Class 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Indian Rivers and Water Resources.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. What are the twin sources of ‘Ganga’?
Answer:
The twin sources of Ganga are:

1. Bhagirathi,
2. Alakananda

Question 2.
Why are the Himalayan rivers called perennial?
Answer:
Himalayan rivers are called perennial because they flow throughout the year.

Question 3.
Suggest two activities that can be taken up so that the groundwater can be restored.
Answer:
The following activities are suggested to restore the ground water.

1. Check dams,
2. Percolation tanks,
3. Loose boulder structures,
4. Plantations on forest lands and roadsides etc. (Any two you can write).

Question 4.
What are the tributaries of the Indus river?
Answer:
The tributaries of the Indus river are the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej.

Question 5.
Name any two tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej.

Question 6.
What are the two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India?
Answer:
The two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India are

1. The Arabian sea branch
2. The Bay of Bengal branch

Observe the map given and answer questions 7 and 8.

Question 7.
Name the two rivers that flow into the Arabian sea.
Answer:
The rivers that flow into the Arabian sea are

1. Sabarmati
2. Mahi
3. Narmada
4. Tapati

Question 8.
Through which states, river Tungabhadra flows?
Answer:
River Tungabhadra flows through Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh

Question 9.
Observe the map and answer the questions below?

a) Which river is shown in the map?
b) Which state does the river form a delta?
Answer:
a) River Godavari
b) Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10.
What are the three physiographic units of the drainage of India?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas
2. The Peninsular Plateau and
3. The Indo-Gangetic plain

Question 11.
Divide the Indian drainage system on the basis of its origin.
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers.
2. The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
Name the three Himalayan rivers. (OR)
Mention the three principal river system to which the Himalayan Rivers belong.
Answer:

1. The Indus
2. The Ganges
3. The Brahmaputra

Question 13.
Which rivers are perennial? Write the reason.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers are perennial. This is because the rivers are supplied on rainfall as well as the melting snow.

Question 14.
Where does the Indus originate? What is its route?
Answer:
The Indus originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near lake Manasarovar. It follows a north-westerly course through Tibet.

Question 15.
Where does the Indus enter India?
Answer:
It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 16.
What do the water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

Question 17.
What is the significance of ‘Devaprayag’?
Answer:
Bhagirathi and Alakananda join at ‘Devaprayag’ to form the Ganga.

Question 18.
Where does the Brahmaputra rise?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra in Tibet rises from the snout of the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Manasarovar.

Question 19.
Where does the Brahmaputra enter India?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra enters in a great loop southwest through Arunachal Pradesh in India, first as Siang and then as Dihang.

Question 20.
What are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra?
Answer:
The Dibang and the Lohit are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Question 21.
Where do the peninsular rivers originate?
Answer:
The peninsular rivers the Krishna, the Godavari and the Cauveri originate in the Western Ghats. The Mahanadi originates in the Vindhya Satpura ranges.

Question 22.
Which is the largest peninsular river system?
Answer:
The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system.

Question 23.
What is the source of the river Godavari?
Answer:
The source of the Godavari is in the Triambak plateau near Nasik in Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal.”

Question 24.
Write the ‘inflow’ as a formula?
Answer:
Inflow = Precipitation + Surface flow + Groundwater flow.

Question 25.
What is called evaporation?
Answer:
The turning of water into vapour is called evaporation.

Question 26.
What is called transpiration?
Answer:
Living things give off water into the atmosphere through their breathing process, this is called transpiration.

Question 27.
What is called evapotranspiration?
Answer:
The total amount of water added to the atmosphere from both evaporation and transpiration is called evapotranspiration.

Question 28.
When would the surface flow increase?
Answer:
The surface flow would increase during the monsoon months.

Question 29.
How does the water reach the root zone of crops?
Answer:
Water reaches the root zone of crops either through rainfall or some process of irrigation.

Question 30.
Which kind of water is the vital need?
Answer:
Water used for drinking, cooking, washing, cleaning and for animals is vital need.

Question 31.
Name the surface storages.
Answer:
Tanks, ponds, lakes, etc. are the surface storages.

Question 32.
What is the question that we face today about the groundwater?
Answer:
The question that we face today is the depletion of groundwater storage and tendency not to care about the availability for future generations.

Question 33.
What are the two parts of the Tungabhadra basin?
Answer:

1. The upper and middle catchment in Karnataka and
2. The lower portion of the catchment in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 34.
Which water is available to us?
Answer:
The annual flows and stocks that recharge wells and tubewells is the water that is available for us.

Question 35.
When can the mining water be done?
Answer:
The mining water can be done only in extreme drought situations and replenished in good rainfall years.

Question 36.
How are the low portions of the Tungabhadra basin characterized in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
They are characterized by low rainfall and drought.

Question 37.
What is the result of the encroachment of public land for cultivation?
Answer:
It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.

Question 38.
What is the result of the rampant felling of trees and mining activity?
Answer:
Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna.

Question 39.
Why did the Tungabhadra basin lose its water storage capacity?
Answer:
With the accumulation of silt due to mining, dust, soil erosion, debris the Tungabhadra Dam lost its water storage capacity.

Question 40.
How is water shared?
Answer:
Water is shared based on agreements between state governments.

Question 41.
What is the result of industrialization and urbanization?
Answer:
While increased industrialization and urbanization have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution, especially by industrial units.

Question 42.
Why do the interstate disputes arise between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka?
Answer:
Interstate disputes between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka arise due to the trans-boundary nature of the river.

Question 43.
Where is Hiware Bazar located?
Answer:
Hiware Bazar is located in the Ahmednagar district in Maharashtra. It is situated on the eastern side of the Sahyadri mountain ranges that run north-south and separate Konkan, the coastal region, from the rest of Maharashtra.

Question 44.
Expand CCT.
Answer:
Continuous Contour Trenches.

Question 45.
Why were CCTs dug?
Answer:
The CCTs were dug on the hill slopes to arrest the erosion of soil, harvest water and encourage growth of grass.

Question 46.
Name some water harvesting structures.
Answer:
Check dams, percolation tanks and loose boulder structures.

Question 47.
Name the four bandis.
Answer:

1. Kurhad bandi
2. Charai bandi
3. Nasbandi
4. Nashabandi

Question 48.
What are the other bans which were added later?
Answer:

1. The ban on borewells for irrigation,
2. Growing sugarcane and banana and
3. Selling one’s own land to any outsider.

Question 49.
Why do the farmers in Hiware Bazar keep rainfall data meticulously?
Answer:
They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 50.
What happens when there is so much extraction of water?
Answer:
When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.

Question 51.
What laws and regulations are needed for water consumption?
Answer:
Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that, Panchayati Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 52.
Which judgments illustrate the confusion over our laws today?
Answer:
The judgments in the case of Perumatty Gram Panchayat in Kerala and Coca Cola company illustrate the confusion over our laws today.

Question 53.
What do water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Himalayan rivers are perennial, which means these rivers are filled with water throughout the year.
What are the two reasons that they are called perennial rivers?
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers are perennial rivers as a result of the melting of ice and glaciers.
2. During rainy season they depend on rainfall.

So they are filled with water throughout the year.

Question 2.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) What is the River Ganga called in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Padma.
b) On the banks of which River is Kolkata situated?
Answer:
River Hooghly. (Hugly)

Question 3.
Create two slogans on water conservation or the importance of water. (OR)
Write two slogans to bring awareness on saving of water in consumption.
Answer:
a) Save water – Save future.
b) Without water – there’s no future.
(Students can create a few of their own)

Question 4.
What were the conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under Adarsh Gram Yojana?
Answer:
The conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under the Adarsh Gram Yojana are

1. Kurhad bandi – ban of felling trees
2. Charai bandi – ban of free grazing
3. Nasbandi – family planning
4. Nashabandi – ban on liquor
5. Shramadan – voluntary physical labour.

Question 5.
Categories the drainage system based on its origin.
Answer:
On the basis of the origin, the drainage system in India is categorized into

Question 6.
Suggest measures to be taken to conserve water.
Answer:
Measures to conserve water:

1. Check dams
2. Percolation tanks
3. Loose boulder structures
4. Plantation

Question 7.
Give a few suggestions for the betterment of groundwater level in Telangana in the present situation.
Answer:

1. All people should maintain rainwater harvesting pits.
2. They should construct and maintain check dams. The government should take responsibility.
3. Continuous contour trenches are to be built up.
4. Silt is to be removed every year from the tanks.
5. Plantation should be taken up seriously.
6. Digging of deep borewells should be avoided.

Question 8.
Even in years of continuous drought, there was no drinking water shortage in Hiware Bazar.
What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

1. The main thing is the social control over groundwater extraction and no bore-wells usage for irrigation, no water-intensive crops like sugarcane.
2. Water for irrigation was taken only through dug wells.
3. They also worked out certain thumb rule type of things like if they get good rainfall, then they can take full rabi crop; if the rainfall is less, then they bring down the area under rabi crop etc.
4. They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 9.
As a student, how do you save water in your house and in your school?
Answer:

1. Make it a classroom activity to check for leaks regularly.
2. Install rainwater tanks.
3. Fix any leaking taps, toilets.
4. Raise awareness of the importance of water.

Question 10.
Create a poster on water importance.
Answer:

WATER IS LIFE

Water has been important for people for thousands of years. Without water there would be no life on earth.
We use water in our houses for cooking, bathing and washing the dishes. Water is used to grow food. In many dry areas farmers must bring water to the fields through canals and expensive irrigation systems.

Industries and factories also use water. Fruits and vegetables must be cleaned before they can be processed and sold in supermarkets. Water is used for cooling in many areas, for example in steel production.

Many countries around the world use water to produce energy. Power stations burn coal which turns water into steam. Countries with many mountains and rivers use the power of water to produce electricity.

Water is important for our free time. People enjoy themselves at seaside resorts or on cruise trips.

Transportation was at first carried out on waterways. Ancient civilizations traded goods across the Mediterranean Sea. Today oil, coal, wheat and other products are transported on waterways.

Question 11.
Write about the drainage of India.
Answer:
The drainage of India has evolved and adjusted itself with the evolution of the three physiographic units:

1. the Himalayas
2. the Peninsular plateau and
3. the Indo- Gangetic plain. On the basis of its origin, the drainage system in India can be broadly divided into two categories,
   i) The Himalayan rivers and ii) The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
“Rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people” – Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The river system provides irrigation, potable water, cheap transportation, electricity and livelihoods for a large number of people all over the country and to rural areas.
2. This easily explains why nearly all the major cities of India are located by the banks of rivers.
3. Several major rivers along with their tributaries make up the river system of India.
4. So rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which place has the water level gone down in your area? What are the reasons for the reduction of water levels according to your opinion?
Answer:
The water level has gone down in many of our areas. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture. If groundwater is not available, there will be many problems.
My opinion is that because of modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used. Very deep borewells cause for drawing out water from the ground. Water has become a source of business. Many multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles. Water conservation is also a major issue and it is taken as a serious one.

Question 2.
Explain any four river systems of India in the prescribed table form.

Answer:

Question 3.
Today underground water is the main source of water for people. When there is so much extraction it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore one can’t allow individual land owners to extract as much water as they wish from the land. There should be some restrictions.
Do you agree, with this? Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement.

1. Water should be treated as a common pool resource.
2. There are no boundaries in the flowing water underground.
3. Land ownership should not be applied to underground water.
4. Drinking water should be the first priority as well as a human right.
5. Panchayat Raj Institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 4.
“The current laws about groundwater in many states are both outdated and inappropriate. They were developed at a time when groundwater was a marginal source of water. Today shallow and deep tubewells have the potential to draw a lot of water.”
Write your comment on the judicious way of using and equal distribution of groundwater and suggest few measures in this regard.
Answer:

1. Today underground water is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects the stock of water that would be available to future generations.
3. Therefore the landowners cannot be allowed to extract as much as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions.
4. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn through tube wells on the land.

Question 5.
“Usage of water without keeping in view about the future leads to non-availability of underground water for future generations.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. So individual land owners should not be allowed to extract as much water as they wish.
5. There should be some restrictions.
6. The relation between the land ownership and the extraction of water should be delinked.
7. They only the restrictions will be implemented properly.
8. Groundwater should be treated as a common pool resource.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
What is required are laws and rules to recognize that water is common flowing resource? Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that Panchayat Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.
Answer:
In my opinion.

1. Groundwater benefits a wide range of people and the environment.
2. But there are number of threats to the sustainability of this natural resource, which are compounded by a lack of understanding it.
3. Groundwater is often seen as a resource that can be drawn on when surface water is scarce.
4. Due to over use of groundwater the quality of water is deteriorating.
5. If the people drink that polluted water, they will get diseases.
6. Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right.
7. So, the Panchayat Raj institution think about water is common flowing resource at the same time these institutions have control on groundwater for the sake of future generations and provide it equitable manner.
   Example: In Kerala, Perumatti grama panchayat, the Panchayat Raj institution give first priority to drinking water and next will give importance to Cocacola company. Here, the people’s health is most important.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, this is the major source of water for people. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore, one can’t allow individual landowners to extract as much water as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn from the underground system through tube-wells on the land.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the main source for people.
2. But excessive extraction of the groundwater is more effect to not only present people but also future generations.
3. But there are no appropriate laws to regulate the usage of the groundwater resources.
4. All the present laws were designed when the usage was minimum.
5. The owner of the land is not the owner of the groundwater beneath his land.
6. A link should be designed between the land ownership and control.
7. The government should control the individuals in using underground water resources.

Question 8.
Explain the use of water in the river basin of Tungabhadra.
Answer:

1. River water of Tungabhadra is shared by Karnataka, Telangana and the Andhra Pradesh States.
2. Approximately 80% of rural area people are dependent on agriculture with Tungabhadra water.
3. In some areas people constructed storage tanks based on Tunghabhadra water.
4. Surface flows by canals that carry water from dams built along Tungabhadra in other areas.
5. More land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
6. There are 27 large industries and 2543 small industries are depend on Tungabhadra water.
7. It provides supply of drinking water to neighbour areas.
8. Improved standard of living for some.
9. Disputes also arised between Karnataka and Andhra on the base of availability of water.

Question 9.
Explain the Himalayan river systems.
Answer:

Himalayan River Systems

The Indus system, The Ganga system and the Brahmaputra system come under the Himalayan river systems:

1. The Indus System: The Indus originates in Kailash range near Manasarovar. It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir. The Ravi, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Beas and the Sutlej are its tributaries.
2. The Ganga System: The Ganga is formed joining Bhagirathi with Alakananda which join at Devaprayag. It has large number of tributaries.
3. The Brahmaputra System: The Brahmaputra rises from Kailash range near Manasarovar. It covers Tibet, and joins Arunachal Pradesh in India. It has different names in different places and is known as the Brahmaputra. The Dibang and the Lohit are its tributaries.

Question 10.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.
Regulation is not easy. This is also because for some resources like water, electricity, oil, natural gas, etc. consumption by one person or a sector affects what is available for others. In fact, in a number of states, the answer to falling water tables has not been to address the issue itself. State governments have thus often chosen to increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of groundwater possible.
Answer:
The given paragraph says that the regulation of natural resources like water, natural gas, etc. is not easy. Gradually water table is decreasing. Governments increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of ground water possible.

My interpretation is that water, electricity, oil and natural gas are essential for all people. These are to be used in control. Whatever we use should be useful to the next coming genera¬tion. Natural resources are sustainable. They can be useful to all generations. Water is an essen¬tial commodity. It is the people who decide the future. For a few decades we have been observ¬ing that more groundwater is being pumped out. Sinking water is gradually decreasing. In forests also water is not available. So monkeys, leopards are coming to villages. Deforestation is increased. Quarrying is also increased. Clouds are coming but they are not giving rain. Temperature is increasing day by day. People should understand the need of the future and act accordingly. Per head consumption is increasing drastically. Water conservation is an essential one. Not only human beings, birds, animals, plants also depend on water. Water harvesting pits are promoted at every house. Water shed programs are to be taken up. Every drop of water should be caught perfectly and saved with proper proposals. Government concentrates on the conservation of water to make the next coming generation happy.

Question 11.
“India is heading towards water scarcity.” Trace the possible solutions to tackle this problem.
Answer:

1. Construction of multi purpose projects and canals.
2. Solving river water disputes quickly.
3. Inter-basin transfer of water.
4. Measures to raise the underground water table.
5. Rainwater harvesting.
6. Watershed development.
7. Avoiding pollution of water bodies.
8. Preventing the wastage of water.
9. Interlinking of Rivers.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and state your opinion on it.
Encroachment of public lands for cultivation is common. It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover. Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna. Inflows of groundwater depend on the tree cover in the catchment areas. Inadequate tree hover leads to water run-off as surface flow without getting a chance to recharge the underground system. Moreover, this also causes flash floods. If we wish to be fair to both the rainfed and canal irrigated regions, we must adopt a different plan for water conservation and a system of sharing water.
Answer:

1. In recent years public land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
2. The felling of trees and other mining activities threatened flora and fauna.
3. The inadequate free cover leads to water run off.
4. There is less chance for recharging groundwater.
5. It causes flash floods.
6. The felling of trees threatened flora and fauna.
7. Hence we must be alert and adopt a different plan for water conservation.

Question 13.
Read the para and answer the following questions.
Let us see the dispute over water use between the Perumatty Grama Panchayat in Kerala and the Coca Cola Company. The Panchayat decided not to renew the license for extraction of water because of the lowering of the water table in neighbouring areas. There was also decreasing water quality to the extent that the local government primary health centre had concluded that the water was not fit for drinking. The issue was brought to the courts and is now pending in the Supreme Court as on January 2014. The two decisions given by the judges in Kerala gave two opposing views of groundwater regulation. The first judge found that groundwater is a public resource meant for all, and that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive exploitation. Additionally the judge made the link that drinking water is a priority. The second judge took a completely different perspective and asserted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater. These two contradictory decisions illustrate the confusion over our laws today.
Answer:

1. The para is an example of the confusion over our laws today.
2. The Coca Cola company was extracting more and more underground water.
3. This was reducing the groundwater levels and the water is getting polluted.
4. The issue was brought to the court.
5. Two judges gave contradicting judgments.
6. The first judge stated that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive
7. The second judge insisted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater.
8. Hence we can conclude that there should be some clarity regarding the laws relating to ground-water.
9. The laws are outdated and inappropriate.
10. There should not be any contradiction regarding public interest.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
During the fast two decades there has been an increasing trend in the number of small towns and industrial areas. This has made the competing demands for water more complex. While increased industrialization and growth of urban areas have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution especially by industrial units.
Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, it is clear that urbanization leads to water problems.
2. Another point is that some people are leading prosperous life whereas many poor people are facing the problems of pollution.
3. In my opinion, in this modern age urbanization has become mandatory.
4. People from villages are coming to cities and towns for different reasons.
5. Education for children, medical facilities and different livelihoods are the needs of the rural people.
6. As they come to cities and towns they face the problems of basic need like food, water, shelter and cloth.
7. In conclusion I don’t say that urbanization is not necessary but the problems of the poor migrants also should be considered.
8. At industries and working cites water facility is to be provided.
9. In all the areas protected water supply is necessary.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your comment on it.
Over the past few decades groundwater has become the main source, especially for domes¬tic use and agriculture. This tremendous increase in the use of groundwater has significant impact on water availability and access to it.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater level is the crucial one to all the people.
2. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture.
3. If groundwater is not available there will be many problems.
4. My opinion is that because of the modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used.
5. Very deep bore wells cause for drawing out water from the ground.
6. Water has become a source of business many Multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles.
7. Every individual should think about the importance of water as it is useful to all people.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
Current laws on groundwater use are inappropriate because the basic links between access to groundwater and land ownership on which these rules are based are flawed. Since groundwater has to be extracted from the land above, a link was established between land ownership and control.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the current laws are not appropriate and there is no link between accesses to groundwater and land ownership.
2. Proper laws are to be made and implemented otherwise there will be a mass problem of water.
3. I would like to comment on this paragraph that current laws are not being implemented in a right way.
4. The government should have true spirit of implementation of laws. There are so many laws made in the time of the British rule.
5. After independence these would have been modified or changed according to the present needs or new laws according to the situations and necessities have to be made time to time. This was not done.
6. The government should take necessary action to bring in new laws and they should be implemented in a right way.

Question 17.
People are facing the problem of water scarcity in all the areas. It may be there in your locality also. Write a note on the condition of water scarcity that you recently observed.
Answer:

1. Scarcity of water has become a common problem everywhere.
2. People of all corners are facing the same problem.
3. They purchase even two glasses of water by paying twenty or twenty five rupees.
4. Human activities like deforestation, using plastic, cement and concrete roads are a few rea¬sons for the depletion of groundwater level.
5. Deforestation leads to low rainfall.
6. Rainwater is not percolated properly because of two reasons.
7. By constructing small check dams, it is better to store the water and so it could be useful to restore the groundwater.
8. Then it will be expected that drinking water is available.

Question 18.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Mention any two tributaries of river Ganga.
Answer:
Gandak, Ghagra, Gomati, Son, Betwa, Chambal, Yamuna are the tributaries of river Ganga. (Any two can be written)
b) River Brahmaputra joins a river before joining into Bay of Bengal. What is the name of the river?
Answer:
The river in which the Brahmaputra joins is the Ganga.
c) Two countries are sharing the water of the river Teesta. What are the two countries?
Answer:
India and Bangladesh.
d) Which river is called ‘Padma’ in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Ganga.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Brahmaputra river
2. Drainage area of Indus river
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. The project on Sutlej river
   Answer: Bhakra Nangal
5. The river which is parallel to river Narmada.
   Answer: Tapti
6. The lake which in between Krishna and Godavari rivers.
   Answer: Kolleru
7. Locate Hiware Bazar.
8. Konkan Coast.
9. The Coast of Tamilnadu
   Answer: Coromandel
10. Capital of Madhya Pradesh.
    Answer: Bhopal

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 14 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What does the term “Great Depression” signify?
Answer:

1. There was a worldwide economic decline triggered by a decline in demand and fall in prices. It was called “Great Depression”.
2. The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939.

Question 2.
Read the following map and answer the question.
Name any one country that shared land boundary with India and not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
Nepal, Tibet, Bhutan.

Question 3.
What was your opinion on Hitler’s treatment of the Jews in Germany?
Answer:
The treatment of Hitler towards Jews is very cruel and unjust.

Question 4.
Mention the important aspects of “New Deal”.
Answer:

1. Relief to the victims of depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions.
3. Steps to ensure economic recovery.

Question 5.
Write any two consequences of economic depression.
Answer:

1. Decline in demand and fall in prices.
2. Massive unemployment.
3. Decline of real incomes of ordinary people.

Question 6.
Write any two economic reforms of Hitler.
Answer:
Hitler’s Economic Policies:

1. Hitler banned all strikes.
2. He reduced tax burden on people.
3. He established war industries.
4. He created employment opportunities.

Question 7.
Write about collective farming.
Answer:

1. In U.S.S.R all small and large farmers were forced to join collective farms.
2. These farms were united and mechanised farming was introduced and the produce was divided among the members.

Question 8.
How did Hitler get all powers to sideline Parliament?
Answer:
Hitler got all powers to sideline parliament by passing the Enabling Act.

Question 9.
What was the intention of the Communist Party of India for helping Britain during the Second World War?
Answer:
The Communist Party of India helped Britain during the Second World War as the Nazis attacked on the soviet union. Intentionally the communists helped Britain.

Question 10.
What was the ‘New Deal Policy’ of Franklin D. Roosevelt?
Answer:
Relief to the victims of depression.
Reform of financial institutions and steps to ensure Economic Recovery by undertaking large public works.

Question 11.
Who was the leader of Bolsheviks in Russia?
Answer:
Lenin was the leader of Bolsheviks in Russia.

Question 12.
What was the major incidence occurred in 1924 in Russia?
Answer:
Union of Soviet Socialistic Republic was established.

Question 13.
Who became the leader of Russia after Lenin in 1924?
Answer:
Stalin.

Question 14.
Enlist Indians that were inspired by communism.
Answer:
M.N. Roy, Tagore and Nehru.

Question 15.
Name the book written on the violation against the opposition in Russia and who wrote it.
Answer:
George Orwell wrote his famous satire “Animal farm” to highlight how the ideals of Russian Revolution were compromised in USSR.

Question 16.
What were the famous “3 Rs” of New Deal Policy?
Answer:
The famous “three Rs” of New Deal are …

1. Relief to the victims of depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions.
3. Recovery of the economy.

Question 17.
What happened to Germany after World War – II?
Answer:
Eventually, Germany was divided into

1. German Democratic Republic of Germany (GDR).
2. Federal Republic of Germany (FRG).

Question 18.
Where were the Nazi generals put to trial?
Answer:
The leaders and Nazi generals were captured and put to trial in the famous “Nuremberg trials.”

Question 19.
Name the organization formed after World War – II to establish peace.
Answer:
United Nations Organization.

Question 20.
Enlist the countries that got independence by 1950.
Answer:
India,. China, Indonesia, Vietnam, Egypt, Nigeria, etc.

Question 21.
What were the super powers emerged after 1945?
Answer:
The USA and the USSR.

Question 22.
What was “Socialistic camp”?
Answer:
Eastern Europe and China together came to be known as “the Socialistic camp.”

Question 23.
Why did the common people not want the war?
Answer:
Fatigued by military reserves and upset at economic shortages, the common people did not want the war.

Question 24.
Who led Bolsheviks?
Answer:
Vladimir Lenin led the Bolsheviks.

Question 25.
Why could full peace not return to Russia after October Revolution?
Answer:
Full peace could not return to Russia, as the liberals decided to continue the war to preserve the honour of their land.

Question 26.
Expand the USSR.
Answer:
The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics.

Question 27.
When did the Great Depression begin?
Answer:
The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the Second World War began.

Question 28.
Who was the President during the Depression?
Answer:
Franklin Delano Roosevelt.

Question 29.
What was the ‘New Deal’?
Answer:
It was a programme created by the US to help the Americans and the economy.

Question 30.
What were ‘Three Rs’?
Answer:
The Three Rs are:

1. Belief to the victims of Depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions and
3. Steps to ensure economic Recovery.

Question 31.
What else was introduced in the US?
Answer:
The Social Security system was introduced.

Question 32.
What is meant by Social Security system?
Answer:
It is a permanent system of universal retirement pensions, unemployment insurance, and welfare benefits for handicapped and needy children in families without father present.

Question 33.
Why did Germany face severe crises of the war?
Answer:
German economy faced severe crises after the war as it was saddled with the burden of paying war damages, etc.

Question 34.
Which act of the German government resulted in unheard of inflation?
Answer:
The German government began to print currency notes on a large scale and this resulted in unheard of inflation.

Question 35.
How did Hitler mobilise his supporters?
Answer:

1. Hitler mobilized his supporters on the promise of establishing the racial supremacy of Aryan Germans over the world and by targeting minority communities like Jews as the main cause of all problems.
2. He also guaranteed employment to people.

Question 36.
How did Hitler attack communism and capitalism?
Answer:
Hitler attacked communism and capitalism terming both of them as Jewish conspiracies and promised to build a strong state which would counter both.

Question 37.
How did he appeal to the middle class?
Answer:
Hitler appealed especially to the middle class which felt threatened by capitalism and the Great Depression and at the the same time was opposed to working-class movement led by the Communists and Socialists.

Question 38.
Name the security forces in Germany.
Answer:
Regular police in a green uniform and the SA or the Storm Troopers, Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads), criminal police and the Security Service (SD).

Question 39.
What was Auschwitz?
Answer:
Auschwitz was a killing centre.

Question 40.
Why were Soviet forces welcomed all over Eastern Europe?
Answer:
Soviet forces were welcomed all over Eastern Europe as liberators from the hated Nazi rule and eventually captured Berlin, the capital of Germany.

Question 41.
What happened to Hitler and his close associates?
Answer:
Hitler and his close associates committed suicide to avoid being captured and tried.

Question 42.
Who sentenced the Nazis?
Answer:
The Nuremberg Tribunal sentenced only eleven leading Nazis to death.

Question 43.
What were the two super powers?
Answer:
The USA and the USSR.

Question 44.
What did Hitler promise?
Answer:

1. Hitler promised employment for those looking for work and a secure future for the youth.
2. He promised to weed out all foreign influences and resist all foreign ‘conspiracies’ against Germany.

Question 45.
Who laid way for planned economic development in Russia?
Answer:
Stalin in 1928.

Question 46.
What were the policies of Stalin?
Answer:
Stalin followed a twin policy of rapid industrialization and collectivization of agriculture.

Question 47.
Name Indian Leaders who were inspired by the Russian Revolution.
Answer:
M.N. Roy, Tagore and Nehru were inspired by the Russian Revolution.

Question 48.
What does the book “Animal Form” mention about?
Answer:
The book highlighted, how the ideals of the Russian Revolution were compromised in USSR.

Question 49.
What was the Enabling Act?
Answer:
The Act was passed in 1933. This act established a dictatorship in Germany.

Question 50.
Who was the famous economist of Hitler?
Answer:
Hjalmar Schacht.

Question 51.
Expand GDR and FDR.
Answer:
G.D.R – German Democratic Republic.
F.D.R – Federal Republic of Germany.

Question 52.
What happened to Germany after World War – II?
Answer:
Germany was divided into two portions.

1. The Eastern Part – GDR.
2. The Western Part – FDR.

Question 53.
Which countries came under “the socialist camp”?
Answer:
Russia along with the Eastern European countries and China came under the socialistic camp.

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

“In fact, the second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the Great Depression. Far from the theatres of war, the industries and agriculture of USA prospered and achieved full employment and high productivity. In Harry Truman’s words, “We have emerged from this war as the most powerful nation in the world.”

How do you think the Second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery from the Great Depression? Write your comment.
Answer:
The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the World War-II began. There was a sudden fall in the American stock market.

This effected almost all the nations in the world. Roosevelt, the US President, announced ‘The New Deal which promised Relief to the victims of Depression. However, the real break came from the outbreak of war when state expenditure on armies and armaments suddenly increased giving a big boost to factory production and demand for farm produce. Thus the Second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery from the Great Depression.

Question 2.
Observe the given timeline chart and answer the following questions.

a) How do you think the victory on Auschwitz and liberation by the Soviet Union led to an easy success for the Allied nations?
Answer:
After the liberation of Auschwitz the Allied got victory in Europe. So I can say so.

b) What were the main incidents which occurred in 1941 in world’s history?
Answer:

1. Germany invaded the USSR.
2. Mass murder of the Jews begins.
3. The United States joins the Second World War.

Question 3.
Observe the given map and answer the questions:
a) What is Dutch East India called now?
Answer:
Indonesia

b) Which Chinese region was under the control of Japan?
Answer:
Manchuria

Question 4.
Write any two effects of great depression.
Answer:

1. Increase in unemployment.
2. Fall in prices.
3. Closure of industries.
4. Decrease in the purchasing capacity of the people.

Question 5.
Read the below paragraph.

“This earth is not allotted to anyone nor is it presented to anyone as a gift. It is awarded by providence to people who in their hearts have the courage to conquer it, the strength to preserve it, and the industry to put it to the plough. A vigorous nation will always find ways pf adapting its territory to its population size.”

Do you think world should belong to those who have power and strength alone – Comment.
Answer:

1. No. I don’t think like that.
2. The world belongs to all. All are equal by birth.

Question 6.
“Constitution is a living and changing document.” Would you agree with it? Justify it.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with it.
2. Our constitutional makers are aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. So they provided an opportunity to amend laws.

