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SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 3rd Lesson Earth Movements and Seasons Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 3rd Lesson Earth Movements and Seasons

8th Class Social Studies 3rd Lesson Earth Movements and Seasons Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Do you think there is any correlation between the crops grown in your region and the seasons? Find out by discussing with your eiders and friends and write a short essay on it.
Answer:
Ours is a small village Anther vedipalem in East Godavari district. In our area, we have 3 crop seasons – Kharif, Rabi and Zaid. The farmers cultivate paddy and maize in Kharif season. This season is upto October and November. Rabi is cultivated as winter crop. In Rabi also some cultivate paddy and some cereals. Duration of this season is upto March and April. After that some fruits and vegetables are grown in the Zaid season. In addition to these we have coconut plantations which give fruits throughout the year. Due to these reasons there is correlation between crops and seasons.

Question 2.
Why do you think Andhra Pradesh does not receive any snowfall during winter months?
Answer:
Snow forms in the clouds that are below freezing. Andhra Pradesh is in tropical belt. To get snow the temperatures in Andhra Pradesh are not enough cold. So Andhra Pradesh does not receive any snowfall during winter season.

Question 3.
We have a rainy season. How do you think it is related to the movement of the Earth and the pattern of Sun’s rays? Does it occur in the summer or winter or in the season in between?
Answer:
The seasons occur due to the revolution and the pattern of Sun’s rays. During summer the Sun’s rays fall straightly on our area. Then the air in the atmosphere gets heated and moves up by forming low pressure belt. The winds from high pressure belt from the Indian ocean blow to this area and give rains. We receive rains after summer and in the beginning of winter due to these seasonal winds-monsoons.

Question 4.
Collect information about time of Sunrise and Sunset for different months of the year in your place (you can look up the local newspaper for this). Calculate the duration of day and night- how many hours every day – for every month. Do you see any pattern in this?
Answer:
I have opted Kanyakumari in Tamilnadu for this project. It is famous for its sunrise and sunset.

After thorough observation I came to the following conclusion.
* The duration of night time is more in the months from August to January. The duration of day time is more in the months from February to July.

Question 5.
Explain the idea of rotation of the Earth to your parents or sisters or brothers. Write down their questions or doubts and try to answer them.
Answer:
I explained the earth’s rotation to my brother and sister. I write down their doubts here under.

1. Why does the earth rotate?
2. What is the speed of the earth’s rotation?
3. How can we prove the earth’s rotation?
4. Why is the axis of earth tilled?
5. What happens if earth stops its rotation?

Question 6.
Imagine that the Earth does not rotate but goes around the Sun around the year. What difference will it make to the seasons and distribution of temperature?
Answer:
The one portion of the earth which is infront of the sun would constantly get Sun’s heat and light and the other portion would remain cold and dark. This would make both portions unfit for life-the bright half would be too hot and the dark half would be too cold. This would happen if the earth did not rotate on its own axis.

Question 7.
Identify a country in the Temperate Belt in both Northern and Southern Hemisphere. Compare the seasons in those countries and your place. Which will be warmer in May- June and which will be cooler in December – January or in March or September Identify a country in the Temperate Belt in both Northern and Southern Hemisphere.
(OR)
Compare the seasons in those countries and your place.
Answer:
I have opted Russia in Northern hemisphere, Falkland Islands for this.
Moscow in Russia – It is located near 55.7558° N. latitude. The average temperatures are as follows.

Falkland Islands: It is extended from 51 °S latitude to 52°S. Latitude.

The seasons are quite opposite in both hemispheres.
Ours is Vijayawada in Andhra Pradesh. This is located at 16°5200 N. latitudes. Here April and May are famous for high temperatures. Winter season will be in December and January. When compared to Russia and Falkland Islands, the summer temperatures and winter temperatures are both higher than their summer temperatures. But the seasons in these three areas are more or less equal.

Question 8.
What are the six seasons of Indian climate?
Answer:
The six seasons are:

1. Vasantham – Mid March – Mid May
2. Greeshrnam – Mid May to Mid July
3. Varsha – Mid July to Mid September
4. Sarath – Mid September – Mid November
5. Hemantham – Mid November – Mid. January
6. Sisiram – Mid January – Mid March

Question 9.
Read the first paragraph of this chapter and answer the following question

Human beings live along with a large community of plants and animals. We can observe constant change in the course of the year – the flowering and fruiting of trees and plants changes in the animal activity in our surroundings. As months pass by you would have noticed that trees shed leaves, stand bare, new shoots come forth, they flower and fruit. You may have also noticed that in different times of the year you get different kinds of vegetables and fruits. In some months it is very hot and in some it is cold or wet.

“What is the impact of seasons on the lives of human beings ?”
Answer:
Human beings live along with a large community of plants and animals. We can find a constant change in the course of the year – the flowering and fruiting of trees and plants changes the animal activity in our surroundings. As months pass by, trees shed leaves, stand bare, new shoots come forth, leaves grew again they flower and give fruits. In different times of the year we get different kinds of fruits and vegetables. In some months, it is very hot and in some months, it is cold or wet.

8th Class Social Studies 3rd Lesson Earth Movements and Seasons InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can you relate what are the major seasons you have seen? (Textbook Page No. 33)
Answer:
The major seasons I have seen are Summer season, Rainy season and Winter season.

Question 2.
Can you describe What happen in each -how hot it gets, how much it rains, what happens to the plants and trees and animals, what food you get to eat etc.? (Textbook Page No. 33)
Answer:
Summer season: The atmospheric temperature is too hot i.e., upto 45°C. At the end of this season sometimes it rains. Plants, trees, human beings, animals long for water, food and cool air. This season is famous for watermelons, mangoes and palm fruits etc.

Rainy season: Heavy rains occur during this season. But temperature varies between 30°C to 35°C. We can see greenery everywhere. Cattle are well with their abundant feed. They give us plenty of milk. Many types of vegetables and mushrooms are available.

Winter season: Cold is heavy in this season. Temperature varies from 25°C to 30°C. Even then nights are too cold. Animals also long for warmth. During this season cauliflower, tomato and grapes etc., are available in plenty.

Question 3.
Do you think the trees observed ¡n the pictures are same or different? (Textbook Page No. 33)

Answer:
They are same.

Question 4.
What are the changes you can see in the trees?
Answer:

1. In the first picture it is covered by snow.
2. In the second picture the same tree has fully grown leaves.
3. In the third picture the same tree is sprouting leaves.
4. In the last picture ripe red leaves are falling from the same tree.

Question 5.
Imagine that the Earth goes around the Sun but its axis is not tilted. How will it affect the change in seasons in Andhra Pradesh? (Textbook Page No. 37)
Answer:
This happens if the Earth’s axis is not fitted. Andhra Pradesh is in tropical belt. So the Sun rays fall straight on this area. If the axis is not fitted, there will be continuous temperatures and summer throughout the year on this area. Rainy and winter seasons may not be possible. Most probably the three seasons may come on every day.

Question 6.
How will it affect the change in seasons in the northern region whose photograph you saw in the beginning of the chapter? (Textbook Page No. 37)
Answer:
The photographs are different in different seasons. If the earth’s axis is not tilted, the northern most area on the earth may get freezed. We cannot find any vegetation there.

Question 7.
Find out if there is anyone in the class who has lived in distant places where the seasons are different. Get them to describe what happens there. (Textbook Page No. 33)
Answer:
In my class one student named ‘Atchyut’ came from ‘Dehradun’. He is staying with his grand-parents. His parents are in ‘Dehradun’. He told that the seasons there are entirely different from us. They have heavy winters. Let us listen to his words.
“My name is Atchyut. I came here from ‘Dehradun’ which is at the feet of the ‘Himalayas’. We feel sweat during summer, even though we have less temperatures. Rains are too heavy during the rainy season. Coming to winter season – wow! it is too cold. Hot water should be used for every task in daily life. Warm water is used for drinking. We feel sunlight only after 8 a.m. We must use inners, sweaters, mufflers, caps, socks, and gloves. But our area is very beautiful”.

Question 8.
Find out which country is called the ‘land of midnight Sun’ and locate it on the globe. Find out its latitude and compare it with the latitude of Andhra Pradesh. (Textbook Page No. 34)
Answer:
Norway is called “Land of Midnight Sun. Its latitude is 60.47°N. Some other countries like,

1. Sweden -59.26°N.
2. Iceland – 64.83°N.
3. Lapland -67°N.
4. Denmark – 55.72°N.
5. Finland -62°43″N
6. Alaska -61°18″N
7. Russia – 54°82″N
8. Yukon – 63.63°N
9. Canada – 56°75″ N etc.

comes under this session also. Whereas Latitude as Andhra Pradesh is 80°E;

Question 9.
Look at the globe and find out the names of countries which are located to the south of equator. (Textbook Page No. 34)
Answer:
Asia: Indonesia, partly Maldives partly Sumatra.
Africa: Angola, Botswana, Burundi, South Africa, Tanzania.
Europe: No
North America: No
South America: Argentina, Chile, Bolivia
Australia: Australia, New Guinea

Question 10.
Did you find any continent which is located entirely to the North of the Equator ? (Textbook Page No. 34)
Answer:
Yes. They are Europe and North America.

Question 11.
Did you find any continent which is located entirely to the South of the Equator ? (Textbook Page No. 34)
Answer:
Yes. It is Australia.

Question 12.
Did you find any continent which is spread on both ideas of the North and South of the Equator ? (Textbook Page No. 34)
Answer:
Yes. It is Asia.

Question 13.
Can all the students of the class write down three questions regarding this magic of seasons? we will try to find answers for them. (Textbook Page No. 34)
a) What are the reasons behind the formation of seasons?
Answer:
Earth’s revolution and inclination of the axis are the reasons behind it.

b) In which season the earth tipped towards the sun? (A region)
Answer:
In summer season.

c) What happens if there are no seasons?
Answer:
No seasons, no life on the earth.
Identification of these countries on the globe: Self exercise

Question 14.
Find out if Andhra Pradesh is in the Tropical Belt or in the Temperate Belt. (Textbook Page No. 38)
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is extended between 12°N to 19°N latitude (approximately). It is in Tropical Belt.

Question 15.
Will the Sun shine directly on our heads in Andhra pradesh during any month? If yes, in which month? (Textbook Page No. 38)
Answer:
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on Andhra Pradesh in the month of May.

Question 16.
Find out in which belt is Delhi and if it will get snowfall in winters. (Textbook Page No. 38)
Answer:
Delhi is located between 28°22″ N. latitude and 28°54″ N. latitude. It is in Temperate Belt. It records low temperatures but there is no snowfall.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State

8th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What aspects of the Nizam rule would you consider to be ‘undemocratic’?
Answer:
Undemocratic-aspects:
The term ‘undemocratic’ refers to the rule that is not related to the democratic aspect of government, in other words, the decisions that has taken by only one person or a small group rather than taking into consideration the population who will be following those rules. The various aspects of the Nizam’s rule which considered to be ‘undemocratic’ are as follows: –

• Under his rule, Jagirdars were given full control of the villages, and they also collected taxes from the people.
• He wanted to bring old system where king and his nobles had the full authority to rule whenever they want to.
• He didn’t allow functioning of any democratic systems like legislatures or local bodies.
• He was reluctant to allow opening of the schools which led to low literacy rate in the state.

Question 2.
Why do you think the literacy rate in Hyderabad state was lower than other princely states?
Answer:
The Nizams were slow in setting up schools in their kingdom. Many jagirdars did not even allow setting up of schools in their areas. The Nizams were also suspicious of private schools that they would become centres for propagation of anti-Nizam ideas. They actually discouraged the setting up of private Telugu medium schools and did not allow those students to join Osmania University. So the literacy rate in Hyderabad state was lower than other princely states.

Question 3.
Describe the activities of the Andhra Maha Sabha for the promotion of education.
Answer:
Andhra Maha Sabha combined both educational and social reform objectives. They established libraries and cultural centres all over Telangana even in remote villages. Night classes and discussions were held in these centres. Thus AMS promoted education.

Question 4.
What were the demands of the Hyderabad State Congress and how many of them were fulfilled after 1948?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress only functioned in the British India and did not function directly in the princely states. However, the common people faced more oppression and injustice in these princely states and they wanted to join the larger freedom movement of India. In such states the nationalists formed ‘state congress’ to fight for democratic rights, reforms, representative government etc. This happened in Hyderabad too. All these were fulfilled after 1948.

Question 5.
Do you think the Telangana Armed Struggle helped to end the rule of the Nizam? Give your reasons.
Answer:

1. The established Ryot Sanghams.
2. They established libraries, night schools and tried to make them literate.
3. They undertook many revolutionary activities.
4. They fought against the Nizam and the Doras.
5. They established armed forces.
6. They went from village to village and made the people conscious.
7. They abolished Vetti.
8. They demanded Visalandhra.
9. They fought against Razakars.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions: Do you support the Feudal system of the state.

The Nizams were initially provincial governors of the Mughal emperors. They ruled with the help of hereditary jagirdars and subordinate kings. Jagirdars were given control of dozens and even hundreds of villages which they ruled as they desired and collected taxes from the people. The rest of the kingdom was ruled directly by the Nizam with the help of ‘doras’ about whom you read in an earlier chapter.

The Nizams wanted to retain the old system in which the king and his nobles controlled all resources and ruled as they willed. They did not allow any democratic system like local bodies or legislatures. The Nizams opposed the Congress led nationalist movement and passed several ‘firmans’ or royal orders curtailing political activity in the state. They had a network of police and spies who kept a close watch on people.

Answer:
I do not support the Feudal system of the Nizams.
Reason: The common people were treated as slaves.

Question 7.
Many movements were led against the rulers in the past. Do you find any movements taken up nowadays? If yes, what are they?
Answer:
Some movements were led against the rulers in recent time.

1. The then government enhanced the electricity charges in December 2000. The people led a movement against the government at that time.
2. In July 2011, the textile business people fought against ‘Vat’ and they led a strike.

Question 8.
What questions the librarian should be asked to know about the library of your area?
Answer:

1. At which level the library is situated?
2. How many books are there in the library?
3. What kinds of magazines are there in the library?
4. Can we get book to our house?

Question 9.
Locate the following places of Nizam’s rule in the India map.
a) Aurangabad b) Warangal c) Raichur d) Gulbarga
Answer:

Question 10.
Collect the pictures of leaders of the Telangana armed struggle.
Answer:

8th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Do you think the problems faced by the people of Hyderabad state were in some ways different from those faced by people living in British ruled states? (Textbook Page No. 142)
Answer:

Question 2.
Was there any difference between the attitude of the British and the Nizams when it came to democracy? (Textbook Page No. 142)
Answer:
No. Both suppressed the people.

Question 3.
Was Telangana Armed Struggle only for removal of the grievances of the peasants or did it have other aims? (Textbook Page No. 147)
Answer:
Initially the main demands of the peasants were limited to fight against illegal feudal exactions, levy system, excessive land refot, eviction of tenants, and for abolition of vetti. It was meant to draw all sections of the rural society (small landowners, landlords and service castes) into the struggle against the doras and the Nizam.
The movement was transformed in 1947-48 into a broad anti-feudal struggle demanding merging of Hyerabad with independent India. To broaden the scope of the movement and integrate vaious sections into it, the demand was raised to merge Telangana with the other Telugu speaking regions to create Vishal Andhra.

Question 4.
What are the languages spoken in your area? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
Telugu, Urdu and Hindi are the languages mostly spoken in our area.

Question 5.
What is the medium of teaching in schools and colleges today in our state? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
The mediums of teaching in schools and colleges today are Telugu, English and Urdu. There are many schools also which teach in other statutory languages.

Question 6.
Do you think all teaching should be done in one’s mother tongue? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
No. I don’t think so. The teaching should be in their own mother tongue.

Question 7.
Why do you think it is important to publish books in mother tongues? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
Books are knowledge giving ones. If they are in other languages, nobody can read them. So to attain knowledge it is important to publish books in mother tongues.

Question 8.
Is there a public library in your village or locality? (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
Yes. There is Tagore Public Library in our city.

Question 9.
If you have been to a public library, describe what happens there in your classmates. (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
When we enter the library we should sign in the visitors’ register. Then we can read the dailies, magazines there. If we have membership in that library, we can take two books to home. We should return them after a certain period.

Question 10.
Why do you think the libraries became the centres of anti-Nizam and anti-landlord movements? (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
The leaders of Andhra Maha Sabha combined both educational and social reform objectives. The AMS activities spread rapidly all over Telangana and libraries and cultural centres were established in even remote villages. Peasants and labouring people came to them to learn to read, listen to newspaper, discuss current topics, and also their own problems with the Nizam government and doras. Night classes and discussions were held in these centres. People read books by social reformers like Veeresalingam and nationalists like Gandhiji, Nehru etc. They also wrote new books on local problems. As Editor of the Golconda Patrika, Suravaram Pratapareddy inspired nationalistic fervour amongst the people. Kaloji Narayana Rao, Dasarathi Krishnamacharya, Dasarathi Rangacharya are some of the literary luminaries who fought for the freedom of Hyderabad State. So the libraries became the centres of anti-Nizam and anti-landlord movements.

Question 11.
Why do you think the Nizams and jagirdars were not in favour of Telugu medium schools? (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
Here majority of the officials were Muslims. The majority of the people of the state were Hindus who spoke in Telugu, Kannada and Marathi. They were suspicious of private Telugu medium schools that they would become centres for propagation of anti-Nizam ideas. All the government schools were in Urdu medium.

Question 12.
Why do you think the doras who were Hindus helped the Razakars? (Textbook Page No. 147)
Answer:
Doras, who were Hindus, ruled as dictators. Razakars also had anti-democratic views and they fought the democratic political parties and communist led peasants. Hence, Doras supported and helped the Razakars.

Question 13.
Why do you think the Nizam was allowed to retain power even after the merger? (Textbook Page No. 148)
Answer:
The state was merged in 1948. India became Republic in 1950. It took two years to conduct General elections. The Nizam was familiar with the state and people. A governor cannot be appointed as there was no statutory provision. So the Nizam was allowed to retain power even after the merger.

