంలో అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో పనిచేసేవారు ఎదుర్కొంటున్న సమస్యలు

1. జీతాలు తక్కువగా ఉంటాయి.
2. ఉద్యోగ భద్రత ఉండదు.
3. ఎక్కువ పనికి ఎక్కువ వేతనం ఉండదు.
4. ఆర్జిత సెలవులు ఉండవు
5. సాధారణ సెలవులు ఉండవు
6. అనారోగ్యపు సెలవులు ఉండవు.
7. వైద్య సౌకర్యాలు ఉండవు.
8. భవిష్యనిధి, ఆరోగ్య బీమా లాంటి సౌకర్యాలు ఉండవు,

ప్రశ్న 13.
దిగువ ఇచ్చిన గ్రాఫ్ ను పరిశీలించి, విశ్లేషించండి. .
గ్రాఫ్ : మూడు రంగాల వాటా – ఉపాధి మరియు స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి 2015-16

జవాబు:
పైన ఇవ్వబడిన గ్రాఫ్ వలన భారతదేశంలో ప్రజలు ఏ రంగంలో ఎంత శాతంమంది ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారో తెలియజేయుచున్నది.

1. ఉపాధి వాటాలో వ్యవసాయ రంగం 47% ఉన్నప్పటికి, స్థూల దేశీయ ఉత్పత్తిలో 19% మాత్రమే ఉంది.
2. కాని సేవల ఉపాధి వాటా 31% మాత్రమే ఉన్నప్పటికి, స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో 53% గా అగ్రగణ్యంలో ఉంది.
3. పరిశ్రమల వాటాలలో ఉపాధి వాటాకు, స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి వాటాకు పెద్దగా భేదం లేదు.
4. సేవల రంగంలో స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి వాటా అన్ని రంగాల కంటే ఎక్కువగా ఉన్నది.
   దీనిని బట్టి భారతదేశం ఆర్థికంగా అభివృద్ధి చెందుచున్నదని చెప్పవచ్చును.

ప్రశ్న 14.
దిగువ గ్రాఫ్ లను పరిశీలించి మీ విశ్లేషణను రాయండి.

జవాబు:

1. పైన ఇవ్వబడిన గ్రాఫ్ వలన 2009-10 లో భారతదేశంలో ప్రజలు ఏ రంగంలో ఎంత శాతం మంది ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నారో, ఏ రంగం నుండి ఎంత (GDP) (వాటా) నో తెలుసుకోవచ్చు.
2. ఉపాధి వాటాలో వ్యవసాయ రంగం 53% ఉన్నప్పటికీ, స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో 17% మాత్రమే ఉంది.
3. కాని సేవల ఉపాధి వాటా 25% మాత్రమే ఉన్నప్పటికీ, స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో 57% గా అగ్రగణ్యంలో ఉంది.
4. పరిశ్రమల వాటాలలో ఉపాధి వాటాకు (22%), స్తూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి వాటాకు (26%) పెద్దగా భేదం లేదు.
5. సేవల రంగంలో స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తి వాటా అన్ని రంగాల కంటే ఎక్కువగా ఉన్నది.
6. దీనిని బట్టి భారతదేశం ఆర్థికంగా అభివృద్ధి చెందుచున్నదని చెప్పవచ్చును.

ప్రశ్న 15.
ఆర్థికవ్యవస్థలోని వివిధ రంగాల గురించి వివరించుము.
జవాబు:
ఆర్థికవ్యవస్థలోని రంగాలు : ఈ పనులను ప్రధానంగా మూడు రంగాలుగా విభజిస్తారు.

1. ఉత్పత్తి ప్రక్రియలో ప్రకృతి ప్రధాన పాత్ర వహించే వ్యవసాయం, మత్స్య పరిశ్రమ, అటవీ, గనులకు సంబంధించిన పనులు.
2. యంత్రాలు, పరికరాలు ఉపయోగించి వస్తువులు ఉత్పత్తి చేయడం, ఇతర పరిశ్రమలు.
3. వస్తువులను నేరుగా తయారుచేయకుండా వస్తువుల ఉత్పత్తికి, ప్రజలకు అవసరమైన సేవలు అందించే కార్యకలాపాలు.

ప్రశ్న 16.
సేవలలోని వివిధ రకాల గురించి ఉదాహరణలతో వివరించుము.

జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 17.
1972-73, 2009-10 మధ్య ఉత్పత్తి, ఉపాధిలో వచ్చిన మార్పుల గురించి చర్చించుము.
జవాబు:

1. ఈ కాలంలో పారిశ్రామిక ఉత్పత్తి తొమ్మిది రెట్లు పెరిగింది, కానీ పారిశ్రామిక ఉపాధి మూడు రెట్లు మాత్రమే పెరిగింది.
2. సేవల రంగంలోనూ ఇదే పరిస్థితి. సేవా రంగంలో ఉత్పత్తి 14 రెట్లు పెరిగింది కానీ ఉపాధి మాత్రం 5 రెట్లు పెరిగింది.
3. దీని ఫలితంగా దేశంలోని కార్మికులలో సగం కంటే ఎక్కువమంది వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో ఉండి ఆరింట ఒక వంతు ఉత్పత్తికి మాత్రమే దోహదం చేస్తున్నారు.
4. దీనికి విరుద్ధంగా స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో 75 శాతం వాటా ఉన్న పారిశ్రామిక, సేవా రంగాలు మొత్తం కార్మికులలో దాదాపు సగానికి మాత్రమే ఉపాధి కల్పిస్తున్నాయి.
5. 37 సంవత్సరాల కాలంలో వ్యవసాయ రంగం వాటా గణనీయంగా క్షీణించింది.
6. స్థూల దేశీయోత్పత్తిలో పారిశ్రామిక రంగం ఉత్పత్తి వాటా కొంచెం పెరిగింది.
7. ఇందుకు విరుద్ధంగా సేవా కార్యకలాపాలలోని మూడింట రెండు రంగాలలో గణనీయమైన వృద్ధి ఉంది.

ప్రశ్న 18.
రక్షణ అవసరమైన అవ్యవస్థీకృత కార్మికులు ఎవరు? రక్షణ ఎందుకవసరం?
జవాబు:

1. గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాలలో వీళ్లు భూమిలేని వ్యవసాయ కూలీలు, సన్న, చిన్నకారు రైతులు, కౌలుదారులు, చేనేత, కమ్మరం, వడ్రంగం, కంసాలి వంటి చేతివృత్తుల వాళ్లు.
2. భారతదేశంలోని గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతంలోని 80 శాతం కుటుంబాలు సన్న, చిన్నకారు రైతుల కిందకు వస్తాయి.
3. ఇటువంటి రైతులకు సకాలంలో విత్తనాలు, వ్యవసాయ ఉత్పాదకాలు, రుణసదుపాయాలు, నిల్వ సౌకర్యాలు, విక్రయ కేంద్రాలు వంటి వాటి ద్వారా మద్దతు అందించాలి.
4. వ్యవసాయ కూలీలకు కనీస కూలీ, తగినంత పని అందాలి.
5. పట్టణ ప్రాంతాలలో చిన్నతరహా పరిశ్రమలు, భవన నిర్మాణ, వ్యాపారం, రవాణా వంటి వాటిలో రోజువారీ కూలీలు, బజారులో అమ్మకాలు చేసే వాళ్లు, బరువులు మోసేవాళ్లు, చిత్తుకాగితాలు ఏరేవాళ్లు, బట్టలు కుట్టేవాళ్లు అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగ కార్మికులు అవుతారు.
6. ముడి సరుకుల కొనుగోలుకు, ఉత్పత్తులు అమ్ముకోటానికి చిన్నతరహా పరిశ్రమలకు కూడా ప్రభుత్వ మద్దతు కావాలి.
7. పట్టణ, గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాలలోని రోజువారీ కూలీలకు రక్షణ కావాలి.
8. షెడ్యూల్ కులాలు, తెగలు, వెనకబడిన తరగతులకు చెందిన అధికశాతం కార్మికులు అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో ఉన్నారు.
9. ఈ వర్గాలకు చెందిన మహిళల పరిస్థితి మరింత దారుణంగా ఉంటుంది. పని సరిగా దొరకకపోవటం, తక్కువ వేతనం ఉండటమే కాకుండా ఈ కార్మికులు సామాజిక వివక్షతకు కూడా లోనౌతారు.
10. కాబట్టి ఆర్థిక, సామాజిక అభివృద్ధికి అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగ కార్మికులకు రక్షణ, మధతు అవసరం.

ప్రశ్న 19.
పట్టిక : భారతదేశంలో పరిశ్రమల వారీగా కార్మికుల వివరాలు, 2009-2010 (%)

పట్టికని జాగ్రత్తగా అధ్యయనం చేసి కింది ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు ఇవ్వండి.
1. ఏ రంగంలో స్త్రీలు అధికంగా పాల్గొంటున్నారు?
2. కార్మికులు తక్కువగా ఉన్న రంగం ఏది? ఎందుకు?
3. సేవా రంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్న వారిలో ఎక్కువమంది ఎక్కడ నివాసం ఉంటున్నారు?
4. పారిశ్రామిక రంగంలో స్త్రీలు తక్కువగా ఉండడానికి కారణమేంటి?
జవాబు:

1. వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో స్త్రీలు అధికంగా పాల్గొంటున్నారు.
2. కార్మికులు తక్కువగా ఉన్న రంగం పారిశ్రామిక రంగం. కారణం దేశం పారిశ్రామికంగా బాగా అభివృద్ధి చెందకపోవడం.
3. సేవారంగంలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్న వారు అధికంగా పట్టణాలలో నివాసం ఉంటున్నారు.
4. పారిశ్రామిక రంగంలో స్త్రీలు తక్కువగా ఉండటానికి కారణాలు : పనిగంటలు షిఫులుగా ఉండటం మరియు శారీరక శ్రమతో కూడిన పనులు చాలా ఉండటం.

These AP 7th Class Science Important Questions 5th Lesson Motion and Time will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP Board 7th Class Science 5th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Motion and Time

Question 1.
When can you say that an object is in motion?
Answer:
An object is said to be in motion if it changes its position with respect to its surroundings.

Question 2.
When can you say that an object is at rest?
Answer:
An object is said to be at rest if there’ is no change in its position with respect to its surroundings.

Question 3.
What is distance?
Answer:
The total length of the path travelled by an object between two places is called distance.

Question 4.
What are the units for distance?
Answer:
The basic unit of distance is centimeter (cm). S.I units of distance is metre. But kilometre is used to measure large distances.

Question 5.
What is displacement?
Answer:
The change in position of an object is called displacement. It is the shortest distance between the starting and final positions.

Question 6.
What is time?
Answer:
The measurable period between two incidents (events) is called time.

Question 7.
What are the units of time?
Answer:
The basic unit of time is second (s). Larger units of time are minutes (min) and hours (h).

Question 8.
How do we measure or estimate time?
Answer:
We can measure or estimate time using clocks or watches.

Question 9.
What is translator motion? Give examples.
Answer:
If all points of a moving object move through the same distance in same direction, then the motion is said to be translatory motion. Ex: Coconut falling from a tree, movement of lift, car travelling on a straight road etc.

Question 10.
What is rotatory motion? Give examples.
Answer:
If all the parts of a moving body follow a curved path with respect to a fixed centre or axis of rotation, it is said to be in rotatory motion.
Ex: motion of merry-go-round, top, fan

Question 11.
What is axis of rotation?
Answer:
The imaginary line passing through the fixed centre around which the parts of the objects move in a curved path during rotatory motion is called axis of rotation.

Question 12.
What is circulatory motion?
Answer:
Circular motion is a special type of rotatory motion, where the distance between’the object and the axis of rotation remains fixed.

Question 13.
How does the see – saw move? What kind of motion is this?
Answer:
See-saw moves in up and down direction with a fixed point. This type of motion is called oscillatory motion or vibratory motion.

Question 14.
How does the needle of swing machine moves? What type of motion is this?
Answer:
Needle of swing machine moves in up and down direction with a fixed point. This type of motion is called oscillatory motion or vibratory motion.

Question 15.
What is oscillatory motion? Give examples.
Answer:
The ‘to and fro’ motion of an object about a fixed point that always following the same path is called oscillatory or vibratory motion.
Ex: motions in swing, strings of veena, needle of sewing machine etc.,

Question 16.
What is uniform motion?
Answer:
If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in uniform motion.

Question 17.
What is non-uniform motion?
Answer:
If a body covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in nonuniform motion.

Question 18.
What is speed?
Answer:
Speed of an object can be defined as the distance travelled by it in a unit time.

Question 19.
What are the units for speed?
Answer:
Units of speed is meter per second (m/s) or kilometre per hour (Km/h).
1 Km / h = 5/18 m/s

Question 20.
Which components are taken on which axis in a distance-time graph?
Answer:
Distance is usually plotted along Y-axis or the vertical axis, while time is usually plotted along X-axis or the horizontal axis.

Question 21.
What can we find from the distance-time graph?
Answer:
From the distance-time graph, we can find the speed of object.

Question 22.
Which Indian organization working for launching of rockets?
Answer:
Indian Space Research Organization (1SRO) is working for launching of rockets in our country.

Question 23.
Expand ISRO.
Answer:
Indian Space Research Organization.

Question 24.
Where do the rockets are launched from?
Answer:
Rockets are being launched from Rocket launching stations such as Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC – SHAR)

Question 25.
What is INSAT? For what purpose does ISRO maintaining it?
Answer:
INSAT (Indian National Satellite System) is one of the largest communication satellites being maintained by ISRO. It is being maintained by ISRO for fast and reliable communication.

Question 26.
What is the satellite being maintained by ISRO for earth observation?
Answer:
Remote sensing IRS satellite is being maintained by ISRO for earth observation.

Question 27.
What is the world record created by ISRO?
Answer:
On 15th February 2017, ISRO launched 104 satellites in a single rocket, it is a world record.

Question 28.
Expand SDSC.
Answer:
Satish Dhawan Space Centre

Question 29.
Expand SHAR.
Answer:
Sriharikota High Altitude Range

Question 30.
Where do SDSC- SHAR located?
Answer:
Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC – SHAR) is located in Sriharikota, SPSR Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh. It is the Spaceport of India.

Question 31.
What are artificial satellites?
Answer:
An artificial satellite is a man made object, launched to revolve around the earth.

7th Class Science 5th Lesson Motion and Time Short Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do you decide whether any object is in motion or at rest?
Answer:

1. We can decide whether any object is in motion or at rest by observing its position with respect to its surroundings.
2. If an object is not changing its position with respect to the surroundings then we can say that the object is in rest.
3. We can say an object is in motion when it is changing its position with respect to the surroundings.

Question 2.
Write the differences between distance and displacement.
Answer:

Question 3.
How are stop watches useful to us?
Answer:

1. We use stop clocks in the laboratory to measure time taken for completion of chemical reactions, time taken by the pendulum for one oscillation etc.
2. Apart from this, they also help us to measure the time in races and games very accurately even to the extent of fraction of seconds.
3. Now-a-days, we use electronic clocks, digital clocks, and stop clocks in mobile phones to measure time.
4. Stop clocks are used to measure shorter time intervals between two events accurately.

Question 4.
What is translatory motion? Explain different types of translatory motions?
Answer:

1. If all points of a moving object move through the same distance in same direction, then the motion is said to be translatory motion.
2. Translatory motions are of two types. 1) Rectilinear motion and 2) Curvilinear motion.
3. If a body in translatory motion moves along a straight line then the motion is called rectilinear motion. Light rays from the sun moves in straight line path. Hence, the motion of light rays is rectilinear motion.
4. If a body in translatory motion move along a curved path then the motion is called cur vilinear motion. The movement of body of snake is in curvilinear motion.

5. How the units for time are related to one another?
Answer:
Units for time are related to one another in the following way

Question 6.
What is rotatory motion? Explain with a example.
Answer:

1. If all the parts of a moving body follow a curved path with respect to a fixed centre or axis of rotation, it is said to be in rotatory motion.
2. Let us understand the rotatory motion of merry-go-round.
3. While it is moving, persons sitting on hanging chairs like toys move in a curved path around a fixed centre.
4. The imaginary line passing through the fixed centre is called axis of rotation.
5. All the parts of the objects move in a curved path with respect to this fixed centre or a fixed axis. This type of motion is known as Rotatory Motion.

Question 7.
Which similarity do you find in strings of veena and needle of sewing machine?
Answer:

1. The strings of veena and needle of sewing machine are moving in ‘to and fro’ motion or back and forth motion.
2. The direction of motion of the objects changes alternatively along the same path about a fixed point.
3. Hence, we can say that they are in oscillatory motion or vibratory motion.

Question 8.
Write the differences between uniform and non-uniform motions.
Answer:

Question 9.
Do you find any relation between distance and time?
Answer:

1. The relation between distance and time can be understand in terms of speed.
2. The distance travelled by an object in a unit time is called as speed.
3. If an object takes less time to cover more distance, the speed will be more.
4. If an object takes more time to cover less distance, the speed will be less.

Question 10.
What is average speed? How to calculate the average speed?
Answer:

1. Average speed is the ratio of total distance covered and total time taken by the body to cover the distance.
2. It can be calculated using the formula…
   Average speed = Total distance travelled /Total time taken to travel

Question 11.
How does a rocket move?
Answer:

1. If you let the air out of an inflated balloon, the air comes out of balloon in one direction and the balloon moves on the opposite direction with the same speed.
2. Rockets also works in the same way, exhaust gases coming out of the engine’s nozzle at the high speed push the rocket forward.Thus the rocket moves.

Question 12.
What are the major rocket systems used to send the satellites by ISRO?
Answer:
The major rocket systems used to send the satellites by ISRO are:

1. SLV (Satellite Launch Vehicle),
2. ASLV (Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle),
3. PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle),
4. GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) and GSLV Mark III

Question 13.
What are rockets? Why are they used?
Answer:

1. Rockets are devices thal: produce force or push needed to move an object forward.
2. Rockets are used to launch space crafts and satellites.
3. They are also used to shoot missiles.

Question 14.
Is there any similarity between movements of rocket cracker and real rocket?
Answer:

1. Motion of the actual rocket is similar to motion of the rocket cracker.
2. When rocket cracker fired, exhaust gases coming out of it push the rocket cracker forward.
3. Similarly when fuel in real rocket ignited, exhaust gases coming out of the engine’s nozzle at the high speed push the rocket forward.

Question 15.
What are artificial satellites? Mention different types of satellites.
Answer:

1. An artificial satellite is a manmade object, launched to revolve around the earth.
2. The size, altitude and design of a satellite depends on its purpose.
3. Navigation satellites, communication satellites, weather satellites, earth observa- . tion satellites, astronomical satellites, Space stations are different types of artificial satellites.

Question16.
How do scientists prepare weather report in advance?
Answer:

1. Scientists can prepare weather report in advance with the help of artificial satellites.
2. They study the earth’s atmosphere with the help of artificial satellites.
3. They analyse the data provided by the satellites to estimate the components of weather such as rainfall, temperature, Humidity etc.
4. They can observe the occurrence of cyclones, and their movement very keenly with the help of photographs and other data provided by satellites.
5. Thus they can prepare weather reports in advance.

7th Class Science 5th Lesson Motion and Time Long Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is motion? Explain different types of motions?
Answer:

1. Motion is a state of an object in which it is changing its position with respect to its surroundings.
2. Motion is of three types: 1. Translatory motion 2. Rotatory motion 3. Oscillatory motion.
3. If all points of a moving object move through the same distance in same direction, then the motion is said to be translatory motion.
   Ex : Coconut falling from a tree, movement of lift, car travelling on a straight road etc.
4. Translatory motion is again of two types, i) rectilinear motion and ii) curvilinear motion.
5. If a body in translatory motion moves along a straight line then the motion is called rectilinear motion.
   Ex: Light rays from the sun ‘
6. If a body in translatory motion move along a curved path then the motion is called curvilinear motion.
   Ex: The movement of snake body
7. If all the parts of a moving body follow a curved path with respect to a fixed centre or axis of rotation, it is said to be in rotatory motion. Ex: motion of merry-go-round, top, fan
8. The ‘to and fro’ motion of an object about a fixed point that always following the same path is called oscillatory or vibratory motion.
   Ex: motions in swing, strings of veena, needle of sewing machine etc.,.

Question 2.
How do our ancestors used to estimate time?
Answer:

1. Like minutes and hours, week, fortnight, month, season, Ayana are also units for measuring time. _
2. Sundial, sand clock, water clock etc., are used primitively to measure the time.
3. Our ancestors noticed that many events in nature repeat themselves after definite intervals of time.
4. The time between one sunrise and the next was called a day.
5. Similarly, a month was measured from one new moon to the next.
6. A year was fixed as the time taken by the earth to complete one revolution around the sun.
7. A mean solar day contains 24 hours.

Question 3.
Explain uniform and non-uniform motions with example.
Answer:

1. “If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in uniform motion.”
   “If a body covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in non-uniform motion.”
2. Observe the movement of hands in a wall clock and the movement of a butterfly in a garden.
3. Measure the angle between two successive positions of the minute hand in a wall clock.
4. You can observe that the change in its position is same for every minute.
5. But in the case of the butterfly, the change in its position is not constant while it is . flying from one flower to another in the garden.
6. We understand that the minutes hand in wall clock covers equal distances in equal intervals of time and the butterfly covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time.
7. Hence we can say that the minutes hand in a wall clock has uniform motion and the butterfly has non-uniform motion.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Indian Space Research Organization (1SRO).
Answer:

1. With the visionary of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, Indian Space Research Organization, formed in 1969.
2. Dr. K Sivan is the present chairman of ISRO.
3. Throughout the years, ISRO has upheld its mission of bringing space technology to the service of the common man.
4. In the process it has become one of the six largest space agencies in the world.
5. ISRO maintains one of the largest communication satellites INSAT and remote sens-ing IRS satellites for fast and reliable communication and earth observation.
6. SLV (Satellite Launch Vehicle), ASLV (Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle), PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle), GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle), GSLV Mark III are the major rocket systems used to send the satellites by ISRO.
7. On 18th June 2016 ISRO launched 20 satellites in a single vehicle.
8. On 15th February 2017 ISRO launched 104 satellites in a single rocket, it is a world record.

Question 5.
Write a short notes on Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) – SHAR.
Answer:

1. The Space Centre, which was popularly known as SHAR (Sriharikota High Altitude Range) was renamed as Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR on September 5, 2002, in the memory of Prof. Satish Dhawan, former Chairman of ISRO.
2. It is an island of technological excellence where in nature co-exists with the techno-crats.
3. Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC – SHAR) is located in Sriharikota, SPSR Nellore, district of Andhra Pradesh.
4. It is the Spaceport of India. It is one of the main centers of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), Department of Space (DOS), Government of India.
5. This Centre provides world class launch base infrastructure for different launch
   vehicle/ satellite missions for remote sensing, communication, navigation & scientific purposes.
6. It is one among the best-known names of the Spaceports of the world today.

Question 6.
What is artificial satellite? Write some applications of satellite in our daily life.
Answer:
An artificial satellite is a man made object, launched to revolve around the Earth.
There are several applications of satellites in our daily life. Among them some important are…

1. Communication – the geostationary satellites are used for communication purposes like long distance telephone calls, interrnet and television broadcasting etc.
2. Collecting information about space and planets.
3. Collection of information about natural resources of earth.
4. Weather forecasting.
5. In GPS (Global Positioning System).
6. Used to transport instruments and passengers to the space to perform experiments.

Question 7.
Here some working of objects are given. Put tick mark (✓) in the table which are applicable.
Answer:

AP Board 7th Class Science 5th Lesson 1 Mark Bits Questions and Answers Motion and Time

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. The number of satellites launched in a single rocket and created a world record by ISRO.
A) 20
B) 104
C) 99
D) 100
Answer:
B) 104

2. SDSC – SHAR is located in
A) Chittoor
B) Nellore
C) Ananthapur
D) Guntur
Answer:
B) Nellore

3. The use of Rocket
A) to launch a space cratt
B) to launch a satellite
C) to shoot a missile
D) all
Answer:
D) all

4. The man made object around the earth is
A) Moon
B) Artificial satellite
C) Comet
D) Meteor
Answer:
B) Artificial satellite

5. An object is said to be in motion if……….
A) it changes its position with respect to its surroundings.
B) it does not changes its position with respect to its surroundings.
C) it changes the position of its particles with in the object.
D) till the above
Answer:
A) it changes its position with respect to its surroundings.

