Class 9

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 1 Cell its Structure and Functions Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology Solutions 1st Lesson Cell its Structure and Functions

9th Class Biology 1st Lesson Cell its Structure and Functions Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Differentiate between a) Plant cell and animal cell b) Prokaryotic and Eucaryotic cells. (AS 1)
Answer:
a)

b)

Question 2.
What happens if plasma membrane ruptures or breaks? (AS 2)
Answer:

• Cell membrane or plasma membrane is covering of the animal cell.
• It separate cytoplasm from the external environment.
• It defined the shape and size of the cell.
• It plays a crucial role in maintaining a balance of various substances inside the cell.
• It controls the exchange of substances between the cell and its external environment.
• If it ruptured or broke, then the above activities will stop, the cell will die.

Question 3.
Prepare a model of plant cell or animal cell with locally available materials. (AS 5)
Answer:

Question 4.
What would happen to the life of cell if there was no golgi complex? (AS 2)
Answer:

• The golgi apparatus packed various substances before they are transported to other parts of the cell.
• If there was no golgi complex in the cell the proteins and other substances are not altered and packed.
• Substances transport will not occur.
• Regeneration or repair of the membrane will not takes place.

Question 5.
What happen to the cell if nucleus is removed? Give two reasons to support your answer. (AS 1)
Answer:

• If nucleus is removed from a cell, there would be no control on the functions of a cell.
• Cells are not involved in the process of cell division.
• The cell will not live for more time.
• E.g.: Red blood cells, not having nucleus live less time than the other cells, which are having nucleus.

Question 6.
Lysosomes are known as suicidal bags of the cell. Why? (AS 1)
Answer:

• Lysosomes contained the destructive enzymes.
• Thus the enzymes normally do not come in contact with the rest of the cell.
• The materials that need to be destroyed are transported to the lysosomes.
• At times, the lysosomes burst and the enzymes are released to digest the cell.
• Hence, lysosomes are known as suicidal bags of the cell.

Question 7.
Why do plant cell possess large sized vacuole? (AS 1)
Answer:

• Vacuoles are fluid filled sac-like structures.
• In a newly formed plant cell, the vacuoles are small.
• As the cell becomes old, these vacuoles, fuse to form a single large vacuole.
• In mature plant cells, they might occupy almost the entire cell space.

Question 8.
Prepare a temporary mount of any leaf peel observe the stomata draw their picture. Write a short note on the same. (AS 5)
Answer:

• A fresh leaf of Rheo is taken.
• Making a slit in the pith material and keep the leaf inside the slit.
• To get the T.S a leaf, section cutting with a blade should be done.
• The thin section with brush and keep the section on the slide.
• Putting a drop of water, glycer¬ine on it.
• Staining the section with saffronin.
• Cover the section with a cover slip.
• By observing under the microscope of the leaf. We can see stomata in the lower epidermis.
• They are enclosed by two kidney shaped cells, called guard cells.
• In between two guard cells a pore formed stomata.

Question 9.
“Cell is the basic unit of life” – explain the statement. (AS1)
Answer:

• The fundamental organizational unit of life is the cell.
• All living organisms are composed of cells.
• In unicellular organisms, a single cell performs all the the functions.
• In multicellular organisms, a no. of cells together performs different functions.
• So, we can say that “Cell is the basic unit of life”.

Question 10.
How do you appreciate about the organisation of cell in the living body? (AS 6)
Answer:

• Cell is the basic unit in the structural organisation of all living organisms.
• Cell carry physiological functions like oxidise food materials to derive energy.
• Excrete the waste materials.
• Increase in number by dividing into two identical cells.
• Defend itself against the attack of foreign organisms.
• Try to adjust to the conditions in its surroundings.
• Function of an organism depends on the functions carried out by the cell.

Question 11.
If the organisation of cell is destroyed due to physical and chemical influence, what will happen? (AS 6)
Answer:

• If the organisation of cell is destroyed due to physical and chemical influence, the cell will die.
• Sometimes it also effects the functions of other cells nearby.

Question 12.
Read the chapter carefully collect the information about the functions of different cell organelles and make a table which contains serial number. Cell organelle, function. Don’t forget to write your specific findings below the table. (AS 4)
Answer:

Question 13.
How could you appreciate the function of tiny cell in a large body of an organism? (AS 6)
Answer:

• Cell is the basic unit in the structural organisation of ail living organisms.
• It is the functional and structural unit of the organism.
• Functions essential for survival of the organism are carried out at the level of a cell only.
• Each cell acts as an individual unit.
• In each cell excretion, generation of energy, defending itself, adjust to the conditions, production of new cells etc. functions are carried out.
• So we must appreciate the function of a tiny cell in a large body of an organism.

Question 14.
Look at the following cartoon of a cell. Find out the functions of cell organelles. (AS 5)

Answer:

Question 15.
Who and when was “The cell theory” proposed? When did they prepare it? What are its salient features? (AS 1)
Answer:
M.J. Schleiden and Theodar Schwann proposed “The cell theory”. They prepared it in 1838 – 39.

Statements of modern form of cell theory :

1. All the living organisms are made up of cells and their products.
2. All the cells are formed from pre-existing cells.
3. All the cells are made up of similar chemicals and show similar metabolic activities.
4. Functioning of an organism depends on the functions carried out and the interac-tion of different cells present in the organism.

Question 16.
When you observing the nucleus of cheek cell in laboratory, what precautions do you take?
Answer:
While observing the nucleus of cheek cell in laboratory the following precautions are to be taken.

Precautions:

1. Do not scrap the cheek too hard as it may injure the buccal mucosa.
2. Scrapped material should be spread uniformly on the slide.
3. Excess stains should be drained off.
4. There should be no air bubbles under the coverslip.

Question 17.
Draw the typical animal cell and lable its parts.
Answer:

9th Class Biology 1st Lesson Cell its Structure and Functions InText Questions and Answers

9th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 1& 2

Question 1.
Observe the following figures.

a) What common features do you see in both the cells?
Answer:
We can observe some common features in plant and animal cells. They both are having plasma membrane, mitochondria, golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleus etc.

b) Which cell organelles are found exclusively in plant cell?
Answer:
Chloroplasts and big vacuoles are the cell organelles exclusively found in plant cell.

9th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 3

Question 2.
What is the role of the cell wall in plant cells?
Answer:
It exerts an inward wall pressure to resist the outward pressure exerted by the cell sap.

9th Class Biology 1st Lesson Cell its Structure and Functions Activities

Activity – 1

Question 1.
How do you observe cell membrane in a peel of Rheo leaf under microscope? Draw the diagram of it. Write your observations.
Answer:
Take Rheo leaf, tear the leaf in single stroke take a small piece of leaf peel with light coloured (transparent) portion. Put it on slide and put a drop of water on it. Cover it with cover slip and observe the light portion of leaf under the microscope.

Observations:

1. Cells are arranged in rows.
2. Cell membrane is clearly seen.
3. Nucleus is present in the cell.

Lab Activity

Question 2.
To observe the nucleus in cheek cells.
Answer:
Aim :
To observe the nucleus in cheek cells.

Material:
A tooth pick or ice-cream spoon or spatula, glass slide, coverslip, watch glass, needle, blotting paper, 1% methylene blue, normal saline, glycerine, microscope etc.

Procedure:

1. Wash your mouth and scrap a little of the internal living of your cheek inside your mouth with a clean tooth pick or spatula or ice-cream spoon.
2. Place the scrap in a watch glass containing a very small quantity of normal saline.
3. Then place the material on a glass slide.
4. Put a drop of methylene blue and wait for a couple of minutes.
5. Wipe off the extra stain with a fine cloth of blotting paper.
6. Put a drop of glycerine over it.
7. Place a coverslip. Tap the coverslip with the blunt end of needle so as to spread the cells.

Precautions :

1. Do not scrap the cheek too hard as it may injure the buccal mucosa.
2. Scrapped material should be spread uni¬formly on the slide.
3. Excess stains should be drained off.
4. There should be no air bubbles under the coverslip.

Observations :

1. The shape of the cells are circular in shape.
2. These cells are not similar to the structure in onion peel cell.
3. Near the centre of the cell there is a darkly coloured oval dot like structure present.

Activity – 2

Question 3.
How do you observe mitochondria in onion peel ? Observe and make a sketch of mitochondria.
Answer:
Observing mitochondria :

1. Make a fresh solution of Janus Green-B in a beaker.
2. Mix 200 mg Janus Green-B in 100 ml of water.
3. Take a watch glass pour some solution. Put the onion peel in this solution and keep it about half an hour.
4. Keep a piece of onion peel on the slide and wash thoroughly with water. Mitochondria in onion peel ceil
5. Cover the slide with a cover slip and observe it under microscope at high magnification.

Observations :
Green oval or cylindrical grains scattered in the cytoplasm. They are mitochondria.

Activity – 3

Question 4.
Observe a chSoroplast in Rheo leaf under microscope ? Draw the diagram of it and write your observation.
Answer:
Observing chloroplast:

1. Take the peel of Rheo leaf and mount it in water on a slide.
2. Observe it under high power microscope.

Observations :

1. Small green granules called chloroplasts are present in the cells of Rheo leaf.
2. Chloroplasts mainly contain green substance called chlorophyll.

Activity – 4

Question 5.
How do you observe chloroplast in Algae under microscope? Draw the diagram and write your findings.
Answer:
Observing chloroplast:

1. Collect some algae from pond and separate out thin filaments of them.
2. Place a few filaments on slide. Observe it under microscope.

Observations:

1. In algae the chloroplasts are found as ladders, stars, spirals or reticulate.
2. The primary function of chloroplasts is to trap the energy of sunlight and transform it to chemical energy in photosynthesis.

Activity – 5

Question 6.
How do you observe under microscope the vacuoles of succulent plant like cactus?
Write small note on them.
Answer:
Observing vacuoles :

1. Take the leaf or stem of any succulent plant like cactus.
2. Take thin cross section of stem of cactus in a watch glass containing water.
3. Stain it with dilute safranine solution.
4. Observe it under low and high power microscope.

Observations :

1. The large empty spaces visible in the cell are vacuoles.
2. These are fluid filled sac like structures.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Polynomials and Factorisation Ex 2.5 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Maths Solutions 2nd Lesson Polynomials and Factorisation Exercise 2.5

Question 1.
Use suitable identities to find the following products.
i) (x + 5) (x + 2)
Solution:
(x + 5) (x + 2)
= x² + (5 + 2)x + 5 x 2
[ ∵ (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b) x + ab]
= x² + 7x + 10

ii) (x – 5) (x – 5)
Solution:
(x – 5) (x – 5)
= (x – 5)² = x² – 2(x) (5) + 5²
[ ∵(x – y)² = x² – 2xy + y²]
= x² – 10x + 25

iii) (3x + 2) (3x – 2)
Solution:
(3x + 2) (3x – 2) = (3x)² – (2)²
[∵ (x + y) (x – y) =x² – y²]
= 9x² – 4

iv) \(\left(x^{2}+\frac{1}{x^{2}}\right)\left(x^{2}-\frac{1}{x^{2}}\right)\)
Solution:

v) (1 + x) (1 + x)
Solution:
(1 + x) (1 + x)
= (1 + x)² = 1² + 2 (1) (x) + x²
[∵(x + y)² = x² + 2xy + y²]
= 1 + 2x + x²

Question 2.
Evaluate the following products with¬out actual multiplication.
i) 101 x 99
Solution:
101 x 99
= (100 + 1) (100 – 1)
= 100² – 1²
= 10000 – 1
= 9999

ii) 999 x 999
Solution:
999 x 999
= 999²
= (1000 – 1)²
= 1000² – 2 x (1000) x 1 + 1²
= 1000000-2000 + 1
= 998001

iii) \(50 \frac{1}{2} \times 49 \frac{1}{2}\)
Solution:

iv) 501 x 501
Solution:
501 x 501
= (500 + 1) (500 + 1)
= (500 + 1)²
= 500² + 2 x (500) x 1 + 1²
= 250000 + 1000 + 1 = 251001

v) 30.5 x 29.5 = (30 + 0.5) (30 – 0.5)
= 30² – (0.5)²
= 900 – 0.25
= 899.75

Question 3.
Factorise the following using appro-priate identities.
i) 16x² + 24xy + 9y²
Solution:
16x² + 24xy + 9y2
= (4x)² + 2 (4x) (3y) + (3y)²
= (4x + 3y)² = (4x + 3y) (4x + 3y)
[ ∵ (x + y)² = x² + 2xy + y²]

ii) 4y² – 4y + 1
Solution:
4y² – 4y + 1
= (2y)² – 2 (2y) (1) + (1)²
[ ∵ (x -y)² = x² – 2xy + y²]
= (2y -1)² = (2y – 1) (2y-1)

iii) \(4 x^{2}-\frac{y^{2}}{25}\)
Solution:

iv) 18a² – 50
Solution:
18a² – 50 = 2 (9a² – 25)
= 2[(3a)² – (5)²]
[ ∵ x² – y² = (x + y) (x – y)]
= 2 (3a + 5) (3a – 5)

v) x² + 5x + 6
Solution:
x² + 5x + 6 = x² + (3 + 2) x + 3 x 2
[ ∵ (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b) x + a . b]
= (x + 3) (x + 2)

vi) 3p² – 24p + 36
Solution:
3p² – 24p + 36
= 3[p² – 8p + 12]
= 3[p² + (- 6 – 2)p + (- 6) (- 2)]
[ ∵ (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b) x + ab]
= 3 (p – 6) (p – 2)