Question 14.
Why do you think the Nizam agreed to pass the ‘firmanas’ abolishing the feudal system? (Textbook Page No. 148)
Answer:
When India became independent in 1947, Osman Ali Khan, the Nizam wanted Hyderabad to remain as an independent kingdom. The common people of the state wanted to join Independent India and a large campaign was organized by the Hyderabad State Congress led by Ramananda Theertha. The Razakars attacked them too. Then the Indian government decided to end this anarchy and sent armed forces to Hyderabad. Hyderabad was finally integrated into Indian Union in September 1948. The Nizam however was asked by the government of India to continue as the ruler till the transition to democratic setup was complete. The Nizam was forced to abolish the feudal system and initiate democratic processes of elections.

Question 15.
Why do you think the Nizam rule ended on 26th January 1950? (Textbook Page No. 148)
Answer:
The Constitution of India came into force on that day. So we can say that the Nizam rule ended on 26th January, 1950.

Question 16.
Find out more about the song – Vandemataram. (Textbook Page No. 145)
Answer:
Vandemataram song – written in Bengali and Sanskrit.
Lyrics: Bakim Chandra Chattopadhyaya in his novel Anandmath – 1882.
Music: Jadunadh Bhattacharya Adopted on 24-1 -1956.
First sung by – Sri Rabindranath Tagore Translated to English – By Arabindo Ghosh
In 1950 the song’s first two verses were given the official status of the National Song of the Republic of India.

Question 17.
Find out about the life of Swami Ramananda Theertha. (Textbook Page No. 145)
Answer:
Swami Ramananda Theertha (1903 – 1972) was an Indian freedom fighter, educator and Social activist who led the Hyderabad liberation struggle, during the reign of last Nizam. He was the main leader of the Hyderabad State Congress.
He fought against the Nizam after the establishment of Congress party wing in 1938. He participated in Satyagrahas and was imprisoned for 111 days by the last Nizam. He created a revolutionary movement which helped Hyderabad to integrate with the Indian Union in 1948. The integration was successful after the Hyderabad police action.

Question 18.
What role do you think was played by the AMS in making the Telangana Armed Struggle possible ? (Textbook Page No. 147)
Answer:
Andhra Maha Sabha in the beginning supported the education and literary works. The Nizam government subjected these centres to a lot of harassment as they were becoming centres of new radical thinking. By 1940 many communists had joined the AMS and they insisted on taking up other demands of the rural people like end to vetti, land reforms, oppression by doras etc. Some of the old leaders of the AMS disagreed and wanted it to continue as educational and literary forum. Soon the radical elements gained leadership and a new movement of the peasants started.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods

8th Class Social Studies 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Narahari created the following list of activities where technology is not used. Do you agree with him? If not, prove him wrong.
a) While singing a song
b) While cooking idli
c) While performing drama on the stage
d) While making garland for sale
Answer:
I do not agree with Narahari. I think his words are wrong.
Technology is the practical application of knowledge in our everyday lives that leads to a new product or an improvement in the way something works or how something is done. There is no question of this and that. It is useful in all the activities.

Question 2.
Describe how the situation of labour has changed in powerlooms and mills. Do you think this change is beneficial to the labourers or to the owner? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Textile mills have a large number of workers. They have workers’ unions or labourer unions. These unions fight for their rights and their better conditions. Powerlooms are small units. Compared to mills, powerlooms pay a very low salary. While mills pay workers monthly salary, workers in powerlooms are paid on piece rate basis. If there is any powercut, powerloom workers are not given salaries. Trade unions do not exist in most powerloom clusters. They have no pensions or other social security provisions.
Due to these reasons, we can say that this change is beneficial to the owners.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of using CHs? Who benefits most? Why do farmers use CH?
Answer:
Advantages of using CHs:

1. CH harvests the crop, threshes and cleans the grian from chaff.
2. Use of CH helps in timely harvest of paddy. It takes less time, reduces the crop loss and helps farmers to tackle the peak time labour shortage.
3. It also saves from vagaries of weather in coastal regions of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
4. The farmers are able to sow the second crop without much delay.
5. Their dependency on labourers is also reduced.
   The farmers benefit most.
   Due to excess benefits by using CH, the farmers are using these CHs.

Question 4.
Changes in technology lead to changes in job opportunities. Do you agree with this statement? Why?
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
Reason: Technology with skills creates new jobs.
e.g.: Many landline companies and mobile companies were started. These companies export these phones to many countries.
It created new jobs for young people to work in multi-national companies, producing mobile handsets, telephone booths, mobile sales, repair and recharge/top-up shops.

Question 5.
Prabhavathi feels that it is true that telephone technology has changed. She feels that new jobs are available to only educated persons. She also says that many people in India are not literate and hence modern technology is always biased to the educated. Do you agree with her? Give your reasons.
Answer:
I don’t agree with Prabhavathi.
Technology changed as she said, but it is useful to all. e.g.: Now fishermen, rickshaw pullers etc., are using cell phones.
With a minimum educational qualification so many are working as mechanics and technicians. Skill is needed in some works and technology instead of education.

Question 6.
In this chapter, changes in technology in three sectors are discussed. In the following table identify a different example for each of these sectors that is not discussed here:

Answer:

Question 7.
Read the paragraph under the heading “New Skills and New Jobs” and answer the following:

Many private companies including the government-owned ones provide both landline and mobile connections. Private companies continue to expand their share in the telecommunication services. Many companies are being established in India to manufacture handsets. These companies are now exporting to more than 80 countries around the world. The telephone/ mobile technology also came up with the need for new skills. It created new jobs for young people to work in multinational companies, producing mobile handsets, telephone booths, mobile sales, repair and recharge/ top-up shops.

What are the newly created jobs for young people in your area?
Answer:
Work in multinational companies, producing mobile handsets, telephone booths, mobile sales repair and recharge/top up shops are the newly created jobs for young people in our area.

Question 8.
Locate the following in the world map:
1) England 2) USA 3) India
Answer:

Question 9.
The people live in forest and adjacent to forest cannot afford to use latest technology. What measures do you suggest for improving their lives?
Answer:
We should not think using technology is only as improvement. The people living in forest and adjacent to forest are living in Nature’s lap. They are living in groups. All the blood relations live mostly in the same group. So they may not need phones or technology. The government should introduce technology to them. It should create better conditions to improve their lives. Then only they can lead an improvised life.

Project work

Mallaiah is a farmer in Sripuram village. There are about 100 houses in the village. Today all the work like planting, weeding, harvesting, spraying pesticides and fertilisers is done by machines. In olden days, it was all done manually. There are more than 33 tractors and about 15 harvesters available in his village. A few of them are given on hire. The owners of the tractors charge Rs. 300 per hour for tilling the fields. More and more farmers are now using these machines in their fields. Based on this information, create a wall paper with illustrations and possible discussions between different groups of people in the village.

Answer:
Wall Paper
a) Mr. Mallalah: I need a tractor on hire
Tractor Owner: How many acres to be ploughed?
Mr. Mallaiah: 3 acres.
Tractor Owner: For one hour, Rs. 300. When do you need?
Mr. Mallaiah: Today only.
Tractor Owner: I already agreed for others.
Mr. Mallaiah: I pay Rs. 400 per acre
Tractor Owner: 0k. I will send traàtor by evening.

b) Tractor Owner: Tractor is under repair.
Mechanic: What is the problem?
Tractor Owner: Tractor’s wheel is caught. It is not working.
Mechanic: Tractor lost bearings. It will cost Rs.1000/-
Tractor Owner: 0k repair it. I have many works.
Mechanic: Not now, by evening I will do it.

c) Old Man: In our days we used to do all these works manually.
Young man: What are the works?
Old Man: Sowing, ploughing and transplanting.
Young man: Today we need not do all works.
Old Man: Yes, you all have machines.

d) Farmer: Mastri, I need 30 labourers.
Mastri: For what work?
Farmer: For harvesting.
Mastri: Now we are not doing all these works.
Farmer: Why?
Mastrl: Now combined harvesters is going on.
Farmer: Is it available!
Mastri: Our charges are high it will be ready by tomorrow morning.
Farmer: I cant pay so much for labourers. I will wait for combined harvester.

8th Class Social Studies 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of using CH (Combined Harvester) in agricultural production? Make a list from the above text. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
Advantages of using CH in agricultural production:

1. CH is one of the important machines used for paddy harvest.
2. It harvests the crop, threshes and cleans the grain from chaff.
3. It helps in timely harvest of paddy.
4. It takes less time, reduces the crop loss and helps farmers to tackle the peak time labour shortage.
5. It also saves the crop from the vagaries of weather in coastal regions of Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
6. The farmers were able to sow the second crop.
7. Their dependency on labour is also reduced.

Question 2.
List the jobs lost by agricultural labourers when Combined Harvesters are used. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
They lose the jobs of harvesting the crop, threshing and cleaning the grains from chaff when CHs are used.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks: (Textbook Page No. 97)
i) The production of cloth is classified into four categories as mill, handlooms ———– and ———–.
ii) ———– state had the largest number of handlooms in 1988.
iii) ———– state had the largest number in 2009.
iv) Which state had the lowest number of handlooms in 2009?
v) The ———– pays the worker a salary while the ———– pays the workers on ———– rate.
Answer:
i) hosieries; powerlooms.
ii) Tamilnadu
iii) Tamilnadu
iv) Punjab
v) mill, powerloom, piece

Question 4.
Do you think it is appropriate to use CHs in India where a large section of people working in agriculture as labourers, are poor, and there is so much problem of rural unemployment? (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
We can think in two angles about this problem.
We can say that it is not appropriate by keeping the following in view:

1. Rural unemployment
2. More dependency on agriculture. They may lose their livelihood.
3. While keeping the development of the country in view – it is appropriate.

Extensive farm mechanisation is widely prevalent in developed countries. These human resources can be used in other sectors by providing various job opportunities. This helps the development of the country.

Question 5.
In this chapter, we saw the photos of many women engaged in technology. Many of them like the one above does not have an Engineering degree. Conduct a debate in classroom what biases/ stereotypes exist about women getting educated as engineers. (Textbook Page No. 99)
Answer:
“Women education brightens the future”. Degree is an acknowledgement to their knowledge. There are so many skilled persons in many areas without qualifications, e.g.: The village farmers have more knowledge than agricultural graduates.
If the women acquire Engineering graduation, they will get higher positions. They educate their families. They lead their families and nation to development.

Question 6.
Who were the contributors to this industrial revolution? (Textbook Page No. 90)
Answer:

These persons were contributors to this industrial revolution.

Question 7.
Find out the story of the first steam engine. How did this lead to establishment of Railways in India? (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
Steam Engines were used to pump water out of mines in England when James Watt was born. The discovery that steam could be harnessed and made to work is not credited to James Watt. We do not know that exactly who made that discovery, but we do know that the ancient Greeks had crude steam engines. James Watt however is credited with inventing the first practical steam engine. And so the history of the modern steam engine often begins with James Watt.
There were no railway lines in India upto 1850. It was almost 100 years to the British. Colonial rule in India. They need transport facilities in this vast country. So they inaugurated the first railway line in 1853 which ran from Bombay to Thana. Since then the distance is reduced in India.

Question 8.
It is argued that new jobs can be created in rural areas through infrastructure works. Link roads, tanks, bunds etc., can be created through labour intensive schemes. If you live in rural area, find out if any such activities are being done and discuss if these will suffice the livelihoods of the people there. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
A few years back the then government introduced a scheme ‘Food for Work’. Many works were undertaken in our village. Digging out soil from ‘Cheruvus’ is one of those works. They used this soil to lay roads. They used quarry dust also in laying roads. Digging drainage canals was also a work in this scheme. But the labourers were given ‘rice’ instead of money.
One cannot lead their life only with rice. So they started exchanging the rice with money. As a result the purpose of the scheme got sidetracked. Even then we can say that this scheme helped the labourers in rural areas. These are helpful to them in non-crop season.

Question 9.
How have computers changed the life around you? (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
Computers have changed our lives in many different ways and aspects. Almost everyone depends on computers. People depend on computers for bank transactions, bus reservations etc. People may not even leave the houses for shopping. Meetings and tele conferrences are also conducted by using computers and internet.

Question 10.
Did you see solar energy being used in your neighbourhood, town or city? Make a short list. Why is this source of energy not used even more widely? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
We live in Sai Sri Nilaya apartments in S.N. Puram, near (Boys) Z.P. High school in Vijayawada. We use solar water heaters in our apartment. On the roof of our apartment, there are many solar panels. We get hot water throughout the day. But to get them we have to waste some cold water. The following solar instruments are used by our neighbours.

1. Solar heaters.
2. Solar lanterns / lamps.
3. Solar cookers.
4. Solar stoves.
5. Solar batteries/inverters

The reason for not using them widely:

1. Installation Price: Cost of installing solar technology is too expensive.
2. Variable sunlight: Inconsistency of Sunshine throughout the year.
3. An aesthetic appeal: The opinions of the people who think solar panels look ugly.
4. Day purpose only: They can be used only in daytime only.
5. Clouds: If it is cloudy, we get less amount of energy.

Question 11.
In many villages, agricultural labourers, women labourers, in particular, were found to be upset seeing the operation of CH. Why? (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
The operation of CH lessens the work opportunities and income to the agricultural labourers, particularly women labourers. This machine does almost all the works of women labourers. If this machine is used widely, they lose their livelihood. So, they were found upset.

Question 12.
Find out the current rates of phone calls and discuss reasons for the difference in the rates for between companies and why they are decreasing? (Textbook Page No. 99)
Answer:
At present the rates were very low.
For e.g.:

Some phones are giving free offers to some selected numbers.
Every company is planning to increase their connections. So they are decreasing their rates. So the differences occur in rates.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 11th B Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Create a table to show the various efforts of Gandhiji in the national movement.

Answer:

Question 2.
The national movement fought all attempts of the British government to deny democratic freedom and rights of the people. Give examples of the rights which the government tried to curtail and the movement launched against it.
Answer:

1. In 1919 the British introduced and passed the Rowiatt Act. The act curbed the fundamental rights of citizens and strengthened police powers.
   The National leaders declared 6-4-1919 “the day of humiliation and prayer” and hartal, Satyagraha sabhas were set up to launch the movement.
2. In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan or Khalifa.
   The nationalist leaders and Muslim League opposed this as Punjab wrongs’ and ‘Khilafat wrong’ and demanded swaraj. They announced Non-Cooperation movement.
3. The British government decided to convert Chirala-Perala into a municipality. They forced high taxes. The people refused, under the leadership of Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya, to pay the taxes. They migrated to a new settlement called Ramnagar and remained there for eleven months.
4. The Britishers imposed tax on ‘Common salt’. The nationalists opposed this and started civil disobedience movement.
   Thus the Indian Nationalists opposed all the negative activities of the British government.

Question 3.
To what extent was the Salt Satyagraha successful in its objectives? Give your assessment.
Answer:
A wave of enthusiasm swept the country during the Salt Satyagraha. Sait laws were broken at many places and even women took part in the Civil Disobedience Movement. In Delhi alone, 1600 women were imprisoned. This movement was not confined to the Salt Satyagraha alone. Foreign-cloth shops and liquor shops were picketed and were burned. Hand spinning was taken up as a movement. British schools, colleges, and services were boycotted. The people joined in large numbers in this movement.

The combined struggles of the Indian people bore fruit when the Government of India Act of 1935 prescribed provincial autonomy and the government announced elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937.
Thus it was successful in its objectives.

Question 4.
Which of the following was part of the national movement?
a. Picketing shops that sell foreign clothes
b. Hand spinning thread to weave clothes
c. Burning imported clothes d. Wearing khaddar
e. All the above
Answer:
e) All the above

Question 5.
What were the different events that led to the partition?
Answer:

1. In 1940, the Muslim League had moved a resolution demanding the Independent States for Muslims.
2. From the late 1930s, the League began viewing the Muslims as a separate ‘nation’ from the Hindus.
3. The provincial elections of 1937 seemed to have convinced the League that Muslims were a minority and they would always have to play second fiddle in any democratic structure.
4. Muslim League sought to enlarge its support in the early 1940s when most Congress leaders were in jail.
5. At the end of the war in 1945, the British opened negotiations between the Congress, the League but failed.
6. In 1946 elections the Congress did well in the ‘Genera! Constituencies’ but the League’s success in the seats reserved for Muslims was spectacular. It persisted with its demand for “Pakistan”.
7. The Cripps Mission could not get the Congress and the Muslim League to agree to specific details of the proposal – the United India.
8. Muslim League announced 16th August, 1946 as ‘Direct Action Day’. By March, 1947 violence spread to different parts of northern India.
9. Louis Mountbatten was not able to resolve the differences between the Muslim League and the Congress Party.
10. India became independent on 15th August, 1947 while Pakistan celebrated its independence on 14th August.

Question 6.
Look at the India map and fill colors in Pakistan and Bangladesh which are our adjacent countries.
Note: The students are advised to fill colours in Pakistan and Bangladesh in practise.
Answer:
Both Pakistan and Bangladesh are our neighbouring countries.

Question 7.
Read the first paragraph under the heading ‘The Happenings of 1922-1929’ and answer this, ‘Gandhiji called off the movement after the violence. How do you support it?
Answer:
The Non-Cooperation Movement held in February 1922 turned violent. A crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura. Twenty-two policemen were killed on that day. Realizing that the situation was going bad to worse, Gandhiji abruptly called off the movement.

Gandhiji followed non-violence and Satyagraha. Those were against this violence. Hence I support Gandhiji’s decision.

Question 8.
As a part of Non-Cooperation movement, what incidents took place in our state?
Answer:
Guntur district was at the centre of nationalist activity and the participation was very widespread including not only students, but also merchants and peasants in the villages. A highlight of the Non-Cooperation movement was the famous Chirala Perala movement. The government decided to convert this town into a municipality and forced high taxes. About 15,000 people of the town led by Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya refused to pay the taxes and migrated to a new settlement called Ramnagar and remained there for eleven months. There was a powerful movement of non-payment of land revenue by the peasants and mass resignations of village officers. People said, “Gandhiji’s swaraj is coming and we will not pay taxes to this government.”