6. Force is required
A) to change the object from rest into motion
B) to change its direction
C) to change from motion to rest
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

7. The total length of the path travelled by an object between two places is called….
A) Displacement
B) Speed
C) Distance
D) Track
Answer:
C) Distance

8. S.I units of distance is
A) Centimeter
B) Metre
C) Kilometre
D) Miles
Answer:
B) Metre

9. Hie shortest distance between two places along the straight-line path is called…
A) Displacement
B) Speed
C) Distance
D) Track
Answer:
A) Displacement

10. The basic unit of time is.
A) Minute
B) Second
C) Hour
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Second

11. Find the correct statement
i) 365 days is a year
ii) 100 year is a decade
A) both are correct
B) i only correct
C) ii only correct
D) both are wrong
Answer:
B) i only correct

12. These are used to measure shorter time intervals between two events accurately.
A) Wall clock
B) Sand clock
C) Stop clocks
D) Water clock
Answer:
C) Stop clocks

13. The time taken by the earth to complete one revolution around the sun.
A) Day
B) Month
C) Year
D) Hour
Answer:
C) Year

14. A mean solar day contains
A) 24 days
B) Year
C) 24 minutes
D) 24 hours
Answer:
D) 24 hours

15. If all points of a moving object move through the same distance in same direction, then the motion is said to be.
A) Translator motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Translator motion

16. Find the odd one
A) coconut falling from a tree
B) movement of lift
C) motion of light rays
D) movement of body of snake
Answer:
D) movement of body of snake

17. If all the parts of a moving body follow a curved path with respect to a fixed centre or axis of rotation, it is said to be in …..
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Rotatory motion

18. Which of the following is not in rotatory motion?
A) Fan
B) Top
C) Cycle chain
D) Cycle wheel
Answer:
C) Cycle chain

19. Motion of cycle tyre
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) A & B
Answer:
C) Oscillatory motion

20. Sewing machine wheel :Rotatory motion :: Sewing machine needle : ?
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Oscillatory motion

21. The ’to and fro’ motion of an object about a fixed point that always following the samepath is called
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Circulatory motion
D) Oscillatory motion
Answer:
D) Oscillatory motion

22. In this motion, the direction of motion of the objects changes alternatively along the same path about a fixed point.
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Oscillatory motion

23. Uniform motion : Minute hand in a wall clock:: Non uniform motion: ?
A) Movement of butterfly
B) Revolution of Earth
C) A train going at a steady speed
D) The blades of a fan
Answer:
A) Movement of butterfly

24. What we need to know to decide whether{he motion is slow or fast?
A) distance covered
B) time taken
C) direction of motion
D) A & B
Answer:
A) distance covered

25. Odometer shows……
A) Speed of the vehicle
B) Distance travelled by the vehicle
C) Direction of the vehicle
D) A & B
Answer:
B) Distance travelled by the vehicle

26. The Speedometer shows
A) Speed of the vehicle
B) distance travelled by the vehicle
C) Direction of the vehicle
D) A & B
Answer:
A) Speed of the vehicle

27. The Speedometer shows the speed in……
A) m/s
B) km/s
C) m/h
D) km/h
Answer:
D) km/h

28. At a particular instant of time, we can find speed of a vehicle using
A) Odometer
B) Barometer
C) Speedometer
D) Both A & C
Answer:
C) Speedometer

29. 1 Km/h = ?
A) 5/60 m/s
B) 5/18 m/s
C) 60/5 m/s
D) 18/5 m/s
Answer:
B) 5/18 m/s

30. Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC – SHAR) is located in this district
A) SPSR Nellore
B) Guntur
C) Chittoor
D) East godavari
Answer:
A) SPSR Nellore

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The ……………… by an object in a given interval of time can helps to decide whether it is faster or slower.
2. ……………… of an object can be defined as the distance travelled by it in a unit time.
3. Present chairman of iSRO ……………… .
4. ……………… are the devices that produce force or push to move an object forward into the space.
5. The movement of rocket is in a ……………… motion.
6. The movement of artificial satellites is in ……………… motion.
7. An object is said to be in ……………… if it changes its position with respect to its surroundings.
8. An object is said to be at ……………… if there is no change in its position with respect to its surroundings.
9. ……………… makes an object to move or tendio move.
10. The total length of the path travelled by an object between two places is called ……………… .
11. The basic unit of distance is ……………… .
12. S.I units of distance is ……………… .
13. The length of the straight-line path which is the shortest distance between two places is called ……………… .
14. The measurable period between two incidents is called ……………… .
15. The basic unit’of time is ……………… .
16. 1 minute = ……………… seconds
17. 10 years : 1 ………………
18. ……………… arA the most common time measuring devices.
19. ……………… are used to measure shorter time intervals between two events accurately.
20. The time between one new moon to the next is ……………… .
21. If all points of a moving object move through the same distance in same direction, then the motion is said to be ……………… .
22. If a body in translatory motion moves along a straight line then the motion is called ……………… .
23. If a body in translatory motion move along a curved path then the motion is called ……………… .
24. The motion of light rays is ……………… .
25. The movement of body of snake is in ……………… motion.
26. If all the parts of a moving body follow a curved path with respect to a fixed centre or axis of rotation, it is said to be in ……………… .
27. The imaginary line passing through the fixed centre is called ……………… .
28. ……………… is a special type of rotatory motidn, where the distance between the object and the axis of rotation remains fixed.
29. The to and fro’ motion of an object about a fixed point that always following the same path is called ……………… .
30. If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in ……………… .
31. If a body covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in ……………… .
32. The distance travelled by an object in a unit time is called ……………… .
33. ……………… shows the distance travelled by a vehicle.
34. At a particular instant of time, we can find speed of a vehicle using ……………… .
35. 1 Km / h = ……………… m/s
36. In a distance time graph, distance is usually plotted along ……………… axis, while time is usually plotted along
37. If the distance-time graph is a straight line, it indicates that the object is moving with ……………… .
38. From the distance-time graph we can find the ……………… of object.
39. Indian Space Research Organization, formed in ……………… .
40. ISRO maintains ……………… satellite for fast and reliable communication.
41. ISRO maintains remote sensing IRS satellites for ……………… .
42. On 18th June 2016 ISRO launched ……………… satellites in a single vehicle.
43. On 15th February 2017 ISRO launched ……………… satellites in a single rocket.
44. Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC – SHAR) is located in ……………… .
Answer:

1. distance travelled
2. Speed
3. K. Sivan
4. Rockets
5. translatory
6. rotatory
7. motion
8. rest
9. Force
10. distance
11. centimeter
12. metre
13. displacement
14. time.
15. second
16. 60
17. decade
18. Clocks /watches
19. Stop clocks
20. month
21. translatory motion
22. rectilinear motion
23. curvilinear motion.
24. rectilinear motion
25. curvilinear
26. rotatory motion.
27. axis of rotation motion
28. Circular motion
29. oscillatory or vibratory
30. uniform motion
31. non-uniform motion
32. Speed
33. Odometer
34. speedometer
35. 5/18
36. Y-axis or the vertical, X-axis or the horizontal
37. a constant speed
38. speed
39. 1969
40. INSAT
41. earth observation
42. 20
43. 104
44. Sriharikota

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

Do You Know?

→ Like minutes and hours; week, fortnight, month, season, Ayana are also units for measuring time. Sun dial, sand clock, water clock etc., are used primitively to measure the time. Our ancestors noticed that many events in nature repeat themselves after definite Intervals of time. The time between one sunrise and the. next was called a day. Similarly, a month was measured from one new moon to the next. A year was fixed as the time taken by the earth to complete one revolution around the sun. A mean solar day contains 24 hours.

→ Circular motion is a special type of rotatory motion, where the distance between the object and the axis of rotation remains fixed.

These AP 7th Class Science Important Questions 3rd Lesson Nutrition in Organisms will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP Board 7th Class Science 3rd Lesson Important Questions and Answers Nutrition in Organisms

Question 1.
Plants are also organisms. What is the food for them?
Answers:
Plants also need food like carbohydrates. But they prepare their own food.

Question 2.
How do plants get their food?
Answer:
Plants take carbon dioxide from air, water from soil, light energy from sun light and prepare their own food by using chlorophyll present in its green parts.

Question 3.
What is nutrition?
Answer:
The process of intake and utilization of food by organisms is called nutrition.

Question 4.
What are the different types of nutritions?
Answer:
Nutrition is of two types. 1) Autotrophic nutrition and 2) Heterotrophic nutrition

Question 5.
What is autotrophic nutrition?
Answer:
The mode of nutrition in which organisms make food by themselves is called autotrophic nutrition.

Question 6.
What is heterotrophic nutrition?
Answer:
The mode of nutrition in which organisms depend on other organisms for food is called heterotrophic nutrition.

Question 7.
Do all plants Autotrophs?
Answer:
No, there are some heterotrophic plants like cuscuta.

Question 8.
What kind of nutrition is seen in mush rooms?
Answer:
Saprophytic nutrition is seen in mushrooms.

Question 9.
What kind of nutrition is seen in animals?
Answer:
Heterotrophic nutrition is seen; in animals.

Question 10.
What is chlorophyll? Where is it present?
Answer:
Green coloured pigment present in plants is called Chlorophyll. It is present in the chloroplast of the plant cell.

Question 11.
What are the raw materials required for the preparation of food by green plants?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, water, sunlight and chlorophyll.

Question 12.
Which gas is taken by plants during photosynthesis?
Answer:
Plants take carbon dioxide during photosynthesis.

Question 13.
Name the food material formed in plants.
Answer:
Glucose/ Carbohydrate is the food material formed in plants.

Question 14.
Where do photosynthesis happens in plants?
Answer:
Photosynthesis happens in the chloroplast of the green plants.

Question 15.
What is the role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?
Answer:
Chlorophyll captures the energy of the sunlight. This energy is used to synthesise • food from carbon dioxide and water dhfihg photosynthesis.

Question 16.
Do the plants with red and brown coloured leaves perform Photosynthesis?
Answer:
Red and brown coloured leaves also have chlorophyll. The iiarge artidunt of ired, brown and other pigments mask the green colour So photosynthesis takes place in these leaves also.

Question 17.
What is chlorophyll?
Answer:
The green parts of plant contain a colouring pigment called chlorophyll.

Question 18.
What are Stomata?
Answer:
Stomata are the small openings present on the lower surface of the leaf through which gaseous exchange takes place.

Question 19.
What is the food formed in the plants?
Answer:
Plants form sugars first during the photosynthesis. Later it is converted into starch and stored in the plant body.

Question 20.
What are micro nutrients?
Answer:
Nutrient elements required in minute quantities to the plants are called micro nutrients.

Question 21.
What is saprophytic nutrition?
Answer:
The mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients in the form of solution from dead and decaying matter is called saprophytic nutrition.

Question 22.
Give examples for saprophytes.
Answer:
Certain microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi like mushrooms, bread mould are ‘ the examples for saprophytes.

Question 23.
How do saprophytes help us?
Answer:
Saprotrophs grow on the dead bodies, decompose them ancl mix them With the soil. Thus thay help us by cleaning the earth surface by removing the dead and decaying matter.

Question 24.
Give one example for parasitic plant.
Answer:
Cuscuta/Dodder plant

Question 25.
Give one example for parasitic animal.
Answer:
Intestinal worms

Question 26.
Give one example for symbiotic nutrition.
Answer:
lichens.

Question 27.
What is a host in parasitism?
Answer:
Organism that provide food and shelter to the parasite is called host.

Question 28.
What is parasite?
Answer:
Parasite is an organism which grow on /in the body of another organism (host) and get food from it.

Question 29.
When do we observe National Deworming Day? What is its aim?
Answer:
Every year February 10 and August 10 are observed as the National Deworming Day (NDD). The day aims at eradicating intestinal worms among children in the age group of 1-19 years. On this day, Albendazole tablet (deworming drug) is administered to children.

Question 30.
DO we have any structures like vacuole in our body? Where do the food eaten by us go?
Answer:
We don’t have vacuole’ like structures in our body instead we have a long tubular digestive tract/ alimentary canal. The food eaten by us go in to this digestive system to get digest and absorb into the body.

Question 31.
How many chambers are there in the stomach of ruminants? What are those?
Answer:
Ruminants have four chambers in stomach. They are rumen, reticulum, omasum and abomasum.

Question 32.
What is cud?
Answer:
Partially digested food in the rumen of grass eating animals is called cud.

Question 33.
What is rumination?
Answer:
The process of bringing back the cud in to the mouth in small lumps chews it again is called rumination.

Question 34.
What are ruminants?
Answer:
Grass eating animals that performs the rumination are called ruminants.

Question 35.
How do cellulose get digest in the ruminants?
Answer:
In ruminants,, the cellulose of the food is digested by the action of certain bacteria present in the rumen of grass eating animals.

Question 36.
What is enamel?
Answer:
Enamel is the outermost layer of teeth. It is the hardest material in the human body.

Question 37.
What is tooth decay?
Answer:
Damage of enamel on the tooth due to action of acids in the mouth is called tooth decay.

Question 38.
What are the major culprits of tooth decay?
Answer:
Chocolates, sweets, soft drinks and other sugar products are the major culprits of tooth decay.

Question 39.
Where do the process of digestion starts in our body?
Answer:
The process of digestion starts in the buccal cavity in our body.

Question 40.
Where do the process of digestion completes in our body?
Answer:
The process of digestion completes in small intestine.

Question 41.
What absorbs the digested food from our digestive track?
Answer:
Finger-like out growths called villi present in the small intestine absorbs the digested food from our digestive track.

Question 42.
Through which part undigested food is sent out of our body?
Answer:
Undigested food is sent out of our body through the anus.

Question 43.
What are the common problems associated with the digestive track?
Answer:
The most common problems associated with the digestive tract are diarrhoea, constipation, irritable bowel syndrome, acidity, etc.

Question 44.
What do you understand from the given picture?

Answer:
From the given picture, I understand that skipping meals, stress, strain, cool drinks, junk food, consumption of alcohol and tobacco products are not good for our health especially to our digestive system.

7th Class Science 3rd Lesson Nutrition in Organisms Short Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why are leaves green in colour?
Answer:

1. Leaves are green as they have chloroplasts.
2. Chloroplasts are the special structures present only in plant cells and absent in animal cells.
3. These chloroplasts consisting of a green coloured pigment called chlorophyll in them.
4. This chlorophyll is responsible for all this greenery and play key role in preparation of food.

Question 2.
How can you confirm the occurrence of photosynthesis in a plant?
Answer:

1. Glucose formed in photosynthesis is converted and stored in the form of starch.
2. So, the presence of starch in leaves indicates the occurrence of photosynthesis.
3. It can be confirmed by testing the leaf extract with Iodine solution.

Question 3.
Why leaves are called “food factories of plants”.?
Answer:

1. Plants get carbon dioxide from air, water from soil, and energy from sunlight for synthesis of their food.
2. The synthesis of food occurs in all green parts of plant body.
3. These green parts contain a colouring pigment called Chlorophyll.
4. It is more in leaves so leaves are called as “food factories of plants”.

Question 4.
Prepare a table comparing the method of our food preparation with that of plants.
Answer:

Question 5.
How do the raw materials; required for photosynthesis reach the leaf?
Answer:

1. Carbon dioxide required for photosynthesis enters into the leaf through the stomata.
2. Water absorbed by the roots transported to the leaf through the stem.
3. Leaf get sunlight when it exposed to the sun.
4. Chlorophyll is present with the leaf.

Question 6.
What is the importance off sunlight in photosynthesis?
Answer:

1. Sun light is the source of energy in the process of photosynthesis.
2. The solar energy is captured by the leaves and stored in the plant in the form of food.
3. Thus, sun is the ultimate source of energy for all living organisms.

Question 7.
Write a short note on insectivorous plants.
Answer:

1. There are some plants that eat insects.
2. Being green in colour, they can manufacture their own food.
3. But as they grow in areas deficient in nitrogen, they meet their nitrogen requirements from insects.
4. Leaves of these plants are specially modified to trap insects.
5. Nepenthes, droseras, Utricularia (bladderwort), Venus fly trap (Dionaea) are examples of some such insectivorous plants.
6. These are also called as carnivorous plants.

Question 8.
Write a short note on saprophytic nutrition.
Answer:

1. Some organisms grow on dead and decaying matter.
2. They secrete digestive juices on it convert it into a solution and then absorb the nutrients from it.
3. This mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients in the form of solution from dead and decaying; matter is called saprophytic nutrition.
4. Generally we see this saprophytic nutrition in certain microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi like mushrooms, bread mould etc.

Question 9.
Write a short note on symbiosis.
Answer:

1. Some plants of the Dal family (legume plants) posses a type of bacteria growing on their roots in nodules.
2. The bacteria fixes nitrogen for the plant while it gets shelter in the roots of these plants.
3. Such an association is beneficial to both groups and called symbiosis.
4. In organisms called lichens, a chlorophyll-containing partner, which is an algae, and a fungus live together.
5. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the alga and in return, the alga „ provides.

Question 10.
What is parasitism? Give examples.
Answer:

1. Type of association between two organisms for food in which one organism get benefited and other is vitiated is called parasitism (Parasitic nutrition).
2. The organism which is getting benefit is called parasite.
3. Example for parasitic plant is Cuscuta.
4. Example for parasitic animal is intestinal worm.

Question 11.
How does dodder plant get its food?
Answer:

1. Plants like Cuscuta/ Dodder plant (Bangaru teega) take readymade food from the plant on which it is climbing. ,
2. They develop special roots called haustoria, which penetrate into the tissues of the host plant and absorb food materials from them.
3. This causes harm to the host plant gradually.
4. This kind of nutrition is called parasitism.

Question 12.
How do animals take their food? Where do they digest it?
Answer:

1. Animals obtain their food from other organisms.
2. They take their food in the form of solid or liquid.
3. They take the food into the body for digestion.
4. Digestion occurs inside the body.

Question 13.
What are the parts of human digestive system?
Answer:

1. The digestive system consists of the alimentary canal and digestive glands.
2. The total length of alimentary canal is about 9 meters.
3. Its main parts are mouth, oral cavity/ buccal cavity, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum and anus.
4. The salivary glands, liver and pancreas are the digestive parts connected to the alimentary canal.

Question 14.
Write a short note on tooth decay?
Answer:

1. Normally Bacteria present in our mouth are not harmful to us.
2. If we do not clean our teeth and mouth after eating, many harmful bacteria begin to live and grow in it.
3. These bacteria breakdown the sugars present from leftover food and release acids.
4. These acids gradually damage teeth. This is called tooth decay.
5. If it is not treated in time, it causes severe toothache and in extreme cases results in tooth loss.
6. Chocolates, sweets, soft drinks and other sugar products are major causes of tooth decay.

Question 15.
How do bad habits effect our digestive system?
Answer:

1. Bad habits like smoking, chewing of tobacco, drinking of alcohol effect our health adversely. .
2. Drinking of alcohol can lead to liver diseases, digestive problems.
3. It causes cancer of the mouth, throat, oesophagus arid liver.
4. Consuming tobacco products, tobacco particles stick to teeth, gums, and skin of the mouth cavity which leads to swelling, injury, pain and also causes throat and intestine cancer.

Question 16.
How do vajrasana help our body?
Answer:

1. Vajrasana increases flow of blood into our stomach area, thus improving our bowel movements and relieving constipation.
2. It also keeps us to get rid of gas and acidity.

Question 17.
Draw the diagram of stomata and label the parts.
Answer:

Question 18.
Draw the diagram showing nutrition in amoeba.
Answer:

Question 19.
Which habit should be practised for the health of teeth? Why?
Answer:
We should clean our teeth daily at least for twice. Once in the morning after we wakeup. This helps to remove the bacteria accumulated over night in our mouth. And second time before going to bed. This helps to remove any food particles remain in mouth. Otherwise these food particles increase the growth of bacteria and releasing of acids. So for the health of our teeth, we should brush our teeth at least for twice.

7th Class Science 3rd Lesson Nutrition in Organisms Long Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is nutrition? Describe different types of nutritions.
Answer:
The process of intake and utilization of food by organisms is called nutrition. This is mainly of two types.

1. Autotrophic nutrition
2. Heterotrophic nutrition

1) Autotrophic nutrition :
The mode of nutrition in which organisms make food by themselves is called autotrophic nutrition. Ex: Green plants

2) Heterotrophic nutrition :
The mode of nutrition in which organisms depend on other organisms for food is called Heterotrophic nutrition. This is again of three types
i) Saprophytic nutrition:
The mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients in the form of solution from dead and decaying matter is called saprophyticnutrition.
Ex: Certain microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi like mushrooms, bread mould etc.

ii) Parasitic Nutrition :
This type of association between two organisms for food in which one organism get benefited and other is vitiated is called parasitic nutrition.
Ex: Cuscuta, Intestinal worms

iii) Holozoic Nutrition :
Holozoic Nutrition is the mode of heterotrophic nutrition in which the food is taken in solid or liquid form from the outside and is digested inside the body.
Ex: Amoeba. Human beings

Question 2.
What is holozoic nutrition? What are the steps involved in it?
Answer:
Holozoic Nutrition is the mode of heterotrophic nutrition in which the food is taken in solid or liquid form from the outside and is digested inside the body.

The steps involved in holozoic nutrition are

1. Ingestion – Food is taken into the body.
2. Digestion – Conversion of food into simple soluble forms.
3. Absorption – Transfer of food to the blood.
4. Assimilation – Absorbed food became the part of the body. .
5. Egestion – Removal of waste products and undigested food from the body.

Question 3.
Describe the nutrition in amoeba.
Answer:

1. Amoeba is a microscopic single-celled organism found in pond water.
2. Amoeba has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubble¬like vacuoles in its cytoplasm.
3. Amoeba constantly changes its shape and position.
4. It pushes out one. or more finger-like projections, called pseudopodia or false feet ‘ for movement and capture of food.
5. Food vacuole forms around the captured food.
6. Food get digested in it, absorbed into the cytoplasm and assimilates.
7. Finally undigested food is sent out by opening this vacuole out at the body surface.

Question 4.
Is the nutrition in human beings holozoic? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes, nutrition in human beings is holozoic nutrition.
2. We take food in the form of solids or liquids.
3. It get’s digested in the digestive system.
4. Digested food is absorbed by the blood.
5. Blood transports digested food to different parts of the body for assimilation.
6. Undigested food will be ejected out of the body.
7. So the nutrition in human beings is holozoic nutrition.

Question 5.
Explain the process of digestion in grass eating animals.
Answer:

1. Grass eating animals have four chambers in stomach.
2. They are rumen, reticulum, omasum and abomasum.
3. They quickly swallow the grass and store it in a part of the stomach called rumen.
4. In rumen, food gets partially digested and is called cud.
5. But later the cud returns to the mouth in small lumps and animal chews it again.
6. This process is called rumination and these animals are called ruminants.
7. The grass is rich in cellulose, a type of carbohydrate.
8. In ruminants, the cellulose of the food is digested by the action of certain bacteria present in the rumen of grass eating animals.

Question 6.
Make a table showing types of teeth, their number and function in human beings.
Answer:

Question 7.
Describe the functions of various parts of human digestive system.
Answer:
Different parts of human digestive system performs different functions as mentioned below.

1. Mouth Food is taken into the body through it. It leads into Buccal Cavity.
2. Buccal cavity contains tongue, teeth and secretions of Salivary glands. Carbohydrate digestion starts here.
3. Pharynx is the common chamber for both digestive track and respiratory track. It leads into Oesophagus.
4. Oesophagus is a muscular tubular structure that connects pharynx with Stomach.
5. Stomach is a muscular sac like structure. Food is grinded well and mix with its juices. Proteins digestions tarts in the stomach. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach kills Bacteria in the food.
6. Duodenum is the first part of the small intestine. Bile juice from liver, Pancreatic juice from pancreas enters into it and helps in digestion.
7. Small intestine is about six metre long. Digestion of food is completed here with the help of its juices. Its inner wall have thousands of finger-like outgrowths called villi. They absorb the digested food. Blood transport it to all body parts for assimilation.
8. Large Intestine absorbs water and minerals from the undigested food.
9. Rectum storage point for undigested food.
10. Anus – Fecal matter removed through it.

Question 8.
What is acidity? Mention the symptoms, causes and home remedies for acidity.
Answer:
Acidity:
It’s a common problem associated with digestive track caused due to excess acids in stomach.

Symptoms :
Burning sensation in chest, stomach and in throat;
sour taste in mouth;
upper abdominal discomfort;
post meal heaviness.

Causes : consuming spicy food;
stress;
unhealthy or irregular meals;
drinking too much alcohol.

Home remedies:
Consuming butter milk, coconut water, eating of herbs such as ajwain, tulsi leaves, saunf, jeera and pudina leaves, cloves, jaggery

AP Board 7th Class Science 3rd Lesson 1 Mark Bits Questions and Answers Nutrition in Organisms

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. Carbohydrates digest first in
A) Buccal cavity
B) Stomach
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine
Answer:
A) Buccal cavity

2. Proteins digestion starts in
A) Buccal cavity
B) Stomach
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine
Answer:
B) Stomach

3. Chocolates, sweets, soft drinks and other sugar products cause of
A) Acidity
B) Constipation
C) Tooth decay
D) Diarrhea
Answer:
C) Tooth decay

4. The process of intake and utilization of food by organisms is called ……
A) Digestion
B) Absorption
C) Nutrition
D) Excretion
Answer:
C) Nutrition

5. Nutrition in green plants is
A) Autotrophic
B) Saprophytic
C) Parasitic
D) Holozoic
Answer:
A) Autotrophic

6. This is not a requirement of photosynthesis
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) light
D) water
Answer:
A) Oxygen

7. Product of photosynthesis
A) Oxygen
B) Water
C) Glucose
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

8. Presence of starch in leaves indicates the occurrence of…..
A) Respiration
B) Photosynthesis
C) Digestion
D) Excreton
Answer:
B) Photosynthesis

9. This works as food factory of the plant
A) Stem
B) Leaf
C)Flower
D) Root
Answer:
B) Leaf

10. Function of stomata is
A) Gaseous exchange
B) Transport of water
C) Food production
D) Digestion
Answer:
A) Gaseous exchange

11. Find the correct statement
i) Nepenthes is a insectivorous plant.
ii) It grow in phosphorous deficient soils.
A) both are correct
B) i only correct
C) ii only correct
D) both are wrong
Answer:
B) i only correct

12. Example for saprophyte
A) Amoeba
B) Utricularia
C) Cuscuta
D) Bread mould
Answer:
D) Bread mould

13. Chlorophyll-containing partner in the lichens is
A) Algae
B) Fungi
C) Bacteria
D) Amoeba
Answer:
A) Algae

14. Cuscuta absorbs its food from host through
A) Tap root
B) Fibrous root
C) Haustoria
D) prop roots
Answer:
C) Haustoria

15. National Deworming Day is observed on
A) February 10
B) August 10
C) Both A & B
D) December 10
Answer:
C) Both A & B

16. Albendazole tablet is a…
A) Antibiotic
B) Antiviral drug
C) Antifungal drug
D) Deworming drug
Answer:
D) Deworming drug

17. Taking of food into the body is called…..
A) Ingestion
B) Digestion
C) Absorption
D) Egestion
Answer:
A) Ingestion

18. Conversion of food into simple soluble forms is called …
A) Ingestion
B) Digestion
C) Absorption
D) Egestion
Answer:
B) Digestion

19. Transfer of food to the blood is called …..
A) Ingestion
B) Digestion
C) Absorption
D) Egestion
Answer:
C) Absorption

20. Removal of waste products and undigested food from the body
A) Ingestion
B) Digestion
C) Absorption
D) Egestion
Answer:
D) Egestion

21. Amoeba collects its food with the help of
A) Pseudopodia
B) Nucleolus
C) Food vacuole
D) Cytoplasm
Answer:
A) Pseudopodia

22. This is not digestible in human being is …..
A) Starch
B) Protein
C) Fat
D) Cellulose
Answer:
D) Cellulose

23. Nutrition in human being is …
A) Autotrophic
B) Parasitic
C) Saprophytic
D) Holozoic
Answer:
D) Holozoic

24. The total length of alimentary canal is about
A) 3 meters
B) 6 meters
C) 9 meters
D) 12 meters
Answer:
C) 9 meters

25. Tofal number of teeth in the adult is
A) 8
B) 16
C) 20
D) 32
Answer:
D) 32

26. Teeth that help to cut the food….
A) incisors
B) canines
C) premolars
D) molars
Answer:
A) incisors

27. Hardest part of the human body is
A) Bone
B) Teeth
C) Cartilage
D) Muscle
Answer:
B) Teeth

28. The major culprits of tooth decay ….
A) Chocolates
B) Sweets
C) Soft drinks
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

29. Common chamber for both digestive track and respiratory track is
A) Pharynx
B) Duodenum
C) Esophagus
D) Buccal cavity
Answer:
A) Pharynx

30. The muscular tubular structure that connects pharynx with Stomach is
A) Buccal cavity
B) Oesophagus
C) Duodenum
D) Small intestine
Answer:
B) Oesophagus

31. Hydrochloricacid in the stomach kills Bacteria in the food.
A) Lactic acid
B) Sulphuric acid
C) Acetic acid
D) Hydrochloric acid
Answer:
D) Hydrochloric acid

32. Digestion of food completes in this part
A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine
Answer:
C) Small intestine

33. Digested food absorbed in to blood through
A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Villi
D) Large intestine
Answer:
C) Villi

34. Large intestine absorbs….
A) Water
B) Digested food
C) Minerals
D) A & C
Answer:
D) A & C

35. Reason for acidity…
A) Stress
B) Irregular meals
C) Drinking too much alcohol
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

36. The only asana that can be done on full stomach.
A) Padmaasan
B) Vajrasana
C) Bhujangasana
D) shirshaasana
Answer:
B) Vajrasana

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Liver produces …………… juice.
2. Expand NDD ……………
3.
4. The process of intake and utilization of food by organisms is called …………… .
5. The mqde of nutrition in which organisms make food by themselves is called …………… .
6. The mode of nutrition in which organisms depend on other organisms, for food is called …………… .
7. Green plants are …………… .
8. Humans and animals are directly or indirectly dependent on …………… for food.
9. …………… are the special structures present only in plant cells and absent in animal cells.
10. Chlorophyll is present in the …………… of plant cell.
11. …………… is the pigment responsible for the greenery of the plants.
12. The process-by which green plants make their own food from carbon dioxide and water by using light energy in the presence of chlorophyll is called …………… .
13. Glucose formed in photosynthesis is converted and stored in the form of …………… .
14. The presence of starch in leaves indicates the occurrence of …………… .
15. Occurrence of photosynthesis can be confirmed by testing the leaf extract with …………… solution.
16. …………… work as “food factories of plants”.
17. …………… captures the energy of the sunlight.
18. …………… is the source of energy in the process of photosynthesis.
19. …………… is the ultimate source of energy for all living organisms.
20. Gaseous exchange occurs in the leaves through …………… .
21. …………… is the gas required for photosynthesis.
22. …………… is the gas produced in photosynthesis.
23. Nutrients needed ip minute quantities are called …………… .
24. Insectivorous plants meet their requirements from insects.
25. Saprophytes grow on …………… .
26. The mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients in the form of solution from dead and decaying matter is called …………… nutrition.
27. …………… play key role in cleaning,up the earth surface.
28. Chlorophyll-containing partner in lichen is
29. An association between two organisms for food in which one organism get benefited and other is vitiated is called ……………
30. The organism that get benefited in parasitism is …………… .
31. Organism on which parasite is growing is called …………… .
32. …………… is the mode of heterotrophic nutrition in which the food is taken in solid or liquid form from the outside and is digested inside the body.
33. Pseudopodia are food collecting, organs in …………… .
34. Humans cannot digest …………… .
35. The digestive system consists Of the …………… and …………… .
36. The total length Of alimentary canal is about …………… meters.
37. Teeth in the human beings are of …………… types.
38. …………… is the hardest part of the human body.
39. …………… is the only asana that can be done on full stomach.
40. Damage of teeth due to acids is called …………… .
41. Carbohydrate digestion starts in …………… .
42. …………… is the common chamber for both digestive track and respiratory track.
43. Proteins digestions starts in the …………… .
44. …………… in the stomach kills Bacteria in the food.
45. Inner wall of the small intestine have thousands of finger-like outgrowths called …………… .
46. Villi absorb the …………… .
47 …………… absorbs water and minerals from the undigested food.
48. …………… is the storage;point for undigested food.
49. Fecal matter removed through …………… .
Answer:

1. bile
2. National Deworming Day
3. carbondioxide, oxygen
4. nutrition
5. autotrophic nutrition
6. heterotrophic nutrition
7. autotrophs
8. plants
9. Chloroplasts
10. chloroplast
11. Chlorophyll
12. Photosynthesis
13. starch.
14. photosynthesis
15. Iodine
16. Leaves
17. Chlorophyll
18. Sunlight
19. Sun
20. stomata.
21. Carbon dioxide
22. Oxygen
23. micronutrients
24. nitrogen
25. dead and decaying matter
26. saprophytic
27. Saprophytes
28. algae
29. parasitism.
30. parasite
31. host
32. Holozofc Nutrition
33. amoeba
34. cellulose
35. Tooth
36. Vajrasana
37. tooth decay
38. buccal cavity
39. Pharynx
40. stomach
41. Hydrochloric acid
42. villi.
43. digested food
44. Large Intestine
45. Rectum
46. anus.