Question 7.
Observe the Map and answer the questions given below:

1. Name any two countries which were not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
India, Nepal and Tibet.

2. Dutch East Indies was the former name of which country?
Answer:
Indonesia.

Question 8.
What will be the consequences of the World War that may happen after the Second World War?
Answer:
The consequences of the World War that may happen after the Second World War are

1. Huge loss of life on the earth
2. Destruction of properties
3. Increase of environmental damage
4. The existence of life becomes difficult

Question 9.
What were the changes brought about by Russian revolution of 1917 in the Russian Society?
Answer:

1. The immediate change was the elimination of the democratic provisional councils called Soviets in various larger cities.
2. Under Bolshevik rule Russia got out of World War-II.
3. A Socialist system was imposed on the country which all but the smallest businesses were taken over by the government.
4. Land was redistributed to peasant farmers and food distribution was temporarily improved.
5. Soon though, many people became disenchanted with the Bolsheviks and the Russian Civil war broke out in 1918 and lasted until 1920.

Question 10
Observe the map and answer the questions.

1. Mention any two countries that were NOT under Japanese control.
Answer:
India, Tibet, Nepal, Mongolia, U.S.S.R. (any two)

2. Which part of the Ocean did Japan dominant in 1942?
Answer:
North Part of Pacific Ocean.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

“With this began a great experiment of building a country without exploiters like feudal lords, Kings or capitalists. The USSR tried to build a society that was industrialized and modern and yet did not have inequality or exclusion of people on basis of birth, gender, language, etc.”

Answer:

1. The Soviets under the leadership of Bolsheviks seized power from the provisional government in 1917.
2. Peace could not be established as civil war lasted from 1918-20.
3. Finally the USSR was established in 1924.
4. This was an experiment as there was no place for feudal lords, kings or capitalists.
5. The USSR tried to establish a society where there was no scope for inequality or exploitation on the basis of birth, gender, language, etc.
6. Socialism was established and gave a big’ blow to the capitalistic world.

Question 12.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.

1. Mention any two countries which are not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
India and China are not under the control of Japan.

2. Mention any two places which are under f ‘ the control of Japan and lying on its western side.
Answer:
Korea and Manchuria.

Question 13.
What do you know about Tsarist Russia?
Answer:
Tsarist Russia was vast landmass spread over two continents and making it a Euro Asian Power. It had the third-largest population in the world, viz. 156 million, after China and India. It comprised of several nations like the Russia, Ukraine, Uzbekistan, .’Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Turkomania, etc.

Question 14.
What was the first Russian revolution of 1917?
Answer:
On March 8th 1917, around 10,000 women of the capital, St Petersburg, took out a procession demanding ‘Peace and Bread’. Workers joined them in this protest. Unnerved at the protest in the capital, Tsar Nicholas II ordered the army to suppress the demon¬strators, even by firing at them. Instead, the soldiers joined the demonstrators. In just two days, the situation went so much out of hand that the Tsar abdicated and non-aristocratic Russians made a Provisional government. This was the first Russian revolution of 1917 and it was called the March Revolution.

Question 15.
“The October Revolution was not spontaneous” – Why?
Answer:
A bigger revolution was made later in October 1917 and it was not spontaneous. The liberals and aristocrats, who ruled Russia after the abdication of the Tsar, decided to continue the War to preserve the honor of the fatherland. Fatigued by military reverses and upset at economic shortages, the common people did not want the War. They began organizing themselves in councils which were called Soviets. Such Soviets of soldiers, industrial workers, and also people in rural areas were the expression of com-mon people’s power which was channelized by a group of Russian Communist party called Bolsheviks.

Question 16.
Why were Bolsheviks able to win the confidence of the Soviets?
Answer:
Bolsheviks were able to win the confidence of the Soviets because they took up the demand for immediate and unconditional peace, nationalization of all land and its redistribution to the peasants and control over prices and nationalization of all factories and banks.

Question 17.
What effect did the war have, on the industry of Russia?
Answer:
Russian industries were very few numbers and the country was cut off from other suppliers of industrial goods by German control of the Baltic sea. Industrial equipment disintegrated more rapidly in Russia than elsewhere in Europe. By 1916 railway, lines began to breakdown. Able-bodied men were called up to the war. As a result, there were labour shortages and small workshops producing essential commodities were shut down.

Question 18.
Discuss briefly the Five-Year Plans.
Answer:

1. A process of centralized planning was introduced by Stalin in 1928. Officials assessed how the economy could work and set targets for a five-year period, on this basis they made five-year plans.
2. The government fixed all prices to pro-mote industrial growth during the first two plans. (1927-32, 1933 – 38)
3. Centralised planning led to economic growth.

Question 19.
Appreciate the role of Lenin in the Revolu¬tion and his economic policy.
Answer:

1. Vladimir Lenin played an important role in the Russian Revolution of 1917.
2. He led the revolutionaries after the fall of the war.
3. The Bolshevik party put forward clear policies to end the war.
4. He transferred land to the peasants and advance the slogan ‘All power to the Soviets’.
5. These were the real objectives of the Russian Revolution and he fulfilled them. So, Lenin’s name has become inseparable from the Russian Revolution.

Question 20.
Write any two conditions which led to the Russian civil war in 1918-1920.
Answer:

1. The Russian army began to break up after the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution. Soldiers who were mostly peasants wished to go home for the land and desert.
2. Supporters of private property among ‘Whites’ took harsh steps with peasants who had seized land.

Question 21.
How can you say that the experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world including India?
Answer:
The experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world who were committed to the ideals of equality and national liberation. A large number of them now became communists and tried for a communist revolution in their countries. Many of them like MN Roy, Tagore and Nehru were inspired by it even though they did not agree with many aspects of communism like suppression of opposition political parties.

Question 22.
Describe what happened to Germany after its defeat in the First World War.
Answer:

1. World War -1, ended with the Allies defeating Germany and the Central Powers in November 1918.
2. The Peace Treaty of Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating treaty.
3. Germany lost its overseas colonies, a tenth of its population, 13 percent of its territories, 75 percent of its iron and 26 percent of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.
4. The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its power. Germany was forced to pay compensation amounting to 6 billion.

Question 23.
Explain the role of women in Nazi Germany.
Answer:

1. According to Hitler’s ideology, women were radically different from men.
2. The democratic idea of equal rights for men and women was wrong and would destroy society.
3. While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and steel-hearted, girls were told that they bad to become good mothers and rear pure-blooded Aryan children.

Question 24.
Explain the rallies of Nazis.
Answer:
Hitler devised a new style of politics. He understood the significance of rituals and spectacle in mass mobilization. Nazis held massive rallies and public meetings to demonstrate the support for Hitler and instill a sense of unity among the people. The Red banners with the Swastika, the Nazi salute, and the ritualized rounds of applause after the speeches were all part of this spectacle of power.

Question 25.
Write about the Enabling Act.
Answer:
On 3 March 1933, the famous Enabling Act was passed. This Act established a dictatorship in Germany. It gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree. All political parties and trade unions were banned except for the Nazi Party and its affiliates. The state established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.

Question 26.
Explain the condition of the people of Germany after the famous Enabling Act passed.
Answer:
People could now be detained in Gestapo torture chambers, rounded up and sent to concentration camps, deported at will or arrested without any legal procedures. The police forces acquired powers to rule with impunity.
These powers were used to arrest and torture millions of political activists, trade unionists and people of minority communities and build a state of unprecedented horror and fear.

Question 27.
What happened in the far east with the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
In the far east with the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki Japan surrendered to the USA. US armies occupied Japan but keeping in the sentiments of Japanese allowed the Japanese Emperor to continue. But it built a Constitutional Monarchy like in England. Japan was to be ruled by the elected government responsible to the Parliament (DIET).

Question 28.
Name the Indian leaders inspired by the USSR Communist regime.
Answer:

1. The experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world who were committed to the ideals of equality and national liberation.
2. Many of them like Manavendra Nath Roy, Rabindranath Tagore, and Jawaharlal Nehru were inspired by it even though they did not agree with many aspects of communism like suppression of opposition political parties, etc.

Question 29.
How was the economic revival planned after World War II?
Answer:

1. There were many economies that collapsed after World War II.
2. The USA came up with the Marshall Plan to fund the economic revival of West European countries.
3. The USSR came up with a package for the revival of East European countries.

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note on the measures taken by the USSR under the great depression.
Answer:

1. USSR was not integrated with the international market.
2. It had a planned economy.
3. The state decided what and how much has to be produced.
4. This enabled them to maintain a balance between demand and supply.

Question 2.
A) Locate and Label any four of the permanent members of United Nations Security Council on the World map given.
Point out the following countries on the World map given.
B) 1) Portugal 2) Nigeria S) Chile 4) Japan
Answer:
Question 3.
Explain the rise of Nazism in Germany.
Answer:

1. German economy was the worst hit by the Great Depression.
2. This economic crisis created deep anxieties and fears in people.
3. Hitler and his Nazi party used this situation in an intelligent manner.
4. Hitler, by his words and passion, moved the people.
5. He promised them to construct a strong Germany in all aspects.
6. He devised a new style of politics and attracted people.
7. As a result of this, the Nazi Party has become the largest party by 1932.
8. By passing the Enabling Act in 1933, Hitler became the dictator of Germany. Nazi government had become most powerful.

Question 4.
Answer the questions with the help of Time-line chart.

1. What was the immediate cause for the Second World War?
Answer:
Invasion of Poland by Germany.

2. When did the United States enter into the World War – II?
Answer:
Dec. 8, 1941

3. The Weimar Republic belongs to which country ?
Answer:
Germany

4. Write any two important incidents occurred in 1941.
Answer:
Germany invades the USSR Mass murder of the Jews begins The United States joins Second World War

Question 5.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below:

1. Which was the first country that established the socialist government in the world?
Answer:
Russia (OR) USSR.

2. Why did the Civil war occur in Russia?
Answer:
Civil war was broke out between Bolshevik group and White army for establishment of Socialism and political monarchism, ecomonic capitalism. Bolsheviks were favour to Socialism and White group was favour to Economic capitalism.

3. What were the Russian emperors called?
Answer:
Tzars.

4. Name the international organization which was formed to promote socialist ideology.
Answer:
Formation of Comintern (Third international at Moscow in 1919).

Question 6.
Russian revolution brought in many changes in their society. What were they? And what challenges did they face?
Answer:
Changes in the Russian Society:

1. The immediate change was the elimination of the democratic provisional councils called Sovi¬ets in various larger cities.
2. Under Bolshevik rule Russia got out of World War – II.
3. A Socialist system was imposed on the country which all but the smallest businesses were taken over by the government.
4. Land was redistributed to peasant farmers and food distribution was temporarily improved.
5. Soon though, many people became disenchanted with the Bolsheviks and the Russian Civil war broke out in 1918 and lasted until 1920.

Challenges they faced:

1. Famines
2. Resistances
3. Low standards of living
4. The Great Depression
5. Unemployment
6. Lack of educational facilities
7. Cheap public health care, etc.

Question 7.
What were the agricultural reforms of Joseph Stalin in the USSR?
Answer:

1. After the death of Lenin in 1924 Stalin emerged as the leader of the Communist Party.
2. The USSR began a programme of planned economic development with its Five Year Plans in 1928.
3. This pursued a twin policy of rapid industrialization and collectivization of agriculture.
4. The USSR under the leadership of Joseph Stalin tried to end small peasant production by forcing all small and large farmers to surrender their lands and join “Collective Farms” and share the products.
5. Farmers worked together and the produce was divided among the members of the farms.
6. After an initial period of decline, agricultural production soon rose and helped the USSR to also build its industries on an unprecedented scale.
7. All industries were owned by the state which did not allow a free-market system.
8. An extended schooling system developed, and arrangements were made for factory workers and peasants to enter universities.

Question 8.
What are the impacts of the great economic depression in the USA?
Answer:
Impacts of the great economic depression in the USA:

1. The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the Second World War began.
2. In this period decline in demand and fall in prices.
3. The decline in demand led to closure of factory production which in turn meant further de-cline in the purchasing power of people.
4. It initially began with a stock market collapse in the U.S.A., but before long affected almost every country.
5. As many as 25% Americans were unemployed.
6. This in turn caused a collapse of prices (up to 60%) for agricultural produce causing pauperisation of millions of farmers and stopping of cultivation.
7. It had devastating social consequences sharply increasing poverty, desolation, homelessness, etc.
8. F.D. Roosvelt who became the President of the US announced “the New Deal” policy to re-cover America from Great Depression.

Question 9.
What are the consequences of the World Wars?
Answer:
The World Wars had a long-lasting impact on the politics, society and economy of the world.
These can be enumerated as follows:

1. Enormous human cost: The first consequence of the wars was widespread deaths and injuries. Many persons who were under forty years of age died.
2. Democratic principles asserted : The two wars also brought home the dangers of having un-democratic governments and greatly strengthened the case for democratisation of power.
3. New balance of power: With World War I the German, Austro-Hungarian, Russian and Turk-ish empires came to an end. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.
4. New international organisations After World War I, the League of Nations was formed to resolve disputes peacefully and the United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II.
5. Enfranchisement of women : After a long struggle for political right like right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your interpretation.
“USSR, started a great experiment of building a country without exploiters like feudal lords, kings or capitalists. The USSR tried to build a society that was industrialized and modern and yet didn’t have inequality or exclusion of people on the basis of birth, gender, language, etc.”
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that USSR has established a country with equality.
2. There are no exploiters, no dominants and no sufferers.
3. Though if followed industrialisation and modern technology and updated life, it didn’t have no inequality in any form.
4. It is the real spirit of socialism.
5. A country with equality and modern development is never expected in any country but it happened in USSR at that time.
6. In any country, we can see some sort of discrimination.
7. In some countries, discrimination is seen in the form of colour, i.e. the Blacks and the Whites.
8. In our country, some castes are treated as high castes and some other castes as low.
9. Boys are sent to higher education whereas the girls are not sent because of various reasons like safety and security.
10. Many countries have mentioned in the preamble of their constitutions that they give impor¬tance to equality and there will be no discrimination in any form.
11. In conclusion, I would say that every country should maintain equality.
12. The downtrodden should be uplifted.
13. A country with equal treatment is always an ideal one to all the nations.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your interpretation.
“The Nazi’s police powers were used to arrest and torture millions of political activists, trade unionists and people of minority communities, especially the Jews. They did all this to build a state of horror and fear”.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph conveys about the cruel policy of the Nazi soldiers.
2. Hitler arrested and tortured millions of German political leaders and activists, trade union leaders.
3. Minorities were also targeted.
4. This situation created a horrible state under the leadership of Hitler in Germany.
5. When Hitler won the elections of 1932 he brought the Enabling Act and many special forces like Gestapo, protection squads, security services besides different troopers.
6. These forces worked brutally and created horror and fear among the people.
7. Hitler did not allow any political party or trade union to work out.
8. He instructed all the people to follow the Nazis.
9. There was no peace.
10. He treated the Jewish people as his enemies.
11. Everyone criticized Hitler mainly because of his cruel treatment with the Jewish people.
12. The whole Germany was horrified of his activities.
13. In conclusion, I feel that Hitler’s activities are unlawful and undemocratic.
14. Nowadays all the countries are moving towards democratic governments.
15. All the countries should concentrate on literacy rate and so various programmes are to be taken up and implement strictly.
16. So that there will be no scope for such situation in any country.

Question 12.
What are the situations that led to strengthening Nazism in Germany?
Answer:
The situations that led to strengthening Nazim in Germany:

1. The burden of paying war-damages.
2. Inflation increased.
3. The economy was worst hit by depression.
4. Unemployment increased.
5. Savings of the people diminished.
6. Small businessmen were ruined.
7. Big businessmen were in a crisis.
8. Organized workers could manage to survive.
9. Peasants were affected by fall in agricultural prices.
10. Women were unable to feed their children.
11. No stable rule.

Question 13.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analysing it.

Answer:
Annual National Defence Expenditure

1. The table shows that the annual defence expenditure of great countries Britain and Germany has been increasing since 1933.
2. In the year of 1939, the expenditure increases because of the armament race, protection from enemies why because already they tasted the World War -1.
3. The government of these countries also helped to them to spend more money on defence. Ag-gressive nationalism also created proud of their country and desire of superiority in the world and also responsible to more expenditure on defence.
4. Million dollars spend for defence only during the period of 1933 to 1939.
5. At present some countries also spend more money on defence because of enemies. If every country realise and maintain friendly relations with other countries, and they spend million dollars for peace and development of poor people, automatically the world peace will de¬velop and every person live with without fear of war and tension in the world.

Question 14.
Observe the following Bar-graph and analyse it.
Answer:

1. The given bar graph is about the Explosive Production of two developed industrialised countries of West, i.e. Britain and Germany during World War-1.
2. Both countries belonged to two enemy groups or blocks.
3. In 1914 the explosive production of Britain and Germany is 4 tonnes and 8 tonnes respectively.
4. From that year onwards the production increased on a large scale in both the countries.
5. The difference is that the explosive production is less for Britain when compared to Germany in 1914.
6. But this situation reversed in 1917. The explosive production of Britain increased by over 45 times, i.e. from 4 tonnes to 184 tonnes during the years from 1914 to 1917 whereas the production of Germany increased by approximately 18 times, i.e. from 8 tonnes to 140 tonnes for the same period.

Question 15.
Explain briefly about the consequences of the World Wars.
Answer:
The World Wars had a long-lasting impact on the politics, society and economy of the world.
These can be enumerated as follows:

1. Enormous human cost: The first consequence of the wars was widespread deaths and injuries. Many persons who were under forty years of age died.
2. Democratic principles asserted: The two wars also brought home the dangers of having un-democratic governments and greatly strengthened the case for democratisation of power.
3. New balance of power: With World War I the German, Austro-Hungarian, Russian and Turkish empires came to an end. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.
4. New international organisations: After World War I, the League of Nations was formed to resolve disputes peacefully and the United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II.
5. Enfranchisement of women: After a Jong struggle for political right like right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.

Question 16.
Observe the poster and answer the questions.
a) Which country issued this poster?
b) What was the purpose of this poster?
c) What does the Swastika in the poster stand for?
d) During which war was this poster was published?
Answer:
a) U.S.A issued this poster.
b) War bonds were offered by the U.S.A. Government for purchase by the public to fulfill the military operations and other expenditure in times of war.
c) The three young children, apprehensive and fearful, as they are enveloped by the large dark arm of swastika shadow.
(OR)
Simply, Germany is going to occupy the U.S.A also.
d) This war bonds poster was published during the time of second World War.

Question 17.
Describe the course of Russian Socialist Revolution.
Answer:

1. Russian socialist revolution in 1917 took place in two phases – March 1917 and November 1917.
2. 10,000 women took procession demanding ‘Peace and Bread’ and supported by many later.
3. In just two days Tsar Nicolas II abdicated throne and provisional government was set up in search 1917.
4. It wished to continue the war and economic shortage was not addressed.
5. Soviets (the councils of peasants, workers and soldiers) were organised by Bolshevik leader Lenin.
6. They seized political power from provisional government.
7. They took steps to end the war and redistributed land.
8. They made control over prices and nationalized industries, banks, etc.
9. They suppressed the long-drawn civil wars.
10. By 1924, the USSR – Union of Soviet Socialist Republics was formed.

Question 18.
Give an estimate of the world at the end of first half of the 20th century.
Answer:

1. The first half of the 20th century ended with the nightmare of Hiroshima and Nagasaki and with the hopes generated by the founding of the UNO.
2. The Second World War ended with the ending of large colonial empires of Britain, France, Japan, Italy and Germany.
3. By 1950, countries like India, China, Indonesia, Vietnam, Egypt, Nigeria etc. became independent.
4. Britain which was the most powerful country now became a secondary power.
5. Two new superpowers emerged on the World scene : the USSR and the USA.
6. The USSR, which bore the main burnt of Hitler’s war and faced enormous destruction, gradually rebuilt its economy.
7. Its victory however, greatly enhanced its prestige in the world and it was now joined by the entire Eastern Europe and China to form a large ‘Socialist Camp’.

Question 19.
Observe the timeline chart and answer the following questions.

1. When and how were the foundation for socialism laid?
Answer:
The foundations for socialism were laid between 1850¬1880 due to debates over socialism.

2. How many revolutions took place in Russia?
Answer:

1. Revolution of 1905 .
2. The February Revolution of 1917 and the October revolution of 1917.

3. Did the peace establish in Russia after 1917?
Answer:
No, civil war broke out between 1918-20.

4. What do you mean by collectivization?
Answer:
The land was collected and farmer worked together and shared the produce. This was collectivization.

Question 20.
Locate the following points in the world map.

1. St. Petersberg
2. Moscow
3. Kyrgyzstan
4. Ukraine
5. Uzbekistan
6. Tajikistan
7. Kazakistan
8. Turkomania

Answer:

Question 21.
Observe the following map.

Answer the following questions after reading the map.

1. Which neighbouring country of India was occupied by Japan?
Answer:
The neighbouring country of India that was occupied by Japan was Burma.

2. What is Dutch East India called now ?
Answer:
Dutch East India is now called ‘Indonesia’.

3. Most of the area under control of Japan is a part of which ocean?
Answer:
Most of the area under the control of Japan is a part of Pacific Ocean.

4. Which Chinese region was under the control of Japan ?
Answer:
Manchuria was the Chinese region that was under the control of Japan.

5. Was Mongolia under the control of Japan in 1942?
Answer:
No. It was not under the control of Japan in 1942.

Question 22.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Stalingrad

2. In 1939 Germany attacked on this country
Answer:
Poland

3. St. Petersberg

4. This country faced more destruction due to releasing atom bombs by America
Answer:
Japan

5. Capital of Poland
Answer:
Warsaw

6. Capital of Austria
Answer:
Vienna

7. Corsica Island

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 12 Sustainable Development with Equity.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. How does the Green Revolution lead to an increase in food grains?
Answer:

1. Use of high yielding varieties.
2. Improvement of irrigational facilities.
3. Use of new methods of cultivation.
4. Use of pesticides and fertilisers.

Question 2.
What is the main theme of Rachel Carson’s book ‘Silent Spring’?
Answer:
The impact on birds and human beings of spraying DDT for mosquito control.

Question 3.
What is the aim of Chipko movement?
Answer:
The main aim of Chipko Movement is to protect forests.

Question 4.
Write any two slogans on the environmental protection.
Answer:

1. Save the environment, save life.
2. Save the nature to save the future.
3. Go green and eliminate the global warming.

Question 5.
Write one main characteristic of organic farming.
Answer:
In organic farming the farmers use local resources including on-farm biological processes. Pest predators available them. Micro-organisms which make nutrients more accessible to the plants. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used only for animal manure.

Question 6.
What is HDI as a measure of development?
Answer:
As a measure of development, HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.

Question 7.
Which expands the meaning of development?
Answer:
HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of education and health.

Question 8.
Which are central to the production process?
Answer:
Many naturally existing substances like land, water, minerals and ores, products from trees and animals are central to the production
process.

Question 9.
What does the overuse of ground water imply?
Answer:
Over use of ground water implies that the stock of groundwater is being depleted. Very rapidly the ground water has been falling to lower and lower levels.

Question 10.
Which are central to modern development?
Answer:
Irrigation and power have been produced and both are central to modern development.

Question 11.
What is called NBA?
A. The resistance to Sardar Sarovar and other
dams with similar consequences in the Narmada valley has taken the form of a social movement. It is called Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA).

Question 12.
“It is unjust to ask the poor people”
What is it?
Answer:
We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities. It is unjust to ask poor people to bear the cost of development.

Question 13.
Which governments banned chemical fertilizers and pesticides?
Answer:
The Sikkim government and Uttarakhand government.

Question 14.
When did the Chipko movement start and where?
Answer:
The Chipko movement started in the early 1970s in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand.

Question 15.
Expand HDI.
Answer:
Human Development Index.

Question 16.
What is meant by “Water Recharge”?
Answer:
Water Recharge means the percolation of water into the ground to be extracted.

Question 17.
Write about Chipko Andolan?
Answer:
Chipko means embrace the villagers hugged the trees saving them interposing their bodies between them and the contractor’s axes.

Question 18.
What are the natural resources to use in production?
Answer:
Natural resources used in production are land, water, and minerals, forests, etc.

Question 19.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Question 20.
What are the activities to take up through an alternative Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Alternate PDS advocates the practice of millets, establishment of community grain bank, issue of cards and ensuring food security in the village.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the table which shows the growth in the extraction of some key-minerals in India.
Answer:
Extraction of minerals in a thousand Tonnes

After your observation, what do you think about the environmental loss of such rapid growth of mining.

1. Ground water pollution would increase.
2. Temperatures would increase.
3. Air pollution would increase near the mining areas.
4. Water storage capacity would decrease due to soil erosion.
5. Extreme burning of coal leads to ozone depletion.
6. Accidents may occur due to heavy mining.
7. People may face natural calamities like earthquakes.

Question 2.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone – now and for generations to come.

Question 3.
How does organic farming promote bio-diversity?
Answer:

1. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used in organic farming.
2. Only echo friendly farming techniques are used.
3. Methods like crop rotation, using compost and use of Local resources are used.
4. Number of crops are produced in farms instead of one or two crops.

Question 4.
Write two slogans on enlightening people regarding “environment protection”.
Answer:
Slogans on Environment Protection.

1. Grow plants – Get oxygen
2. Avoid plastic bags – Promote cotton bags.

Question 5.
What are the aspects taken as indicators to measure Human Development?
Answer:
Indicators of development:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling
4. Expected years of schooling
5. Life expectancy at birth
6. Health status
7. Employment status
8. Equal distribution

Question 6.
Create two slogans to prevent Global warming.
Answer:

1. All be nice – Save the ice
2. Global warming – Not charming
3. Protect Mother Earth – It protects all

Question 7.
Identify the importance of the environment in the development of a nation.
Answer:
The development has to be achieved at any cost. Growth in GDP and modern industrial development are necessary, it is argued, for raising the living standards of people and reducing poverty. Since modern industrial and agricultural development are intensive in use of natural resources including energy, depletion of resources and pollution of the environment is to be expected. It is a sacrifice that has to be borne for higher growth. Once high economic growth and prosperity is achieved, pollution and environmental degradation can be handled. One can spend money and clean up the air and rivers, drink bottled water and build cars that are fuel efficient. After all this is the route the developed countries have taken.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of ‘Sustainable Development’.
Answer:

Importance of Sustainable Development

The development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.

The present scenario is quite adversary. There is no such feeling of future generations and their needs. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on. If we do not consider this, how the next generations survive that everyone should think of.

To what extent the natural resources we need to that extent only we should use. This concept is to be spread among the people.

Government should take up awareness programmes on this issue. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts. In some areas multinational companies have taken up the lands and pumping out the water and selling them. How does the government give permission to such companies which lead to fall down of ground water level? Government should think about this and take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 9.
Why is it necessary to focus on sustainable development now a days?
Answer:
Focus on sustainable development nowadays is compulsory to meet the needs of the present as well as future generations. We have to provide better quality of life for everyone. Conservation of fertility of soil is also essential for future crops. Factory emissions are to be prevented to make the air and water pure.

Question 10.
Differentiate between the environment’s ‘Source function’ and ‘Sink function’.
Answer:
Differences between the Environment’s source function and Sink function.

Question 11.
How is environmental protection linked with our lifestyle?
Answer:
Our life style is linked with environment protection. We should be habituated to use organic productions. We should avoid plastic. Use renewable energy sources. Reducing quarrying and deforestation to zero. Industrial waste should be disposed in a proper manner. Public transport with compressed Natural Gas is to be encouraged. Radiating devices are to be minimized.

Question 12.
On what does the primary sector depend?
Answer:
In primary sector activities – agriculture, mining, quarrying – and in the manufacturing and energy sector, production is hugely dependent on natural resources. The other sectors of the economy too are dependent on natural resources in various degrees.

Question 13.
What is environment’s source function?
Answer:
The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an “environment’s source function”. This function is depleted as resources are consumed or pollution contaminates the resources.

Question 14.
What is another function that the environment provides?
Answer:
There is another function that the environment provides. It is to absorb and render harmless the waste and pollution from various activities. Unwanted by-products of production and consumption say exhaust gases from combustion, water used to clean products, discarded packaging and goods no longer wanted are absorbed by the environment. This is as important as the source function.

Question 15.
What does the ‘sink function’ describe?
Answer:
The “sink function” describes an environment’s ability to absorb and render harmless waste and pollution. When waste output exceeds the limit of the sink function, long-term damage to the environment occurs.

Question 16.
What happened in the past fifty years?
Answer:
In the past fifty years of economic development, both these functions of the environment have been overused. This has been said to affect the carrying capacity of the environment, i.e., the capacity of the environment to support economic production and consumption in the future.

Question 17.
What is modern development for people who have been displaced? Why?
Answer:
For people who have been displaced modern development has been unjust and destructive. Because they have lost access to their greater resource, the local environment. Without the local environment, their lives would be reduced to nothing.

Question 18.
How are environmental movements?
Answer:
While each of these movements has slightly different contexts, they are essentially demanding the rights of the local communities over the environment. Chipko movement acted to prevent the cutting of trees and reclaim their traditional forest rights that were threatened by contractors. Narmada Bachao Andolan has stood for the rights of the people over land, forests and river.

Question 19.
What is the impact on the environment that the use of pesticides and chemicals?
Answer:

1. The excessive use of pesticides and chemical fertilizer exhibit a negative impact on society.
2. Environment cannot absorb harmful substances than a limit.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit the sink function limit, danger occurs to the environment.
4. It pressures on environment’s ability to provide different resources for production.

Question 20.
Is it correct to take HDI (Human Development Index) as a measure of development?
Answer:

1. As a measure of development HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.
2. The idea of development hardly limited to production of goods and services.
3. Rapid expansion of production and income coexist with malnutrition and lack of education and health.
4. HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of health and education.

Question 21.
A high % workforce in low-paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only a select groups. Read this and interpretate?
Answer:

1. In India 90% of workforce is in the unorganized sector, where the conditions of working are not encouraging at all.
2. Incomes of both self employed and wage workers in unorganized sectors are generally low and at times pitiably so.
3. With, such a high percentage of the workforce is low paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only to select groups.

Question 22.
Construction of big dams “leads to environmental problems”. Read this and interpretate.
Answer:

1. They disrupt the lives and livelihoods of lakhs of people.
2. Many people lose their access to local environment.
3. Many people drop from a state of self – sufficiency to scarcity.
4. They were at times made to depend on external forces.
5. Many lose their needs without access to the environment.
6. Rich biodiversity and treasure of knowledge is lost which comes traditionally.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How does the lifestyle of people influence the environment? What are your suggestions to protect the environment ?
Answer:
Influence:

1. There is a strong bondage between the lifestyle of human kingdom and environment.
2. Environment fulfills many of our needs.
3. There are various ways in which our lifestyles of people influence the environment.
4. The people of a region lives according to their environment. Their traditions, cultures, festivals, etc. are based on their environment.

My Suggestions:

1. Natural resources should be used limitedly.
2. Forests should not be cut down. We should take care of them.
3. Industrial wastes should be recycled.
4. The establishment of industries which release more pollution should be restricted.
5. People should be enriched with the knowledge of environment.

Question 2.
Observe the following Graph diagram.
Write a brief note on the inequality in India based on the graph.
Answer:

1. 3 million households with annual income above Rs. 17 lakh are classified as rich.
2. 31 million households with annual income between Rs. 3.4 to Rs. 17 lakh are classified as middle class.
3. 71 million households income is between Rs. 1.5 to Rs. 3.4 lakh classified as aspirers.
4. 135 million lakhs classified as deprived.
5. In our country, more than 90% of the people are in unorganised sector.
6. It clearly says that the rich are becoming more rich, whereas the poor remain poor.
7. There is inequality in holding wealth as well as opportunities.
8. Wide inequalities in incomes and opportunities across people cannot be the basis for a just society.

