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SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government

8th Class Social Studies 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Why were the first elections difficult to conduct? List as many reasons as you can.
Answer:
An Election Commission was set up to conduct the elections in a free and fair manner. Making arrangements for the first elections was a large and complex task. First, a house-to-house survey was carried out to register the eligible voters.

People who contested elections belonged to political parties or were Independents. Election Commission gave a symbol to each of these candidates. These symbols were painted on the ballot boxes in which the votes had to be cast. The voters had to put their ballot paper into the box of the candidate they wanted to vote for. Screens were set up so that the voting (ballot) was secret.

Over 2,24,000 polling booths were set up across the country. Over 25,00,000 steel ballot boxes were made. Nearly 62,00,00,000 ballot papers were printed. About 10 lakh officials supervised the polls. Nearly 17,500 candidates had contested the elections across the coun¬try. Finally, 489 people were elected to the first Lok Sabha. The elections were conducted in a fair, free, impartial and orderly manner, with very little violence.
So we can say that the first elections were a large and complex task.

Question 2.
Why do you think elections need to be free and fair?
Answer:
The winners in the elections are the writers of our future. So the elections should not be influenced by any issue. They should be free and fair.

Question 3.
For which of the following subjects can laws be made by the Members of Parliament, which by the state assembly, and which can be made by both: agriculture, railways, village hospitals, police, posts and telegraph, electricity, factories?
Answer:

1. Agriculture – State
2. Railways – Centre
3. Village hospitals – State
4. Police – State
5. Posts and telegraph – Centre
6. Electricity – State and Centre both
7. Factories – State and Centre both

Question 4.
Name the two houses of the Parliament. Draw a table to show the similarities/ differences between them on the following aspects: term, number of members, more or less powerful, election process, voting for the President.
Answer:
There are two houses in the Parliament – Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Similarities / Differences

Question 5.
In the 2009 Parliamentary Elections, no single party won a majority. How was the government formed? Discuss with the help of your teacher and write a paragraph.
Answer:
The ‘Like-minded Parties’ who won in the elections formed as a Front ‘UNITED PROGRESSIVE ALLIANCE’. This front formed the government. In this Front INC has a majority.

Question 6.
Who is responsible for making the laws that are applicable for the entire country?
Answer:
Parliament is responsible for making the laws that are applicable for the entire country.

Question 7.
There are some gaps in the information given in the Table below. Discuss with your teacher to find the missing information and fill in the blanks.

Answer:

Question 8.
Do you think the parties should be made to put up more women candidates for elections? Why?
Answer:
Nowadays women are participated in all activities along with the men equally. They also thinking globally.
Parties should be made to put up more women candidates for elections in order to promote women’s participation in the electoral process. Women, too can express their problems and get them discussed.
A number of countries are exploring measures that may increase women’s participation in government at all levels, from the local to the national.

Question 9.
Following is a study of women’s representation in Parliament houses including that of India and other nations:
Based on the above information write an essay analysing the following aspects:
i) Is there an adequate representation of women in our legislative houses?
ii) How is the idea of representation important to the idea of democracy?
iii) What solution can be achieved for the above? How will you address this issue if you are member of the Parliament? How do you think have certain countries achieved better representation of women in Parliament?
Answer:
i) No.
ii) ‘Democracy’ means people’s government. So the idea of representation is important.
‘People’s means ‘all the nation’, but not only one.
iii) Encouraging women in politics is the only solution for this.
If I were the parliamentarian I support reservations for women in the houses of law and solve this problem. I think certain countries have achieved better representation of women in Parliament in this way.

Project

When the Parliament is in session, listen to the news on the radio or television or look in the newspapers and make a list of the events that take place. Write a page on any issue discussed in the Parliament, or draw a picture of the scene in Parliament when it is being discussed.
Answer:
The issue is belongs to separation of Telangana state. Separate Telangana state bill was introduced in the Loksabha. There was a long discussions and debates conducted in the Loksabha.

On the basis of petitions of Telangana people the government was decided to separate the Telangana people from A.P State. But in the Parliament majority of members were not accepted. During this time the members of the house joined together and conducted voting among them. And this was introduced in the Rajyasabha also and conducted voting in that house and was the final decision taken about the separate Telangana state.

8th Class Social Studies 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you think are the advantages of having a Parliamentary form of government in which the government members are answerable to the Parliament? (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
Advantages:

1. It is faster and easier to pass legislation.
2. Power is more divided.
3. Easy to remove the executive.
4. It feels more responsibility.

Question 2.
Should the Parliament only make laws and not control the government in its functioning? Discuss in the class. (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
There should be government control on laws made by government. Otherwise the implementation of it will be questionable. So the condition is framed.

Question 3.
Can you identify the basic difference between Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha? (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
The basic difference is –
The election for the Lower House or Lok Sabha is direct election.
The election for the Upper House or Rajya Sabha is indirect election.

Question 4.
Discuss the meaning of the following with your teacher. (Textbook Page No. 166)

1. Candidate
2. Constituency
3. Ballot
4. EVM
5. Election campaign
6. Election Commission
7. Voters’ List
8. Procedure of voting
9. Free and fair elections

Answer:

1. Candidate: The person who contests in the election.
2. Constituency: States and Union territories are divided into constituencies.
3. Ballot: The paper which is used in election for voting. It contains the symbols of the contestants.
4. EVM: Electronic Voting Machine.
5. Election campaign: The constants request the voters to vote for them. This procedure is called election campaign.
6. Election Commission: It is an independent institution which conducts free and fair elections.
7. Voters’ list: A list with the names of voters.
8. Procedure of voting: The voters give their votes secretly.
9. Free and fair elections: The elections in which the voters give their vote without any influence or pressure.

Question 5.
Discuss with your teachers and parents to learn about how elections are conducted today. (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
At present the elections are conducted peacefully and in a democratic way.
Elections:

Nowadays, the elections are conducted in a procedure as mentioned above.

Question 6.
Write down some differences between the first elections and elections held today – ballot box and sheets, age of voting.
Answer:

Question 7.
Recall the laws about which we studied last year. Find out the new laws that are being discussed in state legislative houses and Parliament during their last meeting. (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:

1. Establishment of women courts,
2. If any minor, aged 16 years, is accused in sexual harassment cases, he should be trailed by the criminal court instead of Juvenile courts.

These two bills, are discussed by the Parliament during the last meeting.

Question 8.
Correct the false statements: (Textbook Page No. 166)

1. The President and the Vice-President are both elected by the same set of people.
2. Every voter in India elects the President.
3. All the MLAs of the Vidhan Sabha of Andhra Pradesh participate in the election of the President.
4. All the MLAs of all the Vidhan Sabhas and Delhi and Pondicherry and all the MPs of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha elect the President.

Answer:

1. The MLAs of all the states and the members of both houses of the Parliament elect the President. Both the houses of the Parliament elect the Vice-President.
2. Every voter, who participated in election, elects the President indirectly.
3. Correct statement.
4. The MLAs of all Assemblies and the elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha elect the President.

Question 9.
Which of the following is correct about formation of government? (Textbook Page No. 170)
A) Party or coalition that has support of the President forms the government.
B) Party/Coalition with most number of seats forms the government.
C) Party or coalition with more than half the seats forms the government.
D) Election Commission selects the party that will form the government.
E) The person who has won with the largest number of votes in the Lok Sabha election will be the Prime Minister.
Answer:
‘B’ is correct.

Question 10.
Azhar feels that it is better to give more powers to Rajya Sabha because they are mostly wiser people belonging to different political parties.
Mumtazfeels Rajya Sabha should not be given any more powers because they are not directly elected by people. What do you think about their feelings ? (Textbook Page No. 164)
Answer:
I support both the arguments. The thoughts of wiser people are always to be supported. So they should be given more powers. Likewise it is true that they are not elected by the people directly. So we should elect the wise people directly in election.

Question 11.
Can you think why the following illustration has Parliament on one side and people on the other ?
Answer:
The population of the country and the number of members of Parliament are in proportionate. If there is no support of the people, the parliament would be weakened. So it is shown like that.

Question 12.
How many Lok Sabha elections have been held? (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
16 Lok Sabha elections have been held.

Question 13.
A survey showed that among the uneducated and poor, the percentage of people who voted in 1996 was 61 %. However, it was only 53% among graduates. What could be the reasons for this difference? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
The winners in the elections are doing no favour to the people. They are interested in improving their financial balances, assets and developing their personal relations. This may be the feeling of the graduates.

Question 14.
Find out about some important policies and laws made by the Parliament. Make a presentation about it in the class. (Textbook Page No. 161)
Answer:
The important laws made by the Parliament:
1) The Dowry Prohibition Act -1961
2) The Prevention of Terrorist Activities Act – 2002.

Procedure relating to any ordinary bill in the Union Parliament
↓
First reading/introduction stage
↓
Second reading/Discussion stage
↓
Third readingA/oting stage
↓
Bill in the other house
↓
In case deadlock between the two houses – A joint-session of both houses
↓
President approval
↓
Act

Question 15.
Find out if there are other kinds of government where the government is not answerable to the Parliament or legislature. (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
Monarchial and dictatorial form of governments are not responsible to the Parliament or legislature.

Question 16.
See the map and tables given in Text book P.No. 163 and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 164)

1. What is the number of Lok Sabha Constituencies in your state and two neighbouring states?
2. Which states have more than 30 Lok Sabha Constituencies?
3. Why do so many states have such large number of Constituencies?
4. Why are some Constituencies small in area while others are very big?
5. Are the Constituencies reserved for the SCs and STs evenly spread all over the entire country or are there more in some areas?

Answer:

1. In our state Andhra Pradesh: 25
   Telangana: 17
   Tamilnadu: 39
2. Bihar, Maharashtra, Tamilnadu, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
3. The population is high in many states. So the Constituencies are also high.
4. Some Constituencies are large and some are small in accordance with the population and extent they have.
5. Schedule castes are spread all over the country equally.
   Schedule tribes are there more in some areas.

Question 17.
Who is the Lok Sabha member from your area? Name a few other MPs from your state or neighbouring states. Find out which political parties they belong to. (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
The Lok Sabha member from our area: Kesineni Srinivas (Nani) – TDP.
Names of a few other M.P.s from our state :

1. Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju – TDP
2. Maganti Venkateswara Rao (Babu) – TDP
3. Nirmala Sitharaman – BJP
4. Y. Avinash Reddy – YSRCP

Question 18.
Find out the symbols used by different political parties
Answer:

1. Congress Party – ‘Hastam’
2. BJP – Lotus
3. BSP – Elephant
4. Communists – Hammer, Sickle/Kanki, Sickle
5. TRS – Car
6. T.D.P. – Cycle

Question 19.
Collect the photos of the current ones of the following and paste in the given boxes. (Textbook Page No. 170)
Answer:

Question 20.
Who is the current Prime Minister? Can you name a few earlier Prime Ministers?
Answer:
Our present Prime Minister is Hon’ble Dr. Narendra Modi. (Textbook Page No. 170)
Some of our earlier Prime ministers :

1. Dr. Manmohan Singh
2. Sri Atal Bihari Vajpai
3. Sri Rajiv Gandhi
4. Smt. Indira Gandhi
5. Sri Lai Bahadur Sastry
6. Sri Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 21.
Find out if there are any ministers from your state in the current Central government. (Textbook Page No. 170)
Answer:
Sri P. Ashok Gajapathi Raju – Minister of Civil Aviation.

Question 22.
Identify few important ministries and government.
Answer:

Question 23.
If you had been living at that time, which side would you have agreed with? Would you have considered it a good idea for India to try to have universal adult franchise and conduct elections? Give reasons. (Textbook Page No. 165)
Answer:
If I had been living at that time, I would have agreed with the optimists. There may be some obstacles to any positive work. We should not deviate from it. So I would have considered it a good idea for India.

Question 24.
Why were the first elections a large and complex task”? (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
Refer answer (1) In Improve your learning.

Question 25.
Why should the voting be secret? (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
To maintain the self-confidence in the voters, the voting should be secret.

Question 26.
Why do you think it is important to look at the percentage of people who cast their votes? What does it tell us? (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
It shows the confidence of people in elections and also the pattern of voting. So it is important.

Question 27.
Why do you think many eligible voters vote? Discuss the possible reasons. (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
Many of the voters are less interested or uninterested in the election procedure. They feel that whoever may be the winners, the living conditions of the voters remain the same. So many eligible voters did not vote.

Question 28.
What were the opinions expressed by different people at the time of the first elections? (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
Some people said, “The elections are ‘a leap in the dark’, not suitable for a country like India. India is a caste-based society in which many people do not accept the idea that everyone is equal. So it won’t be possible to have a democratic election.”

There were other people who were very hopeful. They said, “Indians have participated in the National Movement to gain freedom from the British. They want to elect a government of their own choice. They want the government to work towards creating a society where every¬one is treated equally. They also want the government to improve the living conditions of the people. Thus everyone should have an equal opportunity to elect a government of their choice.” To such people, the elections were ‘an act of faith’.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 8 Heredity.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 8th Lesson Heredity

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How did you get the characters from your parents and grandparents?
Answer:
By Genes

Question 2.
Why man is called a moving museum of vestigial organs?
Answer:

1. The organs which are not useful in animals are called ‘vestigial organs’. There are nearly 180 vestigial organs in human beings,
2. Hence, human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

Question 3.
Observe the given Flow-chart and answer the question.
Who decides the sex of the baby – mother or father? How?
Answer:
Father decides the sex of the baby.
Mother has XX chromosomes. Father has ‘XY’ chromosomes. Y chromosome is determining factor. So father is responsible.

Question 4.
What examples you will give to prove that Lamarckism is not correct?
Answer:
August Weismann, tested the theory proposed by Lamarck by experiments on rats. He removed tails of parental rats. He observed for twenty two generations but still off springs are normal with tails.

Question 5.
Which chromosomes determine the sex in human beings?
Answer:
Allosomes or Sex chromosomes. They are xx (girls) and xy (boys).

Question 6.
Why do we call appendix as a vestigial organ?
Answer:

1. Vestigial organ is the organ of our body which is smaller and simpler than those in related species they have lost their original function.
2. Appendix is highly developed in ruminants which helps in the digestion of cellulose. But, in human beings the cellulose is eliminated as undigested food. Hence in human beings appendix has no role in cellulose digestion. So, we call it as a vestigial organ.

Question 7.
What are variations?
Answer:
Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.

Question 8.
Who is known as father of genetics?
Answer:
Gregor Johann Mendel is known as father of genetics.

Question 9.
Why Mendel has chosen garden pea plant as material for his experiments?
Answer:
Pea plant has following advantages.

1. Well defined characters
2. Bisexual flowers
3. Predominently self fertilization
4. Early hybridization
5. Annual plant.

Question 10.
What are the vitamins present in pea plant?
Answer:
The vitamins present in pea plant are ‘A, C, E, K and B’.

Question 11.
What is F₃ generation?
Answer:
F₃ generation represents the offsprings produced from the individuals of F₂ generation.

Question 12.
What is a factor?
Answer:
The determining agent responsible for each trait is called a factor.

Question 13.
WTiat is law of dominance?
Answer:
According to Mendel, among a pair of alleles for a character, only one expresses itself in the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other. This is known as law of dominance.

Question 14.
What is phenotype ratio?
Answer:
The characters which can be seen is known as phenotype and their ratio is called phenotype ratio.

Question 15.
What is the phenotype ratio in F₁ generation of monohybrid cross?
Answer:
The phenotype ratio in F₁ generation of monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.

Question 16.
What is genotype ratio?
Answer:
The genetic makeup of an individual with reference to a specific character under consideration is called genotype and their ratio is called genotype ratio.

Question 17.
What is the genotype ratio in F₂ generation of monohybrid cross?
Answer:
The genotype ratio in F₂ generation of monohybrid cross is 1 : 2 : 1.

Question 18.
What are genes?
Answer:
Genes are the factors which are responsible for characters or traits of an organism. These are the units of heredity that are transferred from a parent to offspring. These are small segments of DNA on a chromosome.

Question 19.
What is an allele?
Answer:
The pair of genes which are responsible for character is called allele.

Question 20.
What are homozygous alleles?
Answer:
If an organism has two copies of the same allele for example TT or tt it is homozygous for that trait.

Question 21.
What are heterozygous allele?
Answer:
If an organism has one copy of two different alleles for example Tt, then it is heterozygous.

Question 22.
What is law of independent assortment?
Answer:
In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters (traits), the factors for each pair of characters assorted independently of the other pair. This is known as “Law of independent assortment”.

Question 23.
Wliat is the law of segregation?
Answer:
The law of segregation states that every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a randomly selected copy of only one of these to its offspring.

Question 24.
What are heritable traits?
Answer:
Traits that may be passed on from one generation to the next are called as heritable traits.

Question 25.
What is heredity?
Answer:
The process of acquiring characters or traits from parents is called heredity.

Question 26.
What is inheritance?
Answer:
The process in which traits are passed from one generation to another generation is called inheritance.

Question 27.
What is genetic drift?
Answer:
Change in the frequency of genes in small populations is called genetic drift.

Question 28.
Who was the first person to propose the theory of evolution?
Answer:
Jean Baptist Lamarck was the first person to propose the theory of evolution.

Question 29.
What are acquired characters?
Answer:
The characters developed during the lifetime of an organism are called acquired characters.

Question 30.
What is inheritance of acquired characters?
Answer:
Lamarck proposed that the acquired characters are passed to its offsprings i.e., to next generation. This is known as inheritance of acquired characters.

Question 31.
Who wrote the book “principles of geology” of evolution?
Answer:
The book “principles of geology” of evolution was written by Charles Lyell.

Question 32.
What is micro evolution?
Answer:
Small changes within the species is known as micro evolution.

Question 33.
What is macro evolution or speciation?
Answer:
The process of evolution through which new species are going to be formed is known as speciation or macro evolution.

Question 34.
The double helix structure of DNA was discovered by?
Answer:
James Watson and Francis Crick discovered the double helix structure of DNA.

Question 35.
What are autosomes?
Answer:
Chromosomes whose number and morophology do not differ between males and females of a species are called autosomes.

Question 36.
What are allosomes?
Answer:
The chromosomes that determine sex of the organism are called allosomes.

Question 37.
What is meant by survival of the fittest?
Answer:
According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, nature only selects or decides which organism should survive or perish in nature. This is the meaning of survival of the fittest.

Question 38.
Write the expanded form of DNA.
Answer:
The expanded form of DNA is Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid.

Question 39.
What is the basis of evolution?
Answer:
Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolution.

Question 40.
What are analogous organs?
Answer:
The organs which have similar appearance and functions but have different structure and origin. Ex : Wings of a butterfly, bat and a bird.

Question 41.
What is embryology?
Answer:
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from egg to adult stage.

Question 42.
What is Palaeontology?
Answer:
The study of fossil is called Palaeontology.

Question 43.
How palaeontologists determine the age of fossil?
Answer:
Palaeontologists determine the age of fossil by using carbon dating method.

Question 44.
Where do scientists collected fossil of dinosaurs?
Answer:
Scientists collected fossils of dinosaurs from Yamanapalli in Adilabad district in Telangana State.

Question 45.
What are connecting links?
A. The organisms which bear the characters of two different groups are called connecting links.

Question 46.
Which organism is recognised as the connecting link between aves and reptiles?
Answer:
Archeopteryx is recognised as the connecting link between aves and reptiles.

Question 47.
What is human evolution?
Answer:
Human evolution is the evolutionary process leading upto the appearance of modern human beings.

Question 48.
How do variations occur?
Answer:
Variations develop during reproduction in organisms. Sexual reproduction and errors in DNA copying lead to variations in offspring in a population.

Question 49.
What is divergent evolution?
Answer:
The evolutionary process through which homologous organs develop is called divergent evolution.

Question 50.
What is convergent evolution?
Answer:
The evolutionary process through which analogous organs develop is called convergent evolution.

Question 51.
What are vestigial organs?
Answer:
Organs which are not useful in animal are called vestigial organs.

Question 52.
Who proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characters?
Answer:
Jean Baptist Lamarck proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characters.