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

Do You Know?

→ Forests are green in colour. Isn’t it? Infact they are green as they have many trees. Trees are green as they have leaves. Leaves are green as they have chloroplasts. Chloroplasts are the special structures present only in plant cells and absent in animal cells.These chloroplasts consists of a green coloured pigment called chlorophyll in them,. This chlorophyll is responsible for all this greenery and play key role in preparation of food. You will learn about all these in your higher classes.

→ There are some plants that eat insects. Being green in colour, they can manufacture their own food. But as they grow in areas deficient in Nitrogen, they meet their Nitrogen requirements from insects. Leaves of these plants are specially modified to trap insects. Nepenthes, (pitcher plant) Droseras, Utricularia (bladderwort), Dionaea (Venus fly trap) are examples of some such insectivorous plants. These are also called as carnivorous plants.

→ Some plants of the Dal family (legume plants) possess a type of bacteria growing on their roots in nodules. The bacteria fixes nitrogen for the plant while it gets shelter in the roots of these plants. Such an association is beneficial to both groups and is called Symbiosis.

In organisms called lichens (litmus paper is obtained from lichens), a chlorophyll-
containing partner, which is an algae and a fungus that live together. The fungus provides shelter, water, and minerals to the algae and in return, the algae provides food for the fungus.

→ Every year February 10 and August 10 is observed as National Deworming Day(NDD). The day aims at eradicating intestinal worms among children in the age group of 1-19 years. On this day. Albendazole tablet (deworming drug) is administered to children.

Digestion In Grass Eating Animals

→ Have you observed cows, buffaloes and other grass eating animals chewing continuously even when they are not eating? They have four chambers in stomach. They are rumen, reticulum,omasum and abomasum. Actually they quickly swallow the grass and store it in a, part of the stomach called rumen. In rumen, food gets partially digested and is called cud. But later the cud returns to the mouth in small lumps and animal chews it again. This process is called rumination and these animals are called ruminants.

The, grass is rich in cellulose, a type of carbohydrate. In ruminants, the cellulose of the food is digested by the action of certain bacteria present in the rumen of grass eating animals. Many animals including humans cannot digest cellulose due to the absence of such bacteria.

→ Normally Bacteria present in our mouth are not harmful to us. If we do not clean our teeth and mouth after eating, many harmful bacteria begin to live and grow in it. These bacteria breakdown the sugars present from leftover food and release acids. These acids gradually damage teeth. This is called tooth decay. If it is not treated in time, it causes severe toothache and in extreme cases results in tooth loss. Chocolates, sweets, soft drinks and other sugar products are the major causes of tooth decay.

→ Vajrasana increases flow of blood into our stomach area, thus improving our bowel movements and relieving constipation. It also keeps us to get rid of gas and acidity. It is the only asana that can be done on full stomach.

These AP 7th Class English Important Questions 3rd Lesson A Journey through the Hills and Valleys will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP Board 7th Class English Unit 3 Important Questions and Answers A Journey through the Hills and Valleys

Reading Comprehension (Seen)

1. Read the following passage carefully.

It has been my longing since childhood to visit the Eastern Ghats. I’ve heard about the stunning beauty of the valleys, caves, tunnels, and the journey through ghat roads. The geographical magic of the Eastern Ghats and the frequent appearance of Lambasingi in both print and electronic media have always tempted me.

During the period from November to January, the hills with lushing greenery and blossoms welcome the visitors. The beauty of the valleys attracts even the movie makers.

I set off from Visakhapatnam along with my friends at 6 a.m. to catch the Kirandul Passenger, the only train from Visakhapatnam.to Berra Caves. Had 1 missed this mode of travel, I would have missed the most exciting moments of the train journey. And of course, there is a lot of scope to plan our journey on road hut it’s different. The first task that we had finished was taking breakfast after boarding the train. (A Journey through the Hills and Valleys)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. What was the longing wish of the speaker?
Answer:
To visit the Eastern Ghats

2. What were the things that tempted the author?
Answer:
The geographical magic of the Eastern Ghats and frequent appearance of lambasingi in both the print and electronic media

3. What was the attraction for the movie makers?
Answer:
The beauty of the valleys

4. What was the name of the train they caught?
Answer:
The Kirandul Passenger

5. What did they do after boarding the train?
Answer:
They took their breakfast.

2. Read the following passage carefully.

When the train was crossing the tunnels, we felt as if it were night because of the darkness for a few minutes even after the dawn. I could still remember the astounding experience in the longest tunnel among the 58 tunnels. Particularly the special coach called Vista dome coach, the air-conditioned tourist compartment with wide windows and LCD TV, .is a special attraction to this train journey After Chimidipalli station, just after a tunnel, a grand waterfall made us spellbound. I could not account all the water falls like this during the journey. The train reached Borra Caves by 9.40 a.m. We got down with our baggage. The train journey from Visakhapatnam to Borra Caves gave us an unforgettable experience which made us speechless. (A Journey through the Hills and Valleys)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. When did they feel as if it were night?
Answer:
When the train was crossing the tunnels

2. How many tunnels were there in their journey?
Answer:
58 tunnels

3. What is a Vista dome coach?
Answer:
It was the air-conditioned tourist compartment with wide windows and LCD TV.

4. Where did they see a grand waterfall?
Answer:
After Chimidipalli station, just after a tunnel

5. How was their journey to Borra Caves?
Answer:
It was an unforgettable experience.

3. Read the following passage carefully.

It was no exaggeration what t came to know about this God’s Architecture. At a height of 705 metres above the. sea level, made of Karstic limestone, manifested with magnificence, the Borra Caves are the largest caves in the country. While entering the caves everyone in our group enjoyed the echo of shouts of visitors. Unknowingly, we also shouted in excitement. You can understand the feelings of the boulders there. The chilled weather in the caves gave us a different experience. These caves are a good source of enjoyment and also experiential learning. Out of the caves, on either side of the road, the tribes sell their handicrafts made with bamboos, spices collected from forests and products of their farming, etc. to make their living. •

We had lunch at Borra Caves at 1 p.m. We had a very sumptuous lunch. Very special dishes of this agency area, which were differently cooked with local spices. (A Journey through the Hills and Valleys)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. What are the caves made of?
Answer:
They are made of Karstic limestone.

2. At what height were the caves located?
Answer:
At a height of 705 metres above the sea level

3. What did they enjoy while entering the caves?
Answer:
The echo of shouts of visitors

4. How was the weather in the caves?
Answer:
Chilly

5. What were the things sold by the tribes?
Answer:
Handicrafts made with bamboos, spices collected from forests and products of their farming, etc.

4. Read the following passage carefully.

We reached Araku Valley, the Andhra Ooty, and a monumental vacation spot in Andhra Pradesh. Wow! The aroma of coffee all over the surroundings certainly gets the exhausted minds energized. It was the Coffee Museum where one may be tempted to relish the taste of the coffee made with different aromas. Really, it’s the best beverage that I have ever had.

Here, we visited the Tribal Museum, the exhibition of many interesting things like the traditional art, handicrafts, ornaments and dresses used by the tribes, etc. It is an apt place for those who are enthusiastic to learn more about the culture and tradition of the local tribes. I was surprised to know the life style of tribal people. Kodus, a Primitive Tribal Group (PTG) use a different language which is a non-scripted dialect of Oriya. (A Journey through the Hills and Valleys)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. What is called the Andhra Ooty?
Answer:
Araku Valley

2. What is the beverage mentioned in the first paragraph?
Answer:
Coffee

3. What were the museums visited by the author?
Answer:
The Coffee Museum and the Tribal Museum

4. What was the apt place to learn more about the culture and tradition of the local tribes?
Answer:
The Tribal Museum

5. What was the thing that surprised the author?
Answer:
The lifestyle of the tribal people

5. Read the following passage carefully.

Lambasingi, the Kashmir of Andhra Pradesh, a small hamlet in Visakhapatnam district, is known for the snowfall with a record fall of 0°C and sometimes – 3°C temperatures particularly between November and January. It is also called ‘Korra Bayalu’ in their local language. Fenced by towering hills, tall green trees and surrounded by the mist, the area provides a perfect magical setting to enjoy winters. If anyone stays out in the open, one will be frozen.

Feeling the warmth of the sunrise at Lambasingi made an auspicious start of the day that lasts forever. After having breakfast, we visited Kondakarla Bird Sanctuary, one of the best places of visit. I was glad to see the strange visitors, the birds. I wonder how they survive in the intense cold weather. But their joy knew no bounds as they live in their natural habitat. (A Journey through the Hills and Valleys)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. What is Lambasingi called?
Answer:
The Kashmir of Andhra Pradesh or Korra Bayalu

2. What is Lambasingi known for?
Answer:
It is known for the.snowfall with a record fall of 0°C and sometimes – 3°C temperatures particularly between November and January.

3. What is the best seasbn to enjoy the weather of Lambasingi?
Answer:
Winter

4. What happens if anyone stays out in the open at Lambasingi?
Answer:
One will be frozen.

5. What was the nearby attraction to Lambasigi?
Answer:
Kondakarla Bird Sanctuary

6. Read the following passage carefully.

Gandikota, the magnificient piece of nature’s architecture, has come to be known as the Hidden Grand Canyon of India. The travelers who visit will be stunned by its beauty. It is located in Kadapa District of Andhra Pradesh. It resembles the Grand Canyon, Arizona, US. There are many astounding areas that are alluring to the visitors in and around Gandikota. ‘Gandi’ means ‘Canyon’ and ‘Kota’ means ‘Fort’. The village nearby this area is known to be Gandikota. ‘ ‘

The spectacular gorge formed by the Penna River that cuts through Erramala hills offers a beautiful view. A gorge is a narrow valley between hills or mountains, with steep rocky walls and a stream running through it. In fact, gorges are formed because of erosion of rock over a long period of time. (Gandikota – The Grand Canyon of India)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. What is Gandikota to be known as?
Answer:
The Hidden Grand Canyon of India

2. What makes the travelers stunned?
Answer:
The beauty of Gandikota

3. Where is Gandikota located?
Answer:
In Kadapa District

4. What is a gorge?
Answer:
A gorge is a narrow valley between hills or mountains, with steep rocky walls and a stream running through it.

5. How are gorges formed?
Answer:
Because of erosion of rock over a long period of time

7. Read the following passage carefully.

The Fort made of red stone has excellent palaces adorned with fine carvings. It is very exciting to walk along the fort’s wall and .spend a few moments by the serene river. A trip to this place is worth it, considering the fact that you can peep into history through the walls of Gandikota Fort, which narrates the tale of various civilizations that existed thousands of years ago.

The best time to visit this place is between September and February, as the weather ‘ during this time is comparatively pleasant. Summers are too hot and there will be significantly low water levels, the canyon seems less appealing. (Gandikota – The Grand Canyon of India)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. How is the fort made?
Answer:
It is made of excellent palaces adorned with fine carvings.

2. What is an exciting thing to do at the fort?
Answer:
Walking along the fort’s wall.

3. Which narrates the tale of various civilizations?
Answer:
The walls of Gandikota Fort

4. What is the best time to visit the fort?
Answer:
Between September and February

5. When does the fort Seem less appealing?
Answer:
In summer

Reading Comprehension (Unseen)

1. Read the following passage carefully.

Have you ever seen a UFO? A UFO is an Unidentified Flying Object, a strange object or light that people see in the sky. Many people believe that these strange lights are really spaceships from another planet.

For years people have seen and heard many odd things in the sky, blinking and glowing lights, flying objects shaped like saucers, and moving objects making strange noises. Some people have even taken pictures of these unusual sights.

Some of these UFOs are really aeroplanes, weather balloons or meteors. But many UFO reports are still a mystery.

Now, answer the following questions.
a) What do people believe about these strange lights?
Answer:
People believe that these strange lights are really spaceships from other planets.

b) What are these UFOs really?
Answer:
These UFOs are really aeroplanes, weather balloons or meteors.

Choose the correct answer from the choices given.
c) U.F.O stands for:
i) Unknown Flying Object
ii) Unidentified Flying Object
iii) Unseen Flying Object
Answer:
ii) Unidentified Flying Object

d) U.F.Os are believed to be spaceships from other
i) countries
ii) continents
iii) planets
Answer:
iii) planets

e) Which of the following statements is true?
i) UFOs are make-believe.
ii) Moving objects with blinking lights have to be UFOs
iii) People have seen moving objects making strange noises.
Answer:
i) UFOs are make-believe.

2. Read the following passage carefully.

Do you know about one of the most famous monsters in the world? The Loch Ness Monster is a large animal that some people believe lives in Loch Ness, a deep dark lake in Scotland. For many years, hundreds of people have reported seeing something strange in the lake. They have even given it the nick name “Nessie’.

Nessie is said to be about 30 feet long, with a long slender neck, one or two humps and flippers.

There are even pictures that have been taken of a large animal-like shape in the water. Scientists are still trying to solve the mystery of Nessie.

Now, answer the following questions.
a) Where do the Loch Ness Monsters live?
Answer:
Loch Ness Monsters are said to be lived in the Loch Ness lake in Scotland.

b) How is Nessie?
Answer:
Nessie is said to be about 30 feet long with a long slender neck, one or two humps and flippers.

Choose the correct answer from the choices given,
c) Actually the Loch Ness is the name of a
i) country.
i) city.
iii) lake.
Answer:
iii) lake.

d) Which of the following is a fact about Nessie?
i) Nessie has a long slender neck.
ii) Nessie has flippers.
iii) Nessie is a mystery.
Answer:
iii) Nessie is a mystery.

e) What was the Nickname given to Loch Ness Monster?
i) Nest
ii) Nestle
iii) Nessie
Answer:
iii) Nessie

Interpretation Of Non-Verbal Information

1. Read the following tree diagram carefully.

Now answer the following questions.
a) What does the above diagram show?
Answer:
The above diagram shows a tree diagram of musical instruments.

b) What are the three main categories of musical instruments?
Answer:
Three catagories : (1) Wind instruments, (2) Percussion instruments, (3) Stringed instruments.

Choose the correct answer from the choices given below.
c) Which of the following is a stringed instrument?
i) Harp
ii) Horn
iii) Tabla
Answer:
i) Harp

d) What type of musical instrument is Xylophone?
i) Percussion instrument
ii) Wind instrument
iii) Stringed instrument
Answer:
i) Percussion instrument

e) Which of the following statements is TRUE based on the information given?
i) All string instruments are a type of percussion instruments.
ii) Wood block is a wind instrument.
iii) Guitar and Violin are stringed instruments.
Answer:
iii) Guitar and Violin are stringed instruments.

2. Study the family tree of Bala Krishna.

Now answer the following questions.
a) Who are the grandparents of Praveen?
Answer:
Balakrishna and Ragini

b) How many granddaughters does Bala Krishna have?
Answer:
Five granddaughters

Choose the correct answer from the choices given below.
c) Medha is the daughter of ……………..
i) Rohit
ii) Veena
iii) Bhavya
Answer:
ii) Veena

d) Praveen and Raasi are ……………
i) brothers
ii) cousins
iii) friends
Answer:
ii) cousins

e) Which of the following statements is TRUE based on the information given?
i) Rohit has two daughters.
ii) Ananya and Raasi are cousins.
iii)Rohit’s wife is Bhavya.
Answer:
i) Rohit has two daughters.

Vocabulary

Synonyms

Choose the words with similar meanings (synonyms) from the list given to the words underlined.


Answer:
a) a) fascination, b) induced
b) a) thrilling, b) abundant
c) a) surprising, b) broad
d) a) alighted, b) memorable
e) a) surroundings, b) peaceful
e) a) advantage, b) panoramic

Antonyms

Write the opposites (antonyms) for the underlined words.
a) I could still remember (a) the astounding (b) experience in the longest tunnel among the 58 tunnels.
b) We got down (a) with our baggage. The train journey from Visakhapatnam to Borra Caves gave us an unforgettable (b) experience which made us speechless.
c) Log huts, tents set in tribal environment for the tourists’ night stay are more enjoyable (a) as they offer pleasant (b) and serene atmosphere that is not found in concrete jungles.
d) Here, we visited the Tribal Museum, the exhibition of many interesting (a) things like the traditional (b) art, handicrafts, ornaments and dresses used by the tribes, etc.
e) I feel proud (a) to visit this garden for its great history. This popular (b) botanical garden, built in 1942 in 26 acres, was the source of cultivating vegetables for the soldiers who fought in the World War II.
f) Lambasingi, the Kashmir of Andhra Pradesh, a small (a) hamlet in Visakhapatnam district, is known (b) for the snowfall with a record fall of 0°C and sometimes -3°C temperatures particularly between November and January.
Answer:
a) a) forget, b) unimpressive
b) a) board / got in, b) forgettable
c) a) unenjoyable, b) nasty
d) a) uninteresting, b) unconventional
e) a) sorry, b) unpopular
f) a) big, b) unfamiliar

Right Forms of the Words

Fill in the blanks with the right form of the words given in the brackets.

a) The _____ (a) (beauty / beautiful) of the valleys _____ (b) (attacts / attraction) even the movie makers.
b) It was no _____ (a) (exaggerate / exaggeration) what I came to know about this God’s _____ (b) (Architecture / Architect).
c) These caves are a good source of _____ (a) (enjoyment / enjoyed) and also _____ (b) (experientially / experiential) learning.
d) Here, we visited the Tribal Museum, the _____ (a) (exhibited / exhibition) of many interesting things like the _____ (b) (tradition / traditional) art, handicrafts, ornaments and dresses used by the tribes, etc.
e) This _____ (a) (popular1 / popularity) botanical garden, built in 1942 in 26 acres, was the source of _____ (b) (cultivate / cultivating) vegetables for the soldiers who fought in the the World War II.
f) Feeling the _____ (a) (warmly / warmth) of the sunrise of Lambasingi made an _____ (b) (auspicious / auspiciously) start of the day that lasts forever.
Answer:
a) a) beauty, b) attracts
b) a) exaggeration, b) Architecture
c) a) enjoyment, b) experiential
d) a) exhibition, b) traditional
e) a) popular, b) cultivating
f) a) warmth, b) auspicious

Spelling Test

Type – 1 : Vowel Clusters

Complete the following words using “ai, au, ea, ee, ei, eo, ia, ie, io, oa, oi, oo, ou, ua, ui or uo”.

Answer:

Exercise – 2

Answer:

Type – 2 : Suffixes

Complete the following words with the suitable suffixes given in the brackets.

a) During the period from November to January, the hills with lushing green ___ (ery / ary) and blossoms welcome the visit ___ (ers / ors).
b) The train journey from Visakhapatnam to Borra Caves gave us an unforgett ___ (eble/ able) experience which made us speech ___ (loss / less).
c) These caves are a good source of enjoy ___ (ment / mant) and also experien ___ (tial / cial) learning.
d) Log huts, tents set in tribal environ ___ (ment / mant) for the tourists’ night stay are more enjoy ___ (eble /able) as they offer pleasant and serene atmosphere that is not found in concrete jungles.
e) It is indeed, a wonder ___ (ful / full) feast for the eyes. Here, the rail ___ (way / weigh) track and the roadway seem to go parallel.
f) At night, there was an unforget ___ (teble / table) camp fire in which we all enjoyed Dhimsa, the local ceremon ___ (yal / ial) dance of the agency, performed by 12 to 16 women while men beating the drums.
Answer:
a) greenery, visitors
b) unforgettable, speechless
d) environment, enjoyable
f) unforgettable, ceremonial
c) enjoyment, experiential
e) wonderful, railway

Type – 3 : Wronalv Spelt Words

Identify the wrongly spelt word and write its correct spelling in the space provided.

a) exageration, valley, popular, entire
Answer:
exaggeration

b) pleasure, cultivating, magnifisense, frequent
Answer:
magnificence

c) aspicious, aspect, enjoyable, stunning
Answer:
auspicious

d) experience, parallel, sumptus, intense
Answer:
sumptuous

e) atraction, concrete, glance, amazing
Answer:
attraction

f) convert, unforgetable, trekking, compensating
Answer:
unforgettable

Classification of Words

Arrange the following words under the correct headings.

Choice of the Words

Fill in the blanks choosing the suitable words from those given in the box.

Answer:
a) 1) sumptuous, 2) cooked
b) 1) environment, 2) atmosphere
c) 1) monumental, 2) exhausted
d) 1) apt, 2) enthusiastic
e) 1) tribal, 2) dialect
f) 1) boon, 2) scenic
g) 1) parallel, 2) phenomenon
h) 1) aspect, 2) contrasting
i) 1) Compensating, 2) ceremonial
j) 1) surrounded, 2) frozen

Prefixes / Suffixes

Add appropriate prefixes / suffixes to the following roots to make new words.

Grammar

I. Edit the following passage correcting the underlined parts.

1. Dolphins are very interesting animals. They, looks (a) like fish but they are not fish. Fish has (b) cold blood but dolphins have warm blood. Fish can live under water and (c) dolphins cannot. They can stay in (d) water for a long time.
Answer:
a) look b) have c) but d) under

2. An (a) Olympic Games are the great (b) celebrations of sport in the world. They are held once in four years. The Olympic Games began at (c) Olympia in 776 B.C. They took place from time to time till (d) 393 A.D.
Answer:
a) The b) greatest c) in d) until

3. Dhyanchand is (a) a very well-known hockey player. He was born at (b) 29 August 1905 in Allahabad. He studied in the (c) local secondary high school. In 1922, he joined a (d) British army as a sepoy.
Answer:
a) was b) on c) a d) the

4. Vikram Sarabhai was responsible to (a) the setting up of the Rocket Launching station or (b) Space Science and Technology Centre in (c) Thumba in Kerala. A (d) Rocket and Launching Ranger at Srihaj-i Kota in Andhra Pradesh was set up by Dr. Sarabhai only.
Answer:
a) for b) and c) at d) The

II. Complete the passage choosing the right words from those given below. Each blank is numbered and for each blank four choices are given. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (Q or (D) in the blanks.

1. Have you ever ____ (1) people putting ____ (2) thumb impression on important documents? This is done mainly ____ (3) illiterate people ____ (4) they cannot put their signatures.
1) A) see B) sees C) seen D) seeing
2) A) its B) his C) their D) her
3) A) with . B) from C) by D) of
4) A) so B) because C) as D) since
Answer:
1) C 2) C 3) C 4) B

2. The finger prints ____ (1) the police to ____ (2) the thieves and criminals. ____ (3) ____ keep a record of the finger prints of thieves and criminals ____ (4)
to them.
1) A) helps B) help C) helped D) helping
2) A) identify B) identifying C) identified D) identifies
3) A) He B) She C) They D) It
4) A) knows B) know C) known D) knowing
Answer:
1) B 2) A 3) C 4)C

3. A cell phone is ____ (1) extremely sophisticated radio. ____ (2) cell phones ____ (3) can talk to anyone ____ (4) the planet from just about anywhere.
1)A) a B) an C) the D) any
2) A) By B) With C) From D) On
3) A) she B) he C)they D) you
4) A) on B) in C) over D) above
Answer:
1)B 2) B 3) D 4) A

4. Abdul is ____ (1) friend. One evening he ____ (2) home from school. He‘saw a boy ____ (3) in a tank. Suddenly he jumped ____ (4) the tank and saved the boy.
1) A) I B) my G) me D) mine
2) A) is returning B) returns C) was returning D) returned
3) A) drowns B) drowning C) drowned D) drown
4) A) in B) on C)into . D) over
Answer:
1) B 2) C 3) B D) C

III. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions given in the box.

1) There is a box ______ the table.
2) I will meet you ______ the evening.
3) He reached the place ______ 8.30 a.m.
4) Rahul went ______ a movie his friends.
5) The cat jumped ______ the well.
6) She hurried ______ the entrance to receive the guest.
7) His house is ______ the sea.
8) A number of colourful butterflies are flying ______ us.
9) We are living ______ the same roof.
10) They are going to travel the ______ world.
Answer:

1. on
2. in
3. at
4. to with
5. into
6. towards
7. by
8. above
9. under
10. around

IV. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions given in the box.

1) She is walking ______ the road slowly.
2) The Palk strait is located ______ India and Sri Lanka..
3) The Thames river flows ______ London.
4) She will conje to India ______ November.
5) Mr. Alexander has taught in this school ______ one year.
6) He put a paper weight ______ the papers.
7) She always holds an umbrella ______ her head.
8) There is a temple ______ our school.
9) It is easier to walk ______ the hill than go up.
10) I saw your friend ______ the park.
Answer:

1. along
2. between
3. through
4. in
5. for
6. on
7. over
8. beside
9. down
10. at

V. Write the other degrees of the following adjectives.

VI. Read the following sentences. Label them with ‘P’ for Positive, ‘C’ for Comparative and ‘S’ for ‘Superlative’.

1. Rahul Dravid is one of the greatest batsmen in the world.
2. Alexander was the greatest soldier in the world.
3. India is one of the fastest developing countries in the world.
4. No other river in the world is as long as the Nile.
5. Hindi is one of the most popular languages in India.
6. Lara is not as great as Tendulkar.
7. Rekha is one of the most beautiful girls in the class.
8. Very few metals are as expensive as platinum.
9. Shimla is colder than all hill stations in the Himachal Pradesh.
10. Delhi is one of the most crowded cities of India. ‘
Answer:

1. Superlative Degree
2. Superlative Degree
3. Superlative Degree
4. Positive Degree
5. Superlative Degree
6. Positive Degree
7. Superlative Degree
8. Positive Degree
9. Comparative Degree
10. Superlative Degree

Creative Writing

1. Describe a journey with your family.
Answer:
Recently we planned a tour to Araku Valley. Dad said it’s a very pleasant and cool hill station that can be visited in summer. Charan and I were so excited and told our friends about our trip to Araku. Mom also said its a worthy sight seeing place.