Question 4.
Expand each of the following, using suitable identities.
i) (x + 2y + 4z)2
(x + 2y + 4z)² = (x)² + (2y)² + (4z)² + 2(x) (2y) + 2 (2y) (4z) + 2 (4z) (x)
[ ∵ (x + y + z)² = x² + y² + z² + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx]
= x² + 4y² + 16z² + 4xy + 16yz + 8zx

ii) (2a – 3b)³
Solution:
(2a – 3b)³ = (2a)³ – 3 (2a)² (3b) + 3 (2a) (3b)² – (3b)³
[ ∵ (a – b)³ = a³ – 3a²b + 3ab² – b³]
= 8a³ – 3(4a²) (3b) + 3 (2a) (9b²) – 27b³
= 8a³ – 36a²b + 54ab²-27b³
(or)
∵ (a – b)³ = a³ – b³– 3ab (a – b)]
= (2a)³ – (3b)³ – 3(2a) (3b) (2a – 3b)
= 8a³ – 27b³ – 18ab (2a – 3b)

iii) (- 2a + 5b – 3c)²
Solution:
(- 2a + 5b – 3c)²
= (- 2a)² + (5b)² + (- 3c)² + 2 (- 2a) (5b) + 2 (5b) (- 3c) + 2 (- 3c) (- 2a)
= 4a² + 25b² + 9c² – 20ab – 30bc + 12ca
[ ∵ (x + y + z)² = x² + y² + z² + 2xy +2yz +2za]

iv) \(\left[\frac{a}{4}-\frac{b}{2}+1\right]^{2}\)
Solution:

v) (p + 1)³
Solution:
(p + 1)³
= (P)³ + 3 (p)² (1) + 3 (p) (1)² + (1)³
[ ∵ (x + y)³ = x³ + 3x²y + 3xy² + y³]
= p³ + 3p² + 3p + 1

vi) \(\left(x-\frac{2}{3} y\right)^{3}\)
Solution:

Question 5.
Factorise
i) 25x² + 16y² + 4z² – 40xy + 16yz – 20xz
Solution:
25x² + 16y² + 4z² – 40xy + 16yz – 20xz
= (5x)² + (- 4y)² + (- 2z)² + 2(5x) (- 4y) + 2 (- 4y) (- 2z) + 2 (- 2z) (5x)
= (5x – 4y – 2z)² = (- 5x + 4y +, 2z)²

ii) 9a² + 4b² + 16c² + 12ab – 16bc – 24ca
Solution:
9a² + 4b² + 16c² + 12ab – 16bc -24ca
= (3a)² + (2b)² + (- 4c)²+ 2 (3a) (2b) + 2 (2b) (- 4c) + 2(- 4c) (3a)
= (3a + 2b – 4c)²

Question 6.
If a + b + c = 9 and ab + be + ca = 26, find a² + b² + c².
Solution:
Given that a + b + c = 9
Squaring on both sides,
(a + b + c)² = 9²
⇒ a²+ b² + c²+ 2 (ab + be + ca) = 81 ⇒ a² + b² + c² = 81 – 2 (ab + be + ca)
(by problem)
= 81 – 2 x 26
= 81 – 52 = 29

Question 7.
Evaluate the following by using suit¬able identities. m EachgM)
i) (99)³
Solution:
(99)² = (100 – 1)³
= 100³ – 3 (100)² (1) + 3 (100) (1)² – 1³
[ ∵ (x – y)³ = x³ – 3x²y + 3xy² + y³]
= 1000000 – 30000 + 300 – 1
= 970299

ii) (102)³
Solution:
(102)³ = (100 + 2)³
= 100³ + 3 (100)² (2) + 3 (100) (2)² + 2³
[ ∵ (x + y)³ = x³ + 3x²y + 3xy² + y³]
= 1000000 + 60000 + 1200 + 8
= 1061208

iii) (998)³
Solution:
(998)³ =(1000 – 2)³
[ ∵ (x – y)³ = x³ – 3x²y + 3xy² – y³] = 1000³– 3(1000)²(2) + 3(1000)(2)²– 2³
= 1000000000 – 6000000 + 12000 – 8
= 994011992

iv) (1001)³
Solution:
(1001)³ = (1000 + 1)³ .
[ ∵ (x + y)³ = x³ + 3x²y + 3xy² + y³] = 1000³ + 3(1000)²(1) + 3(1000) (1)² + 1³
= 1000000000 + 3000000 + 3000 + 1
= 1003003001

Question 8.
Factorise each of the following.
i) 8a³ + b³ + 12a² b + 6ab²
Solution:
8a³ + b³ + 12a² b + 6ab²
= (2a)³ + (b)³ + 3 (2a)² (b) + 3 (2a) (b)²
= (2a + b)³

ii) 8a³ – b³ – 12a² b + 6ab²
Solution:
8a³ – b³ – 12a² b + 6ab²
= (2a)³ – (b)³ – 3 (2a)² (b) + 3 (2a) (b)²
= (2a – b)³

iii) 1 – 64a³ -12a + 48a²
Solution:
1 – 64a³ – 12a + 48a²
= (1)³ – (4a)³ – 3(1)² (4a) + 3(1) (4a)²
= (1 – 4a)³

iv) \(8 p^{3}-\frac{12}{5} p^{2}+\frac{6}{25} p-\frac{1}{125}\)
Solution:

Question 9.
Verify i) x³ + y³ = (x + y) (x² – xy + y²);
ii) x³ – y³ = (x – y) (x² + xy + y²)
Using some non-zero positive integers and check by actual multiplication. Can you
call these as identities ?
i) x³ + y³ = (x + y) (x² – xy + y²)
Solution:
Given x³ + y³ = (x + y) (x² – xy + y²)
L.H.S = x³ + y³
R.H.S = (x + y) (x² – xy + y²)
= x (x² – xy + y²) + y (x² – xy + y²)
= x³ -x²y + xy² + x²y – xy² + y³
= x³ + y³
= L.H.S
∴ L.H.S = R.H.S

Take x = 3, y = 2
L.H.S = 3³ + 2³ = 27 + 8 = 35
R.H.S = (3 + 2) (3² – 3 x 2 + 2²)
= 5 x (9 – 6 + 4)
= 5 x 7 = 35
∴ L.H.S = R.H.S

ii) x³ – y³ = (x – y) (x² + xy + y²)
Solution:
Given that x³ – y³ = (x – y) (x² + xy + y²)
L.H.S = x³ – y³
R.H.S = (x – y) (x² + xy + y²)
= x (x² + xy + y²) – y (x² + xy + y²)
= x³ + x²y + xy² – x²y – xy² – y³
= x³ – y³= L.H.S

L.H.S = 3³ – 2³ = 27 – 8 = 19
R.H.S = (3 – 2) (3² + 3 x 2 + 2²)
= 1 x (9 + 6 + 4)
= 1 x 19 = 19
∴ L.H.S = R.H.S
We can call the above two expressions as identities

Question 10.
Factorise by using the above results (identities).
i) 27a³ + 64b³
Solution:
27a³+ 64b³ = (3a)³ + (4b)³
= (3a + 4b) {(3a)² – (3a) (4b) + (4b)²}
= (3a + 4b) (9a² – 12ab + 16b²)

ii) 343y³ – 1000
Solution:
343y³ – 1000 = (7y)³ – (10)³
= (7y – 10) [(7y)² + (7y) (10) + (10)²]
= (7y – 10) (49y² + 70y + 100)

Question 11.
Factorise 27x³ + y³ + z³ – 9xyz using identity.
Solution:
Given 27x³ + y³ + z³ – 9xyz
= (3x)³ + (y)³ + (z)³ – 3 (3x) (y) (z)
= (3x + y + z)
[(3x)² + y² + z² – (3x) (y) – (y) (z) – (z) (3x)]
[ ∵ (x³ + y³ + z³ – 3xyz = (x + y + z) (x² + y² + z²– xy – yz – zx)
= (3x + y + z) (9x² + y² + z² – 3xy – yz – 3xz)

Question 12.
Verify that x³+ y³ + z³ – 3xyz = 1/2 (x + y + z) [(x – y)² + (y – z)² + (z – x)² ]
(OR)
Verify that
p³ + q³ + r³ – 3pqr = 1/2 (p + q + r)
[(p – q)² + (q – r)² + (r – p)²]
Solution:
Given x³+ y³ + z³ – 3xyz = 1/2 (x + y + z) [(x – y)² + (y – z)² + (z – x)² ]
R-H.S = 1/2 (x + y + z) [(x – y)² + (y – z)²+ (z – x)²]
= 1/2 (x + y + z) [x² + y² – 2xy + y² + z² – 2yz + z² + x² – 2xz]
= 1/2 (x + y + z) [2x² + 2y² + 2z² – 2xy – 2yz – 2zx]
= 1/2 (x + y + z) (2) [x² + y² + z² – xy – yz – zx]
= (x + y + z) (x² + y² + z² – xy – yz – zx)
= L.H.S
Hence proved.

Question 13.
If x + y + z = 0, show that x³ + y³ + z³ = 3xyz
Solution:
Given x + y + z = 0
To prove x³ + y³ + z³ = 3xyz
We have an identity
(x + y + z) (x² + y² + z² – xy – yz – zx)
= x³ + y³ + z³ – 3xyz
Substituting x + y + z = 0in the above equation, we get
0 x (x² + y² + z² -xy-yz-zx)
= x³ + y³ + z³ – 3xyz
⇒ x³ + y³ + z³ – 3xyz = 0
⇒ x³ + y³ + z³ = 3xyz

Question 14.
Without actual calculating the cubes, find the value of each of the following.
i) (- 10)³ + 7³ + 3³
Solution:
Given (-10)³ + 7³ + 3³
Sum of the bases = -10 + 7 + 3 = = 0
∴ (- 10)³ + 7³ + 3³
= 3 (- 10) x (7) x 3
= -630
[ ∵ x + y + z = 0 then x³ + y³ + z³ = 3xyz]

ii) (28)³ + (- 15)³ + (- 13)³
Solution:
Given (28)³ + (- 15)³+ (- 13)³
Sum of the bases = 28 + (- 15) + (- 13) = 0
∴ (28)³ + (- 15)³ + (- 13)³
= 3 x 28 x (- 15) x (- 13)
= 16380

iii) \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{3}+\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{3}-\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^{3}\) read it as \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{3}+\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{3}+\left(\frac{-5}{6}\right)^{3}\)
Solution:

iv) (0.2)³ – (0.3)³ + (0.1)³
Solution:
Given that (0.2)³ – (0.3)³ + (0.1)³
= (0.2)³ + (- 0.3)³ + (0.1)³
Sum of the bases = 0.2 – 0.3 + 0.1 = 0
∴ (0.2)³ + (-0.3)³ + (0.1)³
= 3 x (0.2) (- 0.3) (0.1)
= -0.018

Question 15.
Give possible expressions for the length and breadth of the rectangle whose area is given by
i) 4a² + 4a – 3
Given that area = 4a² + 4a – 3
= 4a² + 6a – 2a – 3
= 2a (2a + 3) – 1 (2a + 3)
= (2a – 1) (2a + 3)
∴ Length = (2a + 3); breadth = (2a – 1).

ii) 25a² – 35a + 12
Solution:
Given that area = 25a² – 35a +12
= 25a² – 20a – 15a + 12
= 5a (5a – 4) – 3 (5a – 4)
= (5a – 4) (5a – 3)
∴ (5a – 4) (5a – 3) are the length and breadth.

Question 16.
What are the possible polynomial expressions for the dimensions of the cuboids whose volumes are given below ?
i) 3x³ – 12x
Solution:
Volume = 3x³ – 12x
= 3x (x² – 4)
= 3x (x + 2) (x – 2) are the dimensions.

ii) 12y² + 8y – 20
Solution:
Given that volume = 12y² + 8y – 20
= 4 (3y² + 2y – 5)
= 4 [3y² + 5y – 3y – 5]
= 4 [y (3y + 5) – 1 (3y + 5)]
= 4 (3y + 5) (y – 1)
Hence 4, (3y + 5) and (y – 1) are the dimensions.

Question 17.
Show that if 2 (a² + b² ) = (a + b)² then a = b
Solution:
Given that 2 (a² + b² ) = (a + b)²
To prove a = b
As 2 (a² + b² ) = (a + b)²
We have
2a² + 2b² = a² + 2ab + b²
2a² – a² + 2b² – b² = 2ab
a² + b² = 2ab
This is possible only when a = b
∴ a = b

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 24 Disaster Management.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 24th Lesson Disaster Management

9th Class Social 24th Traffic Education 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two causes for road accidents. (SA-II 2018-19)
Answer:

1. Alcohol & drunk & driving
2. Street racing
3. Speeding
4. Weather related
5. Cell phones, etc.

9th Class Social 24th Traffic Education 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Pie chart below shows the Age profile of road crash victims for 2016. Read the chart and answer the following question.
Q : What is the best conclusion that can be drawn from the information provided in the “Pie” chart? (SA-II 2018-19)

Answer:
According to the chart, the main thing is

1. In road accidents all kinds of age people are there.
2. Majority of accident victims are between 25-35 years of age.
3. Majority of victims are adolescence stage.
4. The main reason behind is lack of traffic education.
5. So create awareness about traffic education.

9th Class Social 24th Traffic Education 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Analyse the information given above and based on that write the need and significance of Traffic Education. (SA-III : 2016-17)

Answer:

1. In the given year 2012, 2577 accidents took place.
2. Two wheelers (30%), Four wheelers (28%), caused more accidents.
3. Over speed, no awareness about traffic rules are main reasons for the accidents.
4. Youth are the main victims of the accidents.

Significance of traffic education :

1. Traffic education is essential for equipping children sufficiently to become safe road users.
2. Traffic education is heeded to encourage safe traffic activities.
3. Traffic education is very essential for every age group.
4. Traffic education for educated road users can be easily done through media, T.V. and radio.