Another major development was the Forest Satyagraha in Palnati taluka of Guntur district and also in Rayachoti taluka of Kadapa district. Peasants began sending herds of cattle into the forests without paying grazing fees to the forest department. In many villages of Palnadu, people declared Gandhi Raj and attacked police parties. People were convinced that the colonial rule was coming to an end and the forests would be back in the control of the village people. In the two taluqs, the forest administration had to virtually close down during the agitation period.
These were some of the incidents that took place in our state as a part of Non-Cooperation movement.

Question 9.
Write a brief note on Quit India Movement.
Answer:

1. On 8th August, 1942 the Quit India Movement was launched.
2. In this movement all the categories of people from throughout India participated.
3. Younger activists organized strikes and acts of sabotage all over the country.
4. In several districts, such as Satara in the west and Medinipur in the east, “independent” governments were proclaimed.
5. The young in very large members, left their colleges to go to jail.
6. During this time Mahatma Gandhi addressed these memorable words to the Indian people. “Every one of you should from this movement onwards consider yourself a free man or woman and act as if you are free. I am not going to be satisfied with anything short of complete freedom. We shall “do or die”. We shall either free India or die in the attempt”. Like this he encouraged all people to participate in this movement. Due to the above reasons Quit India movement become popular.

Question 10.
Prepare a timeline chart on Freedom Struggle from 1885 to 1947.
Answer:

Question 11.
Did the fruits of sacrifices of many great leaders of Independence movement reach all the people? Mention your opinion on this.
Answer:
My opinion: I think that the fruits of sacrifices of many great leaders of independence movement reached all the people in the early period after independence. But it is sorry to say that the spirit of independence is hanged at present.
Reasons:

1. corruption
2. violence
3. lack of belongingness etc.

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Do you think it is right to give the police such powers to suppress revolts? (Textbook Page No. 130)
Answer:
Terrorism and showing anger through demonstrations are two delicate issues. The police should recognise the tenderness and difference between these two. Then only it is right to give such powers.

Question 2.
Find out more about Chirala Perala Movement and the Forest Satyagraha. Prepare a skit and enact it in the class. (Textbook Page No. 132)
Answer:

Independence Movement -1919

Ram Nagar Camp (Chirala I Perala)
Ramudu: Arey! Raja, why did you leave our village?
Raja: Not only myself, totally our Chirala / Perala villagers left our village.
Sekhar: What? I think this ¡s our fate, we have to leave our houses.
Yaswanth: That is not our fate. That is the fate of the Britishers. They tried to raise our tax Rs. 4000/- to Rs. 40,000/-. It is really a cruel action.
Ramudu: Leave it. Gandhiji gave us a beautiful idea.
Raja: Yes ra! His idea, the leadership of Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya are very well. Let us hope that these British will leave us soon.
Yaswanth: Are you right? Will they leave us?
Sekhar: Why do they leave us? They arrest us for our retort.
Raja: Let them do that. We will sacrifice our lives but we dont leave them.
All: Okay ra! Let us do like that.

Gandhiji – Jai
Duggirala – Jai
Bharat Matha – Jai
Jai – Jai

1921 – Forest Satyagraha
Mono Action
Kanneganti Hanumanthu – Palnati Warrior
Age: 30 years
In Palnati Forest

Orey Britishoda ! Who is the person that asked us to pay pullari tax. We, the sons of this land, you, the dependent on this land. Why should we pay tax to you ? Is it just ? Is it Dharma? Do you think that the son of this Palnadu will do this – English dogs.

Orey Rutherford! This forest is our mother. Our own mother. Why should we pay you for our mother’s blessings.
Neeru pettava ? Naru vesava ? Kota kosava ? Kuppa nurchava ? Enduku kattalira sistu, Enduku kattalira neeku sistu.
Enduku, Enduku ?
Amma, Amma, if you kill me ….
Amma – Thousands of Hanumanthus will born ….
You, the Britishers, will be chased – chased and necked out of our country.
Amma-Amma Vande Mataram.
Vande Mataram.
Ammaaa
Bharatha Matha – Selav.
In the next birth also I will be your son – I will play in freedom.
Van … de … maa …. tar.. am.
…. (died)….

Question 3.
Why do you think were people against such laws during the freedom movement? (Textbook Page No. 180)
Answer:

1. Most of the police and higher officials were Britishers at that time.
2. It was most difficult for the people to been the dictatorship.
3. Introducing such laws at that time was like pouring ghee into the fire. So they were against such laws.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 7th Lesson Money and Banking Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 7th Lesson Money and Banking

8th Class Social Studies 7th Lesson Money and Banking Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Fill in the following table with some examples of transactions.

Answer:

Question 2.
Can there be any difficulties or disadvantages in keeping money in a bank? Think and write.
Answer:
There will be no problems in keeping money in a bank. But there may be problems due to computers, ATMs and the negligence of employes, e.g.:

1. Many problems may arise while withdrawing amount from ATMs.
2. Deducting the EMis of loans twice a month by overlook.
3. Blocking the accounts.

Question 3.
In what ways have cheques made exchange of money more convenient?
Answer:
Nowadays cheques are widely used for making payments and receiving money. When you want to give money to someone, you write a cheque on that person’s name. When you want to send money to someone who lives in a different place, you can send a cheque to her by post. You can also use your cheque to transfer money electronically into the other person’s account through a bank. For business purposes, where money is frequently received and paid, cheques are very important as a medium for transactions.

Thus cheques have made exchange of money more convenient.

Question 4.
Only a part of the total deposits is kept as cash in the bank-safe. Why is this so and how does this benefit the bank ?
Answer:
Banks keep only a part of the total deposits as cash in the bank of safe. This is so because it helps the daily cash transactions of the bank.
The banks lend the remaining amount to their customers on interest. Thus the banks earn profits.

Question 5.
If a very large number of account – holders do not wish to keep their money in the bank, how will it affect the bank s working?
Answer:
If a large number of account – holders do not wish to keep their money in the bank.
This affects the reserves of a bank.
The bank cannot lend loans to customers. This affects their income. As a result it is impossible to run a bank.

Question 6.
If many loans are written off (that is, borrowers are not required to pay back the money), how will this affect the working of the bank?
Answer:
A bank is a business enterprise. It has to pay interest to its depositors, pay salary to its employees, has to buy and maintain equipment, pay rent and bear all the cost of running a bank and also make profit.
If the loans are written off, the bank cannot perform all these activities. So the banks cannot write off the loans. In any case if the government writes off the loans, then the government should bear the losses.

Question 7.
People have to pay a higher interest on loans than the interest they receive on a fixed deposit for the same time-period. Why do you think this is so?
Answer:

1. Bank trade with money.
2. Fixed deposits means money that is to be kept with the bank for agreed and specified period. When one has to disturb this arrangement, he has to pay penalty for the same.
3. Hence banks charge more interest on fixed deposit loans than what they give.
4. An other important aspect is discouraging loans on fixed deposits.
5. Not only that, the banks should reach number of expenses such as payment of salaries to its employees, has to buy and maintain equipments, pay rents and bear all the cost of running a bank and also make profit. That’s why we should pay more interest on loans.

Question 8.
Suppose this year the rains are poor and the crop yield is only half as much as was originally expected. Some people say that if this happens the farmers should be asked to pay back only half the amount they have taken as loans. However, other people say that full amount should be repaid, keeping in view the next year’s crop. In your opinion, what should the bank do and why?
Answer:

1. Whatever the situation, normally banks ask for full payment of loan.
2. When there is a crop failure or less yield, farmers are unable to repay their loans.
3. In such situation banks have to reschedule the repayment procedure and has to provide crop loans to the farmers for the next season.
4. Government shall support the farmers by waiving interest component and directing the banks to provided necessary loans for next crop.

Question 9.
Read the Paragraph under the header ‘Types of Loans’ and answer the following question:
Types of Loans
Banks give loans and advances to different sections of the public like traders, industrialists, students (educational loans), farmers, artisans, SHG, etc. Let us examine some of them.
“What sort of loans are more common in your area?”
Answer:

1. Crop loans
2. Housing loans
3. SHG loans

Question 10.
Do you feel that the loans taken from SHGs are helpful to the members? How?
Answer:
These are very useful to them.

1. They need not ensure the bank with securities.
2. The group will ensure that loans are paid back by its members.
3. Interest is also nominal.
4. The loan can be repaid in easy monthly installments.

8th Class Social Studies 7th Lesson Money and Banking InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Are you aware of any exchanges that are done without money?
Answer:
I know about Barter System. In this system goods are directly exchanged for each other without the use of money.

Question 2.
You may have bought things in exchange of old clothes, plastic, newspapers, hair, paddy, etc. Discuss the transaction. (Textbook Page No. 77)
Answer:

1. Old clothes : We usually exchange old clothes with steel utensils. This depends mostly on the seller.
2. Plastic and Newspapers : We usually exchange these with onion traders. He gives 11/2 kg onions for 1 kg plastic or newspaper.
3. Hair: They offer money for hair.
4. Paddy: In our village paddy is exchanged for services rendered by washerman, barber etc.

Question 3.
Complete the following table:
a)

b) What can we conclude from the above table?
(Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
a)

b)

1. Trading between these three people is impossible.
2. Gopal needs rice. Srinu does not need goat.
3. Money helps this transaction.

Question 4.
Explain in your own words why exchange is not possible between Gopal and Seenu. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Gopal needs rice. Seenu has rice. But he doesn’t need goat. He needs wheat. So the transaction between Gopal and Srinu is not possible.

Question 5.
a) Will the use of money help? Fill in the blanks. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
The use of money helps this type of transaction.
b) If Gopal exchanges for money, his goat with —–(i)—– then Gopal uses this —–(ii)—– to buy rice from —–(iii)—– Now —–(iv)—– can use this money to buy —–(v)—– from Seenu.
Answer:
i) Seenu
ii) money
iii) Ramu
iv) Ramu
v) wheat

Question 6.
Ask your parents how washermen, barbers, neeti kaavalikaru were paid for their work in villages and towns. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Nowadays they are paid money only. But 15 years back our parents paid them in the form of paddy.

Question 7.
How can money be used in the transactions between Gopal, Seenu and Ramu ?
Explain with the help of a flow chart. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:

Gopal should sell his goat for money.
↓
He should purchase rice with that.
↓
Seenu should sell wheat for money.
↓
He should purchase goat with that.
↓
Ramu should sell rice for money.
↓
He should purchase wheat with that.

Question 8.
If the role of money as described above were stated as a medium of exchange, would you agree? Explain. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the above statement. In the barter system the calculation of valuation is not logical and scientific. So I agree with this.

Question 9.
For how much rice should Gopal exchange his goat? (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
This depends on the demand of goat. If the demand is high, the rice should be in the quantity demanded by Gopal. Otherwise he should accept the offer of the seller.

Question 10.
In a barter system how do you pay to a person who cuts your hair? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
In barter system I give one kg of rice to the person who cuts my hair. At present the price of one kg of rice is Rs.30/-. The rate of hair cut is also equal to it.

Question 11.
In the above example, complete the conversation, so that they are able to trade. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Gopal: How many bags of rice will you give for this goat?
Seetaiah: Two bags.
Gopal: I was offered 4 bags for it in other village.
Seetaiah: And I can get a goat for just one bag in that village.
Gopal: ……………………………………..
Seetaiah: …………………………………….
Answer:
Gopal: I can give this at least for 3 bags.
Seetaiah: Okay. Take it.

Question 12.
If money was not used by you or any of the traders in your santhalu or weekly market what would happen? Describe in a paragraph. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
Nowadays money is mostly used as medium of exchange. No one can decide the value of the commodities. Employees and other workers have money only for exchange. The conditiion is unpredictable.

Question 13.
Do you think money can act as a measure of value of goods and services? Explain.
(Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
Yes, money can act as a measure of value of goods and services. Public services and private services can be measured. But we cannot and should not measure the values of services of our parents and blood relations.
e.g.: Public Services : Transportation – APSRTC
Medical facilities – Government hospitals.
Private Services : Transportation – Private buses
Medical facilities – Private hospitals

Question 14.
Can you think of situations when this trust of the goldsmith could break? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
The trust of the goldsmith could break in the following situations:

1. debasing the coins
2. maintaining difference in the quality of coins
3. fail to give the coins whenever they asked
4. and any action of cheating

Question 15.
What was the problem faced by the traders in Amsterdam and how did they find a way out? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Amsterdam was a major trading centre in Europe. Here, there were 846 silver and gold coins recognised by the government that could be accepted for exchange. However, traders were always suspicious of each other – everyone would doubt the purity and weight of these coins. The merchants of Amsterdam got together and solved this problem in a unique manner. They created a bank owned by the city.

Question 16.
Draw the picture of a bank cheque in your notebook and pay Rs.1,50,000/- to your friend sitting next to you. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:

Question 17.
a) If Suresh Babu wants to deposit 1,75,000, electronically into Kancharla Sujatha’s account through his bank, how can this be done ?
b) What more information would he require ? Visit a bank and find out. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
a) This can be done through NEF transfers. According to this process any account holder can transfer to another account holder of any other bank in the country without any charges. The maximum limit is Rs.2,00,000.
b) For this she needs the account number, name of the receiver, branch name and city of Sujatha.

Question 18.
Discuss and make a list of the payments that people make electronically without using a cheque. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
People can make payments electronically without using cheques by using internet.

1. Sale and purchase of goods
2. Raising capitals
3. Repaying debts
4. Paying electricity and Phone bills
5. Transfer of money
6. Paying income tax
7. Paying house taxes etc.

Question 19.
What is the difference between a savings account and a current account? (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
Savings account: The savings account holders are mostly employees and common people. They get interest on their amount in the account. Money wil be safe. The account holder can withdraw it at any time he/she wants. The bank promises to pay on demand. Current Account : Business people and traders maintain this account. There are no restrictions on the number of times you can deposit or withdraw the money from a current account. Transactions can be made by way of cheque. The bank does not pay any interest on money deposited in a current account but will collect service charges.

Question 20.
Match the statement in column A with the word(s) / terms in column B. (Textbook Page No. 86)

Answer:
a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii

Question 21.
When should one opt fixed deposits for savings? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
The money invested in fixed deposits should not be withdrawn in the given period. Then only one can use fixed deposits for savings.

Question 22.
How is an SHG loan different from an individual loan? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
One should mortgage one’s property when he/she takes individual loan. The SHG will ensure that loans are paid back by its members. They need not mortgage any asset.

Question 23.
a) Hari cultivates vegetables like tomatoes, okra, green leaves etc. He wants to buy fertiliser after three months. He can’t keep these vegetables with him to pay for the fertiliser after three months. If he does not use money what arrangement will he get into with the person supplying fertilisers?
b) Do you find any such arrangements in villages around you?
c) Many a times farmers may not benefit from such arrangements. Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
a) Hari should sell his vegetables to the trader of fertilisers. Then in future he can get the fertilisers for the same rate. Thus they should enter into an agreement.
b) We have no such arrangements in our village.
c) These arrangements are beneficial to the farmers. Values differ in different seasons. So government should plan the substitutes.

Question 24.
Have you ever been inside a bank? What are the names of some banks you know? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Yes. I have visited the banks many times.
Names of Banks:

1. Kotak Mahindra
2. State Bank of India
3. Andhra Bank
4. Indian Bank
5. Vijaya Bank
6. Dena Bank
7. Kanakadurga Grameena Bank

Question 25.
If you step inside a Bank, you will find some employees sitting at different counters with their computers/ ledgers and dealing with the customers. You can also observe people depositing money at some counters and withdrawing money at other counters. There is one cabin where the manager sits. What do these bank employees do? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
My name is Subba Rao. Once I went to the State Bank of India branch in Mudinepalli One gentleman sat inside a cabin. There is a name plate before him.

ANASINGARAJU VENKATA CHALAPATHI RAO – B.M.

He was going through some documents and discussing with some others. My mother came there to withdraw some amount. She filled up the withdrawal form and handed over it to the person in counter no. 2. The person in the counter verified the form and the book. He signed it and gave us a token no. 4. We waited there for sometime. In the meanwhile one known person Sri K. Yagnaiah came there and deposited some amount. He wished my mother and went away. Rama Krishna, my brother’s friend, came to the bank to open a new account. He was enquiring about it. Bank people were drafting D.D.s, verifying accounts, opening new accounts and helping the locker holders etc. After 40 minutes there was a call from No. 6 counter. We went to the counter and took our money. I was told by my mother that the Manager looks after the bank management issues and any other problems.

Question 26.
Read the promise on paper notes used today. Who is making the promise and to whom? Why is this important? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
I find the following promise on the hundred rupee note.

“I PROMISE TO PAY THE BEARER THE SUM ON ONE HUNDRED RUPEES.”
– GOVERNOR.

This promise is given by the Reserve Bank Governor, Dr. Raghuram Rajan. This promise is given to the owner of the note. Without this promise this note can be treated as a paper. So this is important.

Question 27.
Visit a commercial bank which is near to your locality and fill up the following table. (Textbook Page No. 88)

Answer:

Question 28.
Why were metals preferred for use as money? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:
Copper, bronze, silver and gold are durable, can be divided into parts and be carried around Since they were scarce they became acceptable by all. So the metals were preferred for use as money.

Question 29.
Do you think minting of coins was a good idea? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:
Yes, I think so. But the quality and measurement should be perfect as per norms.

Question 30.
In what ways would minting of coins benefit the rulers? Can you think of three different reasons? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:

1. The trade transactions in their kingdom will be perfect. This strengthens their treasury.
2. Minting coins is an industry. The income through this also strengthens their treasury.
3. They print their favourite designs on the coins. This act enables the future generation to know about the interest of the past people.
   Eg. : If we find any musical instrument on the coin, it tells us that they were the lovers of music.

Question 31.
Why do the receipts of the goldsmith work as money? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
The goldsmiths charged fees for keeping their valuables safe and making them available whenever they wanted. This practice became popular and the trust in some of the goldsmiths or shroffs grew. These goldsmiths would also give loans and had branches in many cities leading to a new system of paper money or hundis. With the great confidence on the goldsmiths, the people treated the receipts as money.

Question 32.
Why is a crossed cheque safe? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
The crossed cheque can be deposited and cashed in the account holder’s account only. No other person can cash it. This system can create confidence in the customers. Otherwise it can be misused.