Question 3.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.

It is also important to realize that not only do people lose out as they are removed from their local environments, equally, the environment is denuded of Its rich biodlverslty as the traditional knowledge is lost along with the people.

Answer:

The largest of the dams constructed is the Sardar Sarovar, which floods more than 37,000 hectares of forest and agricultural land, displacing more than half a million people and destroying some of India’s most fertile land. The project has devastated human lives and bio-diversity by inundating thousands of acres of forest and agricultural land. A disproportionate number of those being displaced are Adivasi’s and Dalits.

Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs which otherwise they would have to pay for.
As they lose access to environment either because of displacement, or because the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest sufferers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Question 4.
Write a letter to your district collector on the problems of environment in your area.
Answer:

Anandnagar Colony,
Visakhapatnam,
Date: xxxxxxxxx.

To,
The District Collector,
Visakhapatnam District,
Visakhapatnam.

Respected Sir,

I am Srinivasa Rao, the resident of Gajuwaka. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about problems of environment in our local area.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to take proper effective measures wherever polluted industries are there and they should be shut down and minimise polluted plying vehicles and reduce the release of greenhouse gases.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………
…………………………

Question 5.
Study the table given below and answer the questions.
Growth in Extraction of Some Key Minerals in India (in thousand tonnes)

a) What do the particulars of above table tell about?
Answer:
Growth in extraction of some key minerals in India

b) In comparison to other minerals, which one is not being extracted more than double in 2008-09?
Answer:
Coal is not being extracted more than double in 2008 – 09.

c) What might be the reasons for increase in mining?
Answer:

1. Number of industries increased.
2. Using machinery in mining.
3. Consumption of minerals increase.
4. Greed of human beings.

d) What do you think would be the environmental and human costs of such rapid growth in mining?
Answer:

1. Sustainability of minerals
2. Diversion in the direction of river flow
3. Causes for floods.
4. Extinction of forest cover.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
We are already experiencing the negative consequences of rapid economic growth on several fronts – the problem of groundwater and pesticides being two stark examples. We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities.

1. The idea of development has been contested through problems of environment.
2. The groundwater levels fell rapidly and groundwater recharge is also not to the expected level.
3. Fertilizers made the soil less fertile and ever increasing costs to farmers.
4. Industrialisation has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened.

My Opinion: Always we should be able to integrate enviromental concerns with the idea of progress, along with issues of equity and justice. We have to find an environmentally sustainable pathway out of poverty.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph, understand and write your opinion on it.

While industrialisation has brought a lot of material comforts, at least to some, it has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened and now even the climate is being disrupted. This pattern of growth clearly cannot continue.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph :

1. Industrialisation in the world has brought a lot of material comforts for humans to lead a happy life.
2. Man has invented from small pin to big plane with these metals obtained by mining.
3. But at the same time the minerals are reducing in their quantity because man’s short sighted ness.
4. As a result of man’s greediness the natural resources such as metals and fossil fuels are declin-ing and threatening our planet to fell in danger.
5. Because of over use of these resources, climatic changes are going on with the depletion of ozone layer damage and environment degradation.

I conclude that this type of growth does not create sustainable development to the planet and further it becomes unjustifiable in degrading our environment.

Question 8.
How would the rapid extraction of natural resources effect the future development prospects?
Explain.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this statement.
2. We are extracting minerals and natural resources rapidly.
3. Modern industrial development and agricultural development are intensive in use of minerals and natural resources.
4. If this extraction goes on like this, the mineral deposits and natural resources will be depleted.
5. The extent of our current use of minerals and natural resources is such that the chances of future generations to have access to their fair share of scarce resources are endangered.
6. Moreover, the consequences in terms of impacts on the environment may induce serious damages that go beyond the carrying capacity of the environment.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

Recent data on the status of groundwater resources in India suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. Nearly one-third of the country is pumping out more groundwater than what goes in as recharge. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years, which points to an alarming rate of extraction.

Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater resources are decreasing as we are overusing it.
2. Maximum of water is pumped out from deep layers.
3. Recharging is less and pumping is more.
4. In future it will become a major problem to all people.
5. The rate of extraction of water is dangerous for our existence.
6. Extraction of groundwater doesn’t affect the particular area where the extraction is going on but it affects all surrounding areas also.
7. The depth of the bore wells is increasing day by day.
8. There should be a change in the human attitude.
9. Our behavior should be environment friendly.
10. We should not over use ground water.
11. Deep wells should be discouraged.
12. Plastic usage should be prohibited.
13. The government should take stringent action against the people who do not follow these conditions.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

This pattern of development is in direct contrast to what sustainable development stands for Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone-now and for generations to come.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development.
2. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.
3. The present scenario is quite adversary to the paragraph. There is no such feeling of future
   generations and their needs.
4. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on.
5. The government should take up awareness programmes on this issue.
6. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts.
7. The government should think about this take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

For most rural communities, the link between the environment and the lives of the people is very strong. Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs (like food, firewood, fodder, economically valuable articles, etc.) which otherwise they would have to pay for. As they lose this access to environment either because of displacement, or the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest losers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given here, the rural people are attached with environment for their food and other commodities.
2. When there is a displacement they don’t have this facility of getting commodities.
3. These poor people suffer a lot when the environment is destroyed and polluted.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that many a time it is happening in many places.
5. When displacement takes place, the forest dwellers have to face many problems.
6. They don’t have sufficient food and land for cultivation.
7. They don’t get loans as they are new to the money lenders of that place.
8. The government should think about the troubles of these people when they are asked to move from their living places.
9. I am not opposing to construct dams and projects but the displacement should not lead to troubles.
10. Alternate arrangements should be made keeping their problems in mind.

Question 12.
Locate the following points in the Indian map provided.

1. Mumbai
2. Hyderabad
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Gujarat
5. Tamil Nadu
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Uttar Pradesh
9. River Narmada
10. Sardar Sarovar Project
11. Andhra Pradesh
12. Delhi.

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 8 People and Migration.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 8th Lesson People and Migration

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are Kopis?
Answer:
Kopis are conical huts made of bamboo mats and poles.

Question 2.
Write any one reason for international migration.
Answer:
Education and Employment are the main reasons for international migration.

Observe the graph below and answer questions 3, 4.

Question 3.
Which social background people are migrating more?
Answer:
OBC are migrating more.

Question 4.
What is the reason for short term migration?
Answer:
The reason for short term migration in rural areas is distress caused there.

Question 5.
Draw a rough pie chart to represent the information given in the table.
Population Expansion in Urban Regions 2001 – 2011

Answer:

Question 6.
How does migration arise?
Answer:
Migration arises out of various social, economic or political reasons.

Question 7.
How can we identify a person as a migrant?
Answer:
For identifying a person as a migrant, two criteria are used by the centres :

• birthplace
• last usual place of residence.

Question 8.
What is the most common reason for male migration?
Answer:
Employment or seeking employment is the most common reason for male migration.

Question 9.
Give some other reasons for migration.
Answer:
Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities for studies, loss in business, family, friends, etc. are also some other reasons for migration.

Question 10.
Where do the urban migrants have to work?
Answer:
Most urban migrants have to work in the unorganised sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 11.
Which has been recognised as a natural response?
Answer:
For some people from rural areas moving to cities and towns to work in industry and other service activities have been recognised as a natural response to increase their in¬come and for better family prospects.

Question 12.
Why do migrants continue to live as daily workers?
Answer:
The migrants from rural to urban are not able to find jobs in the organised sector and therefore there’s no job security and decent income that they were aspiring for. They continue to live as daily workers.

Question 13.
Why is the number of seasonal migrants underestimated in India?
Answer:
The number of seasonal migrants is underestimated in India due to limitations in the definition of the term ‘migrant’ used in national surveys.

Question 14.
What is the Emigration Act, 1983?
Answer:
The Emigration Act, 1983 is the Indian law governing migration and employment of Indians abroad.

Question 15.
What are living areas of the sugarcane cutters?
Answer:
The Kopis are cramped together and bullocks are parked in front. Animals and humans live together in congested conditions.

Question 16.
Who are the rural seasonal migrants?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low-income households, dalits and Adivasis.

Question 17.
Where do rural seasonal migrants work?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants work in agriculture and plantations, brick kilns, quarries, construction sites and fish processing.

Question 18.
Who have a long history of migrating?
Answer:
Male from Saora tribals have a long history of migrating to work in Assam plantation, Munda and Santhal men migrate to work in mining sites in Odisha.

Question 19.
Which depend on migrant workers?
Answer:
Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers.

Question 20.
“It is also common to see migrants”
What is it?
Answer:
It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in their petty businesses and casual labour.

Question 21.
What is the economic condition of the seasonal migrants?
Answer:
Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Question 22.
What did the N.C.R.L. find?
Answer:
The National Commission of Rural Labour in its reports in 1990s found that uneven development and regional disparity triggered and accelerated seasonal migration.

Question 23.
How do the migrant labourers spend?
Answer:
Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair price shops at their workplaces.

Question 24.
Why do they suffer from health problems?
Answer:
As they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Question 25.
Name some health problems from which they suffer.
Answer:
Bodyache, sunstroke, skin irritation and lung diseases.

Question 26.
Why are migrants not able to access various health and family care programmes?
Answer:
Migrants are not able to access various health and family care programmes as they do not belong to the organised sector.

Question 27.
Do the migrant workers have maternity leave?
Answer:
No, they do not have maternity leave.

Question 28.
Which leaves a deep impact on migrants?
Answer:
Exposure to a different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmosphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 29.
What does migration allow?
Answer:
Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets. It is also common to find migrant families buying house, land, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.

Question 30.
How do some migrants migrate regularly?
Answer:
Some migrants might take up jobs in the destination, acquire skills required in the destination area, become aware of how to get regular jobs and migrate regularly or permanently.

Question 31.
How many kinds of migrations are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are two kinds of migrations.
They are:

1. Internal migrations
2. International migrations.

Question 32.
Where do the skilled Indians migrate?
Answer:
The skilled Indians migrate to the U.S.A., the U.K., Canada, Germany, Norway, Japan and Malaysia.

Question 33.
What is the second type of international migration?
Answer:
The second type of international migration is unskilled and semi-skilled workers migrating to oil-exporting countries of West Asia on temporary contracts.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When males leave their families, this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

What is the effect on girls if the head of the family migrates?
Answer:
When the head of the family migrates, the burden of the family falls on the woman. She has to work, earn and lead the family. As she works outside of the house, the girl children should take care of the younger children and elder people in the home, So they are becoming dropouts.

Question 2.
What do you suggest to overcome the problems of foreign migrants?
Answer:

1. The government should take care of their security i.e., the embassies.
2. They should not believe on unauthorized intermediators.
3. Legal documents should be verified properly.

Question 3.
Do you think migrants are trouble makers? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes. I think migrants are trouble makers.
2. The migrants may not be provided with proper facilities by the government.
3. The migrants may question for proper facilities in the long course.
4. If the migrants begin to fight for their identity, then the trouble will start.
   Ex: Tamil people in Sri Lanka.

(OR)

1. No. I think migrants are not trouble makers.
2. Generally migrants go for their livelihood.
3. Therefore no scope to fight for domination.
4. Migrants won’t trouble anybody because they won’t fight for identity and domination.
   Ex: Sugarcane cutters in Maharashtra.

Question 4.
What are the problems faced by migrant labourers from villages to cities?
Answer:

1. They have to face the problem for proper shelter and settlement.
2. They may require references for jobs.
3. As they have to work in the unorganised sector, they would have neither job security nor any incentives.
4. They have to spend more on food.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes.

In urban areas, what are the common sectors of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment? Give examples.
Answer:
In urban areas the unorganised sector is the common sector of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment.

Question 6.
List out the reasons why the people have been migrating from your area.
Answer:
The following are the reasons for the people migrating from my area :

1. Marriage is one of the most common reasons for female migration.
2. Employment or seeking employment is another reason for males to migrate.
3. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place, better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds etc. is the other causes for migrating.

Question 7.
What are the reasons for migration?
Answer:

1. Migrations can happen due to many reasons.
2. Females reported marriage as the most common reason.
3. Males migrate on employment or seeking employment opportunities.
4. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place is one reason.
5. Better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds are some other reasons for migration.

Question 8.
Create a pamphlet on “Prevention of Migration”.
Answer:

PREVENTION OF MIGRATION

Reasons: When families migrate, they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Migratory pressures on communities of origin can be related social and economic distress. They can be linked to environmental degradation as well as natural man made hazards and they can be due persecution on conflict and violence. By supporting disaster preparedness and building resilence at the community level.

Conclusion: Why should we prevent means reduce the problems. National societies contributing to elevating pressures that can induce people to migrate against their will and desire.

Question 9.
How does the gender bias effect when the women work outside of the home nowadays?
Answer:
Before the rise of large scale industrialization, home and workplace were one and the same. But now the disparity between men and women in the workplaces is a common issue.

Workers acknowledge gender discrimination is possible in modem organizations, but at the same time maintain their workplaces to be gender-neutral.

Women are facing a high degree of gender bias when it comes to their career. There is a general perception that women are less capable than men in matters of business and decision making.

It is often a strenuous struggle for a woman not just to her mettle but also to make a deserving way to the top. Career goals of women are considered less important compared to male counterparts. The disparity is also seen in the wages and salaries also. Thus the relationship is negative.

Question 10.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. The above pie diagram is about the social background of short term migrants.
2. OBC and ST account for 40% and 23% of the migrants respectively.
3. Most of the OBC are skilled in making some items.
4. So they produce the articles and migrate to cities to sell their products.
5. SC people are benefited by the schemes provided by the government and their share is less.

Question 11.
‘Most children of migrant families become drop-outs.’ Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree that children become dropout if the parents are migrants.
2. When families migrate, children also accompany their parents.
3. They cannot get admission in schools in their parents workplace without transfer certificate.
4. Schools in their native place refuse to take them when they come back.
5. When parents migrate, the elder child especially the girl child, has to take care of the younger siblings.
6. Due to the above reasons, the children become dropouts.

Question 12.
Why are Embassies set up?
Answer:
Embassies set up by the Indian Government in different countries are expected to follow the legal procedures and protect the welfare of the international migrants as given in the Emigration Act.

Question 13.
Which depends upon the needs of rural family members?
Answer:
Remittances – money sent by migrants from their destination – are an important means of supplementing, or generating additional incomes for the rural family. The amount of remittances and the pressure to remain in the urban areas depends upon the needs of rural family members.

Question 14.
Why do migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas because they want to safeguard their rights over land and homestead. Families left in rural areas are important for most urban migrants. In feet, it is the family which decides whether their family member should migrate or not.

Question 15.
Write about Sugar belt.
Answer:
The seven districts in western Maharashtra- Nasik, Ahmadnagar, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur and Sholapur – comprise the”sugar belt” which extends into Surat(Gujarat) in the north and Belgaum(Karnataka) in the south. Five districts of the arid Marathwada region – Beed, Jalgaon, Ahmadnagar, Nasik and Jalna – send out labour to this sugar belt for six months every year for sugarcane harvesting.

Question 16.
Why do people migrate from rural areas?
Answer:
People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities, inadequate income available in rural employment. They also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services.

Question 17.
Why do many families have residences at both the ends?
Answer:
Many families have residences both at their origin- (native place) and at the destination. They shift between the two depending on work and seasons. The migration does not necessarily involve the movement of all members of the family, and often the wife remains in the rural area.

Question 18.
Why do migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas so that potential migrants can engage in the rural-based job search. In most cases, migration is a survival strategy for many families.

Question 19.

Estimate the rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow, Kolkata and Delhi.
Answer:

1. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow = 2 lakhs
2. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Kolkata = 2 lakhs
3. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Delhi = 6 lakhs

Question 20.
From which states in migrations are high? Give reasons.
Answer:
Migrations are high from states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Kerala. Western Uttar Pradesh and Delhi are industrially developed.

Question 21.
Read the above graph and answer the following questions.

1. In the Decade of 1961-71 the urban population of India is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 1961 – 71 is 31 million.
2. At the end of 2001-11 decade the urban population is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 2001 -11 is 91 mn.
3. How many times did the urban population increase from 1961-71 decade to 2001-11 decade?
   Answer:
   The urban population increased from 1961 – 71 to 2001 -11 is by 3 times.

Question 22.
Graph: Social Background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08

Read the given Pie diagram and answer the following questions.

1. How much per cent of STis migrated in 2007-08?
   Answer:
   ST’s constitute 23% of the migrated in 2007 – 08.
2. Which is the maximum migrated class In 2007-08? what is its percentage?
   Answer:
   The maximum migration is from the class of OBCs and it is 40%.
3. In which class we notice minimum migrants?
   Answer:
   The minimum migrants are there from others which is 18%.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the meaning of international migration? Identify the reasons and consequences of it.
Answer:
Migration of the people from one country to another country due to various reasons is called “international migration”.
Reasons:

1. For higher education
2. For better employment opportunities
3. For business needs Consequences:
4. Financial conditions of the migrant families improve.
5. They are able to pay back loans and buy assets.
6. Changes occur in their lifestyle.
7. Brain drain has become a major hazard to the progress of the country’s economy.

Question 2.

When families migrate, children accompanying their parents do not have creche facilities. Grown-up children are not able to continue their studies at their parents’ new workplaces. Schools in their native place refuse to take them again when they come back. They finally become dropouts. When males leave their families this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

“Most of the children of migrant families become dropouts” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Yes, it is true. When families migrate most of the children of migrant families become dropouts.
2. At the place of migration, creche facilities are not available for the children.
3. Even if there are such facilities poor families cannot afford them.
4. Sometimes even schools are not available at migrant places.
5. Schools in their native places refuse to take them again when they come back.
6. This is damaging their interest in studies.
7. Young girls in migrant families often required to take care of their siblings.
8. Now – a – days government schools are admitting such students.
9. But even then, they are lagging behind in their studies.
10. Special training should be given to them during the holidays.

Question 3.
Write your reflections on the vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia.
Answer:
Vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia :

1. At times, migrant workers are not paid their salaries, recruitment agents cheat prospective workers or collect more than the prescribed fees for their role in getting work for workers abroad.
2. Employers also terminate the job contract before its expiry, change the employment contract to the disadvantage of migrant workers.
3. Pay less than the agreed salary and freeze fringe benefits and other perks.
4. They often force workers to do overtime without making additional payments and deny permission to keep one’s own passport.
5. Indian migrant workers seldom lodge any complaint against their foreign employers for the fear of losing their jobs.

Question 4.
Observe the given pie chart and answer the question that follows:
Write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:
This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.

Normally in population, the number of people from other backward classes is more. It is also observed in rural areas. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases they have no lands. Recently the trend is changing. Due to some welfare schemes, they are also leading a better life. The percentage of others is also nearly equal to the scheduled castes. Their migration purpose may be different. Many of these migrants work in unorganized sector like, construction work, brick industries, selling plastic goods and vegetables or in casual work.

The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused. Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the nonfarm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Conclusion : If government provide loans to landless labour for Agriculture purpose, motor pump sets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in agricultural sector.

Question 6.
Write down the advantages and disadvantages of the people when they migrate.
Answer:

1. Urban migrants have plenty of opportunities for education and acquire new skills and take us new jobs effectively.
2. Thus they earn more incomes.
3. Remittances are an important means of supplementing or generating additional income for rural families.
4. Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets.
5. Migrant families buy house, land, gold, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.
6. Majority of migrants either remit or bring back savings.
7. Thus their purchasing power increases.

Disadvantages:

1. Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair prices shops.
2. They live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions.
3. They suffer from health problems and are prone to disease.
4. They do not have creche facilities.
5. Grown up children are not able to continue their studies at their parent’s new workplaces.
6. Exposure to different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmo¬sphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 7.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Migrations in India [Census 1991-2001]

Answer:
Table Analysis:
According to 1991 & 2001 census,

1. The total population in 1991 was 838.5 million excluding J & K. At the same time in 2001 it was 1028.6 million including J&K. There was a variation of 21.5% growth in the population.
2. Total migrated people in 1991 were 229.8 million and they were in 2001, 307.1 million. There was 32.9% variation from 1991 to 2001.
3. Migrants from within the districts in 1991 were 136.2 million and in 2001 were 181.7 million. The variation is 32.6%.
4. Migrants from other districts of the state in 1991 were only 59.1 million and in 2001 were 76.8 million. The variation is 29.5%.
5. In 1991 migrants from other states in India were 27.2 million and in 2001 they were 42.3 million. The variation is 54.5%.
6. Migrants from other countries were 6.9 million in 1991. This number reduced to 6.1 million in 2001. Hence, the variation is (-) 11.6%.

From the above information, it is evident that the total migrations increased from 1991 to 2001. Migrants within the district and migrants from other districts of the state increased. Because of employment, facilities and education also increased.
Some areas are not developed, that’s why people are migrating from one place to other places.

Conclusion: Finally from the above information we understand that migrants from other countries to India decreased. So we understand that foreigners are not preferring to migrate India because of lack of resources and employment and low paid salaries.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

The men drive the carts to the factory where they might have to wait in queue for several hours before they get to offload the cane. The women, meanwhile, walk several kilometres back to the settlement. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.

How far is the household work done by the women in these circumstances justified?
Answer:

1. Both men and women work in the sugarcane fields.
2. The cane piles are tied into bundles, carried on the head by men and women.
3. Men drive the carts to the factories.
4. After doing heavy work on cane fields, women walk several kilometres back to the settlement.
5. Then they have to perform household work.
6. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.
7. But the wage paid to the women is less when compared to the men.
8. Hence we can conclude this discrimination is not justified on any grounds.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better servicing. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the people migrate to urban areas as there is no sufficient work in rural areas.
2. They expect high income from urban areas but they settle in unorganized sector.
3. They also have no job security and they face many problems.
4. My opinion is that nowadays every individual want high income for their families.
5. The people are ready to go anywhere for that.
6. They are forcibly settling in the unorganized sector.
7. Some of them don’t find even daily wages.
8. In conclusion I suggest the government to take care of these labourers of the unorganized sector and launch new schemes for these migrants.

A large section of rural workers migrate for a short duration and particularly due to distress caused in rural areas. They are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low Income households, dalits and adivasis.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given, it is understood that most of the labourers migrating from rural areas to urban areas are from marginalized families.
2. Their income is low and they are SCs and STs.
3. They come to cities and towns in distress.
4. My opinion is that most of the dalits and adivasis have no agricultural lands. They are agricul¬tural labourers working in others fields.
5. When they find no work in some peculiar seasons they migrate to urban areas.
6. Especially the adivasis are still leading their lives based on the forest produce.
7. I suggest the government to take up new initiatives for the sake of these low-income groups. MNREGA programmes should be launched in needy areas.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers. It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in other petty businesses and casual labour. A large section of such migrants are from tribal communities and from drought-prone areas of the state. Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that different activities in urban areas depend on migrant workers.
2. Drought is also one of the reasons for migration. Many of the migrants are from tribal communities. They have no lands and so they are very poor.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that it is true the many of the migrants are working on construction sites and they are in the unorganized sector.
4. They don’t find work on all the days.
5. When there is a work they get wages. Many a time they spend their time waiting for work.
6. I conclude by saying these unorganized sector people are to be identified.
7. Special schemes are to be designed and launched. They should be provided with work but not simply financial help.
8. Banks should provide loans without collateral and so they can survive for themselves.

Question 12.

Prepare a paragraph on the above pie chart.
Answer:

1. This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others.
2. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.
3. Normally In population, the number of people from other backward classes is more.
4. It is also observed in rural areas.
5. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases, they have no lands.
6. The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places.
7. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused.
8. If Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 13.
Draw and locate the following.

1. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Amaravathi.
2. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Krishna, East & West Godavari districts.

Answer:

Question 14.
In the following map, estimate the urban migration to Delhi from UP and Bihar.

Answer:

1. Approximately 2 lakh persons migrated from Bihar to Delhi.
2. Approximately 4 lakh persons migrated from UP to Delhi.

Question 15.
In the following map, estimate the rural to urban migration from Karnataka to AP.

Answer:
Approximately 0.5 lakh persons migrated from Karnataka to AP.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 17 The Making of Independent India’s Constitution.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments?
Answer:
The Federal form of the constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments.

Question 2.
Observe the following bar diagram which shows amendments of the Constitution from 1950 to 2013.

a) In which decade were the lowest amendments made?
Answer:
The lowest amendments were made in the decade 1951 – 60.

b) How many amendments were made between 1950 – 2013?
Answer:
Ninety-nine amendments were made between 1950 – 2013.

Question 3.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both center and state?
Answer:
Federal Constitution.

Question 4.
Which preamble reflects the desire for Peace?
Answer:
Japan

Question 5.
What provisions made by the constitution to facilitate social change?
Answer:
Abolition of untouchability and Reservations.

Question 6.
Write the features of the Federal system.
Answer:

1. Dual policy,
2. Separation of powers

Question 7.
What are the two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution are

1. A single Judiciary
2. Uniformity in civil and criminal laws.
3. All India Civil Services.

Question 8.
Write any two similarities between the Indian and the Japanese Constitutional preambles.
Answer:

1. Sovereign Power
2. Democracy
3. Liberty
4. Justice
5. Faith

Look at the Graph below and answer the questions No. 9 and 10.
Graph – 99 Constitutional Amendments made between 1950 and 2013

Question 9.
In which period, more Constitutional amendments were made?
Answer:
More constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 10.
Why were there less Constitutional amendments during 1951-60?
Answer:
The Constitutional amendments during 1951-60 were less because

1. Initial period of the Constitution implementation.
2. More problems were not arised.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “the Republic”?
Answer:
Any country, where the head of the state is not on hereditary but any elected or nominated person is called the Republic.

Question 12.
Which two words were added to our Preamble?
Answer:
Socialistic and secular.

Question 13.
When was Constitution Assembly formed?
Answer:
In 1946.

Question 14.
Write any four basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

Question 15.
Which word was left undefined in our Constitution?
Answer:
“Untouchability” was left undefined in our Constitution.

Question 16.
What is the Population of India and the Constitution was prepared?
Answer:
400 million.

Question 17.
Which set out the main social system before the government?
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy set out the main social system before the government.

Question 18.
When were the first elections held in Nepal?
Answer:
In 1959, the first elections were held in Nepal under a new constitution issued by King Mahendra.

Question 19.
Who presented the draft of the Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar presented the draft of the Constitution before the C.A in 1948.

Question 20.
Expand IAS, IPS.
Answer:
IAS: Indian Administrative Service IPS: Indian Police Service.

Question 21.
Which is a formidable document? What does it contain?
Answer:
The Draft constitution is a formidable document. It contains 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Question 22.
From when major changes in the constitution made?
Answer:
Major changes in the constitution were made during 1970s.

Question 23.
How is the process of making a Constitution?
Answer:
The process of making a Constitution is a process of debate, discussion, ironing out differences and working out a framework acceptable to all conflicting opinions.

Question 24.
When was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 following the election to the provincial assemblies.

Question 25.
How were the Constituent Assembly members elected?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly members were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial assemblies.

Question 26.
How many SC members are represented in the Assembly?
Answer:
26 members.

Question 27.
Expand CA.
Answer:
Constituent Assembly.

Question 28.
Write about ‘Drafting Committee’.
Answer:
A ‘Drafting Committee’ was set up under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar and its task was to prepare the final draft taking in account all view points.

Question 29.
When was the Constitution adopted?
Answer:
The Constitution was finally adopted by the CA on 26th November 1949 and it came into force on 26th January 1950.

Question 30.
Which are recorded as the proceedings of CA?
Answer:
The speeches on the draft Constitution before CA are recorded in the proceedings of C.A. of India.

Question 31.
What are the two principal forms of the Constitution?
Answer:
The two principal forms of the Constitution are known to history – one is called Unitary and the other Federal.

Question 32.
Name some codes.
Answer:
The Civil Procedure Code, Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code, the Evidence Act, Transfer of Property Act.

Question 33.
How were IAS/IPS appointed?
Answer:
They were appointed through UPSC.

Question 34.
Who criticised in CA debates?
Answer:
Maulana Hasrat Mohani, Damodar Swarup Seth.

Question 35.
What was the cause of untouchability?
Answer:
The caste system was the cause of untouchability.

Question 36.
Define Untouchability.
Answer:
Untouchability is a social practice which discriminates people on caste basis.

Question 37.
How many members were there in ‘Drafting Committee’ of the Constitution?
Answer:
There were 7 members in the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

Question 38.
Who were the members of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami, B.R. Ambedkar, K.M Munshi Mohammad Saadula, B.L.Mitter and D.P. Khaitan were the seven members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two differences between Presidential system of Government and Parliamentary system of Government.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the four main features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Main features of Indian Constitution:

1. Written Constitution
2. Rigid and flexible Constitution
3. Parliamentary type of democracy
4. Single citizenship
5. Unitary and federal features.

Question 3.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:

1. The Supremacy of the central polity.
2. The absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 4.
Write the role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in preparing the draft Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. On 29th August 1947 the Drafting Comm¬ittee was appointed Dr.Br. Ambedkar as the Chairman long with 6 other members assisted by a Constitutional Advisor.
2. He studied the constitutions of the other nations and incorporated in Indian constitution which are suitable to Indian people.
3. He stressed on the importance of removal of untouchability and uplifting the depressed classes.
4. He conveyed a meeting with all the communities of the society and drafted a broad constitution.

Question 5.
List out the constitutional provisions that facilitate social change.
Answer:
Constitutional provisions that facilitate social change:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Protection to the minority community.
4. Directive principles of state policy.
5. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
6. Liberty, equality and Justice.

Question 6.
Make a Bar graph based on the below information.

Answer:

Question 7.
What are the double purposes of a Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution has a double purpose:

1. Outlining the role and rights of citizens and the structure and powers of the government and its organs like executive, legislature, judiciary, etc;
2. Indicating the nature of future society which has to be built by the joint efforts of the state and the society.

Question 8.
Who prepared the Constitution of India and how?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was prepared and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. This was the culmination of the long struggle of the Indian people for freedom from British colonial rule.

Question 9.
How were the members from the princely states elected?
Answer:
The members from the princely states were not elected at all and were decided through consultation with the concerned princely states. Such a decision was taken keeping in view the special situation that had arisen due to intense political activity on the eve of freedom and mounting tensions among the people.

Question 10.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution are:

1. the supremacy of the Central Polity [the word polity means a system of government or political organization] and
2. the absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 11.
How is a Federal Constitution marked?
Answer:
Federal Constitution is marked:

1. by the existence of a Central polity and subsidiary polities side by side, and
2. by each being sovereign in the field assigned to it. In other words, the Federation means the establishment of a Dual Polity [dual system of government central and state].

Question 12.
How can we call the Draft Constitution a Federal Constitution?
Answer:
The Draft Constitution is Federal Constitution in as much as it establishes what may be called a Dual Polity. This Dual Polity under the proposed Constitution will consist of the Union at the Centre and the States at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.

Question 13.
Write about Indian citizenship.
Answer:
“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with a single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….”

Question 14.
What are the three means adopted by Indian. Constitution?
Answer:
The means adopted by the Draft Constitution are three

1. a single judiciary,
2. uniformity – in fundamental laws, civil and criminal, and
3. a common All-India Civil Service Jo main important posts.

Question 15.
What is one important aspect of social engineering? What was the reason for this?
Answer:
One important aspect of social engineering is the problem of the right of minorities. The sad experience of suppression of Jewish minority in Nazi Germany weighed in the minds of the Constitution makers. They decided to give special protection to the minority community so that they don’t feel marginalised by the majority.