Question 53.
Who proved that the bodily changes which may occur due to environment won’t be passed to its offsprings?
Answer:
Augustus Weisemann proved that the bodily changes which may occur due to environment won’t be passed to its offsprings.

Question 54.
How the study of fossil is considered significant?
Answer:
The study of fossil is considered significant because

1. Fossils provide direct evidence of past life and
2. Fossils provide convincing proof of organic evolution.

Question 55.
What are the nitrogen bases present in DNA?
Answer:
The nitrogen bases present in DNA are adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine.

Question 56.
How do embryological studies provide evidence for evolution?
Answer:
The similarities in embryonic development reinforce the idea of evolution from common ancestors. The sequence of embryonic development in different vertebrates shows similarities.

Question 57.
Why Mendel selected garden pea plant for his experiments? Give a reason.
Answer:
Mendel selected garden pea plant for his experiments as these can be self pollinated.

Question 58.
What is the evolutionary significance of the fossil archaeopteryx?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx serves as a connecting link between birds and reptiles. It is the fossil evidence to show that birds have evolved from reptiles.

Question 59.
How does the creation of variation in a species ensure survival?
Answer:
The creation of variations in a species enable them to adapt according to the changes and the new needs thus they will enable the survival of the species.

Question 60.
Define evolution.
Answer:
Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which takes place in the primitive organisms over millions of years in which new species are produced.

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write Phenotypic and Genotypic ratio of table given at side.
(OR)
Write the Phenotypic and Genotypic ratio when heterogygous (Yy) pea plant is hybridised with the same kind of plant.
(OR)
Write the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of Mendel’s cross-pollination experiments in pea plants with heterozygous yellow seeds (Yy) with that of the same type, i.e., Yy.
Answer:
Phenotypic ratio -3:1
Genotypic ratio -1:2:1

Question 2.
Define and explain Variations with examples.
Answer:
Variations: Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.
(OR)
Differences among living beings are called variations.
Ex:

1. Earlobes in some humans are free and in others attached.
2. Colour of eyes (cornea) in some people are blue and in others black.
3. Colour of skin is black or white.

Question 3.
“Human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs”. How can you support this statement?
Answer:

1. During the course of evolution, some organs remain in organisms. For example, appendix in the digestive system.
2. In human beings it has no role to play in the process of digestion.
3. But in herbivores like rabbit appendix play important role.
4. Such type of organs which are not useful in animal are called vestigial organs.
5. There are nearly 18 vestigial organs in human beings.
6. For example pinna, hair on skin, mammary glands in man, etc.
7. That’s why human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

Question 4.
Fill the given table and write the genotypic ratio basing on table.

Answer:

The genotypic ratio is 1: 2: 1

Question 5.
Who decides the sex of the baby, mother or father? Explain with a flow chart.
(OR)
Draw a flow-chart showing the sex determination in human beings.
Answer:
Father decides the sex of the baby.

Question 6.
Define the terms phenotype and genotype.
Answer:
Phenotype: The observable properties of an organism that are produced by the interaction of the genotype and the environment. These characters can be seen.
Genotype: The genotype is the genetic make-up an individual usually with reference to a specific characteristic consideration.

Question 7.
What questions you will ask a palaeontologist about fossils?
Answer:

1. What are fossils?
2. How do they preserve?
3. What can be the actual remains?
4. How do they form?
5. What do we call the study of fossil?
6. Can you tell some examples of fossils?
7. How do the palaeontologists determine the age of fossils?
8. What are dinosaurs and ketosaurs? In which years they belong?
9. Where did they collect the fossil of dinosaurs? What is the length of this fossil?
10. Where did they preserve the fossil of dinosaurs?

Question 8.
How does the embryological evidences support that Evolution has taken place?
Answer:
Evidences:

1. Remarkable similarities in the Embryos of different animals from fish to man.
2. Tadpole of frog resembles the fish more than the frog.
3. Life history of every individual exhibits the structural features of their ancestors.
4. The resemblance is so close at an early stage, it is difficulty to distinguish one embryo from other.

Question 9.
Observe the checker board and answer the following questions.
i) Write phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross.
ii) How many heterozygous plants are present in the checker board?
Answer:
i) Phenotypic ratio 3 : 1
ii) Two heterozygous plants – (Yy, yY)

Question 10.
What happens if there is no evolution?
Answer:

1. Evolution is a continuous and comprehensive process.
2. If it does not take place, there is no formation of new species.
3. Variations do not take place and hence desirable traits are not developed.
4. All the Earth would be with the primitive species without any changes.

Question 11.
If you cross a plant with pure yellow seeds (YY) with a plant with pure green seeds (yy), what would be the colour of the seeds in F₂ generation? Show in a checker board.
Answer:
All pea plants are yellow in F₁ generation on self pollination in F₁ generation.
In F₂ generation, we can observe that 75% are yellow seed producing pea plants and 25% are green ones.
Hence the phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1 the genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1

Question 12.
If you meet a historian to clarify your doubt on ‘Man has first born in African conti¬nent’, what type of questions will you ask him / her?
Answer:

1. What is human evolution?
2. When were early man like forms appeared on land?
3. When did the fossil of the homosapiens appeared on earth?
4. Where did the early man lived?
5. Where can we trace the earliest members of the human race homosapiens?
6. When do some of our ancestors left Africa?
7. How the residents of Africa migrated to other places?
8. Why did the residents of Africa migrated to other places?
9. Are all humans evolved from single ancestor?

Question 13.
What is the difference between Phenotype and Genotype?
Answer:

Question 14.
What are the differences between homozygous and heterozygous ?
Answer:

Question 15.
How do traits get expressed according to Mendel?
Answer:

1. Mendel hypothesised that each character or trait is expressed due to a pair of factors or alleles.
2. Now these alleles are known as genes.
3. Gene is made up of a segment of DNA which provide information of protein.
4. Protein is needed for biochemical process.
5. If the proteins work efficiently, the traits get expressed in better way.
6. Thus genes control the traits or characters.

Question 16.
What is speciation? How it occurs?
Answer:

1. Origin of new species from existing one is called speciation.
2. It may occur due to a) mutations and b) natural selection.

Question 17.
What is sex chromosome? Name the two types of sex chromosomes. Mention the chromosomes present in male and female?
Answer:

1. The chromosome which determine the sex of a person is called sex chromosome.
2. The two types of sex chromosomes are X chromosome and Y chromosome.
3. Sex chromosomes in male is XY.
4. Sex chromosomes in female is XX.

Question 18.
Write a short notes on the law of “inheritance of acquired characters”.
Answer:

1. Law of inheritance of acquired characters was proposed by Jean Baptist Lamarck.
2. He thought that the characters acquired by an organism in its life time are passed to its offsprings.
3. He thought that at same point of time in the history, the size of giraffe was equal to that of deer.
4. Due to shortage of food material on the ground and lower branches of trees giraffes started stretching their necks.
5. Because of continuous usage of neck, after several generations giraffes obtained longer necks.
6. Such characters that are developed during the lifetime of an organism are called acquired characters.

Question 19.
Write a short notes on the theory of “Natural selection”.
Answer:

1. The theory of natural selection was proposed by Charles Darwin.
2. This theory states that nature only selects or decides which organism should survive or perish in nature.
3. The organisms with useful traits will survive.
4. The organisms having harmful traits are going to be perished or eliminated from its environment.

Question 20.
Write briefly about “Survival of the fittest”.
Answer:

1. Variations which are useful are retained, while those which are harmful are removed.
2. In a population where there is a struggle, the “fittest” will be survived.
3. Nature favours only useful variations.
4. Each species tends to produce large number of offspring.
5. They compete with each other for food, space, mating and other species.
6. In this struggle for existence, only the fittest can survive. This is called survival of the fittest.
7. Over long period of time this leads to formation of new species.

Question 21.
How are new species evolved?
Answer:

1. Sexual reproduction and errors in DNA copying leads to variations in offspring in a population.
2. Organisms contain variations that help to adapt to its environment going to be survived more efficiently.
3. But in the same population, the organisms which contain the trait which may not help to adapt in its environment may be perished or eliminated slowly.
4. These small changes within the population due to variations is called micro evolution.
5. When organisms of the same species with variations are separated by some cause for long years, lot of variations may take place in these species.
6. These accumulated variations make them unable to mate and produce new offsprings.
7. Thus new species form and this is known as speciation or macro evolution.

Question 22.
Write a brief note on homologous organs.
Answer:

1. Homologous organs are the organs which perform different functions but have similar structure and origin.
2. For example forelimb of a whale (swimmer), bat (flyer), horse (runner), mole (digger) and man (grasping).
3. If we carefully observe the anatomy of all these animals, they have a common pattern in the arrangement of bones.
4. Even though their external form and functions are different, they are similar internally.
5. Thus it indicates that all the vertebrates have evolved from a common ancestor.

Question 23.
What are fossils? Write a short note on their formation.
Answer:

1. Fossils are evidence of ancient life forms or ancient habitats which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Fossil evidence is typically preserved within sediments deposited beneath water and land.
3. They can be actual remains of once lived such as bones or seeds or even traces of past event such as dinosaurs foot print or ripple marks on a pre-historic shore.
4. Usually when organisms die, their bodies will be decomposed and lost.
5. But sometimes the body or at least some parts may be in an environment that does not let it decompose completely.
6. For example if a dead insect get caught in mud, it will not decompose quickly and the mud will eventually harden and retain the impression of the body parts of insect.
7. All such preserved traces of living organisms are called fossils.

Question 24.
How would you appreciate Jean Baptist Lamarck for his contribution to the biology?
Answer:

1. Jean Baptist Lamarck was the first person to propose the theory of evolution.
2. He proposed that the acquired characters are passed to its offspring i.e., to next generation.
3. This is known as inheritance of acquired characters.
4. For example elongation of neck and forelimbs in giraffe.
5. Even though this theory was disproved, his contribution to biology was appreciable because it changed the belief of the people of olden days that the organisms on the earth have not undergone any change.

Question 25.
How did August Weisemann disprove the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters” proposed by Lamarck? (OR)
What example will you give to prove that Lamarckism is not correct?
Answer:

1. August Weisemann, tested the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters” proposed by Lamarck by an experiment on rats.
2. He removed tails of parental rats.
3. He observed its offsprings which have normal tails.
4. He has done it again for twenty two generations but still offsprings are normal with tails.
5. He proved that the bodily changes are not inherited. So they won’t be passed to its offspring.
6. Thus he disproved the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters”.

Question 26.
Some organisms or species adapt better and survive in a community of organisms. Why do you think this may happen?
Answer:

1. This may happen due to the variations posessed by the organisms which are suitable to that habitat.
2. The variations that help the organism to collect food to escape from their enemies, increase the chance of survival for the organism than the other organisms.
3. In general, variations come during sexual reproduction or mutation.
4. If the variations are useful, that organisms can adapt better and survive.
5. These organisms can be selected by the nature.

Question 27.
What do you understand about pure breeds?
Answer:

1. Pure breed is that expresses the selected character over several generations.
2. A pure breed will have both the factors of the same type.
3. It means all the pure breeds are homozygous.
4. All the gamates produced by them will have same type of factor.
5. Pure breed on self pollination will give pure breed again.

Question 28.
What do you understand about F₁ generation?
Answer:

1. F₁ generation or first filial is the offspring of first generation parents.
2. Cross pollination of pure breeds will give F₁ generation.
3. All the individuals produced in F₁ generation are heterozygous.
4. Only the dominant characters are expressed in this generation.

Question 29.
What are the differences between F₁ generation and F₂ generation of mono hybrid cross?
Answer:

Question 30.
What are the differences between monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross ?
Answer:

Question 31.
Write a short note on fossils of dinosaurs, ketosaurs collected in Telangana state.
Answer:

1. A rare and magnificient fossil of the dinosaurs, ketosaurs were collected in Yamanapalli in Adilabad district of Telangana district.
2. They belong to the lower jurassic age going back to about 160 million years.
3. This fossil has 14 meters length and 5 meters height.
4. This fossil is preserved in BM Birla Science Centre. Hyderabad.

Question 32.
Write a short notes on vestigial organs.
Answer:

1. During the course of evolution some organs remain in organisms, even though they don’t have any work to do.
2. For example appendix in the digestive system of human beings has no role to play in the process of digestion.
3. But in herbivores like rabbit appendix plays important role.
4. Such type of organs which are not useful in animal are called “vestigial organs”.
5. There are nearly 180 vestigial organs in human beings such as pinna, hair on skin, mammary glands in human, etc.
6. That’s why human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fossils are the precious evidences preserved by the nature to help us knowing about ancient life forms. Write the information you collected about fossils.
Answer:

1. Fossils are the evidences of ancient life forms or ancient habitates which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Fossils provide information about what lived in the past.
3. Palentologists determine the age of fossils by using carbon-dating method.
4. They convey us about genetic condition, heredity characters through inactive chromosomes which are present in them.
5. They give a detailed information about their diet, life styles, shape of body, etc.
6. Fossils provide the information about how species have changed across long periods of the earth history.

Question 2.
a) If a sperm with ‘X’ chromosome fertilizes with an ovum with ‘X’ chromosome, what will be the gender of the baby?
b) Who determines the sex/gender of the baby, mother or father?
c) Is it correct to blame the mother for giving birth to a baby girl?
d) Are all our characters resembles our parents?
Answer:
a) Female
b) Father
c) Not correct
d) No, some variations occur.

Question 3.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions. Vamsi and Priya are newly married couple. They want to give birth to a male child.

a) Draw a probable diagram showing transfer of chromosomes from parents to give birth to male child.
Answer:
b) Who determines the sex of the baby? How can you say ?
Answer:
Father (Vamsi) determines the sex of the baby. Because the chromosome ‘Y’ that determines male sex is present in males.

Question 4.

i) What does the given flow chart indicate?
Answer:
Sex determination in human beings

ii) What will happen if the sperm containing ‘X’ chromosomes fertilises the ovum?
Answer:
Baby will be a girl

iii) Who decides the sex of the baby – Mother or Father?
Answer:
Father

iv) How many pairs of chromosomes are present in off-spring?
Answer:
23 pairs

Question 5.
Write a brief note on Homologous and Analogous organs.
Answer:
Homologous organs: Organs which are structurally similar but functionally different are known as “Homologous organs”.
Forelimbs of a whale – swimming
Wings of a bat – flying
Forelegs of cheetah – running

Analogous: Organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as “Analogous organs”.
Eg : Wings of a bird – flying
Wings of a bat – flying

Question 6.
Observe the flow – chart and answer the following.
i) What does the flow – chart represent?
Answer:
The flow – chart represents a monohybrid hybridisation between a pure breed Tall (T) and a pure breed dwarf (t) plants resulting first filial generation. On self pollinating with F₁ generation the new breed have any combinations of T, t came in F₂ generation.

ii) What is the phenotype characters in F₁ generation?
Answer:
In the phenotypic characters in F₁ generation all are dominant that is (T) Tall,

iii) What is the Genotype, Phenotype ratio of F₂ generation?
Answer:
Genotype ratio in F₂ generation is 1 : 2 : 1
Phenotype ratio in F₂ generation is 3 : 1

iv) What laws of inheritance did you understand by this flow – chart?
Answer:
understand that i) the law of dominance ii) law of segregation proposed by Mendel.

Question 7.
Write the Darwin’s theory of evolution in a nutshell.
Answer:

1. Any group of population of an organism has variations and all members of group are not identical.
2. Variations maybe passed from parent to offspring through heredity.
3. The natural selection over abundance of offspring leads to a constant struggle for their survival in any population.
4. Individuals with variations that help them to survive and reproduce tend to live longer and have more offsprings than organisms with less useful features.
5. The offsprings of survivors inherit the useful variations, and the same process happens with every new generation until the variation becomes a common feature.
6. As the environment changes, the organism within the environment adapt and changes to the new living conditions.
7. Over a long period of time, each species of organism can accumulate so many changes that it becomes a new species, similar to but distinctly different from the original species. All species on the earth arise in this way.
8. Evolution is a slow and continuous process that involves several thousands of generations.

Question 8.
What are Mendel’s laws of inheritance? What are the reasons to choose pea plant for his experiment?
Answer:
Mendel’s Laws of inheritance:

1. Law of Dominance : Among a pair of closely related ‘alleles’ or factors, only one expresses itself. In the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other. This is called as Mendel’s Law of dominance.
2. Law of Segregation : The law of segregation states that every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait that each parent posses a randomly selected copy only one of these to its off-spring.
3. Law of Independent assortment : In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters (traits), the factors for each pair of characters assort independently of the other pairs. This is known as ‘Law of Independent assortment’.

Mendel has chosen garden pea as material for his experiment because:

1. It has well developed characters.
2. It is a bisexual flower.
3. Predominently self pollinating.
4. Suitable for cross pollination.
5. It is an annual plant.

Question 9.
What is Phenotype and Genotype? Explain them with the help of Mendel’s Monohybrid cross.
Answer:
Phenotype: Expression of visible character of an individual is called phenotype.
Genotype: Genetic constitution of an individual for any character is called Genotype or Probable nature of factors is known as genotype.
Cross Pollinating a pure breed of yellow coloured pea seeds (YY) and green coloured pea seeds (yy) give F₁ generation. All pea seeds were yellow in F₁ generation. So, yellow colour is phenotype. ‘Yy’ is genotype of all pea seeds in F₁ generation.

F₂ Generation : Self pollination of F₁ pea plants (Yy)

Phenotype Ratio is 3:1 Genotype Ratio is 1:2:1.

Question 10.
Explain in brief any two evidences of Evolution.
Answer:
Some of the evidences of evolution are

1. Homologous and analogous organs
2. Evidences from embryology and
3. Evidences from fossils.

I. Homologous and analogous organs :

1. Organs which have common fundamental anatomical plan and similar embryonic origin, whatever varied functions they may perform are regarded as homologous organs.
2. For example forelimb of a whale, wing of bat, leg of leopord, claw of mole and hand of man.
3. They indicate that all the vertebrates are evolved from common ancestor.
4. Organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as “Analogous organs”.
5. For example wings of bats and wings of birds.
6. The designs of the two wings, their structure and components are different but they look similar because they have a common use for flying but their origin is not common.

II. Evidences from embryology:

1. There are remarkable similarities in the embryos of different animals from fish to man.
2. The resemblance is so close that at an early stage even an experienced embryologist would find difficulty to distinguish one embryo from the other.
3. This strengthens the view of the existence of a common ancestor from which all these have evolved.

III. Evidences from fossils:

1. Fossils are evidences of ancient life forms or ancient habitats which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Palaeontologists determine the age of fossils by using carbon dating method.
3. These fossils provide evidences of presence of extinct animals like dinosaurs and how the evolution occurred on the earth, etc.

Question 11.
Observe the given flow-chart and answer the following questions:

i) Name the chromosomes that determine the sex of an individual.
Answer:
Y Chromosome of father.

ii) Show given information in the form of Checker Board.
Answer:

iii) In this situation, which principle of Mendel is applicable?
Answer:
Law of dominance

iv) “Mother determines the sex of the baby”. Is this statement correct or not? Why?
Answer:
The statement is not correct. Because the sperm of father that carries Y chromosome fertilize with ovum of mother that contains X chromosome the resultant will be XY – Male baby.

Question 12.
Keep in mind Mendel’s experiments and write what you know about the following concepts?
a) Pure breed b) Phenotype c) Genotype d) Alleles
Answer:
a) Pure breed: These are the plants that expresses a selected character over several generations. Such plants according to Mendel were pure breed for that character.

b) Phenotype: The characters which can be seen is known as phenotype. We cannot determine the internal factors by phenotype. It tells about only the dominating char-acters which express externally. The phenotype ratio in monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.

c) Genotype: The genetic make up of an individual is known as genotype. Genotype itself is the indication of internal factors. It tells about both dominant and recessive characters present within. The genotype ratio in monohybrid cross is 1 : 2: 1.

d) Alleles: Alleles are corresponding pairs of genes located at specific positions in chromosomes. Together they determine the genotype of their host organism. Every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a rondomly selected copy of only one of these to an offspring. The offspring then receives its own pair of alleles for that trait one each from both parents.