9th Class Social 24th Traffic Education Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is traffic?
Answer:
Movement of any object from one place to another is traffic like wire movement of any vehicle from one place to another place on the road is road traffic.

Question 2.
What is Traffic Education?
Answer:
Traffic Education is the education which describes the traffic rules and regulations in a clear and simple way.

Question 3.
What is the need and significance of Traffic Education?
Answer:
As young people become more independent, they are exposed to increase risks. Especially teenagers are an important group of road users. Many are unaware that road incidents are the biggest cause for serious accidents and deaths. It is necessary to teach all the road safety measures clearly to avoid accidents.

Question 4.
How does breath analyser work?
Answer:
When a person drinks alcohol it is absorbed in to the blood and is circulated through out the body. As this blood reaches the lungs, the air we exhale carries traces of alcohol which is measured by the gadget. In a way the exhaled air would contain alcohol traces along with Carboh-di-oxide. These machines can pick up even the slightest traces of alcohol. Police Officer cannot delete the record in breath analyser even though he wants to help the victim.

Question 5.
Why does the RTA cancel the driving licenses?
Answer:
The Regional Transport Authority can disqualify persons from holding driving license or revoke the same if the person:

1. is a habitual drunkard.
2. is an addict to any narcotic drug
3. is using a vehicle in the commission of cognizable offence
4. is driving dangerously
5. is using the vehicle without registration
6. is not giving any information required to the police
7. is not shifting the victim of the accident in which his or her vehicle is involved to the nearest hospital
8. does not produce the following certificates on demand by police- Certificate of Insurance, – Certificate of Registration- Driving License- Pollution Certificate

Question 6.
Explain the division of Roads.
Answer:
Division of roads:
1. Footpath:
It is laid on either side of the road for the use of pedestrians. It is built with of about 2 meters

2. Road divider :
The road is divided into two halves with cement slabs

3. Zebra Crossings :
Zebra Crossing is the place where the pedestrians cross the road these are laid at places where traffic is heavy.

Question 7.
What are the hurdles of road safety?
Answer:
Hurdles of road safety :

1. Negligence of civilians
2. Pathetic conditions of roads
3. Unsafe vehicle design
4. Under implementation of road safety standards
5. Lack of proper enforcement of laws
6. Lack of emergency services.

Question 8.
Read the following rules and answer the given questions.
Rules for pedestrians :

1. Walk on the footpath. If footpath is not available and the road is narrow, walk on the right side of the road watching the oncoming traffic.
2. Must use reflective clothing at night when walking outside built up area.
3. Always carry a torch while walking at night time.
4. Do look for safe place to cross and look left and right listen for traffic.
5. Let any traffic coming in either direction.
6. Walk briskly straight across the road when it is clear and continue to watch and listen for walking.
7. Use zebra Lines for crossing roads.
8. Don’t use the mobile in any form while walking/ crossing i.e. either listening to songs.
9. Take the help of traffic police while crossing the road.
10. Pedestrians do not walk on roads in inebriated condition.

1) Where should we walk if footpath is not available?
Answer:
If footpath is not available and the road is narrow, walk on the right side of the road watching the on coming traffic.

2) What should we carry at night time while walking?
Answer:
Torch light.

3) What should we use for crossing roads?
Answer:
Zebra Lines.

4) Can we use mobile phones while walking on footpath?
Answer:
No, we cannot.

5) Pedestrians must use ……………… clothing at night when walking outside built up area.
Answer:
reflective

Question 9.
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Traffic Signals :
A traffic Light, traffic signal or a stop light is a signatory device position at a road intersection to indicate when it is safe to drive through. Follow traffic signals at the junction, i.e. Red- stop before line; Orange- get ready to go; Green- move the vehicle.

1) Write the names of signatory devices.
Answer:
Traffic light, traffic signal or stop light.

2) What does it indicate?
Answer:
It indicates when it is safe to drive through.

3) Where can we find signals?
Answer:
At the junctions.

4) Match the following :
1. Red ( ) a. Move the vehicles
2. Orange ( ) b. Get ready to go
3. Green ( ) c. Stop before line
Answer:
1 – c,
2 – b,
3 – a

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 23 Disaster Management.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 23rd Lesson Women Protection Acts

9th Class Social 23rd Lesson Disaster Management 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give examples of human induced disasters. (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:

1. Road accidents
2. Rail accidents
3. Air accidents
4. Fire accidents
5. Terrorism

9th Class Social 23rd Lesson Disaster Management Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about the air accidents.
Answer:
Across the world including India, air accidents have increased. Many factors govern the safety of the passengers in the aircraft like increase in the number of aircrafts, technical problems, fire, landing and take off condition, the environment that the airline operates in (mountainous terrains or frequent storms), factors like airport security in cases of hijackings, bomb attacks, etc.

Question 2.
Who should not drive vehicles?
Answer:
The following people should not be driving vehicles :

1. Having consumed alcohol.
2. Have been taking any medicine or drug that affects their responses.
3. Are tired, as tiredness affects the driving skills and reaction time.
4. Are sick or injured.
5. Are angry or upset.

Question 3.
What safety measures should be taken while air travel?
Answer:
Some safety measures that can be taken up are given below :

1. Pay attention to the flight crew safety demonstration.
2. Carefully read the safety briefing card, that is there in the seat pocket.
3. Know where the nearest safety emergency exit is and know how to open in case of emergency.
4. Always keep your seat belt fastened when you are in seat.

Question 4.
Collect the information about this.
Answer:
Date : 26-11-2008
Time : 20.00 hours
Attack type : Bombings, shootings, hostage crisis, siege.
Deaths : 166 including attackers
Injured : More than 600
Perpetrators : ISI, Lashkar-e-Toiba
Note : One was caught and executed later.

Question 5.
Read the following suggestions and answer the given questions.

i) Why should we inform police?
Answer:
As it could contain explosive device.

ii) What is the police control room number?
Answer:
100

iii) What should we do after informing the police?
Answer:
We should keep a watch on the suspected object.

iv) ………………. of any suspicious behaviour, parked vehicle.
Answer:’
Be alert

Question 5.
Read the following and answer the questions given below.
The 2004 fire in a school in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu sparked off debates and arguments on the safety of schools in the country. 93 innocent lives were charred to death. The main causes of this fire were lack of awareness amongst children and teachers as to what to do in case of a fire, lack of preparedness, kitchen close to the classroom etc. However, incidents like these are not new.
1) When was the fire sparked off?
Answer:
In 2004.

2) Where is Kumbakonam?
Answer:
It is in Tamil Nadu district.

3) What were the main causes of this fire?
Answer:
The main causes of this fire were lack of awareness amongst children and teachers.

4) Where is the kitchen?
Answer:
The kitchen is close to the classroom.

5) Who died in the accident?
Answer:
93 innocent lives were charred to death.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 22 Women Protection Acts.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 22nd Lesson Women Protection Acts

9th Class Social 22nd Lesson Women Protection Acts 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Many acts are made by the government of India to protect the rights of women and girls. Mention any two such acts enforced by the government of India. (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:

• Child marriage Act – 2006
• The Dowry Prohibition Act -1961
• Sexual Assault and Torturing Act – 2013
• The Immoral Trafficking (prevention) Act -1956 and Amendment – 2006.

9th Class Social 22nd Lesson Women Protection Acts 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Even after the ‘Prohibition of child marriage Act1, child marriages are still going on here and there. Suggest some measures to stop this dogma. (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:

1. Empower girls with information, skills and support networks.
2. Provide economic support and incentives to girsl and their families.
3. Educate and rally parents and community members.
4. Enhance girls.

Question 2.
The Government made many programmes and acts for girls, women protection and development. What is your suggestion for the better implementation?
Answer:
Govt made so many acts for women and girld child protection and developments.
Suggestions for better implementation :

1. To raise awareness on women’s right issues.
2. Enhancement of the political and legal status of women through political empowerment.
3. Protesting when violations against women, children take place.
4. Wider publicity, propaganda about acts to be made and educate people.
5. Campaign against injustice by coming on to the streets, approaching the courts and by sharing information.

9th Class Social 22nd Lesson Women Protection Acts Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are children rights?
Answer:

• All the people below 18 years age are all children without gender discrimination.
• Protection from government for children rights.
• Right to live.
• Right to live with parents as far as possible.
• Right to gain knowledge and get awareness about the world through media like radio, newspapers, TV, etc.
• Right to protection from violence and harmful incidents.
• Right to get special care to live and for development in case of disabled children.
• Right to have good health and get medical care.
• Right to use mother tongue, follow their religion and tradition.
• Right to play.
• Right to avoid the harm for children from getting education and health.
• Right to get protection from using harmful medicines also manufacturing and purchasing.
• Right to get help when the children are neglected and being suffered.

Question 2.
What are the forms of domestic violence?
Answer:
Forms of Domestic Violence :

• Sexual abuse (forcible sexual intercourse, watching obscene films )
• Physical abuse (behaviour caused to bodily pain or harm, beating, torturing)
• Verbal and emotional abuse (humiliation, name calling or ridicule not speaking to them, ignoring.)
• Mental abuse (threaten to harm, not to send the children for study, stopping from jobs, force to marry whom she doesn’t like)
• Economic abuse (deprivation of economic or financial resources, use the women wealth, sell their property)

Question 3.
Write some of the important features of the ordinance on ‘Sexual Assault and Torturing.
Answer:

• Minimum 20 years of imprisonment.
• Recruitment of women police to address the complaints from the victims.
• It is not necessary for the victim to attend before the police officers individually.
• There will be no punishment if the accused dies in struggle at the time of attack with acid on women.
• There is a scope to shoot video at the time of complaining and trial on the request of the victims.

Question 4.
Who are eligible for judicial assistance?
Answer:

• Citizens belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
• Victims of immoral human trafficking, beggars, women, children, mentally imbalanced and physically challenged. „
• Victims of natural disasters, agricultural and industrial labourers and victims of Domestic Violence and Caste enmity.
• Citizens earning annual income less than Rs. 50,000.

Question 5.
What are the methods of Judicial Assistance?
Answer:
Methods of Judicial Assistance :

• Judicial advice is given free of cost by the advocate.
• After verification of the cases and if it is found necessary, the advocates may be appointed on behalf of the complaint and take up the cases in the court.
• To bear the expenditures of court and court fee.
• The xerox copies of the judgment will be given at free of cost to those who sought judicial assistance.

Question 6.
Comment on this picture.

Answer:
They both are couple. The man is angry and ready to kick his wife. She is cheerful and warning him with the section 498 A of I PC.
Note: Section 498 A of IPC, 1860: Husband or relative of husband of women subjecting her to cruelty – whoever beingthe husband orthe relative ofthe husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall be punished with the imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine.

Question 7.
What about the Immoral Trafficking Act (1956) and amendment 2006? What are the different forms of trafficking?
Answer:
The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act 1956 and amendment 2006 :
Girls and women are being lured in the name of providing jobs, bright future, offering roles in cinema etc., and take them to towns and cities and sell them for prostitution. Even they beat and, cause physical violence to make them obey. Certain times they remove body parts.

Trafficking and selling of them for prostitution or encouraging them to enter into prostitution is a punishable crime. Though they come on their will and interest is also treated a crime.

Different forms of trafficking :
Sexual assault

1. Forced prostitution
2. Social and religious prostitution (Devadasi, Jogini, Mathangi etc.)
3. Sexual assault in tourism
4. Reading rustic writings and watching obscene pictures

Activities against the law

1. It is a crime to make the trafficking children involve in the begging for money and beating them to obey. Certain times they make them?physically handicapped by removing their body parts and make them as beggars.
2. Removing body parts and doing business.
3. Selling narcotics with the trafficked children.

Labourers
1. Vetti :
Taking work without making proper payments, not providing nutrious food, clothes and even not treat them as human beings.

2. Domestic labour:
Washing clothes, cleaning the houses and utensils without proper wages, entrusting work in neighbours’ houses.

3. Agriculture Labour:
Involving in the agriculture work and exploiting them for more physical work.

4. Construction work :
Labour involved in construction of buildings, roads, etc. with nominal payments and providing them with substandard food.

Sadistic pleasure

1. Tying up the children on camels and make them run for entertainment
2. Marriages and adoption without their consent

Question 8.
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Lok Adalat means people’s court. All are equal before law. The Article 39-A of the Constitution of India, contains various provisions for settlement of disputes through Lok Adalat. It is an Act to constitute legal services authorities to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society. It is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities. And to organize Lok Adalats to secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity.

In addition to above, an Act was formulated which is called “Act of Judicial Services Authority.” This is a central law. The State government and High Court jointly formulated certain principles as per this Act.
1) What is Lok Adalat?
Answer:
It is people’s court.

2) Write about the Article 39 – A.
Answer:
The Article 39 – A of the Constitution of India, contains various provisions for settlement of disputes through Lok Adalat.

3) To whom does it help?
Answer:
It helps the weaker sections of the society.

4) What is the name of the Act?
Answer:
Act of Judicial Services Authority

5) This is a _______ law.
Answer:
central

Question 9.
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

1) What is punishment mentioned here?
Answer:
Five years of imprisonment and a fine.

2) What is observed?
Answer:
It is observed that after the marriage the bride is teased, scolded, abused, beaten and sometimes killed or forced to commit suicide.

3) What are all these called?
Answer:
These are all called ‘Offences’.

4) What is the law for offerings? (Write any two)
Answer:
1) Enlisting the offerings
2) Offerings cannot be demanded.