Question 33.
Why do banks ask for security while lending? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
There is no personal relation and identification between the bank people and their customers. If the bank people failed to recollect the debts, it leads to bankrupt. So banks ask for security while lending.

Question 34.
Which is a better source of loans — banks or money lenders? Why? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
Banks are a better source of loans.
Reasons:

1. The Bank interest is nominal.
2. The loan can be paid in easy instalments.
3. If any customer fails to repay, the bank gives reasonable time for the repayment.

Question 35.
After two centuries, this bank collapsed. Can you guess what could have been the reasons for this? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Amsterdam Bank opened many branches in many European countries. It was called ‘Wissel Bank’ in Dutch. There was debasement problem in Dutch. It was often. Due to that the customers of the Bank usually repaid the coins of lesser values. So the customers were dissatisfied. As Dutch was a small country, the problem raises many times. Due to this the name of the bank was defamed.

The decline of the Bank accelerated with the fourth Anglo-Dutch war (1780-84). The British blockade of Holland and the capture of many Asian colonies put tremendous pressure on the Dutch East India Company. Loans were issued to all. The metallic stock of the bank was dropped from 20 million to 6 millions (1780-84). The French revolution led the bank towards failure. At last it was closed in 1819.

Question 36.
How would she (Geeta) withdraw the money from an ATM? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
1) Geeta would follow the instructions displayed on the screen of the ATM.

Instructions :
a) Insert the card/Remove the card
b) Feed the PIN number
c) Feed the amount, press ok
d) Take the money
e) Take the receipt
f) Press the ‘Clear’ Button
g) Leave the room
2) By following the given instructions Geetha would withdraw the money from an ATM.

Question 37.
What would she (Geeta) do if she went to her bank branch? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
She would stand in a queue for 30 to 40 minutes to get the amount. She had to fill the withdrawal slip and stand in the queue. When her turn comes she gives the slip and passbook in the counter. Then she gets token. After a few minutes she will be paid in another counter.

Question 38.
How much money will Manaswini get from her Fixed Deposit till five years, if the rate of interest is 8%? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
Manaswini gets Rs. 15000/- approximately after the period of 5 years.

Question 39.
Suppose she needs the money urgently for some medical treatment. Can she withdraw it from the Fixed Deposit at the bank? What will happen? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
She can withdraw her deposit whenever she wants. But she will not receive 8% of interest. She receives less percentage as per bank norms.

Question 40.
Will the same rate of interest be charged for all types of borrowers from a bank? (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
The rate of interest changes from loan to loan.
For e.g.: They charge 8% on housing loans and 14% on personal loans.

Question 41.
What will happen if some borrowers do not repay the bank loan? (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
The bank collects the loan from the guarantors or disposes the mortgage.
For e.g.: If any customer fails to repay the housing loan, the bank sells the house in auction. It takes the loan amount and gives the remaining amount to the customer.

Classroom Activity

Suppose you need Rs. 2,000. You fill a cheque and give it to your sister and send her to get the money in cash.
Answer:
Self cheque:

1. I will write a cheque for Rs. 2,000/- on my friend’s name and ask her to get cash from the bank.
2. I will sign on the down and back of the cheque.
3. I will give her instructions where to handover the cheque in the bank and how to receive cash in counter.
4. No need of any account to my friend in the bank.

Cross cheque: If I wrote an amount on cross cheque, my sister needs an account in any of the banks to change the check into cash.

Project
Question 1.
Visit a bank or invite a bank employee to the school and find out:
a) How to open a saving account in your name?
b) How are cheques cleared by the banks?
c) How do banks make NEFTransfers? (National Electronic Funds Transfer)
d) What security precautions are necessary for an ATM to work? What does the computer check?
e) Apart from cheques, people can also exchange money through Bank Drafts/online transaction etc. Find out.
f) For the person receiving the money, what is the advantage of online transaction compared to a cheque?
g)

Answer:
a) The person should take two photographs, address proof, income proof, personal identifi¬cation to the bank. He/she should fill the application form and get the introduction signa¬ture. He/she should handover these papers in the counter, his/her account can be opened.

b) Cheques are cleared by the banks in the Clearing Bank.

c) All the banks in the country are interconnected with computers and internet. A person can transfer a particular amount (less than 2,00,000/-) from his account to others account in other bank. This transaction can be done through NEFT. The Bank will not charge any rate for this.

d) Security precautions necessary, for an ATM to work :

1. Computer should be checked whether working properly or not.
2. Receipt system and printer should be checked.
3. The machine should understand the orders of the user.
4. The count of notes should be proper.
5. There must be a watchman.
6. A camera should be fixed in the ATM room.
7. In addition to the PIN number, a system should be improved which records the thumb prints. Computer checks the PIN number and balances in the accounts.

e) Yes, there are bank drafts and online transactions etc., to exchange money.
Drafts take sometime to be encashed. But online transactions take no time. One can withdraw the amount immediately after a click.

f) When compared to a cheque, online transaction is the best. The person can receive the money without any delay. But a cheque takes 2 to 4 days time to be encashed. So the receiver can save his time.

g)

Question 2.
Please visit www.rbi.org.in and read comics on financial inclusion / financial literacy themes.
Answer:
Student Activity.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 6th Lesson Reproduction

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What questions you ask the doctor, who visited your school on World AIDS day?
Answer:

1. How does AIDS disease occurs?
2. How does the AIDS transmit?
3. What are the symptoms of AIDS?
4. What are the precautions to be taken to prevent AIDS?

Question 2.
What is colostrum?
Answer:
The first secretion from the Mammary glands, after giving birth, rich in antibodies.
During the end of pregnancy, a watery yellowish lymph like fluid accumulates in mammary glands. It is known as colostrum.

Question 3.
Name the types of asexual reproduction in the following organisms:
a) Paramoecium b) Yeast
Answer:
a) Paramoecium : Paramoecium reproduces by splitting into two. (Transverse binary fission)
b) Yeast: Yeast reproduces by Budding.

Question 4.
What are the advantages of grafting method in plants.
Answer:

1. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
2. It can be used to produce varieties in seedless fruits.

Question 5.
What measures can be taken to avoid sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:

1. Avoid sex with unknown or multiple partners.
2. Sex with life partners only.
3. Follow ethical and healthy life practices because contraceptives always cannot prevent STD’s.
4. In case of any doubt, consult a qualified doctor for early detection if diagonised with disease take complete treatment.

Question 6.
What is parthenogenesis?
Answer:
The process of developing zygote from female gametes without fertilization is known as parthenogenesis.

Question 7.
In flowering plants, I am formed as the result of double fertilization. The cotyledons digest and absorb me. Who am I?
Answer:
Endosperm.

Question 8.
In what way does mitotic division help the living organism?
Answer:

1. growth
2. cell repair
3. healing wounds.

Question 9.
Give any two suggestions to create awareness to stop female foeticide.
Answer:

1. Preparing relevant slogans
2. Organising rallies
3. Awareness campaign by using electronic and print media

Question 10.
Write two precautions you take, while observing Rhizopus in the laboratory.
Answer:

1. Don’t touch the experimental bread with hand.
2. If you touch the bread, thoroughly wash your hands.
3. Leave the bread in the open air for about an hour.
4. Avoid opening of the plastic bag as much as you can.
5. Sprinkle water over bread.
6. Place the bag in a dark and warm place.

Question 11.
Mention two materials you have used to observe Rhizopus on bread mould.
Answer:
Bread mould sample, plain glass slide, cover slip, water, disposable gloves.

Question 12.
What type of reproduction occurs in paramoecium during favourable conditions?
Answer:
During favourable conditions paramoecium reproduce asexually by fission.

Question 13.
What type of reproduction occurs in paramoecium during unfavourable conditions?
Answer:
During unfavourable conditions paramoecium reproduce sexually by conjugation.

Question 14.
Which bacteria is responsible for formation of curd from milk?
Answer:
Lactobacillus bacteria is responsible for formation of curd from milk.

Question 15.
What is asexual reproduction?
Answer:
The reproduction in which a single parent is involved, without formation of gametes is known as asexual reproduction.

Question 16.
What is fission?
Answer:
Splitting of organisms into two or more offsprings in a symmetrical manner is known as fission. Ex: Paramoecium and bacteria.

Question 17.
How budding occurs in yeast?
Answer:

1. A bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at specific site.
2. These buds develop when fully mature, detach from the parent body and become new independent individuals.

Question 18.
Which animals reproduce through fragmentation?
Answer:
Fragmentation is a common mode of reproduction in Algae, Fungi and many land plants.

Question 19.
What is Regeneration?
Answer:

1. Many fully differentiated organisms have the ability to give rise to new individual organism from their body parts.
2. If the individual is some how cut or broken up into many pieces, many of these pieces grow into separate individuals. Ex: Hydra and planaria.

Question 20.
In which plant, small plants grow at the edge of leaves?
Answer:
In Bryophyllum, small plants grow at the edge of leaves.

Question 21.
By means of which plants propagate vegetatively through stem?
Answer:
Plants propagate vegetatively through stem by means of stolons, bulbs, corms, tuber etc.

Question 22.
Through which the Vallisneria, Strawberry propagate vegetatively?
Answer:
Vallisneria, Strawberry propagate vegetatively through stolons.

Question 23.
Which plants produce the new plants through roots?
Answer:
New plants are produced from the roots of Dahlia, radish, carrot etc.

Question 24.
What are the artificial propagation methods in plants?
Answer:
Cutting, Layering and Grafting are the artificial propagation methods in plants.

Question 25.
Which method is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters?
Answer:
Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.

Question 26.
Which method will you adopt to get two desirable characters from two different plants in a single plant?
Answer:
I will adopt grafting method to get two desirable characters from two different plants in a single plant.

Question 27.
Which fungus is commonly called as bread mould?
Answer:
Rhizopus is commonly called bread mould.

Question 28.
How bread mould appears when you observe it under microspore?
Answer:
The common bread mould consists of fine thread like projections called hyphae and thin knob like structures called Sporangia.

Question 29.
In which plants leaf is known as Sporophyll? Why?
Answer:
In fern plants leaf is known as Sporophyll. Because on the lower surface of the leaf sporangia are present.

Question 30.
What is fertilisation?
Answer:
Union of male and female gametes is known as fertilisation.

Question 31.
What is external fertilisation?
Answer:
If the fertilisation occurs outside the body of the organism then it is known as external fertilisation. Eg : Frog and fish.

Question 32.
What is internal fertilisation?
Answer:
If the fertilisation occurs inside the body of the female organism then it is known as internal fertilisation. Eg : Terrestrial animals (Reptiles, Aves, Mammals).

Question 33.
What are the parts present in male reproductive system of man?
Answer:
A pair of testis, Accessory glands and System of ducts.

Question 34.
The male reproductive organ testis produces?
Answer:
Testis produces male reproductive cells or spermatozoa.

Question 35.
Sperms are temporarily stored in which part of duct system?
Answer:
Sperms are temporarily stored in epididymis of duct system.

Question 36.
What are the accessory glands present in male reproductive system?
Answer:
The accessory glands present in male reproductive system are one prostrate gland . and two cow cowper glands.

Question 37.
The fluid secreted by accessory glands is
Answer:
The fluid secreted by the accessory glands is semen.

Question 38.
What is the function of semen?
Answer:
Semen provide nutrients for sperm to keep alive and helps as a medium for the movement of sperms.

Question 39.
Which hormone regulates the development of the male reproductive organs?
Answer:
The hormone testosterone regulates the development of the male reproductive organs.

Question 40.
How are the secondary sexual characters are controlled in males?
Answer:
Secondary sexual characters in males are controlled by the male sex hormone testosterone.

Question 41.
Men produce sperm from the age of about?
Answer:
Men produce sperm from the age of about 13 or 14 years and can go on doing so most their lives.

Question 42.
Which are capable of changing the sex of the organism in which they grow like wasp?
Answer:
Some bacteria and other micro-organisms have been found capable of changing the sex of the organism of wasp in which they live.

Question 43.
The female gamete ovum is produced by
Answer:
The female gamete ovum is produced by graffian follicles of Ovary.

Question 44.
What is ovulation?
Answer:
The release of ovum from graffian follicle is known as ovulation.

Question 45.
Fertilisation of ovum occurs in which part of female reproductive system?
Answer:
Fertilisation of ovum occurs in fallopian tube or oviduct of female reproductive system.

Question 46.
What is placenta?
Answer:
Placenta is the nourishment tissue formed by the outer membrane of the embryo called chorion and the part of the uterine tissue.

Question 47.
When do placenta is formed during the development of embryo?
Answer:
Placenta is formed at around 12 weeks of pregnancy or during the embryonic development.

Question 48.
What keeps embryo moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury?
Answer:
The embryo develop in amniotic fluid filled cavity which keeps it moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury.

Question 49.
Which membrane forms umbilical cord?
Answer:
Allantois membrane which originates from the digestive canal of the embryo forms the major part of tube like structure called umbilical cord.

Question 50.
What is foetus?
Answer:
From the third month of pregnancy the embryo is called foetus.

Question 51.
What is gestation period?
Answer:
Total time required for the development of embryo and foetus is called gestation period.

Question 52.
What is the gestation period in human beings?
Answer:
The gestation period in human beings is 9 months or 280 days.

Question 53.
Collect the information about gestation periods in different animals.
Answer:
Gestation period in different animals:

Question 54.
What is after birth?
Answer:
The muscular contractions of the uterus continue until they push out the tissues of the placenta, which are commonly called the ‘after birth’.

Question 55.
What are labour pains?
Answer:
The rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscle layers of the uterus is known as labour pains.

Question 56.
What is colostrum?
Answer:
Colostrum: During the end of pregnancy a watery yellowish lymph like fluid accumulates in the mammary glands. It is known as colostrum.

Question 57.
What is the importance of feeding colostrum to new born baby?
Answer:
It is very important to feed colostrum to the new born baby because it helps in developing the immune system of the child.

Question 58.
What is the need of sexual reproduction?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction help organisms to develop characters that would be help them to adapt better to their surroundings.

Question 59.
In which mountain regions can Sal trees grow?
Answer:
Sal trees grow in the Himalayan mountains.

Question 60.
What are the different parts of a flower?
Answer:
Sepals, petals, stamens and carpels are the different parts of a flower.

Question 61.
What are stamens and carpels?
Answer:
The reproductive parts of a flower which possess the sex cells or germ cells are called stamens and carpels.

Question 62.
What are unisexual flowers? Give examples.
Answer:
Flowers having either stamens or carpels are called unisexual flowers.
Eg: Bottlegourd, papaya.

Question 63.
What are Bisexual flowers? Give some examples.
Answer:
Flowers having both the stamen and carpel are called bisexual flowers. Eg: Datura.

Question 64.
What are the three parts of carpel or gynoecium?
Answer:
The three parts of carpel or gynoecium are ovary, style and stigma.

Question 65.
What is self pollination?
Answer:
Plants having flowers. Where reproductive cells of stamen of the flower fertilise the female reproductive cells of the carpel of the same flower is called self pollination.
Eg: Plants of pea family.

Question 66.
How cross fertilisation occurs?
Answer:
If the male cells of flower of a plant fertilise the female cells of flowers on the same or different plants of the same species, the type of pollination is called cross pollination.

Question 67.
What did Darwin showed regarding fertilization of plants?
Answer:
Darwin in 1876 showed that plants when isolated had the greatest tendency to self fertilize while when surrounded by varieties of the same flower, they readily cross fertilize.

Question 68.
Which cells are composed the embryosac of ovule?
Answer:
The embryosac of ovule composed of gametophyte cells.

Question 69.
How many cells and nuclei does an embryosac consisting in majority of flowering plants?
Answer:
The majority of flowering plants have an embryosac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.

Question 70.
What is double fertilisation?
Answer:
Double fertilisation: Union of one male nucleus with an egg and the second male nucleus with the fusion nucleus is called double fertilisation.

Question 71.
What is germination?
Answer:
The seed produced after fertilisation contains the future plant or embryo that develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions. This process is called germination.

Question 72.
Who gave the phrase “omnis cellula de cellula”? What does it mean?
Answer:
The ‘phrase omnis cellula de cellula’ means cells arise from pre-existing cells. It was given by Rudolph Virchow who discovered cell division.

Question 73.
Who stated that the animals can reproduce through binary fission of cells?
Answer:
In 1852 Robert Remak of Germany stated that animals can reproduce through binary fission of cells.

Question 74.
Who discovered the process of mitosis?
Answer:
Mitosis was discovered by Walther Flemming in 1879.

Question 75.
What is the most important discovery of Walther Flemming regarding chromosomes?
Answer:
Walther Flemming’s most important discovery was chromosomes appear double in nature.

Question 76.
Who proposed that chromosomes carried a different set of heritable elements?
Answer:
Wilhelm Roux proposed that chromosomes carried a different set of heritable elements.

Question 77.
What are the hypothesis made by August Weiseman on chromosomes?
Answer:

1. In successive generations, individuals of the same species have the same number of chromosomes.
2. In successive cell division the number of chromosomes always remain constant.

Question 78.
Who confirmed the scheme of mitotic division?
Answer:
The scheme of mitotic division was confirmed in 1904 by Theodor Boveri.

Question 79.
Who discovered the structure of DNA?
Answer:
The structure of (DNA) deoxy ribonucleic acid was discovered in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick.

Question 80.
The cells in which organ do not divide?
Answer:
Cells present in organs such as heart and brain of an individual never divide.

Question 81.
What is time required for completion of mitosis?
Answer:
The process of mitosis is completed in 40 to 60 minutes.

Question 82.
What is interphase?
Answer:
The period between two cell divisions is called interphase.

Question 83.
Into how many phases the interphase can be divided?
Answer:
Interphase can be divided into three phases. They are G₁ phase, S phase and G₂ phase.

Question 84.
What is G₁ phase of interphase?
Answer:
G₁ phase is the linking period between the completion of mitosis and the begining of DNA replication (Gap 1 phase).

Question 85.
What is S phase of interphase?
Answer:
S phase is the period of DNA synthesis leading to duplication of chromosomes.