Question 13.
Competition among organisms, variations, natural selection survival of the fittest.
Which theory explains all these aspects? Describe them in a orderly manner.
Answer:

1. Competition: Every living organism in this world reproduces itself. The rate of multiplication and existence of organisms are more or less common for all living things. But the food supply and space remain unchanged, in other words they are limited. Under these conditions, there is a competition among the organisms to fulfil their needs of food and space. This is known as struggle for existence. It may be interspecific, intraspecific and the environment factors.
2. Variations: Every organism has its own specific characteristic and relationship with its environment. The variability caused by variations may be large or small. Large variations are known as macro variation and small variations called micro variations. Variations may be favourable or harmful. Those with useful variations survive while the others perish.
3. Natural selection: The organism with favourable variations are best adapted to the environment in which they live. They have a better chance of survival and perpetuation of race. This principle is called natural selections.
4. Survival of the fittest: Variations which are useful are retained, while those are harmful are lost. In a population where there is a struggle, the fittest will be survived and the less adjusted will be perished. This is known as the elimination of the unfit.

Question 14.
What is genetic drift? Explain how it provides diversity in the population.
Answer:

1. Changes in the frequency of genes in small populations, due to accidents is known as “Genetic drift”.’
2. Let us consider a colour variation occurred in red colour beetles which are living on green coloured leaves of bushes.
3. It results in “blue” colour beetles instead of ‘red’ colour beetles and passed its colour to its progeny.
4. Initially in the population, there are few blue beetles, but most are red.
5. Imagine at this point, an elephant comes by and stamps on the bushes where the beetles live.
6. This kills most of the beetles but by chance a few beetles survived are mostly blue.
7. Again the beetle population slowly increases, but in the beetle population most of them are in blue colour.
8. Thus genetic drift provides diversity in the population.

Question 15.
Have the apparent groups of human beings (races) evolved differently?
Answer:

1. No, there is no biological basis to the notion of human races. All humans are a single species.
2. Regardless of where we have lived for the past few thousand years, we all came from Africa.
3. The earliest members of human species, Homosapiens, can be traced there.
4. Our genetic footprints can be traced back to our African roots.
5. A couple of hundred thousand years ago, some of our ancestors left Africa while others stayed on.
6. While the residents spread across Africa, the migrants slowly spread across the planet.
7. They did not go in a single line. They went forwards and backwards, with groups, sometimes separating from each other, even moving in and out of Africa.
8. Like all other species on planet, they had come into being as an accident of evolution, and were trying to live their lives the best they could.

Question 16.
How would you appreciate Gregor Johann Mendel’s contribution to the genetics?
(OR)
Why Gregor Johann Mendel is considered as the father of genetics?
Answer:

1. Gregor Johann Mendel worked on the problem of how variations were passed from one generation to the other.
2. As he was a monk, he did his experiments with interest in the garden of the monastery.
3. He worked for over seven years after which he presented conclusions from his experimental data in a form of a detailed research paper.
4. Mendel made many careful observations of pea plants and asked himself questions about what he observed and then planned and designed experiments to find the answers.
5. He had worked on nearly 10,000 pea plants of 34 different varieties choosing 7 distinguishing forms of characters.
6. His experimental outcomes gave the idea how the variations were passed on from one generation to another.
7. He was an exemplary person for his observation, planning, patience and experimental skills.
8. His efforts to know the secrets of nature was really appreciable.

Question 17.
What are the hypothesis assumptions and outcomes of Mendel’s experiments with pea plants?
Answer:
Regarding his experiments with pea plants, Mendel hypothesised that

1. Characters were carried as traits and an organism always carried a pair of factors for a character.
2. The distinguishing traits of the same character were present in the population of an organism.
3. The traits shown by the pea plants must be in the seeds that produced them.
4. The seeds must have obtained by the traits from the parent plants.

His assumptions made to explain his observations are:
Assumption 1: Every pea plant has two ‘factors’ which are responsible for producing a particular property or trait.
Assumption 2: During reproduction one ‘factor’ from each parent is taken to form a new pair in the progeny.
Assumption 3: One of these will always dominate the other if mixed together.

Laws made from his experiments:

1. Law of Dominance: Among a pair of alleles for a character, only one expresses itself in the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other.
2. Law of Segregation: Every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a randomly selected copy of only one of these to its offspring.
3. Law of Independent Assortment: In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters the factors for each pair of characters assorts independently of the other pairs.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam

8th Class Social Studies 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Make simple questions based on each section of the chapter (Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam) and ask one another. Check if the answers are correct.
Answer:

1. What is Khudkasht?
   Answer:
   It means self-cultivated land.
2. Who introduced the Permanent Settlement of Tax and when?
   Answer:
   Cornwallis introduced this in 1793.
3. What happened if the Zamindars could not pay the tax?
   Answer:
   They became defaulters.
4. What are ‘ceded’ districts?
   Answer:
   Bellary, Ananthapur, Kurnool and Kadapa.
5. Who built the Prakasam Barrage?
   Answer:
   Sir Arthur Cotton.
6. Based on how many years, the Ryotwari war fixed?
   Answer:
   20, 30 years.
7. When was the American Civil War started?
   Answer:
   In 1861.
8. What was the forced labour without payment called?
   Answer:
   Vetti
9. What were the forms of income did the Zamindars expect from farmers?
   Answer:
   Ghee, milk, vegetables, gur, grass/straw, cowdung cakes etc.
10. With what did they compensate the old landlords in Hyderabad state?
    Answer:
    They paid ‘Rusum’, an annual payment.
11. Write an example for severe famine.
    Answer:
    Ganjam Famine.
12. Write the names of any two peasant movements.
    Answer:
    The Deccan riots of 1860s, Rampa fituries, Moppila agitations etc.

Question 2.
Compare the condition of tenant farmers before freedom and farmers of today. What differences and similarities do you find?
Differences:
Sometimes the tenant farmers could not pay the rent and deserted the lands. They borrowed loans from moneylenders. If they could not repay their loans on time, the moneylenders went to court to get their land auctioned to recover the loan money. The rent was 3 to 7 times more than its revenue.
The farmers of today are fixing and paying rents in a proper method. In time of need they borrow money from the banks.
Similarities:
Their conditions are pitiable in both periods. The owners of the lords are not working for the developmental activities. The cultivators are becoming permanent debtors.

Question 3.
During the freedom movement, the zamindars normally supported the British. Can you explain why?
Answer:
The policies of zamindars created a gap between them and their people. They earned more assets in the British reign. So they normally supported the British during the freedom movement.

Question 4.
What role did the moneylenders play in the lives of the peasants? In what way do you were they think supported by the British government?
Answer:
Farmers borrowed loans many times from moneylenders to pay revenues. If they could not repay their loans on time, the moneylenders also went to court to get their land auctioned to recover the loan money.

Due to this British rule, for collecting land revenue, many peasants fell into deep debt trap. The moneylenders became richer and richer as more and more peasants came under their grip.

The British government did not show any interest in the welfare of the farmers as it showed in collecting revenue. Thus the moneylenders were supported by the British.

Question 5.
What were the similarities and differences between the Doras and the Zamindars of Awadh?
Answer:
Differences :

1. Doras were under the Nizam’s rule. Zamindars were under the British rule.
2. Doras paid revenue collection to Nizam, but Zamindars paid to the British.
3. Doras illtreated their tenants and farmers, Zamindars made them suffer only economically.

Similarities :

1. Both suffered the peasantry.
2. Both had large fields.
3. They were independent in others’ rule.

Question 6.
What kind of measures did the British take to improve agriculture? Did it have the desired impact? Give your reasons.
Answer:
Some British administrators believed that it is the duty of the government to invest in large scale irrigation works. They built anicuts and canals. They recognised the ownership of the land. They fixed the revenue per acre by taking the yield, prices, market conditions, crops etc., into consideration.

Before the cultivation they made necessary advances to the ryots to purchase seeds, implements, bullocks and to repair old wells or dig new ones. This proved very effective and that year saw a bumper crop and good revenue collection. So I think their approach was right.

Question 7.
How did the Ryotwari settlement also give rise to landlordism?
Answer:
Even in the Ryotwari areas the land revenue was fixed at a very high level. Unlike in the Zamindari areas it was fixed for twenty to thirty years. After expiry of the tenure period the revenue was revised, taking the changed conditions into consideration. The land revenue was so high that in the beginning it had to be collected by force. Soon however as prices rose faster than the land revenue and the ryots found it more profitable to employ tenants to cultivate their lands and receive rent from them.

Soon the Ryotwari area too was full of landlords who rented out their lands to helpless tenants for very high rents. The tenants had to pay rent that was three to seven times more than the land revenue paid by the ryots to the government. (That is if a ryot paid Rs.100/- as land revenue for a piece of land to the government, he was able to get Rs. 300/- to 700/- from the tenants for the same land.) As a result they too did not have any interest in investing in improving agriculture, but only in renting it out at higher and higher rates.
Thus the Ryotwari settlement also gave rise to landlordism.

Question 8.
Why were famines caused under British rule? Do you think it was because of failure of rains or floods?
Answer:
The rains and floods caused one or two famines during the British rule. Most of the famines occurred due to their dictatorial rule. They exported food grains in the famines. They had no interference when the merchants created artificial scarcity by hoarding food grains. They didn’t work for the welfare of the people in India. So the famines were caused.

Question 9.
In what way can a government help to prevent famines even in times of crop failure?
Answer:
A government can help even in times of crop failure :

1. by supplying agricultural products from the areas of surplus.
2. by providing water facilities.
3. by postponing the E.M.Is of their loans.
4. by drying and storing the surplus crop.

Question 10.
Imagine that you are giving a representation to a British Government Enquiry committee. Write down the grievances of tenant farmers in the form of an appeal.
Answer:

Memorandum

13-07-1845.

Sir,

Being Indians, we are ashamed of paying more rents for our own lands. Peasants, landlords and zamindars are not interested in any developmental activities. So we have no irrigation facilities and others. We are not able to get even common yield. The revenue system introduced by the British government is not favourable to us. The rents are increasing day by day. At present they are seven times more than the revenue. Our assets are ready to be auctioned. So we request you to handle the situation carefully keeping all these things in view. Once again we request you to improve our living standards.

Thanking you,

Yours obediently,
Andhra Pradesh Tenant Farmers Association

Question 11.
Locate the following in the given India map.

1. Ganjam
2. Awadh
3. Hyderabad
4. River Godavari

Answer:

Question 12.
Read the paragraph under the heading ‘Countless Collections, Cesses and Payments’ and answer the following:
How are we paying the taxes nowadays?
Answer:
Now-a-days we are paying some taxes directly govt, through its related department. Some other taxes are paid indirectly.

Project

Question 1.
Make teams of five students and interview five elders of the village to know about how things were during the British days. At least two of them should be women, and at least one person should be from the artisans. Talk to them at length and prepare detailed reports about what they have to say.
Report
Answer:
Britishers developed India according to their needs. They were selfish in this attitude. Some people supported and some opposed them. During the colonial period some gained some lost. We were treated as second class civilians in our own motherland. Women were uplifted with the introduction of women education, abolition of child marriages and widow re-marriages. But the handicrafts were suppressed. The introduction of motors and machines caused this. They are still in the same situation. On the whole the British rule caused mixed results.

Question 2.
Find out about famines in your area. What did people do in those times?
Answer:
Our area is located in Chittoor district. There is a great famine in recent year. It is caused due to lack of rainfall and crop failure. In these times people are migrated due to lack of rainfall and crop failure to urban areas in search of livelihood. These people mostly worked as daily – wage labourers, watchmen in colonies, apartments and shops. Some of them also engaged in granite and construction industry on the city’s outskirts.

Question 3.
Find out about families that migrated to distant places like Kuwait, Saudi Arabia from your area.
Answer:
Ours is a Village in Kadapa district in Andhra Pradesh. Once many people worked in our fields. But many of them went to Saudi and Kuwait for household and industrial works. They earned good incomes there and increased their assets here. We can say that the rich people in our area are mostly the migrated ones.

8th Class Social Studies 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Did the Zamindar own all the lands of the villages in the Mughal times? (Textbook Page No. 111)
Answer:
No. They owned some of the village lands. They had the power to collect revenue from the villagers. Rest of the land was owned by peasants and others.

Question 2.
What did the Zamindars do for the Mughal government and what did they get in return? (Textbook Page No. 111)
Answer:
The Zamindars collected the revenue from the peasantry on behalf of Mughal emperors. In return they received a share of revenue collected. Sometimes they also had right to collect some small local taxes.

Question 3.
How the changes would have affected the position of the farmers who tilled the land for several generations? (Textbook Page No. 113)
Answer:

1. This settlement inadvertently converted all the peasants into the tenants.
2. Since rent collected was much higher than the revenue, the cultivators could not pay and sometimes deserted the lands. These were the affects.

Question 4.
What is the difference between revenue and rent? (Textbook Page No. 113)
Answer:
Revenue: Tax on land which is paid to the zamindars or government.
Rent: Amount paid to the owners of the land for using and cultivating it.

Question 5.
In what ways did the government invest in agriculture during the early British rule? Do you think it could have been done by farmers themselves? (Textbook Page No. 115)
Answer:

1. The Britishers made necessary advances to the ryots to purchase seeds, implements, bullocks and to repair old wells or dig new ones.
2. They constructed anicuts & canals.
   It could not have been done by farmers themselves.

Question 6.
How did the land revenue lead to peasants losing their lands to the money lenders? What would the money lenders have done with the land? (Textbook Page No. 114)
Answer:
The peasants were forced to work on the zamindars’ fields and many peasants could not cultivate their own fields properly. They could not improve their fields. Their plight can be seen in a government report written in 1878. The report says that the peasants do not try to dig well on their lands or irrigate it, nor do they try to bund their fields or dig drains or use fertilisers. “They do nothing to improve their land because they fear they can be evicted from their land at any time. If they improve their farming, the zamindar immediately increases the share he takes from them. But the zamindars also prevent the peasants from improving their fields because they are afraid that the peasants would then start asserting their rights over the land.”

Question 7.
In what forms did the zamindars take away the produce of the tenants? (Textbook Page No. 118)
Answer:

1. The peasants were forced to do ‘Vetti’ in the lands of zamindars.
2. The zamindars also tried to extract as much money as they could from the peasants under a variety of pretexts.
3. The peasants also had to regularly supply ghee, milk, vegetables, gur, straw, cow dung cakes etc., free of cost to zamindar’s house.
   Thus they paid in form of labour, cash and kind.

Question 8.
How did the position of the revenue collectors change in the Nizam state? (Textbook Page No. 119)
Answer:
In the Hyderabad State under the Nizam rule there were many forms of subordinate chieftaincies like Jagirdars, Samsthanamdars and Inamdars which ruled like independent chiefs. They collected revenue from the lands under them, and gave a small part to the Nizam as ‘peshkash’ and kept the remaining with them. They were also responsible for the administration of their areas.

The large landlordsrwere called ‘Doras’. The Doras lived in large fortified houses called ‘gadi’ and had a large retinue of servants and soldiers. They had vast lands cultivated by tenants and also lands directly cultivated with forced labour. They acted as village money lenders too. They also had judicial powers over the entire village. They settled all village disputes and were usually partisan towards the upper castes.
Thus their position was raised to higher cadre.

Question 9.
How was a ‘dora’ different from an ordinary landlord? (Textbook Page No. 119)
Answer:
The large landlords were called Doras. They had a large retinue of servants and soldiers. Ordinary landlords were under the control of these ‘doras’. Landlords should follow the orders of ‘Doras’. This is the difference between them.

Question 10.
Do you think the Zamindars would have helped the independent cultivators in any way? Give reasons for your answer. (Textbook Page No. 112)
Answer:
Zamindars were acted as mediaters during Mughal period and helped the cultivators. But during the British they didn’t help the cultivators. As a result in the long run, the zamindars also suffered and became defaulters. Numerous zamindaris were sold off at auctions organised by the East India Company. Anyone who failed to pay the revenue, lost his zamindari.

Question 11.
How do you think it was possible for the zamindars to keep increasing their incomes without increasing investment in the land? (Textbook Page No. 114)
Answer:
The prices of grains in the market rose and cultivation slowly expanded. This meant an increase in the income of the zamindars but no gain for the Company as it could not increase the revenue demand that had been fixed permanently. Even then the zamindars did not have an interest in improving the land. Some had lost their lands in the earlier years of the settlement; others now saw the possibility of earning without the trouble and risk of investment. As long as the zamindars could give out the land to tenants and get rent, they were not interested in improving the land.

Question 12.
Who do you think would have benefited from the Ryotwari Settlement – the farmers, the landlords or the British? Give reasons. (Textbook Page No. 116)
Answer:
The landlords would have benefited from the Ryotwari settlement.
Reasons:

1. There was an increase in the number of landlords in the Ryotwari area.
2. They showed much interest in giving their lands on rents rather than cultivation.

Question 13.
Compare these actual outcomes with what you had predicted. How similar or different was it? (Textbook Page No. 116)
Answer:
I think that the conditions of the cultivators may get improved with the Ryotwari system. But my prediction goes on wrong. Farmers became as landlords and the tenants as coolies.

Question 14.
Why do you think the ryots not invest in improving agriculture or extending agriculture? (Textbook Page No. 116)
Answer:
The prices rose faster than the land revenue and the ryots found it more profitable to employ tenants to cultivate their lands and receive rent from them. So they did not invest in improving agriculture or extending agriculture.

Question 15.
Imagine and describe the condition of the landless tenants of the ryots. (Textbook Page No. 116)
Answer:
The landless tenants had to pay the revenue and the rent many times more than their yield. They had no chance to develop their fields or to invest on it. They had to approach moneylenders to meet their expenditure. If they could not repay their loans on time, the moneylenders also had to go to court to get their land auctioned to recover the loan money.

The agricultural prices were determined by the international market. As a result the tenants had to bear more losses. If they cultivated cash crops, it would have resulted in scarcity of food. As a result, they had to desert the lands. Many people migrated to South Africa, Mauritius, Fiji and other distant places as coolies during ‘Ganjam Famine’.

Question 16.
Discuss the changes in the lives of traditional crafts persons and village artists. (Textbook Page No. 118)
Answer:
Traditional crafts persons are adding technology to their tradition. As the prices are high, there is no demand for their products. Village artists had enjoyed the encouragement of the Kings and Zamindars. Now they lack it. So their lives are in worse condition.

Question 17.
Why do you think it was necessary to defeat the palegars before the Ryotwari Se ttlement could be introduced? (Textbook Page No. 115)
Answer:
Palegars resisted the imposition of British rule and indulged in constant war and looting. They had armed followers. Identifying the orizinal land owners was very difficult. So they should be subdued first. I think law and order should be restored before the Ryotwari settlement.

Question 18.
If you live in the ‘Ceded Districts’, find out about the palegars who fought with the British. (Textbook Page No. 115)
Answer:
Mahy wars were broken out between Palegars and the British from 1798 to 1805. First war was fought between Veerapandya and the British in 1799. Second main war was fought between a group of Palegars and the British. After a long andexpensive campaign-the-British finally defeated the revolting Palegars of whom many were beheaded and hanged while others were deported to the Andaman Islands. Of the Palegars who submitted to the British some of them granted Zamindari status, which had only tax collection rights and disarmed them completely.

Question 19.
Who ultimately profited from production for export market and why? (Textbook Page No. 117)
Answer:
Peasants very often borrowed money from moneylenders in order to pay land revenue. As usually the peasants borrowed money from them for the production so as to do export market. As the demand was reduced, they incurred losses. They suffered a lot as they could not earn enough to pay back the loans they had taken. The moneylenders became richer and richer as more and more peasants came under their grip.

Question 20.
Have you heard of any similar rapid rise or decline in prices of any agricultural produce in our own times? Find out about its impact on the farmers. (Textbook Page No. 117)
Answer:
In recent past, there was an increase in the prices of rice and red gram. Later they were reduced by the government. Peasants grew some crops thinking of high profits. If the demand fell, they would get losses that year.

Question 21.
Why do you think the zamindars kept the soldiers and small forts? (Textbook Page No. 112)
Answer:
Zamindars had some villages under their control. They were the mediators between the rulers and the ruled. They had much income also. So they lived in small forts. To protect their people from thefts and attacks, to collect revenues they needed soldiers. So they maintained them.