5) The value of offerings shall not be _____ and ______ the parents’ economic status.
Answer:
Over, above

Question 10.
Write some misconceptions and realities of domestic violence.
Answer:
Domestic Violence – Misconceptions and Realities :
Misconception:
Parents punishing their children now and then is not a major issue to be considered.

Reality:
Domestic violence starts slowly and it becomes a routine, if nobody opposes it. The victims certain times are hospitalised for treatment and even lose their life and it adversely affects their dignity and self-respect.

Misconception :
Addiction to the drinking is the major cause for violence.

Reality :
The alcoholism for domestic violence is only an assumption but the statistics reveals that 40% of the men who beat their wives are not addicted to alcoholism.

Misconception :
Women shall bear the violence for the sake of children.

Reality :
Violence leads to more and more violence. Children that grow in the violent atmosphere will become more violent in future.

Misconception :
There is no way to get out of domestic violence.

Reality :
The violence free environment is the birth right of every woman. The Women Protecting Acts and laws are available and one should take their support.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 21 Human Rights and Fundamental Rights.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 21st Lesson Human Rights and Fundamental Rights

9th Class Social 21st Lesson Human Rights and Fundamental Rights 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a writ?
(OR)
What do you understand about ‘writt1? (SA-II : 2017-18)
Answer:

• Writ is an authority given to the court to issue directions to the government to protect and enforce any constitutional right.
• It is an inherent power given to the court.
• The court can “Suo motu” (on its own motion) take congnizance of a violation of fundamental rights.

Question 2.
Write any two slogans about abolition of child labour. (SA-II : 2017-18)
Answer:
1. Child is your heart not born to push your cart.
2. Children are the future heroes, they need to learn before they can work.

9th Class Social 21st Lesson Human Rights and Fundamental Rights 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following situations. Which Fundamental Right is being violated in each case and how? (SA-II : 2018-19)
i. A director who makes a documentary film that criticizes the policies of the government is arrested and sent to prison.
ii. A ten years old boy is not allotted to go to school and is forced to work in a firecracker factory.
Answer:
i) In first case Right to freedom of speech and expression is violated. Everyone has a right to express their opinion on the administration of govt. But some limitations are there.
ii) In the second case, Right against exploitation is violated.
The Constitution says “no child below the age of 14 shall be employed engaged in any other hazardous employment.

Question 2.
Read the following concepts and write under the table with relevant fundamental right. (SA-II : 2017-18)

• Prohibition of employment for children in factories.
• All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
• Abolition of titles.
• Right to life.

Answer:

9th Class Social 21st Lesson Human Rights and Fundamental Rights Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note about UDHR.
Answer:

• A group of people from 9 countries around the world formed by UNO drafted a list of 30 articles.
• This became the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
• It was passed by the UN General Assembly in 1948.

Question 2.
What are the functions of NHRC?
Answer:

• NHRC is vested with the authority to make an inquiry, Suo motu or on a petition presented to it by a victim.
• It works for protecting human rights.
• It intervenes in any case involving human rights in the court or outside the court.

Question 3.
What are our fundamental duties?
Answer:
The fundamental duties to be discharged by the citizens were not there in our Constitution earlier. They were included through 42nd amendment. They are :

1. Respecting the constitution, National Flag and National Anthem.
2. Cherishing the noble ideals of the freedom struggle.
3. Defending the country and rendering national service when called for.
4. Upholding and protecting the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
5. Promoting harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India and renouncing any practice derogatory to the dignity of women.
6. Preserving the rich heritage of the Nation’s composite culture.
7. Protecting and improving the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and having compassion for living creatures.
8. Developing scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry or reform.
9. Safeguarding public property and abjuring violence.
10. Striving for the excellence in all individual and collective activities.

Question 4.
What are the differences between the fundamental rights and fundamental duties?
Answer:
1) Fundamental rights :
a) Fundamental rights are definite.
b) No one can deprive us of these rights.
c) Even Government cannot ignore them.
d) These rights are safeguarded through court of law.

2) Fundamental duties :
a) No one can force us to abide to them.
b) The discharge of fundamental duties is left to our discretion.
c) No court can force us to discharge these duties.

Question 5.
Read the passage and answer the following questions.
Human Rights Commission :

The United Nations has been working to protect the basic human rights of people and in this effort they have encouraged their member nations to do the same. In 1993,the Government of India passed an act of legislature to protect human rights. A commission for human rights was set up under this law called the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC). The commission has been given powers of a civil court extendable to the entire country. The Government has also established other institutions to monitor and inquire into situations in which rights are violated. Thus we have different institutions such as the National Commission for Women, National Commission for Protection of Child Rights, National Minority Commission and State Human Rights Commissions.
i) When did the Government of India pass an act of legislature to protect human rights?
Answer:
In 1993 the Government of India passed a legislature.

ii) Expand NHRC.
Answer:
NHRC means National Human Rights Commission.

iii) What are the institutions that work on Human Rights?
Answer:
1) National Human Rights Commission.
2) National Commission for Women.
3) National Minority Commission.
4) State Human Rights Commission.

iv) What does the above Logo stand for?
Answer:
It is the logo of Human Rights designed by the United Nations Organization.

v) Which organization is behind the establishment of Human Rights Commission?
Answer:
The UNO is instrumental in establishing the Human Rights Commission.

Question 6.
Gather certain information about violation of fundamental rights and how the court protected them.
Answer:
I.

1. One factory was emitting dangerous gases and health of the people was effected.
2. A public interest litigation is filed in the court.
3. The factory was forced to close down. As it is against the fundamental right of Right to life.

II.

1. One child was working as a domestic servant in a family.
2. The family members went on a tour for two days.
3. The child (servant) was kept in the house and the door was locked from outside.
4. The neighbours recognized it. Given a complaint to the police.
5. The police broke open the doors and a case was filed against the head of the family.

Question 7.
Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution?
a) Right to work
b) Right to adequate livelihood
c) Right to protect one’s culture
d) Right to privacy
Answer:
c) Right to protect one’s culture

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 3 Hydrosphere.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 3rd Lesson Hydrosphere

9th Class Social 3rd Lesson Hydrosphere 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How are we polluting oceans today? (SA-III: 2016-17)
Answer:
We are polluting oceans today by dumping plastic, other forms waste and other industrial waste.

Question 2.
How can you appreciate the oceans as resources? (SA-II: 2017-18)
Answer:

• Ocean waves are used for generating power.
• Ocean floor is mined for oils.
• Oceans also provide with gems and pearls.

Question 3.
Write any two factors that affect the salinity of oceans. (SA-II: 2018-19)
(OR)
Write any two factors which effect salinity in water bodies? (SA-I: 2018-19)
Answer:
Salinity in water bodies is affected by evaporation, precipitation, ice formation, ice melting and temperature also.

Question 4.
Give any two examples of warm ocean currents. (SA-I: 2019-20)
Answer:
Two examples of warm ocean currents :
(a) Gulf stream,
(b) Kuroshio

9th Class Social 3rd Lesson Hydrosphere 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
(SA-I: 2019-20)
a) Water distribution on earth
b)Fresh water consumption by humans
a) What percentage of the total water on the Earth is available for consumption?
Answer:
0.75% or 2.5%

b) Which activity of humans need maximum water?
Answer:
Agriculture.

9th Class Social 3rd Lesson Hydrosphere 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Describe the stages of water cycle.(SA-II: 2017-18)
(OR)
Explain various stages of Hydrological cycle. (SA-I: 2018-19)
(OR)
Draw the hydrological cycle and describe the stages involved in it.

Answer:
There are six stages of water cycle. They are –
a) Evaporation :

• The process by which water changes from liquid to gas by using sun’s energy is called evaporation.
• Land, lakes, rivers and oceans send up a steady of water vapour and plants lose water to the air through transpiration.

b) Transportation :

• The movement of water through the atmosphere specifically from over the ocean to land in the form of clouds is transportation.
• Clouds are propelled from one place to another by either the jet stream, surfaces based circulations like land and sea breezes or other mechanisms.

c) Condensation :
The transported water vapour eventually condenses forming tiny droplets and clouds.

d) Precipitation :

• The primary mechanism for transporting water from the atmosphere to the surface of the earth is precipitation.
• When the clouds meet cool air over land precipitation is triggered in the form of rain, sleet or snow and thus water reaches the ground.

e) Run off:

• Most of the water which returns to land flows down hills as run off.
• Some of it penetrates into the land and charges ground water while the rest, as river flow, returns to the oceans where it evaporates.

f) Groundwater :
Under special circumstances, groundwater can even flow upward in artesian wells.

Question 2.

Read the above table and answer the following questions. (SA-II: 2017-18)
1. Which ocean is also known as Southern Ocean?
2. Which ocean separate the America from Europe and Africa?
3. Which continents are separated by the Indian Ocean?
4. What are the land masses in Oceania?
Answer:

1. Antarctic ocean is know as Southern ocean.
2. The Atlantic ocean separates the America from Europe and Africa.
3. The Indian ocean washes upon Southern Asia and separates Africa and Australia.
4. Australia, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea are the land masses in Oceania.

Question 3.
“Water is considered a renewable resource”. Explain this statement.” (SA-I: 2019-20)
Answer:

• Water is considered a renewable resource because it cycles through the Earth system.
• It falls as precipitation.
• Then gets absorbed or run off.
• If it is absorbed, it can go deep into the ground or it can be taken up by plants.
• Plants return water to the atmosphere through transpiration.
• The water that goes deep into the ground can eventually run off into surface bodies of water like lakes and streams.
• The water that runs off can be evaporated, or it can run into lakes and streams.
• The water in lakes and streams can be evaporated, returning it to the atmosphere, where it can precipitate again.

9th Class Social 3rd Lesson Hydrosphere Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is an Ocean? Write a brief essay on the ocean.
Answer:
The huge water bodies are called Oceans. There are five oceans on the earth. They are the Pacific ocean, the Atlantic ocean, the Indian ocean, the Southern (Atlantic) ocean and the Arctic ocean.

The ocean basins are in many ways similar to the land surface. There are submarine ridges, plateaus, canyons and terraces. Ocean floor is simply divided into four layers. They are continental shelf, continental slope, deep sea plain and oceanic deep.

Ocean water is salty. Most of the salt in the oceans comes from land. Over millions of years rain, rivers and streams have washed over rocks containing the compound Sodium Chloride and carried into the sea. The total content of dissolved salts in sea water is called salinity. It is usually expressed as parts per thousand (PPT). Average salinity of the oceans is 35%0. The salinity of ocean water depends mainly on evaporation and precipitation.

The little variations in ocean temperature show great effect on land temperatures. South west monsoon in India is affected by ‘El Nino’ and ‘La Nino’. These are the effects caused by the changes in temperature in the Pacific ocean. Normally, the temperature in oceans varies from – 2°C to 29°C.

The general movement of a mass of water in a fairly defined direction over great distance is called an ocean current. Based on temperature ocean currents may be classified into cold currents and warm currents. Generally warm currents flow towards the poles, cold currents flow towards the equator. Centrifugal force, effects of winds, effects of precipitation, effect by solar energy are the causes of ocean currents.

Oceans have many uses for man. They are the store houses of fish. Oceans are the sources of Chlorine, Fluorine, Bromine and Iodine. Tides and waves of the oceans are the sources of renewable energy. Oceans are sources for rainfall. They act as international highways. Rock petroleum and natural gas are extracted under oceans. Minerals such as sand, gravel, manganese, copper, nickel, etc., are mined from oceans.

Thus without oceans Ijfe of man is impossible.

Question 2.
Describe the salinity of the oceanic water.
Answer:

• Ocean water is salty.
• Most of the salt in the oceans comes from land.
• Over millions of years rain, rivers and streams have washed over containing the compound Sodium Chloride (NaCl) and carried into the sea.
• The total content of dissolved salts in sea water is called salinity.
• The salinity of oceanic water depends mainly on evaporation and precipitation.
• In coastal regions salinity is influenced by the fresh water flow from rivers.
• In polar regions salinity is influenced by the process of freezing and thawing of ice.
• Salinity is usually expressed as parts per thousand (%0) or PPT.
• The average salinity of the oceans is 35%0.
• Lake Van of Turkey is the water body with the highest salinity.

Question 3.
Describe the temperature of oceanic water.
Answer:

• When compared to land the temperature on oceans does not show more variations.
• Ei Nino and La Nino are the effects caused by the changes in temperature in the Pacific Ocean.
• The activeness of South West monsoon in India is affected by Ei Nino and La Nino.
• The ocean temperature is influenced by latitudes, winds and ocean currents, unequal distribution of land and the change of seasons.
• Normally, the temperature in oceans varies from – 2°C to 29°C.
• The highest temperature is recorded in inland seas.
• The temperature is the highest in Red Sea, i.e. 38° C.
• As one goes deep inside the oceans, the temperature rapidly decreases for every 1 km and remains stable.
• The temperature is stable at the foot of ocean i.e., 1.8° C.

Question 4.
What are the ocean currents? How are they formed?
Answer:
1. The general movement of a mass of water in a fairly defined direction over great distance is called ocean current.

2.Causes that lead to the formation of ocean currents are :
a) Centrifuge! Force :
The centrifugal force at the equator is greater than that at the poles. The variation of these forces makes the equatorial water to move towards the poles.

b) Effect of Winds :
The stresses due to wind and the wind movement modifies the the theoretical direction of currents. Due to the frictional gliding of winds water is dragged along the wind direction. Thus a 50 miles per hour wind will produce a current whose velocity is 0.75 miles per hour.

c) Effect of Precipitation :
Since the level of sea is higher water moves north and south from the equator.

d) Effect of Solar Energy :
Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand near the equator. Hence near the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes. This causes a very slight gradient and water tends to flow down the slope.

e) Salinity, density differences, melting of ice also affect the ocean currents.