We started early in the morning of Monday by a train to Vishakhapatnam. I enjoyed the climate and scenic beauty sitting by the window. Mom made some snacks and lunch for us to enjoy during the journey. We reached Vishakhapatnam in the after¬noon. We took rest in a hotel and went to see R.K. Beach in the evening. First time, to go near the heavy waters scared me a lot. But my father held our hands and gave the courage to go near the waters. We enjoyed a lot with the on and off movements of tides.

We took rest for the night and started for Araku early in the morning by train. The journey was pleasant and exciting as we passed through forests and tunnels. Children in the train shouted with joy. We reached Araku, hired a room and got fresh. We hired a taxi to see some old temples. Borra caves, tea and coffee plantations and beautiful gardens. We enjoyed the trip. The garden was beautiful with flower beds, bushes and decorated trees.

The trip was a memorable experience in my life.

2. One of your Mends wishes to visit the place you have visited recently. Write a letter to your Mend giving suggestions to help him make his/her Mp successful.
Answer:

3. You have read that the author and his friends planned a tour to Araku Valley in the lesson, “A Journey through the Hills and Valleys”. He travelled by the Kirandul Passenger up to Borra Caves. The author and his friends enjoyed themselves the train journey. Their travel in Vista dome coach of Kirandul Passenger gave them memorable experience.

Now, describe the feelings of the author while he was travelling by the Kirandul Passenger along with his Mends.
Answer:
The author felt very happy when they planned to visit Araku Valley. He started from Visakhapatnam along with his friends and travelled by the Kirandul Passenger, the only train from Visakhapatnam to Borra Caves. As soon as he boarded the train, he started thinking. He thought, “What a wonderful occasion it is ! The travel in Vista dome coach with wide windows and LCD TV is really a special attraction to this train journey. The scenery of the hills with lushing greenery and blossoms is magnificent to watch. Oh, now, I think we are crossing the longest tunnel on our way. It gives me an astounding experience. Oh, here comes a grand waterfall which makes all the travellers spellbound. I can’t account all the waterfalls like this during the journey. The sheer beauty of the lushing greenery, various coloured blossoms, tunnels, waterfalls, valleys, ghat roads, etc. has taken my breath away. This train journey from Visakhapatnam to Borra Caves has given us an unforgettable experience and has made us speechless !”

4. Do you have any memorable day in your life ? Narrate about it in a paragraph.
Answer:
A DAY THAT I CAN’T FORGET
There are many unforgettable days in my life. Of these is the day when the result of my class VI examination was declared. I had done all my papers well. I expected a good result. But I had stood first in the entire district. I felt very very happy. My parents and other family members were very happy. All my friends and teachers came to congratualte me on this great success. Sweets were distributed in the colony. My father decided to send me to a very good school for further education. I can’t forget that day.

5. Recently you have spent a week in hills at your grandparents’ house.’You enjoyed your stay. Write a paragraph about 100 words describing the joy of living in the lap of nature.
Answer:
How I spent a week in hills
Last month I spent a week in hills in my grandparents’ house. My grandparents live in Rishikesh at the foothills of the great Himalayas. This year it was very hot in the plains. So I went to them. First, the weather was pleasant though days were hot. Sitting on the banks of holy Ganges in the background of lush green forest and hills gave us peace. We went to Chamoli for two days. There we enjoyed our stay. The nature looked fresh and pure. The distant hills and snow-covered tops added glory to natural beauty. We ate seasonal fruits and tasted local food to our fill. There was no tension or pressure of any kind. It was a blessing to be in the lap of nature.

6. Write a Biographical sketch of Mr. Ramnath Kovind, the President of India, using the information given below :
Birth : 1st October, 1945
Paraunk near Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh.
Parents : Sri Maiku Lal
Smt. Kalavathi
Education : School education in Kanpur – B. Com, LL.B, Kanpur University.
Spouse : Smt. Savitha
Positions held : * Advocate for Government of India at the Delhi High Court from 1977 to 1981.
* Junior Council for Government of India in Supreme Court from 1982 to 1984.
* Governor of Bihar from 2015 to 2017.
Parliamentary life : Member of Rajya Sabha from Uttar Pradesh from 1994 to 2000.
Assumed the office as President : 25th July, 2017
Answer:
Ramnath Kovind was born on 1st October, 1945 in Paraunk, near Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh. His parents were Sri Maikulal and Smt. Kalavathi. He completed his school education in Kanpur and obtained the degrees of B.Com and L.L.B from Kanpur University. He married Savitha. He was an advocate of Indian Government in the Delhi High Court from 1977 to 1981 and Indian Government Junior Council in the Supreme Court from 1982 to 1984. Before assuming charge of the office of the 14th President of India on July 25,2017, Kovind served as the 36th Governor of the state of Bihar from 2015 to 2017. He was elected as a member of Rajya Sabha from Uttar Pradesh from 1994 to 2000.

7. Write a story using the following hints.

Hints: Four bulls in a field – very good friends – lion feared to near them – thought of a plan – said bad words against friends – then bulls grazed separately – lion killed one after the other – united – strength.
Answer:
FOUR FOOLISH BULLS
Once there lived four bulls by the side of a forest. They were strong and sturdy. They were united. They grazed together. A lion, which lived in the forest, very much wished to make a feast of the bulls. The lion, did not dare to go near the bulls. He thought of a plan. He met each bull in turn and said bad words against the other bulls. The foolish bulls believed his words. They started grazing separately. The lion took advantage of the disunity of the bulls. He killed one after the other and ate all the four bulls.

Moral: Unity is strength, (or) United we stand, divided we fall.

8. Write a story using the following hints:
Hints : A king very fond of stories – man who tells a story that never ends to marry his daughter – a handsome young man begins his story – a little ant – nothing to eat – sees a big building – decides to take some rice from it – crawls inside – carries a grain of rice on back – crawls home – the young man goes on about little ant – king understands – marries off his daughter to him.
Answer:
THE CLEVER MAN’S ENDLESS STORY
Once there lived a king. He was very much fond of stories. He declared that he would give his daughter in marriage to the man who would tell him an endless story.

One day a clever and handsome young man came to the king.. He started telling an endless story. The story ran like this. “Once there was a little ant. It was hungry. It had nothing to eat. It saw a big building. It crawled inside it. There was a heap of rice. It carried a grain of rice on its back to its hole. It came back. Again it carried another grain of rice”.

The young man repeated the same story of the ant several times. The story seemed endless. The king got vexed. He understood the cleverness of the young man. He mar-ried off his daughter to him.

Moral: Your wisdom comes to your help, (or) Knowledge is power.

These AP 7th Class Science Important Questions 2nd Lesson Nature of Substances will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP Board 7th Class Science 2nd Lesson Important Questions and Answers Nature of Substances

Question 1.
From which language does the word ‘Acid’ derived?
Answer:
The word acid came from the Latin word ‘acere’ means sour.

Question 2.
Give some examples for substances containing acids.
Answer:
Tamarind, Lemon, Tomato, Apple, Curd, Raw mango etc.

Question 3.
What is the chemical name of vitamin C?
Answer:
The chemical name of vitamin C is Ascorbic acid.

Question 4.
Name some substance in which vitamin C is available.
Answer:
Vitamin C is available in citrus fruits and in amla (usiri).

Question 5.
What will happen when carbon dioxide is added to water?
Answer:
When carbon dioxide is added to water, it become carbonic acid/soda.

Question 6.
How are bases to touch?
Answer:
Bases are slippery to touch.

Question 7.
Which base is used to prepare bath soap?
Answer:
Bath soap is prepared using potassium hydroxide.

Question 8.
Which base is used to prepare detergent soap?
Answer:
Detergent soap for washing clothes is prepared using Sodium hydroxide.

Question 9.
What are the main components in the tooth paste?
Answer:
Main components in the tooth paste are calcium carbonate, aluminum hydroxide and sodium bi carbonate. All these chemicals are bases.

Question 10.
What are alkalis?
Answer:
Bases that can dissolve in water are called alkalis.

Question 11.
Give some examples for alkalis.
Answer:
Some examples of alkalis are sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide and calcium hydroxide.

Question 12.
What are neutral substances?
Answer:
The substance which is neither an acid nor a base is known as neutral substance.

Question 13.
Give examples for neutral substances.
Answer:
Distilled water, salt solution, sugar solution etc are example for neutral substances.

Question 14.
Who gave the most modern definition of acids and alkalis?
Answer:
Svante Arrhenius Swedish physical chemist gave the most modern definition of acids and alkalis.

Question 15.
What are indicators?
Answer:
Substances which are used to test acids or bases are called acid base indicators.

Question 16.
From what does litmus extracted?
Answer:
Litmus is extracted from lichens.

Question 17.
What are olfactory indicators?
Answer:
Substances which change their smell when mixed with acid or base are known as olfactory indicators. Ex: onion, vanilla and clove oil.

Question 18.
What happens when a metal piece is dropped in an acid?
Answer:
If you drop a metal piece in an acid it reacts with acid and releases hydrogen gas.

Question 19.
How can you test hydrogen gas?
Answer:
Hydrogen gas make the flair e to put off with a pop sound.So we can test it by introduc¬ing a incense stick into the mouth of the container having gas.

Question 20.
Why does balloon fill with hydrogen gas fly?
Answer:
Hydrogen gas has less weight than air. So balloon fill with hydrogen gas flies high.

Question 21.
How can you test carbon dioxide gas?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide gas put off the fire. So we can test it by introducing a lighting match stick into the mouth of the container having gas.

Question 22.
What is neutralization reaction?
Answer:
Reaction of an acid and a base is called neutralization reaction.

Question 23.
What are the substances formed in neutralization reaction?
Answer:
The substances formed in neutralization reaction are water and salt.

Question 24.
What do antacids contain?
Answer:
Antacids contain bases, eg: aluminum hydroxide, milk of magnesia.

Question 25.
Why do we get pain and itching, when an ant bites us?
Answer:
When an ant bites us, it injects formic acid into our skin. It causes pain and itching.

Question 26.
What is Acid rain?
Answer:
Rain water with slight acidic nature is called Acid rain.

Question 27.
All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis. Give one example in support of this statement.
Answer:
Zinc hydroxide is a base but not an alkali. It doesn’t dissolve in water.

7th Class Science 2nd Lesson Nature of Substances Short Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention some food items containing acids and write the name of the acid present in them.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are mineral acids? Give examples.
Answer:

1. Some acids are prepared artificially from minerals which are extracted from the earth. Such acids are known as mineral acids or synthetic acids.
2. Hydrochloric acid, sulphuric acid and nitric acids are examples for mineral acids.

Question 3.
Mention any four daily life situations where acids are being used.
Answer:

1. Hydrochloric acid is used for bath room cleaning.
2. Sulphuric acid is used in batteries.
3. Soda water and cool drinks contain carbonic acids.
4. Fatty acids are used in manufacturing of soaps.
5. Citric acid, tartaric acid, acetic acid etc, are used in the preparation and preserva¬tion of some foods.

Question 4.
Mention any four daily life situations where bases are being used.
Answer:

1. Bath soap is prepared using potassium hydroxide.
2. Detergent soap for washing clothes is prepared using Sodium hydroxide.
3. Aluminium hydroxide is used in the preparation of tooth paste.
4. Aluminium hydroxide and milk of magnesia are used in preparation of antacids.
5. Quick lime and Potassium hydroxide are used to treat acidic soils.

Question 5.
Is it possible to test all the acids and bases simply by tasting or touching them? Why?
Answer:

1. No, It is not possible to test all the acids and bases simply by tasting or touching them.
2. Some acids like hydrochloric acid, sulphuric acid, nitric acids and bases like so¬dium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide are very harmful and strong.
3. We cannot test them by touch or taste.
4. We should use indicators to test them.

Question 6.
How to prepare turmeric indicator?
Answer:

1. Take a table spoon of turmeric powder in a plate.
2. Add little water and make it into a paste.
3. Take a white paper and apply the paste over it on both sides and let it dry.
4. After drying, cut the paper into strips.
5. Now turmeric paper strips are ready for use as indicator.

Question 7.
Do the turmeric strip act as a indicator? How?
Answer:

1. Yes, turmeric strip act as a indicator.
2. This is because turmeric is a natural indicator.
3. The colour of turmeric strip will change into reddish brown in basic solutions.
4. It remain yellow in acidic solutions.

Question 8.
How can you identify acids and bases using hibiscus indicator?
Answer:

1. Hibiscus is a natural indicator that changes its colour in acids and bases.
2. It changes its colour from violet to pink in acids.
3. It changes its colour from violet to green in bases.
4. Thus it can be used to identify acids and bases.

Question 9.
Mention the colours of different indicators in acidic and basic mediums.
Answer:

Question 10.
Magicians bring blood out of a lemon when they cut it with a knife. How is it pos-sible?
Answer:

1. It is simply a science trick.
2. Magician prepares a knife by applying an indicator like methyl orange or hibiscus solution on it.
3. Then he cut the lemon before us.
4. Due to the reaction the lemon juice (acid) turns red and we are made to believe that blood is coming out of the lemon.

Question 11.
Who introduced pH scale? How is it used?
Answer:

1. pH scale was introduced by Sorensen.
2. Strength of acid or base solution is measured in pH scale.
3. The range of pH scale is from 0 to 14.
4. pH of acids is less than 7, pH of bases is more than 7 and pH of neutral substance is 7.
5. Strength of acids decreases from 0 to 7 and strength of bases increases from 7 to 14.

Question 12.
Classify the following in to strong acid, weak acid, strong base, weak base.
Hydrochloric acid, Acetic acid, oxalic acid, Sodium hydroxide, Sulphuric acid, Po-tassium Hydroxide, Nitric acid, Ammonium hydroxide,Citric acid.
Answer:

Question 13.
Pickles are not stored in aluminum or steel or copper vessels. Why?
Answer:

1. Pickles contain acids.
2. These acids react with metal containers and releases toxic substances.
3. So, we should store them in metal containers.
4. Generally, they are stored in ceramic or glass containers which do not react.

Question 14.
How can you prove carbon dioxide releases when acid reacts with calcium carbonate?
Answer:

1. Take some crushed egg shells in a test tube and pour dilute sulphuric acid until the egg shells completely sink. Egg shell is made of calcium carbonate.
2. We will observe that a gas being released.
3. Bring a lighting match stick near the mouth of test tube.
4. The gas that put off the lighting match stick indicating that the gas is carbon diox¬ide.
5. This confirms that carbon dioxide releases when acid reacts with calcium carbon¬ate.

Question 15.
What is neutralization? Give examples for neutralization reaction from day-to-day life.
Answer:

1. Neutralization is a chemical reaction where acid and base react with each other to form salt and water.
2. The bases in the antacids neutralize gastric juice and give us relief from acidity.
3. When an ant bites, it injects formic acid into the skin. It causes pain and itching. We can neutralize the acid by rubbing the paste of baking soda on the place of bite. Baking Soda is a base and it neutralizes the formic acid.
4. When soil becomes too acidic, farmers neutralize it by adding basic substances like quick lime (sunnam), potassium hydroxide etc,.
5. When soil becomes too basic they neutralize it with organic substances like com¬post which release acidic substances into the soil.

Question 16.
What is acid rain? How is it caused?
Answer:

1. Rain water with slight acidic nature is called Acid rain.
2. Air pollution is a major cause of acid rains.
3. Fuels like coal and petroleum emissions have sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide etc. which react with rain water droplets and form sulphuric acid and nitric acid.
4. These acids come along with rain water to cause acid rain.

Question 17.
Bhasker said that some plants help us to find out the nature (pH)of the soil. Do you support his statement?
Answer:

1. Yes, I support his statement.
2. Hydrangea plants have different colours of flowers based on the pH of the soil.
3. If the pH of the soil is below 5.5 it gives blue flowers.
4. If the pH of the soil is below 6.5 it gives pink flowers.
5. Thus, they helps us to find the nature (pH) of soil.

Question 18.
Why do Neem/ miswak/ kanuga sticks are used as chew sticks from olden days?
Answer:

1. Neem, miswak, kanuga sticks are used as chew sticks (pandupulla) from olden days.
2. Because they have basic substances.
3. The bases in these sticks neutralizes the acids released by the bacteria in our mouth.
4. Thus they protect our oral health.

Question 19.
Write some acids and there uses in our daily life in the form of a table.
Answer:

Question 20.
Write some bases and their uses in our daily life in the form of a table.
Answer:

Question 21.
What is soap? How is it prepared?
Answer:

1. Soap is a salt with basic nature.
2. It is prepared by adding fatty acids like coconut oils to alkalis like Sodium hydroxide or Potassium hydroxide.
3. Detergent soap used to wash cloths contains Sodium hydroxide.
4. Bath soap contains Potassium hydroxide.

Question 22.
What are the precautions to be taken while handling chemicals?
Answer:

1. Do not taste and smell. Do not let it fall on the body.
2. Use a dropper while transferring acid from bottle.
3. While adding water to make dilution, pour small quantities of acid slowly into water taken in a beaker.
4. Use a holder to hold a test tube.
5. Read the precautions given on the containers of substances.

Question 23.
What precautions should be taken if the body burns due to chemicals?
Answer:

1. Start first aid immediately.
2. Remove contaminated clothes from the person.
3. Wash the affected area with plenty of water.
4. Don’t pierce the blisters.
5. Shift the person to hospital.

7th Class Science 2nd Lesson Nature of Substances Long Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the properties of Acids.
Answer:

1. Acids are sour to taste.
2. They turn blue litmus to red colour, methyl orange to red colour, hibiscus indicator to pink colour.
3. They don’t change the colour of phenolphthalein and turmeric indicators.
4. pH of acids is less than 7.
5. Acids react with metals and release hydrogen gas.
6. Acids react with calcium carbonate to release carbon dioxide.
7. Acids react with base to form water and salt. This reaction is called neutralisation reaction.
8. Hydrochloric acid, sulphuric acid and nitric acid are examples for acids.

Question 2.
Write the properties of Bases.
Answer:

1. Bases are bitter to taste.
2. They are slippery to touch.
3. They turn red litmus to blue colour, methyl orange to yellow colour, phenolphtha- lein to pink and hibiscus indicator to green colour.
4. They change the colour of turmeric indicator to reddish brown.
5. pH of acids is more than 7.
6. Bases like sodium hydroxide react with metals and releases hydrogen gas.
7. Bases react with acid to form water and salt. This reaction is called neutralisation reaction.
8. Sodium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide and calcium hy-droxide are examples for bases.

Question 3.
How can you demonstrate the neutralisation reaction in the laboratory?
Answer:
Aim: To demonstrate the neutralisation reaction.

What you need:
1) Conical flask, 2) Dropper, 3) Sodium hydroxide solution, 4) Hydro-chloric acid, 5) Phenolphthalein indicator

How to do:
Take sodium hydroxide solution in a conical flask and observe its colour. Now add 2-3 drops of phenolphthalein indicator to it. Now observe the colour. It is pink in colour. Using a dropper add dilute hydrochloric acid drop by drop to this solution, and stir gently.

What you see:
The pink colour of the solution disappears. On crystallisation water evaporates from this solution leaving the salt in the flask.

What you learn:
In this reaction acid and base reacts with each other to form salt and water. Such reactions are called neutralisation reactions.
Hydrochloric acid + sodium hydroxide → sodium chloride + water

Question 4.
Take the following solutions in to test tubes. Test them with a) red litmus, b) blue litmus, c) methyl orange and d) phenolphthalein indicators. Tabulate your results. 1)Dilute hydrochloric acid, 2) Sodium hydroxide, 3) Acetic acid, 4) Salt solution, 5) Sugar solution and 6) Soap water
Answer:

Question 5.
How can you prove that hydrogen gas releases when acid reacts with metals?
(or)
How can you produce hydrogen gas in the laboratory?
Answer:
Aim: Acid reacts with metals and produces hydrogen gas.

Materials required:
Conical flask, hydrochloric acid, zinc pieces, incense stick, match box.

Procedure:
Take 5g of zinc metal pieces in a conical flask. Pour 20 ml of dilute hydro-chloric acid into it. Now, observe what happens.

Observation:
The zinc pieces reacted with the hydrochloric acid and releases a gas. Test for hydrogen gas

Now, introduce a incense stick into mouth of the conical flask. The flame of burning stick will put off with a pop sound. This is a test for hydrogen gas. Hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc metal and forms zinc chloride, releases hydrogen gas. This reaction can be written as a word equation,
Zinc + hydrochloric acid → zinc chloride + hydrogen

Conclusion:
Hence, we can conclude that acids react with metals and release hydrogen gas.

AP Board 7th Class Science 2nd Lesson 1 Mark Bits Questions and Answers Nature of Substances

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. Table salt contains
A) Sodium chloride
B) Sodium bicarbonate
C) Potassium chloride
D) Sodium hydroxide
Answer:
A) Sodium chloride

2. Baking soda contains
A) Sodium chloride
B) Sodium bicarbonate
C) Potassium chloride
D) Sodium hydroxide
Answer:
B) Sodium bicarbonate

3. Gastric juice means
A) Sulphuric acid
B) Citric acid
C) Antacid
D) Hydrochloric acid
Answer:
D) Hydrochloric acid

4. Sulphuric acid reacts with eggshell and releases
A) Carbondioxide
B) Hydrogen
C) Oxygen
D) None
Answer:
A) Carbondioxide

5. Substance/s formed in a neutralization reaction is/are
A) Water
B) Salt
C) A and B
D) Hydrogen
Answer:
C) A and B

6. Which of the following does not contain acid?
A) lemon
B) Bitter gourd
C) Amla
D) Tomato
Answer:
B) Bitter gourd

7. This acid is present in cool drinks
A) Sulphuric acid
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Carbonic acid
D) Vinegar
Answer:
C) Carbonic acid

8. Bath soap is prepared using
A) Sodium hydroxide
B) Aluminum hydroxide
C) Calcium carbonate
D) Potassium hydroxide
Answer:
D) Potassium hydroxide

9. Olfactory indicator from the following
A) Hibiscus
B) Phenolphthalein
C) Clove oil
D) Methyl orange
Answer:
C) Clove oil

10. lichens are used in the preparation of
A) Litmus
B) Methyl blue
C) Phenolphthalein
D) Olfactory indicators
Answer:
A) Litmus

11. Phenolphthalein shows colour change with
A) Acids
B) Bases
C) both A & B
D) Neutral substances
Answer:
B) Bases

12. Which of the following is a strong acid?
A) Citric acid
B) Acetic acid
C) Sulphuric acid
D) Malic acid
Answer:
C) Sulphuric acid

13. This gas is lighter than air
A) Hydrogen
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
A) Hydrogen

14. Product of neutralisation
A) Salt
B) Water
C) Both A & B
D) Acid
Answer:
C) Both A & B

15. Example for salt
A) Common salt
B) Antacid
C) Tooth paste
D) Clove oil
Answer:
A) Common salt

16. Acid produced in stomach
A) Sulphuric acid
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Nitric acid
D) Carbonic acid
Answer:
B) Hydrochloric acid

17. This can be used to treat ant bite
A) Baking soda
B) Common salt
C) Vinegar
D) Turmeric
Answer:
A) Baking soda

18. pH of bases
A) 0-14
B) 7
C) more than 7
D) less than 7
Answer:
C) more than 7

19. This is responsible for acid rains
A) Sulphur dioxide
B) Nitrogen dioxide
C) Both A & B
D) Oxygen
Answer:
C) Both A & B

20. Flowers that change their colour according to the nature of soil
A) Hydrangea
B) Marigold
C) Hibiscus
D) Jasmine
Answer:
A) Hydrangea

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Rain with slight ………….. nature is called acid rains.
2. Wash the affected burning area on skin with ………….. .
3. ………….. will be prepared by adding fatty acids to alkalis.
4. ………….. are used in making soaps.
5. ………….. are used to test the nature of substances.
6. ………….. acid is also called as Vitamin C.
7. ………….. acid is used for bath room cleaning.
8. ………….. acid is used in batteries.
9. Soda water and cool drinks contain ………….. acids.
10. Bases are ………….. to taste.
11. Bath soap is prepared using ………….. .
12. Detergent soap is prepared using
13. Bases that can dissolve in water are called ………….. .
14. The substance which is neither an acid nor a base is known as ………….. .
15. Purewater is a ………….. substance.
16. Substances which are used to test acids or bases are called ………….. .
17. Indicators obtained from natural sources are called as ………….. .
18. The most commonly used natural indicator is ………….. .
19. The colour of turmeric strip will change into ………….. in soap water.
20. Soda water turns into ………….. on adding hibiscus indicator.
21. Soap solutions turns ………….. on adding hibiscus indicator.
22. An indicator prepared from artificialsources is known as ………….. .
23. Methyl orange turns in acids and ………….. in bases.
24. Phenolphthalein turns ………….. in bases, but ………….. in acids.
25. Substances which change their smell when mixed with acid or base are known as ………….. .
26. ………….. is a mixture of different indicators and shows different colours in different solutions.
27. ………….. can show the strength of acid or alkaline substance.
28. Strength of acid or base solution is measured in ………….. scale.
29. pH of acids is ………….. .
30. pH of bases is ………….. .
31. pH of neutral substance is ………….. .
32. Natural acids are ………….. acids.
33. Acids react with metals and release gas.
34. Acids react with ………….. and release carbon dioxide gas.
35. Reaction of an acid and a base is called ………….. reaction.
36. The substances formed in neutralization reaction are ………….. and ………….. .
37. Antacids contain ………….. .
38. When an ant bites, it injects acid into the skin.
39. When soil becomes too acidic, farmers treat it by adding
40. When soil becomes too basic,farmers treat it with
41. Rain water with slight acidic nature is called
42. ………….. acid is used in the preservation of pickles and other food substances.
43. ………….. acid is used in the production of ink and leather.
44. Base used in windows cleaner is ………….. .
45. Magnesium hydroxide is used in ………….. and ………….. .
Answer:

1. acidic
2. plenty of water
3. Soap
4. Bases
5. Indicators
6. Ascorbic
7. Hydrochloric
8. Sulphuric
9. carbonic
10. bitter
11. potassium hydroxide
12. Sodium hydroxide
13. alkalis
14. neutral substance
15. Neutral
16. acid base indicators
17. Natural indicators.
18. litmus
19. reddish brown
20. pink
21. green
22. Synthetic indicator.
23. red, yellow
24. pink, does not change
25. olfactoryin dicators.
26. Universal indicatoris
27.  Universal indicator
28. pH
29. less than 7
30. more than 7
31. 7
32. weak
33. hydrogengas.
34. calcium carbonate
35. neutralization reaction.
36. water, salt
37. bases.
38. formic
39. quick lime/ potassium hydroxide.
40. compost.
41. Acid rain.
42. Acetic
43. Tannic
44. Ammonium hydroxide
45. antacid and laxative

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

Do You Know?

Arrhenius
→ Svante Arrhenius Sweadish physical chemist gave the most modern definition of acids and alkalis. He got Noble prize in 1903 for his contribution in chemistry.

BLOOD IN LEMON…!
→ You might have seen the trick by magicians … blood coming out from a lemon when cut with a knife. This is made possible by applying an indicator like Methyl orange or hibiscus flower solution on the knife before cutting the lemon. The indicator reacts with lemon juice to give out red coloured juice. Next time you see such a trick reveal the secret.