Question 22.
Who do you think gained the most from the ‘Permanent Settlement’- the British Government, the zamindars or the peasants? Give your reasons. (Textbook Page No. 113)
Answer:
The Zamindars gained most from the ‘Permanent settlement’.
Reasons:

1. The zamindars paid only 10% of prefixed revenue. They did not pay the surplus collection to the British.
2. Peasants had to pay more revenue. Those who could not pay the revenue, lost their land. They changed as tenant farmers.

Question 23.
In what ways did the zamindari system fail in the objectives with which the British had introduced it? (Textbook Page No. 114)
Answer:

1. Zamindars did not develop the lands.
2. They did not invest on lands.
3. Land revenue is very high.
4. There were no exceptions at the time of famines and crop failures.
5. East India Company frequently changed the zamindars in auctions.
6. The Zamindars were interested in their earning but not in constructive ideas and works.
7. Some landlords and moneylenders got profited.
   Due to these reasons the Zamindari system failed in the objectives.

Question 24.
When the ‘Permanent Settlement’ was introduced, there was no detailed lanjd survey. Why do you think was it needed for the ‘Ryotwari Settlement’? (Textbook Page No. 115)
Answer:
As the Zamindars were middlemen, the Britishers could not get proper income. Peasants suffered a lot from lack of developmental activities. So the British planned to collect revenue directly from the peasants by providing various facilities. So the detailed land survey is needed for the ‘Ryotwari Settlement’.

Question 25.
Why did the high revenue rates prevent zamindars and farmers from improving agriculture? (Textbook Page No. 117)
Answer:
As they paid heavy rates of rents and revenue from their income, they were not able to improve agriculture. They used the remaining amounts for their household purposes.

Question 26.
Why did the war in America lead to increase in prices of cotton in India? (Textbook Page No. 117)
Answer:
In 1861, there was Civil war in America and British factories turned to India for supply of cotton. As a result cotton prices soared high.

Question 27.
Why do you think the peasants were not willing to invest in their lands? (Textbook Page No. 118)
Answer:
They had no funds to invest in their lands. They had fear that they could be evicted from their land at anytime. If they improved their forming, the Zamindars immediately increased the share he took from them. But the Zamindars also prevented the peasants from improving their fields because they were afraid that the peasants would then start asserting their rights over the land.

Question 28.
Among all forms of exploitation, the peasants hated ‘vetti’ the most? Can you explain why? (Textbook Page No. 119)
Answer:
During the colonial period the peasants were forced to do ‘vetti’ on the personal land of the landlords. The soldiers would even catch peasants walking on the road and force them to do vetti in the zamindar’s fields.

1. Many peasants could not cultivate their own fields properly.
2. They could not improve their fields.
3. They could not earn incomes.
4. This was an inhumane activity.
   So the peasants hated ‘vetti’.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them

8th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning
Question 1.
Do you agree with the following statements? Give reasons for your agreement or Contradiction.
a) The notion of private property is important to protect the forest.
b) All forests need to be protected by human beings.
c) Over the centuries most people living on earth have reduced their dependence on forest for their livelihood.
Answer:
a) I agree with this statement. They were sent out of their homes and they lost that ‘ours’ feeling.
b) I agree with this statement. The trees and human beings are interdependent. So all forests need to be protected by human beings.
c) Yes, I agree with this. Many other kinds of employment and business opportunities were created on the earth. So the dependence on forests is reduced.

Question 2.
Create a timeline to show the major changes in use of forest over centuries. It may be necessary to look at your textbooks from previous classes.

Answer:

Question 3.
Based on the details given in the above text, or from what you already know about the forests, compare the type of forest that is closest to your area of living on the following aspects.

Answer:
Ours is a Maredumilli village in East Godavari district. Our forest is as follows.

Question 4.
Observe the map of forests in Andhra Pradesh and find out which district (s) has/have the maximum forest covered area?
Answer:
Visakhapatnam, East Godavari, Srikakulam and Prakasam districts have the maximum forest covered areas in our state.

Question 5.
A few children in a school participated in Vanamahotsavam programme and they planted some saplings. How do you respond to this?
Answer:
I appreciate this action very much. The children’s participation in this brightens the future of the country. But they should take care of their plants till they grow.

Question 6.
Read the paragraph under the heading ‘Forests of Andhra Pradesh’ and answer the question:
You read about some of the important kinds of forests in our state But how large are our forests? Are they increasing or decreasing? Let us find out. About 64,000 sq kilometres of the state are declared as forest by the government. This is about 23% of all land in the state.

However, all this is not really forested as only about 16% of our land has tree cover to qualify as forest. This means that is about 7% of our forest lands are open grounds and with very few trees. Even this forest cover is dwindling due to felling, encroachment, mining etc. Every year about one hundred sq kilometres of forests are lost in our state
What suggestions do you have for increasing the forest cover in our state?

Answer:

1. Government should adopt social forestery scheme.
2. Plantations should be taken in bare lands in forests.
3. Consumption of forest products should be minimised.
4. Renewable sources of energy should be invented.
5. Forests should be protected from illegal activities.
6. Awareness should be created about the necessity of forests among the common people.
7. Plantations should be taken in the area of used up mines.

Question 7.
Locate the various places mentioned below different photographs of forests given in this chapter in an Atlas. What similarities and differences can you find among them?
Answer:
Similarities & Differences

Question 8.
What are the differences between Ever green forests and Deciduous forests?
Answer:
Difference between Evergreen forests and Deciduous forests:

1. Evergreen forests: Evergreen plants in evergreen forests have leaves or needles that stay on the plant throughout all of the seasons. This does not mean that the needles or leaves never die or fall off. It means that when they do, they are replaced by new ones and the plant is never without greenary.
2. Deciduous forests: Deciduous trees in deciduous forests lose their leaves flow September onwards, with some trees, this is accompanied by stunniodelus autumn colours. This happens at different points throughout the autumn, depending upon, the species of tree and weather at the point that this occurs.

Question 9.
Observe the pictures and write a comment.

Answer:
Tragically, human beings operate under the belief, that they have the right to do what they please to animals.
On the earth, the plant kingdom and the animal kingdom appeared first, before human kingdom. But now the later occupied more land on the earth. So the forests and wild life are to be protected.
Additional Information:

Mineral kingdom
↓
Plant kingdom
↓
Animal kingdom
↓
Human kingdom

8th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
You have read about forests and people living forests in the previous classes. Can you recall some of them and talk about people who live in the forests? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
“Good morning all of you. Forests are lifeline of the lives. The area of forest should be 33% of the area of any country. But in India it is 23% only. These figures show our critical condition. Adivasis are 8% of our total population. Approximately 60% of them live in forests. They lead their lives in the lap of nature. Their traditions, customs, religious rituals, groups, agriculture – in every issue, they are different from others. Their welfare is our welfare. Save trees, they save us. Thank you one and all”.

Question 2.
What is a forest? There can be many ways of defining a forest. Write a definition of forests. Then discuss jointly in the class and write down points which seem to be correct to most students. (Textbook Page No. 50)
Answer:
A large tract of land covered by trees is called a forest.
Definitions:

1. A forest is best defined as an ecosystem or assemblage of ecosystems dominated by trees and other woody vegetation.
2. A place where the environment is covered from all sides with trees and wildlife means.

Correct points:

1. It is ecosystem.
2. It is dominated by trees.
3. There are another woody vegetations also.
4. Its place is covered with trees, from all sides.
5. There is wildlife also.

Question 3.
Find out how the mangrove trees adapt to the special conditions of sea coasts.
(Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:
Mangroves, like desert plants have special adaptations for growing in low moisture and high salt conditions.
One special strategy for coping with high concentrations of salt is special salt – excreting glands on leaves.
Another is exclusion of salt from entering roots with water uptake. They have specialised aerial breathing roots known as pneumatophores.

Question 4.
You may remember reading about Equatorial forests in Nigeria. What are the main differences between the forests of Andhra Pradesh and the Equatorial forests? (Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:

Question 5.
Do you think there is any difference between a plantation of Eucalyptus trees or tea shrubs and a forest? Discuss in the class. (Textbook Page No. 57)
Answer:
Forest trees grow in both height and breadth. The diameter at the top should be more or less equal to its height.
Eucalyptus trees are long, but at the top they are not broad enough. The plantations in tea estates are grown upto a height of 3 to 4 feet. Otherwise, it will be useless. So I think there is a difference between these three varieties.

Question 6.
What was the difference between the protection of forests by the tribal people and by the Forest Department? (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
Tribals treated the forest as their mother. Their birth, life, death-every event was in the laps of forests. They felt no difference between them and forest. So they didn’t cause any harm or loss to the forests. In agriculture also they took necessary safety measures.

But the Forest Department officials usually belonged to distant and rich communities. They regarded the tribal people as ignorant and dangerous. They had no positive feeling about the forests.

This is the difference between protection of forest by the tribal people and by the Forest Department.

Question 7.
Can each of you draw a picture of a forest and compare them? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
In some pictures the forests are dense.
In some pictures there are gaps between tree trunks.
In some pictures some plain ground is visible in the forest.

Question 8.
Write a caption on the above cartoon in the contest of forest. (Textbook Page No. 50)
Answer:

1. “More usage makes us stand on the edge of a blade”.
2. “In front, there is crocodiles’ festival”. (Jovial cartoon)

Question 9.
Do you think it is important to have forests ? What will happen if all the forests are cleared and used up for growing crops, building factories or mines or houses for people to live ? Can’t we live without forests? Discuss in your class. (Textbook Page No. 51)
Answer:
Both plant and human kinds are interdependent. We cannot live or lead life on the earth without forests. We breathe in O₂ and breathe out CO₂ and the plants vice-versa. 1/3 of the total land on the earth should be covered with trees or forests. Otherwise it leads to natural disasters.

Question 10.
“Every year about 100 sq. km of forests are lost in our state” – Is this a satisfactory situation? Discuss in your class. (Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:
No, this is not a satisfactory situation. This affects our biodiversity, rainfall and soils etc. We can say this as critical condition.

Question 11.
Discuss in the class which way would have been better. (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
It would have been better if the tribal people left alone to lead their traditional lives in the forests. Our government also followed the British policy which was not fair.

Question 12.
In what way do you think it (Forest Right act) makes up for the injustice done to the tribal people in the past 200 years?
Answer:
The act confers on forest dwellers and other traditional users of forests, their traditional rights over the forest and also title to lands they use. If implemented properly, this act can be used to undo the wrongs done to the tribal people for generations.

Question 13.
Discuss this in the class – do you think it is the correct way to redress the wrongs done to the tribal people? How will it help in protecting the forests? What other steps need to be taken for this? (Textbook Page No. 61)
Answer:
I think this is the right way to redress the wrongs done to the tribal people. They are the children of the forests and they alone can protect them. But there should be some supervision on them to avoid the usage of forest products for commercial purpose. If they are provided with some minimum needs this could be controlled.

Question 14.
Some of you may be familiar with a nearby forest – its trees, plants, animals, rocks, streams, birds and insects. Describe to the class the forest in detail and what you do there. (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
Ours is Maredumilli in East Godavari district. Our village is itself in a forest. This is on Bhadrachalam road. We are in the lap of nature’s beauty. Bamboo, Peepal, Neem, Amla, Teak, Sal etc., are the main trees here. Coffee and rubber plantations are also here. We can see wild animals also rarely. Different birds, colourful flies make us happy. Visitors from different places come here to enjoy the nature. We collect and eat the tubers, fruits, honey. If they are excess, we will take them to our nearest town to sell them. With these earnings we take our grains and cereals from the town.

Question 15.
Have you ever been to a forest to collect firewood, leaves or fruits and tubers? Tell everyone in the class about it and also make a list of all the things people in your area collect from the forests. How are they used? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
We live in Salur, Salur mandal in Vizianagaram district. My father Ramachandra Rao works in Private company Once we planned for ‘Chandi Homam’. We had to collect ‘Samidhalu’ (dry sticks of sacred trees) from the nearest forest. My friends and I went to the forest. We collected Peepal’s, Bilwa’s samidhalu. During that time we were afraid very much.
The people of this forest collect honey, medicinal plants, tree barks, amla, gum, tamarind etc., from the forest. They use them as their food and sell the unused in the nearest towns.

Question 16.
Our folk tales and Puranas and stories repeatedly mention forests. Can you relate in the class some such stories about the forests ? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
Ramayana and Mahabharata are the two great epics of our country. These two tell us about the ‘Aranya vasa’. This is the story of Ramayana. After the announcement of ‘Rama Pattabhishekam’, Kaika sent him to forests for 14 years. Rama went to the forest of ‘Dandakaranya’ with his brother Lakshmana and wife Sita. It is in Bastar district in central India. As the forest is known for this ‘Dandana’ (punishment), it got its name Dandakaranya. He lived there for a few years. When Ravana took away Sita with him, Rama went to Lanka to kill him. Later he killed Ravana in the war and returned to ‘Ayodhya’ after 14 years of exile.

Question 17.
Many forests are sacred and are worshipped by the people. Some forests are famous as the abode of some gods and goddesses. Find out about them and tell everyone in the class about them. (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
At the end of ‘Dwapara yuga’ all the rishis and sages went to ‘Lord Brahma’. They requested ‘Brahma’ to suggest them a ‘sacred’ place to continue their further penance and to save themselves from the effect of ‘Kali’. Then Brahma took a sacred wheel and rolled it down on the earth and said wherever that wheel stopped, that would be the place. It stopped in ‘Naimisha’ which was in between Panchala and Kosala kingdoms. At present it is Sitapur, in Uttar Pradesh. It is on the banks of ‘Gomathi’ river. Now it is famous with its name ‘Naimisaranya’. This story is mentioned in Mahabharatha, Siva Purana etc.

Question 18.
Look at the map of Andhra Pradesh given on the showing the distribution of forests. Find out if your district has any forest and if yes, what kind of forest. (Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:
Ours is East Godavari district. We have mangrove forest in our area.

Question 19.
Find out from your elders about their experience of CFM and also Social Forestry projects. (Textbook Page No. 60)
Answer:
Madras Forest Act was introduced in 1882 and later it was changed as A.P. Forest Act 1882. Again another act was introduced in 1915. Other forest policies and rules were declared in 1956, 1967, 1970 and 1971. Joint Forest Management (J.F.M.) was introduced in 1990. It was changed as Community Forest Management (C.F.M) in Telangana. While this programme helped to bring together the Forest Department and the local communities, it only forced the tribal people to give up their earlier podu lands for forest regeneration. During the same time, several Tiger Sanctuaries were established in the forests to protect wild life.

In 1976 government introduced Social Forestry Scheme. Its aim was taking the pressure off the forests making use of unused and fallow land. These should be afforested. With the introduction of this, government formally recognised the local communities right to forest resources.

Question 20.
Which is the nearest forest area from your village or town ? Find out why this area still has tree cover and has not been converted into fields or habitations or mines. (Textbook Page No. 51)
Answer:
Ours is Maredumilli village in East Godavari district. It is situated on a hill top. Rampachodavaram is very very near to us. These two are forest areas. These two stood independent in the British period also. Most of the area was under the control of tribals. No minerals were found in this area.

Question 21.
Due to historical factors and physical conditions, this remains as forest only.
a) Do you think it is possible for people to take care of forests and use them as well?
b) What would they have done if someone had tempted them to cut trees and sell them in the markets? (Textbook Page No. 56)
Answer:
a) It is possible. In present society many people are cultivating fruits and vegetables. They are protecting their gardens by selling the fruits and vegetables.
b) They definitely oppose and reject the suggestion. For ex: All their festivals are related to trees. Mamidi panduga, Gongura panduga, Mutyalamma panduga etc. They may cut a branch or some else but not the trees. They don’t cut their home.

Question 22.
List all the causes for the decline of forests in the last 200 years. Do you think Poducultivation was also responsible for this? Give your arguments. (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
Causes for decline of forests :

1. Agriculture
2. Cattle rearing
3. Mega projects
4. Fires
5. Logging
6. Mangroves and shrimp farming
7. Mining, oil and gas

We can say that ‘Podu’ is also one of the reasons. The tribals left their traditional food, and depended on crops. So the land in forests is changed as agriculture land.

Question 23.
Why do you think the tribal people were not able to pay the land revenue demanded by the government? (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
By one stroke of the government the tribal people were rendered homeless in their own homes. The government handed over these lands to zamindars and cultivators. The evicted tribal people had to work for these landlords. On the lands which the tribal people were to cultivate, they had to pay very high revenue. They had no habit or chance of saving money. So they were not able to pay the taxes.

Question 24.
Why do you think the government thought that forest was not important for tribal people’s development? (Textbook Page No. 60)
Answer:
I think that the government had lost its foresight and thought that forest was not important for tribal people’s development.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 10 Natural Resources.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 10th Lesson Our Environment

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Recently a new programme was launched in our state known as “Vanam – Manain”. Prepare any two slogans to promote the programme.
Answer:
a) Save forest, forest will save you.
b) Grow the plants and get the fresh air.

Question 2.
Suggest any two practices suitable to farmers with less water resources.
Answer:

1. Construction of percolation tanks (or) Soak pits
2. Irrigation techniques like drip irrigation and usage of sprinklers.

Question 3.
Why should we conserve forests? Give two reasons.
Answer:
a) Forests serve as lungs for the world. They purify the air and protect the earth from greenhouse effect and global warming,
b) Forests are rich habitats for plants

Question 4.
Ravi observed symbol on the plastic water bottle purchased by him. What does this symbol indicate? and animals.
Answer:
The symbol on the plastic bottle indicates that the bottle is made from recycled plastic and after its use it can be recycled.

Question 5.
Write any two suggestions for the conservation of biodiversity at your village.
Answer:

1. Protecting and preserving the natural habitats of birds and animals.
2. Replace the wood products with alternative sources.
3. Using Recycled products and following the 4’R Principle in day to day life.

Question 6.
Suggest any two activities to check soil erosion in your school.
Answer:

1. Observe the school ground after the rain.
2. Conduct a field project on soil erosion.

Question 7.
To create awareness on “Water conservation” in your locality, what slogan you will suggest?
Prepare two slogans on ‘Save Water’ propaganda.
Answer:
“Don’t Waste Water”.
“Save every drop”.
“Water is life”.

Question 8.
The symbol is there on the item you bought. What it instructs? (OR)
What does the given logo indicate? What does it mean?

Answer:
It is the Recycle logo. It indicates that the item we bought is prepared from recycled materials or the item can be recycled after use.

Question 9.
What happens if the forest area decreases rapidly?
Answer:
If the forest area decreases

1. It destroys wildlife habitat.
2. It increases soil erosion.
3. It releases green house gases into the atmosphere contributing to global warming.
4. It also harms people who relay on forest for their survival, hunting and gathering, harvesting forest products or using timber and firewood.

Question 10.
Write two activities which you are performing to save electricity.
(OR)
Write any two measures vou take in your home to reduce the consumption of electricity.
Answer:

1. We can reduce the consumption of electricity by putting off the fans and lights when there is no need.
2. We can use LED (Lighting Emitting Device) bulbs to save electricity.
3. To shut down laptops and computers when they are not in use.

Question 11.
Prepare two slogans on protecting non-renewable resources.
Answer:

1. Use Biofuel – Reduce Fossil Fuel.
2. Use alternative resources – Save the environment.

Question 12.
Write two examples for non-renewable resources.
Answer:
Examples for non-renewable resources are coal, petroleum and natural gas.

Question 13.
What is sustainable development? Is it needful for us?
Answer:
When we use the environment In ways that ensure we have resources for the future, It Is called sustainable development. It Is needed because development and conservation can coexist In harmony.

Question 14.
What are examples for natural resources?
Answer:
Examples for natural resources are water, soil, forests, flora, fauna, etc.

Question 15.
What are percolation tanks?
Answer:
Percolation tanks are normally earthen dams with masonry structures where water may overflow.

Question 16.
What are Kharif crops?
Answer:
Crops grown In the rainy season are termed as Kharif crops, e.g: Paddy, maize, millet and cotton crops.