Question 5.
How are the oceans useful to mankind?
Answer:

1. Oceans are store houses for fish.
2. Since early times man depended on oceans for food.
3. Dogger Bank North Sea, Grand – bank, New found land are famous fishing regions.
4. Chlorine, Fluorine, Bromine and Iodine are found in oceans.
5. Tides and waves are non-renewable energy resources.
6. Oceans are sources for rainfall.
7. Oceans act as international highways.
8. Sources for civilizations : Greek civilization, Rome civilization all flourished on banks of rivers and oceans.
9. Rock petroleum, Natural gas are extracted under oceans.
10. Oceans are mined for minerals, salt, sand, gravel, manganese, copper, nickel, etc.

Question 6.
Why is the earth called the blue planet?
Answer:

• Planet earth is called the ‘Blue planet’ due to the abundant water on its surface.
• About 71% of the earth is covered with water.
• If we look at earth from outer space, we can see the earth almost entirely blue.

Question 7.
What is the importance of continental shelf?
Answer:

1. The continental shelf with depth up to 200 mts occupied about 7.6% of the oceans area.
2. It is the border zone between land and sea.
3. Continental shelf is most important to
   a) Fish wealth is more in this region.
   b) Rock petroleum, natural gas are found here.
   c) Building sea port is possible here.

Question 8.
What are Oceans?
Answer:
The huge water bodies are called Oceans.

Question 9.
What is ocean current?
Answer:
The general movement of a mass of water in a fairly defined direction over great distance is called ocean current. –

Question 10.
What is meant by evaporation?
Answer:
Evaporation: The process by which water changes from liquid to gas by using sun’s energy is called evaporation.

Question 11.
What is meant by transportation?
Answer:
Transportation:
The movement of water through the atmosphere specifically from over the ocean to land in the form of clouds is called transportation.

Question 12.
Where do we find trenches? What is their significance?
Answer:

• Contrary to our expectations, most of the deepest trenches are not located in the midst of oceans.
• They are found more close to the continents.
• They are very significant in the study of plate movements.

Question 13.
Which part of ocean floor is suitable for building seaport? Why?
Answer:

• Continental shelf of ocean floor is suitable for building seaport.
• The continental shelf with depth upto 200 m.
• It is the border zone between land and sea.
• It will be useful in anchoring the ships.

Question 14.
Do you think the rain we get is in any way related to hydrological cycle?
Answer:

• Yes. I think the rain we get is related to hydrological cycle.
• It is a part of precipitation, which constitutes in hydrological cycle.
• It is the fourth stage of the six stages in hydrological cycle.

Question 15.
What are the factors that affect the movement of ocean currents?
Answer:
The factors that affect the movements of ocean currents are –

1. The centrifugal force
2. The winds
3. The precipitation
4. The solar energy
5. Salinity
6. Differences in density
7. Melting of ice etc.

Question 16.
Write about continental slope.
Answer:

• The continental slope is spread from 200 mts to 3000 mts depths of oceans.
• It comprises of 15% of the ocean area.
• Submarine canyons are observed in this region.

Question 17.
Write about the classification of Ocean currents.
Answer:
1. Ocean currents may be classified on the basis of temperature as –
(a) Cold Currents
(b) Warm Currents

2. Ocean currents may be classified on the basis of speed as –
(a) a stream
(b) a drift

Question 18.
“From ail the sources of water reaching the earth, less than 1% of water is useful to man” – Interpret the statement.
Answer:
Of the total volume of water on earth only 2.75% is fresh water. Most fresh occurs in the form of permanent ice, snow locked up in the Antarctica and Arctic and in the mountain regions. The principal sources of water for human use are lakes, rivers, soil moisture and relatively shallow ground water basin. The usable portion of these sources is only about less than 1% of all fresh water.

Question 19.
“RF = RO + ET” – Explain the equation.
Answer:

• The total amount of water present on the earth surface remains constant but undergoes continuous transformation from water vapour to liquid.
• This equation is also called water balance equation.
• That means the amount of water received from rainfall is equal to the total amount of water runs off and the amount of water that is lost in evapotranspiration.
• Thus the equation Total Rain Fall = Total Run Off+Total water lost in Evapotranspiration.

Question 20.
in which ways oceans are being exploited by us, today?
Answer:

• Today oceans have also fallen victim to our exploitation.
• Many large fish like whales have been disappearing.
• Oceans have also become dumping ground for our plastic and other forms of faste.

Question 21.
Usually oceans have salinity of 35%. But being part of Atlantic ocean, how come Baltic sea has salinity of 3-15%?
Answer:

1. Baltic sea is enclosed by Scandenavia (Norway, Sweden), Finland, Baltic countries and North European plain.
2. It has major inflows from rivers like Oder, Vistula, Neva, Narva, Jome, Neman, Kemijoki and Dangava.
3. Only outlets towards danist areas.
4. As its coastal regions are in respect of fresh waters resulting in lower salinity.

Question 22.
Lake Van of Turkey experiences harsh winters with -300C. Why do you think its water never gets freezed?
Answer:

• Lake Van is fed by streams descending from surrounding mountains.
• It has no outlet, as outlet once present was closed by volcanic eruption.
• Water here is with a pH value of 9.7 – 9.8.
• It is situated at an altitude of 5380 ft.
• But because of its salinity of 330%, (oceans have 35% salinity) it is free from freezing.

Question 23.
The table below shows the descending order of the oceans in terms of size.

1) What is the largest ocean on the earth?
Answer:
The Pacific ocean.

2) Which ocean is considered as the extension of three important oceans?
Answer:
The Antarctic ocean.

3) What is the smallest ocean on the earth?
Answer:
The Arctic ocean.

4) Which ocean separates America from Europe and Africa?
Answer:
The Atlantic ocean.

5) Where is the Indian Ocean?
Answer:
To the South of Asia.

Question 24.
“The activeness of South west monsoon in India is affected by El Nino and La Nino”. Prove the statement.
Answer:

• El Nino and La Nino are the names given to the changes in winds in the Pacific Ocean.
• El Nino and La Nino are formally called ‘The small boy’ and ‘The little girl’.
• La Nino and El Nino come about when the waters of the eastern and central Pacific Ocean along the equator become usually cold or warm.
• These changes in the Pacific produce swings in atmospheric pressure, winds, temperature and rainfall that have a global impact.
• For India La Nino is often a cause for concern because of its adverse impact on the South west monsoon.
• The El Nino on the other hand is often beneficial for the monsoon especially in the latter half of the season.
• Because of global warming the temperature of the western Pacific is influencing the effect La Nino.

Question 25.
Can you say what the temperature at the foot of the Pacific ocean is?
Answer:

• Normally, the temperature in oceans varies from -2°C to 29°C.
• As one goes deep inside the oceans the temperature rapidly decreases for every 1 km and then it remains stable.
• The temperature is stable at the foot of the ocean, i.e. 1.8°C.
• Therefore the temperature at the foot of the Pacific ocean is 1.8°C.

Question 26.
“The government of Maldives held its first underwater cabinet meeting at a depth of 20 feet off the coast just north of the capital Male. Maldives wanted to attract the attention of the world to the dangers of global warming and sea-level rise. This is a matter of great concern not only for the Maldives but also for all the countries in the World”.
Basing on the information given above – frame a thought provoking question on the issue.
Answer:
What are the causes that lead to the sea level rise ? What should we do to prevent it?

Question 27.
Why do we call the earth as blue planet?
Answer:

• 71% of the earth is covered with water.
• Hence it appears as blue in the photographs taken from the moon.
• So we call the earth as blue planet.

Question 28.
Without oceans life of the man is impossible. Discuss it.
Answer:

• Oceans are international highways hence facilitate imports and exports among different countries.
• Oceans are sources of rainfall. Much of the evaporation takes place from oceans and comes to earth in the form of rainfall.
• They are the source of sea food which is staple food for some people.
• Oceans are warehouses of minerals like Petroleum, Natural Gas, Manganese etc., which are necessary for industrial development.

Hence life of the man is impossible without oceans.

Question 29.
Observe the map.

Now, answer the following questions.
1) Which ocean separates America from Africa and Europe?
Answer:
Atlantic ocean.

2) Name ocean that separates Africa and Australia.
Answer:
Indian ocean.

3) Which is the ocean that encircles Australia?
Answer:
Pacific ocean.

4) Which ocean is there to the south of India?
Answer:
Indian ocean.

Question 30.
Locate the following oceans in the world map given below.
1) The Pacific ocean
2) The Atlantic ocean
3) The Indian ocean
4) The Arctic ocean
5) The Antarctic Ocean
6) The Baltic sea
7) The Red sea

Question 31.
Describe any one impact of ocean currents for the region you live.
Answer:
The Indian Monsoon current refers to the seasonally varying ocean current regime found in the tropical regions of the nothern Indian ocean. The seasonally reversing open ocean currents that pass through south of India are referred to as the winter monsoon current and the summer monsoon current, alternately the north-east monsoon current and the southwest monsoon current.

India receives rainfall due to these currents.

Question 32.
Without oceans life of man is impossible. Discuss it.
Answer:
Throughout the history man is directly or indirectly influenced by the oceans. Oceans have many uses for man.

1. Since early times man depended on oceans for food. Oceans are store houses for fish.
2. Ocean is a source of valuable minerals. Chlorine, Fluorine, Bromine and Iodine are found in oceans.
3. Rock petroleum, Natural gas are extracted under oceans.
4. Oceans are mined for mineral salt, sand, gravel manganese, copper, nickel etc.
5. Some biological products of oceans are also commercially used. For example, pearls taken from oysters are used in jewellery.
6. Shells and corals have been widely used as source of building material.
7. Tides and waves are renewable energy sources.
8. Oceans are sources of rainfall.
9. Oceans act as international highways.
10. Many great civilizations such as Greek civilization, Rome civilization all flourished on the banks of rivers and oceans.

There are many more uses for man from oceans. Hence we can say without oceans life of man is impossible.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 13 Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 17th and 18th Centuries.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 13th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 17th and 18th Centuries

9th Class Social 13th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 17th and 18th Centuries 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What was Slogan raised in American Independence? (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
“No taxation without representation.”

Question 2.
What was the uniqueness of ‘Bloodless Revolution’? (SA-III : 2016-17)
(OR)
Why was the England revolution called as a bloodless revolution? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
The supreme power was transferred from king to parliament without shedding a drop of blood or firing a single shot.

Question 3.
What is the Jacobin Clubs? (SA-II : 2017-18)
Answer:
People who wish to discuss policies and plan their own form of action. These are called Political Clubs. One of such is Jacobin Club.

Question 4.
What was the effect of Glorious revolution? (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:
Not only was an absolutist catholic monarch removed, but the declaration of rights ensured the sovereignty of parliament and imposed significant limitations on the prerogatives of the crown.

Question 5.
Answer questions (a) and (b) based on the table given below. (SA-I : 2018-19)

a) What percentage of tax was levied by the church?
b) Find the terms related to tax from the above table.
Answer:
a) A tax leived by the church, comprising 1/10^th of agricultural produce.
b) Terms related to tax are
1) Tithes
2) Taille

Question 6.
State the importance of Declaration of the ‘Rights of Man1 in France. (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
The importance of Declaration of the Rights of Man is to provide,

Rights to the people; such as freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly and separation of powers. Women were denied from these rights.

9th Class Social 13th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 17th and 18th Centuries 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you know about ‘bloodless revolution (or) glorious revolution? (SA-II : 2017-18)
Answer:
In 1688, William of Orange and his wife Mary were invited by the Parliament to occupy the throne of England. A new arrangement was worked out by which ministers were responsible to the Parliament and the powers of the king were restricted. The supreme power was transferred to Parliament, without shedding a drop of blood of firing a single shot.

Question 2.
Look the timeline given below. (SA-I : 2019-20)

i) Which revolution does the timeline indicate?
Answer:
American Revolution indicates in the above time line.

ii) In this revolution, against which country the people fought for their independence?
Answer:
England.

9th Class Social 13th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 17th and 18th Centuries 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
When the French Revolutionaries were preparing the declaration of Rights of Men in 1791, many French women protested against this and drafted a separate declaration of the Rights of Women. It declared – “Women are born free and remain equal to men in rights.
Read the above paragraph and explain your opinion on “Women – Right to Vote”. (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
If the women has Right to vote the following benefits are there :

1. The moral, educational and humane legislation desired by women would be got more easily if women had votes.
2. The laws unjust to women would be amended more quickly.
3. Equal suffrage would increase the proportion of educated voters.
4. It leads to fair treatment of women in the public service.
5. It would help those women who need help the most.

Question 2.
Examine the table and answer the following questions. (SA-II : 2016-17)

Answer the following Questions.
1. Jocabin constitution belongs to which country?
2. Which ideology was closely allied to the idea of National Unit?
3. Which stood for freedom for the individual and equality to all before the law?
4. Members of which class wee united by a common way of life?
Answer:

1. Jacobin constitution belongs to the country of France.
2. Ideas of national unity in early 19th century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism.
3. Liberalism stoods for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law.
4. The members of Aristocracy class were united by a common way of life that across regional divisions.