→ Hydrangea plants have different colours of flowers based on the pH of the soil. If the pH of the soil is below 5.5 it gives blue flowers. If the pH of the soil is below 6.5 it gives pink flowers. This may helps us to find the nature of soil.

→ Neem, miswak, kanuga sticks are used as chew sticks (pandu pulla) from olden days.
Do you know why? Because they have basic substances. The bases in these sticks neutralizes the acids released by the bacteria in our mouth.

→ Soap is a salt with basic nature. It is prepared by adding fatty acids like cocohut oils to alkalis like Sodium hydroxide or Potassium hydroxide. Detergent soap is used to wash cloths contains Sodium hydroxide where as bath soap contains Potassium hydroxide. Zinc hydroxide is a. base but not an alkali. This is used in cosmetic products. All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis. Discuss with your friends.

These AP 7th Class Science Important Questions 1st Lesson Food for Health will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP Board 7th Class Science 1st Lesson Important Questions and Answers Food for Health

Question 1.
What is the objective of providing mid-day meals to the school children?
Answers:
The main objective of providing a mid-day meal is to provide nutritious food to the growing children.

Question 2.
Name the food items that are served in a mid-day meal?
Answer:
Rice, Tomato dal, boiled egg, chickpea, sambar, sweet Pongal, etc.

Question 3.
What are macro nutrients?
Answer:
Nutrients that are required in large quantities to our body are called “macro nutrients”. Carbohydrates, proteins and fats are the macronutrients.

Question 4.
Why do minerals and vitamins are called micro nutrients?
Answer:
Minerals and vitamins are required in very less quantities to our body. Hence they are called “micro nutrients”.

Question 5.
Why do sports persons take glucose?
Answer:
Glucose is a type of carbohydrate that gives instant energy. For this instant energy, sports persons take glucose.

Question 6.
Give some examples for Carbohydrate rich food items.
Answer:
Rice, jowar, finger millet, maize and potato are some examples for carbohydrate rich food items.

Question 7.
In what form does the carbohydrates present in our foods?
Answer:
Carbohydrates are usually present m the form of starch and sugars in the food.

Question 8.
What is the importance of carbohydrates in our diet?
Answer:
Carbohydrates are important in our diet as they are main source of energy for the body. They are called energy giving rut rients.

Question 9.
What chemical is used to test the presence of starch?
Answer:
Iodine is used to test the presence of starch.

Question 10.
Which test will you suggest to confirm the presence of sugars?
Answer:
I will suggest “Benedict’s reagent test” to confirm the presence of sugars.

Question 11.
Sravya was lean, So the doctor suggested her to take milk, egg and pulses everyday. Can you guess why he did suggest so? Which components do they contain?
Answer:
Doctor suggested so because Sravya was lean and suffering from Protein deficiency. Milk, egg and pulses contain proteins.

Question 12.
What are body building nutrients? Why they are called so?
Answer:
Proteins are called body building nutrients. Because they are required for the formation of muscles and other body organs.

Question 13.
Give some examples for protein rich foods.
Answer:
Meat, fish, eggs, milk, pulses, soya beans etc. are some of the protein rich foods.

Question 14.
Mention some traditional food items that are rich in proteins.
Answer:
Our traditional food items like pesarattlu, minapattlu, gaarelu, vada, punugulu, sunnundalu, idly etc., are rich in proteins.

Question 15.
Does all the food items contain carbohydrates? How can we confirm this?
Answer:
No. All the food items doesn’t contain carbohydrates. We can confirm this by conducting Iodine test.

Question 16.
What are organic foods?
Answer:
The food items made of fruits and vegetables grown under organic farming are called Organic foods.

Question 17.
Which components of food are called protective food. Why?
Answer:
Minerals and vitamins are called protective nutrients because they protect our body and give good health.

Question 18.
What may happen if sea-foods and iodized salt are not included m our diet?
Answer:
If sea-foods and iodized salt are not included in our diet, it may lead to Iodine deficiency and goitre disease.

Question 19.
What measures are taken by the government to prevent anaemia among the chil-dren studying in class I – XII? ‘
Answer:
Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation (WIFS) Scheme was launched in 2012 to pre-vent anaemia. Under this programme iron tablets (pink/ blue tablets) are given to children studying in class I – XII.

Question 20.
What food should be taken to prevent night blindness?
Answer:
Vitamin – A rich food such as carrot, moringa, milk products, liver oils etc, should be taken to prevent night blindness.

Question 21.
What happens due to deficiency of Vitamin K?
Answer:
Deficiency of Vitamin K leads to delay in clotting of blood.

Question 22.
What food materials will you suggest to a person suffering from scurvy?
Answer:
I will suggest to eat Vitamin C rich foods such as citrus fruits, papaya, moringa, sprouts.

Question 23.
Parveen thought that only sour fruits contain Vitamin C. Is it true?
Answer:
No, its not true. Sour fruits are rich in vitamin C but they are not the only source. Certain non-sour food materials such as papaya,moringa, sprouts are also contained vitamin C.

Question 24.
Ranga observed some fine strands or thread like structures in the boiled sweet potato. What are those? What is their importance in our digestive tract?
Answer:
Those are dietary fibres also known as roughage. They help in free bowel movement in the digestive tract and prevents constipation.

Question 25.
Give examples of food items that have dietary fibers.
Answer:
Vegetables, leafy vegetables, tubers, fruits, sprouts are the main sources of roughage. Some food materials like orange, sweet potato are rich in fibres.

Question 26.
Mention the sources of roughage.
Answer:
Vegetables/leafy vegetables, tubers, fruits, sprouts are the main sources of roughage. Some food materials like orange, sweet potato are also rich in dietary fibres.

Question 27.
Give some examples for fat rich food items.
Answer:
Butter, Ghee, Almond oil, Cooking oil.

Question 27.
Do you think drinking water is the only way to provide water to our body?
Answer:
No, many food items like milk, fruits, vegetables etc. are rich in water. They also provide water to our body.

Question 28.
What happens if we take a diet that lacks some nutrients?
Answer:
If we take a diet that lacks some nutrients, it leads to deficiency diseases.

Question 29.
What is balanced diet?
Answer:
A diet that contains all the nutrients in required quantity is called balanced diet.

Question 30.
Expand NIN.
Answer:
National Institute of Nutrition.

Question 31.
According to the ‘My plate of the day’ by NIN, which food materials should we take in large quantity?
Answer:
Vegetables should be taken in large quantity according to the ‘My plate of the day’ by NIN.

Question 32.
According to the ‘My plate of the day’ by NIN, which food materials should we take in less quantity?
Answer:
Oils arid fats Should be taken in less quantity according to the ‘My plate of the day’ by NIN.

Question 33.
What are deficiency diseases?
Answer:
Diseases caused by deficiency of certain nutrients are called deficiency diseases.

Question 34.
What happens if the proteins are inadequate in children’s diet for a long time?
Answer:
If the proteins are inadequate in children’s diet for a long time it causes a disease called Kwashiorkor.

Question 35.
What happens if the proteins and carbohydrates are not taken adequately for a long time?
Answer:
If the proteins and carbohydrates are not taken adequately for a long time it causes Marasmus disease.

Question 36.
What happens if we take food containing too much fats daily?
Answer:
If we take food containing too much fats daily, it leads to obesity. Obesity causes many health problems.

Question 37.
What is organic farming?
Answer:
The method of farming using biofertilizers and biopesticides to keep the soil alive is called Organic farming.

7th Class Science 1st Lesson Food for Health Short Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why different food items are being served in Mid-day meal? Is it only for taste?
Answer:

1. Every food item is made up of one or more ingredients.
2. Every ingredient has one or more nutrients / components.
3. These nutrients give us energy, keep us healthy and helps in the growth and repair of our body
4. So, different food items are being served in Mid-day meal. It is not only for taste.

Question 2.
Do you know about the nutrients present in chikki? Is it same as the nutrients present in egg? Discuss.
Answer:

1. Chikki consisting of carbohydrates (Sugars), dietary fibres, vitamins and minerals.
2. It is not same as the nutrients present in egg.
3. Egg consisting of proteins and fats along with Vitamins and minerals.

Question 3.
What are the nutritive components of our food? How are they classified?
Answer:

1. Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats, Minerals and Vitamins are the nutritive components of our food.
2. They are classified into macro and micro nutrients basing on the quantities they required to our body.
3. Carbohydrates, proteins and fats are required in large quantities. Hence, they are called ‘Macro nutrients’.
4. Minerals and vitamins are required in very less quantity. So, they are called ‘Micro-nutrients’.

Question 4.
Why do our body required proteins?
Answer:

1. Proteins are required for the formation of muscles and other body organs.
2. They regulate biochemical reactions in the body.
3. Proteins repair and heal the wounds on the body.
4. They help to build the immunity against diseases.

Question 5.
Why do elders suggest us to take green leafy vegetables regularly?
Answer:

1. Green leafy vegetables are rich source of vitamins and minerals.
2. Vitamins and minerals are protective nutrients that protect our body and give good health.
3. They also have dietary fibres which prevents constipation.
4. To be healthy green leafy vegetables should be included in our food. So elders suggest us to take green leafy vegetables regularly.

Question 6.
What are the reasons for anaemia? How can it be prevented?
Answer:

1. Anaemia is caused due to the deficiency of Iron.
2. It can be prevented by including iron-rich food materials such as meat, dry fruits, green leafy vegetables etc. in our food.

Question 7.
Why do some students get vision problems? How can it be prevented?
Answer:

1. One of the reasons for vision problems in students is Vitamin-A deficiency.
2. Vitamin-A helps in the health of the eye, hair and skin.
3. Its deficiency may lead to vision problems such as dry eyes, night blindness, cornea failure.
4. This can be prevented by including vitamin-A rich foods such as carrot, moringa, milk products, liver oils etc. in our food.

Question 8.
What are vitamins? How they ewe classified?
Answer:

1. Vitamins are micronutrients that protect our body and give good health.
2. They are of two basic types
   i) Fat soluble vitamins: A, D, E, K.
   ii) Water soluble vitamins: C, B complex

Question 9.
Why are infants exposed to mild sunlight for a short time in the morning?
Answer:

1. Exposure to the mild sunlight for a short time in the morning helps in the formation of vitamin D in the body.
2. Vitamin D helps to maintain the health of bone and teeth.
3. In infants it not only helps in formation of healthy bones and teeth but also prevents a disease called rickets.
4. So in order to provide vitamin D to infants, they are exposed to mild sunlight for a short time in the morning.

Question 10.
How can we estimate the quantity of Vitamin C m different fruits?
Answer:

1. Take the equal size slices of different fruits.
2. Keep each slice on a separate Iodine paper.
3. The fruit which made the iodine paper more discoloured contains more vitamin C,

Question 11.
Why it was advised to take Vitamin C in €owid-19 period. Discuss.
Answer:

1. During the period of Covid-I9, our immune system play key rote in cope up with the situation.
2. It fight with the coronavirus and protect us.
3. Vitamin C helps to improve our immune system.
4. As vitamin C is a immune booster, it was advised to take it in Covid -19 period.

Question 12.
Is it good to eat fruits and vegetables along with their peels? Discuss.
Answer:

1. Yes, in most of the cases it is good to eat fruits and vegetables along with their peel.
2. Because peels of fruits and vegetables contain dietary fibres.
3. They prevents constipation and keeps our digestive track healthy.
4. But we should wash fruits and vegetables thoroughly with clean water before consuming.

Question 13.
How do the infants grow by taking only milk for few months?
Answer:

1. Mother milk contains all nutrients necessary for the baby’s healthy physical development.
2. It contains carbohydrates, fats and proteins, minerals, water and vitamins in their right proportions. So it is called whole food.
3. Breast milk also contains factors that are important for protecting the infant against infection and inflammation, and contributing to healthy development of the immune system.
4. Thus mothers’ milk is naturally adapted to meet your baby’s needs so they can grow by taking only milk for few months.

Question 14.
Rupa said that boiled tap water is better than packaged / bottled water. Do you support this statement? Why/ why not?
Answer:
I support this statement because.

1. Bottled water is nothing but filtered water using reverse osmosis. This not only removes microbes but also all the minerals required for our body from water. If the tap water is boiled and filtered normally harmful microbes will be killed and removed but required minerals will not be removed. So it is better to drink boiled water than bottled water.
2. Further the empty water bottle and packets also causes pollution to our environment.

Question 15.
What is constipation? What are the causes for this? How can be it prevented?
Answer:

1. Constipation refers to bowel movements that are irregular.
2. It is a very common gastrointestinal disorder experienced by most people at some time during their life.
3. Constipation may be just due to a poor diet with insufficient fibre, poor fluid intake or a side effect of certain medication.
4. It can be prevented by taking fibre rich food and required amount of water.

Question 16.
Who proposed and recommended ‘My plate for the day’? What is its purpose?
Answer:

1. My plate for the day, is a diet plan showing the required quantities of food needed by our body.
2. This is recommended by National Institute of Nutrition (NIN) Hyderabad to promote health, prevent hidden hunger and protect us from diseases.

Question 17.
Some of our traditional foods are healthy. Support this statement with an example.
Answer:

1. Sunnundalu, boorelu made at our house during the festive season are comes under the list of complete nutrient food.
2. Black gram (protein), jaggery (carbs, iron), ghee (fats) and pressed into dows to make sunnundalu.
3. Boiled chenadal is mixed with jaggery to make poornam. It is dipped in the mixture of black gram and rice flour and water. Now this balls of poornam are cooked in oil to make boorelu (poornalu)
4. These help children to grow well as they have all the required nutrients.

7th Class Science 1st Lesson Food for Health Long Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a short notes on different components of food.
Answer:

1. The major nutrients in our food are. carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals.
2. Carbohydrates, proteins and fats are required in large quantities. Hence, they are called Macronutrients.
3. Minerals and Vitamins are required in very less quantity. So, they are called Micro-nutrients.
4. Carbohydrates and fats mainly provide energy to our body.
5. Proteins are needed for the growth and maintenance of our body.
6. Minerals and Vitamins help in protecting our body against diseases.
7. Food also contains dietary fibres and water.
8. We may face some digestion problems like constipation due to inadequate fibres and water in the food.

Question 2.
Study the given table and answer the following questions.

1. Which minerals are required to maintain strong bones and teeth?
2. How is iron useful to our body?
3. Why should we take iodized salt?
4. Mention the source of sodium and its importance.
Answer:

1. Calcium and Phosphorus are required to maintain strong bones and teeth.
2. Iron is useful for blood production and transfer of oxygen in our body
3. We should take iodized salt to prevent iodine deficiency and Goitre disease.
4. Common salt is the major source of sodium. Sodium helps to retain water needed in our body.

Question 3.
How can you confirm the presence of vitamin C in lemon?
Answer:
Aim: To confirm the presence of vitamin C in lemon.

What you need:
1) Lemon, 2) Iodine solution, 3) Piece of white paper, 4) Knife, 5) Dropper.

How to do:
Slice a citrus fruit. Place two or three drops of iodine solution on a piece of paper.

Keep the cut side of the slice on the paper. Leave it for 15 minutes and observe. If vitamin C is present, the portion of the paper under the slice will get discoloured.

What you see :
The colour of paper under the lemon slice (discoloured)

What you learn :
Vitamin C is in lemon. (present)

Question 4.
Study the given table and answer the following questions.

1. What are the deficiency diseases caused due to deficiency of B complex vita mins?
2. Which vitamin is needed for the health of the nerves and blood cells?
3. What food materials will you suggest to a person suffering Tom scurvy?
4. Mention the deficiency diseases of vitamin A.
Answer:

1. Beri beri, fits, pellagra, scaly skin, photophobia, loss oi memory are the deficiency diseases caused due to deficiency of B complex vitamins.
2. Vitamin E is needed for the health of the nerves and blood cells.
3. I will suggest him to eat vitamin C rich foods such as citrus fruits, papaya, moringa, sprouts etc.
4. Dry eyes, night blindness, cornea failure the deficiency diseases of vitamin A.

Question 5.
Write a short notes on disadvantages of junk food.
Answer:

1. Pizza, burgers, chips, fast foods, noodles, cool drinks etc. are junk foods.
2. They consists of more fats and no fibres.
3. They cannot he digested easily.
4. Eating junk food on a regular basis damages our digestive system.
5. Our body is being deprived of the other required nutrients.
6. It leads to an increased risk of obesity and other health issues.

Question 6.
Give reasons for the following.
A) Eating whole grains like maize, barley, ragi, bajra, wheat, etc. is healthy.
B) Removing fiber from wheat flour to make chapatis is unhealthy.
C) Drinking butter milk, lassi, sharbat, lemon water is healthy.
D) Eating white bread, buns and noodles daily is unhealthy.
E) Drinking tea/coffee immediately before or after eating food is unhealthy.
F) Consuming jaggery and chikki is healthy.
G) Eating sprouts is healthy.
H) Eating street food like samosa, chaat on regular basis is unhealthy.
I) Checking date of manufacture, date of expiry, MRP, etc.,while buying packaged food is healthy.
J) Eating fruits without washing them is unhealthy.
Answer:
A) Whole grains are nutritious and available locally. Grains like bajra and ragi are rich in calcium and iron. Unlike these, refined flour has very little to no nutrients and less fiber.

B) Fiber is important for digestive health and regular bowel movements. It is required for a healthy gut.

C) These locally available drinks are healthy and nutritious. Packaged cold drinks are high in sugar and do not have any nutrients. They also contain high amounts of acid, which is bad fpr the teeth and bones.

D) These are made of refined flour and hence have no micronutrients and fiber. Therefore,consumption of these in too much quantity regularly is not good for health.

E) One should not drink tea coffee before and after eating food at least for one hour as it impairs the absorption of iron in the body.

F) Jaggery and chikki are easily available locally. Jaggery is a good source %of iron. Chikki is rich in Vitamin A, protein, iron and calcium.

G) Sprouted grains and pulses have plenty of micronutrients and are a good source of energy and proteins. Taking sprouts daily will be good to meet the growth require-ments of children.

H) Street food like samosa, chowmein, momos, chaat, etc. could be prepared in the open and so are exposed to dirt, dust and insects and carry the risk of infections. Also this food is low in fiber, high in fat and sugar. Eating too much of it, an give rise to obesity and other diseases like diabetes.

I) No food item should be consumed after the expiry date as it is not fit for consump-tion. One should not pay more than the MRP. So it is essential to check these details.

J) Fruits and vegetables may contain bacteria and pesticides, therefore, should be washed before consumption. It is equally important to wipe all packages, tins, bottles before storing and consuming.

Question 7.
Healthy eating habits play a vital role in maintaining proper health. Certain eating habits are given in the following table, mention whether they are healthy or unhealthy.
Answer:

Question 8.
Write about the 7 C’s prescribed by FSSAI to prevent foods contamination.
Answer:
Food hygiene is as important as healthy eating habits. To prevent foods contamination FSSAI prescribed seven food hygiene practices in the form of 7C’s. There are

1. Check : Select food that is fresh.
2. Clean : Wash and wipe all containers before storing food.
3. Cover : Keep all food and drinking water covered in the storage area.
4. Cross contamination avoided : Keep raw and cooked food apart.
5. Cook : Cook food thoroughly and ensure it is freshly cooked.
6. Cool/ Chill : Refrigerate or freeze meat, poultry, eggs and other perishables.
7. Consume : Serve food in a clean environment and use clean utensils.

AP Board 7th Class Science 1st Lesson 1 Mark Bits Questions and Answers Food for Health

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is good for health?
A) Sprouts
B) Packaged cool drinks
C) Junk foods
D) Above all
Answer:
A) Sprouts

2. Chikki (Chickpea) contains
A) Proteins
B) Iron
C) Calcium
D) Above all
Answer:
D) Above all

3. Street food have
A) rich in fibre
B) rich in fat
C) rich in minerals
D) above all
Answer:
B) rich in fat

4. Which water is better to drink?
A) Packaged drinking water
B) Tap water
C) Boiled water
D) Above all
Answer:
C) Boiled water

5. Ascorbic acid is called as
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin E
Answer:
B) Vitamin C

6. This gives instant energy to the body.
A) Chicken
B) Egg
C) Glucose
D) Ghee
Answer:
C) Glucose

7. Which of the following is the main source of energy for our body?
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) vitamins
Answer:
A) carbohydrates

8. Identify the energy giving food.
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) A & C
Answer:
D) A & C

9. Identify the food item rich in carbohydrates.
A) Pulses
B) Groundnut
C) Potato
D) Almond
Answer:
C) Potato

10. Reagent used to test the presence of starch
A) Benedict’s reagent
B) Iodine
C) Copper sulphate solution
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Iodine

11. Starch turn in to this colour when it come in contact with iodine solution
A) Blue black
B) Violet
C) Pink
D) Reddish green
Answer:
A) Blue black

12. Which of the following food sample gives blue black colour with iodine solution?
A) Jowar
B) Rice
C) Maize
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

13. Reagent used to test the presence of sugar
A) Benedict’s reagent
B) Iodine
C) Copper sulphate solution
D) Sodium hydroxide solution
Answer:
A) Benedict’s reagent

14. Which of the following are called body building nutrients?
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) A & C
Answer:
B) proteins

15. Identify the functions of proteins from the following.
A) Helps in the formation of muscles and other body organs.
B) Regulate biochemical reactions in the body.
C) Repair and heal the wounds on the body.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

16. Find the odd one out.
A) Meet
B) Maize
C) Egg
D) Soya been
Answer:
B) Maize

17. Animal source of protein ….
A) Milk
B) Fish
C) Pulses
D) A & B
Answer:
D) A & B

18. What colour change will you observe when egg white reacts with 2% copper sulphate and 10% sodium hydroxide solutions
A) White to blue black
B) White to violet
C) White to pink
D) White to reddish green
Answer:
B) White to violet

19. Which of the following gives more energy when they are taken in equal quantities?
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) vitamins
Answer:
C) fats

20. Groundnuts paste turns white paper in to
A) Transparent
B) Translucent
C) Opaque
D) Violet colour
Answer:
B) Translucent

21. What tablets will you suggest to an anaemia patient?
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Vitamin D
D) Phosphorus
Answer:
B) Iron

22. Minerals and vitamins are called
A) Energy giving nutrients
B) Body building nutrients
C) Protective nutrients
D) Anutritive components
Answer:
C) Protective nutrients

23. Mineral element responsible for strong bones and teeth
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Phosphorus
D) A & C
Answer:
D) A & C

24. Mineral element responsible for blood production and transfer of oxygen
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Phosphorus
D) Sodium
Answer:
B) Iron

25. Deficiency of this mineral causes Goitre disease.
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Iodine
D) Sodium
Answer:
C) Iodine

26. Milk, curd are rich in
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Iodine
D) Sodium
Answer:
A) Calcium

27. This mineral helps in retaining the water needed for our body.
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Phosphorus
D) Sodium
Answer:
D) Sodium

28. Common salt is the major source for
A) Calcium
B) Sodium
C) Phosphorus
D) Iron
Answer:
B) Sodium

29. Iodized salt helps in preventing
A) Anaemia
B) Goitre
C) Night blindness
D) Scurvy
Answer:
B) Goitre

30. Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin?
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – D
D) Vitamin – E
Answer:
B) Vitamin – B

31. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – K
C) Vitamin – E
D) Vitamin – C
Answer:
D) Vitamin – C

32. Deficiency of vitamin – A causes
A) Dry Eyes
B) Night blindness
C) Cornea failure
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

33. Which of the following is not a deficiency disease of vitamin – B complex?
A) Beri-Beri
B) Scurvy
C) Fits
D) Pellagra
Answer:
B) Scurvy

34. Deficiency of vitamin – D causes
A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Night blindness
D) Fertility disorders
Answer:
A) Rickets

35. Scurvy caused due to the deficiency of
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – C
D) Vitamin – D
Answer:
C) Vitamin – C

36. Fertility disorders may be due to the deficiency of
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – D
D) Vitamin – E
Answer:
D) Vitamin – E

37. Somu is suffering from delay in blood clotting during injuries. What might be the reason?
A) Vitamin – A deficiency
B) Vitamin – K deficiency
C) Vitamin – D deficiency
D) Vitamin – E deficiency
Answer:
B) Vitamin – K deficiency

38. This vitamin is responsible for health of the bone and teeth.
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – C
D) Vitamin – D
Answer:
D) Vitamin – D

39. Function of vitamin A
A) Health of Nerves
B) Formation of RBC
C) Health of Bone and teeth
D) Health of eye, hair and skin
Answer:
D) Health of eye, hair and skin

40. This vitamin is responsible for health of gums.
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – C
D) Vitamin – D
Answer:
C) Vitamin – C

41. Vitamin – E is responsible for
A) Health of Nerves
B) Formation of RBC
C) Health of Bone and teeth
D) Health of eye, hair and skin
Answer:
A) Health of Nerves

42. Citrus fruits are the rich source of this vitamin.
A) Vitamin – C
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – A
D) Vitamin – K
Answer:
A) Vitamin – C

43. Sunlight is required to form this vitamin in our body.
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – D
D) Vitamin – E
Answer:
C) Vitamin – D

44. Eating carrots can prevent
A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Night blindness
D) Fertility disorders
Answer:
C) Night blindness

45. This vitamin play an important role in increasing immunity.
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – C
C) Vitamin – D
D) Vitamin – K
Answer:
B) Vitamin – C

46. Which vitamin discolourises the iodine paper?
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – C
D) Vitamin – D
Answer:
C) Vitamin – C

47. Dietary fibres prevent
A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Night blindness
D) Constipation
Answer:
D) Constipation

48. Anutritive component of our food is
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) water
Answer:
D) water

49. Weight of the water in our body is nearly
A) 2/3 of our body weight
B) 3/2 of our body weight
C) 1/5 of our body weight
D) 14 of our body weight
Answer:
A) 2/3 of our body weight

50. Function of water in our body
A) Maintains the temperature of our body
B) Helps in excretion of wastes
C) Helps in easy movement of the food in digestive track
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

51. Irregular bowel movements refer to
A) Rickets
B) Constipation
C) Night blindness
D) Scurvy
Answer:
B) Constipation

52. This may be the cause for constipation
A) poor diet with insufficient fibre
B) poor fluid intake
C) side effect of certain medication blindness
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

53. Food component present more in Black gram
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) all the above
Answer:
B) proteins

54. Jaggery is a rich source of
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Iodine
D) Sodium
Answer:
B) Iron

55. National Institute of Nutrition (NIN) is located at
A) Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Pune
D) Hyderabad
Answer:
D) Hyderabad

56. Inadequate proteins in children’s diet for a long-time cause
A) Marasmus
B) Constipation
C) Kwashiorkor
D) Obesity
Answer:
C) Kwashiorkor

57. Inadequate carbohydrates and proteins in children’s diet for a long-time cause
A) Marasmus
B) Constipation
C) Kwashiorkor
D) Obesity
Answer:
A) Marasmus

58. Taking food containing too much fat leads to
A) Marasmus
B) Constipation
C) Kwashiorkor
D) Obesity
Answer:
D) Obesity

59. Which of the following should be taken more in our diet?
A) Cereals
B) Pulses
C) Vegetables
D) Obesity
Answer:
C) Vegetables

60. Which of the following should be taken in very less quantity in our diet?
A) Cereals
B) pulses
C) Vegetables
D) Oils
Answer:
D) Oils

61. How much quantity of milk /curd should be taken every day?
A) 300 ml
B) 100 ml
C) 500 ml
D) 1000 ml
Answer:
A) 300 ml

62. Grains like bajra and ragi are rich in
A) Calcium
B) iron
C) Both A&B
D) Calcium
Answer:
C) Both A&B

63. Which of the following is not a C from the 7 C’s prescribed by FSSAI?
A) Check
B) Clean
C) Control
D) Cover
Answer:
C) Control