Question 17.
What are Rabi crops?
Answer:
The crops that are grown only in winter season are generally called Rabi crops, e.g.: Wheat, Gram and Mustard.

Question 18.
What is the average fall of ground water level in Andhra Pradesh state during the period of 1998 – 2002?
Answer:
The average fall of ground water level In Andhra Pradesh state during the period of 1998 – 2002 Is 3 meters.

Question 19.
Which agency in villages of Warangal district helped in recharging wells that were being dried up?
Answer:
Centre for water solidarity (Secundrabad, T.S.) helped In recharging wells that were drying up In the villages.

Question 20.
Give examples for micro irrigation techniques.
Answer:
Drip irrigation, sprinklers are the examples for micro irrigation techniques.

Question 21.
Mow did the boundaries between the villages were fixed in ancient times?
Answer:
In ancient times village boundaries were decided upon a water shed (Land between water sources usually of two rivers or streams) basis fixed at the common point of the drainage system In between two villages by the expert farmers In the village.

Question 22.
Expand ICRISAT.
Answer:
International Crop Research Institute for Semi-Arid Tropics.

Question 23.
What is the other name for Sri Rama Sagar Project?
Answer:
Sri Rama Sagar Project also known as the Pochampadu project on the Godavari river,

Question 24.
What is the use qf planting Gliricidia on field bunds?
Answer:
Planting Gliricidia on field bunds help In strengthen them and make the soli nitrogen-rich.

Question 25.
What is the micro irrigation system that can reduce water consumption by 70%?
Answer:
Drip irrigation can reduce water consumption by 70%.

Question 26.
Who predicted that by 2025, 1.8 billion people will be living in countries or regions with absolute water scarcity ?
Answer:
The Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) of the united nations has predicted that by 2025, 1.8 billion people will be living in countries or regions with absolute water scarcity.

Question 27.
What happens if we use resources wisely?
Answer:
If resources are used wisely and efficiently they will last much longer. Through conservation people can reduce waste and manage natural resources wisely.

Question 28.
Give an example of country where restrictions on water usage were imposed.
Answer:
In Australia restrictions were imposed on activities like, watering lawns by using sprinkler systems, washing vehicles, using house pipes to clean paved areas, and refilling swimming pools.

Question 29.
Why are the natural resources used up quickly?
Answer:
The population of human beings has grown enormously in the past two centuries. Billions of people use up resources quickly as they eat food, build houses, produce goods and burn fuel for transportation and electricity.

Question 30.
What happens if we damage a forest resource?
Answer:
Harm to animals that may be forced to find new habitats. If we damage a forest resource indiscriminately the depletion of resources occur and we may have to face problem for water and timber in future.

Question 31.
What are the results of deforestation?
Answer:
Deforestation destroys wild life habitats and increases soil erosion and also releases green house gases into atmosphere, contributing to global warming.

Question 32.
How the people in China and Mexico recycle paper? (OR)
Give an example of recycling paper by the people. What is the use of recycling paper?
Answer:
People in China and Mexico reuse much of their waste paper, including writing paper, wrapping paper and card board.

Question 33.
How the soil is important for us ? How the soil is importane for us?
Answer:
Soil is vital to food production and also important to plants that grow in the wild.

Question 34.
What are the reasons for depletion of nutrients in soil?
Answer:
Poor farming methods, such as repeatedly planting the same type of crop in the same place cause depletion of nutrients in the soil.

Question 35.
What is biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity is the variety of living things that populate the Earth.

Question 36.
How are people speeding up the loss of biodiversity?
Answer:
Through hunting, pollution, habitat destruction, people are speeding up the loss of biodiversity.

Question 37.
How many plant species are being used by us for medicines world wide?
Answer:
We use between 50,000 to 70,000 plant species for medicines world wide.

Question 38.
What is selective harvesting?
Answer:
The practice or removing individual plants or small groups of plants leaving other plants standing to anchor the soil is called selective harvesting.

Question 39.
How are fossil fuels produced?
Answer:
The fuels that are produced from the remains of ancient plants and animals are called fossil fuels. They include coal, petroleum and natural gas.

Question 40.
What are the alternate sources of energy?
Answer:
The alternate sources of energy are sun, wind and water.

Question 41.
What are the other products made from petroleum?
Answer:
Plastic, synthetic, rubber, fabrics like nylon, medicines, cosmetics, waxes, cleaning products, medical devices, etc., are the other products made from petroleum.

Question 42.
Which plant’s seeds are used for the production of bio-fuel?
Answer:
Seeds from the Jatropa Curcas plant are used for the production of bio-fuel.

Question 43.
How does the mining method, Mountain Top Removal mining (MTR) devastate the environment?
Answer:
The mining method Mountain Top Removal mining devastate the environment. They destroy soil, plants and animal habitats.

Question 44.
In which country car manufacturers recycle many raw materials used in making automobiles?
Answer:
In Japan car manufacturers recycle many raw materials used in making automobiles.

Question 45.
In which country nearly one third of the iron produced comes from recycled automobiles?
A. In the United States, nearly one-third of the iron produced comes from recycled automobiles.

Question 46.
What does the Indian tradition teach us?
Answer:
The Indian tradition teaches us that all forms of life – human, animal and plant are so closely inter linked that disturbance of one gives rise to imbalance in the other.

Question 47.
Expand IUCN.
Answer:
IUCN stands for International Union for the Conservation of Nature.

Question 48.
How is IUCN planning to protect wild life and habitats?
Answer:
IUCN monitors the status of endangered wild life, threatened national parks and preserves.

Question 49.
What are the four R’s to save the environment?
Answer:
Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, Recover are the four R’s to save the environment.

Question 50.
How did Amritha Devi and her daughters protest against the king’s order?
Answer:

1. Amritha Devi and her daughters, followed by villagers, who clung to trees in the forest surrounding their village and laid down their lives to save them.
2. They protested against the king’s order to collect wood for the construction of his palace.

Question 51.
Write a method of soil conservation.
Answer:
One soil conservating method is called contour strip cropping. Several crops such as corn, wheat and clover are planted to alternating strips across a slope or across the path of the prevailing wind.

Question 52.
What is the rate of extinction by the estimation of the scientists?
Answer:

1. Scientists estimate that the current rate of extinction is 1,000 times the natural rate through hunting, pollution, habitat destruction.
2. Based on various estimates of the number of species on Earth, we could be losing anywhere from 200 to 1,00,000 species each year.

Question 53.
What is the need to protect biodiversity?
Answer:
We need to protect biodiversity to ensure plentiful and varied food sources. Biodiversity is important for more than just food because many plant species are being used for medicines.

Question 54.
Mention two ways in which water harvesting can be undertaken?
Answer:
The two ways by which water harvesting can be undertaken are

1. Capturing run off water from, rooftops.
2. Capturing run off water from local catchments.

Question 55.
On the basis of the issues raised in the chapter management of natural resources, what changes you in corporate in your lifestyle in a move towards a sustainable use of our resources?
Answer:
I would incorporate the maximum of four R’s i.e., reduce, recycle, reuse and recover in my lifestyle in a move towards a sustainable use of our resources.

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Rahul remarked that different human activities are responsible for global warming.
What might be the reasons for his statement?
Answer:

1. Deforestation.
2. Industrialisation and urbanization.
3. Conversion of agriculture lands into residential areas.
4. Home appliances like A/C, refrigerators, vehicle pollution.
5. Population explosion.

Question 2.
What steps do you take to improve natural resources?
Answer:

1. Motivate the people to conserve water.
2. Try to avoid wastage of water whenever possible.
3. Plantation in the vacant lands.
4. Educating the farmer regarding proper utilization of water for irrigation.
5. Encourage the people to recycle the water wherever possible.

Question 3.
Proper utilisation of natural resources is the way to show gratitude to our nation.
Can you support this statement? Give your argument.
Answer:

1. Natural resources of a nation influence its economical and social development.
2. Natural resources are freely available in nature and help in many activities and development of people.
3. The generation of natural resources take a lot of time.
4. They disappear by indiscriminate usage.
5. So proper utilization of natural resources is the way to show gratitude to our nation.

Question 4.
The humans are utilising natural resources indiscriminately. These resources are decreasing more rapidly. Guess what will be the consequences in future?
Answer:
Indiscriminate usage of natural resources causes the following consequences.

1. Reduction in rainfall
2. Drought will occur.
3. Atmospheric temperature becomes increase.
4. The rare species become extinct.

Question 5.
Write any four slogans on the conservation of natural resources.
Answer:
Slogans:

1. Waste water today – live in desert tomorrow
2. Practice eco-friendly methods.
3. Use natural resources judiciously.
4. Save nature – Save future.

Question 6.
There is an increase in the atmospheric temperature year by year. If it continues, guess and write what would be the consequences?
Answer:
If the temperature on earth increases, the consequences would be as follows.
a) All the glaciers and the frozen ice in the polar region start melting leading to rise in the sea water levels.
b) It results in the submergence of low lying coastal areas throughout the world. Millions of people of those areas would lost their homes.
c) Changes in rainfall patterns take place and it result in the occurance of droughts and decrease in crop production.
d) Global warming results in climate change which cause the breakout of climatic sensitive diseases like Malaria, Dengue, Diarrhoea, etc.

Question 7.
There is water scarcity in Ravi’s village during summer. He wants to conduct a rally to create awareness regarding conservation of water. Write any four slogans required to conduct this rally.
Answer:

1. Water is life.
2. Save water – Save a life.
3. Today’s rain water is tomorrow’s life saver.
4. No matter your occupation, water conservation is your obligation.

Question 8.
What steps you take to conserve the biofuels in your daily life?
Answer:

1. Development and usage of alternative energy resources in place of bio-fuels.
2. Minimise the usage of bio-fuels whenever possible.
3. Use public transport, ride by bicycle and walking regularly.
4. Use and purchase energy efficient appliances to save bio-fuels.

Question 9.
Why do we use fossil fuels judiciously?
Answer:

1. Fossil fuels were produced from the remains of ancient plants and animals.
2. They include coal, petroleum (oil) and natural gas.
3. We need to use fossil fuels judiciously because they are non – renewable resources.
4. We need to conserve fossil fuels so we don’t run out of them.
5. The pollution caused by them when burnt, to limit our fossil fuel use.
6. Future generations may not get these resources.
7. Balance in the nature will be disturbed.
8. Electricity production will be stopped.
9. Vehicles running with fossil fuels become useless.

Question 10.
Write two suggestions to create awareness on groundwater conservation.
Answer:

1. We need to adapt different methods to Improve the quality and increase the quantity of groundwater.
2. We should dig water harvesting pits for every house.
3. We should clean the silt, mud fill in tanks and ponds.
4. We should prohibit the establishment of borewells for extraction of groundwater for agricultural and Industrial use.
5. These measures will improve quality and quantity of groundwater.

Question 11.
What is the importance of 4R’s in achieving the goal of “Swachh Bharat”?
Answer:

1. Reduce the production of garbage.
2. Reuse the garbage for the production of manure and electricity.
3. Recycle the garbage by separating It as dry and wet garbage.
4. Recover the plants.

Question 12.
Suggest four measures to conserve fossil fuels.
Answer:
Measures to conserve fossil fuels:

1. Usage of alternatives to fossil fuel.
2. Minimise the usage of fossil fuel.
3. Walk, ride by bicycle and use public transportation whenever possible.
4. Purchase energy efficient appliances.
5. Turn off light and other electronics when you are not using them.

Question 13.
The indiscriminate digging of Borewells may result in what type of consequences in future?
Answer:

1. Due to over drilling of borewells and pulling out water by electric motors, the ground water level Is decreasing day by day.
2. It Is goes on without recharging, ground water becomes scarce.
3. It shows impact on agriculture and the productivity will decrease.
4. Fluorine levels In ground water will increase.
5. Sometimes, saline water may intrude Into the interior places of land and water becomes unfit for consumption.
6. Farmers have to drill the bore wells to more depths which Increase the losses for them.

Question 14.
Ramaiah made broad bed furrow around his field under employment guarantee scheme. Guess the reasons for if. If all the farmers of your village work together, will their water scarcity meet?
Answer:
The reason for Ramaiah making broad bed furrow around his field was, it is useful to conserve soil and water, fertilizer application weeding operations. It also conserves rain water.

The farmers are over coming the water scarcity by sharing water available in the village. They formed groups of farmer including large and small ones who would use the same water resource. Farmers were also motivated to use irrigation techniques like drip irrigation.

Question 15.
What are renewable sources and non-renewable resources?
Answer:
Renewable resources: Resources that can be replaced after they are used are called renewable resources.
Ex: Air, water and soil.
Non-renewable resources: Some other resources, cannot be replaced at all: Once they are used up they are gone forever and are called non renewable resources.
Ex: Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas (fossil fuels).

Question 16.
How do people waste natural resources?
Answer:

1. People often waste natural resources.
2. Animals are over hunted, forests are cleared, exposing land to wind and water damage.
3. Fertile soil is exhausted and lost to erosion because of poor farming practices.
4. Fuel supplies are depleted.
5. Water and air are polluted.
6. Water resources is indiscriminately used for crop growth.

Question 17.
How do people use the forest resources differently?
Answer:

1. The need to conserve resources often conflicts with other needs.
2. For some people, a forest area may be a good place to put a farm.
3. A timber company may want to harvest the area’s trees for construction materials.
4. A business company may want to build a factory or a shopping mall on the land.

Question 18.
What are die effects of deforestation?
Answer:

1. Deforestation destroys wild life habitats and increases soil erosion.
2. It also releases green house gases into the atmosphere, contributing to global warming,
3. Deforestation accounts for 15 per cent of the world’s green house gas emissions.
4. Deforestation also harms the people who rely on forests for their survival, hunting and gathering, harvesting forest products, or using the timber for firewood.

Question 19.
In your opinion What are the causes for soil erosion?
Answer:

1. Soil erosion is caused by poor farming methods such as repeatedly planting the same type of crop in the same place.
2. These methods deplete nutrients in the soil.
3. Soil erosion Is also caused by water and wind currents.
4. When farmers plough up and down hills, soil erosion occurs.
5. Overgrazing by cattle also causes soil erosion.
6. Natural floods causes the extensive damage to the top layer of the soil.

Question 20.
What is Biodiversity? Explain.
(OR)
What is the importance of biodiversity?
Answer:

1. Biodiversity is the variety of living things that populate the earth.
2. The products and benefits we get from nature rely on biodiversity.
3. We need to protect biodiversity to ensure plentiful and varied food sources.
4. Biodiversity is important for more than just food. For instance we use between 50,000 to 70,000 plant species for medicines world wide.

Question 21.
How can we use the fossil fuels carefully?
Answer:
We can use the fossil fuels carefully by taking the following measures.

1. Turn off lights and other electronics when we are not using them.
2. Purchase energy-efficient appliances.
3. Walk, ride a bicycle, if the distance is less.
4. Use public transportation whenever possible.
5. It is better to prefer public transport system like bus or train, instead of travel in personal vehicles.

Question 22.
Why the prices of aluminium and iron are expensive?
Answer:
Earth’s supply of raw material resources is in danger. Many mineral deposits that have been located and mapped have been depleted. As the ores for minerals like aluminium and iron become harder to find and extract, their prices go up.
This makes tools and machinery more expensive to purchase and operate.

Question 23.
What are the effects of mining?
Answer:

1. Many mining methods such as Mountain Top Removal mining (MTR) devastate the environment.
2. They destroy soil, plants and animal habitats.
3. Many mining methods also pollute water and air, as toxic chemicals leak into the surrounding ecosystem.

Question 24.
What did Smt. Indira Gandhi said, while launching the world conservation strategy in India on 6th March 1980?
Answer:
“The interest in conservation is not a sentimental one but the discovery of a truth well known to our ancient stages. The Indian tradition teaches us that all forms of life- human, animal and plant – are so closely inter-linked that disturbance in one gives rise to imbalance in the other” said by Smt. Indira Gandhi.

Question 25.
What are the steps taken by the government to conserve resources?
Answer:

1. Government enacts laws defining how land should be used and which areas should be set aside as parks and wild life preserves.
2. The government enforces laws designed to protect the environment from pollution, such as requiring factories to install pollution control devices and also provide incentives for conserving resources.

Question 26.
What is the necessity of sustainable management of natural resources? Out of the two methods reuse and recycle which one would you suggest to practice and why?
Answer:

1. Sustainable management of natural resources is necessary to Increase the over all life of natural resources specially non renewable resources and also to control the environmental pollution.
2. Both reuse and recycle are the good choice.
3. Reuse: If we reuse something then the cost of recycle will be saved.
4. Recycle: It is not necessary that each and everything can be reused, so after getting recycled the life of the resource will be enhanced.

Question 27.
“Burning fossil fuels is a cause of global warming”. Justify this statement?
Answer:

1. Fossil fuels are composed of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and sulphur.
2. When these are burnt they produce CO₂, H₂O, Oxides of Nitrogen and Sulphur.
3. Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels produces green house gases such as CO₂,
4. If huge amount of fossil fuels are burnt, It would produce high amount of CO₂ resulting intense global warming.

Question 28.
Can you suggest some changes in your school which would make it environment friendly?
Answer:
The changes that would make my school environment friendly are

1. Save energy by turning off lights that we are not using.
2. I will suggest to buy recycled paper for decoration and other purposes.
3. Use writing paper on both the sides.
4. Growing trees and plants all around the play ground.

Question 29.
What is the necessity of replenishment of forest? State four reasons.
Answer:
The replenishment of forest is necessary because of the following reasons.

1. It is used to conserve soil.
2. It provides shelter to wild animals.
3. It reduces atmospheric pollution.
4. It controls flood and increases frequency of rainfall.

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Forest is renewable resource. But, each year, the Earth loses about 36 million acres of forest. In this type of situation, what suggestions do you give to save forests from turning into non-renewable resources ?
Answer:

1. Forests are the lungs of the world. So I will suggest the following measures to save forests from turning into non-renewable resources.
2. Sustainable forestry practices for ensuing resources into the future.
3. Low impact logging practices, harvesting with natural regeneration in mind. Prevention of removing all the high value trees or all the largest trees from the forests. Recycling methods should be adopted.
4. Replace wood products with alternative sources.
5. Preventing forest fires.
6. Implementing methods like agro forestry, social forestry crop rotation, green plantation, etc. are essential.

Question 2.
What are four R’s? Explain how they help to conserve the environment?
(OR)
Write about the 4 ‘R’s needed for the protection and conservation of environment.
Answer:
By pursuing the maximum of four R’s i.e., Reduce, Reuse, Recycle and Recover, we can save the environment in an effective way.

1. Reduce : It means to use less, I would save electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and fans, prefer walking or cycling than using a vechicle, turn off the engine of car at red light, repair leaky taps and would not waste food.
2. Recycle: It means to collect used things like plastic, paper, galss and metal items and recycle these materials to make required things instead of synthesising or extracting fresh plastic, paper, glass or metal.
3. Reuse: It refers to use things again and again. For example instead of throwing away used envelops, they can be used by pasting new labels.
4. Recover: We should implement ‘recover’ to prevent environmental threat. For example when we cut trees to construct industries or roads for transportation, it is important to grow trees in another areas.

Question 3.
What steps you would like to follow on your part to conserve bio-diversity?
Answer:

1. Biodiversity is the variety of living things that populate the earth.
2. To conserve biodiversity we should avoid hunting.
3. Sustainable forest conservation methods should be followed.
4. I will actively participate Vana Mahosthavam programmes.
5. I will educate and encourage people and make them participate in conservation programmes.
6. Create awareness programmes in and around school.
7. Writing slogans and also make some posters about conservation of biodiversity
8. Judicious use of electricity wherever possible.
9. Finding out of various alternative sources of energy.
10. Plant the saplings in the habitat.
11. Encouraging of social forestry.

Question 4.
Observe the pie diagram showing water resources available in our state for agriculture and answer the given questions.
A) Which water resource is using more for agriculture?
B) What are the consequences of excess utilization of underground water?
C) Which water resource should be utilized for agriculture?
D) What are the alternative ways to increase the underground water resources?