Question 16.
How can the articles be amended?
Answer:
Amending the articles in the Constitution can be initiated only by the Parliament. And it needs the approval of 2/3rd members in both the houses of parliament – Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha. And some articles may be amended only with acceptance (or ratification) from the state legislature as well. It is further necessary that the President of the ” country also approves the new amendment bill like other laws.

Question 17.
Read the passage and interpret it.

“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….

Answer:

1. We adopted our Constitution by referring other Constitutions and after having a number of debates on the principles.
2. We adopted unitary but federal governments.
3. Hence ours is a dual polity.
4. But the citizens will have only one citizenship, unlike the USA where dual citizen¬ship exists.
5. We have same rights in all the states of India no matter in what state he resides.

Question 18.
“The Draft Constitution is a formidable document. It contains 315 Articles and 8 Schedules. It must be admitted that the constitution of no country could be found to be so bulky as the draft constitution” Is there need for division of Constitution into articles and Schedules?
Answer:

1. There is dire necessity to divide constitution into schedules and articles.
2. Such formidable document without proper division cannot easily read and understood.
3. Information related same matter is spread over articles.
4. Articles are compounded into schedules.

Question 19.
Express your opinion about elections were conducted to Constituent Assembly.
Answer:

1. Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 with members elected indirectly by the members of provincial assemblies.
2. Princely states representatives were identified with a consultation.
3. Provincial assemblies members were from general, Muslim and Sikh communities!
4. 26 Schedule Caste members were also elected.

Question 20.
Imagine and write what happened if every state in India having different laws.
Answer:

1. Up to a certain point, the diversity does not matter.
2. If diversity goes beyond a certain point creates chaos in states.
3. States become intolerant to citizens from other states.
4. What is correct in one state may not be correct if he moves to another state.

Question 21.
“Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyze it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals.
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, raising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed an emergency, which took Indian democracy back.
5. Hence too much centralization of power is not advisable.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the examples and explanations of the basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(OR)
Write about the basic principles of Indian Constitution.
(OR)
Write a short note on basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

1. Popular Sovereignty: India is externally free from the control of any foreign power and internally, it has a free government which is directly elected by the people and makes laws that govern the peopl# So it is the biggest country which is following Parliamentary Democracy System in the world.

2. Fundamental Rights: These are the basic human rights of all citizens. These rights apply irrespective of race, place of birth, religion, caste, creed or sex. These are enforceable by the courty subject to specific restrictions.

3. Directive Principles: These are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government. These provisions are not enforceable by the courts.

4. Cabinet Government: A Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

5. Secularism: Secularism is the basic structure of the Indian Constitution. The government respects all religions. It does not uplift or degrade any particular religion.

6. Socialism: The word ‘socialist’ was added to the preamble by the 42nd amendment. It implies social and economic equality.

7. Federalism: it is a system based upon democratic rules and institutions in which the power to govern is shared between national and state governments.

8. Judicial Independence: The Indian Judiciary is independent of the executive and legislative branches of government according to the Constitution.

Question 2.
How does the Parliamentary system of Government differ from the Presidential system of Government?
(OR)
How is the Parliamentary system of government is different from the Presidential system of government?
Answer:

Question 3.
Describe the features of Indian Federalism.
Answer:
The features of Indian Federalism:

1. The supremacy of the constitution: The supremacy of the constitution means that both the Union and State governments, shall operate within the limits set by the constitution.
2. Written constitution The Constitution of India is the largest and most elaborate one, which discussed on several issues.
3. Division of powers: The Indian Constitution clearly described administrative powers into three lists viz. The Union List, The State List and The Concurrent Lists.
4. The supremacy of the Judiciary: As per the Constitution of India Judiciary is Independent and supreme. It can declare a contravenes law as unconstitutional.

Question 4.
Plot the below Information on a Bar graph (Rough diagram).

Answer:

Question 5.
Analyse the graph about Constitutional amendments given below and write your observations.
Answer:

1. Least number of amendments are made in 1951-60.
2. The number of total constitutional amendments done in between 1951 and 2013 was 99.
3. Highest number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.
4. Equal number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions based on the below graph.

a) When did the Constitution come into force?
Answer:
January 26th 1950.

b) In which decade, the least number of amendments had done?
Answer:
1951-60.

c) Why does the Constitution need to be amended?
Answer:
According the changes in circumstances and policies, laws also should be changed.

d) How many Constitutional amendments had been done from 1951 to 1980?
Answer:
44.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) How many constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60?
Answer:
7 constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60.

b) In which period, maximum constitu¬tional amendments were made?
Answer:
Maximum constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

c) In which decades, equal amendments were made?
A. Equal amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

d) How many amendments were made up to 2013?
Answer:
According to the graph, 99 amendments were made up to 2013.

Question 8.
Our constitution has many provisions facilitating social change. How are they being implemented
Answer:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Directive principles of state policy.
4. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
5. Liberty, equality, Justice.

Question 9.
Observe the below Bar graph and analyse it.
Answer:
This graph is about the amendments made since the Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950 till 2013. The total amendments made were 99. Recently the Supreme Court cancelled the 99th amendment. During 1971-80 and 1981-90, the amendments number is high. Forty-four amendments were made during these two decades. The graph is given decade wise.

Our Constitution makers were aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. Thus it laid down the provisions for amending the laws and the articles in the Constitution as well. Some laws can be made with the approval of more than half the members in legislative houses. The amendments are made in the Parliament only. Some articles can be amended with the approval of both the Houses of Parliament, i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Some need ratification from the states. Finally, the amendments are approved by the President. Then the amendments come into force.

The amendment means to bring some change in existing law of the constitution. Generally, an amendment is necessary on the basis of public needs. In the initial years of our independence, the amendments are only 7. In the next decade, it went up to more than double. The period, 1971-80 and 1981-90 is crucial in Indian Politics. The emergency was declared by Indira Gandhi. Single Party domination was ended and Non-Congress governments came in to power. In 1984 Indira Gandhi was assassinated. From 1991 onwards again the number is decreased.

The constitution can be amended without breaking or spoiling the spirit or its basic principles. In the 1970s, two words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ are added into the Preamble of the Constitution. According to the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Keshavananda Bharati, some basic principles can not be changed.

Many a time Constitution is being changed only for the sake of political benefits. It is a criticism on amendments. The true spirit of the Constitution cannot be changed. Constitutional amendments are necessary for the public interest. There should be some benefit to the masses. Ambiguity and complexity should be avoided. About a hundred times the Constitution is changed, it means the original one is getting it shape changed.

Question 10.
How can you say that India is a Secular State?
Answer:
The following points prove India is a Secular country.

1. Secularism in the Indian context implies tolerance towards others beliefs and faiths.
2. In India there is no state religion.
3. No religion is given superior status.
4. Citizens are granted complete freedom in religious matter.
5. People are free to profess, practice and propagate any religion of their choice.
6. No religious instruction is imparted in any educational institution maintained out of public funds.
7. No political party is allowed to use religion or religious symbols in the election campaigns.
8. No discrimination is made in matters of public employment on the grounds of religion.
9. The religious tolerance is followed.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) Since the Constitution was adopted, how many amendments were made so far?
Answer:
So far there were 99 amendments made since the Constitution was adopted.

b) What was the period of minimum amendments?
Answer:
Minimum amendments were made during 1951 – 60.

c) How many amendments were made during 2001 – 13?
Answer:
17 amendments were made during 2001 -13.

d) How many amendments were made during 1961 – 70?
Answer:
15 amendments were made during 1961 – 70.

e) What is meant by constitutional amendment?
Answer:
Changing the laws and the articles from time to time is known as a constitutional amendment.

f) Why were the amendments less in 1951- 60?
Answer:
Constitution was newly formed and society did not change much and people were illiterate to anticipate any change.

Question 12.
Read the following para and comment on what the Constitution did for social change/change of society.

The Constitution thus has many provisions facilitating social change. You have read about the abolition of Untouchability. The best example of this is the provision for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Constitution. The makers of the Constitution believed that the mere granting of the right to equality was not enough to overcome age-old injustices suffered by these groups or to give real meaning to their right to vote. Special Constitutional measures were required to advance their interests. Therefore the Constitution makers provided a number of special measures to protect the interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes such as the reservation of seats in legislatures. The Constitution also made it possible for the government to reserve public sector jobs for these groups.

Answer:

1. The Constitution has many provisions for social change.
2. Abolition of untouchability is the first step.
3. This was achieved by providing reservations to SC and STs.
4. Thus the Constitution helped for the upliftment of the weaker sections.
5. The Constitution has in it “the Fundamental Rights” and “the Directive Principles of State Policy.”
6. The rights of minorities are also protected in our Constitution.
7. Hence, we can conclude that, the Constitution facilitates social change.

Question 13.
On the outline map of world, identify the following places.

1. Nepal
2. Japan
3. India
4. England
5. USA
6. Ireland
7. Russia
8. France
9. Switzerland
10. Canada

Answer:

Question 14.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.
1. This country’s constitution was completed in 2015.
Answer: Nepal

2. This country’s wishes for peace in its constitution.
Answer: Japan

3. This country’s constitution was the lengthiest written constitution in the world.
Answer: India

4. the U.S.A.

5. Taiwan

6. Any two British colonies.

7. Afghanistan

8. Bhutan

9. Nagasaki

10. Switzerland

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 India: Relief Features.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 1st Lesson India: Relief Features

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
According to the given table below, which area is the eastern side?

Answer:
According to the given table, Imphal is the eastern side.

Question 2.
What is the time In India when it is 8 am in London?
Answer:
The time is 1.30 pm in India when It is 8 am in London.

Question 3.
Which Indian islands are of volcanic origin?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands are of volcanic origin.
(OR)
Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.

Question 4.
Give examples for Himalayan hill stations.
Answer:
Examples for the Himalayan hill stations are

1. Simla
2. Mussoorie
3. Raniket
4. Nainital

Question 5.
Read the map given and answer the questions.

a) Name the latitude that divides India into two parts.
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer / 23°30′ Northern latitude.
b) On which longitude, is Indian Standard Time based upon?
Answer:
82°30′ Eastern longitude.

Question 6.
Mention any one difference between the physical features of the Andaman and Nicobar islands and the Lakshadweep.
Answer:

Question 7.
Mention any two differences between the Western and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Question 8.
Write any two unique features of Eastern Coastal Plain?
Answer:
Unique features of East Coastal Plain

1. East Coastal Plains are very wide.
2. The rivers which are flowing in this area are formed deltas.
3. These plains are agriculturally developed.
4. These Plains has lakes.

Question 9.
Name the landform from which the World originated.
Answer:
World originated from two giant lands namely Angara Land (Laurasia) and Gondwana Land.

Question 10.
What is the location of India?
Answer:
India is located between 8°4’ and 37°6′ north latitudes and 68°7′ and 97°25′ east longitudes.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “Doab”?
Answer:
The fertile land between two rivers is known as the Doab feature. ‘Do’ means two, ‘ab’ means water.

Question 12.
Name three parallel ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:
Three parallel ranges are there in the Himalayas. They are

1. the Himadri
2. the Himachal
3. the Shivalik.

Question 13.
Name the tributaries of Indus.
Answer:
The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej are the tributaries of Indus.

Question 14.
Name the tributaries of the Ganga.
Answer:
The Ghaggar, the Teesta, the Sone, the Kosi and the Yamuna are the tributaries of the Ganga.

Question 15.
Expand IST.
Answer:
Indian Standard Time.

Question 16
Expand GMT.
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 17.
What do you mean by “Dun”? Give one example.
Answer:
The valleys lying between the lesser Himalayas and Shivalik ranges are called “Duns’’, e.g. Dehra Dun.

Question 18.
Which continents of today were part of the Gondwana land?
Answer:
India, South Africa, Australia and South America were part of the Gondwana land.

Question 19.
Name three major divisions of the Himalayas from North to South.
Answer:

1. The Greater Himalayas or Himadri.
2. The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal.
3. The Shivaliks or Outer Himalayas.

Question 20.
Name the island group of India having a coral origin.
Answer:
Lakshadweep.

Question 21.
What is the peninsular plateau composed of?
Answer:
The peninsular plateau is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks

Question 22.
Identify the regional division of the Northern plains.
Answer:

1. Punjab plain
2. Ganga plain
3. Brahmaputra plain.

Question 23.
What are the relief features that are found in the Northern plains?
Answer:

1. Bhabar
2. Terai
3. Bhangar
4. Khadar

Question 24.
Which landform feature was a part of Gondwana land?
Answer:
Peninsular Plateau.

Question 25.
Which plateau lies between the Aravalis and the Vindhya range?
Answer:
Malwa Plateau.

Question 26.
Where are the Aravali hills located?
Answer:
The Aravali hills are located on the western and north-western margins of the peninsular plateau in Rajasthan.

Question 27.
What is Bhangar?
Answer:
Bhangar is the largest part of the northern plains and is formed by the oldest alluvium.

Question 28.
What is Khadar?
Answer:
The younger alluvium deposit is called Khadar.

Question 29.
What is a reef?
Answer:
A ridge of jagged rock formed from coral secretions and skeletons.

Question 30.
Name some kinds of reefs.
Answer:
Barrier reef, coral reef and fringing reef.

Question 31.
What was called Angara land?
Answer:
The northern part of Pangaea was called Angara land.

Question 32.
What are known as Purvanchal?
Answer:
The Himalayas in the north-eastern states are known as the Purvanchal hills.

Question 33.
Where is the Kanchenjunga peak?
Answer:
The Kanchenjunga peak is in Sikkim.

Question 34.
Which is the second highest peak in the Himalayas?
Answer:
K₂, in the Karakoram range, is the second-highest peak after Mount Everest.

Question 35.
Name the valleys in the Himachal range.
Answer:
Kangra, Kulu and Kashmir valley.

Question 36.
What are Duns?
Answer:
The longitudinal valleys between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks are known as Duns,
e.g.: Dehradun, Patli dun and Kotli dun.

Question 37.
Where is Bhabar located?
Answer:
Bhabar is located at the foot of the Shivaliks.

Question 38.
What are the two divisions in the Peninsular Plateau?
Answer:
Central Highlands and Deccan Plateau.

Question 39.
Which is the easternmost part of the central highlands?
Answer:
The Chotanagapur Plateau is the eastern-most part of the central highlands.

Question 40.
What is the other name of Ooty?
Answer:
Udagamandalam.

Question 41.
Which is a narrow coastal plain?
Answer:
The Western coastal plain is a narrow plain.

Question 42.
Name the Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
The Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauveri.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention the major relief divisions of Indian landmass.
Answer:
The relief divisions of Indian landmass can be divided into following groups :

1. The Himalayas
2. The Indo-Gangetic Plain
3. The Peninsular Plateau
4. The Coastal Plains
5. The Desert
6. The Islands

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below:
a) Name the two countries that share their land boundaries with India.
b) In between which latitudes, is India located?
Answer:
a) Pakistan, China, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar.
b) 8°4′ – 37°6′ Northern latitudes.

Question 3.
Observe the map given below and answer the following questions.
a) What is the distance between the eastern and western most points of India?
b) Name any two countries that share their boundaries with India.
Answer:
a) The distance between the eastern and the western most points of India is 2933 kms.
b) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, China and Bhutan.

Question 4.
Discuss the significant differences between the Himalayan Rivers and the Peninsular Rivers.
Answer:

Question 5.
Discuss the various islands in India.
Answer:

1. There are 2 groups of islands – Andaman and Nicobar Islands stretched in Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep Islands in the Arabian Sea.
2. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are volcanic origin.
3. The southernmost tip of India found in Nicobarlsland is called Indira point which was submerged during the 2004 Tsunami.
4. Lakshadweep Islands are of coral origin.
5. It is famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

Question 6.
Himalayas play a vital role in India’s development. How?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from Siberia and Central Asia.
2. They are reason for the monsoon type of climate in India.
3. Without the Himalayas India would have remained drier.
4. The rivers originating in the glaciers of the Himalaya are perennial and caused the economic growth of the northern plains.
5. The Himalayan valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
6. The rivers of the Himalayas for the formation of fertile.

Question 7.
How are the Himalayas divided regionally or on the basis of river valleys?
Answer:

1. Punjab Himalayas between rivers Indus and Sutlej.
2. Kumaon Himalayas between rivers Sutlejjind Kali.
3. Nepal Himalayas between rivers Kali and Teesta.
4. Assam Himalayas between rivers Teesta and Brahmaputra.

Question 8.
Look at the picture and comment on it.
Answer:
It is a sketch of different levels of vegetation in the Himalayas. There are 5 levels in that vegetation.
Level I: On the top of the mountains there is no vegetation.
Level II: On the hill slopes – there is only grass.
Level III: Next to the level II – this area is covered with conifers.
Level IV: Next to level III – this area is covered with broadleaf trees.
Level V: At the feet of the mountains. It is Terai with tree cover.

Question 9.
Write a short note on the Great Indian Desert.
Answer:
The Great Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravalli Hills.
The region gets scanty rainfall. Hence the climate is arid and vegetation is scanty. Luni is the only large river. Some streams appear during rainy season. Crescent-shaped duns are formed around in this area.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Describe any four of major relief divisions of Indian land mass.
Answer:
I. Himalayas:

1. To the north of India, Himalayan mountains extend from west to east at a length around 2400 Kms.
2. There are three parallel ranges viz. Himadri, Himachal and Shivaliks.

II. Indo-Gangetic Plains:

1. Indo-Gangetic Plain is formed with the interaction of the rivers Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
2. These fertile alluvial plains are suitable for agriculture.

III. Peninsular Plateau:

1. The Indian plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounding by the sea on the three sides.
2. It is broadly divided into two parts : Malwa plateau and Deccan plateau.

IV. Coastal Plains:

1. The Western coastal plain is extended between Western Ghats and Arabian Sea. The East coastal plain is extended between Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
2. These coastal plains are known locally by different names.
   Eg: Coast of AP – Circar Coast
   Coast of Kerala – Malabar coast etc.

V. Thar Desert:

1. Thar desert lies in the rain shadow region of Aravali mountains.
2. Luni is the only river in this region.

VI. Islands:

1. Andaman and Nicobar islands are in Bay of Bengal. They are of volcanic origin.
2. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea. They are of coral origin.

Question 2.
Explain the uses of Himalayas.
Answer:

1. Himalayas act as natural barriers on the northern side of India.
2. They protect India from the cold winds from Central Asia during severe winter
3. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains.
4. The himalayas are responsible for monsoon type of climate.
5. If there are no Himalayas, India will remain as a desert.
6. They are the origin for many perennial rivers.
7. They attract tourists from all over the world.
8. Himalayan rivers bring a lot of silt, making the northern plains very fertile.

Question 3.
Describe the Indian Islands.
Answer:

1. There are two groups of islands in India.
2. They are Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in Bay of Bengal.
4. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea.
5. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.
6. Lakshadweep islands are of coral origin.
7. Indira point, the southernmost tip of India is found in Nicobar Island.
8. Lakshadweep islands are famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

Question 4.
In what ways is the Indo-Gangetic plain different from the Peninsular plateau?
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and comment on Indian climate and the Himalayas.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type of climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier.
Answer:

1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from the North that comes from Siberia.
2. Without the Himalayas, India would get cold temperatures in the winter months.
3. The Himalayas form a natural barrier that prevents monsoon winds from going further north.
4. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in the regions that are beyond the western ghats of India.
5. In its absence this region would have remained drier.
6. India would have been a tropical desert.
7. The Himalayas are the birthplace of so many rivers.
8. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.

Question 6.
How the Himalayas are influencing the climate of India and agriculture?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas are obstructing cold winds.
2. The Himalayas are reason for rains in summer.
3. They are cause for seasonal climate.
4. If there is no Himalayas the northern region becomes dry.
5. The flow of the Himalayan rivers, making the plains very fertile.

Question 7.
Write about the similarities and differences between East Coastal Plains and West Coastal Plains.
Answer:
Similarities :

1. They are the physical features of India. 2) They both lie in the southern part of India.
2. They both lie near to the coast.

Differences:

Question 8.
Explain the differences between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats,
Answer:

Question 9.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of The Indo-Gangetic Plain with that of The Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
The major physiographic divisions of India are :

1. The Great Himalayas,
2. The Northern Plains
3. The Great Indian Desert
4. The Peninsular Plateau
5. The Eastern and Western Coastal plains and
6. The Island Group

Question 10.
Prepare a table showing the particulars of different mountain ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:

Question 11.
What is the importance of the Himalayas?
Answer:

1. The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways.
2. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter.
3. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India.
4. The Himalayan rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers.
5. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.
6. There are famous hill stations like Simla, Mussorie, Nainital, Raniket, etc. covered by evergreen forests.
7. The valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
8. There are passes in the Himalayas which act as great exchange of culture and commerce.

Question 12.
Write about the coastal plains.
Answer:

1. The southern part of the peninsular plateau is bordered by narrow coastal strips along the Arabian Sea on the west and the Bay of Bengal on the east.
2. Western plain is uneven and broken by hilly terrain.
3. It is divided into 3 parts.
   a) Konkan coast-northern part comprising Maharashtra and Goa coast.
   b) The second is Canara Coast – the middle part includes coastal plain of Karnataka.
   c) The last part is Malabar coast – the southern part, mostly in the state of Kerala.
4. Bay of Bengal plains are wide and have large surface structure.
5. It stretches from Mahanadi in Odisha to Cauvery deltas in Tamil Nadu.
6. These coastal plains are known locally by different names as Utkal coast in Odisha, Circar coast in Andhra Pradesh and Coromandel coast in Tamil Nadu.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on its content.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as hornets protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier. The Himalayan Rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers and bring a fat of silt, making these plains very fertile.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, it is dearly understood that the Himalayas are useful to India in many ways.
2. It means that because of the Himalayas only there are fertile soils, sufficient rainfall, and perennial rivers and so it is useful to agriculture which is the backbone of our economy.
3. I agree with this paragraph because every point discussed here is correct.
4. The Himalayas are extending in the north of our country from Jammu Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh for about 2400 kilometers.
5. Automatically they stop the cold winds blowing from central Asia because our cultivable lands are in the south.
6. If the Himalayas were not there, India would become dry land or a desert.
7. Though we have many benefits from the Himalayas, the passes of the Himalayas caused for foreigners to invade our country and these helped in exchanging business and culture.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the condition of the area as well as people living there.
The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side afAravalis and receives very low amount of rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops. It occupies much of western Rajasthan. It has an arid climate with very law vegetation cover. Streams appear during the rainy season and disappear soon after. ‘Luni’ is the only river in this area. These internal drainage rivers fill into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
Answer:

1. This paragraph says that much of western Rajasthan is sandy and without adequate rainfall.
2. Without sufficient rainfall we can’t expect proper cultivation and production of crops.
3. Though Rajasthan ranks first in the area it has maximum desert area.
4. According to this paragraph, there are a few streams which can be seen during rainy season.
5. The unfortunate thing of the people living there is that the area is in the leeward side of the Aravali Mountains.
6. The southwest monsoons remain empty by reaching there.
7. My opinion is that the people should make a few changes in their livelihoods.
8. They should grow more crops during rainy season. It would be better for them to go for multiple cropping.
9. They grow food crops with the help of Indira Gandhi canal water irrigation.
10. Government should provide their commodities at subsidized prices.
11. Along with the Indira Gandhi canal, there should be many more schemes like that till their needs are fulfilled.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the geographical location of India.
The geographical location of India provides its vast diversity in climatic conditions. This has led to a variety of vegetation and life forms along with advantages for growing many kinds of crops. Its long coastline and location in the Indian Ocean enabled trade routes as well as fishing.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph, the geographical location of India is very prosperous.
2. India has ocean water on the three sides whereas the high Himalayan Mountains in the north.
3. These Himalayas give birth to various perennial rivers because of glaciers so as to grow more crops and this led to a variety of vegetation.
4. In my opinion, there are a few benefits as well as losses to the people living in coastal plains and hilly areas.
5. The coastal people face some drastic situations when there is a tsunami or cyclones.
6. The people living in hilly areas face the problem of landslides.
7. Nowadays global warming is increasing. It may lead to submerge of coastal cultivable lands.
8. People may face many problems.
9. Along with these problems they have the opportunity of maintaining foreign trade with the help of sea routes.
10. Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Mumbai and Cochin are some of the examples for the trade cen¬ters of sea routes.

Question 16.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

Answer the following questions.

1. What are the names of the three Himalayan ranges?
   Answer:
   The three names of the Himalayan ranges are the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
2. Which of the ranges have hill stations?
   Answer:
   The hill stations are found in the Lesser Himalayan ranges.
3. Where do we find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun?
   Answer:
   We find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun in the valleys in between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
4. What is the difference in between the ranges of the Greater Himalayas and the Lesser Himalayas with regard to the composition?
   Answer:
   The Greater Himalayas are composed of ice and snow cover whereas the Lesser Himalayas are composed of highly compressed rocks.

Question 17.
Describe the formation and divisions of Indo-Gangetic plains.
Answer:

1. The interaction of three Himalayan rivers the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra and their tributaries resulted in the formation of great northern plain.
2. In the beginning it was a shallow basin later gradually filled with alluvial soil from these rivers.
3. The western part of Indo-Gangetic plains was formed by the Indus and its tributaries, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej flowing from the Himalayas.
4. Doab features dominate the fertile land between the two rivers.
5. The central part is known as Ganga plain extending from the rivers the Ghaggar to the Teesta. 6} The eastern part of the plain exists mostly in the Brahmaputra valley of Assom and the river
   Brahmaputra is mainly responsible for its formation.

Question 18.
Describe the vairous aspects of the peninsular plateau.
Answer:

1. The Indian Plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounded by the sea on three sides.
2. Large amounts of metallic and non-metallic mineral resources are found here.
3. Its topography is slightly tilted towards east.
4. Its two divisions are central high lands (Malwa plateau) and the Deccan Plateau.
5. The rivers here are not perennial.
6. The triangular landmass to the south of Narmada is called Deccan Plateau.
7. The structure of Western Ghats is continuous with a few passes as the gateways to the coastal plains.
8. The Eastern Ghats are not continuous.
9. One of the remarkable features of the peninsular plateau is black soils formed due to volcanic activity.

Question 19.
Write about the Thar desert.
Answer:

1. The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side of Aravalisand receives very low rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year.
2. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops.
3. It occupies much of western Rajasthan.
4. It has an arid climate with very low vegetation cover.
5. Streams appear during rainy season and disappear soon after.
6. Luni is the only river in this area.
7. The internal drainage rivers fall into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
8. Indira Gandhi canal is watering part of Thar desert.
9. Several hectares of desert land have been brought under cultivation.

Question 20.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.

1. Which hills are spread continuously from North to South?
   Answer:
   Western Ghats spread continuously from North to South.
2. Which Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers?
   Answer:
   Western Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers.
3. Which river flows westwards?
   Answer:
   The river which flows westwards is Narmada. (Tapti also)
4. Which plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali?
   Answer:
   Malwa plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali.
5. Where do the eastern and western Ghats join?
   Answer:
   The eastern and western Ghats join Nilgiris near Gudalur.
6. Which ocean is located in the south of India?
   Answer:
   The Indian Ocean is located in the south of India.
7. Which plateau is there in between Ms s and Chotanagpur plateau?
   Answer:
   Central plateau is there in between Malwa and Chotanagpur plateau.

Question 21.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.

1. Which is the standard meridian in India?
   Answer:
   82° 30′ Eastern Longitude is the standard meridian in India.
2. Name the latitude that moves from the centre of India.
   Answer:
   23% northern latitude moves from the centre of India. This is called Tropic of Cancer.
3. What is the distance between north and south tip of India?
   The distance between north and south tips is 3214 kms.
4. Mention the location of India.
   Answer:
   India is located in between the latitudes of 8°4′ and 37°6′ N and longitudes of 68°7′ and 97°25′ E.
5. Name any two frontier countries of India.
   Answer:
   Pakistan, China, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh and Nepal. ( any two can be written)
6. Which islands are located in the southeast corner of India?
   Answer:
   Andaman Nicobar islands are located in the southeast corner of India.

Question 22.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

• Locate the Highest plateau in the world.
  Answer: Tibet
• Capital of Himachal Pradesh.
  Answer: Simla
• Highest peak in India.
  Answer: Mt-K₂
• Locate the Hills in Arunachal Pradesh.
  Answer: Mishmi Hills
• This plateau has rich variety of mineral resources.
  Answer:
  Chotanagpur
• Rajmahal hills
  Triangular plateau.
  Answer:
  Deccan Plateau Circar Coast
• The southernmost tip of India.
  Answer:
  Kanya Kumari
• Mashy Swampy region of Gujarath.
  Answer:
  Rann of Kutch

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Excretion – The Wastage Disposing System Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 4th Lesson Excretion – The Wastage Disposing System

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion – The Wastage Disposing System Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
What is meant by excretion? Explain the process of formation of urine.
(OR)
What are the different stages in urine formation? Explain what happens in those stages.
(OR)
Explain various steps in the mechanism of urine formation.
Answer:
Excretion: Excretion is a biological process involved in separation and removal of toxic wastes from the body.
Formation of urine involves four stages:

1. Glomerular filtration
2. Tubular reabsorption
3. Tubular secretion and
4. Concentration of urine.

1. Glomerular filtration:

1. Blood flows from renal artery to glomerulus through afferent arteriole.
2. Filtration of blood occurs in the glomerulus.
3. Glomerular filtrate is also known as primary urine which almost equal to blood in chemical composition except the presence of blood cells.

2. Tubular reabsorption:

1. The primary urine passes into proximal convoluted tubule.
2. Useful substances like glucose, amino acids, sodium chloride, potassium ion, bicarbonate ion, water are reabsorbed into peritubular network.

3. Tubular secretion:

1. After reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) the urine travels through the loop of Henle into distal convoluted tubule.
2. Here some other wastes like extra salts ions of K⁺, Na⁺, Cl^– and H⁺ secrete from peritubular capillaries into distal convoluted tubule which are surrounded by peritubular network.

4. Concentration of urine:

1. 75% of water content of the nephric filtrate is reabsorbed in the region of proximal convoluted tubule and 10% of water passes out of filtrate through osmosis in the area of loop of Henle.
2. The concentration of urine takes place in the area of collecting tubes in the presence of hormone called vasopressin. The hormone is secreted only when concentrated urine is to be passed out.

Question 2.
How are waste products excreted in Amoeba?
(OR)
Write the process of excretion in amoeba.
Answer:

1. Specific excretory organs are absent in unicellular organisms like amoeba.
2. Amoeba possess osmoregulatory organell called contractile vacuole.
3. It collects water and wastes from the body, swells up, reaches the surface and bursts to release its content to outside.
4. The main excretion takes place through body surface by simple diffusion.
5. The waste material carbon dioxide is removed by diffusion through the cell membrane.

Question 3.
Name different excretory organs in human body and excretory material generated by them.
Answer:
Different excretory organs in human body and excretory material generated by them are as follows.

Question 4.
Deepak said that ‘Nephrons are functional and structural units of kidneys’. How will you support him?
(OR)
How can you say that kidney is suitable for the filtration of biological waste from blood in man?
Answer:
I support Deepak’s statement that nephrons are functional units of kidneys because

1. Nephron’s chief function is to regulate the concentration of water and soluble substances like sodium salts by filtering the blood, reabsorbing what is needed and excreting the rest as urine.
2. Nephron eliminates wastes from the body, regulates blood volume and blood pressure, controls levels of electrolytes and metabolites and regulates blood pH.
3. Its functions are vital to life and are regulated by the endocrine system.
4. Hence, nephrons are the functional units of kidneys.