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Eating junk food on a regular basis damages our ………….. system.
2. Grains like bajra and ragi are rich in ………….. and ………….. .
3. Packaged cold drinks contain high amounts of ………….., which is bad for the teeth and bones.
4. Drinking of tea/ coffee less than one hour before and after eating food impairs the absorption of ………….. in the body.
5. Jaggery is a good source of ………….. .
6. Carbohydrates, proteins and fats are required in ………….. quantity. Hence, they are called ………….. .
7. Minerals and Vitamins are required in very ………….. quantity. So, they are called ………….. .
8. Carbohydrates and fats mainly provide ………….. to our body.
9. Sports persons take glucose as it gives ………….. .
10. Carbohydrates are usually present in the form of ………….. and ………….. in the food.
11. Presence of starch is confirmed by doing test.
12. Starch turns into in colour when it come in contact with Iodine solution.
13. ………….. test confirms the presence of sugars.
14. ………….. are needed for the growth and maintenance of our body.
15. ………….. are called body building nutrients.
16. repair and heal the wounds on the body.
17. Proteins turn into ………….. colour when they react with 2% copper sulphate solution and 10% sodium hydroxide solution.
18. Pulses are rich in ………….. .
19. ………….. give more energy when compared to the same amount of carbohydrates.
20. Fats turn the white paper ………….. .
21. ………….. and ………….. help in protecting our body against diseases.
22. ………….. and ………….. are required for strong bones and teeth.
23. ………….. is the mineral responsible for blood production and transfer of oxygen.
24. ………….. is the mineral required for the thyroid hormone secretions.
25. Sea foods are rich source of ………….. .
26. ………….. is the mineral that helps to retain water needed for the body.
27. Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation Scheme was launched to prevent
28. Vitamins – A, D, E, K are ………….. soluble Vitamins.
29. Vitamins – C, B complex are ………….. soluble Vitamins.
30. Health of eye, hair and skin is maintained by the vitamin ………….. .
31. Dry eyes is caused due to the deficiency of the vitamin ………….. .
32. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of the vitamin ………….. .
33. Health of skin, teeth, gums and blood cells is maintained by the vitamin ………….. .
34. Eating Citrus fruits can prevent the diseases ………….. .
35. Sun light is required to form the vitamin in our body.
36. ………….. is the disease caused due to the deficiency of vitamin D.
37. Vitamin E is responsible for the health of ………….. .
38. Deficiency of Vitamin E causes ………….. .
39. Vitamin ………….. helps in the clotting of blood when we get wounded.
40. Vitamin ………….. plays an important role in increasing disease resistant or immunity.
41. ………….. paper gets discoloured with vitamin C.
42. The substances which made the iodine paper more discoloured contains more vitamin ………….. .
43. ………….. help in free bowel movement in the digestive tract and prevent the constipation.
44. Water constitutes nearly ………….. of our body weight.
45. ………….. refers to bowel movements that are irregular.
46. A diet that contains all the nutrients in required quantity is called ………….. .
47. NIN is located at ………….. .
48. According to ‘My plate for the day’ by NIN quantity of nuts and seeds recommended is ………….. .
49. Diseases caused by deficiency of certain nutrients are called ………….. .
50. Healthy eating habits and also play a key role in maintaining of health.
51. If the proteins are inadequate in children’s diet for a long time it causes ………….. .
52. If the proteins and carbohydrates are not taken adequately for a long time it causes ………….. .
53. If we take food containing too much fats daily, it leads to ………….. .
Answer:

1. digestive
2. Calcium and iron
3. acid
4. iron
5. iron
6. More, Macro nutrients
7. Less micro nutrients
8. energy
9. instant energy
10. Starch and sugars
11. iodine
12. black blue
13. Benedict’s reagent
14. Proteins
15. Proteins
16. Proteins
17. violet
18. Proteins
19. fat
20. translucent
21. Minerals and Vitamins
22. Calcium and Phosphate
23. Iron
24. Iodine
25. Iodine
26. Sodium
27. Anemia
28. Fat
29. water
30. A
31. A
32. B
33. C
34. scurvy
35. D
36. rickets
37. nerves and blood cells
38. Fertility disorders
39. K
40. C
41. iodine
42. C
43. Dietary fibres / roughage
44. 2/3
45. Constipation
46. balanced diet
47. Hyderabad
48. 30 gms/day
49. Deficiency diseases
50. hygiene
51. Kwashiorkor
52. Marasmus
53. obesity

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

Do You Know?

→ Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation (W1FS) Scheme was launched in 2012 to prevent anaemia. Under this programme iron tablets (pink/ blue tablets) are given to children studying in classes I-XII. This service is delivered through school teachers. These tablets should be consumed after the main meal of the day otherwise side effects such as nausea may occur. Folic acid is a supplement and needs a food to mix with before entering the blood stream.

CONSTIPATION
→ It is a disorder condition resembling Vibandha described in Ayurveda. It refers to bowel movements that are irregular. It is a very common gastro-intestinal disorder experienced by most people at some time during their life. Constipation may be just due to a poor diet with insufficient fibre, poor fluid intake or a side effect of certain medication.

HEALTH AND HAPPINESS WITH TRADITIONAL FOODS
→ Sunnundalu, boorelu made at our house during the festive season are comes under the list of complete nutrient food. Have you seen the ingredients that your mother uses to make sunnundalu? Add black gram (protein), jaggery (carbs, iron), ghee(fats) and pressed into dough to make sunnundalu. Boiled chenadal is mixed with jaggery to make poornam. It is dipped in the mixture of black gram and rice flour and water.Now this balls of poornam are cooked in oil to make boorelu (poornalu). These help children to grow well. That is why these must be cooked and shared with everyone. Most of the eateries available at Sweet Stalls are not just whole foods, they are not just real nutrients. So eat homemade janthikalu, garelu, sunnundalu, laddus well.

→ Pizza, burgers, chips, fast foods, noodles, cool drinks etc., are junk foods. They consists of more fats and no fibres. They cannot be digested easily. Eating junk food on a regular basis damages our digestive system.Our body is being deprived of the other required nutrients. It leads to an increased risk of obesity and other health issues.

ORGANIC FOODS
→ The method of farming using biofertilizers and biopesticides to keep the soil alive is called Organic farming. The food items made of fruits and vegetables grov under organic farming are called Organic foods. These are good for health. Now a days farmers and people are showing interest on organic farming and organic food items.

These AP 8th Class Physical Science Important Questions 11th Lesson కొన్ని సహజ దృగ్విషయాలు will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP Board 8th Class Physical Science 11th Lesson Important Questions and Answers కొన్ని సహజ దృగ్విషయాలు

8th Class Physics 11th Lesson కొన్ని సహజ దృగ్విషయాలు 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

ప్రశ్న 1.
భూకంపం ద్వారా విడుదలయ్యే విధ్వంస శక్తిని దేనితో కొలుస్తారు?
జవాబు:
భూకంపం ద్వారా విడుదలయ్యే విధ్వంస శక్తిని “భూకంప లేఖిని” లేదా “భ్రామక పరిమాణ స్కేలు’ ద్వారా కొలుస్తారు.

ప్రశ్న 2.
రెండు వస్తువులు ఒకే ఆవేశం కలిగి ఉంటే ఏం జరుగుతుంది? తెల్పండి.
జవాబు:
రెండు వస్తువులు ఒకే ఆవేశం కలిగి ఉంటే వాటి మధ్య వికర్షణ బలం ఉంటుంది.

ప్రశ్న 3.
రెండు వస్తువులు వేరు వేరు ఆవేశాలు కలిగి ఉంటే ఏం జరుగుతుందో తెల్పండి?
జవాబు:
రెండు వస్తువులు వేరు వేరు ఆవేశాలు కలిగి ఉంటే వాటి మధ్య ఆకర్షణ బలం ఉంటుంది.

ప్రశ్న 4.
వస్తువుకున్న ఆవేశాన్ని గుర్తించడానికి ఏ పరికరం ఉపయోగిస్తారు?
జవాబు:
ఒక వస్తువు ఆవేశాన్ని గుర్తించడానికి విద్యుదర్శినిని ఉపయోగిస్తారు.

ప్రశ్న 5.
సహజ దృగ్విషయాలు అని వేటిని అంటారు?
జవాబు:
వరదలు, తుపాన్లు, వడగండ్ల వర్షం, మెరుపులు, ఉరుములు, భూకంపాలు, సునామీలు మరియు అగ్ని పర్వతాలు పేలడం వంటివి సంభవించే వాటిని సహజ దృగ్విషయాలు అని అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 6.
విద్యుత్ ఆవేశ బలాల సూత్రాలను రాయండి.
జవాబు:

1. సజాతి ఆవేశాల మధ్య వికర్షణ బలాలు ఉంటాయి.
2. విజాతి ఆవేశాల మధ్య ఆకర్షణ బలాలు ఉంటాయి.

ప్రశ్న 7.
ఆవేశం గల ఒక వస్తువును ఆవేశం లేని వస్తువు దగ్గరకు తీసుకొస్తే ఆకర్షణకు గురి అవుతుంది. ఎందుకు?
జవాబు:
ఆవేశం గల ఒక వస్తువును ఆవేశం లేని వస్తువు దగ్గరకు తీసుకు వస్తే ఆవేశం లేని వస్తువుపై, వ్యరేక ఆవేశం ప్రేరేపింపబడి అది ఆకర్షణకు గురవుతుంది.

ప్రశ్న 8.
ఒక వస్తువుపై ఆవేశం ఉన్నదో లేదో గుర్తించడానికి ఏ ధర్మం సరియైనది?
జవాబు:
ఒక వస్తువుపై ఆవేశం ఉన్నదో లేదో గుర్తించడానికి వికర్షణ ధర్మం సరియైనది.

ప్రశ్న 9.
భూకంప తరంగాలు అనగానేమి?
జవాబు:
భూ అంతర్భాగంలో కదలికలు భూ ఉపరితలంపై తరంగాలను ఉత్పత్తి చేస్తాయి. ఈ తరంగాలను భూకంప తరంగాలు అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 10.
భూకంప తరంగాలను దేని ద్వారా గుర్తిస్తారు?
జవాబు:
భూకంప తరంగాలను భూకంప లేఖిని ద్వారా గుర్తిస్తారు.

ప్రశ్న 11.
ఉత్తర భారతదేశంలో భూకంప ప్రభావిత ప్రాంతాలు ఏవి?
జవాబు:
భారతదేశంలో కాశ్మీర్, పశ్చిమ మరియు మధ్య హిమాలయాలు, ఈశాన్య ప్రాంతాలు, కచ్ తీరం. రాజస్థాన్. గంగా పరీవాహక ప్రాంతాలు అత్యంత భూకంప ప్రభావిత ప్రాంతాలు.

ప్రశ్న 12.
భూమిలో ఎన్ని పొరలు ఉంటాయి? అవి ఏవి?
జవాబు:
భూమిలో ముఖ్యంగా మూడు పొరలు ఉంటాయి. అవి :

1. భూపటలం
2. ప్రావారం
3. భూకేంద్రం.

భూకేంద్రంలో రెండు పొరలు ఉంటాయి. అవి :

1. అంతర్ భూకేంద్రం,
2. బాహ్య భూకేంద్రం

ప్రశ్న 13.
భూకంప ప్రభావిత ప్రాంతాలు అనగానేమి?
జవాబు:
భూమి లోపల గల పలకల కదలిక వల్ల కొన్ని ప్రాంతాలలో భూకంపాలు తరచుగా రావడానికి అవకాశం ఉంటుంది. భూ ఉపరితలంపై ఈ పలకలకు దరిదాపుల్లో ఉండే ఈ బలహీన ప్రాంతాలను సెస్మిక్ ప్రాంతాలు లేదా భూరు ప్రభావిత ప్రాంతాలు అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 14.
తటిద్వాహకం అనగానేమి?
జవాబు:
పిడుగుల (మెరుపు) ల నుండి పెద్ద పెద్ద భవనాలను, కట్టడాలను రక్షించడానికి ఉపయోగించే దానిని తటిద్వాహకం అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 15.
కాగితంతో రుద్దిన రబ్బరు బెలూనను చిన్న కాగితపు ముక్కల దగ్గరకు తీసుకువచ్చినపుడు నీవు గమనించిన కిషయాలు ఏమిటి?
జవాబు:

1. రబ్బరు బెలూన్ కాగితం ముక్కలను ఆకర్షించును.
2. రబ్బరు బెలూన్ కాగితం ముక్కలపై ప్రభావం చూపదు.

8th Class Physics 11th Lesson కొన్ని సహజ దృగ్విషయాలు 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

ప్రశ్న 1.
ఏదైనా ఒక వస్తువును ఆవేశపరచడానికి మూడు పద్ధతులను రాయండి.
జవాబు:

1. ఒక వస్తువును మరొక వస్తువుతో రాపిడికి గురిచేయడం వలన ఆవేశపరచవచ్చును.
2. ఒక వస్తువును ఆవేశం గల వస్తువు దగ్గరకు తెచ్చినపుడు ఆ వస్తువులో ఆవేశం ప్రేరేపించడం వలన ఆవేశ పరచవచ్చును.
3. ఒక వస్తువుకు, ఆవేశ వస్తువును తాకించడం వలన ఆవేశం గల వస్తువు నుండి ఆ వస్తువులోకి ఆవేశం బదిలీ అగుట వలన ఆవేశ పరచవచ్చును.

ప్రశ్న 2.
భ్రామక పరిమాణ స్కేలు గురించి కొన్ని ఉపయోగాలు రాయండి.
జవాబు:

1. భ్రామక పరిమాణ స్కేలు భూకంప తీవ్రతను కొలుచుటకు ఉపయోగిస్తారు.
2. భూకంపాలను భ్రామక పరిమాణ స్కేలు ద్వారా కచ్చితంగా నిర్ధారించవచ్చును.
3. ఈ పద్ధతి రిక్టర్ స్కేలు పద్ధతి కంటే ఉన్నతమైనది.

ప్రశ్న 3.
భూకంపాలు ఏ విధంగా ఏర్పడతాయో తెల్పండి.
జవాబు:
భూమి ఉపరితలంలో ఒకే పొరగా లేదు. ఇది విడివిడి ముక్కలుగా ఉంటుంది. ఈ ముక్కలను పలకలు అంటారు. ఈ పలకలు నిరంతర చలనంలో ఉంటాయి. ఒక పలక మరొక పలకను ఢీకొన్నప్పుడు కాని, రెండింటి మధ్య రాపిడి జరిగినప్పుడు కాని భూ పటలంలో కదలికలు వస్తాయి.

భూ అంతర్భాగంలో జరిగే ఇటువంటి కదలికలు భూ ఉపరితలంలో భూకంపాలను ఏర్పరుస్తాయి.

ప్రశ్న 4.
ఒక వస్తువుపై ఆవేశము ఉన్నదో లేదో గుర్తించడానికి “ఆకర్షణ ధర్మం” సరైనది కాదు. ఎందుకో వివరించండి.
జవాబు:

1. ఒక తటస్థ వస్తువును, ఆవేశ వస్తువు వద్దకు తీసుకొనివస్తే ఆకర్షిస్తుంది.
2. ఒక ఆవేశ వస్తువును, దాని వ్యతిరేక ఆవేశ వస్తువు వద్దకు తీసుకొనివస్తే ఆకర్షిస్తుంది.
3. ఒక వస్తువుపై ఆవేశం ఉన్నదో లేదో తెలుసుకొనుటకు ఆవేశం గల వస్తువు దగ్గరకు తీసుకొనివస్తే ఆకర్షించినట్లైతే ఆ వస్తువుపై తటస్థ ఆవేశం లేదా వ్యతిరేక ఆవేశం మాత్రమే ఉండాలి. కాని తటస్థ ఆవేశమా, వ్యతిరేక ఆవేశమా అని కచ్చితంగా చెప్పలేము. కాబట్టి “ఆకర్షణ ధర్మం” సరియైనది కాదు.

ప్రశ్న 5.
తటిద్వా హకం (Lightning conductor) అనగానేమి? ఇది భవనాలను ఎలా రక్షిస్తుంది?
జవాబు:

1. పిడుగుల (మెరుపు)ల నుండి పెద్ద పెద్ద భవనాలను, కట్టడాలను రక్షించడానికి ఉపయోగించే దానిని తటిద్వాహకం అంటారు.
2. భవనం కన్నా కొద్దిగా ఎత్తుగా ఉండే లోహపు కడ్డీని భవన నిర్మాణ సమయంలోనే గోడలో అమర్చుతారు.
3. లోహపు కడ్డీ ఒక చివర గాలిలో ఉంటుంది. రెండవ చివరను భూమిలోకి పాతుతారు.
4. భవనం కంటే లోహపుకడ్డీ ఎత్తులో ఉంటుంది కనుక అది మేఘాలకు దగ్గరగా ఉండటం వల్ల ఇది మొదట ఆవేశాన్ని స్వీకరిస్తుంది.
5. ఇది మంచి విద్యుత్ వాహకం కనుక భవనానికి ఎటువంటి నష్టం జరగకుండా ఆవేశాన్ని భూమికి చేరవేస్తుంది.

ప్రశ్న 6.
భూకంపాలు ఏ విధంగా ఏర్పడుతాయో వివరించండి.
జవాబు:

1. భూమి ఉపరితలంలో ఒకే పొరగా లేదు. ఇది విడివిడి ముక్కలుగా ఉంటుంది.
2. ఈ ముక్కలను పలకలు అంటారు.
3. ఈ పలకలు నిరంతర చలనంలో ఉంటాయి.
4. ఒక పలక మరో పలకను ఢీకొన్నప్పుడు కాని, రెండింటి మధ్య రాపిడి జరిగినపుడు కాని భూ పటలంలో కదలికలు వస్తాయి.
5. భూ అంతర్భాగంలో జరిగే ఇటువంటి కదలికలు భూ ఉపరితలంలో భూకంపాలను ఏర్పరుస్తాయి.

ప్రశ్న 7.
భ్రామక పరిమాణ స్కేలును వివరించండి.
జవాబు:

1. భ్రామక పరిమాణ స్కేలు భూకంప తీవ్రతను కొలుచుటకు ఉపయోగిస్తారు.
2. ఇది భూ ఉపరితలం వద్ద వచ్చే విస్తాపనంతో సంబంధం లేకుండా భూ అంతర్భాగంలో గల పలకల విస్తాపనంపై ఆధారపడి పనిచేస్తుంది.
3. భూకంపాలను భ్రామక పరిమాణ స్కేలు ద్వారా కచ్చితంగా నిర్ధారించవచ్చును.
4. ఈ పద్ధతి రిక్టర్ స్కేలు పద్ధతి కంటే ఉన్నతమైనది.

ప్రశ్న 8.
భూకంప ప్రమాద పటం ప్రకారం ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ లోని జోన్లను వివరించండి.
జవాబు:

1. భూకంప ప్రమాద పటం ప్రకారం ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ లోని కొన్ని ప్రాంతాలు 2, 3 జోన్లలో ఉన్నాయి.
2. ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ ఆగ్నేయ ప్రాంతంలోని చిత్తూరు, వై.ఎస్.ఆర్.కడప, నెల్లూరు మరియు కృష్ణా, గోదావరి మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు 3వ జోన్లో ఉన్నాయి.
3. హైదరాబాద్ నగరం 2వ జోన్లో ఉన్నది.

8th Class Physics 11th Lesson కొన్ని సహజ దృగ్విషయాలు 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

ప్రశ్న 1.
ఒక వస్తువు ప్రేరణ వలన ఆవేశపరచడానికి, ఆవేశం గల వాహకం ద్వారా ఆవేశపరచడానికి మధ్యగల భేదాలను రాయండి.
జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 2.
మెరుపులు, ఉరుములు ఏ విధంగా ఏర్పడునో వివరించండి.
జవాబు:

1. గాలిలో మేఘాలు ప్రయాణించేటప్పుడు గాలిలో కణాలతో ఘర్షణ వల్ల మేఘాలు ఆవేశపూరితం అవుతాయి.
2. మేఘాల ఉపరితలాలు చాలా పెద్దవి కనుక ఈ ఉపరితలాలపై ఆవేశం చాలా ఎక్కువ మొత్తంలో నిలువ ఉంటుంది.
3. ఒక ఆవేశపూరిత మేఘం దగ్గరగా మరొక మేఘం వచ్చినపుడు అది రెండవ మేఘంపై వ్యతిరేక ఆవేశాన్ని ప్రేరేపింపజేస్తుంది.
4. ఈ మేఘాలపై గల ఆవేశం ఒక మేఘం నుండి మరొక మేఘం పైకి వెళ్ళడానికి ప్రయత్నిస్తుంది. కానీ మేఘాల మధ్య గాలి విద్యుత్ బంధకంగా పనిచేస్తుంది.
5. మేఘాలపై అధిక మొత్తంలో పోగుపడిన ఆవేశాల బదిలీని గాలి విద్యుత్ బంధకం అయినప్పటికీ నిరోధించలేదు.
6. అధిక ధన, ఋణ ఆవేశాలు గల మేఘాల మధ్య విద్యుత్ ఉత్సర్గం జరిగి పెద్ద ఎత్తున వెలుగుతో పాటు ధ్వని ఉత్పత్తి అవుతుంది.
7. ఏర్పడే వెలుగును మెరుపు అని, వెలువడే ధ్వనిని ఉరుము అని అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 3.
వివిధ రిక్టర్ స్కేలు అవధుల విలువలకు భూకంప ప్రభావం ఏ విధంగా ఉంటుందో రాయండి.
జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 4.
తరచుగా భూకంపాలు వచ్చే ప్రాంతాలలో భవన నిర్మాణంలో మరియు భూకంప నష్ట తీవ్రతను తగ్గించుటకు తీసుకోవలసిన జాగ్రత్తలను రాయండి.
జవాబు:

1. భవన నిర్మాణాల సలహాలకై ఇంజనీర్లను, ఆర్కిటెక్ట్ ను సంప్రదించాలి.
2. భూకంపాలు ఎక్కువగా వచ్చే అవకాశం ఉన్న ప్రాంతాలలో మట్టి, కలప వినియోగించి నిర్మాణాలు చేయాలి.
3. భవనాల పై భాగం తేలికగా ఉంటే అవి పడినపుడు నష్టం తక్కువగా ఉంటుంది.
4. ఇంటి గోడలకు అల్మరాలను ఏర్పాటుచేయడం మంచిది. అవి త్వరగా పడిపోవు.
5. గోడలకు వేలాడదీసిన వస్తువుల పట్ల జాగ్రత్తగా ఉండాలి. భూకంప సమయంలో అవి మీద పడే అవకాశం ఉంది.
6. భూకంపాలు వచ్చిన సందర్భంలో అగ్నిప్రమాదాలు సంభవించే అవకాశం ఉంది. అందువల్ల విద్యుత్ పరికరాలు, తీగలు నాణ్యమైనవి వినియోగించాలి. పెద్ద భవనాలలో అగ్నిప్రమాద నిరోధక పరికరాలను ఏర్పాటు చేసుకోవాలి.

ప్రశ్న 5.
భారతదేశంలో గతంలో వచ్చిన భూకంపాలు ఎక్కడ వచ్చాయో వివరించండి.
జవాబు:

1. డిసెంబరు 26, 2004లో వచ్చిన సునామి వలన అండమాన్ మరియు నికోబార్‌లో పెద్ద ఎత్తున ఆస్తి, ప్రాణ నష్టం జరిగింది.
2. ఉత్తర కాశ్మీర్ లోని ఉరి, తంగదర్ పట్టణాలలో అక్టోబరు 8, 2005న సంభవించిన భూకంపం భారతదేశంలో అతి పెద్దది.
3. జనవరి 26,2001లో గుజరాత్ లోని భుజ్ జిల్లాలో పెద్ద భూకంపం సంభవించింది. ఈ భూకంపం తీవ్రత 7.7 రిక్టరు స్కేలు నమోదు చేసింది.
4. మే 22, 1997లో మధ్యప్రదేశ్ లోని జబల్ పూర్ లో భూకంపం వచ్చింది. భూకంప తీవ్రత 6గా రిక్టర్ స్కేలు నమోదు చేసింది.
5. సెప్టెంబర్ 30, 1993లో మహారాష్ట్రలోని లాతూర్ (కిల్లరి) లో భూకంపం వచ్చింది.

ప్రశ్న 6.
భూకంప తీవ్రతను కొలిచే పరికరం యొక్క పటాన్ని గీయుము. ఇందులో ఉపయోగించే స్కేలు పేరు తెలుపుము.
జవాబు:

భూకంప తీవ్రతను కొలిచే పరికరంలో ఉపయోగించే స్కేలు : రిక్టర్ స్కేలు.

ప్రశ్న 7.
“భూకంపాల వలన వరదలు, కొండ చరియలు విరిగి పడటం మరియు సునామిలు రావడం వంటివి జరుగుతాయి. డిసెంబర్ 26, 2004 నాడు హిందూ మహాసముద్రంలో సునామి వచ్చింది. దీని వల్ల తూర్పు తీరప్రాంతం తీవ్ర ఆసి, ప్రాణ నష్టం సంభవించింది.” ఈ సమాచారం ఆధారంగా క్రింది ప్రశ్నలకు జవాబులు రాయండి.
1. సునామీ సంభవించడానికి కారణమేమి?
జవాబు:
భూకంపాలు

2. తీవ్ర సునామీ సంభవించినపుడు ఏమి జరుగుతుంది?
జవాబు:
భారీ వర్షాలు, వరదలు, ఆస్తి నష్టం, ప్రాణ నష్టం జరుగుతుంది.

3. భూకంపాన్ని గుర్తించుటకు ఉపయోగించే పరికరం ఏది? దానిలోని ప్రధాన భాగాలేవి?
జవాబు:
భూకంప లేఖిని (సిస్మో గ్రాఫ్) లేదా భూకంప దర్శిన్ని (సిస్మో స్కోప్)
ముఖ్య భాగాలు : గుండ్రంగా తిరిగే డ్రమ్, లోలకం, అయస్కాంతం, తీగ.