Answer:
A) Ground water.
B) Underground water table will be depleted and scarcity of drinking water will arise.
C)

1. Tanks should be constructed to harvest with rain water.
2. Projects should be constructed across the rivers to store water that can be utilized for agriculture.

D)

1. Construction of rain water storage structures on large scale.
2. Constructing soaking or percolation pits.
3. Contour field bunding.
4. Recharge of wells by building dykes or barriers in the nalla.
5. Plantation in waste lands.
6. Adapting micro irrigation techniques.
   (Any two points you can write)

Question 5.
Forests are renewable resource. Write four sentences supporting this.
(OR)
“Forest is a renewable resource”. Do you agree? Justify.
Answer:

1. Forests are rich habitat for plants and animals. Forests serve as lungs for the world and a bed of nutrients for new fife to prosper.
2. Forest’s pure air protects the earth from green house effect by removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and converts it into oxygen.
3. Many fruits, medicines, dyes, sandle wood and bamboo is obtained from forest by local people.
4. Forest provide employment to large number of people and also help in generating revenue.

Question 6.
Observe the above table and answer the following questions.

1. Which crop is most suitable to cultivate for small farmer in both the villages?
Answer:
Cotton, paddy

2. If you are a large farmer, which crop do you select to cultivate?
Answer:
Cotton, paddy, mirchi

3. What similarities you have identified in village A and village B?
Answer:
Small and large fanners cultivated same type of crop in both villages. Large farmer gets more income per acre on crops than small farmer in both the villages.

4. Which is the lowest income crop ?
Answer:
Mirchi.

5. Is there any relationship between production of crops and income ? How ?
Answer:
Commercial crops are good for income. Income may or may not related to production of crop. It depends upon demand of the market.

Question 7.
Read the given information and answer the following questions.

A survey was conducted in two villages, Vanaparthy and Vaddicherla of Warangal district in Telangana State. The first with no scarcity and the second with scarce groundwater. Well census was carried out in the villages in order to get a complete picture of well irrigation and its status as well as availability of water. There are no alternative sources of supply as against wells in Vaddicherla, where there is an existing tank that has been converted into a percolation tank, so that the water situation is much better in Vanaparthy.

i) Why did they conduct survey?
Answer:
A compartive study on available water resources irigation method in the Vaddicharla and Wanaparthi of Warangal Dist of Telangana State.

ii) What are irrigation resources in Telangana State?
Answer:
Lakes, wells, canals and ground water etc…,

iii) In which village, do you suggest drip irrigation?
Answer:
Vaddicherla.

iv) Why the water situation is much better in Vanaparthy village compared to Vaddicherla?
Answer:
Existing tank has been converted into a percolation tank.

Question 8.
Observe the Pie diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Identify the fossil fuels from the above diagram.
Answer:
Coal, natural gas, oils are fossil fuels.

ii) Why wastes should be considered as primary energy source in future?
Answer:
The fossil fuels may be exhausted in future. So we may be considered that wastes are primary alternative energy resources.

iii) Why can’t we depend on fossil fuels forever?
Answer:
We can’t depend on fossil fuels forever because fossil fuels are non-renewable resources.

iv) What are the alternatives for fossil fuels?
Answer:
Solar energy, wind energy, tide energy, nuclear energy, energy from waste materials.

Question 9.
Explain the importance and implementation of community based interventions and farmer based interventions for water management.
Answer:
Community based interventions:

1. For water harvesting, there is an urgent need to construct earthen and masonry dams. They help us to store rain water during rainy seasons. They are help in increasing the ground water table.
2. Construction of percolation pits and field bunding are very helpful in the harvesting every rain drop.
3. Open dry wells near nalla canal were recharged by building dykes or barriers in the nalla and maintaining the run – off rain water. The ground water is recharged by these community based interventions.
   Farmer based interventions:
4. Broad Bed Furrow (BBF) land form and contour planting methods are very useful to conserve soil, water and fertilizer application and weeding operations.
5. Planting Gliricidia, a leguminous plant adapted to grow in dry areas on field bunds to strengthen them and make the soil nitrogen rich.
6. Farmers were encouraged to use water resource jointly and irrigate land using micro irrigation methods like sprinklers and drip irrigation.

Question 10.
Explain the farmer based and community based interventions to conserve soil and water resources.
Answer:

Question 11.
“The humans who were developed by using the natural resources, today has become the reason for destroying them”. Explain analytically.
Answer:
“The humans who were developed by using the natural resources, today has become the reason for destroying them” – This statement is absolutely true.

1. Primitive man lived in forests and hills. He used the natural resources for his livelyhood. He worshipped nature and used them wisely for his development.
2. After his development, he becomes greedy and using the natural resources indiscriminately and held responsible for their destruction.
3. To meet the needs of growing population, industrialization, urbanization, and huge constructive activities, man utilised natural resources Indiscriminately. At the same time, he did not planned for their revival.
4. But now he realised the importance of natural resources and taken up steps for their conservation. The concept of “Sustainable development” is being implemented in natural resource management.
5. He focussed on development of alternatives for fossil fuels, conservation of water and soil at community level and farmer based interventions.
6. Now he is so keen on conserving forests, wild life and biodiversity.
7. He is so cautious in minimising the utilization of natural resources by following 4’R principle in the day to day life [R – Reduce, R – Reuse, R – Recycle, R – Recover]
8. Now, he is adopting micro-irrigation methods like sprinklers and drip Irrigation to minimise the water usage in low water available areas.
9. He is very interested in following eco-friendly techniques, natural farming methods, using biofertilizers, vermicompost and natural pest control methods in place of toxic chemical pesticides.

Question 12.
The wells and tanks in your village become dry. Ground water levels decreased. Assume the causes for this. Will there be no water scarcity if all the farmers of your village work collectively?
Answer:
Causes for decreasing ground water levels:

1. Varying monsoon behaviour in recent years, there is a pressure on ground water utilization.
2. Indiscriminate tapping of ground water in our village by too much drilling and construction of deep tube wells and bore wells have resulted in over exploitation and depletion of ground water resources.
3. There will be no water scarcity if all the farmers of our village work collectively. Farmers in our village were encouraged to use water resource jointly and irrigate land using micro irrigation techniques. By using micro irrigation techniques farmers in our village obtained more crop yield. Farmers in our village follow the micro irrigation method i.e. drip irrigation and can reduce water consumption by 70% in our village.

Question 13.
Whom do you meet to collect the information of the methods of farmer based, community based water management? Prepare information table to note down your observation.
Answer:
I will meet officials of International Crop Research Institute for Semi – Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) located at Hyderabad to collect information of the methods of farmer based and community based water management.
I also collect information from Central Research Institute for Dry Land Agriculture (CRIDA), National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA), District Water Management Agency (DWMA) and M Venkatarangaiah Foundation (MVF) and NGO.
The information I gathered from these institutions is summarised below.
Information table:
For Information table See Q.No. 10 in 4 Marks.

Question 14.
Think that there is much scarcity of water for drinking and cultivation in your village. What advice do you give to prevent this?
(OR)
How do you overcome the problem of water scarcity in your village?
Answer:

1. Motivate the people to conserve water.
2. I will educate the people to avoid wastage of water whenever possible.
3. Construction of recharge pits in the house, school and in the open areas to increase the underground water level.
4. Planting trees wherever possible in the village particularly in the vacant lands.
5. Educate the farmers about the micro irrigation system like drip irrigation, sprin¬klers, etc.
6. Encourage the farmers to form groups to share available water among themselves.
7. Construction of percolation tanks in the low lying areas of the village.

Question 15.
What type of fossil fuels are used in your house? What measures do you take to conserve them?
Answer:
Fossil fuels are sources of energy for cooking, heating and burning in our households. Petrol and diesel are being used in our house for transport and running generators and water pumps.
Measures to be taken to conserve fossil fuels in my house :

1. I will put the food material to be cooked on the stove only after arranging all the things which are necessary for cooking.
2. By using pressure cookers 20% gas on rice and 41.5% on meat would be saved when compared to Other cooking means.
3. We must reduce the flame as soon as the boiling process starts in a pressure cooker. This process saves nearly 35% of fuel.
4. I will soak the food material before cooking. It saves 22% of fuel.
5. I will cook food in broad and low depth vessel.
6. I will keep lid on the cooking vessel. If not, it takes more time to cook.
7. For short distances to travel I will go by walk to save fuel for longer distance. I use public transport.
8. Encourage people to use solar water heater and solar cooker.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 13th Lesson The Indian Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 13th Lesson The Indian Constitution

8th Class Social Studies 13th Lesson The Indian Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Damanpur is ruled by its king based on a set of rules written down by the priest and ministers. He has also divided his kingdom into 16 provinces to which he appoints his officers as governors. Can we say that this is a democratic country? Is it a constitutional country? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
I cannot say it is a democratic country and a constitutional country.
Reasons:

1. The king came to throne on heredity.
2. Purohits and ministers were not elected but selected.
3. The officials were selected and appointed by the king.

Question 2.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Constitution determines the relationship between people and government.
b. Democratic countries generally contain a Constitution.
c. To make a Constitution to a diverse country like India is not an easy task.
d. All are correct.
Answer:
d (All are correct).

Question 3.
Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of the Constitution:
a. Motilal Nehru         [ ]   i) President of the Constituent Assembly
b. B. R. Ambedkar       [ ]  ii) Member of the Constituent Assembly
c. Rajendra Prasad      [ ]  iii) Chairman of the Drafting Committee
d. Sarojini Naidu         [ ]  iv) Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928
Answer:
a) iv
b) iii
c) i
d) ii

Question 4.
Read again the extracts from Nehru’s speech and answer the following:
a. What pledge did he want the makers of the Indian Constitution to take?
b. “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye.” Who was he referring to?
Answer:
a) The pledge he wanted the makers of the Indian Constitution to take was ‘incessant striving’.
b) He was referring to Mahatma Gandhiji.

Question 5.
Here are some of the guiding values of the Constitution and their meaning. Rewrite them by matching them correctly.
a) Sovereign   i) Government will not favour any religion.
b) Republic     ii) People have the supreme right to make decisions.
c) Fraternity    iii) Head of the state is an elected person.
d) Secular       iv) People should live like brothers and sisters.
Answer:
a) ii
b) iii
c) iv
d) i

Question 6.
What values are embedded in the preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Preamble of the Indian Constitution: The values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle formed the foundation for India’s democracy. These values are embedded in the ‘Preamble’ of the Indian Constitution, which is a short statement of its basic principles and objectives. They guide all the provisions of Indian Constitution.

Question 7.
“All are equal before law”- Explain this with examples.
Answer:
EQUALITY: Our Constitution does not promise equality in all respects (like income or property) but it seeks to ensure that all people will enjoy the same status – that is, everyone will be governed by the same laws. Secondly, it promises equality of ‘opportunity’. This means that all public offices shall be open to all, irrespective of caste or religion. If an office requires special qualification, access to that qualification too will be made equal to all.

Question 8.
Identify correct statements from the following:
a. The Constitution defines powers of the Legislative houses.
b. The Constitution cannot be changed under any circumstances.
c. Ideals that are in the preamble are reflected in the design of institutions.
d. Laws for the entire country are designed centrally.
Answer:
a and c are correct statements.

Question 9.
On what occasions equal justice is seen? Mention with examples.
Answer:
No discrimination will be made to any citizen. On account of his/her, birth, beliefs, wealth or status.
eg:

1. Right to vote
2. Right to freedom of religious
3. Right to equality etc.

Project

Question 1.
Compare the preambles to the Constitutions of the United States of America, India and South Africa.
a. Make a list of ideals that are common to all these three.
b. Note down at least one major difference among these.
c. Which of the three makes a reference to the past?
d. Which of these does not invoke God?
Answer:

Preamble of Constitution of United States of America
We the people of the United States in order to form a more perfect union establish justice, insure domestic tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general welfare, and secure the blessings of liberty to ourselves and our posterity do or dain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

Preamble of Constitution of South Africa
We the people of South Africa, Recognize the injustices of our past; Honour those who suffered for justice and freedom in our land; Respect those who have worked to build and develop our country; and Believe that South Africa belongs to all who live in it, united in our diversity. We therefore, through our freely elected representatives, adopt this Constitution as the Supreme law of the republic so as to- heal the divisions of the past and establish a society based on democratic values, social justice and fundamental human rights; Lay the founda¬tions for a democratic and open society in which government is based on the will of the people and every citizen is equally protected by law; Improve the quality of life of all citizens and free the potential of each person; and Build a united and democratic South Africa able to take its rightful place as a sovereign state in the family of nations.

May God protect our people.
God bless South Africa.

Preambles to the Constitutions:

a) List of ideals: Sovereign, socialism, secular, democratic.
b) The date is mentioned in the Indian Constitution but not others.
c) South Africa makes a reference to the past.
d) Indian Constitution and American Constitution do not invoke God.

8th Class Social Studies 13th Lesson The Indian Constitution InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
If you and your classmates were asked to formulate five goals for the country – what would they be? How would you arrive at those five goals? Discuss in the class and work with the help of your teacher. (Textbook Page No. 150)
Answer:

1. Universal Education
2. Universal Health
3. Economic development
4. Peace and Living together
5. Non-violence, opportunities to all

I create awareness in the officials and rulers about these goals. I will make the people believe in peace, non-violence and living together.
I will bring the change in the society.

Question 2.
Can you list out some of the inequalities and discriminations prevalent in our society at the time of Independence? (Textbook Page No. 151)
Answer:
Inequalities:

1. Economic inequalities
2. Social inequalities

Discriminations :

1. Racial discrimination
2. Gender discrimination

Question 3.
Here is a set of statements that is put in pairs, but some of it has wrong information. Can you correct them?
a) A model constitution was drafted + Motilal Nehru
b) Leaders agreed that illiterate people should not vote
c) Provincial legislature + Constitution adopted some colonial laws
d) Partition + large number of people were killed and forced to migrate
e) Restriction on women voting + commitment to social reform in India. (Textbook Page No. 151)
Answer:
a) Motilal Nehru and eight other Indian National Congress leaders drafted a Constitution for India.
b) The government would be built by general elections based on the principles of ‘universal adult franchise or right of every adult citizen irrespective of gender, caste, religion, education or wealth to vote in elections.
c) Correct
d) Correct
e) Voting right to women + commitment to social reform in India.

Question 4.
What were the sources of inspiration and ideas for framing our Constitution? (Or)
What thoughts inspired the framing of our Constitution? (Textbook Page No. 152)
Answer:
First of all, the framers were inspired by the struggle waged by the diverse kinds of Indian people and their aspiration for a better world to live in. They knew that it was their sacred duty to help build an India in which all these diverse kinds of people may realise their aspirations. They were also deeply influenced by the thoughts of Mahatma Gandhi and other national leaders.

Secondly, many of our leaders were inspired by the ideals of French Revolution, the prac-tice of parliamentary democracy in Britain and the Bill of Rights in the USA. The socialist revolution in Russia and China had inspired many Indians to think of shaping a system based on social and economic equality. All these factors influenced the making of our Constitution.

Thirdly, the British too had introduced some basic institutions of democratic rule in India. However, only certain categories of people could vote in the elections. British had introduced very weak legislatures. Elections were held in 1937 to Provincial Legislatures and Ministries all over British India. These were not fully democratic governments. But the experience gained by Indians in the working of the legislative institutions proved to be very useful for the country in setting up its own institutions and working in them. That is why the Indian Constitution adopted many institutional details and procedures from colonial laws.

Question 5.
The people of India decided (resolved) to achieve two objectives. What were these? (Textbook Page No. 155)
Answer:
The following objectives were resolved by the Indian people.

1. To establish a republican country.
2. To secure to all its citizens, justice, liberty, equality and fraternity.

Question 6.
What did they do in order to achieve these objective?
Answer:

1. To achieve the objectives, we incorporated the objectives in our constitution.
2. For republican country we are electing the head of the nation.
3. To secure the remaining objectives we added secularism, socialism in our constitution.
4. Provide justice and equal opportunities to all people without discrimination.
5. To achieve these universalising literacy and education, protection of environment, reducing inequalities etc. are kept infront of the government.
6. Maintain brotherhood nature among all people.
7. To achieve these, we are following parliamentary system and federal system.

Question 7.
Can you identify one idea that is common to all these three? (Textbook Page No. 155)
Answer:
‘Equality’ is the common idea to all these three.

Question 8.
What are the differences in their ways of expressing that common idea? (Textbook Page No. 155)
Answer:
A) Mahatma Gandhi: There shall be no high class and low class of people.
B) B.R. Ambedkar: How long shall we continue to live this life of contradictions?
C) Jawaharlal Nehru: It means the ending of poverty and ignorance and disease and inequality of opportunity.
The three expressed the same idea in different words.

Question 9.
Discuss why the leaders who fought for freedom did not want India to be ruled by kings and queens. (Textbook Page No. 150)
Answer:
Kings and queens ruled the country mostly dictatorially. They ruled India by dividing it into small kingdoms. They failed in answering foreign invasions.
The freedom fighters were all nationalists. They prayed and dreamed India as a huge nation. They wished democratic rule.
So they did not want India to be ruled by kings and queens.

Question 10.
Find out from your grandparents or old neighbours who were there at the time of independence about how things were at that time and what they felt about the future of the country. (Textbook Page No. 151)
Answer:
Things at the time of independence :

1. Apart from social and cultural diversity, there were huge differences between rich and poor, upper and lower castes, men and women.
2. Literacy levels and education were very low.
3. There was acute poverty.
4. There were sharp differences of opinion among the leaders of the national movement, about how we could make a better society after Independence.

Our grandparents/Old neighbours felt about the future of the country in the following way.

1. The dreams of Gandhiji would be true.
2. There would be a plenty of food in the country.
3. People would be happy with their shelters and clothes.
4. There would be no inequalities.
5. There would be no discriminations.
6. All would be equal before law etc.

Question 11.
Why do you think the kings were allowed to nominate members to the Constituent Assembly? (Textbook Page No. 153)
Answer:
The kings were familiar with the ideas of their people. They could integrate the ideas of their people. So the kings were allowed to nominate members to the Constituent Assembly.

Question 12.
Why do you think there were so few women members? Do you think it would have been better if there had been more women members? (Textbook Page No. 153)
Answer:
At that time the educated women and the women politicians were very less in number. Even today we are fighting for 33% of women reservations. So there were so few women members. Yes, I think it would have been better if there had been more women members.

Question 13.
Which of the guiding principles in the Objective Resolution, do you think is the most important? Give your reasons for it. Do other students have a different opinion about this? (Textbook Page No. 154)
Answer:
“Welfare of all mankind” – This guiding principle in the Objective Resolution is the most important.
Reasons:
The welfare of all mankind is the welfare of the Earth.
This leads to world peace. Other students have no different opinions.

Question 14.
Why is it necessary for an elected parliament to make laws? Why can’t they be made by learned lawyers and judges? (Textbook Page No. 157)
Answer:
Our Constitution provides a Parliamentary form of government. The Parliament, consisting of representatives of the people makes laws. These laws are according to the needs and views of the citizens/people. Judiciary comments on this.
Learned lawyers and judges can make laws legally but not for the welfare of the people. They don’t have the support of the people. So they cannot make laws.

Question 15.
Why do you think the Prime Minister and his Cabinet should get their decisions and actions approved by the Parliament and answer the questions raised by the members of Parliament? Will it be better if they were answerable only to the President? (Textbook Page No. 157)
Answer:
The Prime Minister and the Cabinet are answerable to the Parliament. The members of Parliament are the representatives elected by the civilians directly. So they are answerable to them.
It will not be better if they are answerable only to the President as it is against the democracy.
So they should get their decisions approved by the Parliament.

Question 16.
Some countries have a different structure in which there is only a central government that makes laws for the entire country and governs all the provinces or states. Do you think such a system is suited for India? Discuss in the class. (Textbook Page No. 158)
Answer:
India is a land of many diversities. The laws of only central government are not correct to this kind of nation. Different regions have different cultures. All these things should be taken into consideration to make laws. So such system is not suited for India.

Question 17.
Discuss why the courts and judges should be independent of the state and central government authorities. (Textbook Page No. 158)
Answer:
To safeguard the Constitution, the courts and judges should be independent. Otherwise there is a chance of sidetrack. So they should be independent.