Question 86.
What is G₂ phase of interphase?
Answer:
G₂ phase is the time between the end of DNA replication and the beginning of mitosis (Gap 2 phase).

Question 87.
Who conducted some experiments using the cell fusion technique on phases of interphase?
Answer:
Potu Narasimha Rao and Johnson conducted some experiments using the cell fusion technique to understand the functional relationship between the phases of interphase.

Question 88.
What is cytokinesis?
Answer:
Division of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.

Question 89.
What are the different stages present in mitosis?
Answer:
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase are the different stages present in mitosis.

Question 90.
In which phase of the mitosis chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids?
Answer:
In prophase of the mitosis chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids.

Question 91.
During which phase of mitosis chromatids are pulled towards poles?
Answer:
During anaphase of mitosis chromatids are pulled towards poles.

Question 92.
How many haploid daughter cells are formed after meiosis?
Answer:
Four haploid daughter cells are formed after meiosis.

Question 93.
What are the diseases that can be sexually transmitted?
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases include bacterial infections such as Gonorrhoea and Syphilis and Viral infections such as AIDS.

Question 94.
In what way the sexually transmitted diseases spread from person to person?
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases spread by unsafe sexual contacts, using infected devices, infected blood transfusion, from an infected mother to child.

Question 95.
Which state has the highest number of HIV patients in the country?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana has the highest number of HIV patients in the country.

Question 96.
Which factors are contributing to the spread of HIV in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Illiteracy, poor health, unemployment, migration, non-traditional sex practise, unethical contacts and trafficking are some of the factors contributing to the spread of HIV in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 97.
Expand “ASHA”.
Answer:
Accredited Social Health Activist.

Question 98.
What is Red ribbon express?
Answer:
Red Ribbon express is an AIDS/HIV awareness campaign train by the Indian Railways. The motto of the Red ribbon express is “Embarking on the Journey of Life”.

Question 99.
What is contraception?
Answer:
The prevention of pregnancy in women by preventing fertilisation is called contraception.

Question 100.
Which device not only prevents fertilisation but also transmitting some sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:
Condoms and diaphragm (cap) prevents fertilisation and also useful to not transmitting some sexually transmitted diseases like gonorrhoea, syphilis, AIDS.

Question 101.
What are spermicides?
Answer:
Spermicides are the pills used for killing sperms.

Question 102.
What are the surgical methods to birth control in males and females?
Answer:
Vasectomy for males and Tubectomy for female are the surgical birth control methods in human beings.

Question 103.
What is Vasectomy?
Answer:
In males, a small portion of vas deferens is removed by surgical operation ami both ends are tied properly. This method is called vasectomy.

Question 104.
What is Tubectomy?
Answer:
In females, a small portion of oviducts (fallopian tube) is removed by surgical operation and the cut ends are tied. This prevents the ovum from entering into the oviducts. This method is called Tubectomy.

Question 105.
What is the marriage age for girls in India?
Answer:
The marriage age for girls in India is 18 years.

Question 106.
What is foeticide?
Answer:
Foeticide is the act of destruction or aborting a foetus because it is female.

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the questions you asked the doctor who visited your school to know “the ways of transmission of HIV”?
Answer:
I shall ask the following questions to the doctor.

1. What are the ways of transmission of HIV?
2. How can we prevent the spread of HIV?
3. What precautions should we take while doing transfusion of blood:
4. How does HIV transmit from mother to baby?
5. Why should we use disposable syrenges?

Question 2.
The chromosomal number is reduced to half in the daughter cells produced by meiosis. What happens if the number is not reduced to half in daughter cells?
(OR)
In Meiosis, the chromosome number in the daughter cells are reduced to half that of their parent cells. Guess, what would happen, if the reduction of chromosome number is not done.
Answer:

1. If the reduction of chromosomes number is not done, the chromosomal number is doubled in the offsprings.
2. The change in chromosomal number leads to development of abnormal characters in the individual.
3. The offspring differs from parental generation.
4. Abnormal characters will be formed in new generation, which are not useful for the existence of individual.

Question 3.
What questions do you ask a doctor to know about different birth control methods?
Answer:

1. What is family planning?
2. What is meant by contraception?
3. How many types of contraceptive methods are there?
4. What are the contraceptive devices used for female?
5. What are the contraceptive devices used for male?
6. What is tubectomy?
7. What is vasectomy?
8. What are surgical methods of birth controls?

Question 4.
Apparao and Ramulamma are a newly married illiterate couple. They don’t want children for few years. Suggest some birth control methods for them.
(OR)
Mention any four birth control methods.
Answer:
a) condoms
b) diaphragm (Cap)
c) pills
d) copper – T
e) loop

Question 5.
Why is it important for gametes to have half the number of chromosomes?
Answer:

1. If gametes have 2 sets of chromosomes, the number of chromosomes will be 4 sets in zygote after fertilization because of this the chromosomal number will be doubled in each generation. This results in abnormalities in off-spring.
2. Hence, to maintain a constant number of chromosomes, garnets should have half set of chromosomes.

Question 6.
Identify the flower parts a, b, c, d and write their main function.
Answer:
a) Ovary: Female reproductive organ in flower. It produces female gametes called ovules.
b) Style: Ovary has a pipe like structure called style. It allows the pollen tube to enter the ovary for fertilization.
c) Stamen: These are male parts called androecium. It has two parts. They are filament and Anther.
d) Anther : Produces male gametes called pollen grain.

Question 7.
Draw and label the diagram of human sperm cell.
Answer:

Question 8.
How can we get the desired useful triats with the help of two selected triats by using grafting method?
Answer:

1. Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant.
2. One which is attached to soil is called stock and the cut stem of another plant without roots is called scion.
3. Both stock and scion are tied with the help of a twine thread and covered by a polythene cover.
4. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
5. This technique is very useful in propagating improved varieties of plants with various flowers and fruits. Ex: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.

Question 9.
Draw the labelled diagram of Embryo-sac A.
Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Which phases take same time duration?
Answer:
G₁ phase and S phase.
ii) In which phase, DMA synthesis takes place?
Answer:
S Phase.

Question 11.
Write the process involved in seedless fruit development with two suitable examples.
Answer:
In some plants ovary directly develops into fruit without the process of fertilization, this phenomenon is called as parthenocarypy.
Ex: Grapes, water melon.

Question 12.
What precautions will you take to keep away from diseases like AIDS and other sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:

1. Avoid sex with unknown partners or multiple partners.
2. Use condom every time.
3. Use disposable syringes and needles.
4. Transfusion of safe blood to the patients.
5. HIV mother can have child with doctor’s advice only.

Question 13.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Name male and female reproductive parts of the above figure.
Answer:
Male reproductive parts – anther / pollen grain / stamen
Female reproductive parts – ovary / ovule / style / stigma.

ii) Write the names of (1) and (2) in the diagram.
Answer:

1. Sepal or calyx
2. Petal or corolla

Question 14.
When does Parthenogenesis occur? Write names of two animals in which parthenogenesis takes place.
Answer:
a) Parthenogenesis is a process of reproduction where there is a shift from sexual to asexual mode of reproduction.
b) In this process generally the female garnets develops into zygote without fertilization.
c) This strange kind of reproduction occur in bees, ants and wasps.
d) The parthenocarpic zygote develop into male (Monoploid) while the fertilized one developed into female (Diploid)

Question 15.
Draw the figure of metaphase in mitosis, and write about it.
Answer:

1. Chromosomes move to spindle equator, centromeres attached to spindle fibres.
   
2. Centromeres split, separating the chromatids.

Question 16.
Prepare 4 questions on meiosis, to conduct a Quiz programme.
Answer:

1. Where does meiosis occur in?
2. How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
3. In which phase of meiosis karyokinesis takes place?
4. Name the scientist who discovered meiosis for the first time.

Question 17.
Write slogans on ‘Child marriages – a social evil’.
Answer:

1. Child marriage, a loosing game.
2. She is a child herself, why burden her with another child?
3. My childhood, my right.
4. A child should call ‘mother’ but a child should not be called mother.
5. Good marriages take place slowly. Go slow with children’s marriage.
6. Say no to child marriage.

Question 18.
Write 5 slogans on the prevention of HIV/AIDS.
Answer:

1. Open your eyes before AIDS closes them.
2. Hate the disease but not the diseased.
3. Spread the knowledge not the virus.
4. Wear protection to prevent infection.
5. AIDS brings pain! Girls please obstain.

Question 19.
What is fission? Give examples.
Answer:

1. Fission is a method of asexual reproduction in which a single-celled organism splits into two or more offsprings.
2. This splitting usually occurs in a symmetrical manner.
3. When an organism is split into two offsprings it is called binary fission.
4. When an organism is split into more offsprings, it is called multiple fission.
5. This is often the only mode of reproduction for single celled organisms.
   Ex : Paramoecium and bacteria.

Question 20.
Write a short notes on fragmentation.
Answer:

1. Fragmentation is a reproductive method in multicellular organisms with relatively simple body organisation.
2. Some can grow from a separate piece of parent organism. This can be from any part of the body.
3. This happens only in the simplest such as some flat-worms, moulds, lichens, spirogyra, etc.
4. Fragmentation is a common mode of reproduction in algae, fungi and many land plants.

Question 21.
What do you know about parthenogenesis? Explain with examples.
Answer:

1. Parthenogenesis is an asexual reproduction in which unfertilized eggs develop into offsprings.
2. In this process generally egg develops into new individual without meiosis and fertilization. So the offsprings are diploid.
3. In some species of animals reproduction occurs only through parthenogenesis. There are no males known in these species. Ex: Rotifers.
4. In another type of parthenogenesis meiosis does occur and the egg can develop whether fertilized or not.
5. The monoploid offsprings develop into males and diploid into females.
   Ex: Bees, Ants and Wasps.
6. Nowadays we are able to develop seed less fruits like watermelon, grapes, pomegranate etc.

Question 22.
Describe the vegetative propagation through the stem with examples.
Answer:

1. Production of new plants from the vegetative parts such as stem, root, leaves of the existing plant is called vegetative propagation.
2. Aerial weak stems like runners and stolons, when they touch the ground, give off adventitious roots.
3. When the connection with the parent plant is broken, the portion with the newly struck roots develops into an independent plant.
4. Some examples for propagation by stem are from stolons, bulbs, corms and tubers as follows.
   a) Stolons – Vallisneria, Strawberry
   b) Bulbs – Alliumcepa or onion
   c) Corms – Colacasia
   d) Tuber – Potato

Question 23.
Write short note on artificial propagation method cutting.
Answer:

1. Cutting is an artificial method of vegetative propagation in which new plants are developed from the cut portion of existing plant.
   
2. Some plants grow individually when a piece of the parent plant having bud is cut from the existing plant.
3. The lower part of this cutting is buried in moist soil.
4. After few days the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant.
   Ex: Rose, Hibiscus.

Question 24.
What is layering? Explain briefly about it.
Answer:

1. Stems that form roots while still attached to the parent plants are called layers. Propagating the plants in this method is layering.
2. A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and a part of it is covered with moist soil leaving the tip of the branch exposed above the ground.
3. After sometime, new roots develop from the part of the branch hurried in the soil.
4. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant, later it develops roots and grows to become a new plant. Ex: Nerium.

Question 25.
Write a short note on Grafting.
Answer:

1. Grafting is a method of artificial vegetative propagation in which two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant.
   
2. One which is attached to soil is called stock and the cut stem of another plant without roots is called scion.
3. Both stock and scion are tied with help of a twine thread and covered by a polythene cover.
4. After few days both will unite by forming new tissue and grow as a single one.
5. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
6. Plants in which grafting is done more in mango, apple, citrus, plants.

Question 26.
What are the advantages of grafting?
Answer:

1. Grafting enables us to combine the most desirable characteristics of the two plants (scion and stock) in its flower and fruits.
2. By grafting method, a very young scion can be made to flower and produce fruits quite fast when it is grafted to the stock.
3. Grafting can be used to produce varieties of seedless fruits.

Question 27.
How is tissue culture more beneficial than other traditional methods for the artificial propagation of plants? (OR)
What is tissue culture? What are its uses?
Answer:

1. The traditional methods for the artificial propagation of plants are being replaced by the modern methods of artificial propagation of plants involving tissue culture, as it is more beneficial than the traditional methods.
2. In tissue culture, a few plant cells or plant tissue are placed in a growth medium with plant hormones in it and it grows into new plants.
3. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short interval of time.
4. There will be no climatic impact on the propagation, so multiplication can be done throughout the year.
5. It is possible to obtain plants that are free from pathogens.

Question 28.
How does the Rhizopus propagate?
Answer:

1. Rhizopus propagates by means of spores.
   
2. The Rhizopus parent plant produces hundreds of microscopic reproductive units called spores.
3. When the spore case of the plant bursts, the spores spread into air.
4. These air borne spores fall on food or soil, under favourable conditions like damp and warm conditions, they germinate and produce new plants.

Question 29.
Write a short note on spore formation. (OR)
How spores are produced in sporangia of fungi?
Answer:

1. Spore formation is a method of asexual reproduction which occurs through microscopic reproductive units called spores.
2. Most of the fungi like rhizopus, mucor etc., bacteria and non-flowering plants such as ferns and mosses reproduce by the method of spore formation.
3. In fungi like rhizopus spores are produced in some specialised structures called sporangia which bursts and spreads the spores into air. These spores when fall on food or soil under favourable conditions germinate and produce new plants.
4. In non-flowering plants like fern, the leaves called sporophyll bears clusters of sporangia on their lower side. These sporangia produce the spores which produce the new plant when it falls on ground under favourable conditions.

Question 30.
How is external fertilisation different from internal fertilisation? (OR)
What are the differences between external and internal fertilisation?
Answer:

1. Fertilisation that takes place outside the body of mother is called external fertilisation. This is most common in animals like fishes and amphibians. As the chance of fertilisation is controlled by nature it becomes necessary to give rise to vast number of eggs and sperms by these animals.
2. Fertilisation that takes place inside the body of mother is called internal fertilisation. This is common in most of the land animals. As the chance of fertilisation is not controlled by the nature, these animals generally produce less number of eggs.

Question 31.
Write a short note on ovulation. (OR)
What is ovulation? How it occurs?
Answer:

1. Release of the egg or ovum is called ovulation.
2. The ova develop in tiny cellular structures in ovary called follicles, which at first look like cellular bubbles.
3. As a follicle grows, it develops a cavity filled with fluid.
4. Each follicle contains a single ovum.
5. When an ovum is mature, the follicle ruptures at the surface of the ovary and the tiny ovum is flushed out.
6. This release of ovum is called ovulation.

Question 32.
How does the uterus get adapted to receive the embryo?
Answer:

1. The uterus at the time of fertilization is beautifully adapted to receive the developing embryo, providing it with food and disposing of its wastes.
2. A few days prior to this time, the uterus was small, its tissues were thin, and its supply of blood vessels was poor.
3. When the fertilized egg or zygote is about to enter the uterus become much larger, its inner wall becomes thick, soft and moist with fluid, its blood supply is greatly increased and waiting for an embryonic occupant.

Question 33.
What is colostrum? What is its importance?
Answer:

1. During the end of pregnancy, a watery lymph like fluid accumulates in the mammary glands.
2. This is called colostrum.
3. For the first few days after the baby is born, the mammary glands secrete only colostrum.
4. It is very important to feed the new born baby with colostrum because it helps in developing the immune system of the child.

Question 34.
What is the importance of mitosis in human beings?
Answer:

1. Mitosis is the cell division that transforms a human fertilized egg into a baby in nine months and into an adult in the next 20 years.
2. The bone marrow cells actively divide by mitosis to produce red blood cells.
3. Mitosis helps in replacing the worn out cells in the skin.
4. Mitotic divisions in the cells surrounding the wound helps in cease the wound and healing.

Question 35.
Collect the information about the significance of the experiments done by Dr Potu Narasimha Rao and Johnson.
Answer:

1. Nearly 4 decades back Dr.P.N. Rao and Johnson did some elegant experiments using the cell fusion technique to understand the functional relationship between the phases of cell cycle.
2. These experiments have, for the first time provided evidence that the progression of cells through the cell cycle is sequential and unidirectional and are controlled by a series of chemical signals that can diffuse freely between nucleus and cytoplasm.
3. These experiments revealed for the first time the structure of interphase chromosomes that are not ordinarily visible under the microscope.
4. These experiments are considered to be a ‘milestone’ in the cell cycle studies.

Question 36.
Ramu said that it is very essential to create more awareness in Andhra Pradesh on the risk of HIV infection and AIDS. Do you support him? If so, how can you support his statement?
Answer:
Yes, what Ramu said is right. I support his statement with the following reasons.

1. Andhra Pradesh has the highest number of HIV patients in the country.
2. According to official statistics, the state had 5 lakh of the 24 lakh HIV positive patients
   in the country during 2011-12.
3. While one in every 300 adults is suffering from HIV elsewhere, in Andhra Pradesh one in every 100 adults is a HIV patient, that is almost one per cent.
4. The prevalence of HIV is 1.07 per cent among males and 0.73 among females in the state, which again is higher than in other states.

Question 37.
Briefly explain about the contraception and contraceptive methods.
Answer:
The prevention of pregnancy in the woman by preventing fertilisation is called contraception. Any device or chemical which prevents pregnancy in a woman is called a contraceptive. Contraceptive methods are of various types and used by any of the partners as preferable. Some of the contraceptive methods are:

1. Use of physical devices such as condoms and diaphragm (cap).
2. Use of hormonal pills which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into oviduct.
   These pills can be induced either orally or inserting into female reproductive organ vagina.
3. Use of spermicides that kills the sperms.
4. Use of intra-uterine device called copper – T, loop, etc.
5. Use of surgical methods such as vasectomy for male and tubectomy for female.