Question 5.
How do plants manage the waste materials?
Answer:

1. Plants can get rid of excess water by a process like transpiration and guttation.
2. Waste products may be stored in leaves, bark and fruits.
3. When these dead leaves, bark, and ripe fruits fall off from the tree, the waste products in them are got rid of.
4. Some of the plant waste gets stored in the fruits in the form of solid bodies called Raphides. e.g: Yam.
5. Several plants prepare chemicals and store them in roots, leaves, seeds to protect against herbivores.
6. The plants excrete carbon dioxide produced as a waste during respiration only at night time.
7. The plants excrete oxygen as a waste only during the daytime.
8. The plants get rid of wastes by secreting them in the form of gums and resins.
9. Plants also excrete some waste substances into the soil around them.

Question 6.
Why do some people need to use a dialysis machine? Explain the principle involved in it.
Answer:

1. Kidneys are vital organs for filtration of nitrogenous waste material from blood and for survival of a person.
2. Factors like infections, injury, very high blood pressure, very high blood sugar restrict blood flow to kidneys.
3. This leads to accumulation of poisonous wastes in the body and leads to death.
4. When both kidneys are damaged DIALYSIS machine is used to filter the blood of a person.
5. This process is called HAEMODIALYSIS.
6. In this process blood is taken out from the main artery, mixed with an anticoagulant such as HEPARIN and then pumped into the apparatus called DIALYZER.
7. In this apparatus, blood flow through channels or tubes and are embedded in the dialyzing fluid.
8. The membrane separates the blood flowing inside the tube and dialyzing fluid by osmosis.
9. The dialyzing fluid has the same composition as that of plasma, except nitrogenous wastes.
10. Therefore, nitrogenous waste materials move out from the blood freely, there by cleaning the blood of it’s wastes.
11. This process is called DIALYSIS. Cleaned blood is pumped back to the body through a vein after adding HEPARIN.

Question 7.
What is meant by osmoregulation? How is it maintained in human body?
Answer:

1. The process of constant maintaining of the water and salt contents in the body is called osmoregulation.
2. The kidneys are the main osmoregulatory organs in human body.
3. The function of kidney is to filter blood and maintain the dissolved ion concentrations of body fluids.
4. The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney, which actively filters blood and generates urine.
5. The hormone VASOPRESSIN maintains osmotic concentration of body fluids.
6. 75% of water content of nephric filtrate is reabsorbed in the PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) and only 10% of water passes out of filtrate through osmosis in the area of loop of Henle.
7. Thus osmoregulation is maintained in human body.

Question 8.
Do you find any relationship between circulatory system and excretory system? What are they?
Answer:

1. Circulatory system delivers oxygen, nutrients, water, hormones and other essential to each cell of the body.
2. And it also transports all the carbon dioxide and other waste products of the cells to the lungs to be expired (exhaled) or to the kidneys to be excreted.
3. The excretory system is closely related to the circulatory system by virtue of the process of cleansing the blood of waste, removing excess fluids and generally keeping other fluids in balance.
4. Excretory system releases hormones to elevate blood pressure and accelerate red blood cell production.
5. Kidney stimulates the red blood cell production by erythropoetin and regulates blood pressure with the secretion of renin.

Question 9.
Give reasons.
A) Always vasopressin is not secreted.
Answer:

1. Vasopressin is secreted only when concentrated urine is to be passed out.
2. If vasopressin is not produced in sufficient quantities, very large amount of urine (more than 15 litres per day, normal persons excrete about one litre in a day) is excreted by the person which produces dilute urine.
3. Deficiency of vasopressin causes DIABETES INSIPIDUS.
4. Therefore vasopressin is always not secreted but only to concentrate urine.

B) When urine is discharged, in beginning it is acidic in nature later it becomes alkaline.
Answer:

1. Urine contains 96% of water, 2.5% of organic substances and 1.5% of inorganic solutes.
2. Urine is acidic in the beginning of it’s formation.
3. Gradually it becomes alkaline due to the decomposition of urea to form AMMONIA.

C) Diameter of afferent arteriole is bigger than efferent arteriole.
Answer:

1. Glomerulus develops from an afferent arteriole. It gives rise to an efferent arteriole.
2. The diameter of afferent arteriole is bigger than the efferent arteriole.
3. The narrower out let of efferent arteriole exerts pressure in the glomerulus and enables the blood to remain more time, thus helps in proper filtration of blood by ultrafiltration.

D) Urine is slightly thicker in summer than in winter.
Answer:

1. In summer, a large quantity of water is lost in the form of sweat.
2. To save the body from sun’s heat and to maintain water balance sweat glands secrete more sweat.
3. The remaining waste materials get concentrated.
4. Due to the high concentration of the remaining waste materials urine is slightly thicker in summer than in winter.

Question 10.
Write differences between
A) Functions of PCT and DCT
B) Kidney and Artificial kidney
C) Excretion and Secretion
D) Primary metabolites and Secondary metabolites
Answer:
A) Functions of PCT and DCT:
Functions of PCT:

1. Reabsorbs glucose, amino acids, phosphate, potassium, urea and other organic solutes from the filtrate into the peritubular network.
2. The PCT regulates pH of the filtrates by exchanging hydrogen ions in the interstitium for bicarbonate ions in the filtrate.
3. It is also responsible to secreting organic acids such as creatinine and other bases into the filtrate.
4. Proximal convoluted tubule regulates the pH of the filtrate in the kidneys.

Functions of DCT:

1. It maintains a proper concentration and pH of the urine.
2. Extra salts, ions of K⁺, Na⁺, Cl^– and H⁺ secrete from peritubular capillaries into DCT.
3. It secretes ammonium ions and hydrogen ions.
4. It is relatively impermeable to water but in the pressure of Antidiuretic hormone

B) Kidney and Artificial kidney:

(ADH) its permeability to water increases making urine concentrated.

C) Excretion and Secretion:

D) Primary metabolites and Secondary metabolites:
(OR)
What are primary and secondary metabolites in plants? Give examples.
Answer:

Question 11.
There is a pair of bean-shaped organs ‘P’ in the human body towards the back, just above the waist. A waste product ‘Q’ formed by the decomposition of unused proteins in liver is brought into organ ‘P’ through blood by an artery ‘R’. The numerous tiny filters ‘S’ present in organ ‘P’ clean the dirty blood goes into circulation through a vein ‘T’. The waste substance ‘Q’ other waste salts and excess water form a yellowish liquid ‘U’ which goes from organ ‘P’ into a bag like structure ‘V’ through two tubes ‘W’. This liquid is then thrown out of the body through a tube ‘X’.

(a) What is (i) organ P and (ii) waste substance Q?
(i) Organ P is kidney and
(ii) Waste substance Q is urea.

(b) Name (i) artery R and (ii) vein T.
Answer:
(i) Artery R is Renal artery and
(ii) Vein T is Renal vein.

(c) What are tiny filters ‘S’ known as?
Answer:
The tiny filters S are Nephrons.

(d) Name (i) Liquid (ii) Structure V (iii) Tubes W (iv) Tube X.
Answer:
(i) Liquid U is urine.
(ii) Structure V is urinary bladder.
(iii) Tube W is ureters.
(iv) Tube X is urethra.

Question 12.
The organ ‘A’ of a person has been damaged completely due to a poisonous waste material ‘B’ has started accumulation in his blood, making it dirty. In order to save this person’s life, the blood from an artery in the person’s arm is made to flow into long tubes made of substance ‘E’ which are kept in coiled form in a tank containing solution ‘F’vThis solution contains three materials ‘G’, ‘H’ and ‘I’ and similar proportions to those in normal blood. As the person’s blood passes through long tubes of substance ‘E’, most of the wastes present in it go into solution ‘F’ The clean blood is then put back into a vein in the person for circulation.
(a) What is organ A?
Answer:
Kidney.

(b) Name the waste substance B.
Answer:
Urea.

(c) What are (i) E and (ii) F?
Answer:
(i) Long tubes ‘E’ are made of cellulose.
(ii) Solution ‘F’ is dialysing fluid contains three materials like: water, glucose and salts.

(d) What are G, H and I?
Answer:
Waste molecules, nutrient molecules and water.

(e) What is the process described above known as?
Answer:
Dialysis.

Question 13.
Imagine what happens if waste materials are not sent out of the body from time to time.
(OR)
What happens when the waste products are not sent out from the body?
Answer:

1. If waste materials are not sent out of the body from time to time, our body is filled with extra water and waste products.
2. ThIs condition ¡s called UREMIA. 1f kidneys stop working completely it leads to UREMIA.
3. Our hands and feet may swell.
4. We feel tired and weak because our body needs clean blood to function properly.
5. These waste materials turn into toxic and it leads to death.

Question 14.
To keep your kidneys healthy for long period what questions will you ask a nephrologist/urologist?
Answer:

1. How can I prevent the formation of stones in kidney?
2. Does renal failure hereditary?
3. What are the dietary measures to be taken for normal functioning of kidney?
4. How diabetes harm kidneys?
5. What shall I do to keep my kidneys healthy for a long time?
6. What are the factors responsible for kidney failure?
7. How can we know that there is a problem In the kidneys?
8. Is there any relationship between blood pressure and kidney function?
9. What are ‘the signs of kidney failure?
10. Why is smoking bad for kidneys?

Question 15.
What are the gum yielding trees in your surroundings? What procedure you should follow to collect gum from trees?
Answer:
In our surroundings neem, acacia, eucalyptus, sapota are some of the gum yielding plants.
Process of collecting gum from trees:

1. Gum will flow naturally from cracks in the bark of acacia and neem trees.
2. Gum is collected about four weeks after stripping and can be repeated every few weeks thereafter for several months.
3. Mature plants are selected for taking gum.
4. Suitable stem parts are selected.
5. Grooves are made by break the bark away about three foot from the ground and 10 inches wide with a sharp sickle or knife.
6. We can fit a container at the lower end tightly, so that when gum begins to seep out, it will drip into it.
7. The plants are to be kept undisturbed for at least two or three weeks.
8. When the container is seen filled with gum they are removed.
9. It is collected and stored for supply and used as adhesives, binding agents, in the preparation of medicines etc.
10. Break some shallow notches in a ‘V’ shape, with the point of the ‘V’ diectly above the centre of the bucket.
11. Leave the bucket attached to the tree until the gun begins to seep out and drains into it.
12. Remove any nails or other metal things from the tree and after taking down the gum collection bucket.

Question 16.
Collect the information about uses of different kinds of alkaloids, take help of Library or Internet.
Answer:
Common alkaloids in plants and their uses are

Question 17.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of L.S of kidney.
(OR)
Draw a neat labelled diagram of internal structure of Kidney. Write the function of Renal artery and Renal vein.
Answer:

1. Renal artery supplies oxygenated blood with nitrogenous waste – products to kidneys.
2. Renal vein collects nitrogenous waste free and deoxygenated blood from kidneys.

Question 18.
Draw a diagram of a Nephron, and explain its structure.

Describe the structure of nephron with the help of diagram.
(OR)
Answer:
Structure of the Nephron :

Each Nephron has basically two parts:

1. 1. Malpighian body
   2. Renal tubule

1. Malpighian Body:

1. It consists of Bowman’s capsule and bunch of fine blood capillaries called the glomerulus.
2. Glomerulus develops from afferent arteriole. It gives rise to an efferent arteriole.

Renal Tubule :

1. It has three parts.
   1. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT),
   2. Loop of Henle
   3. ‘U’ shaped second or Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)
2. Distal convoluted tubule open into a COLLECTING TUBE. Collecting tubes form PYRAMIDS and CALYCES which open into PELVIS.
3. Pelvis leads into the URETER.
4. All the parts of the renal tubule are covered by a network of PERITUBULAR CAPILLARIES fromed from EFFERENT ARTERIOLE
5. The peritubular capillaries join to form RENAL VENULE, which joins the other venules to form RENAL VEIN.

Question 19.
Draw a block diagram showing the path way of excretory system in human being.
Answer:
Block diagram showing the path way of excretory system in human beings.

Question 20.
If you want to explain the process of filtration in kidney, what diagram you need to draw ?
Answer:

Question 21.
List out the things that makes you amazing in excretory system of human being.
(OR)
How do you appreciate the functioning of excretory system of human being?
Answer:

1. In human beings during metabolic activities many waste products like water, nitrogenous compounds like ammonia, urea, uric acid, bile pigments, excess salts, etc. the toxic wastes are produced.
2. To excrete all these waste materials in human beings there is an excretory system consisting of a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder and urethra.
3. Each kidney is made up of more than one million nephron. These are the structural and functional units of excretory system.
4. Per day 170 litres of water is filtered by kidneys. Out of this 168.2 litres is reabsorbed. This is a wonderful mechanism.
5. Total amount of urine excreted per day is about 1.6 to 1.8 litres.
6. The kidneys have a great reserve power. If one kidney is removed due to disease or damage, the other kidney can take up the function of both the kidneys.
7. It is so amazing that the 10 cm in length, 5-6 cm in breadth and 4 cm thickness size of the kidney can do filtration of blood and can remove all the poisonous substances from the human body and keeping the organism healthy.
8. Skin is also an excretory organ responsible for elimination of wastes in the form of sweat along with various toxins.

Question 22.
You read about ‘Brain dead’ in this chapter. What discussions would you like to have? Why do you think so?
Answer:

1. When some one is brain dead, there is no blood flow or oxygen to their brain.
2. The brain stops functioning in any capacity.
3. Because the ventilator is breathing for the person organs such as the heart and liver continue to receive oxygen and one able to function for a few days after the brain has dead.
4. Unless damaged by injury we can transplant organs like kidney liver, heart, lungs, pancreas, skin, bone, intestine and eyes (Retina) from brain dead patients.
5. The process of transplantation of organs from brain dead patients to another is called cadaver transplantation.
6. There is very less awareness among people about organ donation.
7. Society needs much awareness in organ donation so that we can save many lives who are in need of different organs for their survival.
8. Those who are willing to donate their organs have to sign in an application form at the transplantation facility hospital.
9. Some voluntary organisations like jeevandan.org working on this aspect.

Question 23.
We the people have very less awareness about organ donation, to motivate people to write slogans about organ donation.
Answer:
Slogans about organ donation :

1. Organ donation saves lives.
2. Give a life, gift of life.
3. Donate organs today for better tomorrow.
4. The measure of a life, after all is not its duration but its donation.
5. Change your thoughts and you change your world.
6. Organ donation is icky (disagreeable) but recycle yourself is sticky.

What you have seen?

1. Have a heart, save a life.
2. The gift of life pass it on.
3. Organ donation is a gift for life.

Question 24.
After learning this chapter what habits you would like to change or follow for proper functioning of kidneys?
(OR)
What habits you would like to follow for the proper functioning of kidneys?
Answer:

1. I always eat the home cooked meals.
2. I should adapt to take low salt diet.
3. I eat the food that are lower in protein which can help to decrease the levels of protein, avoid eating cakes, pies, cookies, candies and pastries (junk foods), take fruits containing simple carbohydrates.
4. I would like to drink sufficient water nearly 5-6 litres per day.
5. I never forget drinking more water after meals.
6. I avoid taking high phosphorus foods like cheese, cola, soft drinks, butter but I replace them with butter milk, sharbat etc.
7. I eat low potassium levels fruits like apples, watermelon, cucumber, grapes, cherries, carrots, etc. because high potassium levels cause irregular heart beats.
8. I avoid high sodium contents like potato chips, bacon (cured meat from pig) cheese, meat, canned vegetables, caned soups frozen dinners and table salt, which damage kidneys.

Fill in the blanks.

1. Earthworm excretes its waste material through ———–.
2. The dark coloured outer zone of kidney is called ———–.
3. The process of control of water balance and ion concentration within organism is called ———–.
4. Reabsorption of useful product takes place in ———– part of nephron.
5. Gums and resins are the ———– products of the plants.
6. Bowman’s capsule and tubule taken together make a ———–.
7. The alkaloid used for malaria treatment is ———–.
8. The principle involved in dialysis is ———–.
9. Rubber is produced from ———– of Heavea braziliensis.
10. ———– performed first Kidney Transplantation.

Answer:

1. nephridia
2. cortex
3. osmoregulation
4. tubular
5. secondary metabolic
6. malphigian tubule
7. quinine
8. Osmosis and filtration
9. latex
10. Dr. Charles Hufnagel

Choose the correct answer.

1. The structural and functional unit of human kidney is called [ ]
   A) Neuron
   B) Nephron
   C) Nephridia
   D) Flame cell
   Answer: B
2. The excretory organ in cockroach  [ ]
   A) Malpighian tubules
   B) Raphids
   C) Ureters
   D) Nephridia
   Answer: A
3. Which of the following is the correct path taken by urine in our body? [ ]
   A) Kidney, urethra, ureters, bladder
   B) Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra
   C) Kidney, bladder, ureters, urethra
   D) Kidney, urethra, bladder, ureters
   Answer: C
4. Malpighian tubes are excretory organs in [ ]
   A) Earthworm
   B) Housefly
   C) Flatworm
   D) Hen
   Answer: B
5. Major component of urine is [ ]
   A) Urea
   B) Sodium
   C) Water
   D) Creatine
   Answer: C
6. Special excretory organs are absent in [ ]
   A) Birds
   B) Amoeba
   C) Sponges
   D) A and B
   Answer: B
7. Which of the following hormones has direct impact on urination? [ ]
   A) Adrenal
   B) Vasopressin
   C) Testosterone
   D) Estrogen
   Answer: B
8. Amber colour to urine due to [ ]
   A) Urochrome
   B) Bilirubin
   C) Biliverdin
   D) Chlorides
   Answer: A
9. Sequence of urine formation in the nephron is [ ]
   A) Glomerular filtration → Tubular reabsorption → Tubular secretion
   B) Tubular reabsorption → Tubular secretion → Glomerular filtration
   C) Tubular secretion → Glomerular filtration → Tubular reabsorption
   D) Tubular reabsorption → Concentration of urine → Tubular secretion
   Answer: A
10. Part of the nephron that exists in outer zone of kidney [ ]
    A) Loop of the Henle
    B) PCT
    C) DCT
    D) Bowman’s capsule
    Answer: D
11. After having lunch or dinner one can feel to pass urine, because of [ ]
    A) Stomach pressures on bladder
    B) Solids become liquids
    C) Water content in food material
    D) Sphincter relaxation
    Answer: D

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion – The Wastage Disposing System InText Questions and Answers.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 75

Question 1.
What products would the organism be able to take up for other activities?
Answer:
Oxygen produced in the photosynthesis process is used by all the living organisms on the earth for breathing. Without oxygen life would not be possible on the earth. No organism can survive.
Carbon dioxide produced in respiration will be taken up by plants to prepare food materials, in the process of photosynthesis. Plants are called autotrophs because they produce food for ail the animals and human beings directly or indirectly.

Question 2.
What are the products would cause harm to the body, if they are not removed?
Answer:
Nitrogenous compounds like ammonia, urea, uric acid, bile pigments, excess salts are toxic to the body. So they should be removed.

Question 3.
What happens if harmful products are not removed from our body every day?
Answer:
If harmful products are not removed from our body they get accumulated in the body and becomes toxic. This leads to the death of the person.

Question 4.
What are the substances present in blood?
Answer:
The substances present in blood are Glucose, Sodium, Potassium, Chlorides, Urea, Creatinine, Uric acid, Cholesterol, Triglycerides, Calcium Phosphorous, Bilirubin, Proteins, Albumin.

Question 5.
What are the substances present in urine?
Answer:
Protein, Creatinine, Calcium, Phosphorous, Uric acid, Sodium, Potassium are the sub-stances present in urine.

Question 6.
What are the substances present both in blood and urine?
Answer:
Sodium, Potassium, Chlorides, Urea, Uric acid, Calcium, Phosphorous are the sub¬stances present in blood and urine in common.

Question 7.
Which substances are present above the normal limits both in the blood and urine?
Answer:
Urea, Uric acid, Cholesterol, Calcium, Creatinine are present above the normal limits both in the blood and urine.

Question 8.
What do you think reading above normal limits indicates?
Answer:
If any material is above the normal limits, it causes health problem which leads to a disease and damage of the organs.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 77

Question 9.
What are the materials needed to be removed from our body?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, water and nitrogenous compounds such as ammonia, urea and uric acid are the waste materials needed to be removed from our body.

Question 10.
From where are these materials removed?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is eliminated through lungs while small amounts of water is eliminated through body surface (sweating) and through lungs during respiration. An excretory organ system is present for excreting the nitrogenous wastes along with salts, excess water.

Question 11.
What are the organs that separate excretory materials?
Answer:
Flame cells in flat worms, Nephridia in Annelids, Malphigian tubules in Arthropods, kidneys in all vertebrates are the excretory organs that separate excretory materials and eliminate them.

Question 12.
Why do you think the body must remove waste substances?
Answer:
For the smooth functioning of the body the body should be healthy. Waste materials are the toxic substances, which are harmful to the body. So they should be eliminated.
If they remain in the body, it leads to the unhealthy conditions to the organisms.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 79

Question 13.
Think why the diameter of the efferent arteriole is less than that of afferent arteriole?
Answer:
The diameter of the efferent arteriole is less than afferent arteriole so as to create pressure in the glomerulus to filter the waste materials. Due to this, blood remains in glomerulus more time.

Question 14.
Why the nephron is considered to be the structural and functional unit of the kidney?
Answer:

1. The kidney is made up of more than one million nephrons.
2. Hence it is called as the structural unit of the kidney.
3. Filtration of blood to remove nitrogenous substances occur in nephron.
4. So it is called as functional unit of the kidney.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 80

Question 15.
Which arteriole has more diameter, afferent or efferent?
Answer:
Afferent arteriole has more diameter than efferent arteriole.

Question 16.
What are the substances that are filtered into the glomerular capsule?
Answer:
The substances that are filtered into the glomerular capsule are waste molecules, nutrient molecules and water.

Question 17.
If you drink more water, will you pass more urine?
Answer:
Yes. If we drink more water, we will pass more urine.

Question 18.
What are the substances reabsorbed into peritubular network from Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?
Answer:
Glucose, Amino acids, Vitamin – C, Potassium, Calcium, Sodium chlorides and 75% of water are the substances reabsorbed into peritubular network from proximal convoluted tubule.

Question 19.
What are the substances that secretes into Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)?
Answer:
The substances that secretes into Distal Convoluted Tubule are extra salts, ions of K\ Na+, C/“ and H+ ions.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 81

Question 20.
Why more urine is produced in winter?
Answer:

1. Due to the cold condition, our body does not lose the water in the form of sweat.
2. In the same condition, blood flow to our internal organs is increased, to keep our organs warm.
3. The increase in the blood flow to the kidneys causes more blood to be filtered.
4. These two causes more urine is produced in winter.

Question 21.
What happens if reabsorption of water does not take place?
Answer:
If reabsorption of water does not take place :

1. water levels decreases in the body and leads to malfunctioning of metabolism.
2. osmoregulation of body fluids will be disturbed.
3. circulation of blood does not take place due to increase in its concentration.
4. the useful substances like nutrients, salts, hormones, vitamins are not absorbed they excrete out.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 83

Question 22.
What happens if both kidneys fail completely?
Answer:

1. Complete and irreversible kidney failure is called End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD).
2. If kidneys stops working completely, our body is filled with extra water and waste products.
3. This condition is called UREMIA.
4. Our hands or feet may swell. We may feel tired and weak because our body needs clean blood to function properly.
5. The solution to this problem is either dialysis or kidney transplantation.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 84

Question 23.
Is there any long term solution for kidney failure patients?
Answer:
The best long term solution for kidney failure is kidney transplantation. A functioning kidney which is a good match to the body is used in transplantation from a donor preferably a closed relative.

Question 24.
Where is the transplanted kidney fixed in the body of a kidney failure patient?
Answer:
Kidney transplantation involves placing a healthy kidney into the body where it can perform all of the functions that a failing kidney cannot. The new kidney is placed on the lower right or left side of the abdomen where it is surgically connected to nearby blood vessels.
Placing the kidney in this position allows it to be easily connected to blood vessels and the bladder. The vein and the artery of the new kidney are attached to the body’s vein and artery. The new kidney’s ureter is attached to the body’s bladder to allow urine to pass out of the body.

Question 25.
What about the failed kidneys?
Answer:

1. In most cases the old kidneys will not be removed.
2. This is because even failed kidneys release chemicals that help the body work.
3. However if those kidneys have a disease that cause on going problems such as persistent kidney infections or intestinal blockage, then the transplantion would be considered removing the old kidney.
4. The two most common medical conditions requiring “native nephrectomy” or “congenital reflux” disease and polycystic disease.

Question 26.
Can donor survive his / her life with single kidney without any complications?
Answer:

1. There are some risks.
2. There is a chance of affecting his/her life span or life style is extremely low with surgery and anaesthesia.
3. The risk of minor complications like wound infection because the kidney donar operation is a major surgical procedure.
4. Donar feels less energy and need about 4 to 6 weeks to return to their activities.

Question 27.
What are the other excretory organs of human body?
Answer:
Lungs, Skin, Liver are the other excretory organs of human body.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 85

Question 28.
Collect information on sebum and prepare a news bulletin, display it on bulletin
Answer:

1. Sebum is a complex mixture of naturally produced fats, oils, waxes, cholesterol etc.
2. It is secreted by SEBACEOUS glands present in the DERMIS of skin.
3. The fat and OMS present in the sebum do not originate directly from the fats and oils consumed in the diet.
4. SEBUM is manufactured and stored by the sebaceous glands under the direction of biological process.
5. Sebaceous glands are found in great number on the face, scalp and on all parts of the skin.
6. The function of sebum : it prevent the skin from becoming dry.

Question 29.
People in cold countries get very less/no sweat. What changes occur in their skin and in other excretory organs?
Answer:

1. Regulation of body temperature is one of the functions of skin.
2. To maintain the body temperature, skin produces sweat.
3. In cold countries environment is very cool. So there is no production of sweat.
4. In these conditions there will be more pressure on other excretory organs.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 86

Question 30.
Do plants excrete like animals?
Answer:

1. Plants do not have specific organs to excrete the waste materials which are formed during metabolism.
2. As in animals carbon dioxide, water, ammonia and other nitrogenous wastes are also formed in plants.
3. In plants, carbon dioxide released during respiration is sent out through stomata of leaves.
4. Plants discharge the excess water in the form of water vapour during transpiration by leaves. Due to this, the heat in the plants is reduced.
5. In germinating seeds carbon dioxide formed during respiration is released into atmosphere.
6. Plants have the capacity to utilise the by- products of one metabolic activity as the raw materials for another metabolic activity.
7. For example, oxygen released during photosynthesis is utilised for respiration; carbon dioxide released during respiration is utilised for photosynthesis. Plants convert nitrogen and ammonia into nitrates.

Question 31.
How do plants manage or send out waste products from its body?
Answer:

1. Plants can get rid of excess water by a process like transpiration and guttation. Waste products may be stored in leaves, bark and fruits.
2. When these dead leaves, bark, and ripen fruits fall off from the trees, then waste products in them are got rid off.
3. In some plants, waste gets stored in the fruits in the form of solid bodies called Raphides. Example : Yam (pendalam).
4. Several compounds are synthesized by the plants for their own use specially for defense.
5. Several plants prepare chemicals and store them in shoots, leaves, seeds for protection against herbivores.
6. Most of the chemicals are unpleasant to taste and hence herbivores do not prefer to eat such plants. Some of the chemicals are toxic and may even kill the animal that eats them.
7. Some of the plants release attractants for other organisms which will help the plants for pollination. For example, plants having root nodules secrete chemicals to attract rhizobia into the surroundings of the roots and form a symbiotic relationship with the rhizobium.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 87

Question 32.
Why do plants shed their leaves and bark periodically?
Answer:

1. In summer season, transpiration rate is very high in plants.
2. To reduce the transpiration rate plants shed their leaves.
3. And some waste materials are also stored in leaves and removed by shedding of leaves.
4. Bark is the outer zone of plants, which contain phloem to transport food materials.
5. In the growing period cambium produces bark tissue. When new bark tissue is produced, the old bark is removed.
6. In this process the old and dead cells filled with waste materials are also removed.

Question 33.
Name the alkaloids which are harmful to us.
Answer:
The harmful alkaloids are :

1. Nicotine is harmful. It causes cancer to lung, throat, tongue and affects the nervous system.
2. Morphine which is used as a pain killer, may effect kidneys if they are used more.
3. Cocaine, scopolamine (Datura) etc are the alkaloids which are harmful to us.
4. Nitrogenous substances are also found in the walls of pollen grain, if they enter our body. Ex : they cause allergy.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 89

Question 34.
Do roots secrete?
Answer:
Yes, roots also can secrete a portion of their peculiar secretions back into the soil.

Question 35.
Do you think is there any relation between reduction in yielding and root secretions?
Answer:

1. Yes, there is a relation between reduction in yielding and root secretions.
2. For example plants like apple where a single apple crop is yielded for 4 or 5 years continuously in the same soil, it fails to produce fruits.
3. It will not give proper yield even if you use lot of fertilizers.

Question 36.
Why do we get peculiar smell when you shift the potted plants?
Answer:

1. Some peculiar secretions are secreted and sent out from roots into soil.
2. When we shift the potted plant we get peculiar smell due to the chemical reaction of the secretion in the soil to make it fertile.

Think and Discuss

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 82

Question 1.
Do cells need excretion?
Answer:
Yes, the cells need excretion to keep all the body organs healthy.

Question 2.
Why are we advised to take sufficient water ?
Answer:
We are advised to take sufficient water because filtration of waste products becomes easy and there is a free flow of urine including salts, And also body temperature will be maintained.

Question 3.
Why do some children pass urine during sleep at night until 15 or 16 years of age?
Answer:
Children pass urine during sleep at night because one or more of the following reasons.

1. The child’s urinary bladder is maturing more slowly than usual. The capacity of the bladder may be reduced.
2. The risk of child passing urine in night time is due to the hereditory factor that one or both parents wet the bed as children.
3. Some children wet the bed because they do not make enough levels of vasopressin which reduces the urine production.
4. Physical or emotional problems may cause bed wetting.
5. A stressful situation can trigger bed wetting include moving to a new house, changing schools, the death of a loved one or being sexually given bad effect.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 84

Question 4.
Why are weeds and wild plants not affected by insects and pests? (OR)
Ravi went to his cotton field. There he observed some of the cotton leaves were affected by insects. He also observed that weeds in between are not affected. Give reasons.
Answer:
Some plants like weeds and wild plants prepare chemicals which are unpleasant to taste and some chemicals are toxic and may even kill. So insects and pests do not touch them.

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion – The Wastage Disposing System Activities

Activity – 1

How do you study the external and internal features of kidney ? (OR)
Explain the procedure and observations of the experiment conducted to observe internal structure of the kidney.
Answer:
Aim: Studying the external and internal features of a kidney.
Materials required: Freshly collected specimen of sheep/goat’s kidney from the butcher or 3D model of a kidney sharp blade/ scalpel, tray and a jug of water.
Procedure for observation:

1. 1. Wash the kidney so that blood is completely drained from it.
      
   2. Put the kidney in the tray and observe it carefully.
   3. Note down the observation in the notebook.

1. With the help of sharp blade take the longitudinal section of the kidney and observe internal structure.
2. Draw what you have observed and compare it with the figure given.
3. After observing the L.S. of kidney answer the following questions given under.

What is the shape of kidneys?
Answer:
The shape of kidneys is bean shape.

What is the colour of kidney ?
Answer:
Colour of kidney is reddish brown.

Do you find any attachments on upper portion of kidney?
Answer:
Yes. Adrenal glands are attached to kidneys on upper portion.

Is the internal structures similar to fig – 2?
Answer:
Yes. It is similar to internal structure of fig – 2.

What is the colour of the outer part in L.S. of kidney?
Answer:
The colour of the outer part of the kidney is Dark.

In L.S. of kidney where do you find dark brown colour portion?
Answer:
Dark colour portion is found on the outer zone of kidney.