Question 18.
Why should the Election Commission be autonomous? (Textbook Page No. 158)
Answer:
The Election Commission should be autonomous to conduct free and fair elections.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government

8th Class Social Studies 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Correct the false statements.
a. Most rural areas have trained doctors.
b. There are more facilities in hospitals of private sector than the public sector.
c. Nutritious food helps in improving the health scenario.
d. Some doctors may involve in unnecessary treatments to make money.
Answer:
a) Most rural areas have trained doctors. (False)
Correction: Most rural areas have untrained doctors.
b) True
c) True
d) True

Question 2.
Jayamma uses the following. Which of these will you include in basic public facilities?
a. Drives Scooter to school,
b. Sends her child to Anganwadi.
c. Owns a television set.
d. Has a mobile phone,
e. Sends letters by post office.
Answer:
b. Sends her child to Anganwadi.
c. Sends letters by post office.

Question 3.
Identify the sentences in this chapter that discuss the role of the government in providing public health.
Answer:
“Self exercise” – The student should underline the sentences in this chapter.

Question 4.
Discuss which among the following measures will you consider as instances – OR not an instance of improving the healthcare. Write down the reasons for your answer.
a. TB patients are given free medicines.
b. In some villages clean drinking water facilities are arranged.
c. Shopkeepers selling medicines for cold, fever, headache etc.
d. The government provides foodgrains in Fair Price shops.
Answer:
I consider a, b, d as instances of improving the health care. Selling medicines by shop-keepers is trade.

Question 5.
Priyamvada runs a private hospital. This has more facilities than that are available in a government hospital. Satyanarayana works as a government doctor in a Mandal. Can you write an imaginary dialogue between them about access to health services?
Answer:
Priyamvada: Hello Doctor, how are you?
Satyanarayana: Fine doctor. You are working in?
Priyamvada: I run my own hospital in the town. You?
Satyanarayana: I am working in the government Mandai Hospital here?
Prlyamvada: Oh I am very sorry. All of our friends opened many super specialty hospitals and are running them successfully. But you…?
Satyanarayana: Oh I Don’t say sorry. This is my ambition.
Priyamvada: What is this doctor? We are working regularly in one hospital while visiting four to five others daily. A handful of income, sophisticated facilities. We have everything what we need. Operation theatres, oxygen facilities, ambulances etc. All the facilities are in our reach. Why
are you missing them?
Satyanarayana: Sorry Miss. Pnyamvada. I like my profession and this job. The people in villages are approaching untrained persons for treatment. We are in this profession to serve the people only.
It is the same either in villages or in towns. We have also many facilities in our hospitals.
Priyamvada: Very sorry doctor, very sorry. I misunderstand you. You are rendering more services to the people who are in need.
Now onwards I also will come and treat the patients without fees. All the best doctor.

Question 6.
Health is not limited to providing medicines. In this chapter there are other aspects of health that are mentioned (like clean water etc). Bring them together and write a paragraph about such aspects.
Answer:
Health is not limited to providing medicines only. The people should be given nutritious food. Safety Drinking water facilities should be arranged. First aid should be provided to the needy. Proper housing facilities, healthy environment should be created. Through these steps alone we can get good health.

Question 7.
Following figure shows how people get money for hospitalization in Andhra Pradesh. Nearly 65% of the people below poverty line have to borrow money. Identify this in the chart and mark the percentage. Those above poverty line spend 45% of the hospitalization expenditure from their savings. Identify this in the chart and mark the percentage. Those above poverty line borrow only 35%. Identify this in the chart and mark the percentage.
Can you also roughly estimate share of other means through which people meet their hospitalization expenses in the chart below?
Answer:

They find their money for hospitalization as above.

Question 8.
Conduct a survey on government welfare schemes on health. List the beneficiaries in your area.
Answer:

1. Aarogya Sri Scheme: White card holders.
2. ESI: People working in public & private companies, factories etc.
3. Reimbursement facilities: To State/Central government employees.

Question 9.
To know about the prevention of contageous diseases, what questions do you ask your region’s Health worker?
Answer:

1. How can we prevent Malaria?
2. What is the preventive medicine for Typhoid?
3. Is there any preventive drug for Cholera?
4. What are the preventive steps of govt, to control eye diseases?

Question 10.
What type of services would be rendered by ‘108′ during emergencies?
Answer:
All types of emergency cases are handled by 108 services, including pregnancy cases, accidental, unconscious, paralysis, inflation, fever, heart attack and all types of emergencies.

Project

Consult any five of your friends and fill the table with the following particulars, then analyse and discuss In the class.

Answer:
“Health is wealth”. Everyone knows about this. If we maintain cleanliness of our hands and nails we can protect ourselves from epidemic diseases. If we keep our surrounding clean & neat we will protect ourselves from mosquitoes and other insects and be safe from dangerous diseases, If we are in healthy manner we will develop ourselves and our country will also be in prosperous.

That’s why Indian Government introduced Swatch Bharat Programme and protect our people from dangerous diseases like Dengue, Swineflu, Zika, etc.,
Finally everyone will be habituate for cleanliness.

8th Class Social Studies 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What steps can be taken to prevent Malaria?
Answer:

1. Necessary preventive measures should be taken from mosquito bites.
2. We should use mosquito nets.
3. Creams like Odomos.
4. We should take care of drainage canals and small kuntas. Stagnated water should be dried.
5. The smoke of Neem and Tulasi sticks should be spread in houses during evenings.
6. Water tanks should be cleaned once in a month.
   With these we can prevent malaria.

Question 2.
Why are children given food in the anganwadis? Do they get adequate food to eat in the anganwadis of your area? (Textbook Page No. 101)
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh about 33% of children below 5 years of age were characterised as underweight. This is due to hunger and malnutrition. So the government decided to feed these children through Anganwadis.

We have two Anganwadi Kendras in our village. They provide nutrition in a certain quantities like Soya powder, Soya granules, Chips etc., to the children below 5 years.

Question 3.
What problems did Kiran face in the Government Hospital? How do you think could the hospital could work in a better manner? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 103)
Answer:

1. Kiran had to spend 3 hours standing in a queue for consultation.
2. Again he spent two hours for blood test.
3. He had to come on the second day for blood report by consultation.
4. He took week days to go to his school regularly.

These hospitals can work in a proper manner. They can create more facilities to the patients. Seating arrangements can be provided. The test reports also can be issued on the same day.

Question 4.
What problems do we face in private hospitals? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 103)
Answer:
Problems in private hospitals:

1. We should pay more money here.
2. Medicines also cost very high.
3. Some may cause unnecessary tensions to the patient families.

Question 5.
Where do you go when you are ill? Are there any problems that you face? Write a paragraph based on your experience. (Textbook Page No. 103)
Answer:
Once I suffered from Typhoid. My father is a Railway employee. He joined me in Railway hospital. I stayed there for 10 days. Several blood tests were done. They treated me well. But they never disclose the results of any report. The patients were given a hospital uniform. I didn’t like wearing this uniform. On the whole I hate that atmosphere.

Question 6.
Why do you think do people in the rural areas go to untrained practitioners, even though they know that they are not properly trained? Keep in mind the following aspects in discussion- trained doctors do not work in villages; people have faith in injection; treat on credit; accepts payments like grains or chicken. (Textbook Page No. 104)
Answer:
Even though they are untrained practioners, they treat small diseases like fever, cold, cough etc., well. Some may have undergone RMP training, some may have worked under a trained doctor. Many of the people have faith on injections. They call it as ‘Soodi Mandu’. Many practitioners take the benefit of this belief. The fee can be paid in instalments or in barter system. These practitioners help the rural people by introducing them to specialists in the time of need and urgency. Due to all these reasons, the medical practitioners are treated as small gods in villages.

Question 7.
In India about one lakh women die each year of complications from pregnancy, it was observed that poor maternal health and nutritional status and inappropriate management of labour during delivery were responsible for many of the deaths of children. Do you think that 104 and 108 services have made a difference to the above situation? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 109)
Answer:
I think 104 and 108 services have made a difference to the above situation.
Hiring an Ambulance from private is very expensive. But 108 reaches the patient within a short time, takes him/her to the nearest hospital by providing medical aid.
104 service creates awareness in the rural people. And they give medical assistance to needy people.

Question 8.
What should be available in every village as part of the public health system? (Textbook Page No. 104)
Answer:
Asha worker, nutrition, immunisation facilities, weighing machine etc., should be available in every village as part of the public health system.

Question 9.
List some public health centres or hospitals near your place. From your experience (or by visiting any one of them) find out the facilities provided and people who run the centre. (Textbook Page No. 104)
Answer:
1. Government General Hospital. 2. Primary Health Care Centre.

Facilities:

1. Laboratory
2. UltraSound Scanning.
3. X-ray
4. Pharmacy etc.

Government employees run the centre.

Question 10.
Mark sentences that highlight the relationship between public health and expectations from the government. (Textbook Page No. 106)
Answer:
“Self exercise” – The student should identify the sentences from this chapter.

Question 11.
Is the water you drink at school clean? (Textbook Page No. 101)
Answer:
Yes, the water at our school is clean. Our school is in Vijayawada Municipal Corporation. We have a water tank near our school. We get clean water from that tank. We clean our school tank once a month.

Question 12.
Private health services can mean many things. Explain with the help of some examples from your area. (Textbook Page No. 104)
Answer:
We live in Vijayawada. Many types of hospitals are presented here. Those are:

1. Multispeciality Hospitals: The treatment is available for all kinds of diseases.
   For e.g.: Ramesh Multispeciality Hospital.
2. Special Hospitals: The treatment here is related to some particular part/organ/body.
3. Private Hospitals: Those are our family hospitals. They treat us for normal diseases. For e.g.: Dr. Prakash’s Hospital.
4. Medical Centres: These are run by Medical Practitioners.
   For e.g.: M.B. Sarada Medical Centre.

Question 13.
Write a short note on the health facilities available in your village or town. What are the problems that people of your neighborhood face when they go to government/ private hospitals? (Textbook Page No. 108)
Answer:
Ours is Tenali town. It is in Guntur district. Once here was only one doctor Dr. Sri- Buddhavarapu Krishna Rao. But we have many at present. The facilities in government hospital are a bit little than those in private hospitals.

More facilities are available in private hospitals. Here we have visited “Kanaka Durga Nursing Home”. The doctor is Buddhavarapu Satyanarayana, M.S. Ortho. This is in a single storeyed building. X-ray, blood test, medical shop – all facilities are available here. Sophisticated operation theatre is an asset to this hospital. The doctor is dedicated and service oriented. The premises is very neat and clean. The consultation fees is also in the reach of middle class ‘people. They render free service to the poor people.

The patients who approach government hospital are losing their valuable time. Corruption is also a curse on this department. The people who approach private hospitals are losing money.

Question 14.
Use the following questions to do a small survey on immunisation of children in your area (in five households having children under 2 years).
a. Do you have an immunization card for the child?
b. Did your child get a vaccine on the left arm that has left a mark? (Look for a scar if you can.)
c. Did your child get vaccination on the buttock?
d. Did your child get polio drops? How many times?
e. Did your child get a vaccination on the thigh at 9 months along with a spoon of medicine?
f. Did your child get any vaccination at 18 months of age (if the child is older than this)? Did she/ he get any medicine to drink also?
For each question, answer with Yes / No; No. of doses (where applicable); DK (for don’t know)/ NA (not applicable; for example, question ‘V will not be applicable if the baby is 1 year old). Discuss your results. (Textbook Page No. 108)
Answer:
1) Family of Sai Kanaka Durga:
a) Yes b) Yes c) Yes d) Yes, 4 times e) Yes f) Yes – Deepa – 4 years – Yes.

2) Family of Krishnarao & Durgamba:
a) Yes b) Yes c) Yes d) Yes, 4 times e) Yes f) Yes – Babji – Age : 1 year Yes.

3) Family of Madhavarao & Rajya Lakshmi:
a) Yes b) Yes c) Yes d) Yes 3 times e) Not applicable – Bobby – 6 months – Yes.

4) Rambabu & Subbha Lakshmi Family:
a) Yes b) Yes c) Yes d) Yes, 2 times e) Yes f) Yes

5) Hanumantharao & Kameswari’s family:
a) Yes b) Yes c) Yes d) Yes, 5 times e) Yes f) Yes
After my sincere observation I came to a conclusion that all parents are caring for their children’s health.

Question 15.
The Aarogyasri scheme was started as a medical insurance scheme to white card holding families, for treatment that requires hospitalisation. The scheme covers very large number of illnesses and includes many private hospitals as providers. Discuss with some people in your neighbourhood and write a short note on the effectiveness of the scheme. (Textbook Page No. 109)
Answer:
‘Aarogyasri’ scheme is really helpful to the poor people. Once my father joined in a private hospital. Then I noticed that many people had undergone free treatment. But at present many diseases are outlisted. So this is not useful to all in all times.

Question 16.
In your opinion, what is one most important improvement that should be made for the mid-day meal being served at your school? (Textbook Page No. 109)
Answer:
The quality of rice should be changed. Better quality should be maintained.

Question 17.
What are the reasons for doctors not accepting rural posting? (Textbook Page No. 101)
Answer:

1. Rural backwardness.
2. Lack of modern facilities.
3. More financial benefits are not available.
4. Lack of medical facilities.
5. Interest in private practice. These are the reasons behind it.

Question 18.
Why did Saritha have to spend so much money? Give reasons. (Textbook Page No. 103)
Answer:
Soon after Saritha got viral fever, her father took her to a private hospital and got her tested.
The doctor recommended a number of blood tests and a chest X-ray. He also prescribed several medicines. She had to spend money for all these tests and medicines to get well soon. She became healthy within 3 days and went to school.

Question 19.
Most of the medical facilities in both the private and public sectors are located in urban areas. A study conducted during 2003 based on a sample survey in selected areas found that most of the qualified private doctors (79 per cent) were in the urban areas. The actual availability of doctors in rural areas, though officially posted in these areas, may be negligible, given the widespread prevalence of absenteeism. Discuss the reasons for this situation. Talk to people in your area about this problem and in what ways this be can tackled. (Textbook Page No. 108)
Answer:
Reasons:

1. Medical education is very costly.
2. The persons, who incur expenditure on studies, try to get back the same.
3. There is a rapid growth in urbanization.
4. All the facilities for treatment are cheap in cities and towns.

Transport facilities, housing facilities and drinking water facilities are nominal in the rural areas.
So these conditions arise.
This can be tackled by creating social awarness in the medical students. “Villages and villagers are the backbone of the nation”. This concept should be injected into their minds.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 4th Lesson The Polar Regions Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 4th Lesson The Polar Regions

8th Class Social Studies 4th Lesson The Polar Regions Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning
Question 1.
Re-write the false statements with correct facts:
a) Animal body parts were used only in clothing.
Answer:
True: Animal body parts were used in food, construction of houses, clothes and in making weapons.

b) Major part of the food includes vegetables.
Answer:
True: Major part of the food includes animal meat and fish.

c) Popular games amongst the people in Tundra are closely related to their daily lives.
Answer:
True

d) Contact with people from outside impacted their health.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Based on what you studied about equator regions in Class VII, how is polar region different?
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the ways in which life of people in Tundra are dependent on climate of the region? Describe in the context of following aspects:

Answer:
Climate influences the people of the Tundra.

Question 4.
In this chapter there are many aspects that are very different from the place where you live. Look at the subheadings in this chapter and make a list of them. Now create a wall paper with illustrations and descriptions comparing life in your location with that in the Tundra.
Answer:
The comparison between the life of the people of N. polar region and that of the people of the equatorial region

Question 5.
Imagine one entire day (24 hours) when the Sun does not set and another day when there is no Sun. What changes will you make in your daily lives ? Write a short note on them.
Answer:
When the Sun does not set: We should shut all the doors and windows of our house and make it dark to sleep. Rest of the day will be okay.
When there is no Sun: We should arrange lights probably flood lights to get light everywhere. Then we should perform our daily works.
This is possible for only one day.

Question 6.
Find out the five living places of Eskimos in the world map
Answer:
Greenland, Alaska, Canada, Siberia, Lapland are the five places shown in the below map.

8th Class Social Studies 4th Lesson The Polar Regions InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which continent parts fall within this region? (Textbook Page No. 40)
Answer:
North America, Europe and some parts of Russia fall within this region.

Question 2.
Try to recall what happens as we move away from the equator. (Textbook Page No. 40)
Answer:
Temperature falls when we move from the equator to the poles.

Question 3.
Mention five points about the summer in Tundra. (Textbook Page No. 42)
Answer:

1. The Sun begins to shine in the tundra around February-March. In the beginning the Sunsets within a short time.
2. For almost three months from May to July, the Sun never sets.
3. The Sun does not rise overhead. It just hovers a little above the horizon. So it is never very warm.
4. Due to the relatively warm weather, some of the ice melts. The rivers, lakes melt and begin to flow.
5. When summer approaches, many multi-coloured plants, lichens, grass, shrubs and berries sprout around.

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks : (Textbook Page No. 42)
1. The Sun does not appear during the month of November, December and January.
2. At this time, the water freezes and the plants cover with the snow.

Question 5.
How do the people of Tundra get light in winter ? (Textbook Page No. 42)
Answer:
There will be no sunlight during the winter in the polar region. At this time, the light of stars
falls on the ice, reflects, and fills the region with bright colourful lights. These are known as ‘Aurora Borialisis’. During winter they get light with these Aurora borialisis, oil and fat lamps.
In what ways are the resources available in their surroundings used for making houses? (Textbook Page No. 45)

1. They use skins of animals and wood for tents.
2. They use logs and whale ribs in building round houses.
3. They form ice blocks (like bricks) and build domed houses.

Thus they use available resources in the surroundings.

Question 6.
Did you see any tree in the pictures on the previous page? (Textbook Page No. 42)
Answer:
No. Grass and small bushes are visible in the pictures given.

Question 7.
Look at the pictures in this chapter (The Polar Region). How has that dress and hunting changed? (Textbook Page No. 48)
Answer:
The people of the earlier times wore raw skins of animals. They are too heavy. They use the horns of animals, harpoons, sharp edged instruments to hunt.
In the modern times they wore designed caps, dresses which are light in weight. Guns occupied the place of traditional weapons.

Question 8.
Why do you think people probably always did not live in the Tundra region? (Textbook Page No. 43)
Answer:
There are no seasons or seasonal differences in tundras. They have likely temperatures and seasons. They face nominal summers. So they cannot cultivate crops here. They have no tasty foods and different kinds of foods. During winters the whole region becomes dark, deserted and desolate. So they did not live here throughout the year.

Question 9.
How is the house impacted by the climate? (Textbook Page No. 45)
Answer:
Their houses are called igloos. In summer, most Eskimos live in tents made of animal skins. In some areas, they made tents of wood and animal skins. They use logs and whale ribs also for this. They use stone slabs in some areas. Snow houses are made from blocks of packed snow, built into a dome. They build snow platforms for their sleep. As the area is covered with snow they cannot lay foundations and they cannot lead a settled life. Thus the house is impacted by the climate.

Question 10.
Do you think lives of people in Tundra have changed for better or worsened because of their interaction with outside world? Give reasons for your answer. (Textbook Page No. 48)
Answer:
The lives of people in Tundra have changed for better or worst both because of their interaction with the outside world.

The pattern of relations between the Eskimos and outsiders has been described as “boom and bust”. Waves of outsiders have brought brief periods of wealth, education, and employment. This was followed by periods of poverty and disorganisation. Peak periods have been those of whaling (1859 to 1910), the modern fur trade (1925 to about 1950), the building of military and defence bases (the mid-1950s), the building of urban centres (mid- 1960s), and oil exploration and development (the 1970s).