Question 3.
Observe the given table and answer the following questions.

a) How many estates were there? What were their names?
(OR)
How many estates were there in French Society? (SA-II : 2016-17) (SA-II : 2017-18)
Answer:
There were three estates. First estate, second estate, and the third estate.

b) Who belonged to 3rd estate? (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
Business men, merchants, officials, artists, peasants and artisans, small peasants, landless labour, servants, etc. constitute the third estate.

c) What were the problems faced by third estate? (SA-II : 2016-17)
Problems of third estate.
1) There is no equality.
2) Scarcity of food.
3) More taxes were imposed by church and govt.
4) 90% of people are landless people.

d) Which were privileged group? (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
The Clergy and the Nobility were privileged group in the French society.

e) Which is the Superior group in French Society? (SA-II : 2017-18)
Answer:
Clergy is the superior group in the French society.

f) Who were the richest group in third Estate? (SA-II : 2017-18)
(OR)
Name the richer groups in third estate. (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:
Big business men, merchants, court officials, Lawyers, etc. were the richest groups in third estate.

g) Which Estate people did only pay the taxes in French Society? (SA-II : 2017-18)
(OR)
Which group paid taxes to the church? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
Third estate people only pay the taxes to the government.

h) Who were in first estate? (SA-I : 2018-19)
In first estate clergy are there.

i) Which country’s information is shown in the above chart? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Given information is related to France.

j) What does the above picture represent?
Answer:
The above picture represents the division of the society in France.

k) Who were the majority people?
Answer:
The third estate were the majority people.

Question 4.
The picture below shows the political system under the constitution of 1791 in France. Observe it carefully and answer the questions given.

a) Who had the power to elect the judiciary in the above system? (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:
Active citizens, who have the vote.

b) Who had the power over the King and the Ministers in the above system? (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:
National Assembly has more powers on king and ministers.

c) Who had the power to veto the laws made by the National Assembly? (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:
King has the power to veto the laws made by the National Assembly.

d) Which branch of government was responsible for the implementation of laws? (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:
Executive was responsible to the implementation of laws.

e) Who has veto power? (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
King has veto power.

f) Who is having vote to elect the judge? (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
Active citizens who have the Right to vote.

Question 5.
French revolution is regarded as one of the most important events in history not just in France but also across Europe and the world. Explain with reference to the ideas propagated by the French Revolution. (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
Ideas of French Revolution :
Liberty, Equality and Fraternity are the ideas of French Revolution.
1. The ideas of the French Revolution were drawn from the Enlightenment, influenced by the British political system, inspired by the American Revolution and shapped by local grievances.

2. The French Revolution supported the motto of Liberty, Equality, Fraternity because it eliminated the old social classes, overthrew the monarchy and brought the church under state control. People of all social classes were citizens and they all had equal rights.

Liberty :
Liberty meant freedom from all soils of torture and abuse.

Equality :
Provide Equality to the people in all spheres without discrimination.

Fraternity :
It creates brotherhood nature among the people.

Question 6.
“With the emergence of nation states in Europe, the dominance of aristocracy declined and that of the middle class increased.” Do you agree with the statement? Give reasons. (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement that the emergence of nation – states in Europe the dominance of Aristocracy declined, and middle class increased.

Reasons:

• The middle class people were educated, so they became lawyers, other administrative officials.
• The read the books which are written by John Lock, Rousseau and believed that no group in society should be privileged by birth.
• They understood a person’s social position must depend on his merit.
• Rousseau carried the idea forward, proposing a form of government based on a social contract between people and their representatives.

The above ideas provoke the middle class fight for equality and end of special privileges.

9th Class Social 13th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 17th and 18th Centuries Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Compare the results of the English and American Revolutions. Which one managed to build entirely new principles of government?
Answer:

• Glorious revolution of England made an agreement of powersharing with the king.
• American revolution set up democratic government.
• The British people sought more rights from king.
• Americans prepared own constitution and established democracy by abolishing the English supremacy.
• American revolution managed to build entirely new principles of government.

Question 2.
Can you think of why America was able to establish a democratic republic while England could not?
Answer:

• American people were against the taxation without representation.
• They do not want to be ruled by the British as colonies.
• They wanted to assert their independence and to be a democratic republic.
• Whereas the English, especially the influential middle class did not long for a demo-cratic republic.
• They were readily accepted a powersharing agreement between them and the king.
• Thus they could not set up a republic then.

Question 3.
In what ways did the American Constitution ensure maximum freedom for its people?
Answer:

• The Constitution of America guarantees maximum freedom to its people.
• It divided political power between centre and states such that it gave maximum autonomy for the states.
• A bill of rights was passed which guaranteed freedom of speech and religion.
• It guaranteed fundamental rights to all citizens.
• Thus we can say American Constitution ensures maximum freedom for its people.

Question 4.
Write about the Declaration of Independence in the American war of Independence.
Answer:

• The Declaration of Independence was adopted on 4th July 1776, during the Third Congress at Philadelphia.
• Thomas Jefferson was the author of the Declaration.
• It declared that all men are created equal and are endowed with certain rights like liberty, equality and pursuit of happiness.

Question 5.
Write about Bill of Rights of the American war of Independence.
Answer:

• A Bill of Rights was adopted guaranteeing the freedom of speech, religion and rule of law were enacted.
• This paved way for the establishment of the United States of America.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Reign of Terror?
(OR)
“The period from 1973 to 1974 in France is referred as the region of terror”. Give reason. (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:

• The period from 1793 to 1794, in France, is referred as the Reign of Terror.
• Robespierre followed a policy of severe control and punishment.
• A lot of restrictions on food items were imposed.
• Robespierre pursued his policies so relentlessly that even his supporters began to demand moderation.
• Finally, he was convicted by a court in July 1794, arrested and on the next day sent to the guillotine.

Question 7.
Read the following passage and answer the following question.

Answer:
The Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen :

• Men are born and remain free and equal in rights.
• The aim of every political association is the preservation of the natural and inalien¬able rights of man. These are liberty, property, security and resistance to oppression.
• The source of all sovereignty resides in the nation; no group or individual may exercise authority that does not come from the people.
• Liberty consists of the power to do whatever is not injurious to others.
• The law has the right to forbid only actions that are injurious to society.
• Law is the expression of the general will. All citizens have the right to participate in its formation, personally or through their representatives. All citizens are equal be¬fore it.
• No man may be accused, arrested or detained, except in cases determined by the law.
• Every citizen may speak, write and print freely; he must take responsibility for the abuse of such liberty in cases determined by the law.
• For the maintenance of the public force and for the ex¬penses of administration a common tax is indispensable; it must be assessed equally on all citizens in proportion to their means.
• Since property is a sacred and inviolable right, no one may be deprived of it, unless a legally established public necessity requires it. In that case a just compensation must be given in advance.
  (Note: The above list is not complete. It is only a selection often.)

Question 8.
Observe the following.

a) Name the bodies among which the powers are distributed.
Answer:
The Judiciary, the Executive and the Legislature are the three bodies among which the powers are distributed.

b) Who were entitled to vote?
Answer:
The Active Citizens were entitled to vote.

c) How many members were there in the National Assembly?
Answer:
There were 745 members in the National Assembly.

d) Did the king have absolute powers?
Answer:
No, he was under the control of the National Assembly.

e) Who were passive citizens?
A. The citizens with no voting rights were the passive citizens.

Question 9.
Study the following timeline and answer the given questions.

a) When was the draft Constitution written by the National Assembly?
Answer:
In 1789 June. National Assembly had written the draft Constitution.

b) Who was the master of ‘Reign of Terror’?
Answer:
The master of ‘Reign of Terror’ was Robespierre.

c) What was the significance of 1871?
Answer:
The significance of 1871 was that France became republic.

d) When was the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizens made?
Answer:
The Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizens was made in 1791.

e) Who declared himself the Emperor of French Republic?
Answer:
Napolean Bonaparte declared himself the Emperor of French Republic.

Question 10.
Do you feel that equality of status for women is necessary? Women’s fight for rights in France inspired the world. Do you agree with this?
Answer:

• Yes. Women need to have equal status with men.
• They need to educate themselves, participate in active politics.
• Yes, the political activities of French women during the revolutionary years were kept alive as an inspiring memory.

Question 11.
What would happen if all people were not equal before law – and some special privileges like the right to kill others?
Answer:

• If all people were not equal then society might be divided into classes.
• A few classes might have some privileges and the rest would have to suffer.
• People might not have fundamental rights.
• If a few people had the privilege of killing others it would result in loss of lives to those who do not have had that privilege.

Question 12.
Locate the following on the world outline map.
1) USA
2) UK
3) France
4) Turkey

Question 13.
Are revolutions essential for human development?
Answer:

• Revolutions are essential for the development of human society.
• Without revolutions or changes, the society and its structure remains static and may not take its course towards the growth and development.

Question 14.
Who are the philosophers that spread the ideas of democracy?
Answer:

• Locke in his book “Two Treatises of Government” sought to refute the doctrine of the divine and absolute right of the monachy.
• Rousseau advocated people’s sovereignty, equality and supremacy of majority.
• Montesquieu’s theory of separation of powers paved way for division of powers.
• Voltaire advocated the theory of restricted powers.

Question 15.
Compare the political rights which the Constitution of 1791 gave to the citizens with Articles from 1 to 6 of the Declaration. Are the two documents consistent? Do the two documents convey the same idea ?
Answer:

• The 1st Article of the Declaration says that ‘All men are free and equal in rights’.
• The 6th Article of the Declaration says that ‘All citizens have the right to participate in the formation of laws’.
• But the Constitution of 1791 contradicted with the Declaration of Rights in giving all the citizens equal political rights.
• According to the Constitution only men above 25 years of age and who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage were given the right to vote.
• Thus the Constitution violates the Declaration of Rights.
• Thus we can say two documents contradicted with each other. They do not convey the same idea.

Question 16.
How different would our lives have been if we were ruled by kings?
Answer:

1. It would be very different if we were ruled by kings.
2. They may have had made laws at their will.
3. Society might had been divided in high and low castes or estates.
4. Estates might have had their privileges and obligations.
5. We might have had been denied our fundamental rights.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 18 Impact of Colonialism in India.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India

9th Class Social 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What was the call given by Komaram Bheem to Adivasies? (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:
Adivasis were inspired by the message Jal, Jangal, Jameen of Komaram Bheem.

9th Class Social 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention any two reasons for deforestation during the British rule. (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:
The following reasons were responsible for deforestation during British rule.

1. Large cities like Kolkata and Mumbai were coming up.
2. The government was laying thousands of kms of railway lines across the country.
3. Huge ships were also being built and mines were being opened.
4. Wood is need for railway sleepers.

9th Class Social 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Once they began work on the machines there was no question of stopping. There was no fixed break even for meals. Taking out 15 – 20 minutes from their work, and asking a fellow labourers to look after their work, the labourers would eat their food. There was no separate place to eat either.
The whole day would pass in the heat, humidity, noise, dust and suffocation of the mill. Only when the sunset and it became impossible to see in the dark, the machines would stop and work would end.
Q. Comment on the working conditions of workers in factories in early industralisation. (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:

• The working conditions were terrible.
• People worked 14 to 16 hrs a day.
• Majority were unskilled workers, only receive very low wages.
• Factories were not the best places to work.
• Machines spit out smoke and in some factories, workers come out covered in black soot by the end of the day.
• Children were paid less.
• The workers were given only a break for lunch and dinner.
• Many children had physical deformities because of the lack of exercise and sunlight.

9th Class Social 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

a) When was the first factory act passed and what did it specify?
Answer:

• The first factory act was passed in 1881.
• It specified that children below 7 years cannot be employed in factories and the children cannot work more than 9 hours.

b) When were the interests of women ensured?
Answer:
In 1891, laws were made in the interest of women labourers.
The women labours working hours were limited to 11 hours.

c) Who were the largest number of labourers in industries?
Answer:
The men were the largest number of labourers in the industries.

d) How many factory acts were passed ? And when were they passed?
Answer:
Three acts were passed :

1. In 1881
2. In 1891 and
3. In 1911.

Question 2.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
’ During strikes labourers formed their own organisations with the help of some educated people. These were labour unions, formed to conduct the strikes and negotiate settlements with the mill owners. Slowly, the trade unions became active not just during the strikes but all around the year, promoting the workers’ welfare and rights. Such unions began to be established from the early 1920’s. People influenced by socialist thought were prominent among them. One such union formed was Girni Kamgar Union with the help of which workers in Mumbai went on a very effective strike in 1928. In Ahmedabad, under the influence of Gandhiji, a powerful union known as the Mazdoor Mahajan was formed.
a) Why were the labour unions formed?
Answer:
Labour unions were formed to conduct the strikes and negotiate settlements with the mill owners.

b) Who helped the labourers to form unions?
Answer:
Educated people helped them.

Question 3.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below.

a) What was the importance of 1919?
Answer:
All the mills of Mumbai were kept closed for 12 days due to the strike of workers.

b) When did the adivasis of the Maria and Muria revolt?
Answer:
The Maria and Muria adivasis revolted against the forest department in 1910.

c) When did the Santhais revolt?
Answer:
The Santhais revolted in 1856.

d) Who revolted in 1940?
Answer:
The Gond and Kolam revolted in 1940.

e) When did the 1st World War occur?
Answer:
Between 1914-18, the 1st World War occurred.

Question 4.
Find out where each of these adivasi struggles took place, and mark their locations on a map of India.
Answer:
Adivasi struggles took place in the following locations.

1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Chattisgarh
3. A.P
4. Odisha
5. Jarkhand
6. Uttarakhand

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 Agriculture in India.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 6th Lesson Agriculture in India

9th Class Social 6th Lesson Agriculture in India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand MSP. (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
Minimum Support Price

Question 2.
Draw sketch map of India and identify paddy cultivating state. (SA-II : 2016-17)
Asnwer:

Question 3.
Why is a MSP needed? (SA-II : 2017-18)
Answer:
The government sets the MSP so as to cover the cost of cultivation and allow a little bit of profit to the farmer.

Question 4.

Study the map and answer the following question. (SA-I : 2018-19)
What is major crop in the shaded areas of the map?
Answer:
Paddy.