How many tubes are coming out from kidney fissure ?
Answer:
Two tubes are coming from kidney.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions 1st Lesson Heat

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What would be the final temperature of a mixture of 50 g of water at 20° C temperature and 50 g of water at 40° C temperature? (AS1)
Answer:
In CGS system :
Mass m₁ = 50 g
Higher temperature = T₁ = 40° C
Mass m₂ = 50 g
Lower temperature = T₂ = 20° C

Question 2.
Explain, why dogs pant during hot summer days using the concept of evaporation. (AS1)
(OR)
How do dogs cool their body? Explain by using the process of evaporation.
Answer:

• Dogs pant during hot summer days and get their body cooled. This cooling effect is due to evaporation.
• Evaporation is a surface phenomenon. Temperature of a system falls during evaporation.
• During summer the temperature in the human body increases.
• The temperature of the skin becomes higher and the water in the sweat glands starts evaporating. Since evaporation is a cooling process human body becomes cool.
• Dogs don’t have sweat glands. Their body is covered with hair. They have sweat glands only in their feet.
• So by panting the water on the tongue undergoes evaporation resulting in the cooling of the dog’s body.

Question 3.
Why do we get dew on the surface of a cold soft drink bottle kept in open air? (AS1)
(OR)
Raju observed small droplets of water outside a cold soft drink bottle kept in open air. What is the reason for the formation of droplets?
Answer:

• When cold soft drink bottle is kept in open air, the temperature of surrounding air is higher than the temperature of cold drink bottle.
• Air contains molecules in the form of vapour.
• During the motion of water molecules in air strike the surface of cold drink bottle.
• Then the molecules of air lose their kinetic energy which leads to lower the temperature and they convert into droplets.
• So dew is formed on the surface of cold soft drink bottle.

Question 4.
Write the differences between evaporation and boiling. (AS1)
(OR)
Sita observed decrease in quantity of spirit kept in a vessel placed in open air. Whereas Ramu observed formation of bubbles on a water surface when it is heated. What are those two processes? Distinguish between those two processes.
Answer:

Question 5.
Does the surrounding air become warm or cool when vapour phase of H₂O condenses? Explain. (AS1)
Answer:

• Gases have more higher energy than liquids and solids.
• When vapour condenses, it changes from gas to liquid.
• Therefore there is a drop in energy.
• This energy has to go (somewhere) to the surroundings.
• So surrounding air becomes warm when vapour phase of H20 condenses.

Question 6.
Answer these. (AS1)
a) How much energy is transferred when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100°C?
Answer:
CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of vapourisation = 540 cal/gm.
The amount of heat energy released when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100°C
Q = mL_vapour = 1 × 540 = 540 cal.

(OR)

In SI system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm = 1 × 10^-3 kg
Latent heat of vapourisation = 540 cal/gm.
The amount of heat energy released when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100°C
Q = mL_vapour – 1 × 540 = 540 cal.
In SI, Q = 540 × 4.18 = 2257 J.

b) How much energy is transferred when 1 gm of boiling water at 100° C cools to water 0° C?
Answer:
CGS system :
Latent heat of vapourisation = 540 cal/gm
The amount of heat energy released when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100 °C. m = 1 gm.
Q₁ = mL_vapour = 1 × 540 = 540 cal.
The specific heat of water = 1 cal/gm-°C
Difference in temperature = 100-0 = 100°C.
The heat released to cool water to 0°C is
Q₂ = mS∆T = 1 × 1 × 100 = 100 cal.
∴ Total energy released = 540 + 100 = 640 cal.

c) How much energy is released or absorbed when 1 gm of water at 0° C freezes to ice at 0° C?
Answer:
In CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice (L) = 80 cal/gm
The energy transferred or released when 1 gm of water at 0° C freezes to ice at 0° C.
Q = mL_freeze = 1 × 80 = 80 Cal.

(OR)

In SI system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm = \(\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~kg}\)
Latent heat of fusion = L = 3.36 × 10⁵ J/kg.
Amount of heat released or transferred when lgm of water at 0°C freezes to ice at 0°C.
Q = mL_fusion = \(\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~kg}\) × 3.36 × 10⁵ = 3.36 × 10² = 336J.

(OR)

In CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice (L) = 80 cal/gm
The energy transferred or released when 1 gm of water at 0° C freezes to ice at 0°C.
Q = mL_freeze = 1 × 80 – 80 cal.
(Or)
In SI system : In SI, Q = 80 × 4.2 [1 cal = 4.2 J]
Q = 1 x 10^-3 × 3.36 × 10⁵ = 3 36 J.

d) How much energy is released or absorbed when 1 gm of steam at 100°C turns to ice at 0°C?
Answer:
In CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of vapourisation = L_vapour = 540 cal/gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice = L_fusion = 80 cal
Specific heat of water = S = 1 cal/gm-0°C
Difference in temperature
∆T = 100 – 0 = 100°C.
The energy transferred when 1 gram of steam at 100°C turns to ice at 0°C
Q = mL_vapour + mS∆T + mL_fusion
= 1 × 540 + 1 × 1 × 100 + 1 × 80 = 540 + 100 + 80 = 720 cal.

(OR)

Mass of water = m = 1 gm = \(\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~kg}\)
Latent heat of vapourisation = L_vapour = 2.25 × 10⁶ J/kg
Latent heat of fusion = L_fusion = 3.36 × 10⁵ J/kg
Difference in temperature
∆T = 373 – 273 – 100 K.
Specific heat of water = 4180 J/kg-K
The energy transferred when 1 gram of steam at 100° C turns to ice at 0°C =

(OR)

In CGS system :
Conversion : Steam at 100°C → Water at 100°C → Water at 0°C → Ice at 0°C.
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of vapourisation = L_vapour = 540 cal/gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice = L_fusion = 80 cal
Specific heat of water = S = 1 cal/gm-0°C
Difference in temperature
∆T= 100-0 = 100°C.
The energy transferred when 1 gram of steam at 100°C turns to ice at 0°C
Q = mL_vapour + mS∆T + mL_fusion
= 1 × 540 + 1 × 1 × 100 + 1 × 80
= 540 + 100 + 80 = 720 cal. = 720 × 4.18 = 3009.6 J.

Question 7.
Explain the procedure of finding specific heat of solid experimentally. (AS1)
(OR)
Determination of specific heat of solid experimentally.
(OR)
Ravi wanted to prepare solid with high specific heat to use on cooking utensil. What fool does he need to find the specific heat of aluminium and copper? How should he conduct the experiment?
Answer:
Aim : To find the specific heat of given solid.
Apparatus : Calorimeter, thermometer, stirrer, water, steam heater, wooden box and lead shots.

Procedure:

• Measure the mass of the calorimeter with stirrer = m₁ gm
• Fill water one third volume of calorimeter and measure the mass = m₂ gm.
• At this time initial temperature = T₁.
• Mass of the water = m₂ – m₁ gm.
• Take a few lead shots and place them in steam heater and heat up to 100° C. Let this temperature be T₂.
• Transfer the lead shots into calorimeter and measure the final (or) resultant temperature T₃.
• Mass of calorimeter with contents = m₃ gm and mass of lead shots = m₃ – m₂ gm.
• If the specific heats of the calorimeter, lead shots and water are S_c, S_l and S_w respectively, by using method of mixtures we have
  Heat lost by the solid = Heat gained by the calorimeter + water
  
• Knowing the specific heats of calorimeter and water we can calculate specific heat of solid (lead shots).

Question 8.
Convert 20° C into Kelvin scale. (or) Change 20°C into absolute scale. (AS1)
Answer:
T = t°C + 273 = 20 + 273 = 293
⇒ T = 293 K.

Question 9.
Your friend is asked to differentiate between evaporation and boiling. What questions could you ask to make him to know the differences between evaporation and boiling? (AS2)
(OR)
Veena found that the water kept in a pot is cool and Siva observed when water is heated the temperature remains constant for some time until water turns into vapour. What are the processes involved in these two aspects? Ask some questions to understand these aspects.
Answer:
The questions asked by me are :

• How do wet clothes get dried without heating?
• Are boiling and evaporation one and same or different?
• Is there any difference in kinetic energy if it boils?
• Is the temperature the main cause for boiling and evaporation?
• What are the factors which influence evaporation?
• Is boiling temperature for water always 100° C?

Question 10.
What happens to the water when wet clothes dry? (AS3)
Answer:

1. When wet clothes dry, the water present in the clothes is evaporated.
2. So that the process of evaporation causes the wet clothes dry.

Question 11.
Equal amounts of water are kept in a cap and in a dish. Which will evaporate faster? Why? (AS3)
(OR)
Srinu kept. equal amounts of water in a cap and in a dish in open air. What is his observation? Explain the experiment.
Answer:
Aim : To show the evaporation of equal amounts of water in cap and dish.
Apparatus : Cap, dish, water.

Procedure :

• Take equal amounts of water in cap and dish. Keep them in open air for two hours. Now weigh the water in the cap and the dish.
• We can observe that the weight of water in dish is less than that of water in cap.
• This shows that the water in dish has more evaporation than the water in cap.
• It is due to more surface area of dish.
• As the surface area increases rate of evaporation also increases.

Question 12.
Suggest an experiment to prove that rate of evaporation of a liquid depends on its surface area and vapour already present in surrounding air. (AS3)
Answer:
Aim: The rate of evaporation of liquid depends on its surface area and vapour already present in surrounding air.
Apparatus : Two dishes of different surface areas and water.

Procedure :

• Take two dishes of different surface area.
• Pour equal amounts of water in the both dishes.
• Keep aside for two to three hours.
• Observe them after some time.
  Dish with more surface area has less quantity of water than the dish having less surface area. ,
• This shows evaporation increases with increasing of surface area.
• Take two dishes of equal surface area containing water.
• This experiment should be conducted on more humid day and less humid day.
• We will find that evaporation is less on more humid day due to more vapour in the air.
• So evaporation decreases with vapour in the air.

Question 13.
Place a Pyrex funnel with its mouth-down in a sauce pan full of water, in such a way that the stem tube of the funnel is above the water or pointing upward into air. Rest the edge of the bottom portion of the funnel on a nail or on a coin so that water can get under it. Place the pan on a stove and heat it till it begins to boil. Where do the bubbles form first? Why? Can you explain how a natural geyser works using this experience? (AS4)
Answer:

• When Pyrex funnel with its mouth down in a sauce pan then the bubbles formed by the heat energy come from the top of the funnel.
• That is from stem tube.
• This is because of pressure inside mouth of funnel increases rapidly due to increasing of heat energy.
• Pressure inside the funnel rs more than outside the funnel and very high at stem.
• Hence, bubbles come from stem of the funnel and escapes through stem tube with force, like a geyser.

Working of natural geyser by using this experience :

• Geysers are the fountains of hot water coming under the layers of the earth.
• It is a hole with narrow and deep from the bottom of the earth layers.
• It contains water.
• Water heats up due to high temperatures of the inner layers of the earth.
• As by the pressure of water at top layers of the hole, temperature rises, water boils.
• This hot water comes with narrow vent with high pressure, like Lava from the Volcano.

Question 14.
Collect the information about working of natural geyser and prepare a report. (AS4)
Answer:
Natural Geysers :

• Geysers are the fountains of hot water coming under the layers of the earth.
• It is a hole with narrow and deep from the bottom of the earth layers.
  
• It contains water.
• Water heats up due to high temperatures of the inner layers of the earth.
• As by the pressure of water at top layers of the hole, temperature rises, water boils.
• This hot water comes with narrow vent with high pressure, like Lava from the Volcano.
• This looks like a water fountain at the surface of the earth.
  

Question 15.
Assume that heat is being supplied continuously to 2 kg of ice at – 5°C. You know that ice melts at 0°C and boils at 100°C. Continue the heating till it starts boiling. Note the temperature for every minute. Draw a graph between temperature and time using the values you get. What do you understand from the graph ? Write the conclusions. (AS5)
Answer:
Graph between time and temperature from ice melting at 5° C to boils at 100° C.

Understanding from the graph :

• \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) = Ice warms up from – 5°C to 0°C
• \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\) = Ice melts at 0°C for a certain time period. So \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\) indicates no rising in temperature.
• \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\) = Water warms up from 0°C to 100° C, \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\) indicates rising in temperature.
• \(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\) = Water boils at 100° C for a certain time period. So \(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\) indicates no rising in temperature.

Conclusion :

• The temperature remains same at 0° C until all the ice converted into water. So, 0° C is the melting point of water.
• The temperature remains constant at 100° C until all the water converted into water vapour. So, 100° C is the boiling point of the water.

Question 16.
How do you appreciate the role of the higher specific heat of water in stabilising atmospheric temperature during winter and summer seasons? (AS6)
Answer:

• Due to higher specific heat of water oceans absorb the solar energy for maintaining a relatively constant temperature.
• Oceans absorb large amounts of heat at the equator.
• The oceans moderate the surrounding temperature near the equator.
• Ocean water transports the heat away from the equator to areas closer to the north and south pole.
• This transported heat helps moderate the climate in parts of the Earth that are far from the equator.
• So higher specific heat of water is stabilising atmospheric temperature.
• So we have to extremely appreciate the role of higher specific heat of water to stabilise the atmospheric temperature.

Question 17.
Suppose that 1 / of water is heated for a certain time to rise and its temperature by 2°C. If 2 l of water is heated for the same time, by how much will its temperature. (AS7)
Answer:
Mass of 1 litre of water (m₁) = 1 kg ; ∆T₁ = 2°C
Mass of 2 litres of water (m₂) = 2 kg ; ∆ T₂ = ?
Time duration is same. So same heat is absorbed by water in both the cases
⇒ Q₁ = Q₂
m₁S(∆T₁) = m₂S (∆T₂)

So the rise in temperature for 2 kg of water = 1°C.

Question 18.
What role does specific heat play in keeping a watermelon cool for a long time after removing it from a fridge on a hot day? (AS7)
Answer:

• Generally, watermelon contains large percentage of water.
• Water has high specific heat value than other substances.
• High specific heat substances oppose the increase of temperature. Hence they continuous of the coolingness.
• So watermelon retains coolness after removing from fridge on a hot day due to the high specific cheat of water.

Question 19.
If you are chilly outside the shower stall, why do you feel warm after the bath if you stay in bathroom? (AS7)
Answer:

• In the bathroom, the number of vapour molecules per unit volume is greater than the number of vapour molecules per unit volume outside the room.
• When we try to dry ourselves with a towel, the vapour molecules surrounding you condense on your skin.
• Condensation is a warming process.
• Because of the condensation, you feel warm outside the shower stall when it is chilly.

Question 20.
Three objects A at 30°C, B at 303K and C at 420 K are in thermal contact. Then answer the follwing questions.
(i) Which are in “Thermal equibrium” among A, B and C?
(ii) From which object to another heat transferred? (2 Marks)
Answer:
i) 303K – 273K + 30K = 0°C + 30°C = 30°C.
∴ A and B objects are in ‘Thermal equibrium”.
ii) From object ‘C’ to objects ‘A’ and ‘B’ heat transferred.

Fill in the Blanks

1. The SI unit of specific heat is …………………. .
2. …………………. flows from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature.
3. …………………. is a cooling process.
4. An object A at 10° C and another object B at 10 K are kept in contact, then heat will flow from …………………. to …………………. .
5. The latent heat of fusion of ice is …………………. .
6. Temperature of a body is directly proportional to …………………. .
7. According to the principle of method of mixtures, the net heat lost by the hot bodies is equal to …………………. by the cold bodies.
8. The sultryness in summer days is due to
9. …………………. is used as a coolant.
10. Ice floats on water because …………………. .
Answer:

1. J/kg – K
2. Heat
3. Evaporation
4. A, B
5. 80 cal/gm
6. Average kinetic energy of the molecules of the body.
7. net heat gained
8. high humidity
9. Water
10. the density of ice is less than that of water

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is a warming process?
A) evaporation
B) condensation
C) boiling
D) all the above
Answer:
B) condensation

2. Melting is a process in which solid phase changes to ………………. .
A) liquid phase
B) liquid phase at constant temperature
C) gaseous phase
D) any phase
Answer:
B) liquid phase at constant temperature

3. Three bodies A, B and C are in thermal equilibrium. The temperature of B is 45° C. Then the temperature of C is ……………… .
A) 45° C
B) 50° C
C) 40° C
D) any temperature
Answer:
A) 45° C

4. The temperature of a steel rod is 330 K. Its temperature in ° C is ……………… .
A) 55° C
B) 57° C
C) 59° C
D) 53° C
Answer:
B) 57° C

5. Specific heat S =

Answer: C

6. Boiling point of water at normal atmospheric pressure is ……………… .
A) 0° C
B) 100° C
C) 110° C
D) -5° C
Answer:
B) 100° C

7. When ice melts, its temperature ……………… .
A) remains constant
B) increases
C) decreases
D) cannot say
Answer:
A) remains constant

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 1

Question 1.
Take a piece of wood and a piece of metal and keep them in a fridge or ice box. After 15 minutes, take them out and ask your friend to touch them. Which is colder? Why?
Answer:
1) The metal piece is colder than the wooden piece.
2) Because more heat energy flows out of our body so metal piece gives coldness to our body, than wooden piece.

Question 2.
What could be the reason for difference in coldness of metal and wood?
Answer:

• Due to more heat energy loss by our body when touches the metal piece compared to the wooden piece.
• In other way we say degree of coldness of the metal piece is greater than that of. the wooden piece.

Question 3.
Does it have any relation to the transfer of heat energy from our body to the object?
Answer:

• Yes, the principle of calorimetry, means heat loss by hot body is equal to heat gained by cold body.
• This means that when heat energy flows out of our body we feel the coldness and when heat energy enters our body we feel hotness.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 2

Question 4.
Why does transfer of heat energy take place between objects?
Answer:

• Due to the temperature difference between the two bodies which are in thermal contact.
• Now heat energy transfers from hot body to cold body until they attain same temperature.

Question 5.
Does transfer of heat take place in all situations?
Answer:
No, when the bodies are in thermal equilibrium there is no transfer of heat energy.

Question 6.
What are the conditions for transfer of heat energy?
Answer:

• Two bodies should have difference in temperature.
• They (two bodies) are in thermal contact with each other.
• When the bodies have equal temperature there is no transfer of heat energy.

Question 7.
What is temperature?
(OR)
Define temperature.
Answer:
Temperature : The measure of hotness or coldness of a body is called temperature.

Question 8.
How can you differentiate temperature from heat?
Answer:

• Heat is a thermal energy that flows from hot body to cold body. Temperature is measure of the hotness or coldness of a body.
• Temperature decides direction of heat (energy) flow, whereas heat is energy itself that flows.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 2 & 3

Question 9.
Place a laboratory thermometer in a glass tumbler containing hot water. Observe the change in mercury level. Wffet change did you notice in mercury level? Did mercury level increase or decrease?
Answer:
The mercury level rises up that means temperature of the mercury level increases.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 3

Question 10.
Place a laboratory thermometer in a glass tumbler containing cold water. Observe the change in mercury level. Did mercury level decrease or increase?
Answer:
The mercury level falls down that shows temperature of the mercury level decreases.

Question 11.
If two different systems A and B in thermal contact, are in thermal equilibrium individually with another system C (thermal contact with A and B), will the systems A and B be in thermal equilibrium with each other?
Answer:
Yes, A and B will be in thermal equilibrium with each other that means A and B will have equal temperatures.

Question 12.
How would you convert degree Celsius to Kelvin?
Answer:
Temperature in Kelvin = 273 + Temperature in degree Celsius. [K = t°C + 273]

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 4

Question 13.
Take two bowls one with hot water and second with cold water. Gently sprinkle food colour on the surface of the water in both bowls. How do food grains move? Why do they move randomly?
Answer:
We will notice that the grains of food colour move randomly (jiggle). This happens because of the molecules of water on both bowls are in random motion.

Question 14.
Why do the grains in hot water move more rapidly than the grains in cold water?
Answer:

• Temperature kinetic energy. So molecules in hot water have more KE than molecules in cold water.
• As water molecules in hot water move rapidly, grains in hot water move more rapidly than the grains in cold water.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 4 & 5

Question 15.
a) Take a cylindrical jar and pour hot water and then coconut oil in the vessel (do not mix them). Keep thermometers in hot water and coconut oil as shown in figure. The reading of thermometer in hot water decreases, at the same time reading of the thermometer, kept in oil increases. Why does this happen?
Answer:

• Heat transfers from hot water to oil.
• So, water loses heat and shows downfall in temperature.
• Oil takes the heat and shows increasing in the temperature.

b) Can you say that water loses energy’?
Answer:

• Yes. Due to the temperature difference between the water and oil, water loses energy and oil gains energy.
• Thus some heat energy flows from water to oil.
• This means, the kinetic energy of the molecules of water decreases while the kinetic energy of molecules of oil increases.

c) Can you differentiate between heat and temperature based on the heat transmit activity?
Answer:
Heat is the energy that flows from a hotter body to a colder body. Temperature denotes which body is hotter and which is colder. So, temperature determines direction of heat (energy) flow, whereas heat is the energy that flows.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 5 & 6

Question 16.
Place two test tubes containing 50 gm of water, 50 gm of oil in boiling water for same time.
a) In which material does the temperature rise quickly? Are the amounts of heat given to the water and oil same? How can you assume this?
Answer:

• Rise in temperature of oil is faster than the water.
• Yes, same amount of heat energy given to both the oil and water through boiling water.

b) Why does this happen in specific heat?
Answer:
This happens because rise in temperature depends on the nature of substance.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 7

Question 17.
How much heat energy is required to rise the temperature of unit mass of substance (material) by 1°C?
Answer:
Energy equal to its specific heat.

Question 18.
Why is the specific heat different for different substances?
(OR)
Explain why specific heat values are different for different materials.
Answer:

• We know that the temperature of the body is directly proportional to the average kinetic energy of particle of the body.
• The molecules of the system have different forms of energies such as linear, rotational kinetic energy, vibrational energy and potential energy.
• When we supply heat energy, it will be shared in different forms and increase the energy in the system.
• This sharing will vary from material to material.
• If the maximum share of heat energy is spent to rise linear kinetic energy, then the system gets increasing in temperature.
• Due to differences in sharing different materials have different specific heats.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 8

Question 19.
Take 200 ml of water in two beakers and heat them to same temperature and pour the water of two beakers into a larger beaker.
What do you observe? What could be the reason for the fact you observed?
Answer:

• The temperature of mixture remains the same.
• The reason is that the masses rise in temperature and the materials are same.

Question 20.
Heat the water in one beaker to 90°C and the other to 60°C. Mix the water from these beakers in large beaker. What will be the temperature of the mixture? What did you notice? Can you give reason for the change in temperature?
Answer:

• The temperature of mixture is 75°C.
• The reason is for a given material the temperature of mixture,
  
• Hot water gives heat to the cold water until thermal equilibrium takes place.
• So, the thermal equilibrium attains at 75°C.

Question 21.
ake 100 ml of water at 90°C and 200 ml of water at 60°C and mix the two. What is the temperature of the mixture? What difference do you notice in change of temperature?
Answer:

• The temperature of mixture is 70°C.
• The reason is here m₁ = 100 gm ; m₂ = 200 gm
  
• Final temperature of the mixture is less than the above case.
• If the quantity increases, the quantity of heat to transfer is also rises to attain thermal equilibrium.
  Here hotter body quantity is less and colder body quantity is high. So, the temperature at thermal equilibrium decreases and stands at 70° C.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 10

Question 22.
When floor of room is washed with water, the water on the floor disappears within minutes. Why does water on the floor disappear after some time?
Answer:
Due to evaporation water disappears from the floor.

Question 23.
Pour a few drops of spirit on your palm. Why does your skin become colder? (1 Mark)
Answer:
Spirit absorbs heat energy from our palm and evaporates. So our palm becomes colder.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 10 & 11

Question 24.
Take a few drops of spirit in two petri dishes separately. Keep one of the dishes under a ceiling fan and switch on the fan. Keep another dish with its lid closed. What do you notice? What could be the reason for this change?
Answer:
1) The spirit in the dish which is kept under the ceiling fan disappears.
2) Whereas we will find some spirit left in the dish that is kept in the lidded dish.
3) The molecules which are escaping from the surface is high and they can’t reach back to liquid due to wind blow. So, evaporation is high under fan.
4) At the same time evaporation is less in the dish which is closed by lid.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 12

Question 25.
Does the reverse process of evaporation take place? When and how does it take place?
Answer:
1) Yes, the reverse process of evaporation takes place.
2) When the vapour molecules lose their kinetic energy which leads to lower the temperature, they convert into droplets.
3) This process is called condensation.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 13

Question 26.
In early morning, during winter, you might have noticed that water droplets form on window panes, flowers, grass, etc. How are these water droplets formed?
(OR)
Why do water drops (dew) form on flowers and grass during morning hours of winter season?
Answer:

• During winter season, in the night times, atmospheric temperature goes down.
• The surfaces of window panes, flowers, grass, etc. become colder.
• The water vapour molecules touch the surfaces, gets cooled and lost its energy.
• Then water vapour condenses on the surface and water drops formed.
• The water droplets condensed on such surfaces are known as dew.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 14

Question 27.
Are the process of evaporation and boiling the same? Explain.
Answer:

• No, they are different.
• Evaporation takes place at any temperature.
• But boiling occurs at particular temperature called the boiling point.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 16

Question 28.
You might have observed coconut oil and ghee getting converted from liquid state to solid state during winter season. What could be the reason for this change? What happens to water kept in a refrigerator? How does it get converted from liquid phase to solid phase?
Answer:
1) If temperature of a substance decreases kinetic energy also decreases.
2) Kinetic energy decreases from water to ice. That means solid state to liquid state.
3) In winter season coconut oil in the form of liquid get down its temperature, hence its kinetic energy also decreases. So, it-freezes.
4) Water, which is kept in refrigerator loses the kinetic energy along with decreasing temperature and freezes.
5) In this way water converted liquid phase to solid phase.

Question 29.
Are the volumes of water and ice formed with same amount of water equal? Why?
Answer:
1) No, the volume of ice is greater than volume of water.
2) Water expands on freezing.
3) That means density of ice is less than density of water.

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat Activities

Activity – 1

1. Explain the term temperature with example.
(OR)
What is the name given to degree of hotness or coldness? Explain the quantity with an example.
Answer:
Procedure: Take a piece of wood and a piece of metal and keep them in fridge or ice box.
Observation : When we touch both of them we feel that metal piece is colder than the wooden piece.

Explanation :

• This is due to more energy flow out of our body when we touch the metal piece as compared with wooden piece.
• The degree of coldness of metal is greater than that of the wooden piece.
• The degree of hotness or coldness is called temperature.
• From this example, we say metal piece is at a lower temperature compared to wooden piece.

Activity – 2

2. What is the measure of thermal equilibrium? How do you prove?
(OR)
How do you prove temperature is the measure of thermal equilibrium?
(OR)
Explain thermal equilibrium with an activity.
Answer:
Procedure :
Take two glass tumblers and fill one of them with hot water and another with cold water.
Explanation & Observation :
1) When we place a thermometer inside the hot water the mercury level of thermometer rises from initial position due to heat transferred from hotter body (hot water) to colder body (mercury in thermometer).
2) When we place the thermometer inside the cold water the mercury level comes down from its initial position due to transfer of heat from mercury (hotter body) to water (colder body).

Conclusion :

• Heat is a form of energy that flows from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature until the temperature remains same for two bodies that is called thermal equilibrium.
• In the above case, the steadiness of mercury column shows that thermal equilibrium is achieved. That reading of mercury column gives temperature.
• Thus temperature is a measure of thermal equilibrium.

Activity – 3

3. Establish the relationship between temperature and average kinetic energy.
(OR)
Suggest an activity to prove that the average kinetic energy of the molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the substances.
(OR)
How do you prove that temperature of a body is an indicator of average kinetic energy?
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take two bowls one with hot water and second with cold water.
• Gently sprinkle food colour on the surface of the water in both bowls.

Observation :
We will observe the jiggling of grains of food colour in hot water is more when compared to jiggling in cold water.

Explanation :

• We know kinetic energy depends on speed motion of particles.
• So the kinetic energy of hotter body is greater than that of colder body.
• Thus the temperature of a body is an indicator of average kinetic energy of molecules of that body.

Conclusion :
Therefore average kinetic energy of molecules is directly proportional to absolute temperature.

Activity – 4

4. Write an activity which tells how heat transmits.
(OR)
In which direction does heat tend to flow? Prove it with an activity.
Answer:

Procedure :

• Take water in a container and heat it to 60° C.
• Take a cylindrical transparent glass jar and fill half of it with the hot water.
• Pour coconut oil over the surface of water.
• Put a lid with two holes on the top of the glass jar.
• Insert two thermometers through the lid in such a way that one inside coconut oil and other in water.

Observation & Explanation :

• Now we can observe that the reading of thermometer kept in water decreases while the reading of thermometer kept in oil increases.
• So temperature of water decreases whereas temperature of oil increases.

Conclusion :

• Heat transmits from hotter body to colder body.
• So temperature determines direction of heat flow.

Activity – 5 Specific Heat

5. Write an activity which gives the relation between rise in temperature and nature of material.
(OR)
“The rate of rise in temperature depends on the nature of substance.” Prove it with an activity.
(OR)
Draw a diagram and label the parts to prove that the rate of increase in temperature depends on the nature of substance.
(OR)
We can observe severe burns with hot oil when compared with hot water.
Which factor will decide this aspect? Explain this process with an example.
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take a large jar with water and heat it up to 80°C.
• Take two identical boiling test tubes with single-holed corks.
• Fill them, one of the boiling tubes with 50 gm of water and other with 50 gm of oil.
• Insert two thermometers in each of tubes and clamp them to retort stand and place them in a jar of hot water.

Observation :

• Observe the readings of thermometers every three minutes.
• We can observe that the rise in temperature of oil is higher than that of water.

Explanation :

• Since both the boiling tubes kept in hot water for the same interval of time, the heat supplied to oil and water is same but rise in temperature of oil is more.
• So we conclude that rise in temperature depends on the nature of substance (specific heat).

Activity – 6

6. Derive Q = mSAT.
(OR)
Establish relationship between heat energy, mass of the substance and rise in temperature.
(OR)
Derive an expression for heat energy.
(OR)
Derive an expression for factors affecting amount of heat energy absorbed.
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take two beakers of equal volume and take 250 grams of water in one beaker and 1 kg of water in another beaker.
• Note their initial temperatures.
• Now heat the two beakers up to 60° C.
• Note down the heating times.

Observation:

• We observe that-the water in large beaker takes more time.
• That means we need to supply more heat enepgy to water in larger beaker (greater quantity of water).

Conclusion :
From this we conclude that for some change in temperature the amount of heat (Q) absorbed by a substance is directly proportional to its mass (m).
Q ∝ m (when ∆T is constant) ………….. (1)

Procedure :
Now take 1 litre of water in a beaker and heat it and note the temperature changes (∆T) for every two minutes and observe the rise internals.

Conclusion:
We will notice that for the same mass (m) of water the change in temperature is proportional to amount of heat (Q) absorbed by it.
Q ∝ ∆T (when m is constant) ………….. (2)
From (1) and (2) Q m∆T (or) Q = mS∆T,
where ‘S’ is called specific heat of substance.

Activity – 7

7. a) How are you able to find the final temperature of the mixture of sample?
(OR)
What is the “Principle of method of mixtures”? Verify it with an activity.
Answer:
Situation – 1 :

• Take two beakers of the same size and pour 200 ml of water in each of them.
• Now heat the water in both beakers to same temperature.
• Now pour water from these beakers into a larger beaker and measure the temperature of the mixture.