Each wave of activity has drawn the Eskimos into contact with different social and economic forces. The once isolated northlands have been opened up by air travel, highways, powerful modern ships, and satellite communications. These changes have produced great strains on the Eskimo way of life.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 3 Polynomials Ex 3.3 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 3rd Lesson Polynomials Exercise 3.3

10th Class Maths 3rd Lesson Polynomials Ex 3.3 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the zeroes of the following quadratic polynomials and verify the relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
i) x² – 2x – 8
ii) 4s² – 4s + 1
iii) 6x² – 3 – 7x
iv) 4u² + 8u
v) t² – 15
vi) 3x² – x – 4
Answer:
i) Given polynomial is x² – 2x – 8
We have x² – 2x – 8 = x² – 4x + 2x – 8
= x(x – 4) + 2(x – 4)
= (x – 4) (x + 2)
So, the value of x² – 2x – 8 is zero
when x – 4 = 0 or x + 2 = 0 i.e.,
when x = 4 or x = -2
So, the zeroes of x² – 2x – 8 are 4 and -2.
Sum of the zeroes = 4 – 2 = 2 Coefficient of ,x -(-2)
= – \(\frac{\text { Coefficient of } x}{\text { Coefficient of } x^{2}}\) = \(\frac{-(-2)}{1}\) = 2
And product of the zeroes = 4 × (-2) = -8
= \(\frac{\text { Constant term }}{\text { Coefficient of } x^{2}}\) = \(\frac{-8}{1}\) = -8

ii) Given polynomial is 4s² – 4s + 1
We have, 4s² – 4s + 1
= 4s² – 2s – 2s + 1
= 2s (2s – 1) – 1(2s – 1)
= (2s – 1) (2s – 1)
= (2s – 1)²
So, the value of 4s2 – 4s + 1 is zero
when 2s-1 = 0 or s = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
∴ Zeroes of the polynomial are \(\frac{1}{2}\) and \(\frac{1}{2}\)
∴ Sum of the zeroes = \(\frac{1}{2}\) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 1.
= – \(\frac{\text { Coefficient of } s}{\text { Coefficient of } s^{2}}\) = –\(\frac{-4}{4}\) = 1
And product of the zeroes = \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) \times\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
= \(\frac{\text { Constant term }}{\text { Coefficient of } x^{2}}\) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)

iii) Given polynomial is 6x² – 3 – 7x
We have, 6x² – 3 – 7x = 6x² – 7x – 3
= 6x² – 9x + 2x – 3
= 3x(2x – 3) + 1(2x – 3)
= (2x – 3) (3x + 1)
The value of 6x² – 3 – 7x is zero, when the value of (3x +1) (2x – 3) is 0
i.e., when 3x + 1 = 0 and 2x – 3 = 0
3x = -1 and 2x = 3
x = \(\frac{-1}{3}\) and x = \(\frac{3}{2}\)
∴ The zeroes of 6x² – 3 – 7x = \(\frac{-1}{3}\) and \(\frac{3}{2}\)
∴ Sum of the zeroes = \(\frac{1}{3}\) + \(\frac{3}{2}\) = \(\frac{7}{6}\).
= – \(\frac{\text { Coefficient of } x}{\text { Coefficient of } x^{2}}\) = \(\frac{-(-7)}{6}\) = \(\frac{7}{6}\)
And product of the zeroes = \(\left(\frac{-1}{3}\right) \times\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)\) = \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
= \(\frac{\text { Constant term }}{\text { Coefficient of } x^{2}}\) = \(\frac{-3}{6}\) = \(\frac{-1}{2}\)

iv) Given polynomial is 4u² + 8u
We have, 4u² + 8u = 4u (u + 2)
The value of 4u² + 8u is 0,
when the value of 4u(u + 2) = 0, i.e.,
when u = 0 or u + 2 = 0, i.e.,
when u = 0 (or) u = – 2
∴ The zeroes of 4u² + 8u are 0 and – 2.
Therefore, sum of the zeroes = 0 + (-2) = -2
= – \(\frac{\text { Coefficient of } u}{\text { Coefficient of } u^{2}}\) = \(\frac{-8}{4}\) = -2
And product of the zeroes 0 . (-2) = 0
= \(\frac{\text { Constant term }}{\text { Coefficient of } u^{2}}\) = \(\frac{0}{4}\) = 0

v) Given polynomial is t² – 15.
We have, t² – 15 = (t – √15 ) (t + √l5)
The value of t² – 15 is 0,
when the value of (t – √15 ) (t + √l5) = 0, i.e.,
when t – √15 = 0 or t + √15 = 0, i.e.,
when t = √15 (or) t = -√15
∴ The zeroes of t² – 15 are √15 and -√15.
Therefore, sum of the zeroes = √15 + (-√15) = 0
= – \(\frac{\text { Coefficient of } t}{\text { Coefficient of } t^{2}}\) = –\(\frac{0}{1}\) = 0
And product of the zeroes √15 × (-√15) = -15
= \(\frac{\text { Constant term }}{\text { Coefficient of } t^{2}}\) = \(\frac{-15}{1}\) = -15

vi) Given polynomial is 3x² – x – 4
we have, 3x² – x – 4 = 3x² + 3x – 4x – 4
= 3x(x + 1) – 4(x + 1)
= (x + 1) (3x – 4)
The value of 3x² – x – 4 is 0 when the value of (x + 1) (3x – 4) is 0.
i.e., when x + 1 = 0 or 3x – 4 = 0
i.e., when x = -1 or x = \(\frac{4}{3}\)
∴ The zeroes of 3x² – x – 4 are -1 and \(\frac{4}{3}\)
Therefore, sum of the zeroes = -1 + \(\frac{4}{3}\) = \(\frac{-3+4}{3}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
= – \(\frac{\text { Coefficient of } x}{\text { Coefficient of } x^{2}}\) = \(\frac{-(-1)}{3}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
And product of the zeroes -1 × \(\frac{4}{3}\) = \(\frac{-4}{3}\)
= \(\frac{\text { Constant term }}{\text { Coefficient of } x^{2}}\) = \(\frac{-4}{3}\)

Question 2.
Find the quadratic polynomial in each case, with the given numbers as the sum and product of its zeroes respectively.
i) \(\frac{1}{4}\), -1
ii) √2, \(\frac{1}{3}\)
iii) 0, √5
iv) 1, 1
v) –\(\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{4}\)
vi) 4, 1
Answer:
Let the polynomial be ax² + bx + c
and its zeroes be α and β.
i) Here, α + β = \(\frac{1}{4}\) and αβ = -1
Thus, the polynomial formed = x² – (sum of the zeroes)x + product of the zeroes
= x² – (\(\frac{1}{4}\))x – 1
= x² – \(\frac{x}{4}\) – 1
The other polynomials are (x² – \(\frac{x}{4}\) – 1)
then the polynomial is 4x² – x – 4.

ii) Here, α + β = √2 and αβ = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Thus, the polynomial formed = x² – (sum of the zeroes)x + product of the zeroes
= x² – (√2)x + \(\frac{1}{3}\)
= x² – √2x + \(\frac{1}{3}\)
The other polynomials are (x² – √2x + \(\frac{1}{3}\))
then the polynomial is 3x² – 3√2x + 1.

iii) Here, α + β = 0 and αβ = √5
Thus, the polynomial formed = x² – (sum of the zeroes)x + product of the zeroes
= x² – (0)x + √5
= x² + √5

iv) Let the polynomial be ax² + bx + c and its zeroes be α and β.
Then α + β = 1 = \(\frac{-(-1)}{1}\) = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) and
αβ = 1 = latex]\frac{1}{1}[/latex] = \(\frac{c}{a}\)
If a = 4, then b = 1 and c = 1
∴ One quadratic polynomial which satisfies the given conditions is 4x² + x + 1.

v) Let the polynomial be ax² + bx + c and its zeroes be α and β.
Then α + β = \(\frac{-1}{4}\) = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) and
αβ = \(\frac{1}{4}\) = \(\frac{c}{a}\)
If a = 4, then b = 1 and c = 1
∴ One quadratic polynomial which satisfies the given conditions is 4x² + x + 1.

vi) Let the polynomial be ax² + bx + c and its zeroes be α and β.
Then α + β = 4 = \(\frac{-(-4)}{1}\) = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) and
αβ = 1 = \(\frac{1}{1}\) = \(\frac{c}{a}\)
If a = 1, then b = -4 and c = 1
∴ One quadratic polynomial which satisfies the given conditions is x² – 4x + 1.

Question 3.
Find the quadratic polynomial, for the zeroes α, β given in each case.
i) 2, -1
ii) √3, -√3
iii) \(\frac{1}{4}\), -1
iv) \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(\frac{3}{2}\)
Answer:
i) Let the polynomial be ax² + bx + c, a ≠ 0 and its zeroes be α and β.
Here α = 2 and β = – 1
Sum of the zeroes = α + β = 2 + (-l) = 1
Product of the zeroes = αβ = 2 × (-1) = -2
Therefore the quadratic polynomial ax² + bx + c is x² – (α + β)x + αβ = [x² – x – 2]
the quadratic polynomial will be x² – x – 2.

ii) Let the zeroes be α = √3 and β = -√3
Sum of the zeroes = α + β
= √3 + (-√3) = 0
Product of the zeroes = αβ
= √3 × (-√3) = -3
∴ The quadratic polynomial
ax² + bx + c is [x² – (α + β)x + αβ]
= [x² – 0.x + (-3)] = [x² – 3]
the quadratic polynomial will be x² – 3.

iii) Let the zeroes be α = \(\frac{1}{4}\) and β = -1
Sum of the zeroes = α + β
= \(\frac{1}{4}\) + (-1) = \(\frac{1+(-4)}{4}\) = \(\frac{-3}{4}\)
Product of the zeroes = αβ
= \(\frac{1}{4}\) × (-1) = \(\frac{-1}{4}\)
∴ The quadratic polynomial
ax² + bx + c is [x² – (α + β)x + αβ]
= [x² – \(\left(\frac{-3}{4}\right)\).x + (\(\frac{-1}{4}\))]
the quadratic polynomial will be 4x² + 3x – 1.

iv) Let the zeroes be α = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and β = \(\frac{3}{2}\)
Sum of the zeroes = α + β
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) + \(\frac{3}{2}\) = \(\frac{1+3}{2}\) = \(\frac{4}{2}\) = 2
Product of the zeroes = αβ
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{3}{2}\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
∴ The quadratic polynomial
ax² + bx + c is [x² – (α + β)x + αβ]
= [x² – 2x + (\(\frac{3}{4}\))]
the quadratic polynomial will be 4x² – 8x + 3.

Question 4.
Verify that 1, -1 and -3 are the zeroes of the cubic polynomial x³ + 3x² – x – 3 and check the relationship between zeroes and the coefficients.
Answer:
Given cubic polynomial
p(x) = x³ + 3x² – x – 3
Comparing the given polynomial with ax³ + bx² + cx + d, we get a = 1, b = 3, c = -1, d = -3
Futher given zeroes are 1,-1 and – 3
p(1) = (1)³ + 3(1)² – 1 – 3
= 1 + 3 – 1 – 3 = 0
p(-1) = (-1)³ + 3(-1)² – 1 – 3
= -1 + 3 + 1 – 3 = 0
p(-3) = (-3)³ + 3(-3)² – (-3) – 3
= -27 + 27 + 3 – 3 = 0
Therefore, 1, -1 and -3 are the zeroes of x³ + 3x² – x – 3.
So, we take α = 1, β = -1 and γ = -3 Now,
α + β + γ = 1 + (-1) + (-3) = -3
αβ + βγ + γα = 1(-l) + (-1) (-3) + (-3)1
= -1 + 3 – 3 = -1
= \(\frac{c}{a}\) = \(\frac{-1}{1}\) = -1
αβγ = 1 (-1) (-3) = 3 = \(\frac{-d}{a}\) = \(\frac{-(-3)}{1}\) = 3

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 7th Lesson Coordinate Geometry Exercise 7.1

10th Class Maths 7th Lesson Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the distance between the following pair of points,
(i) (2, 3) and (4, 1)
Answer:
Distance = \(\sqrt{\left(x_{2}-x_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(y_{2}-y_{1}\right)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(4-2)^{2}+(1-3)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{4+4}\)
= √8 = 2√2 units

ii) (- 5, 7) and (-1, 3)
Answer:
Distance = \(\sqrt{\left(x_{2}-x_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(y_{2}-y_{1}\right)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(-1+5)^{2}+(3-7)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{4^{2}+(-4)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{16+16}\)
= √32 = 4√2 units

iii) (- 2, -3) and (3, 2)
Answer:

iv) (a, b) and (- a, – b)
Answer:

Question 2.
Find the distance between the points (0, 0) and (36, 15).
Answer:
Given: Origin O (0, 0) and a point P (36, 15).
Distance between any point and origin = \(\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}\)
∴ Distance = \(\sqrt{36^{2}+15^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{1296+225}\)
= \(\sqrt{1521}\)
= 39 units

∴ 1521 = 3² × 13²
\(\sqrt{1521}\) = 3 × 13 = 39

Question 3.
Verify that the points (1, 5), (2, 3) and (-2, -1) are collinear or not.
Answer:
Given: A (1, 5), B (2, 3) and C (- 2, – 1)

Here the sum of no two segments is equal to third segment.
Hence the points are not collinear.
!! Slope of AB, m₁ = \(\frac{3-5}{2-1}\) = -2
Slope of BC, m₂ = \(\frac{-1-3}{-2-2}\) = 1
m₁ ≠ m₂
Hence A, B, C are not collinear.

Question 4.
Check whether (5, -2), (6, 4) and (7,-2) are the vertices of an isosceles triangle.
Answer:
Let A = (5, – 2); B = (6, 4) and C = (7, – 2).

Now we have, AB = BC.
∴ △ABC is an isosceles triangle,
i.e., given points are the vertices of an isosceles triangle.

Question 5.
In a classroom, 4 friends are seated at the points A, B, C and D as shown in figure. Jarina and Phani walk into the class and after observing for a few minutes Jarina asks Phani “Don’t you think ABCD is a square?” Phani disagrees. Using distance formula, find which of them is correct. Why?

Answer:
Given: Four friends are seated at A, B, C and D where A (3, 4), B (6, 7), C (9, 4) and D (6, 1).
Now distance

BD = \(\sqrt{(6-6)^{2}+(1-7)^{2}}\) = √36 = 6
Hence in □ ABCD four sides are equal
i.e., AB = BC = CD = DA
= 3√2 units
and two diagonals are equal.
i.e., AC = BD = 6 units.
∴ □ ABCD forms a square.
i.e., Jarina is correct.

Question 6.
Show that the following points form an equilateral triangle A(a, 0), B(- a, 0), C(0, a√3).
Answer:
Given: A (a, 0), B (- a, 0), C (0, a√3).

Now, AB = BC = CA.
∴ △ABC is an equilateral triangle.

Question 7.
Prove that the points (-7, -3), (5, 10), (15, 8) and (3, -5) taken in order are the corners of a parallelogram.
Answer:
To show that the given points form a parallelogram.
We have to show that the mid points of each diagonal are same. Since diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.
Now let A(-7, -3), B(5, 10), C(15, 8) and D(3, -5)
Then midpoint of diagonal

∴ (1) = (2)
Hence the given are vertices of a parallelogram.

Question 8.
Show that the points (-4, -7), (-1, 2), (8, 5) and (5, -4) taken in order are the vertices of a rhombus. And find its area.
(Hint: Area of rhombus = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × product of its diagonals)
Answer:
Given in ▱ ABCD , A(-4, – 7), B (- 1, 2), C (8, 5) and D (5,-4)


∴  In ▱ ABCD, AB = BC = CD = AD [from sides are equal]
Hence ▱ ABCD is a rhombus.
Area of a rhombus = \(\frac{1}{2}\) d₁d₂
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 12√2 × 6√2
= 72 sq. units.

Question 9.
Name the type of quadrilateral formed, if any, by the following points, and give reasons for your answer.
i) (-1,-2), (1,0), (-1,2), (-3,0)
Answer:
Let A (- 1, -2), B (1, 0), C (- 1, 2), D (- 3, 0) be the given points. Distance formula

In ▱ ABCD, AB = BC = CD = AD – four sides are equal.
AC = BD – diagonals are equal.
Hence, the given points form a square,

ii) (-3, 5), (1, 10), (3, 1), (-1,-4).
Answer:
Let A(-3, 5), B(l,10), C(3, 1), D(-l, -4) then

In ▱ ABCD, \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{AD}}\) (i.e., both pairs of opposite sides are equal) and \(\overline{\mathrm{AC}}\) ≠ \(\overline{\mathrm{BD}}\).
Hence ▱ ABCD is a parallelogram,
i.e., The given points form a parallelogram.

iii) (4, 5), (7, 6), (4, 3), (1, 2).
Answer:
Let A (4, 5), B (7, 6), C (4, 3) and D (1, 2) be the given points.
Distance formula

In ▱ ABCD, AB = CD and BC = AD (i.e., both pairs of opposite sides are equal) and AC ≠ BD.
Hence ▱ ABCD is a parallelogram, i.e., The given points form a parallelogram.

Question 10.
Find the point on the X-axis which is equidistant from (2, -5) and (-2,9).
Answer:
Given points, A (2, – 5), B (- 2, 9).
Let P (x, 0) be the point on X – axis which is equidistant from A and B. i.e., PA = PB.
Distance formula = \(\sqrt{\left(x_{2}-x_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(y_{2}-y_{1}\right)^{2}}\)

But PA = PB.
⇒ \(\sqrt{x^{2}-4 x+29}=\sqrt{x^{2}+4 x+85}\)
Squaring on both sides, we get
x² – 4x + 29 = x² + 4x + 85
⇒ – 4x – 4x = 85 – 29
⇒ – 8x = 56
⇒ x = \(\frac{56}{-8}\) = -7
∴ (x, 0) = (- 7, 0) is the point which is equidistant from the given points.

Question 11.
If the distance between two points (x, 7) and (1, 15) is 10, find the value of x.
Answer:
Formula for distance between two points = \(\sqrt{\left(x_{1}-x_{2}\right)^{2}+\left(y_{1}-y_{2}\right)^{2}}\)
Now distance between (x, 7) and (1,15) is 10.
∴ \(\sqrt{(x-1)^{2}+(7-15)^{2}}\) = 10
∴ (x – l)² + (-8)² = 10²
⇒ (x – l)² = 100 – 64 = 36
∴ x – 1 = √36 = ± 6
∴ x – 1 = 6 or x – 1 = -6
⇒ x = 6 + 1 = 7 or x = -6 + 1 = -5
∴ x = 7 or x = – 5

Question 12.
Find the values of y for which the distance between the points P(2, -3) and Q(10, y) is 10 units.
Answer:
Given: P (2, – 3), Q (10, y) and
\(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\) = 10.
Distance formula = \(\sqrt{\left(x_{2}-x_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(y_{2}-y_{1}\right)^{2}}\)

⇒ y² + 6y + 73 = 100
⇒ y² + 6y – 27 = 0
⇒ y² + 9y – 3y – 27 = 0
⇒ y (y + 9) – 3 (y + 9) = 0
⇒ (y + 9) (y – 3) = 0
⇒ y + 9 = 0 or y – 3 = 0
⇒ y = -9 or y = 3
⇒ y = – 9 or 3.

Question 13.
Find the radius of the circle whose centre is (3, 2) and passes through (-5,6).
Answer:

Given: A circle with centre A (3, 2) passing through B (- 5, 6).
Radius = AB
[∵ Distance of a point from the centre of the circle]
Distance formula = \(\sqrt{\left(x_{2}-x_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(y_{2}-y_{1}\right)^{2}}\)

Question 14.
Can you draw a triangle with vertices (1, 5), (5, 8) and (13, 14)? Give reason.
Answer:
Let A (1, 5), B (5, 8) and C (13, 14) be the given points.
Distance formula

Here, AC = AB + BC.
∴ △ABC can’t be formed with the given vertices.
[∵ Sum of the any two sides of a triangle must be greater than the third side].

Question 15.
Find a relation between x and y such that the point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (-2, 8) and (-3, -5).
Answer:
Let A (- 2, 8), B (- 3, – 5) and P (x, y). If P is equidistant from A, B, then PA = PB.
Distance formula =


Squaring on both sides we get, x² + y² + 4x – 16y + 68
= x² + y² + 6x +10y + 34
⇒ 4x – 16y – 6x – 10y = 34-68
⇒ – 2x – 26y = -34
⇒ x + 13y = 17 is the required condition.