Question 38.
Classify the given organisms basing on the type of reproduction.
Man, Flatworm, Mould, Dog, Bacteria, Frog, Fern, Datura, Hen, Yeast.
Answer:

Question 39.
What will happen if the amnion is ruptured before the foetus is developed completely?
Answer:

1. Amnion is the embryonic membrane that grows around the embryo itself.
2. The cavity within the amnion is filled with a fluid called amniotic fluid, which keeps the growing embryo moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury.
3. If the amnion ruptures by accident before the foetus developed completely, the amniotic fluid is released out through vagina.
4. As there is no protective fluid around the foetus, it starts getting damaged.
5. So if possible delivery must done immediately by surgerical method, otherwise abortion must be done.
6. If baby dies inside the uterus which leads to infections in uterus causing problems
   to mother that leads to death.

Question 40.
How will you appreciate the contribution of August Weiseman to the cell biology?
Answer:

1. Science is not advanced only by the collection of data. Someone must think about and interpret the data. August Weiseman belongs to this category who think and interpret the data.
2. Even though his poor eyesight not allowed him to use a microscope to study cells, he made great contribution to the cell biology making use of his thinking capacity and interpretation skills.
3. He hypothesised that
   a) In successive generations, individuals of the same species have the same number of chromosomes.
   b) In successive cell division, the number of chromosomes remains constant.
4. His hypothesis proved right in case of mitosis.
5. We should take such a great person who overcame his defect with his will as our role model.

Question 41.
How will you appreciate the contribution of Dr. P.N. Rao to the ceil biology?
Answer:

1. Dr. Potu Narasimha Rao, a renowned scholar and eminent cytologist came from a poor family in Muppalla village of Guntur district.
2. He did his research work on the cytogenetics of tobacco plant and cancer cells in culture medium.
3. He conducted research in cell kinematics and triggering factor of cell division i.e., mitosis.
4. He observed the interphase and its three phases.
5. To understand the functional relationship between these phases he did elegant experiments on cell fusion technique along with his research associate Dr.Johnson.
6. His researches revealed that the cell cycle is sequential, unidirectional and controlled by a series of chemical signals.
7. His experiments are considered to be a milestone in the cell cycle.
8. He is an exemplary person who proved that poverty is not a barrier to the talent and wisdom.

Question 42.
Write briefly about natural vegetative propagation in plants.
Answer:

1. In natural vegetative propagation new plants are produced from stem, root, leaves of old plants without the help of any reproductive organs.
2. In bryophyllum small plants grow at the edge of leaves.
3. Aerial weak stems like runners stolons, when they touch the ground give it adventitious roots.
4. When the connection with the parent plant is broken the stem portion with the adventitious roots develops into an independent plant.
5. Some examples for propagation by stem are from stolons, bulbs, corms, tuber etc.
   
6. Stolons – Vallisneria, strawberry.
   Bulbs – Onion (Alliumcepa)
   Corms – Colacasia
   Tuber – Potato

Question 43.
What are sexually transmitted diseases and mention the ways to prevent them?
Answer:

1. A disease which can be transmitted through sexual contact is called sexually transmitted disease or STD.
2. These include bacterial infections such as gonorrhoea, syphilis, Herpis and viral infections such as herpes and AIDS.
3. Lack of hygiene is usually a major factor in providing conditions for spread of STDs.
4. But unprotected sex with multiple and unknown partners is the highest reason for the spread of STDs.
5. Some of the ways to prevent STD are as follows.
   a) Being faithful to one’s life partner.
   b) Avoid sexual contact with unknown person.
   c) Using condom during sexual intercourse.
   d) Maintaining personal hygiene.

Question 44.
Why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individual through regeneration ?
Answer:

1. Many organisms have the ability to give rise to new individual organisms from their body parts.
2. Regeneration happens through mitosis and a particular type of tissue can give rise to its own kind only.
3. In complex organisms, different tissues and organs have altogether different structures.
4. Regenerating a different kind of tissue from another kind is not possible.
5. Hence complex organisms are not able to give rise to new individuals through regeneration.

Question 45.
How an organism will be benefited if it reproduces through spores?
Answer:

1. Reproduction through spores gives several advantages to an organism like they are produced in very large numbers and it helps in propagation of species.
2. Spores can remain dormant till favourable conditions become available.
3. Spores help an organism to overcome unfavourable conditions.
4. Spores can be spread through water, air or animals and thus is good for the spread of an organism to more places.

Question 46.
What is the role of the placenta in embryo development?
Answer:

1. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother.
2. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy and becomes an important structure for nourishment of the embryo.
3. Placenta is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue.
4. On the other side mother’s blood spaces are present.
5. This provides a large surface area for diffusion of glucose, oxygen and other nutrients from the mother of the embryo.

Question 47.
Why do we practise vegetative propagation for growing some types of plants?
(OR)
Why vegetative propagation is adopted over other types of propagation?
Answer:
Vegetative propagation is practised in some plants because

1. It is the only method of reproduction in seed less plants.
2. We get more number of matured plants in a very short time.
3. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short time.
4. This method can help the breeder in preserving the characters he need.
5. It is very easy and economical method for the multiplication of ornamental plants.

Question 48.
What is Mitosis? Which type of cells it occurs in organisms? Write about the different stages of it.
Answer:

1. Mitosis is a method of cell division, in which the nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei.
2. Each containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus.
3. Mitosis takes place in all body cells which retains same number of chromosomes.
4. Different stages of mitosis:
   1. Prophase
   2. Metaphase
   3. Anaphase
   4. Telophase

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the changes involved in the formation of seed from Ovule.
(OR)
Pollen grain reached the stigma of a flower. Explain the changes that occurs up to the formation of seeds in a sequence.
Answer:
Process of double fertilization:

1. At the time of fertilization there will be a total of 7 cells arranged in three groups in a mature embryo sac.
2. They are one egg (female garnet) two synergids, one central cell (secondary or polar nucleus) and three antipodals.
3. While all the cells are in haploid (n) condition only the polar nucleus is diploid (2n). This is due to the fusion of two nuclei.
4. The synergids are also known as helper cells.
5. Fertilization is the process of fusion of male and female gametes. For the fusion pollen grains have to reach the surface of the stigma. This is called pollination.
   
6. Pollen grain received by the stigma, germinate and give rise to pollen tubes. The pollen tube has two male nuclei.
7. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through microphyle and discharges the two male gametes into the embryo sac.
8. One male nucleus (garnet) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form diploid (2n) zygote this is called first fertilization.
9. The other male nucleus reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) (polar nucleus) and fuses with it to form endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization. Thus double fertilization occurs in embryosac.
   Changes after double fertilization:
10. After double fertilization, the ovule increases in size rapidly as a result of formation of endosperm tissue by mitosis and the development of new embryo.
11. The embryo consists of cotyledons an epicotyl and a hypocotyl. The cotyledons become greatly enlarged because of stored food for the seedling.
12. The zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat and is converted into a seed. The ovary grows to form a fruit.

Question 2.
Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions.
i) What are the four main parts of a flower?
Answer:
Calyx, Corolla, Androecium and Gynoecium are the main parts of a flower.

ii) Which parts of the flower produces gametes?
Answer:
Androecium and gynoecium produces gametes.

iii) Which parts of the flower help in pollination?
Answer:
Petals or corolla help flower in pollination.

iv) Which part protect the flower during its bud stage?
Answer:
Sepals or calyx protect flower in bud stage.

v) Which part of the flower will turn into a fruit in the future?
Answer:
Ovary of the flower will change into fruit.

Question 3.
Organisms reproduce asexually in many ways. Some of the organisms are given below. Fill the below table based on the collected information about the organism and mode of asexual reproduction in it.
a) Onion b) Spirogyra c) Strawberry d) Ginger e) Honey-bee f) Paramoecium g) Planaria h) Yeast

Answer:

Question 4.
i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of L.S. of flower.
ii) What are the sexual parts in the flower ?
Answer:
i)
ii) A. Androecium or Stamen
B. Gynoecium or Pistil

Question 5.
Read carefully and answer the following questions.

According to Weismann prediction, every organism undergoes two kinds of cell divisions. In Mitosis, there is no change in chromosomal number (2n) and in Meiosis, chromosomal number is reduced to half (n).

i) What does ‘n’ and ‘2n’ indicate?
Answer:
‘n’ indicates haploid state. ‘2n’ indicates diploid state.

ii) In which cells, Meiosis takes place?
Answer:
Meiosis occurs in sex cells during the formation of gametes.

iii) What happens, if chromosomal number is not reduced in Meiosis?
Answer:
The chromosomal number not constant in successive generations.

iv) Which type of cell division occurs in the skin cells?
Answer:
Mitosis

Question 6.
Observe the diagram and answer the following.

i) Which part produce the female gamete?
Answer:
Ovary

ii) Where does the fertilization takes place in female reproductive system?
Answer:
Fallopian tube

iii) Where does the embryo develops until it is ready to born?
Answer:
Uterus

iv) In some cases doctor’s cut and tie the cut ends of the fallopian tubes. What is the name of surgery?
Answer:
Tubectomy

Question 7.
Briefly explain the stages of cell cycle.
Answer:
The process of cell division is called “mitosis”. The period between two cell divisions is called “Interphase”.
This is actually the period when the genetic material makes it’s copy so that it is equally distributed to the daughter cells during mitosis. Interphase can be devided into three phases.
G₁ Phase: This is the linking period between the completion of mitosis and the beginning of DNA replication (GAP-1 Phase). The cell size increase during this period.
S Phase: This is the period of DNA synthesis (Synthesis phase) leading duplication of chromosomes.
G₂ Phase: This is the time between the end of DNA replication and the beginning of mitosis. Cell organells devide and prepare chromosome for mitosis.

Question 8.
i) Draw a labelled diagram of the human male reproductive system.
ii) What is the function of testosterone?
Answer:
i) Male reproductive system:
ii) The function of testosterone hormone is maintaining of secondary sexual chracters in males.

Question 9.
Describe the life cycle of a flowering plant with a help of neat labelled diagrams. (OR) Draw the life cycle of a flowering plant.
Answer:

1. Adult plant produces flowers:
   When the plant matures and is ready to reproduce, it develops flowers. Flowers are special structures involved in sexual reproduction, which includes pollination and fertilisation.
   
2. Pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called pollination.
3. Fertilisation:
   i) After pollen grains falls on the stigma fertilization occurs when the male gamete present in pollen grains joins with the female gametes present in the ovule.
   ii) In the ovary the male nucleus of pollen combines with the nucleus of female gamete or egg present to form zygote.
4. Formation of fruit and seed: After fertilisation, a combined cell i.e. zygote grows into an embryo within a seed formed by the ovule.
5. Each seed contains a tiny plant called an embryo which has root, stem and leaf parts ready to grow into a new plant when conditions are favourable.
6. Another part of the flower (the ovary) grows to form fruit, which protects the seeds and helps them spread away from the parent plant to continue the cycle.

Question 10.
Analyze the following information and answer the following questions.

i) What do you call the given reproduction methods?
Answer:
Given reproduction methods are called ‘vegetative propagation’.

ii) What is the major difference between sexual reproduction and vegetative reproduction in plants?
Answer:
In sexual reproduction gametes form zygote. Plant parts like root, stem and leaf are used in vegetative reproduction. It is one of asexual method.

iii) Potato plants do not produce seeds. How can you propagate this plant?
Answer:
Potato plants propagates through the ‘eyes’.

iv) What are the advantages of propagating plants with the above given methods?
Answer:
In vegetative propagation

1. More plants are produced in less time
2. Characters are not changed.
3. It would be possible to develop new varieties with useful characters.

Question 11.
Explain the methods of artificial propagation in various plants.
Answer:
Artificial propagation:

1. Cutting: Some plants can grow individually when a piece of the parent plant having bud is cut off from the existing plant. The lower part of this cutting is buried in moist soil.
   
   After few days the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant after developing roots. E.g. Rose, Hibiscus.
2. Layering: A branch of the plant with atleast one node is bent towards the ground and part of it is covered with moist soil. After a few days new roots develop from the part of the branch buried in the soil. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant.
   E.g: Nerium, Jasmine
   
3. Grafting: Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant. This technique is very useful in propagating improved varieties of various flowers and fruits. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable character. E.g: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.
   

Question 12.
Observe the following figures and find the stages of cell division and explain.
Answer:
In the mitotic cell division, the division of nucleus (karyokinesis) followed by the division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis). Finally brings about the formation of two daughter cells. There are four stages in mitosis division.
They are

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

Question 13.
Mention the stages of Mitosis with the help of diagrams. Explain the changes that takes place in Prophase.
Answer:
Mitosis is a method of cell division, in which the nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei each containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus. Mitosis takes place in all body cells which retains same number of chromosomes.
Different stages of mitosis:
1) Prophase 2) Metaphase 3) Anaphase 4) Telophase

1) Prophase

1. In this phase chromosomes condense and get coiled.
2. They become visible even in light microscope.
3. Nucleoli becomes smaller.
4. Chromosome split lengthwise to form chromatids, connected by centromeres.
5. Nuclear membrane breaks down.
6. Centrosome containing rod like centrioles, divide and form ends of spindle.

Question 14.
Describe the process of double fertilization in plants. Explain the uses of endosperm that is formed.
Answer:
Double fertilization:

1. In flowering plant germinated pollen grain forms pollen tube.
2. The end of the pollen tube ruptures and two male garnets are released in the Embryosac.
3. Out of two male garnets one male garnet fuses with female garnet which is called fertilization.
4. Another male garnet fuses with the secondary nucleus and forms endosperm.
5. So in flowering plant fertilization occures twice hence it is called double fertilization.

Uses of Endosperm:

1. Cotyledons develops by utilizing endosperm.
2. The Cotyledons utilizes the stored food in the endosperm.
3. Some of the plants utilizes the endosperm completely and changes in to seed.
4. Because of the stored food the size of the cotyledons increases.

Question 15.
Explain any two natural and two artificial vegetative propagation methods to produce more number of plants in less time period with examples.
Answer:
Natural propagation:
i) Leaves – Small plant grow at the edge of the leaves. Ex: Bryophyllum
ii) Stems:
a) Stolon – Ex: Jasmine, strawberry b) Bulbs – Ex: Onion
c) Corns – Ex: Colocasia d) Rhizome – Ex: Ginger e) Tuber – Ex: Potato
iii) Root – Ex: Roots of murayya, guava
Artificial propagation:
Cutting: Some plants can grow individual when a piece of parent plant having bud is cut off from the existing plants. Ex: Rose, Hibiscus.
Layering: A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and a part of it is covered with moist soil leaving the tip of the branch exposed above the ground. Ex: Nerium, Jasmine.
Grafting: Two plants are joint together in such a way that stems join and grow as a single plant one which is attached to soil is called stock and stem of another plant without roots is called scion. Both stock and scion are tied with a twine thread and cover by a polythene cover. Ex: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.

Question 16.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

i) Name the structure concerned to the heart.
Answer:
Tricuspid valve

ii) What is the function of acrosome?
Answer:
It helps the sperm in penetrating into ovum.

iii) Name the structures which are helpful for gaseous exchange.
Answer:
Alveoli and guard cells

iv) Name the part performing Excretion.
Answer:
Glomerulus

Question 17.
a) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Human female reproductive system.
b) What happens when the Fallopian tubes are closed?
Answer:
a) Female reproductive system
b) If fallopian tubes are closed the sperm can not reach the ova, fertilization will not happen and zygote will not form.

Question 18.
Observe the following table.

On the basis of information given in the table write- the answers to the following questions.
i) Write the names of two organisms that show Asexual reproduction.
Answer:
Yeast, Hydra, Bacteria, Paramoecium (any two you may write)

ii) Write two artificial vegetative propagation methods mentioned in the table.
Answer:
Cutting, Grafting

iii) Write the names of two plants, which undergo natural vegetative propagation mentioned in the table.
Answer:
Ginger, Turmeric

iv) In fission, how many organisms can we get from one organism?
Answer:
Two

Question 19.
Among the following organisms can we see asexual reproduction? Write about the method of asexual reproduction in any of the two organisms.
Answer:
а) Paramoecium b) Yeast c) Spirogyra d) Amoeba e) Planaria
Yes, we can see asexual reproduction in all the following organisms.

Method of asexual reproduction – Organism
Binary fission                                – Paramoecium, amoeba
Budding                                        – Yeast
Fragmentation                              – Spirogyra
Regeneration                                – Planaria

1) Binary fission in Paramoecium: A single cell divides into two equal daughter cells. First the cytoplasm divides into two parts followed by nuclear division.
2) Asexual reproduction in Yeast: Budding is the common method of asexual reproduction in yeast. In this method, yeast cell wall at a particular region becomes soft and bulges into an outgrowth called bud. Cytoplasm enters into this bulge and then nucleus divides mitotically into two nuclei, one moves into the bud. Finally bud is detached from the parent cell and grows into an independent yeast cell.

Question 20.
See the adjacent picture. Which type of pollination will occur in this ? Why do you think so?
Answer:

1. Self-pollination occurs if stamens and carpels matures at the same time.
2. If they mature at different times, cross pollination occurs.
3. Cross pollination occurs in this plant.
4. For cross pollination the pollen grains are carried from other plants belonging to the same species.
5. The mechanism of dispersal of pollen grains from one plant to other plant is facilitated mostly by wind and insects.
6. Cross pollination is believed to be advantageous for the plant.
7. The seeds produced by the flower will contain another source of genetic material
8. Which may contain genes which are advantageous to the survival of the seedlings.

Question 21.
What are the consequences if meiosis do not happen in the body cells of the organism?
Answer:

1. Each organism has a fixed number of chromosomes.
2. This number has to be maintained in its offspring.
3. Any sudden change in the number of chromosomes will be harmful to the offspring. Assume parent has 10 chromosomes.
4. In the absence of meiosis during sexual reproduction gametes will also have the same number of chromosomes as parent i.e., 10 chromosomes.
5. Union of female and male gametes occur forming zygote during sexual reproduction. The number of chromosomes doubled in zygote will have 10+10 chromosomes.
6. In the next generation, the offspring will have forty chromosomes. If this continues cells in the offsprings will have thousands of chromosomes within few generation.
7. This results in formation of abnormalities in each generation. Hence by way of meiotic division, the chromosome number is maintained constant from generation to generation.