Observation :
We can observe that there is no change in temperature.

Situation – 2 :

• Now heat the water in first beaker to 90° C and the other to 60° C.
• Mix the water from these beakers in a large beaker.

Observation :
We can find that the temperature of mixture is 75° C.

Situation – 3 :
Now take 100 ml of water at 90° C and 200 ml of water at 60° C and mix the two. Observation :
We can find that the temperature of mixture is 75° C.

7. b) Derive, a formula for final temperature of mixture of samples.
(OR)
Maveen added hotter water of mass m₁ kept at temperature T₁ to cold water of mass m₂ kept at temperature T₂. Find the expression to find temperature of mixture of samples.
Answer:
Procedure:
1) Let the initial temperatures of the hotter and colder samples of masses m₁ and m₂ be T₁ and T₂.
2) Let T be the final temperature of mixture.

Observation :
The temperature of the mixture is lower than hotter sample and higher than colder sample. Explanation :
So hot sample has lost heat, and the cold sample has gained heat.
The heat lost by the hot sample Q₁ = m₁S (T₁ – T)
The heat gained by the cold sample Q₂ = m₂S (T – T₂)
We know that heat lost = heat gained
Q₁ = Q₂
m₁ S(T₁ – T) = m₂ S(T – T₂)
\(\mathrm{T}=\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{~T}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{~T}_{2}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}}\)

Activity -8

8. Explain the process of evaporation phenomenon with an example.
(OR)
Srinu observed that spirit taken in a petri dish disappears after some time. Explain the process involved in it with an example.
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take a few drops of spirit in two petri dishes separately.
• Keep one of the dishes under a ceiling fan and keep another dish with its lid closed.
• Observe the quantity of spirit in both dishes after 5 minutes.

Observation :
We will notice that spirit in the dish kept under the ceiling fan disappears whereas we will find some spirit left in the dish that is kept in the lidded dish.

Explanation :

• The reason is that the molecules of spirit in dish continuously move with random speeds and collide with other molecules.
• During the collision they transfer energy to other molecules.
• Due to this collision the molecules at the surface acquire energy and fly off from the surface.
• Some molecules come back to liquid.
• If the number of escaping molecules is greater than returned number, then the number of molecules in the liquid decreases.

Conclusion :
When a liquid is exposed to air, the molecules at the surface keep on escaping from the surface till the entire liquid disappears into air. This process is called evaporation.

Activity – 9

9. Explain the process of condensation with example.
(OR)
Explain the process of condensation with an activity.
(OR)
Karan told his friend that he observed that there are some water droplets outside a cold soft drink bottle. Explain the phenomenon involved in the formation of these droplets.
Answer:
Procedure :
Place a glass tumbler on the table. Pour cold water up to half of its height.

Observation :
There are droplets formed outside of the glass.

Explanation :

• The reason is that the surrounding air contains water molecules in the form of water vapour. When the water molecules strike the surface of the glass tumbler which is cool, they lose their kinetic energy.
• This energy lowers the temperature of vapour and it turns into droplets.
• The energy lost by water molecules in air is gained by the molecules of the glass tumbler.
• Hence the average kinetic energy of glass molecules increases. In turn the energy is transferred to water molecules in die glass.

Conclusion :

• So the average kinetic energy and temperature of water in glass increases. This is called condensation.
• Condensation is the phase change from gas to liquid.

Activity – 10

10. Explain the process of boiling with an example.
(OR)
Why do we observe bubbles on the surface of water which has been heated ? What is the phenomenon involved in it? Explain.
Answer:
Procedure :
Take a beaker of water, keep it on the burner and note the readings of thermometer for every two minutes.

Observation :

• We will notice that the temperature of the water rises continuously till it reaches 100° C.
• Once it reaches 100° C the temperature remains same and a lot of bubbling on the surface takes place. This is called boiling of water.

Explanation :

• It happens due to when water is heated the solubility of gases it contains reduces.
• As a result, bubbles of gas are formed in the liquid.
• Evaporation of water molecules from the surrounding liquid occurs into these bubbles and they become filled with saturated vapour.
• At a certain temperature, the pressure of the saturated vapour inside the bubbles becomes equal to the pressure exerted on the bubbles from the outside.

Conclusion :

• As a result, these bubbles rise rapidly to the surface and collapse at the surface releasing vapour present in bubbles into air at the surface. This process is called “boiling”.
• This temperature is called ‘boiling temperature”.

Activity – 11

11. Explain the process of melting and latent heat of fusion.
(OR)
When ice is heated to 0°C it starts to turn into water. But temperature remains ‘ constant for some time. What is the process involved in this? Explain.
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take small ice cubes in a beaker. Insert the thermometer in the beaker.
• Now start heating the beaker and note down readings of thermometer every one minute till the ice completely melts and gets converted into water.
• Before heating the temperature of ice is 0°C or less than 0°C.

Observation :

• We will observe that the temperature of ice at the beginning is equal to or below 0°C.
• If the temperature of ice is below 0°C, it goes on changing till it reaches 0°C.
• When ice starts melting, we will observe no change in temperature though you are supplying heat continuously.

Explanation:

• Given heat energy uses to break the bonds (H₂O) in ice and melts.
• So, temperature is constant while melting.

Conclusion:

• This process is called melting. In this process, heat converts solid phase to liquid phase.
• The temperature of the substance does not change until all the ice melts and converts into water.
• The heat given to melting is called latent heat of fusion.
• The heat required to convert 1 gm of solid completely into liquid at constant temperature is called “latent heat of fusion”.

Activity – 12

12. Why does a glass bottle tilled with water break when it is placed in deep freezer for some time?
(OR)
Prove that density of ice is less than that of water.
(OR)
How do you prove that volume of ice is more than that of water?
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take a small glass bottle with a tight lid and fill it with water, without any gap and fix the lid tightly.
• Put the bottle into the deep freezer of a refrigerator for a few hours.

Observation :
When we take it out from the deep freezer, we can observe that the glass bottle breaks.

Explanation :

• These cracks on the bottle due to expansion of the substance in the bottle.
• This means water expands on freezing.

Conclusion :

• Water expands on freezing.
• Ice has less density than water.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 8 Similar Triangles Ex 8.4 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 8th Lesson Similar Triangles Exercise 8.4

10th Class Maths 8th Lesson Similar Triangles Ex 8.4 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prove that the sum of the squares of the sides of a rhombus is equal to the sum of the squares of its diagonals.
Answer:

Given : □ ABCD is a rhombus.
Let its diagonals AC and BD bisect each other at ‘O’.
We know that “the diagonals in a rhombus are perpendicular to each other”.
In △AOD; AD² = OA² + OD² ………. (1)
[Pythagoras theorem]
In △COD; CD² = OC² + OD² ………. (2)
[Pythagoras theorem]
In △AOB; AB² = OA² + OB² ………. (3)
[Pythagoras theorem]
In △BOC; BC² = OB² + OC² ………. (4)
[Pythagoras theorem]
Adding the above equations we get AD² + CD² + AB² + BC² = 2 (OA² + OB2 + OC² + OD²)

Question 2.
ABC is a right triangle right angled at B. Let D and E be any points on AB and BC respectively. Prove that AE² + CD² = AC² + DE².

Answer:
Given: In △ABC; ∠B = 90°
D and E are points on AB and BC.
R.T.P.: AE² + CD² = AC² + DE²
Proof: In △BCD, △BCD is a right triangle right angled at B.
∴ BD² + BC² = CD² ……… (1)
[∵ Pythagoras theorem states that hypotenuse² = side² + side²]
In △ABE; ∠B = 90°
Adding (1) and (2), we get
BD² + BC² + AB² + BE² – CD² + AE²
(BD² + BE²) + (AB² + BC²) = CD² + AE²
DE² + AC² – CD² + AE² [Q.E.D.]
[∵ (i) In △DBE, ∠B = 90° and DE² = BD² + BE²
(ii) In △ABC, ∠B = 90° and AB² + BC²]

Question 3.
Prove that three times the square of any side of an equilateral triangle is equal to four times the square of the altitude.
Answer:
Given: △ABC, an equilateral triangle;
AD – altitude and the side is a units, altitude h units.
R.T.P: 3a² = 4h²

Proof: In △ABD, △ACD
∠B = ∠C [∵ 60°]
∠ADB = ∠ADC [∵ 90°]
∴ ∠BAD = ∠DAC [∵ Angle sum property]
Also, BA = CA
∴ △ABD s △ACD (by SAS congruence condition)
Hence, BD = CD = \(\frac{1}{2}\)BC = \(\frac{a}{2}\) [∵ c.p.c.t]
Now in △ABD, AB² = AD² + BD²
[∵ Pythagoras theorem]
a² = h² + \(\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)^{2}\)
a² = h² + \(\frac{a^{2}}{4}\)
h² = \(\frac{4 a^{2}-a^{2}}{4}\)
∴ h² = \(\frac{3 a^{2}}{4}\)
⇒ 4h² = 3a² (Q.E.D)

Question 4.
PQR is a triangle right angled at P and M is a point on QR such that PM ⊥ QR. Show that PM² = QM . MR.
Answer:

Given: In △PQR, ∠P = 90° and PM ⊥ QR.
R.T.P : PM² = QM . MR
Proof: In △PQR; △MPR
∠P = ∠M [each 90°]
∠R = ∠R [common]
∴ △PQR ~ △MPR ……… (1)
[A.A. similarity]
In △PQR and △MQP,
∠P = ∠M (each 90°)
∠Q = ∠Q (common)
∴ △PQR ~ △MQP ……… (2)
[A.A. similarity]
From (1) and (2),
△PQR ~ △MPR ~ △MQP [transitive property]
∴ △MPR ~ △MQP
\(\frac{MP}{MQ}\) = \(\frac{PR}{QP}\) = \(\frac{MR}{MP}\)
[Ratio of corresponding sides of similar triangles are equal]
\(\frac{PM}{QM}\) = \(\frac{MR}{PM}\)
PM . PM = MR . QM
PM² = QM . MR [Q.E.D]

Question 5.
ABD is a triangle right angled at A and AC ⊥ BD.
Show that (i) AB² = BC BD
(ii) AD² = BD CD
(iii) AC² = BC DC.

Answer:
Given: In △ABD; ∠A = 90° AC ⊥ BD
R.T.P.:
i) AB² = BC . BD
Proof: In △ABD and △CAB,
∠BAD = ∠ACB [each 90°]
∠B = ∠B [common]
∴ △ABD ~ △CBA
[by A.A. similarity condition]
Hence, \(\frac{AB}{BC}\) = \(\frac{BD}{AB}\) = \(\frac{AD}{AC}\)
[∵ Ratios of corresponding sides of similar triangles are equal]
\(\frac{AB}{BD}\) = \(\frac{BC}{AB}\)
⇒ AB . AB = BC . BD
∴ AB² = BC . BD

ii) AD² = BD . CD
Proof: In △ABD and △CAD
∠BAD = ∠ACD [each 90°]
∠D = ∠D (common)
∴ △ABD ~ △CAD [A.A similarity]
Hence, \(\frac{AB}{AC}\) = \(\frac{BD}{AD}\) = \(\frac{AD}{CD}\)
⇒ \(\frac{BD}{AD}\) = \(\frac{AD}{CD}\)
AD . AD = BD . CD
AD² = BD . CD [Q.E.D]

iii) AC² = BC . DC
Proof: From (i) and (ii)
△ACB ~ △DCA
[∵ △BAD ~ △BCA ~ △ACD
Hence, \(\frac{AC}{DC}\) = \(\frac{BC}{AC}\) = \(\frac{AB}{AD}\)
\(\frac{AC}{DC}\) = \(\frac{BC}{AC}\)
AC . AC = BC . DC
AC² = BC . DC [Q.E.D]

Question 6.
ABC is an isosceles triangle right angled at C. Prove that AB² = 2AC².
Answer:

Given: In △ABC; ∠C = 90°; AC = BC.
R.T.P.: AB² = 2AC²
Proof: In △ACB; ∠C = 90°
Hence, AC² + BC² = AB²
[Square of the hypotenuse is equal to sum of the squares of the other two sides – Pythagoras theorem]
⇒ AC² + AC² = AB² [∵ AC = BC given]
⇒ AB² = 2AC² [Q.E.D.]

Question 7.
‘O’ is any point in the interior of a triangle ABC.
OD ⊥ BC, OE ⊥ AC and OF ⊥ AB, show that
i) OA² + OB² + OC² – OD² – OE² – OF² = AF² + BD² + CE²
ii) AF² + BD² + CE² = AE² + CD² + BF².

Answer:
Given: △ABC; O’ is an interior point of △ABC.
OD ⊥ BC, OE ⊥ AC, OF ⊥ AB.
R.T.P.:
i) OA² + OB² + OC² – OD² – OE² – OF² = AF² + BD² + CE²
Proof: In OAF, OA² = AF² + OF² [Pythagoras theorem]
⇒ OA² – OF² = AF² …….. (1)
In △OBD,
OB² = BD² + OD²
⇒ OB² – OD² = BD² …….. (2)
In △OCE, OC² = CE² + OE²
OC² – OE² = CE² ……… (3)
Adding (1), (2) and (3) we get,
OA² – OF² + OB² – OD² + OC² – OE² = AF² + BD² + CE²
OA² + OB² + OC² – OD² – OE² – OF² = AF² + BD² + CE² ……… (4)

ii) AF² + BD² + CE² = AE² + CD² + BF²
In △OAE,
OA² = AE² + OF² ……… (1)
⇒ OA² – OE² = AE²
In △OBF, OB² = BF² + OF²
OB² – OF² = BF² ……… (2)
In △OCD, OC² = OD² + CD²
OC² – OD² = CD² ……… (3)
Adding (1), (2) and (3) we get
OA² – OE² + OB² – OF² + OC² – OD² = AE² + BF² + CD²
⇒ OA² + OB² + OC² – OD² – OE² – OF² = AE² + CD² + BF²
⇒ AF² + BD² + CE² = AE² + CD² + BF² [From problem (i)]

Question 8.
A wire attached to vertical pole of height 18 m is 24 m long and has a stake attached to the other end. How far from the base of the pole should the stake be driven so that the wire will be taut?
Answer:

Height of the pole AB = 18 m.
Length of the wire AC = 24 m.
Distance beween the pole and the stake be ‘d’ meters.
By Pythagoras theorem,
Hypotenuse² = side² + side²
24² = 18² + d²
d² = 24² – 18² = 576 – 324 = 252
= \(\sqrt{36 \times 7}\)
∴ d = 6√7 m.

Question 9.
Two poles of heights 6 m and 11m stand on a plane ground. If the distance between the feet of the poles is 12 m, find the distance between their tops.
Answer:

Let the height of the first pole AB = 6 m.
Let the height of the second pole CD = 11 m.
Distance between the poles AC = 12 m.
From the figure □ ACEB is a rectangle.
∴ AB = CE = 6 m
ED = CD – CE = 11 – 6 = 5 m
Now in △BED; ∠E = 90°; DE = 5 m; BE = 12 m
BD² = BE² + DE²
[hypotenuse² = side² + side² – Pythagoras theorem]
= 12² + 5²
= 144 + 25
BD² = 169
BD = √l69 = 13m
∴ Distance between the tops of the poles = 13 m.

Question 10.
In an equilateral triangle ABC, D is a point on side BC such that BD = \(\frac{1}{3}\) BC. Prove that 9AD² = 7AB².
Answer:

In △ABE, ∠E = 90°
⇒ \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) is hypotenuse.
∴ AB² = AE² + BE²
AE² = AB² – BE²
⇒ AE² = AB² – \(\left(\frac{BC}{2}\right)^{2}\)
= AE² = AB² – \(\left(\frac{AB}{2}\right)^{2}\) (∵ AB = BC)
⇒ AE² = \(\frac{3}{4}\)AB² ……… (1)
In △ADE, ∠E = 90°
⇒ \(\overline{\mathrm{AD}}\) is hypotenuse.
⇒ AD² = AE² + DE²
⇒ AE² = AD² + DE²

⇒ 28 AB² = 36 AD²
⇒ 7 AB² = 9 AD²
Hence proved.

Question 11.
In the given figure, ABC is a triangle right angled at B. D and E are points on BC trisect it. Prove that 8 AE² = 3 AC² + 5 AD².

Answer:
In △ABC, ∠B=90°
⇒ \(\overline{\mathrm{AD}}\) is hypotenuse.
AC2 = AB2 + BC2
3AC² = 3AB² + 3BC² …….. (1)
In △ABD, ∠B = 90°
⇒ AD is hypotenuse.
∴ AD² = AB² + BD² = AB² + \(\left(\frac{BC}{3}\right)^{2}\)
⇒ AD² = AB² + \(\frac{\mathrm{BC}^{2}}{9}\)
⇒ 5 AD² = 5 AB² + \(\frac{5 \mathrm{BC}^{2}}{9}\) …….. (2)
(1) + (2)
3 AC² + 5 AD² = 3 AB² + 3 BC² + 5 AB² + \(\frac{5}{9} \mathrm{BC}^{2}\)
= 8AB² + \(\frac{32}{9} \mathrm{BC}^{2}\) ……… (3)
Now in △ABE, ∠B = 90°
⇒ \(\overline{\mathrm{AE}}\) is hypotenuse.
⇒ AE² = AB² + BE² = AB² + \(\left(\frac{2}{3} BC\right)^{2}\)
= AB² + \(\frac{4}{9} \mathrm{BC}^{2}\)
⇒ AE² = 8AB² + \(\frac{32}{9} \mathrm{BC}^{2}\) ……… (4)
∴ RHS of (3) and (4) are equal.
∴ LHS of (3) and (4) are equal.
∴ 8 AE² = 3 AC² + 5 AD².
Hence proved.

Question 12.
ABC is an isosceles triangle right angled at B. Equilateral triangles ACD and ABE are constructed on sides AC and AB. Find the ratio between the areas of △ABE and △ACD.
Answer:

Given: △ABC, AB = BC and ∠B = 90°
△ABE on AB; △ACD on AC are equiangular triangles.
Let equal sides of the isosceles right triangle, AB = BC = a (say)
Then, in △ABC, ∠B = 90°
AC² – AB² + BC²
[hypotenuse² = side² + side² – Pythagoras theorem] = a² + a² = 2a²
Since, △ABE ~ △ACD
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{ABE}}{\Delta \mathrm{ACD}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}^{2}}{\mathrm{AC}^{2}}\)
[∵ Ratio of areas of two similar tri-angles is equal to the ratio of squares of their corresponding sides]
= \(\frac{a^{2}}{2 a^{2}}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
△ABE : △ACD = 1 : 2.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77)

10th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Identify statements or statements in the bracket that are relevant to statements in italics on left.
(a) Political equality can be identified with (right to get admission in any school, principle of one person one vote, right to enter any religious worship place)
Answer:
Political equality can be identified with the principle of one person one vote.

(b) Universal Adult Franchise in the Indian context meant (allowing all people to vote for any political party, allowing all people to vote in elections, allowing all people to vote for Congress party)
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise in the Indian context meant both allowing all people to vote for any political party and allowing all people to vote in elections.

(c) Congress dominance would include (being able to attract people from various ideologies; being able to win most states assembly seats after elections; being able to use police force during election)
Answer:
Congress dominance would include being able to win most states assembly seats after elections.

(d) Emergency imposed (restrictions on people’s rights; ensured eradication of poverty; accepted by all political parties)
Answer:
Emergency imposed restrictions on people’s rights.

Question 2.
What measures were taken to bring in socio-economic change during the initial years after independence?
Answer:

1. Many measures were taken to bring in socio-economic change during the initial years after independence.
2. The Planning Commission was set up.
3. The Fifst five Year Plan focussed on agriculture.
4. The components of socio-economic change were
   a) land reforms b) agriculture cooperatives c) local self-government.
5. Planners felt that it was essential to develop industries and increase employment in service sectors.
6. In Second Five Year Plan focus shifted to industries.
7. Three types of land reforms were contemplated.
   a) Abolition of Zamindari System,
   b) Tenancy reforms and land ceilings.
8. Co-operatives were to bring economies of scale and also provide valuable inputs.
9. Dams were constructed and were useful to both the agriculture and Industrial sectors.

Question 3.
What do you understand about one party dominance? Would you consider it as dominance only in elections ot also in terms of ideology? Discuss with reasons.
Answer:
One party dominance means the party not only win in elections either in state or in central, but also it has in term of ideology. Due to the following reason.
Internally, the Congress party has small groups. This is the benefit to the Congress party. Because the groups took different positions on various issues depending on the interests of the members. This made the Congress appear as it was a party representing diverse interests and positions. This also acts as an inbuilt corrective mechanism with in the ruling party.

Question 4.
Language became a central rallying point Hi Indian politics on many occasions, either as a unifying force or as a divisive element. Identify these instances and describe them.
Answer:
Language as a unifying force:

1. The northern states have accepted Hindi as the national language.
2. They have their own mother tongues but they have no problem jn accommodating Hindi.
3. There is a common uniformity upto some extent in the north which has been brought about , by Hindi.

Language as a divisive element:

1. The official Languages Act was passed in 1963.
2. It made Hindi as the national language.
3. The DMK party of Tamilnadu believed that it wps an attempt to foist Hindi on the rest of the country.
4. Strikes, dharnas and hartals started all over the state.
5. The Congress itself was divided between the pro-Hindi and anti-Hindi camps.
6. Some felt that the unity of the country was at stake.
7. Telugu, Kannada, Marathi and Gujarathi languages speaking people started a movement for separate states on the basis of their language.

Question 5.
What were the major changes in political system after 1967 elections?
Answer:

1. There were many major changes in political system after 1967 elections.
2. Elections had become to be taken seriously arid had life of their own.
3. Democracy had taken roots in India.and country was moving towards a competitive multi¬party system.
4. There were basically a coalition of legislators against the Congress in many states.
5. Intermediate caste, who had first benefited from land reforms gained political power.
6. Many of the coalition of legislators were marked by defection and corruption.
7. This period saw a renewal of a regional sentiment in different parts of the country.
8. This was also a period of communal tension.

Question 6.
Think of other ways in which states could have been created and how would they be better than language based reorganization?
Answer:

1. In India state reorganisation was done on the basis of linguistic principle.
2. Other ways in which we could form states may be culture, ethnicity and economy.
3. But history provides proof that even nations could not survive on cultural, ethnicity and economy bases.
4. Nationalist movement leaders accepted the principle of territorial organisation of the country on a linguistic basis.
5. The diverse elements of Indian culture are chiefly represented by the languages of India.
6. So no other basis of reorganisation would not have fared better than linguistic reorganisation.

Question 7.
What measures of Indira Gandhi are called ‘left turn’? How do you think this was different from policies of previous decades? Based on your economics chapters describe how it is different from the current policies.
Answer:

1. Immediately after the victory in 1971 Bangladesh War, using Indira Gandhi’s popular slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ the Congress won with record majority in 1971 general elections.
2. In the legislative assembly elections held subsequently in 1972, Congress did well.
3. She then had control over both the party as well as the Parliament.
4. She nationalised banks, abolished princely pensions which were challenged in courts.
5. Constitution was being amended rapidly in the name of socio-economic change, feared the Supreme Court.
6. This was called ‘Left turn’.
7. In 1973, oil prices rose to an all time high, rise in prices, scarcity of food, and unemployment increased.
8. Current policies are different from them.
9. Government is encouraging private banking and non-banking finance corporations, reducing subsidies, etc.

Question 8.
In what ways was the Emergency period a set back to the Indian democracy?
Answer:
On 25th June 1975, Prime Minister Indira Gandhi imposed an Emergency in the country. Due to this Emergency –

1. General Elections were postponed.
2. Many of the fundamental rights were suspended.
3. The press was censored.
4. Most of political opponents were imprisoned.
5. Demolition of slums and forced sterilisation on the name of population control became very unpopular.
6. In the absence of civic freedom people could not express their discontent and the government therefore could not take corrective measures.
7. Thus, the Emergency period was a setback to the Indian democracy.

Question 9.
What were the institutional changes that came up after the Emergency?
Answer:

1. With this emergency, democracy was put on hold.
2. Many fundamental rights were suspended.
3. There were instances of detention and torture beyond mere violation of civil liberties.
4. 42nd Constitutional Amendment brought about a series of changes
   a) Excluding the courts from election disputes,
   b) Strengthening the central government vis-a-vis the state governments.
5. Other changes were c) Protection from judiciary challenges to socio-economic legislations, d) Made judiciary subservient to Parliament.
6. These weakened the democratic fabric of this country.

10th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 248

Question 1.
In your opinion have we been able to achieve social equality: think of instances that you would identify as examples of social equality and inequality.
Answer:

1. We have not been able to achieve social equality.
2. Our social structure continues to deny us the principle of one man one value.
3. Caste system interrelated economic structure is never allowing us the achievement of social equality.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 249

Question 2.
How do you think illiteracy affects elections, especially when it comes to exercising the choice of voting? How do you think this problem can be solved? (OR)
How did the Election Commission overcome the problem of illiteracy in the conduct of the first General Election in India.
Answer:

1. Illiteracy causes difficulty in elections especially when it comes to exercising the choice of voting.
2. They cannot read the name in the Ballot paper, to whom he/she wishes to vote.
3. This problem was solved by the Election Commission initially by sticking the symbol outside the Ballot box separately.
4. Again it allotted symbols of daily life for every contestant for visual identification of the voter.
5. We can also print his photo against his name.

Question 3.
Could we have considered that our country was democratic if all people did not have voting rights?
Answer:

1. We could not have considered that our country was democratic if all the people did not have voting rights.
2. All eligible people shall be given franchise and elections at definite intervals are the tenets of democracy.
3. If Universal Adult Franchise was not accepted, then we cannot say ourselves as a democracy.

Question 4.
Given the literacy rate of tyomen being low, if women were not allowed to vote bow would it affect our policies?
Answer:

1. Literacy rate of women was low.
2. They were not given right to vote.
3. Then our policies will not do justice to them.
4. Their requirements and difficulties will not be known to us.
5. We cannot prepare the bills that suit their needs.

Question 5.
Being able to conduct regular elections can be considered a clear sign of being able to establish democracy. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Being able to conduct regular elections can be considered a clear sign of being able to establish Democracy.
2. I do agree with this statement.

Reasons:

1. Indian democracy rests on the idea of representation.
2. Every adult citizen of above 18 years is given the right to vote regardless of education, property
   and gender.
3. Elections are held periodically to the various representative institutions of a democratic state at three different levels (The centre, the state and the local levels) to facilitate effective functioning.
4. Any registered voter who completed 25 years can contest for elections t6 the Lok Sabha or Vidhan Sabha.
5. Entire country or state is divided into territorial units called constituencies.
6. The work of conducting election to the Parliament and Legislature is entrusted to the Election Commission.
7. The procedure for elections is laid down in the Representation of People’s Act.
8. Elections are therefore held in a free and fair manner.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 251

Question 6.
Summarise the features that could explain the Congress was able to dominate the political system.
Answer:

1. In Independent India’s first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962 the Congress won, reducing other participants to almost nothing.
2. The Congress consistently won over 70% of seats by obtaining about 45% of the total votes cast.
3. The Congress formed the government in many states as well.
4. The opposition parties only posed a latent and not a real threat.
5. The above features could explain the Congress was able to dominate the political system.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 253

Question 7.
Do you think unity nf India wou|d have been better served if linguistic states were not formed?
Answer:

1. I don’t think that the unity of India would have been better without linguistic states.
2. Language unites people and it represents the diverse elements of our culture.
3. There was popular will for linguistic states.
4. Leaders of national movement also accepted linguistic states.
5. Moreover, now these states are of great help in consolidating India.

Question 8.
Why do you think the tribal languages were ignored at this time?
Answer:

1. When linguistic states were formed dominant languages were considered.
2. Tribal languages were not considered. Tribal language have no script.
3. Because the population of these tribal language users is very less and sparsely spread.
4. Apart from this there was popular will.
5. People of dominant languages demanded seperate states.

Question 9.
Do you know how many states and union territories are there in India today?
Answer:
Today, in India there are 29 states and 7 union territories.

Question 10.
Which are the newest states of India and when were they created?
Answer:

1. The newest states of India are
   1. Chhattisgarh
   2. Jharkhand
   3. Uttarakhand
   4. Telangana.
2. Chattisgarh, the 26th state of India was carved out of Madhya Pradesh on Nov. 1, 2000.
3. Uttaranchal, the 27th state of India was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on Nov. 9,2000.
4. Later it had changed;its name to be Uttarakhand.
5. Jharkhand, the 28th state of India was carved of Bihar on November 15, 2000.
6. Telangana, the 29th state of India was formed on 2nd June, 2014.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 255

Question 11.
If you live in a rural area, find out if institutions like cooperatives were established before 1970’s and who became members in it?
Answer:

1. In rural areas there were institutions like cooperatives.
2. Important among them were Primary Agricultural Credit Cooperative Societies.
3. Farmers who are practising agriculture were joined as members in it.

Question 12.
Compare the land reforms carried out in India with that of China or Vietnam.
Answer:

1. Land reforms were implemented in a half-hearted manner in India.
2. While Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place.
3. Whereas land reforms were implemented in China and Vietnam in a whole-hearted manner.
4. They were able to redistribute the land to the landless.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 256

Question 13.
How did the language policy help foster national unity and integrity?
Answer:

1. The language policy states the right of each state to have a language of its own (which could be the regional language or English).
2. Communications in states could be in regional languages with English translations.
3. English would continue to be the communication language between the centre and the states.
4. Civil Service Examinations would be conducted in English rather than in Hindi alone.
5. With these all provisions, no state has a problem with the centre, so promoted national unity and integrity.

Question 14.
Is there a need for a national language ?
Answer:
Yes, there is a need for national language to achieve national integrity.

1. We are such a vast country with many regional languages.
2. Language policy is of help in fostering national unity and integrity.

Question 15.
Should all languages in India have equal status ? Reflect.
Answer:

1. In India there are as many as 1,652 languages.
2. All languages in India don’t have equal status.
3. Indian Constitution recognises 22 languages as statutory.
4. Many languages have no script.
5. Some tribal languages were neglected. Ex : Oravan.
6. Many languages were spoken by few people.
7. Taking all things into consideration it will be difficult to accord equal status to all languages.
8. According to the Constitution, the citizens have right to protect their language and culture.
9. If they provide equal status to all languages, we should protect integrity and unity of our country.

(OR)

1. Yes, all languages should be accorded equal status.
2. No regional language should be ignored.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution

10th Class Social Studies 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Find the odd one out.
a) Indian Constitution adopts from experiences of freedom struggle.
b) Indian Constitution adopts from already existing Constitutions.
c) Indian Constitution has remained the same since its drafting.
d) Indian Constitution provides principles and provisions for ruling the country.
Answer:
The odd one is ‘c’. It is: Indian Constitution has remained the same since its drafting.

Question 2.
Correct the false statements:
a) There was unanimity of opinion on all provisions during CA debates.
b) The makers of Constitution represented only certain regions of the country.
c) Constitution provides certain provisions to amend articles in it.
d) Supreme Court of India has said that basic features of Constitution may also be amended.
Answer:
a) There was no unanimity of opinion on all provisions during CA debates.
b) The makers of Constitution represented all the regions of the country.
c) Constitution provides certain provisions to amend articles in it.
d) The Supreme Court of India has said that basic features of Constitution cannot be amended.

Question 3.
Describe the unitary and federal principles of Indian government as discussed in the CA debates.
(OR)
Distinguish between federal and unitary systems. June 2017)
Answer:
Our Constitution reaffirms that India is a unitary and a federal state. The following principles represent the unitary and federal characters.
Unitary Principles :

1. Single citizenship,
2. The supremacy of the Constitution,
3. Residual powers to central governments,
4. Single Judiciary,
5. Uniformity of fundamental rights,
6. Provision for All India Services.