4. భూకంప తీవ్రతను సూచించు స్కేలు 8 దాటితే దాని ప్రభావం ఎలా ఉంటుంది?
జవాబు:
తీవ్ర నష్టం (100 కి.మీ.ల విస్తీర్ణంలో)

8th Class Physics 11th Lesson కొన్ని సహజ దృగ్విషయాలు 1 Mark Bits Questions and Answers

బహుళైచ్ఛిక ప్రశ్నలు

I. సరియగు జవాబును ఎంచుకోండి.

1. ఏ శాస్త్రవేత్త, ఏ సంవత్సరంలో వెంట్రుకలు బట్టలను ఆకర్షించటం మరియు ఆకాశంలో మెరుపులూ రెండూ ఒకే దృగ్విషయమని తెలియజేశాడు?
A) 1762 రూథర్ ఫర్డ్
B) 1752 బెంజిమన్ ఫ్రాంక్లిన్
C) 1772 ఫారడే
D) 1782 జాన్ డాల్టన్
జవాబు:
B) 1752 బెంజిమన్ ఫ్రాంక్లిన్

2. భూమిలోని పలకల కదలికల వలన లేదా ఢీకొనుట వలన …………. ఏర్పడును.
A) భూకంపాలు
B) అగ్నిపర్వతాల ప్రేలుడు
C) పిడుగుపాటు
D) ఉరుములు
జవాబు:
A) భూకంపాలు

3. భారతదేశంలో అతిపెద్ద భూకంపం ఇక్కడ సంభవించింది.
A) గుజరాత్ లోని భుజ్ జిల్లాలో
B) ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ లోని ఆదిలాబాద్ జిల్లాలో
C) ఉత్తర కాశ్మీర్ లోని ఉరితంగదర్ పట్టణాలలో
D) మధ్యప్రదేశ్ లోని ఉత్తర ప్రాంతంలో
జవాబు:
C) ఉత్తర కాశ్మీర్ లోని ఉరితంగదర్ పట్టణాలలో

4. ఆవేశం కలిగి ఉన్న వస్తువు నుండి భూమికి ఆవేశాలను బదిలీ చేసే ప్రక్రియను ……. అంటారు.
A) ఎర్తింగ్
B) మెరుపులు
C) ఉరుములు
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
A) ఎర్తింగ్

5. భూకంప తీవ్రతను కొలవడానికి ఉపయోగించే ప్రమాణం
A) భూకంప స్కేలు
B) రిక్టరు స్కేలు
C) ఐరన్ స్కేలు
D) టేపు
జవాబు:
B) రిక్టరు స్కేలు

6. భూకంప తీవ్రతను కొలవడానికి ఉపయోగించే పరికరం ………….
A) భూకంపలేఖిని
B) రిక్టర్ స్కేలు
C) ఎర్తింగ్
D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు:
A) భూకంపలేఖిని

7. ఈ కింది వానిలో సహజ దృగ్విషయం కానిది
A) భూకంపం
B) తుపాన్
C) ఉరుములు, మెరుపులు
D) ఎర్తింగ్
జవాబు:
D) ఎర్తింగ్

8. వస్తువులను ఒకదానితో మరొకటి రుద్దడం వలన ఏర్పడే ఆవేశాల సంఖ్య
A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4
జవాబు:
A) 2

9. సునామి అంటే అర్థం
A) భూకంపం
B) తుపాను
C) సముద్రం అడుగున భూకంపం
D) సముద్రం అడుగున అగ్నిపర్వతం పేలుట
జవాబు:
D) సముద్రం అడుగున అగ్నిపర్వతం పేలుట

10. భూమి నుండి ఉత్పత్తి అయ్యే తరంగాలను ……….. అంటారు.
A) భూకంప తరంగాలు
B) మైక్రో తరంగాలు
C) రేడియో తరంగాలు
D) X-తరంగాలు
జవాబు:
A) భూకంప తరంగాలు

11. ఆవేశపూరిత వస్తువు పరీక్షించడానికి ఉపయోగపడే ధర్మం
A) ఆకర్షణ
B) వికర్షణ
C) ఆకర్షణ మరియు వికర్షణ
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
B) వికర్షణ

12. రెండు వస్తువులు ఒకదానితో మరొకటి రుద్దినపుడు ఆ వస్తువులపై ఏర్పడే ఆవేశాలు
A) సమానంగా ఉండే ఒకే రకమైన ఆవేశాలు
B) సమానంగా ఉండే వేరు వేరు ఆవేశాలు
C) అసమానంగా ఉండే ఒకే రకమైన ఆవేశాలు
D) అసమానంగా ఉండే వేరు వేరు ఆవేశాలు
జవాబు:
B) సమానంగా ఉండే వేరు వేరు ఆవేశాలు

13. రిక్టరు స్కేలు విలువ ……. గా ఉన్నప్పుడు భూకంప లేఖిని నమోదు చేస్తుంది కాని మనం గుర్తించలేము
A) 3.5 నుండి 5.4
B) 5. 5 నుండి 6.00
C) 3. 5 కన్నా తక్కువ
D) 8 కన్నా ఎక్కువ
జవాబు:
C) 3. 5 కన్నా తక్కువ

14. …………… వరకు రిక్టరు స్కేలు విలువ ఉంటే ఆస్తి మరియు ప్రాణనష్టం అధికంగా ఉంటుంది. దీనిని పెద్ద భూకంపాలు అంటారు.
A) 5. 5 నుండి 6.0
B) 6.1 నుండి 6.9
C) 7.0 నుండి 7.9
D) 3.5 నుండి 5.4
జవాబు:
C) 7.0 నుండి 7.9

15. ఒక వస్తువు ఆవేశపరచే పద్ధతులు ………
A) రాపిడి (రుద్దడం) వలన
B) ప్రేరణ వలన
C) వాహకం ద్వారా
D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు:
D) పైవన్నీ

16. ఉరుములు, మెరుపులు వచ్చే సందర్భంలో సురక్షితమైన ప్రదేశం
A) తక్కువ ఎత్తుగల ఇల్లు
B) ఎత్తైన భవనం
C) పొడవైన చెట్టు
D) టాప్ లేని కారులో ప్రయాణించడం
జవాబు:
A) తక్కువ ఎత్తుగల ఇల్లు

17. ఉరుములు, మెరుపులు వచ్చే సందర్భంలో సురక్షితం కాని ప్రదేశం
A) తక్కువ ఎత్తుగల ఇల్లు
B) పొట్టి చెట్టు
C) ఎలక్ట్రికల్, టెలిఫోన్ స్తంభాల దగ్గర నిలబడటం
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
C) ఎలక్ట్రికల్, టెలిఫోన్ స్తంభాల దగ్గర నిలబడటం

18. భూకంపం వచ్చినపుడు భూమి కంపించిన సమయాన్ని గుర్తించేది
A) భూకంపలేఖిని
B) భూకంప దర్శిని
C) భ్రామపరిమాణ స్కేలు
D) రిక్టర్ స్కేలు
జవాబు:
B) భూకంప దర్శిని

19. భూకంపాలను ……….. ద్వారా కచ్చితంగా నిర్ధారించవచ్చును.
A) రిక్టర్ స్కేలు
B) భ్రామక పరిమాణ స్కేలు
C) మీటరు స్కేలు
D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు:
B) భ్రామక పరిమాణ స్కేలు

20. ఇంటి లోపల ఉన్నప్పుడు భూకంపం వచ్చిన సందర్భంలో రక్షించుకోవడం కోసం
A) పొడవైన వస్తువులను గట్టిగా పట్టుకోవడం
B) మంచంపై పడుకోవడం
C) బల్ల కిందకు వెళ్ళడం
D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు:
C) బల్ల కిందకు వెళ్ళడం

21. సీమగుగ్గిలంను ఉన్నితో రుద్దిన తర్వాత అది వెంట్రుకలను ఆకర్షించునని గుర్తించిన వారు
A) సిక్కులు
B) యూరోపియన్లు
C) అమెరికన్లు
D) గ్రీకులు
జవాబు:
D) గ్రీకులు

22. విద్యుత్ ఆవేశాల లక్షణాల విషయంలో
A) ప్లాస్టిక్ స్కేలును తలపై రుద్దితే అది చిన్న చిన్న కాగితం ముక్కలను ఆకర్షించడం
B) పొడిజుట్టుతో ప్లాస్టిక్ స్కేలును రుద్దిన అది చిన్న చిన్న కాగితం ముక్కలను ఆకర్షించకుండుట
C) గాలితో నిండిన బెలూనను బట్టతో రుద్దిన అది కాగితం ముక్కలను ఆకర్షించుట
D) స్ట్రాను నునుపైన గోడకు గాని, బట్టలకు గాని అది కాగితం ముక్కలను ఆకర్షించుట
జవాబు:
B) పొడిజుట్టుతో ప్లాస్టిక్ స్కేలును రుద్దిన అది చిన్న చిన్న కాగితం ముక్కలను ఆకర్షించకుండుట

23. ఉన్ని గుడ్డతో రుద్దిన బెలూన్, ఉన్నిగుడ్డతో రుద్దిన మరో బెలూనన్ను …….
A) ఆకర్షించును
B) వికర్షించును
C) A మరియు B
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
B) వికర్షించును

24. పాలిథిన్ కాగితంతో రుద్దిన రీఫిల్ అదే కాగితంతో రుద్దిన మరో రీఫిల్ ను ………..
A) ఆకర్షించును
B) వికర్షించును
C) A మరియు B
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
B) వికర్షించును

25. ఉన్నిగుడ్డతో రుద్దిన బెలూన్, పాలిథిన్ కాగితంతో రుద్దిన రీఫిల్ ను ……….
A) ఆకర్షించును
B) వికర్షించును
C) A మరియు B
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
A) ఆకర్షించును

26. విజాతి అయస్కాంతాల ధృవాలు
A) ఆకర్షించును
B) వికర్షించును
C) A మరియు B
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
A) ఆకర్షించును

27. సజాతి అయస్కాంతాల ధృవాలు
A) ఆకర్షించును
B) వికర్షించును
C) A మరియు B
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
B) వికర్షించును

28. ఒకే రకమైన రెండు ఆవేశాలు
A) ఆకర్షించును
B) వికర్షించును
C) A మరియు B
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
B) వికర్షించును

29. విభిన్నాలైన రెండు ఆవేశాలు
A) ఆకర్షించును
B) వికర్షించును
C) A మరియు B
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
A) ఆకర్షించును

30. వలయంలో విద్యుత్ ప్రవాహం …… కదలికను తెలుపును.
A) ఆవేశాల
B) ప్రోటానుల
C) న్యూట్రానుల
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
A) ఆవేశాల

31. దీనినుపయోగించి వస్తువు ఆవేశాన్ని కల్గి ఉన్నది లేనిది తెలుసుకోవచ్చును
A) దిక్సూచి
B) థర్మోకోల్ బంతి
C) విద్యుదర్శిని
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
C) విద్యుదర్శిని

32. వస్తువుపై గల ఆవేశాలు భూమికి బదిలీ అయ్యే పద్ధతిని ………. చేయటం అంటాము.
A) మెరుపు
B) ఉరుము
C) ఎర్తింగ్
D) ఆవేశము
జవాబు:
C) ఎర్తింగ్

33. గాలిలో మేఘాలు ప్రయాణించేటప్పుడు, గాలిలోని కణాలతో ఈ క్రింది ప్రక్రియ వలన ఆవేశపూరితం అవుతాయి.
A) బలం
B) శక్తి రుద్దిన
C) ఘర్షణ
D) స్థానభ్రంశం
జవాబు:
C) ఘర్షణ

34. ఒక ఆవేశపూరిత మేఘానికి దగ్గరగా మరొక మేఘం వచ్చినప్పుడు అది రెండవ మేఘంపై ……. ఆవేశాన్ని ప్రేరేపింపజేయును.
A) సమాన
B) వ్యతిరేక
C) తుల్య
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
B) వ్యతిరేక

35. రెండు మేఘాల మధ్య గాలి …….. వాహకంగా పని చేయును.
A) అథమ విద్యుత్
B) ఉత్తమ విద్యుత్
C) మధ్యమ విద్యుత్
D) ఋణ విద్యుత్
జవాబు:
A) అథమ విద్యుత్

36. మెరుపులు ఏర్పడు ప్రక్రియను………….. అంటారు.
A) విద్యుత్ ఉత్సర్గం
B) విద్యుత్ ప్రవాహం
C) A మరియు B
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
A) విద్యుత్ ఉత్సర్గం

37. కింది వాటిలో ఉరుములు, మెరుపులతో కూడిన వర్షం వచ్చు సందర్భంలో సురక్షితం కాని ప్రదేశం
A) టాప్ లేని వాహనాల్లో ప్రయాణించటం
B) ల్యాండ్ లైన్ ఫోన్లలో మాట్లాడడం
C) టి.వి., కంప్యూటర్ వంటి పరికరాలు వాడటం
D) పైవన్నియూ
జవాబు:
D) పైవన్నియూ

38. తటిద్వాహకాలను వీటి రక్షణ కొరకై భవనాల్లో అమర్చుతారు
A) పిడుగుల నుండి
B) భూకంపాల నుండి
C) తుపానుల నుండి
D) ఆవేశాల నుండి
జవాబు:
A) పిడుగుల నుండి

39. క్రింది వాటిలో సహజ దృగ్విషయాల విషయంలో విభిన్నమైనది
A) మెరుపులు, ఉరుములు
B) వరదలు, తుపానులు
C) భూకంపాలు
D) ఋతుపవనాలు
జవాబు:
D) ఋతుపవనాలు

40. భూ పొరలలో అన్నింటికన్నా పెద్దది
A) భూపటలం
B) భూప్రావారం
C) అంతర కోర్
D) బాహ్య కోర్
జవాబు:
A) భూపటలం

41. భుజ్, కాశ్మీర్‌లో వచ్చిన భూకంప తీవ్రత విలువ
A) < 6.5
B) < 7.5
C) > 7.5
D) > 6.5
జవాబు:
C) > 7.5

42. సెస్మిక్ తరంగాలను దీని ద్వారా గుర్తిస్తారు
A) థర్మామీటరు
B) భూకంపలేఖిని
C) విద్యుద్దర్శిని
D) ఉత్సర్గ నాళం
జవాబు:
B) భూకంపలేఖిని

43. ‘భూకంప తీవ్రతను కచ్చితంగా కొలుచు పరికరం
A) భూకంపలేఖిని
B) భ్రామక పరిమాణ స్కేలు
C) విద్యుద్దర్శిని
D) థర్మామీటరు
జవాబు:
B) భ్రామక పరిమాణ స్కేలు

44. భూకంప ప్రమాద పటం ప్రకారం ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ లోని 3వ జోన్ కి చెందు ప్రాంతము
A) కృష్ణా, గోదావరి మైదానం
B) కడప, చిత్తూరు
C) నెల్లూరు
D) అన్నియూ
జవాబు:
D) అన్నియూ

45. ఈ క్రింది వానిలో భూకంపాలు రాని ఖండం
A) అమెరికా
B) ఆసియా
C) ఆస్ట్రేలియా
D) ఏదీలేదు
జవాబు:
C) ఆస్ట్రేలియా

46. రిక్టర్ స్కేల్ ను కనుగొన్నవారు
A) ఛార్లెస్ లూయీస్
B) జేమ్స్ ఛార్లెస్
C) ఛార్లెస్ రిక్టర్
D) ఛార్లెస్ రెపో
జవాబు:
C) ఛార్లెస్ రిక్టర్

47. ఈ క్రింది భూకంప జోన్లో తీవ్ర ప్రమాదకరమైనది
A) 1వ జోన్
B) 3వ జోన్
C) 7వ జోన్
D) 5వ జోన్
జవాబు:
D) 5వ జోన్

48. సునామీల యొక్క వేగం సముద్ర అంతర్భాగంలో ………….. వద్ద ఏర్పడును.
A) 700
B) 600
C) 800
D) 900
జవాబు:
C) 800

49. సముద్రంలో ఏర్పడు భూకంపంకు గల పేరు
A) సునామీ
B) తుపాను
C) వాయుగుండం
D) భూకంపం
జవాబు:
A) సునామీ

50. ర్యాపిడ్ అనే సెట్ డిజాస్టర్‌కు ఉదాహరణ
A) సునామీ
B) తుపాను
C) వాయుగుండం
D) భూకంపం
జవాబు:
D) భూకంపం

51. మన దేశంలో భూకంప తీవ్రత జోన్-8 లోనికి చెందు ప్రాంతము
A) ఉత్తరప్రదేశ్
B) హిమాలయాల చుట్టూ ప్రాంతం
C) గుజరాత్
D) కాశ్మీర్
జవాబు:
B) హిమాలయాల చుట్టూ ప్రాంతం

52. భారతదేశ రాష్ట్రాల్లో తుపానులకు అధికంగా గురయ్యే రాష్ట్రం
A) ఒడిశా
B) అస్సోం
C) గుజరాత్
D) ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్
జవాబు:
A) ఒడిశా

53. పశ్చిమ తీరంలో తుపాన్లకు గురయ్యే రాష్ట్రం
A) ఒడిశా
B) అస్సోం
C) గుజరాత్
D) ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్
జవాబు:
C) గుజరాత్

54. బెలూన్ ప్లాస్టిక్ కాగితంతో రుద్ది, చిన్న కాగితం ముక్కల వద్దకు తెచ్చినప్పుడు ఏమి పరిశీలిస్తావు?
A) బెలూన్ కాగితం ముక్కలను ఆకర్షిస్తుంది.
B) బెలూన్ కాగితం ముక్కలను ఆకర్షించదు.
C) బెలూన్ పగిలిపోతుంది.
D) బెలూన్ పరిమాణంలో మార్పు వస్తుంది.
జవాబు:
A) బెలూన్ కాగితం ముక్కలను ఆకర్షిస్తుంది.

55. ప్లాస్టిక్ స్కేలును ప్లాస్టిక్ కాగితంతో రుద్ది చిన్న కాగితం ముక్కల వద్దకు తీసుకొని వస్తే అవి ఆకర్షించబడతాయి.
A) స్థావర విద్యుత్ బలం
B) అయస్కాంత బలం
C) గురుత్వాకర్షణ బలం
D) జ్వలన ఉష్ణోగ్రత
జవాబు:
A) స్థావర విద్యుత్ బలం

56. ఉరుములు, మెరుపులతో కూడిన వర్షం సంభవించునపుడు సురక్షిత ప్రదేశం
1) బహిరంగ ప్రదేశాలలో ప్రయాణించడం.
2) పొడవాటి వృక్షాల కింద నిలబడడం.
3) విద్యుత్ స్థంబాల వద్ద నిలబడడం.
4) కిటికీలు మూసిన కారులో కూర్చోవడం.
A) 1 మాత్రమే
B) 1 & 4
C) 2 & 3
D) 1 మాత్రమే
జవాబు:
A) 1 మాత్రమే

57. రేవతి ఒక రబ్బరు బెలూన్ ను ఉన్ని గుడ్డతోను, రీఫిలను పాలిథీన్ తోను రుద్దినది. తర్వాత బెలూనను రీఫిల్ వద్దకు తెచ్చినపుడు సరైన పరిశీలన
A) రీఫిల్ వికర్షించును
B) రీఫిల్ ఆకర్షించును
C) బెలూన్ మరియు రీఫిల మధ్య బలం పనిచేయదు.
D) చెప్పలేము.
జవాబు:
B) రీఫిల్ ఆకర్షించును

58. రెండు విద్యుదావేశం చెందిన వస్తువులను దగ్గరగా తెచ్చినపుడు అవి
A) ఆకర్షించుకోవచ్చు
B) వికర్షించుకోవచ్చు
C) ఆకర్షించుకోవచ్చు లేదా వికర్షించుకోవచ్చు
D) ఏ విధమైన ప్రభావం ఉండదు.
జవాబు:
C) ఆకర్షించుకోవచ్చు లేదా వికర్షించుకోవచ్చు

59. భూమి యొక్క బాహ్య పొరను కింది విధంగా చెప్తారు
A) భూపటలం (మాంటిల్)
B) బాహ్య కేంద్రం
C) భూప్రావరం (క్రస్ట్)
D) అంతర కేంద్రం
జవాబు:
A) భూపటలం (మాంటిల్)

60. భూకంపానికి కారణమైన భూమి యొక్క ఫలకము
A) భూపటలం
B) భూప్రావరం
C) భూఅంతర కేంద్రం
D) భూ బాహ్య కేంద్రం
జవాబు:
B) భూప్రావరం

61. కింది వానిలో ఏది సునామీకి కారణం కాదు?
A) సముద్రం అడుగున అతి పెద్ద కేంద్రక విస్పోటనం
B) భూకంపం
C) అగ్నిపర్వతం విస్పోటనం.
D) పిడుగు
జవాబు:
D) పిడుగు

62. రాజేష్ ఒక బెలూనను ఊది దాని చివర ముడివేశాడు. ఒక కాగితాన్ని చిన్న చిన్న ముక్కలుగా చేసి గచ్చు పై వేసాడు. తర్వాత బెలూనను ఒక చేతితో బాగా రుద్ది కాగితం ముక్కల వద్దకు తెచ్చాడు. అపుడు కాగితం ముక్కలను బెలూన్ ఆకర్షించింది. ఆ కృత్యం చేయడం వలన రాజేష్ క్రింది విషయాన్ని తెలుసుకున్నాడు.
i)స్పర్శాబలం పనిచేయాలంటే వస్తువులు ఒకదాని కొకటి తాకనవసరం లేదు.
ii) బెలూనను కాగితంతో రుద్దినపుడు దాని ఉపరితలం విద్యుదావేశం పోతుంది.
iii) క్షేత్రబలం పనిచేయాలంటే వస్తువులు ఒకదాని కొకటి తాకనవసరం లేదు.
A) ii మాత్రమే సరైనది
B) i మరియు ii మాత్రమే సరైనవి
C) ii మరియు iii మాత్రమే సరైనవి
D) i మాత్రమే సరైనది
జవాబు:
C) ii మరియు iii మాత్రమే సరైనవి

II. జతపరచుము.

జవాబు:

2)

జవాబు:

These AP 7th Class Science Important Questions 4th Lesson Respiration and Circulation will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP Board 7th Class Science 4th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Respiration and Circulation

Question 1.
What is inspiration?
Answer:
The process of inhaling air is called inspiration.

Question 2.
What is expiration?
Answer:
The process of exhalation of air is called expiration.

Question 3.
What is respiratory rate?
Answer:
The number of times we inhale and exhale air in a minute is called the Respiratory Rate.,

Question 4.
What is the normal respiratory rate in human beings?
Answer:
The normal respiratory rate in human beings is 14 to 20 times per minute.

Question 5.
What are the only part of the human body which floats on water?
Answer:
Lungs are the only part of the human body which floats on water

Question 6.
What does our circulatory system consisting of?
Answer:
Circulatory system consists of Heart, Blood vessels and Blood

Question 7.
What is the pumping organ in the blood circulatory system.
Answer:
Heart is the pumping organ in the blood circulatory system.

Question 8.
How many chambers are there in the human heart? What are those?
Answer:
Human heart has four chambers, upper two chambers are called Atria and lower two chambers are called Ventricles.

Question 9.
What is heartbeat?
Answer:
The rhythmic contraction followed by its relaxation of heart is called heartbeat.

Question 10.
What is the instrument used to feel and measure the “heart beat?
Answer:
Stethoscope is the instrument used to feel and measure the heart beat.

Question 11.
What is the role of circulation in the human body?
Answer:
The process of circulation helps in the supply of digested food and oxygen to all parts of the body (cells) and also to bring back the waste material.

Question 12.
What is the fluid portion of the blood?
Answer:
Plasma is the fluid portion of the blood.

Question 13.
What are the different types of blood cells in the human blood?
Answer:
Blood cells are of three types – Red blood cells, White blood cells and Blood platelets.

Question 14.
Which blood cells act like police force of our body?
Answer:
White blood cells act like police force of our body.

Question 15.
Why red blood cells are red in colour?
Answer:
Red blood cells have a colouring pigment called Haemoglobin. It gives blood the red colour.

Question 16.
What is the function of haemoglobin?
Answer:
Haemoglobin acts as a carrier for oxygen and carbon dioxide and plays a key role in respiration. ,

Question 17.
What is the function of Blood platelets?
Answer:
Blood platelets play an important role in coagulation of blood when there are cuts and wounds.

Question 18.
Which organisms have colour less blood?
Answer:
Insects like cockroach have colour less blood.

Question 19.
Give examples for the organisms having blue coloured blood?
Answer:
Prawns, snails and crabs have blue coloured blood.

Question 20.
Expand NCDs.
Answer:
Non communicable diseases

Question 21.
Give some examples for non-communicable diseases.
Answer:
Heart attack, Cancer, Paralysis

Question 22.
What are the major causes for non-communicable diseases?
Answer:
Tobacco and alcohol use, poor eating habits, and lack of exercise are the major causes for non – communicable diseases.

Question 23.
What is immunity?
Answer:
Immunity is the inbuilt capacity of the body to fight and overcome the effects of disease causing germs.

Question 24.
What is meant by infection?
Answer:
The entry of disease-causing germs into our body to grow and multiply is called infection.

Question 25.
Expand SARS.
Answer:
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome

7th Class Science 4th Lesson Respiration and Circulation Short Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is breathing? Explain brifly about breathing.
Answer:

1. The process of inhalation and exhalation of air is called Breathing.
2. During the process of inhalation the air with more oxygen and less carbon dioxide enters the lungs through nostrils.
3. During the process of exhalation the air with more carbondioxide and less oxygen is sent out from the lungs.

Question 2.
Write about lungs.
Answer:

1. Lungs are pink in colour spongy, elastic and sac like structures with many tiny air sacs.
2. They are placed safely in the ribcage formed by ribs in the chest cavity.
3. The right lung is slightly larger than the left one. ‘
4. The lungs do not possess muscles, so they cannot expand or contract on their own.

Question 3.
Why is the right lung larger than the left lung?
Answer:

1. Lungs are located in the chest cavity.
2. Heart is also present in the chest cavity on the left side.
3. So, there is less space for the left lung in the chest cavity.
4. As a result left lung is smaller with two lobes when compared with the right lung which had three lobes.

Question 4.
What is diaphragm? what is its role?
Answer:

1. A large thin muscular sheet called diaphragm is attached to the lower side of the ribcage and forms the floor of the chest cavity.
2. The process of breathing involves the movement of the diaphragm and the ribcage.
3. During inhalation diaphragm moves down as a result air enters the lungs.
4. During exhalation diaphragm moves back as a result air goes out of the lungs.
5. It play major role in the respiratory movements of men when compared with women.

Question 5.
Draw the flow chart air passage in respiration.
Answer:

Question 6.
What are plants respiratory organs?
Answer:

1. Plants being living organisms, have to breathe to survive. ,.
2. Plants take in oxygen and leave out carbon dioxide, as in any other living organisms.
3. The process of breathing takes place with the help of small openings in the leaves called stomata and in stem called lenticels.
4. The roots also need oxygen to produce energy, so they absorh the oxygen present in the air spaces between soil particles with the help of root hairs.

Question 7.
What is the need to plant more trees?
Answer:

1. Plants take in Oxygen and give out Carbon dioxide during respiration.
2. The same plants take in carbon dioxide and give out oxygen during the process of Photosynthesis.
3. So we should protect and plant more trees for a rich supply of oxygen.

Question 8.
What is the role of respiration?
Answer:

1. During the process of Respiration oxygen is absorbed and carbon dioxide is sent out of the body.
2. The process of respiration leads to the production of energy in all the living organisms.
3. Respiration takes place uninterrupted even when we are sleeping, eating, working or at rest.
4. Respiration takes place without our knowledge and effort and is very much essential for the survival of the organism.

Question 9.
How can we. prevent Covid-19?
Answer:
The best way to prevent and slow down spread is

1. Protecting ourselves by washing hands with soap or sanitizer
2. Not touching the face, eyes, nose, mouth
3. Wearing a facemask Maintaining social distance
4. Strictly adhering to covid protocol SMS – SANITISE, MASK, SOCIAL DISTANCE.

Question 10.
Write the differences between bacterial and viral disease.
Answer:

Question 11.
What is sneezing? When is it occur?
Answer:

1. The process of sudden uncontrolled expulsion of air through the nose by the lungs, due to irritation in the nasal passage is called Sneezing.
2. Sneezing occurs when we inhale air with dust, smoke, pollen or strong smells.

Question 12.
What is yawning? How is it caused?
Answer:

1. The uncontrolled action of opening of our mouth wide, to take a long, deep breath of air is called Yawning.
2. It is seen when a person is bored, stressed, feeling sleepy or very tired.
3. Yawning is caused when the respiratory rate gets slowed down resulting in insufficient supply of oxygen to the brain.
4. To overcome this situation, the body goes for the involuntary opening of the mouth to take in a long deep breath of air.

Question 13.
What is coughing? When does it happen?
Answer:

1. Coughing is the result of forceful contraction of the lungs to send out the unwanted substances through the mouth.
2. This happens when some strong smells or dust irritate the inner lining of the lungs.
3. By coughing the accumulated solid and semi -solid wastes in the lungs due to cold and other related respiratory disorders are also expelled out.