Question 5.
Name any two cropping seasons in India? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
Kharif, Rabi, Zaid are the three cropping seasons.

9th Class Social 6th Lesson Agriculture in India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
At present we are using under ground water heavily and they reached an endangered stage, indicate measures to restore the ground water. (SA-III : 2015-16)
Answer:
The following steps are the measures to restore ground water.

• Vegetation like trees and grasses and bonds are used to enhance ground water.
• We follow watershed development projects.
• Rainwater harvesting should be practiced.
• Reduce the wastage of water.

Question 2.
Observe the Bar graphs and write your observations. (SA-II : 2016-17)

Answer:

• Above Bar graph tells us how many cultivators and how many agricultural labourers are there in India.
• Years are passing away gradually percentage of cultivators is decreasing and the persons, who are agricultural labourers are increasing

Question 3.
Show the below information on a bar graph and based on this, write your observation. (SA-III : 2016-17)

Answer:

The above graph explains production of food grains is gradually increased from 1980-81 to 2010-11. The main reason is we are following green revolution methods in our agricultural iands.

Question 4.
Today food materials constitute only about three percent of Indian Imports. Explain the role of Green Revolution that lies behind this achievement. (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:
The production of food grains has increased five times over last five decades from 51 to 242 million tonnes.

The green revolution helped farmers to produce higher level of foodgrains and non- foodgrains on the same plot of land they had. There was no major increase in the land used for cultivation.

In 1960s a farmer was able to produce on an average only 287 kilograms of foodgrains be it paddy or wheat on one acre of cultivable land. Today the same farmer is able to produce nearly 800 kilograms of foodgrains per acre of cultivable land.

Importance of Green Revolution :

1. Using of highyielding varieties of seeds.
2. Using of pesticides and insecticides.
3. Providing better water management resources.

Question 5.
Write the names of cropping seasons in India and write the tenure of season. (SA-II : 2017-18)
There are three cropping seasons.

9th Class Social 6th Lesson Agriculture in India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“The green revolution has resulted in a loss of soil fertility and ever increasing costs to farmers”. Do you agree with this statement? Explain. (SA-I : 2018-19)
(OR)
“The green revolution has actually resulted in a loss of soil fertility and ever increasing cost to the farmers’ (SA-II : 2018-19)
Do you agree with the above statement? Provides reasons to support your answer.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the above statement by following reasons.

1. In Green Revolution, the farmers are encouraged to pump ground water to water intensive crops in low rainfall areas.
2. This unsustainable pumping has reduced water storage in ground.
3. Consequently, many wells and tube wells have run dry.
4. More over the use of chemical fertilizers has also affected the long term fertility of the soil. Due to this cost of production is increasing to farmers.
5. Hence we can say that Green Revolution has short-term gains and long term losses.
6. Production of food grains (in million tonnes)

Question 2.

Observe the above graph and answer the following questions.
1. What does the graph given above denotes? (SA-III : 2015-16)
Answer:
The above graph explains the production of foodgrains from 1950-51 to 2010-11 years.

2. When compared to 1970-71, how many million tonnes of food grains are produced more in 2010-11? (SA-III : 2015-16)
Answer:
Compare with 1970-71 to 2010-11 the food grain production is increased from 108 million tonnes to 242 million tonnes, it means ⇔ 134 million tonnes production is more.

3. In which decade was the production of food grains more? (SA-III : 2015-16)
Answer:
From 1981 to 1990 in the middle of the years means, in this decade the production of food grains is more.

4. What are the reasons for the increase in production of food grains? (SA-III : 2015-16)
Answer:
The main reason is use of Green Revolution methods.

5. What is the overall trend of food grain production depicted in the graph? (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
Food grain production is increasing.

6. What could be the possible reason for this trend? (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
Because of Green Revolution.

Question 3.
“Conserving rainfall that the area receives is the first step. There are several ways that people can stop rainwater from quickly running off so that it can soak into the ground, and recharge the groundwater”.
Q : Comment on watershed development programms being implemented in dry land area. (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
Unlike the cultivation of HYVs in irrigated lands, dryland farming possess different challenges.

1. Conserving rainfall that the area receives is the first step.
2. There are several ways that people can stop rain water from quickly running off, so that it can soak into the ground, and recharge the ground water.

This is done through Watershed Development Programmes which include afforestation, bunding, building check dams and tanks.

Not send any chemical waste into underground.

Try to reduce the wastage of daily use water.

Create awareness among the all people about the importance of underground water and its recharge.

Question 4.
Food security of a nation depends on agricultural sector. Explain about agricultural sector in India. (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:
The food security of a nation depends on agriculture and this sector ensures food security to the nation.

Importance of agriculture :

• A variety of raw materials required for industries are cultivated on farms.
• Agriculture is a major source of livelihood for millions – giving employment to a large section of people.
• More than half the proportion of workers in India is working in agriculture and its related activities.
• 70% of working women are engaged in agriculture.
• Due to green revolution, India became self sufficient in food grains.
• Due to rise in food grains production, it was no longer necessary to import food grains from other countries.

Question 5.
Study the graph and answer the questions given below. (SA-II : 2018-19)

1. What is the difference between agriculture labourers and cultivators?
2. In 1971, what was the percentage of cultivators?
3. Suggest other alternative job opportunities for landless agriculture labourers,
4. In which year the highest percentage of cultivators was recorded?
Answer:
1. Cultivator means:
Cultivators are those who have, some land and also use land belongs to other for cultivation.

Agricultural labourers :
Agriculture labourers are those who are landless labourers who work on other lands.

2. 62%

3. Other alternative works.

1. rearing of animals
2. selling of vegetables
3. work in brick kiln.

4. 1961

Question 6.
What suggestions do you recommend to solve the problems associated with current Indian agriculture sector? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
Suggestions :
1. Better irrigation facilities :
Indian agriculture is mainly dependent on monsoon. So permanent means of irrigation should be developed.
Ex: Tube wells & Canals.

2. Supply of Quality seeds :

1. Quality seeds should be sold through co-operative societies or village panchayats.
2. Marginal farmers should be given seeds on loan.

3. Green Manure :
Farmers should be educated for firing green manure. Oil cakes may be used as fertilizers.

4. Credit Facilitied :

1. Farmers should be advanced loans at reasonable rates of interest.
2. Regional Rural Banks should be opened.

5. Agricultural Marketing:
Agricultural marketing should be improved so that the farmer gets proper price for their produce ware housing facilities should be improved. Means of transport should be strengthened.

6. Time to time weather reports telecast by govt through media.

Question 7.
Observe the table and answer the questions given below. (SA-I : 2018-19)
Number of farmers and land they possess in India (2010 – 2011)

1. Who are considered as large farmers as per the above table?
2. Which type of farmers are high in number?
3. How many total acres of land do the farmers cultivate in India?
4. How much of land on an average does each marginal farmer cultivate?
Answer:

1. The farmers who have more than 25 acres of land and they cultivated that land are called as large farmers.
2. Number of marginal farmers are more.
3. 3932 lakhs acres of land cultivated by Indian farmers.
4. 0.95 acres of land is cultivated by marginal farmers.

Question 8.
Write some methods through which the problem of falling ground water levels can be salved. (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
The problem of falling ground water levels can be solved through these methods.

1. Construction of check dams.
2. By Maintaining small percolation tanks in fields.
3. Soaking pits.
4. By providing bunds and catch drains.
5. Plantation of trees in open fields.
6. Encouragement to grow forests.
7. Should ban felling trees.
8. Recycle and reuse of ground water.

9th Class Social 6th Lesson Agriculture in India Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name one staple crop of India and the regions where it is produced.
Answer:
Rice:

1. Rice is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India.
2. India is the second largest producer of rice in the world.
3. Rice is grown in the plains of north and north-eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions.
4. Canal irrigation and tubewells have made it possible to grow rice in areas of less rainfall such as Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan.

Question 2.
How many cropping seasons are there? What are they?
Answer:
India has three cropping seasons. They are –

1. Rabi
2. Kharif
3. Zaid

Question 3.
Name some important crops of India, states which produce them and reasons both and natural and other factors contributed to their growth.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is the fertility of the soil?
Answer:

• The soil is said to be fertile if it has the right amounts of mineral particles as well as organic components.
• Then only the soil can provide the roots of plants with right amounts of water, minerals and air.

Question 5.
How is organic farming different from traditional farming?
Answer:

• We use organic material in organic farming whereas we use natural manure in traditional farming.
• We use HYV seeds and key elements of new agricultural technologies in organic farming.
• Organic farming gives high productivity in short duration whereas in traditional farming we experience less productivity and long duration of crop.

Question 6.
Why is agriculture important to Indian economy?
Answer:

• The food security of a nation depends on agriculture.
• A variety of raw materials required for industries are cultivated on farms.
• Agriculture is a major source of livelihood for millions of people in our country.
• More than half the proportion of workers in India is working in agriculture and its related activities.
• Nearly 70% of the working women are engaged in agriculture.

Hence agriculture is important to Indian economy.

Question 7.
How many kinds of people are engaged in agriculture? Name them.
Answer:
Two kinds of people are engaged in farming. They are :

1. Agricultural labourers
2. Cultivators.

Question 8.
Distinguish between cultivators and agricultural labourers.
Answer:

Question 9.
How many varieties of crops are grown in India? What are they?
Answer:
A variety of crops are cultivated by farmers in India. They are broadly categorised into two :

1. Food crops
2. Non-food crops.

Question 10.
Give examples of food grains and non-food grains.
Answer:

• Food grains include cereals such as rice, wheat, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi, barley, and small millets and pulses-gram, red gram, and other pulses.
• Non-food grains include oilseeds such as groundnut, sesame, rapeseed and mustard, linseed, castor seed, and sunflower, etc.

Question 11.
What is Green Revolution? What are the effects of Green Revolution?
Answer:

• The policy introduced by Government with regard to the agricultural sector is known as Green Revolutin.
• It refers to the specific plant improvement notably to the development of high yielding varieties for the increase of crop production.

Effects of Green Revolution:

1. The spread of HYVs to large parts of the country has led to a significant increase in crop production in the country.
2. So, it was no longer necessary to import food grains from other countries.
3. The procurement of food grains by FCI could be used in case of shortage and can avoid drought or famine like situations and also used to supply food grains to inaccessible areas.
4. In 1960, a farmer was able to produce on an average of 287 kgs of foodgrains, today the same farmer is able to produce nearly 800 kgs of food grains per acre.
5. The Green Revolution has brought in several environmental imbalances.

Question 12.
Name some of the states of India where “slash and burning” farming is practised.
Answer:
Punjab, Haryana, Odisha, Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and some parts of Rajasthan.

Question 13.
What is the fertility of the soil?
Answer:

1. The soil is said to be fertile if it has the right amounts of mineral particles as well as organic components.
2. Then only the soil can provide the roots of plants with right amounts of water, minerals, and air.

Question 14.
How many kinds of people are engaged in agriculture? Name them.
Answer:
Two kinds of people are engaged in farming. They are :

1. Agricultural labourers
2. Cultivators.

Question 15.
What is Green Revolution?
Answer:
The policy introduced by Government with regard to the agricultural sector is known as Green Revolution.

Question 16.
Compare and contrast simple subsistence farming and intensive subsistence farming.
Answer:

Question 17.
What do you know about Zaid cropping season?
Answer:

• In between the Rabi and Kharif seasons there is a short season.
• It includes summer months and is known as Zaid season.
• Crops grown during this season are like watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops.

Question 18.
Read the following and answer the questions given below.

1. What problem do farmers face during harvest season?
Answer:
The farmers face the problem of the low price of grain during harvest season.

2. How can the farmers be protected from the low prices of grains?
Answer:
The government protects the farmers by setting a Minimum Support Price (MSP).

3. What is Minimum Support Price?
Answer:
The MSP is a price at which the farmers can sell their grain, if they want, to the government.

4. How does the MSP protect the farmer?
Answer:
The government sets the MSP so as to cover the cost of cultivation and allow a little bit of profit to the farmer.

5. What is the organization that purchases food grains from the farmers?
Answer:
The Food Corporation India purchases food grains from the farmers.

Question 19.
Observe the following information and answer the questions given below.

1. How many cropping seasons are there?
Answer:
There are three cropping seasons.

2. Name different cropping seasons.
Answer:
Kharif, Rabi and Zaid are different cropping seasons.

3. When do we have Rabi season?
Answer:
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer.

4. Name the crops that are grown in Kharif season.
Answer:
Paddy, maize, jower, bajra, red gram, cotton, jute, groundnut etc., are grown in Kharif season.

5. Name the crops that are grown in Zaid season.
Answer:
Watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables are grown in Zaid season.

Question 20.
Complete the data in the table:
Number of farmers and land they possess in India (2010-2011)

A) Percentage of different category of farmers :
1. How much percentage of Marginal farmers are there.
Answer:
67 %

2. How much percentage of small farmers are there?
Answwr:
18 %

3. How much percentage of large farmers are there?
Answer:
0.7 %

B) How much land they operate with?
1) Marginal farmers hold _________ of land.
2) Small farmers hold _________ of land.
3) Semi-medium farmers hold _________ of land.
4) Medium farmers hold _________ of land.
5) Large farmers hold _________ of land.
Answer:

1. 22%
2. 22%
3. 24%
4. 21%
5. 11%

C) Average amount of land operated by farmers :
1) Average amount of land possessed by marginal farmers is _________ acres.
2) Small farmers hold _________ acres of land.
3) Average amount of land possessed by large farmers is _________ acres.
4) Average land holding in India is _________ acres.
Answer:

1. 0.94
2. 3.51
3. 42.9
4. 13.65

Question 21.
What are the long run uses of chemical fertilizers and pesticides?
Answer:

• The chemical fertilizers are basically made from petro chemicals and therefore derived from petroleum.
• These fertilizers remain in the soil and also mix with water.
• This results in the contamination of soil and water.
• As a result many micro organisms like earthworms are destroyed. This in turn affects the long term fertility of the soil.