Question 22.
Describe different artificial vegetative methods to produce large scale production of plants.
Answer:

1. Different artificial vegetative propagation methods are cutting, layering, grafting and tissue culture methods.
2. Cutting: Some plants grow individually when a piece of parent plant having bud is cut from the existing plant. After burying in the soil the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant after developing roots. E.g. Rose.
3. Layering: A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and part of it is covered with moist soil. After sometime, new roots develop from the part of the branch hurried in the soil. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant. E.g: Nerium.
4. Grafting: Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant. This technique is very useful in propagating improved vari¬eties of various flower and fruits. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable character. E.g: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.
5. Tissue culture: In this method, few plant cells or plant tissues are placed in a growth medium with plant hormones in it and it grows into new plants. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short interval of time.

Question 23.
i) Labelled parts of A, B, C, D above drawn Human female reproductive system.

ii) In which part fertilization takes place?
iii) Which part is in connection with implantation?
iv) What is ovulation?
Answer:
i) A: Fallopian tube
B: Ovary
C: Uterus
D: Vagina
ii) Fertilization takes place in fallopian tube.
iii) Uterus
iv) Release of ovum from graffian follicle of ovary is known as ovulation.

Question 24.
Write some programmes conducted by you to bring awareness in the people about health and hygeine and family planning?
Answer:

1. Organising Health camps on World Health day to people of the village.
2. Conducting immunisation programs for every three months.
3. Supplying tablets on the deworming day.
4. Organising seminars by expert doctors on individual health and cleanliness programs.
5. Propagating small family norms conducting camps for family planning operations.
6. Educating the masses through pamplets on the needs of taking balanced diet.
7. Need of using toilets and washing hands and legs before and after meals.
8. Educating the people by conducting adult education centres. This is basically required for enlightening the people on health aspects.

Question 25.
Government made an act on determining sex through ultrasound scanning and telling it as crime. What do you do to tell this to others?
Answer:

1. I will educate people knowing the sex of foetus inside mother’s womb is a severe crime as per the act made by government.
2. The purpose of ultrasound tests are to know the growing condition of the foetus and also to see whether it is suffering with severe ailments.
3. By knowing the sex of the foetus, if it is female people are ready for aborting it.
4. This leads to reduction in male female ratio in the country.
5. Children either male or female are equal to parents.
6. We should see proper development of girl child after her birth.

Question 26.
Write about the embryonic membranes that nourish, protect and support to the embryo?
Answer:

1. The growing embryo form two membranes – Chorion and Amnion.
2. Chorion establishes connection with the walls of the uterus and helps in the supply of nutrients to the embryo and in the removal of wastes from the embryo.
3. Amnion forms a sac like structure around the embryo and amniotic fluid is present between layers of Amnion.
4. Amnion and Amniotic fluid give protection to the embryo against mechanical shocks.
5. Placenta is a tissue formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy by the cells from the embryo and mother.
6. Embryo receives all the required nutrients and oxygen for its metabolism from the mother through the blood vessels present in the placenta.
7. Another membrane called allantois, which originates from the digestive canal of the embryo forms the major part of a tube like structure called umbilical cord.
8. Umbilical cord contains very important blood vessels that connect the embryo with the placenta.

Question 27.
Write brief history of cell division.
Answer:

1. In 1852 a German scientist, Robert Remak published his observations on cell division and stated that the binary fission of cells was the means of reproduction of animal cells.
2. This view was widely publicized by Rudolf Virchow who gave the phrase “Omnis cellulade cellula” means all cells arising from pre existing cells.
3. In 1879 Walther Flemming reported that there were string like structures in the nucleus which split longitudinally during cell division. He named the process as mitosis means fine threads as the dividing structures resembled threads.
4. Wilhelm Roux proposed that each chromosome carried a different set of heritable elements and suggested that the longitudinal splitting observed by Flemming ensured the equal division of these elements.
5. Combined with the rediscovery of Gregor Mendel’s 1866 paper on heritable elements in peas, these results highlighted the central role of the chromosomes in carrying heritable material or genetic material.
6. The scheme of mitotic division was confirmed in 1904 by Theodor Boveri.
7. The chemical nature of the genetic material was determined in a series of experiments over the next fifty years.
8. The structure of DNA – the constituent of the genetic material was determined in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick.

Question 28.
Explain briefly about child birth. (OR) How child birth occurs after gestation period?
Answer:

1. Total time required for the embryonic and foetal development is about 9 months or 280 days.
2. After this time, foetus is expelled from the uterus by the mother. This is child birth.
3. Child birth is a complicated process and involves the participation of child and mother.
4. The foetal hormones produced inside, stimulate the contraction of the muscles present in the walls of uterus.
5. These contractions called labour pains help in the expulsion of the foetus from the uterus.
6. During this process the amnion ruptures, placenta is separated from the walls of J the uterus.
7. At child birth the head usually comes out first.
8. The foetus is still attached to the mother’s uterus through the umbilical cord, which is later separated by the doctors.

Question 29.
Draw the life history of flowering plant in the form of block diagram.
Answer:
Life history of a flowering plant:

Question 30.
In a flower self fertilization takes place. Write the process, the flower organs which involve in self fertilization.
Answer:

1. Fusion of male and female gametes produced by the same individual is called self fertilization.
2. Self ferlization occurs in bisexual flowering plants.
3. The flower organs which involve in self fertilization are stamens (androecium) and carpels (Gynoecium).
4. Majority of flowering plants have an embryo sac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.
   
5. The pollen grains produced by anther of stamen are transferred to the stigma of the same flower by wind or insects.
6. The stigma of the carpel secretes a sticky substance which promotes the growth of pollen grains.
7. Under favourable conditions pollen grains germinate on the stigma and give rise to pollen tubes.
   Only one pollen tube finally reaches the embryo sac.
8. This pollen tube will have two male nuclei, which migrate to the tip of the pollen tube at the time of fertilization. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle and discharges the two male gametes into its embryo-sac.
9. One male nucleus (gamete) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form a diploid zygote. This is first fertilization.
10. The other male nucleus reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) and fuses with it to form the endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization in the embryo sac.
11. Thus double fertilization occurs in embryo sac which is unique in flowering plants.

Question 31.
Describe the structure of flower with a neatly labelled diagram.
Answer:

1. A typical flower consists of an outer whorl of green sepals (calyx) which protects the parts with in.
2. The second whorl has petals (corolla) which are usually brightly coloured. They sometimes emit fragrance also.
3. Petals are soft and are useful to attract insects to facilitate cross pollination.
   
4. The third whorl of the flower consists of stamens (Androecium) which are the male reproductive organs.
5. Each stamen is made up of a filament and an anther.
6. Each anther usually has two anther lobes. The anther produces pollen grains (microspores).
7. The inner most fourth whorl is gynoecium or pistil. It consists of ovary, style and stigma.
8. Ovary occupies central portion on the thalamus. A swollen ovary is present on the thalamus.
9. Inside the ovary future seeds, known as ovules are present.
10. Ovary has a pipe like extension called style. The tip of the style ends in stigma. The stigma receive the pollen grains.

Question 32.
Write a brief note on male reproductive system of human beings.
Answer:

1. The male reproductive system of human beings consists of a pair of testis, accessory glands and a system of ducts.
2. Testis are male reproductive organs and produces spermotozoa or sperms and also secretes male sex hormone Testosterone.
   
3. Inside each testis several lobules are present. Each lobule has several tubules called seminiferous tubules.
4. Germinal epithelial cells in the seminiferous tubules undergo meiotic division to produce sperms.
5. The accessory glands include one prostrate gland and two cowper glands. Secretion of these glands produce semen.
6. The duct system consists of vasa efferentia.
   They collect spermatozoa from seminiferous tubules.
7. Vasefferentia continue as epididymis where sperms are stored temporarily.
8. From epididymis sperms moved into tubule called vas deference and then into urethra.

Question 33.
Describe the female reproductive system in human beings.
Answer:

1. A pair of ovaries, oviducts, uterus and vagina are the parts present in female reproductive system.
2. Ovaries are present just below the Kidneys in the abdominal cavity.
3. Each ovary has several sac like structures called ovarian follicles or Graffian follicles.
   
4. Every time only one follicle matures and release one ovum into the body cavity.
5. Ovaries secrete two female sex hormones called oestrogen and progesterone which control the development of female reproductive organs, ovulation and menstruation.
6. Just above the ovaries are the tubes called oviducts or fallopian tubes where fertilisation takes place.
7. The two oviducts connect to a bag like organ called uterus at their other ends.
8. The uterus is connected through a narrow opening called cervix to another tube called vagina which opens to the outside of the body.
9. Vagina is a tubular structure and is also called birth canal because it is through this passage that the baby is born after the completion of development inside the uterus of the mother.

Question 34.
Describe briefly about the reduction division or meiosis.
(OR)
Why meiosis is also known as reduction division? Comment on it.
Answer:

1. Meiosis occurs only during the formation of gametes in sexual reproduction.
2. During meiosis only one set of chromosomes are passed on to the daughter cells. Hence daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes of the mother cells.
   
3. In meiosis karyokinesis and cytokinesis occur two times.
4. During first phase of meiosis the parent cell divides twice, though the chromosomes divide only once.
5. The second phase meiosis is similar to normal mitosis, but chromosomes do not duplicate more over the chromosome number distributed equally to each cells.
6. Thus the four daughter cells have just half the number of chromosomes of the parent cells.
7. These are haploid (containing only one set of chromosomes).
8. Thus meiotic division is also called reduction division.

Question 35.
Describe the developmental stages of human embryo after fertilization with the help of neatly labelled diagrams.
Answer:

1. During fertilization, chromosomes of the ovum and the chromosomes of the sperm make up into pairs and the resulting cell is called zygote.
2. Fertilization takes place in the oviduct or fallopian tube.
   
3. The zygote which is diploid travels down the fallopian tube. As it moves it undergoes several mitotic divisions forming the embryonic stage called blastocyst.
4. Blastocyst moves towards the wall of the uterus and finally gets attached and embedded in the wall of the uterus. This is called implantation.
5. The growing embryo forms two membranes Chorion and Amnion.
6. Chorion establishes connection with the walls of the uterus and helps in the supply of nutrients to the embryo and removal of wastes from the embryo.
7. Amnion forms a sac like structure around the embryo. The space between the amnion and embryo is filled with a fluid called amniotic fluid.
8. Amnion and amniotic fluid give protection to the embryo against minor mechanical injury.
9. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy.
10. Placenta nourishes the growing embryo.
    
11. A tough cord called umbilical cord is also formed by the embryo which is connected to the walls of the uterus through the placenta.
12. From 3 months of pregnancy, the embryo is called foetus.
13. Pregnancy lasts on an average 9 months or 280 days. This period is called gestation period.
14. After this time foetus is expelled from the uterus by the mother – this is child birth.
15. This process is complicated and involves the participation of foetus and mother.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 11th A Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 11th Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Correct the false statements:
a. In the early phase of Indian National Congress it included only people from Bombay.
b. Indian industrialist began to establish companies in different parts of India.
c. People in India expected that India would become democratic after the First World War.
Answer:
a) In the early phase of Indian National Congress it included the intellectuals all over the Nation.
b) Swadeshi Movement gave tremendous impetus to Indian industry.
c) Everyone expected that the British would accept the just demands for democratic rule in India and bring in the constitutional reforms.

Question 2.
Write an imaginary dialogue between the extremist and moderate activists of Indian National Congress in the context of their a) main demands; and b) mode of mobilisation.
Answer:

Lucknow Meeting

Moderates: We will request them to increase our representation in our ‘Imperial Ligislative Council.
Extremists: Why should we request them ? Choice is ours. We need not request them. We should chose them and send out from our country.
Moderates: Let us agree it. But upto that we should pass our time. Our people should be in authority for our safety. So we are requesting to conduct civil services in our country.
Extremists: We cannot have independence with the policy of pray, petition and protest. We cannot get the support of our people also. Let us unite together and fight. Let us take the problem to the public. Let us have their support. We will neck out the British soon.
Moderates: Okay. We change our way as peoples’ way. Let us join our hands to them and have our independence.
All: “Vande Mataram” “Vande Mataram”.

Question 3.
After reading this chapter, Mariamma thinks that the early phase of national movement was largely participated by educated Indians. And many of their ideas were of western origin. Would you agree with her? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with her.
Reasons:

1. With the growth of English education in some major cities, a new consciousness, began to develop.
2. They opposed the inequalities and injustices of the old social system.
3. They pointed out the exploitation and injustice caused by the British rule and fought to end it. Thus they sprouted the nationalism in the minds of common people.

Question 4.
Why was it important to understand the economic impact of British rule in India?
Answer:
It was important to understand the economic impact of British rule in India to understand

1. how they were draining our resources.
2. how our crafts lost their status.
3. the reasons for our poverty.

Question 5.
What do you understand by swadeshi? What were the major areas of its impact?
Answer:
I understood Swadeshi ‘as goods produced in our own country’.
The major areas of its impact were:

1. Political
2. Social
3. Industrial
4. Foreign trade
5. Spiritual
6. Business (national trade)
7. Education
8. Cultural
9. Judicial

Question 6.
How did different parts of the country and people respond to division of Bengal ?
Answer:
One major trigger for the movement was the proposal for partition of Bengal into East and West Bengal in 1903 by Lord Curzon. The Nationalists immediately saw this as a political act by the government to divide the Bengali people and also weaken the national movement. Even the ordinary people of Bengal were enraged by this act and took to streets to protest against it. There were massive protests, petitions and campaigns but they were not heeded to and the government partitioned Bengal in 1905. Several protest meetings were held and together they decided to boycotting English cloth and salt. There was a tremendous mass response to this call. Boycott and public burning of foreign cloth, picketing of shops selling foreign goods became common in remote corners of Bengal as well as in many important towns and cities throughout the country. Women refused to wear foreign bangles and use foreign utensils, washermen refused to wash foreign clothes and even priests declined offerings which contained foreign sugar. This spontaneous unity of diverse social groups was the basis of Indian nationalism. The early nationalists were successful in germinating this nationalism.
There was also a call for boycott of all government institutions like schools, colleges, courts etc. People set up Swadeshi schools and colleges and parallel courts in which they settled their mutual disputes. Thus the people responded to division of Bengal.

Question 7.
Locate the following in map India:

1. Calcutta (Kolkata)
2. Madras (Chennai)
3. Bombay (Mumbai)
4. Lucknow

Answer:

Question 8.
Locate the following in the World map:

1. Britain
2. France
3. Russia
4. Germany

Answer:

Question 9.
A few leaders like Gandhiji, Tilak, Subhash Chandra Bose, Bhagat Singh sacrificed their lives for the sake of our nation.
What would have happened, if they did not do so?
Answer:
The British would have plundered our nation’s wealth more and more. The people of our country would have been suffered as slaves under the British rule and India would have become a very poor country.

Question 10.
Are there any movements taken place in your region recently? Why?
Answer:
Recently ‘Jai Andhra’ movement took place in our region on the occasion of separating Telangana from Andhra Pradesh.
Reasons:

1. Regional imbalances
2. Political ill healthness
3. Lack of broad outlook

Project

Question 1.
Collect photos of national leaders who participated in freedom struggle and prepare an album. Make a report on it and present in the class.
Answer:
Report :

1. The National Movement in India was an important epoch in the history of India and it helped to weld diverse people and sections of society into one nation. Ail the sections came together to not only fight aganist the British rule but also to build a new country.
2. The seeds of a new consciousness were sown in the second half of 19th century.
3. The educated Indians, after understanding the nature of British rule and enter into free-dom movement.
4. The early leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Pherozeshah Mehta, W.C Banerjee, etc, they realised that the unity of all people could be built only by accommodating the special requirements of different regions and religious communities of India.
5. The famous leaders they left their jobs and families and move throughout the country given speeches and create awareness about Indian Independence and to send out the British from India.
6. They promote democratic ideas among the people.
7. They gave call for Swadeshi and boycott for foreign goods.
8. After First World War they raised their voice against British and started movements very actively.
9. Like this so many of our leaders participated in the freedom movement and sacrifice their lives and given a great freedom for us now we are enjoying that.
10. If they did not sacrifice their lives for the sake of our nation, then we would not have achieved freedom from the British rule and would have continued to be their slaves till date.

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Imagine yourself as a student participating in a burning of foreign cloth. Describe what all would have happened on that day and your feelings at that time. (Textbook Page No. 126)
Answer:
My name is Sarath Chandra Chatterji. I was studying B.A. – I year in Calcutta College. Britishers occupied our country. They were trying to cut it into pieces as a cake. Till now we, the Indians, are in faith of Law of ‘Karma’. But we wanted to teach them a lesson. We planned to burn the foreign goods in our area.

It is our centre. The roads were clear upto 2 p.m. But all of sudden they were crowded. In the junction we lit a fire. We, all our neighbourhood, threw the foreign cloths and all the foreign goods into the fire. The fire brightened the sky. We gave our slogan ‘Vande Mataram’ and it sounded as ‘Om’. Our eyes were flooded with tears. The light of the fire revealed our attitude towards freedom to the world. Our anger frightened the British.

We decided to attain freedom even by sacrificing our lives.

“Vande Mataram”
“Vande Mataram”

Question 2.
If authorities do not agree to the just requests of people, what do you think the people should do? (Textbook Page No. 126)
Answer:
The requests should be not only just but also legal. If the authorities do not agree, one should oppose them democratically and attain them.

Question 3.
During that period there were massive movements of people who opposed the war
and asked their governments to cease fighting with other countries and restore peace. Do you think it was correct? (Textbook Page No. 127)
Answer:
Yes, I think it was correct.
The reason:
India had no rivalry with Germany or its alliance. We were appealing and fighting with the British to quit India. So it seemed jovial to fight for them. So I think it was correct.

Question 4.
Do you know of any association in your village or town which discusses problems faced by all the people (not just of one caste or community)? What do they discuss? What suggestions do they have for solving those problems? Discuss some examples in the class. (Textbook Page No. 122)
Answer:
Yes, we have one such association in our village. It is ‘Mytri Sangham’. It has its members from all the levels and categories. This association looks after the law and order in our village. They conduct discussions at the time of critical problems. They intimate the issues to police authorities in time. If the people fail to receive, protection or just, they would question the authorities also.