Question 14.
What is Deglutition apnea? What is its importance?
Answer:

1. The temporary arrest of respiration is called Apnea.
2. Deglutition or swallowing apnea occurs reflexly when the food is in the pharynx.
3. This process prevents the food from entering into the windpipe.
4. If food enters the windpipe it will have serious effects, so the larynx moves up to stop the food from entering the windpipe. Hence we should not talk while eating.

Question 15.
When do bleeding occurs? What is the first aid foe it?
Answer:

1. Bleeding takes place when we are injured or there is a cut,
2. First the bleeding injury is to be washed with clean water.
3. Use cotton or a cloth to clean the injured are ‘
4. Then use cotton or a bandage cloth to cover the injury to stop the flow of blood.
5. Take the injured person to the nearest Doctor or Hospital if bleeding does not stop.

7th Class Science 4th Lesson Respiration and Circulation Long Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are wrong? Give reasons.
1) There is no har m in trying a cigarette once, because one can stop after that.
2) One cigarette a day does not harm any more.
3) Will power alone can help a smoker to stop smoking.
4) Smoking helps you feet good and relaxed.
5) Smoking is not harmful to health.
Answer:

1. Wrong. Because almost all smoker starts by trying just once but it will become a habit hard to leave.
2. Wrong. Because every cigarette you smoke is doing damage to your body, which ultimately causes heartattack, stroke and lung diseases.
3. Wrong. Because along with will power, the love and support of the family and friends combined with medical arid psychological treatment also needed to quit smoking.
4. Wrong. Because smoking may make you feel relaxed temporarily but the long term harmful effects will affect your health, wealth and life style.
5. Wrong. Because smoking leads to several health problems such as Lung Cancer, Tuberculosis and other respiratory disorders. So, never try to start smoking.

Question 2.
Describe the structure of human heart.
Answer:

1. Heart is the pumping organ in the blood circulatory system.
2. It’s about the size of one’s fist.?
3. It is located in the centre of the chest cavity slightly bent towards the left.
4. It has four chambers, upper two chambers are called Atria and lower two chambers are called Ventricles.
5. The walls of the chambers are made of muscles which contract and relax, regularly and rhythmically to pump the blood.

Question 3.
How do you prove the aerobic respiration?
Answer:
Aim: To prove the aerobic respiration.

Apparitors : Wide-mouthed bottle, lid, sprouting seeds, beaker, lime water.

Procedure:

1. Take a wide mouthed bottle and place a handful of sprouting seeds in it.
2. Prepare some fresh lime water in a small container and place it carefully in one corner of the bottle.
3. Close the cap of the bottle and apply vaseline on the edges to make it air-tight.
4. Leave the apparatus undisturbed for a day or two days.
5. After two days open the cap and carefully take out the lime water container and observe the changes.

Observation:
The lime water turns into milky white.

Conclusion:
Lime water turned milky white by carbon dioxide, which is released by germinated seeds through aerobic respiration

Prove:
It is proven that carbon dioxide is released in aerobic respiration

Question 4.
What are blood vessels? Write about different types of blood vessels in human body.
Answer:

1. The tube like structures through which blood flow in the human body are called blood vessels.
2. There are three types of blood vessels in the human body. 1. Arteries, 2. Veins and 3. Blood capillaries –
3. Arteries carry blood with more oxygen from heart to body parts.
4. Veins carry blood with more carbon dioxide from the body parts to the heart.
5. Blood capillaries which are very thin narrow blood vessels that connect the arteries with the veins and distribute the blood to the body parts.

Question 5.
Write about composition and functions of blood.
Answer:

1. Human blood is composed of Blood cells and plasm. Plasma is the fluid portion of the blood.
2. Blood cells are of three types – Red blood cells, White blood cells and Blood platelets.
3. White blood cells are again of different types.
4. The white blood cells boost our immunity and protect us from the harmful, disease causing micro organisms that enter into our body.
5. They act like police force of our body.
6. Red blood cells have a colouring pigment called Haemoglobin in the RBC, which gives blood the red colour.
7. Haemoglobin acts as a carrier for oxygen and carbon dioxide and plays a key role in respiration.
8. Blood platelets play an important role in coagulation of blood when there are cuts and wounds.
9. Blood plays an important role in the transport of materials in animals.
10. Blood is the medium to carry the digested food materials and the inhaled oxygen to all parts of the body.

Question 6.
What preventive measures will you suggest to be healthy, strong and disease free in the context of covid 19.
Answer:

1. Protecting ourselves by washing hands with soap or sanitizer,
2. Not touching the face, eyes, nose, mouth
3. Wearing a face mask
4. Maintaining social distance
5. Strictly adhering to covid protocol SMS – SANITISE, MASK, SOCIAL DISTANCE.
6. Taking steam inhalation twice a day.
7. Drinking hot milk mixed with turmeric,
8. Taking meals when hot,
9. Taking a nutritive balanced diet,
10. Practicing breathing exercises and yoga,
11. Gargling with warm water and Taking vitamin C

Question 7.
What is Choking? What is the first aid for it?
Answer:

1. Choking occurs when the wind pipe is obstructed by an object leading to blocking of air.
2. Choking has to be attended immediately as it is dangerous.
3. In adults, hold the person from behind around the abdomen just below the ribs.
4. Press quickly and repeatedly until the person gets relief by coughing or vomiting.
5. In case of children who usually put seeds, coins or bottle caption their mouth and get choked.
6. The child should be made to lie down upside down in the lap of an adult.
7. Then, the part of the back between the shoulder bones has to be tapped strongly until the object comes out.
8. Take him to the doctor immediately.

AP Board 7th Class Science 4th Lesson 1 Mark Bits Questions and Answers Respiration and Circulation

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. In which process accumulated semisolid wastes come out?
A) Sneezing
B) Yawning
C) Coughing
D) Apnea
Answer:
C) Coughing

2. Which of the following is occured when food enters in the wind pipe?
A) Sneezing
B) Yawning
C) Coughing
D) Apnea
Answer:
D) Apnea

3. First aid for bleeding is
A) Create pressure on the diaphragm
B) Cover with bandage
C) Upside down
D) Above all
Answer:
B) Cover with bandage

4. Which of the following requires oxygen?
A) Aerobic respiration
B) Anaerobic respiration
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Aerobic respiration

5. The process of inhaling air is called
A) Breathing
B) Inspiration
C) Expiration
D) Respiration
Answer:
B) Inspiration

6. The opening of the nose is called
A) Nostrils
B) Nasal cavity
C) Pharynx
D) wind pipe
Answer:
A) Nostrils

7. Inspiration occurs due to
A) Ribcage move upward
B) Diaphragm move upward
C) Air enters the lungs
D) A & B
Answer:
A) Ribcage move upward

8. Quantity of nitrogen present in the inhaled air …………%.
A) 21
B) 25
C) 78
D) 0.4
Answer:
C) 78

9. Quantity of water vapour in exhaled air 0.4 …………%.
A) 15
B) 4
C) 78
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

10. This gas turns lime water into milky white
A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
C) Carbon dioxide

11. Find the correct statement
i) In the lungs, Carbon dioxide from the inhaled air is absorbed by the blood vessels present in the lungs.
ii) Oxygen collected by the blood vessels from all parts of the body enters into the Lungs.
A) both are correct
B) i only correct
C) ii only correct
D) both are wrong
Answer:
D) both are wrong

12. This will help to quit smoking.
A) Will power
B) support of the family and friends
C) medical and psychological treatment
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

13. Nicotine is present in this leaf
A) Neem
B) Pipal
C) Tobacco
D) Betel
Answer:
C) Tobacco

14. Find the odd one
A) Grasshopper
B) Cockroach
C) Earthworm
D) Honey bee
Answer:
C) Earthworm

15. Frogs respires through
A) Lungs
B) Skin
C) Tracheae
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

16. Fish respire through
A) Gills
B) Skin
C) Lung
D) Both A & B
Answer:
A) Gills

17. Marine animal that respire through lung is
A) Fish
B) Dolphins
C) Prawn
D) Star fish
Answer:
B) Dolphins

18. Respiration in plants occurs through
A) Stomata
B) Lenticles
C) Root hairs
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

19. Honey bee : Tracheae :: Earth worm : ?
A) Gill
B) Lung
C) Skin
D) None of, these
Answer:
C) Skin

20. In this process, energy released in our body
A) Photosynthesis
B) Digestion
C) Respiration
D) Circulation
Answer:
C) Respiration

21. This process helps in the supply of digested food and oxygen to all parts of the body
A) Digestion
B) Circulation
C) Excretion
D) Photosynthesis
Answer:
B) Circulation

22. This is not a part of circulatory system ….
A) Lungs
B) Heart
C) Blood vessels
D) Blood
Answer:
A) Lungs

23. Upper two chambers of the heart are called
A) Arteries
B) Ventricles
C) Atria
D) Veins
Answer:
C) Atria

24. The fluid portion of the blood is
A) RBC
B) WBC
C) Blood platelets
D) Plasma
Answer:
D) Plasma

25. They protect us from the harmful, disease causing micro organisms that enter into our body.
A) RBC
B) WBC
C) Blood platelets
D) Plasma
Answer:
B) WBC

26. They play an important role in coagulation of blood…….
A) RBC
B) WBC
C) Blood platelets
D) Plasma
Answer:
C) Blood platelets

27. They plays a key role in respiration.
A) RBC
B) WBC
C) Blood platelets
D) Plasma
Answer:
A) RBC

28. Which of the following does not have blue coloured blood
A) Prawns
B) Snails
C) Cockroach
D) Crabs
Answer:
D) Crabs

29. This life processes play an important role in release of energy in organisms.
A) Digestion
B) Respiration
C) Circulation
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Digestion

30. Which of the following is not a non communicable diseases?
A) Heart attack
B) COVID – 19
C) Cancer
D) Paralysis
Answer:
B) COVID – 19

31. Identify the bacterial disease
A) Common cold
B) Polio
C) Tuberculosis
D) HIV
Answer:
C) Tuberculosis

32. Identify the viral, disease
A) Typhoid
B) Common cold
C) Cholera
D) Tuberculosis
Answer:
B) Common cold

33. SMS protocol is for this disease
A) Polio
B) COVID
C) Cancer
D) Paralysis
Answer:
B) COVID

34. This is caused due to insufficient supply of Oxygen to the brain.
A) Coughing
B) Sneezing
C) Deglutition
D) Yawning
Answer:
D) Yawning

35. This process prevents the food from entering into the windpipe.
A) Coughing
B) Sneezing
C) Deglutition
D) Yawning
Answer:
C) Deglutition

36. This occurs when the wind pipe is obstructed by an object leading to blocking of air….
A) Coughing
B) Sneezing
C) Deglutition
D) Choking
Answer:
D) Choking

II. Fill in the blanks

1. COVID -19 is caused by a virus called …………………… .
2. SARS means …………………… .
3. Giving assistance before a doctor attending is called …………………… .
4. The temporary arrest of respiration is called …………………… .
5. The process of inhalation and exhalation of air is called …………………… .
6. The process of inhaling air is called …………………… .
7. The process of exhalation of air is called …………………… .
8; The number of times we inhale and exhale air in a minute is called the
9. We breathe about …………………… times per minute normally.
10. One inhalation and one exhalation together called one
11. …………………… is the first part of the Wind pipe.
12. …………………… is the process which helps in the release of energy in our body.
13. …………………… are the respiratory organs in human beings.
14. The …………………… lung is slightly larger than the …………………… one.
15. Wind pipe is kept in its shape by …………………… .
16. Lungs are protected by …………………… .
17. …………………… is the thin muscular sheet attached to the lower side of the ribcage.
18. …………………… forms the floor of the chest cavity.
19. …………………… play key role in the respiratory movements in man.
20. …………………… play key role in the respiratory movements in woman.
21. …………………… are the only part of the human body which floats on water
22. …………………… is the gas produced in photosynthesis.
23. Percentage of carbon dioxide in the inhaled air is …………………… .
24. Percentage of oxygen in the inhaled air is …………………… .
25. Percentage of carbon dioxide in the exhaled air is …………………… .
26. Percentage of oxygen in the exhaled air is …………………… .
27. Lime water turns milky white when it reacts with …………………… .
28. Glucose + Oxygen → …………………… + water + Energy
29. Tobacco smoke contains a highly dangerous substance called
30. …………………… respiration is present in insects.
31. Breathing through the skin is called …………………… respiration.
32. Respiration carried out by gills is called …………………… .
33. Respiration through is called Pulmonary respiration.
34. Plants respire through on the leaf and on the stem.
35. …………………… is the pumping organ in the blood circulatory system.
36. Upper two chambers of the heart are called and lower two chambers are called …………………… .
37. The rhythmic contraction followed by its relaxation of the heart is called …………………… .
38. Heart beat can be felt and measured by an instrument called …………………… .
39. …………………… carry blood with more oxygen from heart to body parts.
40. …………………… carry blood with more carbon dioxide from the body parts to the heart.
41. …………………… connect the arteries with the Veins
42. …………………… is the fluid portion of the blood.
43. …………………… act like police force of our body.
44. Red blood cells have a colouring pigment called …………………… .
45. …………………… acts as a carrier for oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood.
46. …………………… play an important role in coagulation of blood …………………… .
47. Blood present in cockroach is
48. …………………… is the storage point for undigested food.
49. Blood in snails is …………………… in colour.
50. …………………… was the new disease that created a global impact recently.
51. …………………… is the inbuilt capacity of the body to fight and overcome the effects of disease-causing germs.
52. The entry of disease-causing germs into our body is called ……………… .
53. COVID-19 virus spreads primarily through …………………… of infected person.
Answer:

1. SARS CoV – 2
2. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
3. First aid.
4. Apnea
5. breathing
6. inspiration
7. expiration
8. Respiratory Rate
9. 14 to 20
10. breath
11. Larynx
12. Respiration
13. Lungs
14. right
15. C Shaped rings
16. ribcage
17. Diaphragm
18. Diaphragm
19. Diaphragm
20. Ribcage
21. Lungs
22. Oxygen
23. 0.04%
24. 21%
25. 4%
26. 15%
27. carbon dioxide
28. Carbon dioxide
29. Nicotine
30. Tracheal
31. cutaneous
32. branchial respiration
33. lungs
34. stomata, lenticels
35. Heart
36. atria, ventricles
37. heartbeat
38. Stethoscope
39. Arteries
40. Veins
41. Blood capillaries
42. Plasma
43. White blood cells
44. Haemoglobin
45. Haemoglobin
46. Blood platelets
47. colourless
48. Rectum
49. bluish
50. COVID-19
51. Immunity
52. infection
53. droplets of saliva or nasal discharges

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

Do You Know?

→ Lungs are the only part of the human body which floats on water.

→ The efforts of scientists like Von Helmont and Joseph Black led to the discovery of carbon dioxide. Joseph Priestley and Lavoiser discovered Oxygen.

→ Whales, Dolphins, Seals etc. are marine animals which live in water but have lungs. So, they come up regularly ones the surface to breathe the air.

→ Plants take in Oxygen and give out Carbon dioxide during respiration. The same plants take in carbon dioxide and give out oxygen during the process of Photosynthesis. So we should protect and plant more trees for a rich supply of oxygen.

These AP 7th Class English Important Questions 5th Lesson The Art of Weaving will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP Board 7th Class English Unit 5 Important Questions and Answers The Art of Weaving

Reading Comprehension (Seen)

1. Read the following passage carefully.

We went to Mangalagiri, one of the famous towns in the Guntur District, along with our English teacher on a case study.

First, we consulted a master W&1V€1’, Veertfatf, for the details “where to go?”, “whom to meet?” Mr. Veeraiah cordially welcomed us. He said “Mangalagiri is famous for its sarees and fabrics produced by handicraft weaving. Many families live on the art of weaving here.” (The Art of Weaving)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. What was the case study about?
Answer:
The case study was about the handlooms in Mangalagiri.

2. Who helped the students?
Answer:
Veeraiah

3. What was Veeraiah?
Answer:
A master weaver

4. What is Mangalagiri famous for?
Answer:
Mangalagiri is famous for its sarees and fabrics produced by handicraft weaving.

5. Who took the students to Mangalagiri?
Answer:
Their English teacher

2. Read the following passage carefully.

We asked him, “Could you please tell us about the fabric of Mangalagiri?” He expressed his gratitude for our concern for them and responded most positively:

“This fabric is the product of weaving with the help of pit looms. It takes much time to weave and requires a lot of patience to prepare everything ready. Mangalagiri sarees are special for their quality and the process we follow. The quality of fabric depends upon the yarn we use. Generally, we purchase cotton yarn from different mills from our state and Jari from Surath, Maharashtra.”

“Sir, can you explain how you begin the process of weaving?” asked one of our classmates.

Veeraiah said, “First, the yarn is boiled in the water, mixed with caustic soda, for a couple of hours and also bleached to make it suitable for dyeing”. (The Art of Weaving)
Now, answer the following questions.
1. Who explained the things to students?
Answer:
Mr. Veeraiah, a master weaver

2. What does the making of this fabric require?
Answer:
It requires a lot of patience.

3. What is the speciality of Mangalagiri sarees?
Answer:
They are special for the quality.

4. What does the quality depend on?
Answer:
It depends on the yarn they use.

5. What is the first step in the process of weaving? .
Answer:
First, the yarn is boiled in the water, mixed with caustic soda, for a couple of hours and also bleached to make it suitable for dyeing.

3. Read the following passage carefully.

While we were going on the streets of Mangalagiri, we met another weaver Sambayya who was selling handloom sarees. We asked him, “Why is the fabric produced in Mangalagiri special from other fabrics?”

His enthusiasm was evidently seen when he said, “The Nizam design is a unique characteristic feature of this fabric. The uniqueness of Mangalgiri cotton is because of its durability. The fabric is woven only on a pit loom, and there are no gaps on the weave towards the edges of the fabric along with the fact that it is created in Mangalgiri alone. The body and the pallu are embellished with zari or golden thread work with a Nizam boarder and geometrical and simple designs. (The Art of Weaving)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. What was Sambayya doing on the street?
Answer:
He was selling handloom sarees.

2. What Was the unique characteristic feature of Managalagiri fabric?
Answer:
The Nizam design

3. How is the fabric woven?
Answer:
It is woven on a pit loom.

4. How is golden thread work used?
Answer:
To embellish the body and the pallu

5. What do you understand about the durability of Mangalagiri fabric?
Answer:
It is of high durability.

4. Read the following passage carefully.

Around 5000 weavers are working in the Mangalagiri textiles industry in a population of eighty thousand. Mangalagiri has a special place in the world textile map because of the handloom sarees and the dress materials woven here are world famous.

The weavers face many problems in the textile industry. They face tough competition, change in fashion, trends, scarcity of raw material, and the involvement of middle men. However the traditional value of handloom fabric is increasing for their uniqueness. Handloom fabric, thus, has a lot of global demand because of its artistic appeal. (The Art of Weaving)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. What are the main products of Mangalagiri textiles industry?
Answer:
Handloom sarees and dress-materials

2. How many people depend on textiles industry in Mangalagiri?
Answer:
Around 5000 people

3. What problems do the weavers face?
Answer:
They face tough competition, change in fashion, trends, scarcity of raw material, and the involvement of middle men.

4. Why is the traditional value of the fabric increasing?
Answer:
Because of its uniqueness

5. Why does handloom fabric have globcil demand?
Answer:
Because of its artistic appeal

5. Read the following lines carefully.

Weavers, weaving at break of day,
Why do you weave a garment so gay?…
Blue as the wing of the halcyon wild,
We weave the robes of a new-born child. (Indian Weavers)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. What do the weavers weave in the morning (at break of day)?
Answer:
A garment so gay

2. For whom are the special clothes being woven?
Answer:
For a new-born child

3. What are the clothes compared to?
Answer:
The clothes are co.mpared to the wing of a halcyon whose wings are bright colour.

4. Which stage of human life is talked in these lines?
Answer:
Childhood

5. What is the colour of the garment of a new-born child?
Answer:
The colour of the garment of a new-born child is blue.

6. Read the following lines carefully.

Weavers, weaving at fall of night,
Why do you weave a garment so bright?
Like the plumes of a peacock, purple and green,
We weave the marriage-veils of a queen. (Indian Weavers)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. When are the weavers weaving the marriage veil of a queen?
Answer:
The weavers are weaving the marriage veil of a queen at fall of night.

2. What is it compared to?
Answer:
It is compared to the plumes of a peacock.

3. What is the colour of the garment?
Answer:
The colour of the garment is purple and green.

4. Which words rhyme with ‘night’ and ‘green’?
Answer:
‘Night’ rhymes with ‘bright’ and ‘green’ rhymes with ‘queen’.

5. What is the stage of human life discussed here?
Answer:
The stage of youth

7. Read the following lines carefully.

Weavers, weaving solemn and still,
What do you weave in the moonlight chill?
White as a feather and white as a cloud,
We weave a dead man’s funeral shroud. (Indian Weavers)

Now, answer the following questions.
1. Write name of the poem from which the above stanza has been taken. Who is the poetess of the poem?
Answer:
The name of the poem is ’Indian Weavers’. Its poetess is Sarojini Naidu.

2. What did the weavers weave in the chill moonlight?
Answer:
The weavers are weaving the shroud in the chill moonlight.

3. What is the colour of the shroud?
Answer:
The colour of the shroud is white.

4. Which words rhyme with each other in the above stanza?
Answer:
Still’rhymes with’chill’and’cloud’rhymes with’shroud’.

5. What figure of speech is used in the following lines?
White as a feather and as a cloud,
We weave a dead man’s funeral shroud.
Answer:
Simile

Reading Comprehension (Unseen)

1. Read the following passage carefully.

Mother Teresa is also known as ‘Blessed Teresa of Calcutta”. Her earlier name was “Anjeze Gonxhe Bojaxhiu”. She was born on 26th August, 1910 at the then Yugoslavia. She came to India in 1929. Mother Teresa was Roman Catholic nun moved to Calcutta’s slum “to serve God among the poorest of the poor”.

In 1950, she established the Missionaries of Charity to help the poor, helpless, disabled, diseased refugees and lepers. Today, the missionaries of charity are in more than 100 countries.

She was awarded the title of “Padma Shri” in 1962. She received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1979. Later in 1980, she received the title of ‘Bharat Ratna”, the-highest civil-ian award in India. She was the first citizen of India to win Nobel Peace Prize.

Now, answer the following questions.
a) What is the other name for Mother Teresa?
Answer:
‘Blessed Teresa of Calcutta’

b) What was the birth place of Teresa?
Answer:
Yugoslavia

Choose the correct answer from the choices given.
c) When did Mother Teresa found the Missionaries of Charity?
i) 1980
ii) 1929
iii) 1950
iv) 1919
Answer:
iii) 1950

d) What was the award received by Teresa in 1979?
i) Nobel Prize
ii) Padma Shri
iii) Blessed Teresa
iv) Bharat Ratna
Answer:
i) Nobel Prize

e) Where did Mother Teresa find God?
i) in the city of Calcutta
ii) in the school of charity
iii) in Yugoslavia
iv) in the poorest of the poor
Answer:
iv) in the poorest of the poor

2. Read the following passage carefully.

There was a Guru who had mastered the scriptures. One day when he was teaching the Vedas to his disciples, a cat started moving around. This did not disturb the Guru, but was a distraction to some of his disciples. So the Guru instructed his disciples to get hold of the cat and tie it to pillar. As the nuisance recurred on the following days, the cat was regularly tethered to the pillar before the Guru began his teaching.

Some years later the Guru died. One of his disciples became the new head. The practice of tethering the cat to the pillar continued. After a few months the cat died. When the Guru began his teaching the next day he noticed that the cat was missing. He said, “Don’t you know that a cat must be tied to the pillar during my teaching? That is our tradition. Go and find a cat”. The disciples immediately obeyed the order. Blindly following traditions, thus, is foolish and serves no purpose.

Now, answer the following questions.
a) Why were the disciples distracted?
Answer:
A cat’s moving around distracted the disciples.

b) What was done to prevent the cat from roaming about?
Answer:
The cat was tied to the pillar.

Choose the correct answer from the choices given.
c) Who became the new head?
i) One of the disciples of the Guru
ii) The cat
iii) All the disciples
Answer:
i) One of the disciples of the Guru

d) What practice continued after the new Guru took charge?
i) Keeping the cat near the Guru
ii) Tethering the cat to the pillar
iii) Making it go round the pillar
Answer:
ii) Tethering the cat to the pillar

e) Choose the correct statement from the following.
i) The new Guru was foolish because he was blindly following a practice.
ii) The new Guru was foolish because he was fond of cats.
iii) The new Guru was foolish because he disliked traditions.
Answer:
i) The new Guru was foolish because he was blindly following a practice.

Interpretation of Non-Verbal Information

1. The bar graph below shows the Sex ratio of females per 1000 males. Study the graph and answer the questions.

Now, answer the following questions.
a) What is the Rural female population during 2001?
Answer:
946 females

b) What is the difference in the population from 2001 to 2011?
Answer:
The population has increased in 10 years of time.

Choose the correct answer from the choices given.
c) How many females are existing in urban areas in 2011?
i) 946
ii) 900
iii) 926
iv) 947
Answer:
iii) 926

d) The ratio of male : female in 2011 in rural area is
i) 1000 : 933
ii) 1000 : 947
iii) 900 : 1000
iv) 946 : 1000
Answer:
ii) 1000 : 947

e) Which of the following statements is true according to the graph representation?
i) In 2011, the urban female population is lesser than the total population.
ii) The female population decreased in 2011 when compared to 2001.
iii) The male and female population is same in 2001 in rural areas.
Answer:
i) In 2011, the urban female population is lesser than the total population.

2. The pie chart below shows the usage of water for domestic purpose. Study it and answer the questions.

Now, answer the following questions.
a) For which purpose is water mostly used on domestic front?
Answer:
Toilet washing

b) What are the different kinds of washing mentioned in the pie chart?
Answer:
Drinking, washing up, clothes washing, personal washing showers, personal washing baths and taps, etc.

Choose the correct answer from the choices given.
c) Water used for …………. is very less.
i) personal washing showers
ii) toilet flushing
iii) drinking
iv) washing hands
Answer:
iii) drinking

4) What is the percentage of water used for outdoor purpose?
i) 12%
ii) 7%
iii) 21%
iv) 5%
Answer:
ii) 7%

5) Pick out the true statement with reference to the details in the pie chart.
i) Water is best utilized for clothes washing.
ii) Consumption of water for various washing purposes can be minimised/reduced.
iii) Water is the main source for keeping ourselves and surroundings clean.
Answer:
iii) Water is the main source for keeping ourselves and surroundings clean.

Vocabulary

Synonyms

Choose the words with similar meanings (synonyms) from the list given to the words Underlined.

Answer:
a) a) thankfulness, b) replied
b) a) abundant, b) arrange
c) a) Usually, b) buy
d) a) methods, b) long-lasting
e) a) uncomplicated, b) hand-operated
f) a) inexpensive, b) manufactured

Antonyms

Write the opposites (antonyms) for the underlined words.

a) He expressed his gratitude (a) for our concern for them and responded most positively (b).
b) Generally, we purchase (a) cotton yarn from different (b) mills from our state and Jari from Surat, Maharashtra.
c) The fabric which is made on the pit loom with a dobby attachment mechanism is very unique (a) and beautiful (b).
d) “It has a rich appearance (a). The quality of work done by the weavers and the pain (b) the weavers take for weaving a saree keep the love for our Mangalagiri fabric,” he explained.
e) They face tough competition, change in fashion trends, scarcity (a) of raw (b) material, and the involvement of middle men.
f) However the traditional (a) value of handloom fabric is increasing (b) for their uniqueness.
Answer:
a) a) ingratitude, b) negatively
b) a) sell, b) same
c) a) common, b) awful
d) a) disappearance, b) comfort
e) a) abundance, b) processed
f) a) unconventional, b) decreasing