Question 22.
In which areas were the new methods of agriculture first tried?
Answer:
The new methods were initially implemented in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, and in some districts of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamilnadu.

Question 23.
How were farmers able to raise higher amount of food grains on the same plot of land over the years?
Answer:
The use of High Yielding Varieties of seeds, chemical fertilizers, machinery, etc. made the farmers to raise higher amount of food grains on the same plot of land over the years.

Question 24.
Why did the Indian government not allow farmers to export foodgrains during the Green Revolution?
Answer:
There would be a shortage of food grains if the government allows farmers to export food grains. So the government did not allow farmers to export food grains.

Question 25.
How did the partition of the country in 1947 affect the jute industry?
Answer:
We have lost the major jute growing areas during partition. Hence the jute industry was badly affected.

Question 26.
In your opinion what would be the minimum amount of land required to do viable farming?
Answer:
The minimum amount of land required to do viable farming maybe 2 acres for viable farming.

Question 27.
Why do only a small section of farmers have a powerful voice?
Answer:
Percentage of large and medium farmers is 5% but they hold 32% of total cultivable land. Their average landholding is also high. Hence they have a powerful voice.

Question 28.
Assess the role of monsoons in Indian agriculture nowadays?
Answer:

• Indian agriculture has always been dependent on monsoons.
• Arrival and impact of monsoon decides the fate of agriculture.
• It is both uncertain and irregular.
• The large scale irrigation serves only one third of crop area.
• The remaining has to suffer the vagaries of the monsoon.
• Thus one can term Indian agriculture as ‘a gamble with monsoons.’

Question 29.
How can you say that now India is practising subsistence farming?
Answer:

• India is a densely populated country.
• Farmers here are force to use small land holdings.
• Most farmers produce enough for their own consumption.
• They try to obtain maximum yield from available lands.
• They are artificial irrigation and manure etc.
• This type of farming is known as intensive subsistence farming.
• Thus we can say India is practising subsistence farming.

Question 30.
Do you feel that the farmers who cultivate are happy? If not, what are the reasons? What are the factors that affect agriculture?
Answer:
I feel that the farmers who cultivate are not happy.
Reasons:

1. They are not able to earn according to their labour.
2. They lost their confidence.
3. Nature is also not co-operating with them.

Factors that affect agriculture :

1. Low fertile soils
2. Improper usage of pesticides
3. Small land holdings
4. Unpredictable monsoons
5. Outdated agricultural methods
6. Improper market facilities, etc.

Question 31.
Locate the following on India Map.
Paddy, wheat and maize growing areas.

Answer:
Paddy – West Bengal, Odisha, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and coastal areas.
Wheat – Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh
Maize – Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Bihar.

Question 32.
Locate the following on India map.
Pulses, sugarcane, cotton growing areas.

Answer:
Pulses – Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
Cotton – Gujarat, Maharashtra.
Sugarcane – Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu.

Question 32.
Locate the following rivers on the outline map of India.
1) Narmada
2) Tapati
3) Godavari
4) Krishna
5) Cauvery
6) Mahanadi
7) Indus
8) Ganga
Answer:

Question 33.
State your opinion on the new agricultural technologies such as Green Revolution.
Answer:

• Yes, we agree that government has taken initiative in increasing the production of different crops.
• But introduction of HYVs has created some economical imbalances.
• They need plenty of water which may reduce the water levels and at one stage we would face scarcity of water.

Question 34.
State your opinion on free power supply to farmers and the problems that are faced by marginal farmers due to free power supply.
Answer:

• Free power supply to a section of farmers has encouraged them to pump groundwater.
• Consequently, many wells and tubewells have run dry.
• This has pushed the marginal and small farmers out of cultivation.

Question 35.
How did the partition of the country in 1947 affect the Jute industry?
Answer:
We have lost the major jute growing areas during partition. Hence the jute industry was badly affected.

Question 36.
What measures would you suggest to protect agriculture from intense commercial farming?
Answer:

• To protect agriculture from intense commercial farming, we should shun the use of High Yielding Varieties of Seeds.
• Then we can limit the usage of water.
• Then we can limit the usage of chemical fertilisers and pesticides.
• We can save the produce for seeds.
• We can adopt organic farming, which requires very low input costs.
• Organic farm produce also serves health better.

Question 37.
What measures would you suggest for the cultivation of cotton crop?
Answer:

• Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan Plateau.
• It requires high temperature, light rainfall or irrigation.
• It needs 210 frost free days and bright sunshine for its growth.
• It requires 6 to 8 months to mature.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 17 Colonialism in Latin America, Asia and Africa.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 17th Lesson Colonialism in Latin America, Asia and Africa

9th Class Social 17th Lesson Colonialism in Latin America, Asia and Africa 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why had Europeans called Africa a ‘Dark Continent’? (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:
The Europeans did not know much about Africa until the 19th century.

9th Class Social 17th Lesson Colonialism in Latin America, Asia and Africa Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is the word ‘discovery’ and ‘exploration’ used by Europeans? What did it mean to people who were already living in those geographical locations?
Answer:
Discovery:

• The word “discovery” means “finding something that we did not know about it before”.
• But in European concept “discovery” is to find faster and easier routes to countries like India, China, etc. without passing through regions controlled by Italian traders.

Exploration :

• The step next to discovery is exploration.
• Exploration in European context means “Sending expedition to countries and finding out what resources were available.”
• Europeans explored the backward African and Asian countries for natural resources like, gold, silver, silk, porcelain, etc.

Views of native people :

• But the Europeans did not explore these countries but exploited them.
• Virtually the Europeans enslaved them, plundered them, forced them to trade with them, etc.
• In South America the natives were deprived of their land and were massacred and driven to interiors.

Question 2.
What is “Munroe Doctrine”?
Answer:

• The President of USA James Munroe formulated the “Munroe Doctrine”.
• According to this no European power would be allowed to build colonies in the American continents and US would not interfere in the affairs of Europe or colonies in other continents.

Question 3.
Locate Mexico, Spain, Netherlands, USA, Indonesia, China, Italy, Turkey, India, West-Indies on the world map.
Answer:

Question 4.
Locate South Africa, Egypt, Nigeria, Ghana, Libya, Algeria, Angola, Congo on the political map of Africa.

Question 5.
What were the affects of colonizations?
Answer:

• Imperialist countries commercialised the cultivation.
• Due to that colonial countries were impoverished.
• No development took place in these countries.
• These countries could not develop industrially.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 16 Social Protest Movements.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 16th Lesson Industrialisation and Social Change

9th Class Social 16th Lesson Social Protest Movements 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who were Luddists? Mention any one demand of the Luddists. (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
Workers who destroyed machinery, especially in cotton and woollen mills, that they believed was threatening their jobs.
Demand of Luddists :

1. They demanded Minimum wage.
2. Control over the labour of women and children.
3. Work for those who had lost their jobs because of introduction of machinery.

9th Class Social 16th Lesson Social Protest Movements 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two principles of Socialism? (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
Principles of Socialism :

1. True socialists advocate a completely class less society, where the government controls all means of production and distribution of goods.
2. It believes the absence of private property.
3. Therefore, everyone receives equal earnings, medical care and other necessities.

Question 2.
Why the idea of socialism was appreciable? Write your views. (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
Socialists generally aim to achieve greater equality in decision making and economic affairs, grant workers have greater control of the means of production and their work place, and to eliminate exploitation by directing the surplus value to employees.

9th Class Social 16th Lesson Social Protest Movements Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about early workers movements in England.
Answer:

• In England, political protest against the cruel working conditions infactories were increasing.
• Workers flooded towns and factories, they expressed their anger and frustration in numerous forms of protest.
• There were bread or food riots throughout the country from the 1790s onwards.
• The working population demanded for right to vote.
• The weavers demanded a legal minimum wage, which was refused by the Parliament.
• In Yorkshire, shearing-frames were destroyed by croppers.
• In the riots of 1830, the threshing machines were smashed.

Question 2.
What is Luddism?
Answer:

• Luddism is a social protest movement led by “General Ned Ludd”.
• Luddism was not merely a backward looking assault on machines.
• Its participants demanded a minimum wage, control over the labour of women and children, work for those who had lost their jobs because of the coming of machinery etc.

Question 3.
Name of few thinkers of socialist ideas as they expressed their views.
Answer:

• Some elements of socialist ideas can be seen in many thinkers down the ages like Plato and Thomas Moore.
• Another early socialist thinker was Saint Simon of France who advocated for public control of property through central planning.
• In England, Owen took an initative for building cooperative villages.
• Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels promoted present view of Socialism.
• Swami Vivekananda was deeply influenced by the ideas of Socialism.
• Many leaders like M N Roy, Bhagat Singh, Jawaharlal Nehru, etc. were enthusiastic socialists.

Question 4.
Why do you think social protest movements gained momentum?
Answer:

• Industrialisation gave birth to influencial industrial capitalists.
• Now, power and influence was in the hands of industrial capitalists and large landowners.
• The working class movements were becoming more organised.
• Workers realised their power when they were united.
• They understood that if they came together, they could bring stands till the economy.
• They were inspired by the ideas of French Revolution and Socialism.
• Similarly women demanded equal status and role in society, economy, polity and culture.

Question 5.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
What is Socialism? It is a doctrine that calls for public rather than private ownership or control of property and natural resources. According to the socialist view, individuals do not live or work in isolation but live in cooperation with one another. Further, everything that people produce is in some sense a social product, and everyone who contributes to the production of a good is entitled to a share in it. Society as a whole, therefore, should own or at least control property for the benefit of all its members.

In this way, socialism contradicts the basic idea of capitalism which is based on private ownership of the means of production and free play of market in determining what is to be produced and who is to be given a share of the produce. Socialists complain that capitalism necessarily leads to unfair and exploitative concentrations of wealth and power in the hands of the relative few. The rich then use their wealth and power to’ reinforce their dominance in society.

Because such people are rich, they may choose where and how to live, and their choices, in turn, limit the options of the poor. As a result, terms such as individual freedom and equality of opportunity may be meaningful for capitalists. But for the working people, who must do the capitalists’ bidding if they are to survive, they can only hollow. As socialists see it, true freedom and true equality require social control of the resources that provide the basis for prosperity in any society.

Socialists also believe that given such unequal distribution of resources, there cannot really be genuine free competition as the rich and powerful manage to tilt the balance in their favour by hook or crook.
1) What is socialism?
Answer:
Socialism calls for public ownership rather than private control of property and natural resources.

2) What is the basic idea of capitalism?
Answer:
Capitalism is the private ownership of the means of production.

3) what is the complaint of socialists about capitalism?
Answer:
Socialists complain that capitalism distributes wealth and power in an unfair and exploitative manner. It gives all the money and power to a few individuals.

4) In the view of socialists, what is the basis for prosperity in any society?
Answer:
According to socialists, the true freedom and the true equality means that society should control of the resources that provide the basis for prosperity in any society.

5) What are the disadvantages of capitalism?
Answer:

• Unequal distribution of resources.
• Concentration of wealth in few hands

Question 6.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
The movement for extending the right to vote to all sections of the population gained momentum in 1830 to 1870. In countries like England, women too came out in large numbers demanding right to vote. They were called ‘women’s suffragists’. They held demonstrations, meetings and wrote in newspapers, etc. and made appeals to the Parliament. Russian Revolution was the first to grant such rights to all women in 1917. The right to vote was extended to some women in England in 1918 and to all adult women by 1928. Gradually this was accepted by most democratic countries.
1) Who were “women’s suffragists”?
Answer:
Women who fought for their right to vote were called “women’s suffragists”.

2) How did they fight for the right to vote?
Answer:
They held demonstrations, meetings, wrote in newspapers etc. and made appeals to the Parliament.

3) Who was the first to grant right to vote?
Answer:
Russian revolution was the first to grant right to vote to all women in 1917.

4) When did England grant the right to vote to women?
Answer:
The right to vote was extended to some women in England in 1918 and to all adult women by 1928.

5) Do you feel that women should be granted with right to vote? If yes, why?
Answer:

• Women are born free and are entitled to all rights that are given to men.
• Therefore women should be given right to vote on par with men.

Question 7.
Gather some information regarding women protection movement and some information about women protection act.
Answer:

• There were social reform movements in India, which wanted to uplift the status of women.
• They fought against social evils like sati, killing of girl child at birth, enforced widowhood among women.
• Social reformers like GurajadaApparao and Raja Rammohan Roy fought for women’s rights.

The following are some acts that protect women.

• Prohibition of Dowry Act -1961
• The protection of women from “Domestic Violence” Act.
• Prohibition of Child Marriage Act – 2006.
• “Nirbhay” Act is passed to protect women from “Sexual assaults”.

Question 8.
Locate the following on the outline map of Europe.

1. London
2. Norway
3. North sea
4. Baltic Sea
5. Yorkshire
6. Manchester

Question 9.
Critically describe women social protest movements.
Answer:

• At the time of French revolution, they drafted ‘Declaration of the Rights of women’ which was never passed in Frency Assembly.
• They organised women’s suffragist movement which brought voting right to women in Russia in 1917, in England in 1918 (for some) and in 1928 (for all adult women).
• First – wave of feminism focused on absolute rights such as suffrage and Second-wave of feminism focused on other aspects of equality like education, health etc.
• Even though legal equality was achieved, real equality yet to be achieved.