Their suggestions: If the enemy is strong and foolish, we should make him to listen to our words with our own tricks. Later we should gather our own majority. Then only we should fight with him.
e.g.: A tiger puts three steps backward when it starts its trial for hunt. That is the technique.

Question 5.
Find out more about the First World War and its impact on the lives of ordinary people. (Textbook Page No. 127)
Answer:
We can say that World War – I broke out between the capitalists and communists. It continued for nearly 5 years. All the nations with its people took part in it. More than 10,000,000 people lost their lives. 6,500,000 were injured. 6,000,000 were missed. Many nations suffered a lot. Whole world shivered with the feeling of insecurity.

Question 6.
Why did the early nationalists believe that the British were responsible for the poverty and famines in India? (Textbook Page No. 124)
Answer:
Early nationalists were educated and intellectuals. They studied the economic impact of the British rule. They understood that the British was draining the Indian wealth in many ways.
e.g.: Enabling cheap selling of British goods in India and retraining Indian crafts and industries.
So they believed that the British were responsible for the poverty and famines in India.

Question 7.
Why do you think the early nationalists did not want to re-establish the rule of the old kings of India? Would it not have been better than the British rule? (Textbook Page No. 124)
Answer:
Yes. It would not have been better than the British rule.
Reasons:

1. Early nationalists treated India as a nation. Old kings divided India into small kingdoms.
2. The British rule was like hot pan, the old kings’ was like stove.
3. Many old kings were foreigners. ‘Swadeshi’ was their goal.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining

8th Class Social Studies 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Create a flow chart showing the visit to the underground mining.
Answer:

Visit to a mine
↓
Seeking permission
↓
Meeting safety officer
↓
Taking safety kit
↓
Report at muster point for online registration
↓
Getting into Hollage, Bell signal
↓
Mine shaft
↓
Coal seam
↓
Dolomited walls
4
Reaching face
↓
Ready for blasting, blasting
↓
Observing the blasted area
↓
Transport through conveyor belts
↓
Trucks & trains
↓
Sent for sale

Question 2.
Create a table to classify major health challenges; precautions; and care taken towards protecting mine workers as follows: 1. While working in the mines 2. While being employed.
Answer:
The people, who work in mines, mainly have a chance of getting lung problems, knee pains and eyesight. There is a chance of occurring accidents also.
While being employed they may get diseases according to the nature of their work, e.g.:

1. Throat problems to teachers.
2. eyesight and joint pains to drivers.
3. backbone pains to coolies.

There is a chance of mental problems to workers who work with tension and stress. Doing pranayama, meditation, and walking etc., are some steps to be followed by them.

The workers in mines should wear mask (nasal), shoes, gloves. The machines in the mines should be checked daily, properly and thoroughly.
Doctors and oxygen cylinders should be in reach.

Question 3.
Janaki is currently a farm labourer. She wants to become a miner. Can you explain what changes will occur in her nature of work; employment scenario; health risks etc.
Answer:
Nature of work: “Janaki, now you are working in green fields, and in pleasant situation. Here you are working during day time. But in mines it is too dangerous and in shift system. Night shift may be a hurdle to you. When compared to farm work, mining work is difficult.”

Employment scenario : “Janaki, to get a job in mines is difficult. You will be selected as a daily labour. You have to go to a long distance, where the mine is located. Even though both are in the agriculture sector, the nature of works is totally different. Sometimes you have to prepare for a blast also.”

Health problems: “Janaki, working in mines is a health hazard. You should work in dust. You should wear helmet, gloves and socks/shoes. Your life might be at risk, if any accident occurs.” “Please think yourself in all the angles and take a decision. Have a nice time. All the Best”.

Question 4.
Narrate the difference in requirement of labour in mine while using machines and human labour.
Answer:
If the mines are not provided with machines, human labour is needed more. If they are provided with machines, vice-versa, e.g.: In recent past the coal in mines was taken to lifts in trolleys. At present it is through conveyor belt. Because of the usage of machines, the percentage of recruitments in mines is decreased.

Question 5.
How has been the contribution of mining to economy identified in this chapter?
Answer:
India is underdeveloped country immediately after independence. These mines yield income to the government and also get royalty, when the mines were given to others. So I think this is the contribution of mining to economy.
(Note: The bove given answer is an example. Students can write the minerals found in their own districts by seeing the map.)

Question 6.
See the map of Andhra Pradesh showing minerals in this chapter and identify the minerals found in your district.
Answer:
Our district is Kurnool Lime stone is available in our district.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph under the heading. To whom do the minerals belong’ and answer the following:

Minerals usually occur deep in the earth. They in fact do not belong to any particular owner but belong to all people of the country and have to be used in everyone’s interest. That is why all mineral wealth of a state is considered the property of the government. The government uses the minerals keeping in mind the interests of all people of the country.

The minerals do not belong to any particular person but they belong to all people. How do you justify?
Answer:
Minerals usually occur deep in the earth. The things which we get from the earth is property of government. They, in fact, do not belong to any particular owner but belong to all people of the country and have to be used in everyone’s interest. So government uses the minerals by keeping this in view.

Question 8.
Look at the image below. There are two different statements made by two different people. What aspect of mining are they talking about?
Answer:
We cannot live because of minerals: This person lost his land, house etc., for these mines. So he said this.
We cannot live without minerals: This person took the land for mine on lease. So he said these words.

Question 9.
How are minerals helping the country in development?
Answer:

1. There are different types of resources, who supports to a country’s development.
2. Human resources take a vital role by the usage of natural resources.
3. Mineral resources is the most precious transfer for the economy.
4. Extraction of minerals is a good source of employment opportunities.
5. Many basic minerals are necessary to run industries.
6. Minerals are useful for the development of agricultural sector.
7. Minerals are also help to develop transport facilities.

Question 10.
Prepare a table showing different minerals and their uses.
Answer:

8th Class Social Studies 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can you think of some mineral which renews itself and we can help to increase it? (Textbook Page No. 63)
Answer:
Underground water renews itself. We can help to increase it in the following ways.

1. Rainwater harvesting pits should be dug.
2. Trees also increase underground water, so trees should be grown.
3. The excess water in fields should be collected in a pond and makd them to absorb in the ground.
4. Unused drainage canals can be modified to increase recharge.

Question 2.
Can you think of some source of energy which will not diminish with our use of it which will keep renewing itself even if we don’t do anything? (Textbook Page No. 63)
Answer:
Air.

Question 3.
Classify the following natural objects into renewable and non-renewable resources. Put a tick (✓) against those which are minerals and cross (✕) which are not minerals.
Bamboo, Coal, Sea water, Mud, Ants, Sand, Iron Ore, Diamond, Trees, Petroleum, Grass, Air, Marble rock, Fishes, Well water, Sunshine.

Answer:

Question 4.
Can you classify the following minerals into metallic, non-metallic and energy source? (Textbook Page No. 64)

Answer:
Iron ore, bauxite (aluminum ore), coal, copper ore, limestone, gypsum, mica, groundwater petroleum, rock salt, sand, gem stones.

Question 5.
How does the government use the minerals?
Answer:

1. In 1970s the government took over all the mines.
2. Then it owned and operated most of the mines and sold the minerals to various factories or traders or exported them.
3. The income thus received by the government is being spent on developmental activities of the people.

Question 6.
a) Discuss the pros and cons of allowing private companies to mine our minerals.
b) How do you think they can be regulated?
c) How do you think can the environmental concerns can be taken care of? (Textbook Page No. 68)
Answer:
a) Pros: A New National Mineral Policy was announced in 1993, and the government allowed private companies to lease mines and operate them. The companies were to pay a royalty to the government for the minerals they extracted and sold. In this way the govern¬ment could retain regulatory control over the mining, get income from them and at the same time encourage private companies to invest money and bring in new technologies.
Cons: On the other hand, there has also been uncontrolled mining by the private companies far in excess of the permits given to them and disregard for environmental and safety measures. Excess mining means that more quantity is mined than is sustainable on a long term. It also means that the minerals are taken away by companies without paying royalty to the government – thus the people to whom the minerals really belong to do not get anything. It can also be environmentally very harmful.

b) Mines should be under the control of the government. If they are given to others, there should be the supervision of higher officials and local people.

c) Preference should be given to the mining people, who are interested in underground mining. The pit and the mound of rubble which is created should be properly disposed of.
Necessary steps should be taken to control the sand pits.

Question 7.
If all people of the country are the real owners of the mineral resources, how can we ensure that they are used for the benefit of all? (Textbook Page No. 68)
Answer:
The income received through this should be spent on developmental activities of transport facilities, health facilities, and other subsidies to the people.

Question 8.
Do you think the generations to come, that is our children and our grand children too should be able to use these resources? How can we ensure that they are available to them too and not exhausted? (Textbook Page No. 68)
Answer:
I think so. Our future generations too should be able to use these resources.
We should invent and use substitutes. The usage of minerals should be minimised.
Then we can ensure the future generations.

Question 9.
Can you imagine a world in which we cannot run motors or trains? (Textbook Page No. 63)
Answer:
If the trains and cars are not invented, that would be different. But when we cannot run motors or trains, it seems critical. The distance on the globe would increase.

Question 10.
Look at the following pictures and guess which of them is open cast mine, underground mine and drill mining for oil. (Textbook Page No. 66)

Answer:
(i) Drill mining for oil
(ii) Open cast mine
(iii) Underground mining

Question 11.
a) Can you name these instruments? (Textbook Page No. 69)

Answer:
Yes. Helmet, Lanthern, Safety belts etc. are the instruments in safety kit used in coal mines.

b) What is the use of the stick?
Answer:
The stick is used to check the blasted place in the mine by tapping.

c) Why is there a light on the helmet?
Answer:
It is too dark in the mine. To see the forth covering area there is a light on the helmet,

d) Did you identify the lamp in the picture? What purpose does it serve?
Answer:
Yes. Its a Lantern. T1 lantern is used in mines. Lantern gives indications of dangers like leakage of poisonous gases etc.

Question 12.
Find out about the uses of Barytes from the box given in page 64. Why do you think demand for Barytes is increasing? (Textbook Page No. 73)
Answer:
Barium obtained from Barytes is used for industrial and medical purposes. Barytes is used in drilling deep holes for petroleum and natural gas.
Nowadays, extracting these petroleum and natural gas is increased. The industrial sector is also developed. So the use of Barytes is also increased.

Question 13.
a) Describe what is happening in the following figure.

b) How many people do you think would be employed for this operation?
c) Can you see the collection of underground water in the top left corner of the picture? What will happen to this water?
Answer:
a) The truck is being loaded with Barytes by using crane.
b) 10 to 15 people may be needed for this.
c) This may be absorbed in the ground or may be pumped to another place.

Question 14.
If there is mining activity in your area, find out about the people who work and live there and also about how it affects the environment around it. Also find out how many people benefit from it. (Textbook Page No. 66)
Answer:
My father, Sri M. Rama Chandra Rao, is working in G.M’s office SCCL in Bhupalpalli, Bhupalpaili mandal near Parakal, Warangal district. Here are 6 underground mines and one open cast. The population of Bhupalpalli is 70,000 to 80,000. Out of these 60% to 70% belong to the families of SCCL. Here the mines were inaugurated by our ex -Chief Minister, late Sri N. T. Rama Rao in 1989. The names of these mines are like ‘Kakatiya Incline I, II, III, V, VI, VII etc. SCCL has a sentiment regarding number IV. So they never use ‘4’. The number of trees is very less here. Summers are too hot. No crops are found while we travel from Parakala to Bhupalpalli. If we take Kakatiya Incline -1 as our example, there are 2000 workers and official staff in this. SCCL takes necessary steps like plantation etc., to protect environment. In this district mines are only in Bhupalpalli.

Question 15.
a) How do you think this dilemma can be resolved?
b) Is it fair to produce coal at a low price when it causes the loss of livelihood, lands and damages the environment? (Textbook Page No. 73)
Answer:
a) We should invent and use the substitutes for the production of electricity, e.g.: Sea water, sunlight etc.
b) This is not fair. Due to this we feel no difference between the public sector and private sector.

Question 16.
Compare the mining in the coal belt with the mining in Mangampeta. What are the similarities and what are the differences? (Textbook Page No. 75)
Answer:
Similarities:

1. Both are minerals.
2. Both are under government supervision.
3. Detonators are used for blasting purpose in both the places.
4. For quality, the minerals are collected from deep layers.
5. Necessary steps are taken for the safety of the workers.

Differences:

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps

8th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the school atlas carefully by looking at various thematic maps.
Answer:
Self-exercise.

Question 2.
Do you think the use of maps has changed between the time of ancient Greeks and now? In what way is it similar and different?

Answer:
Yes, I think so.

Question 3.
Many people believe that making of maps by the Colonial powers was a more powerful tool for exploitation and control of the colonies than guns. Do you agree? Why?
Answer:
Yes, 1 agree with the given statement.
The reasons are –

1. When European powers coionised the entire continents like North and South Americas, Africa, Australia and Asia they needed to know about the places, their climate, crops, mineral resources and about the people living there.
2. They sent scientific expeditions consisting of map makers and others to explore the different parts of the world and prepare maps.
3. These teams fought their way into interiors of continents crossing mountains, deserts and rivers, fighting local peoples to get the necessary information. ,
4. This information and the maps enabled the colonial powers to establish their rule over these areas and also exploit their resources.

Question 4.
In what ways were the maps prepared by the British different from the one made by Ptolemy or Idrisi?
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the text the “Use of maps in our times” and answer the following question:

As we saw above, maps were made and used for a variety of purposes: for trade, sailing, for conquests and colonising and for fighting wars. In our own times maps are used extensively for planning, development of countries. This requires planners to identify the problems faced by a region and its resources etc. This is done with the help of maps. For example, we can make a map of regions which have very little drinking -water. We can compare this map with maps showing water resources – rainfall, groundwater and rivers. Based on this comparison we can decide what is the best way to make drinking water available to all the people of the region – by sinking tube wells, or building dams across streams or making tanks (cheruvus) or bringing water from distant places in large pipes. Similarly, we can plan agricultural development, setting up new industries, building roads, hospitals and schools with the help of maps.

What are the various purposes for which maps are used in our times?
Answer:

1. In our own times maps are used extensively for planning and development of countries.
2. We can plan agricultural development, setting up new industries, buildings, roads,
   hospitals and schools with the help of maps.
3. Maps are also used by companies to plan their business work.

Question 6.
Prepare a few questions to know about different types of maps.
Answer:

1. How many kinds of maps are there?
2. What are different kinds of maps?
3. What are thematic maps?
4. What are political maps?
5. What do the physical maps show?
6. Which kind of maps show information about the climate of an area?
7. What are road maps?

8th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In what ways do you think the sailors influenced the making of maps in early times?
(Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
The sailors travelled widely and wrote down descriptions of the land and people and their histories they saw or heard about. They prepared maps based on these travels and descriptions. Though these maps have not survived, historians have tried to recreate them with the help of their descriptions.

Question 2.
Do you think this free access to maps is a good thing? Why? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
No, I do not think so. Any government has to maintain secrecy in access to maps. Otherwise it helps the enemies. But at present satellite images reveal every place on the earth.

Question 3.
If someone wants to choose an appropriate place to set up a hospital, what kind of maps would be useful to her? Make a list.
Answer:

1. Map showing hospitals
2. Map showing laboratories
3. Map showing scanning centres
4. Map showing ill-health
5. Map showing bus routes
6. Map showing train routes and
7. Map showing blood banks.

Question 4.
Can you suggest how maps can be used to plan setting up new schools and colleges? What different kinds of maps would have to be studied for this? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
One has to observe the following matters to establish educational institutions.

1. School going children or college going youth.
2. Up locations of their schools and colleges.
3. Their distances
4. Area/land for establishing the institution.
5. Their financial status for fees determination, etc.

For this one has to Study

1. Population map
2. Residential area map
3. Transport map
4. Water facilities map, etc.

Question 5.
Find out about the lives of some of the great explorers like David Livingstone, Stanley, Amundsan, etc. Find out who sponsored their expeditions and why? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
a) David Livingstone: 19-3-1813 to 1-5-1873 – Scotland – UK – Explored Africa. Sponsored by London Missionary Society.
To develop trade and spread of Christianity
b) Sir Henry Morton Stanley : 28-1-1841 to 10-5-1904 – Denbigh – Wales – UK. Sponsored by New York Herald – To find David Livingstone.
c) Roald Amundsan: 16-7-1872 to 18-6-1928 – Borge – Ostfold – Norway.
Sponsored by Belgian Antarctic expedition – To discover the South pole.
d) Alfonsa – De – Albuquerque: 1453 to 16-12-1515 – Portuguese Sponsored by King Manuel I of Portugal.
To establish Portuguese colonial empire in the Indian Ocean.

Question 6.
Why do you think the map makers place their own country in the middle of the map? (Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
The map makers in the olden days were mostly depended on the books written by sailors. They were really patriots. They thought that their country was centre of the world and most important in the world. So they placed their own country in the middle of the map.

Question 7.
Why do you think the colonial powers invested so much money to prepare detailed maps? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
The information from the maps and map makers enabled the colonial powers to establish their rule over their colonies and also exploit their resources. So the colonial powers invested so much money to prepare detailed maps.

Question 8.
Why do you think maps are useful to armies in times of war? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
Maps were also in great demand during times of war as armies and airforces needed them.
They use strategy maps to illustrate an organization’s vision, mission, overarching strategies and key goals and initiatives.

Question 9.
Can you guess why? Can you locate India and Srilanka (which was shown much bigger that it is)? (Textbook Page No. 4)
Answer:
Peninsular India is-pushed into the northern India in Al Idrisi’s map. The coast has become more east-west aligned. The Deccan is surrounded on two sides of coasts running North- South ending in sharp point, Cape Comorin.
Sri Lanka is shown much bigger than it is. So it is not easy to locate India and Sri Lanka in Al Idrisi’s map. But I will try.
Note: To read this map we should turn it upside down.

Question 10.
Can you identify India, Arabia and Africa in map (Map of Da Ming Hun Yi Tu of China)? (Textbook Page No. 5)
Answer:
In this map India, Arabia and Africa were mapped from an Indian Ocean perspective. They are mis-shaped. They are on the bottom of left side of the map.