Federal Principles :

1. Dual Polity,
2. Sovereign Powers to States,
3. State Services.

Question 4.
How does the Constitution reflect the political events of the time? Draw from previous chapters on the freedom struggle.
Answer:

1. Indian Constitution adopts from the experience of the freedom struggle.
2. It reflects the political events of time.
3. It provides for equality, liberty, justice and fraternity.
4. It promises adult universal franchise, fundamental rights which were most sought after during freedom struggle.
5. It grants single citizenship and independent judiciary to protect the integrity of the country and the rights and liberties of people.
6. A reference to the history of British rule and Indian independence struggle provides basic idea of self-governance that emerged into a people’s participative democracy.
7. The representatives of princely states declared the First Round table conference that they would join an ‘All India Federation with a Self-Governing British India’. This prefered creation of All India Federation.

Question 5.
What differences would it have made to the making of our Constitution if the Assembly had been elected through universal adult franchise?
Answer:

1. It would not have made any difference to the making of our Constitution even if the assembly had been elected through Universal Adult Franchise.
2. At that time nearly 86% of the population is illiterate.
3. Most of the population was under the poverty line.
4. Nothing substantial benefit would have made.
5. The Draft Committee chairman himself was one of the greatest intellectuals of all the time in the world.
6. So, a better Constitution was already made.

(OR)

1. It would be more democratic if the constituent assembly had been elected through universal adult franchise.
2. If the assembly members had been elected through universal adult franchise intellectuals would not be elected and better constitution was also not prepared.

Question 6.
Write a short note on basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.
Sovereignty:

1. India is a Sovereign Democratic Republic.
2. The Indian people has sovereign (or) supreme power.

Fundamental Rights:
Indian Constitution provide basic fundamental rights to all citizens without discrimination.

Directive Principles:
These are guidelines to frame laws. These are not enforceable by the courts.

Cabinet Government (or) Parliamentary Type of Government:
A Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

Secularism:
Secularism is the basic structure of Indian Constitution. The government respects all religions. It does not uplift or degrade any particular religion.

Socialism:
The world Socialism was added to the preamble by the 42nd amendment- It implies social and economic equality.

Fedaralism:
The Constitution provides a federal structure. The powers are specifically divided between central and state government.

Independent judiciary:
India has an independent and integrated judiciary.

Question 7.
How has the Constitution defined and changed political institutions in the country?
Answer:

1. The Constitution has defined and changed political institutions in the country.
2. It provided federal system with union and state government of sovereign power.
3. It made the Constitution as the supreme law of land.
4. It paves way for strong centre during an emergency.
5. It supports multiparty democracy with elections in definite intervals.
6. It provided universal Adult Franchise.
7. It set up Election Commission for smooth conduct of free and fair elections.
8. It adopts single citizenship.
9. It provides fundamental rights.
10. It adopts directive principles of state policy and fundamental duties.

Conclusion: It defines India as a sovereign, democratic, socialist and secular republic. It has provisions for bringing about social change and defining the relationship between Individual citizen and the state.

Question 8.
While Constitution provides basic principles it is the engagement of people with the system that brings in social change. Do you agree with this statement, give reasons.
Answer:

1. Constitution provides basic principles like fundamental rights, the supremacy of the Constitution, etc.
2. It is the engagement of people with the system that brings in social change.
3. People get good and transparent governance only if they elect good and corrupt free representatives.
4. All the schemes of government would be fruitful if they reach genuine beneficiaries.
5. Thus, people’s participation brings social change.

10th Class Social Studies 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 232

Question 1.
Complete the following tasks regarding the Indian Constitution.
Task 1: Some significant contributors to the Indian Constitution were:
———-, ———-, ———-.
Answer:
Sri Babu Rajendra Prasad, Acharya Kripalani, Pandit Nehru, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Task 2: What are the basic ideals of Indian Constitution as reflected in its Preamble?
Answer:
Basic ideals of Indian Constitution as reflected in the Preamble:

1. Justice : Every citizen will have social, economical and political justice.
2. Liberty : Every citizen will have the liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
3. Equality : Every citizen will be provided with the equality of status and of opportunity.
4. Fraternity : Citizens of India have been assured about the dignity of the individual and unity, integrity of the nation.

Task 3: Read the following two preambles along with the Indian Preamble and see how they are similar or different. Remember each Constitution also reflects political events around the making of their nations. Try to relate to the political events that may have influenced the thought that went into the Constitution. (You can re-read the background of Japan in chapter 13 and look at page 234 to understand the background of Nepal.)
Answer:

The political events that may have influenced the thought that went into the Constitution:
India: The differences in traditional India and disparities in colonial India and political movements shaped the Indian Constitution.
Nepal: The political movements against Monarchy formed the Nepal Constitution.
Japan: The results of World War – II shaped the Japanese Constitution so.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 233 & 234

Question 2.
Read the Preambles of Nepal and Japan given on Pages 232 and 233 in Textbook and answer the following questions.
a) What do you think is similar or different in the political context of these nations? What were the immediate prior events? Who were the previous rulers?
Answer:

1. These nations restrict the monarchy and other forms of governance.
2. They are committed to form the government by those who were given mandate in elections.
3. They believe their representatives make policies whose fruits are enjoyed by people.
4. There were mass movements for democracy in Nepal.
5. Japan started new lease of life after war torn image.
6. Nepal was ruled by the Monarch.
7. Japan was ruled by Pan Asianic rulers.

b) Which Preamble refers to the word gender?
Answer:

1. The Preamble of the Constitution of Nepal refers to the word gender.
2. It promises to solve the problems relating gender.

c) Which Preamble reflects the desire for peace?
Answer:

1. The Preamble of the Japanese Constitution reflects the desire for peace.
2. It promises to never visit the horrors of war.

d) How are people’s movements reflected in the Preamble?
Answer:
The Nepalese Constitution reflects the historic struggles and peoples’ movements launched by the people of Nepal at various times since 1951.

e) What is similar or different for Preambles in their reflection of the past?
Answer:

1. The Nepalese Constitution refers to abolition of monarchy.
2. It also refers to historical struggles and people’s movements.
3. The Japanese Constitution refers to the horrors of war.
4. It would never like to repeat them and promises to world peace.

f) What types of promises are made up about the future society in the three countries?
Answer:

1. In India social, economical, political justice is promised.
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship also promised.
3. Equality of status and opportunity also promised.
4. Japanese promised a peaceful world.
5. They desire to occupy an honoured place in an international society.
6. Nepal guaranteed basic rights of the people.
7. Nepal expressed full commitment to democratic values.

g) What promises are made about the nature of political system?
Answer:

1. Nepal will allow competitive multi-party democratic system, human rights, adult franchise, periodic elections, etc.
2. Japan referred Government as a sacred trust of the people who give power to representatives and enjoy benefits of power’
3. They try for the banishment of tyranny and slavery, oppression and intolerance for all time from the earth.
4. Every Indian get the right to vote at the age of 18 years without discrimination.

h) What promises are made to the citizen of these nations?
Answer:

1. Nepal pledges to accomplish the progressive restructuring of the state.
2. It also promises to solve the problems relating to class, ethnicity, region and gender.
3. Japan desires peace for all time.
4. It desires to occupy an honoured place in international society.
5. India promised to provide equality, fraternity, justice and fundamental rights to all the people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 236

Question 3.
The Constitution of India begins with the statement, “We the people of India…”. Do you think this claim to represent all the people of India was justified?
Answer:

1. The claim to represent all the people of India was definitely justified.
2. The Constitution was made by the people for the people.
3. The draft was printed and made available to the 40 crore people of the country for 8 months.
4. There were more than 7,000 changes proposed by the people.
5. Out of them above 2000 changes were accepted.
6. Thus, the claim is justified.

Question 4.
Do you think all the people of India can participate in the formulation of Constitution for the entire country? Was it important for all people to participate actively in this process or could it have been left to some wise people?
Answer:

1. As you can see the Constituent Assembly was not elected through universal adult franchise.
2. Only 10% of the population could vote in the provincial election.
3. All the people were not necessary to participate actively in the formulation of constitution.
4. Because majority of our people are illiterate and they have no knowledge about the constitution.
   So, in this situation elites participation is necessary to frame our constitution.

Question 5.
If a Constitution for the entire school had to be drafted, who all should be involved in it and how?
Answer:

1. If a Constitution for the entire school had to be drafted the head teacher and all the other teachers should be involved.
2. The representative of all classes of the school should also be involved.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 237

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks.
a) Drafting Committee was appointed roughly ———- days after the Independence.
b) The Assembly first appointed special committees on specific issues like, ———-, ———-, and ———-.
c) The reports of these committees were discussed by the ———- and key decisions were taken by it.
d) The ———- Committee headed by Dr. Ambedkar had to incorporate these decisions.
e) The Draft also drew upon provisions of the ———- passed by the British Government.
f) It was then made available to public for ———- months so that they could criticise and give their suggestions on it.
g) In the Draft Constitution there were ———- Articles and ———- Schedules.
Answer:
a) fifteen,
b) Fundamental rights, Minorities, Tribal Areas,
c) Constituent Assembly,
d) Drafting,
e) Government of India Act, 1935,
f) eight,
g) 395,8.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 238

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks.
a) The powers given to Indian President are more similar to ———-.
b) Constituent Assembly visualised that the Indian President follows the advice of ———-, than ———- of ———-.
Answer:
a) King; England; President; the USA
b) Ministers

Question 8.
What do you think was the difference between the position of the British King and the President of India?
Answer:

1. President occupies the same position as the king under the English Constitution.
2. His position is not hereditary like king but elected.
3. He represents the nation but not rule the nation.
4. He generally bound by the advice of Ministers.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 239

Question 9.
Under federal polity there are more than one government and in the Indian context we have  them at ———- and ———- levels. You belong to ———- state while you belong to ———- nation.
Answer:
Central; State; Andhra Pradesh; Indian.

Question 10.
Which type of Constitution gives more powers to the governments at the Centre?
Answer:

1. Unitary type of Constitution gives more powers to the governments at the centre.
2. Two essential characteristics of a unitary Constitution are the supremacy of the central polity and the absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 11.
Which type of Constitution gives definite powers to both Central and State governments?
Answer:

1. Federal type of Constitution gives definite powers to both Central and State governments.
2. A Federal Constitution is marked by the existence of a central polity and subsidiary polities side by side and by each being sovereign in the field assigned to it.

Question 12.
In what ways are Indian states not “administrative units or agencies of the Union Government”?
Answer:

1. Indian states are not administrative units or agencies of the union government.
2. Because states have sovereign power assigned to them by the Constitution.
3. They have elected representatives and they are not the agencies of the union, government.
4. They are peripheral entities in the federal system.

Question 13.
Why do you think the framers of the Indian Constitution rejected the idea of dual citizenship (of India and of the state)?
Answer:

1. The framers of the Indian Constitution rejected the idea of dual citizenship.
2. When there is dual citizen, one is for India and other for the state.
3. In such a federal system, rules and laws differ for union and each state.
4. It may not be possible to keep them united.
5. Our Constitution framers showed uniformity in all basic matters which are essential to maintain the unity of the country.
6. So they did not recommend dual citizenship.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 242

Question 14.
Can you point out the main differences between Indian federalism and American federalism?
Answer:

Question 15.
Does the Indian Constitution allow the states to have their own civil servants (officers)?
Answer:

1. The Constitution provides that without depriving the states of their right to form their own civil services, there shall be All Indian Service recruited.
2. It is recruited on All India basis with common qualifications, with the uniform scale of pay and the members of which alone could be appointed to the strategic posts throughout the Union.

Question 16.
Are all officials of a state from the state’s civil services?
Answer:

1. No. All officials of a state are not from the state’s civil services.
2. Constitution provides for an All India Services for every state in strategic posts.
3. They are like Collectors, Superintendents of Police, Secretary, Principle Secretary and Chief Secretary, etc.

Question 17.
In America the judiciary of the Central Government and the judiciary of the states are distinct and separate. In India we have a judiciary in the centre and the states – Explain.
Answer:

1. In America the judiciary of the Central Government and that of states are distinct and separate.
2. Whereas we have a single judiciary in our country.
3. Our judiciary is integrated which is formed with the Supreme Court, all High Courts and other courts.
4. We have one jurisdiction and providing remedies in all cases under civil, criminal and constitutional laws.

Question 18.
How were the ideas of Seth and Draft Committee similar or different?
Answer:

1. The ideas of Seth and Draft Committee were different.
2. He argues that members of CA were not elected by Adult Franchise.
3. He says that our Constitution ignores the centrality of villages.
4. He opposes Centralization of power as it leads to totalitarian power.
5. He desires the decentralization of power to a large extent.
6. He believes centralization of power by law leads to Fascism.

Question 19.
Find out what form of autonomy is now being made available to villages after the 73rd amendment of the Constitution.
Answer:

1. Villages were provided with the autonomy of forming Grampanchayat.
2. Now they are self administered units.
3. State Governments shall ensure that direct elections to all seats of Panchayat are conducted.
4. The reservation of seats for SCs and STs in proportion to their population and for women reservation seats are not less 1/3 of the total seats.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 244

Question 20.
Observe the newspaper cutting and answer the following question. What Hems can you read on this page?
Answer:

1. This was the first page of ‘The Statesman’ newspaper of January 26th 1950.
2. Nehru stated that India emerged as a republic.
3. Nehru called for unity and tolerance.
4. Soekarno congratulated Indian MPsforthe birth of the republic.
5. The preamble of our Constitution is printed.
6. Photo of Nehru who was signing on the cabinet assembly was also printed.
7. “Today’s programme in Calcutta” was also printed.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 245

Question 21.
What are the differences of opinion that are being raised in the above debate (‘Debate on Fundamental Rights’ on Page 243 in Textbook)?
Answer:

1. The above discussion is about the abolition of untouchability to provide equality as fundamental rights
2. Some say untouchability is not a disease itself, but the symptom of disease of caste system.
3. So caste system is to abolished.
4. Untouchability means different things to different people. So it should be defined clearly.
5. Unable to come to a conclusion on definition, it was left for future law makers.

Question 22.
If you were given the choice to participate in the debate, what solution would you suggest?
Answer:
If I have a chance to participate in the debate about untouchability, I will suggest untouchability is a crime however it is in any form in the society. It creates harmess to right to equality. So we should uproot casteism from our society which is main responsible to the untouchability.

Question 23.
Do you think it was a good idea to leave the term undefined in the Constitution? Give reasons for your argument.
Answer:
It was good idea to leave the term “Untouchability” in undefined manner in the Constitution. Because, the word untouchability has different meanings in different places.
So when we are going to use the word ‘untouchability’, we should be in clear manner.
That’s why Article 17 (untouchability is a crime), what says it is correct.

Question 24.
Do you agree with the view that the Constitution should have put an end to all aspects of the caste system instead of just ending untouchability? How do you think it could have been done ?
Answer:

1. It would be better if the Constitution had put an end to all aspects of the caste system instead of just ending untouchability.
2. Caste system is so deep rooted that to end all the aspects of it may not be that easy.
3. But austere efforts and stern action against the practicers of caste system would end it.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 246

Question 25.
What are the examples and explanations you can identify with basic features of Indian Constitution?
Answer:

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence

10th Class Social Studies 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Make a table and show how different groups, and individuals in India responded to World War II. What dilemmas were faced by these groups?
Answer:

Question 2.
Given the brutal manner in which particular communities like Jews and others were treated in Germany, do you think it would have been morally right to support Germany or Japan?
Answer:

1. Hitler propagated Nazism in Germany.
2. They killed lakhs of Jews.
3. Even though Japan is a small country in Asia, has been competing with powerful European nations and started colonialism in the name of Pan Asianism.
4. So, morally it is not right to support Germany or Japan.

Question 3.
Make a list of various reasons for the Partition of the country.
(OR)
Write a short note on various consequences of partition of India.
Answer:

1. The Muslim League thought of reserved seats for Muslims, where they are the majority.
2. Congress accepted this logic, so, from 1909 separate electorates were implemented.
3. League pointed out many issues and blamed Congress of insensitivity to the needs of Muslims.
4. The fears of League were fueled by British ‘Divide and Rule Policy’.
5. League was able to convince Muslim masses of the benefits and need for a separation.
6. When Cabinet Mission recommended India was to be united, League opposed it.
7. They asked people to come out on the streets and riots and violence and thousands of people were dead.
8. So it was inevitable for the partition of India.

Question 4.
What were the different ways in which power sharing among different communities was organised before Partition?
Answer:

1. Before the Partition there were different ways in which power sharing among different communities was organised.
2. There were too many organizations like the Muslim League, Congress, Hindu Maha Jana Sabha, Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh, etc. in function in India.
3. There were separate electorates for Muslims both provincial assemblies and in central assembly.
4. In 1946, Muslim League won all 30 seats in the Centre and 442 out of 509 seats in the provinces.
5. It had got more than 86% of the Muslim votes.
6. In 1946 the Congress swept the general constituencies, capturing over 91% of the non-Muslim vote.

Question 5.
How did British colonialists practise their ‘divide and rule’ policy in India? How was it similar or different from what you have studied about Nigeria? (OR)
How did the British implement “Divide and rule” policy in India ?
Answer:

1. The British colonialists practised their Divide and Rule Policy in India.
2. They encouraged Muslims to set up a separate party Muslim League in 1906.
3. They set separate electorate for Muslims from 1909.
4. They gave communal electorate to Sikhs also in 1932.
5. They also extended separate electorate to Dalits.
6. Thus, all the time they wanted to weaken the hold of Congress on people, which is fighting hard against them for Independence.

Comparison :
In Nigeria, in 1939 the British separated the Yoruba and Igbo regions into Western and Eastern Nigeria and encouraged competition and conflict between the three major tribal groups so as to be able to “divide and rule” the country.
(OR)

1. In the Indian context, the basic truth is that the British did rule and, they did try to divide opposition.
2. Divide and rule was seen in the following actions :
   a) Partition of Bengal
   b) Encouraging formation of Muslim League,
   c) Separate electorates for Muslims and for SC.
3. The idea that ‘Divide and Rule’ was such a set and evil strategy that it actively, logically led on to partition of our country.
4. To solve the minority question, the British imperialists, implementing their policy of divide and rule, separated the continent into a Hindu and a Muslim state.

Question 6.
What were the different ways in which religion was used in politics before Partition? (Or)
Trace out role of religion before the Partition of India.
Answer:

1. Religion played a crucial role in politics before Partition.
2. To weaken Congress’s hold over the people, the British vigorously followed ‘Divide and Rule’ policy.
3. So with support and encouragement of British, Muslim League for Muslims was started.
4. Separate electorate and reserved seats for Muslims were there from 1909.
5. Hindu Maha Sabha and Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh wished to unite all Hindus overcoming caste divisions.
6. As minorities, Muslims made a demand to carve out a new state from regions where they were majorities.
7. The League created an impression that Congress was basically a Hindu party.
8. There were riots broke out and several thousand people dead after Cabinet Mission plan was rejected.

Question 7.
How were workers and peasants mobilised during the last years of freedom struggle? (Or)
“Peasants were also restless during British rule.” Give your opinion.
Answer:

1. On Feb. 22,1946,3 lakh mill workers put down their tools in Bombay and fought violently for two days.
2. Small and poor peasants agitated in Bengal for 2/3 of the crop for them instead of 1/2 crop then.
3. This was called ‘Tebhaga’ movement and was led by Provincial Kisan Sabha.
4. In Telangana farmers opposed land owners and demanded their debts to be cancelled.
5. They also demanded that bonded labour should be stopped and land be distributed to those who worked on it.
6. Peasants took up arms to fight against the rulers and their armies.
7. Armed revolt of peasants took place in Travancore in Punnapra-Vayalar.

Question 8.
How did Partition affect the lives of ordinary people? What was the political response to mass migration following Partition?
(OR)
Read the following paragraph and answer the question given below.
Gandhiji moved amongst riot hit people, in camps and hospitals, spreading the message of peace and brotherhood. This was not the freedom and Swaraj he had worked so hard to achieve. The Father of the Nation fasted and did not celebrate on the first Independence Day.
Comment on the conditions that the people had to face on both sides of the newly drawn border with the creation of Pakistan.
Answer:

1. They felt anger and hatred against each other for being forced to move out of their homes, villages and cities.
2. Around 1-5 crore people both Hindus and Muslims were displaced.
3. They were killed, looted and burnt.
4. Between 2 to 5 lakh both Hindus and Muslims were killed.
5. They became refugees, lived in relief camps and hospitals, moved out in trains to find new homes.
6. Gandhiji moved amongst riot hit people, in camps and hospitals, spreading the message of peace and brotherhood.
7. The Congress now passed a resolution on the rights of minorities.
8. Thus, while the nation was celebrating its first independence day, the father of the nation was on fasting.

Question 9.
Integration of various Princely states into the new Indian nation was a challenging task. Discuss.
(OR)
How were the princely states integrated?
(OR)
“Integration of various princely state in newly independent India was a challenging task”.
Answer:

1. At the time of withdrawal of British from India, there were around 550 princely states in Indian territory.
2. They become independent after the British rule.
3. They were asked by the British to decide if they wanted to join India, Pakistan or remain independent.
4. In Hyderabad and Travancore peasants were revolting with arms against the ruling Zamindars.
5. Sardar Vallabhai Patel was given charge of this matter of merging Princely states into Indian Union in July 1947.
6. He began discussing with princes the necessity to join India.
7. All Princely States agreed to join Indian Union except Kashmir, Hyderabad and Junagadh.
8. In Hyderabad and Junagadh, the rulers were Muslims and majority of population were Hindus, rulers want to join Pakistan people want to Join India, a conflict.
9. In Kashmirthe ruler was a Hindu and majority population were Muslims, so a difficulty in consensus.
10. Thus it was difficult, but thr^e states were also made to join in the next two years.
11. Junagadh was merged after conducting referendum.
12. Kashmir was merged after receiving a letter from the ruler.
13. But Hyderabad was merged after a police action.
14. With great efforts of Patel, this challenging task was completed by merging these states.

(OR)

1. The 550 princely states were given freedom to decide their future. The ordinary people did not want princely states to continue.
2. They started movements and revolts.
3. Guided by the masterful diplomacy of Sardar Patel, the home minister, most of them acceded to India.
4. However, the Nawab of Junagadh, the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Maharaja of Jammu & Kashmir did not accept to unite with India.
5. Sardar Patel made it clear that if they do not join India, the army would have to be sent to complete the process of unification.
6. With the military action on these, the work of integration of princely states had been completed.

10th Class Social Studies 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 218

Question 1.
Do you think Indians should have felt grateful to the British government for the powers given by the Act of 1935 ?
Answer:

1. The Government of India Act was passed in 1935 by the British parliament.
2. According to this right to vote was given to a small section of population.
3. Winning Prime Minister should work under the supervision of a British Governor.
4. Indians made a pledge to have complete swaraj in the Lahore session of INC in 1929.
5. So, they may not be greatful to British, but they grabbed the opportunity with eagerness.
6. It is our country, so we need to elect our representatives.

Question 2.
Do you think the rise of Hitler was such a big threat to the freedom of humanity that Indians should have set aside their fight for freedom from the British and concentrated on the fight for a free world ?
Answer:

1. The rise of Hitler was a big threat to the freedom of humanity.
2. He believes in his ‘Nordic’ racial supremacy.
3. He was the root cause of the deaths of lakhs of Jews.
4. He has the attitude of vengeance. He also hates Communism.
5. Indians should have set aside their fight for freedom from the British.
6. Indians should have concentrated on the fight for a free world.

Question 3.
According to you, what would be the reasons for and against supporting the British in the World War II ?
Answer:
Reason for supporting the British:

1. Most congress leaders were opposed to Hitler, Mussolini and the ideology of fascism.
2. They were determined to resist the Fascist drive to conquer other sovereign nations.
3. So India had no other choice it was better to support the British.

Reasons for against the British:

1. It is vindicative that they are showing double standards.
2. On one side they say they are protecting sovereign nations and on the other, they occupied India.
3. They did not even consult Indians before announcing that India would support them.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 219

Question 4.
Do you think Congress could have taken some other steps to protest against the attitude of the British?
Answer:

1. A difficult question arose before the Congress leaders.
2. Should they support the British in fighting a war against Germany?
3. The Congress was torn in its mind over this question.
4. The British were willing to give India Dominion Status.
5. Congress wanted a promise of full freedom.
6. The Congress was upset with the British and walked out of the provincial governments.
7. There was no other alternative.

Question 5.
Why did the British not make the promise and win the support of the Indians? After all, in 1939 only a promise was being asked for? Discuss together in class.
Answer:

1. During the Second World War the British intended to have the support of Indians.
2. But Indians demanded full freedom after the War, at least a promise to that effect.
3. It was hard for the British to accept that they will really have to dismantle the empire they had built.
4. The British objected to this by saying that they have to also protect the interests of several other communities in India.
5. With this they implied that congress did not represent all Indians, like Muslims.
6. They also implied that congress may be Ignoring the interests of many Indians and the British were required to protect these interests.

Question 6.
When ministers resign, who continues to conduct the day to day affairs of governance ?
Answer:
When ministers resign, now, the government officials continue to conduct the day to day affairs of governance.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 220

Question 7.
Read the passage and answer the following question.
“Through 1940 and 1941, the Congress organised a series of individual satyagrahas to pressure ; the rulers to promise freedom once the war had ended. No major protest was launched.”
Imagine what would happen if Congress leaders stepped up protests against the British government at this point of time ? Would it make the fight for freedom stronger?
Answer:

1. If Congress leaders stepped up protests against the British government at this time, the British would severely punish our leaders and imprison them.
2. It would not make the fight form freedom stronger.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 221

Question 8.
Discuss the importance of addressing the concerns of minorities. Why is it felt that majority based elections are not enough to help minorities ?
Answer:

1. The traditional notion of democracy has always upheld the voice of the majority over the minority.
2. So it is the fundamental importance that the minority is protected against discrimination and exploitation.
3. Basically India is a democratic state. In any democracy there is always a danger that the interest of majority conflicts with the interest of minorities. It may not be also.
4. If there is such a conflict, it is the interest of majority which will override the interest of the minority even if it happens to an unjust interest.
5. So it is felt that majority based elections are not enough to help minorities.

Question 9.
Separate electorate was one method to protect minority interests. Can you think of some other methods that can be helpful for this purpose? For example, would it help if there was a rule that a non Muslim member of a council must consult the Muslim population of his/her constituency before voting on an issue that concerned them? When would such a method work and under what conditions would it fail to be effective ?
Answer:

1. The Indian Constitution paved a way – ‘reservations’ to the minorities. It is a wonderful solution for the problems of minorities.
2. It would not help.
3. Such a method would work in small village panchayats. In minorities also there may be difference of opinion.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 223

Question 10.
How would people assess the possible benefits from the politics of Muslim League? Would they have any doubts? What kind of questions will they have? Discuss.
Answer:

1. League was able to convince the Muslim masses of the benefits and need for a separate nation.
2. Peasants could think of a state where Hindu Zamindars and Moneylenders did not exploit them.
3. Traders, businessmen and job seekers could think of a state where competition from Hindu traders, businessmen and job seekers would not be there.
4. There would be greater religious freedom.
5. Muslims had the fears of Hindu domination.
6. Their doubt was that it is difficult to protect their interests in an Indian Government.
7. i) What about their future in Independent India ?
   ii) How would be their conditions as minorities ? etc.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 224

Question 11.
Why did the Japanese allow Bose to recruit soldiers whom they had imprisoned?
Answer:

1. Japan and Southeast Asia were major refuges for Indian nationalists living in exile before the start of World War-II.
2. Japan has sent an intelligence mission to gain support from the Indian movement.
3. These missions were successful in establishing contacts with indian nationalists in exile supporting the establishment and organisation of the indian Independence league.
4. At the outbreak of World War – II, in Southeast Asia, 70,000 Indian troups were stationed in Malaya and later imprisoned by Japan after the fall of Malasia and Singapore.
5. From these prisoners of war, the first Indian National Army was formed and received considerable Japanese aid and support.
6. In 1943 the Japanese invited Bose to lead the Indian Nationalist Movement in East Asia.
7. Bose accepted and reached Japan and took the lead.

Question 12.
Why did the Indian soldiers join INA?
Answer:

1. In the beginning, they were soldiers in the British Army.
2. They were captured by the Japanese when the British were defeated in Burma and Malaya.
3. They were prisoners of war.
4. Bose convinced Japan to allow them to form an Army.
5. This army would fight alongside of Japan and against the British.
6. The soldiers joined Indian National Army with patriotism and national consciousness.

Question 13.
Why were Indian soldiers not scared of losing the war and falling into the hands of the British? What would the British do to them ?
Answer:

1. The Indian soldiers felt very proud to fight for the country, so they didn’t scare of losing the war and felling into the hands of the British.
2. They hope, that if the Britishers were defeated in the war we would get independence.
3. But in the war Indian army was defeated and punishments were imposed by British.

Question 14.
Review the period 1942-45. How can you say that the resistance of Indian people to the British rule had become more powerful than ever before?
Answer:

1. Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch ‘Quit India’ campaign in 1942.
2. Although he was jailed at once, young activists organised strikes all over the country.
3. Students^eft their colleges to go to jail.
4. Socialist resistance was very active.
5. Independent Governments were formed in several districts.
6. Bose waged war for 3 years with his INA against mighty British Army.
7. All the masses of the country were active against the British.
8. So we can say during 1942-45 resistance to British rule had become more powerful than ever before.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 225

Question 15.
Imagine the tragic turn of events and how these must have affected the lives of these people.
Answer:
The soldiers of INA were imprisoned and the British decided to punish them. A trial of INA soldiers was began – to court martial them for being traitors to the army and hanging them to death in punishment.
Unrest and unhappiness and discontent kept erupting in different parts of India as the INA trails proceeded.
In this popular upsurge of nationalist consciousness, the issue of Hindu-Muslim identity and separatist politics often became unimportant.

People were restless with food shortages, rationing of food, high prices, black marketing and hoarding. Railway and postal employees and other government employees were planning to go on India wide strike against prices.

Question 16.
What horror would the other Indians have felt at the thought that the INA soldiers who were like heroes to them were being tried and hanged as traitors by the British ?
Answer:

1. The INA soldiers were like heroes to other Indians.
2. They weret^ing tried and hanged as traitors by the British.
3. Unrest and unhappiness and discontent kept erupting in different parts of India as the INA trials proceeded.
4. Nationalist consciousness was growing and separatist politics became unimportant.
5. The people’s anger and sympathy gave no thought to the religion of the soldiers.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 226

Question 17.
Review the actions of ordinary masses in the country. What were they demanding ?
Answer:

1. On 18th February 1946, Royal INDIAN NAVY in Bombay came out from harbour on hunger strike.
2. The strike committee demanded better food, equal pay for white and Indian sailors release of INA and other political prisoners, withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia.
3. In 1946 the workers of factories and mills stoppages their work and demand for better wages and solving their problems.
4. CPI and the Socialist parties were active in these movements.
5. In Bengal small and poor peasants who took land for rental purpose demanded that their share of harvest should be increased.
6. The Telangana farmers demanded that debts of farmers be written off, bonded labour be stopped and land be distributed to those who tilled it.

Question 18.
It was noted that religious divisions were not important in many of these mass movements mentioned above. What could be the reason for the unity of the people in these movements?
Answer:

1. Unrest, unhappiness and discontent kept erupting in different parts of India.
2. Popular upsurge of nationalist consciousness did not allow separatist religious politics.
3. The people’s anger and sympathy gave no thought to the religion of the soldiers.
4. All were taking part in movements unitedly.