Class 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 21 Social Movements in Our Times.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the given may and answer the question:
In which state, Indira Sagar Project is located and on which river?
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh, River Narmada.

Question 2.
Identify one state for each movement in given India’s political map relating to the following social movements.
Answer:

1. Narmada Bachao Andolan
2. Chipko Movement

Question 3.
Why did the black Americans begin the Civil Rights Movements in 1960s?
Answer:
The blank Americans began the Civil Rights Movements in 1960s

1. Segregation of the Blacks and Whites (in schools, buses and public places).
2. Discrimination in appointments, housing and in voting rights.

Question 4.
Name the two movements related to Narmada Bachao Movement
Answer:
The two movements related to Narmada Bachao Movement are

1. Movement of Indigenous people.
2. Movement against neo-liberal policies.

Question 5.
What did the American Civil Rights Movements fight for?
Answer:
The American Civil Rights Movement fought for equal treatment of Afro-Americans against permitting segregation.

Question 6.
When was Washington March conducted?
Answer:
Washington March was conducted on 28th August 1963.

Question 7.
Where was Narmada Bachao Andolan Movement taken place?
Answer:
In Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 8.
Who led Narmada Bachao Andolan?
Answer:
Medha Patkar led Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 9.
Where was the Chernobyl nuclear plant?
Answer:
The Chernobyl nuclear plant was in the USSR.

Question 10.
In which year was arrack officially banned?
Answer:
In 1993.

Question 11.
Which dominated the world during the first half of the 20th century?
Answer:
The world during the first half of the 20th century was dominated by great wars, revolutions, the emergence of German Fascism, Soviet Socialism, Western liberalism, national liberation movements, etc.

Question 12.
Name two anti-Communist countries.
Answer:
The USA and the UK.

Question 13.
Which decades saw a new kind of movement – the movement against war and nuclear arms?
Answer:
The 1970s and 1980s.

Question 14.
When was START signed?
Answer:
Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) was signed in 1991.

Question 15.
When was the total arrack prohibition imposed in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
In 1995.

Question 16.
When was Manipur made a part of India?
Answer:
The kingdom of Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949 and Manipur was made a part of India.

Question 17.
When did the Greenpeace Movement start in Europe?
Answer:
The Greenpeace movement initially started as a protest in 1971 against the American underwater nuclear tests near Alaska.

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1
Do you agree with the view that equal participation of men and women and equal opportunity for them is necessary for freedom and development of the country?
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this view.
2. Because the women contribute nearly half of the participants in all aspects.

Question 2.
What were the reasons for the American civil rights movement?
Answer:

1. One of the most important civil rights movements was the American Civil Rights Movement.
2. It fought for equal treatment of Afro-Americans of Black Americans and against rules that permitted segregation of blacks and whites in schools, buses, and public places and discriminated against them in appointments, housing, and even voting rights.

Question 3.
Read the map given below and answer the following questions.

i) In which state, was Sardar Sarovar Project constructed?
Answer:
Gujarath.

ii) Name the movement that was held against the construction of dams on river Narmada.
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 4.
Create two slogans on ‘Environmental Protection.
Answer:

1. No chemicals – Go organic.
2. Conserve water – Conserve life.
3. Grow trees – Save earth.

Question 5.
Write the main reasons for Assam movement.
Answer:

1. Demand for autonomy.
2. Domination of Bengalis.
3. Migration from Bangladesh.
4. Fear of losing their cultural roots.
5. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of outsiders.
6. No preference in employment for locals.

Question 6.
What would you do, if you were to solve the problem of liquor prohibition?
Answer:

1. Bringing awareness among the people.
2. Proper implementation of the laws.
3. Formation of village committees.
4. Making involvement of women.

Question 7.
During the last few decades, why is the pollution increasing day by day?
Answer:

1. Nowadays industries are increasing due to that they release more chemicals and pollution is increasing.
2. Nowadays every person has a power-driven vehicle due to that pollution is increasing.
3. Farmers are using more pesticides and fertilizers, due to that pollution increases. Due to de-forestation, CO₂ reaches more in the atmosphere then pollution increases very highly.

Question 8.
What were the four main demands of Bhopal gas victims?
Answer:

1. Proper medical treatment of the victims.
2. Adequate compensation for them based on international standards.
3. Fixing criminal responsibility for the disaster on the management of the multinational company.
4. Steps to prevent disasters in the future.

Question 9.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of the Environment.
Answer:

Importance of Environment

1. The surroundings in which living and non-living things are present is known as the environment.
2. For living things environment provides basic needs for staying alive.
3. We get food, shelter and cloth from the environment.
4. Tourism people go the jungle to observe animals and for their different characteristics.
5. The forest, ocean and sky environment provides shelter to various animals.
6. It also provides home for us.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

“A large section of people who actively participated in the civil rights movement were black women, who felt that their voice was not being heard even within the movement which was dominated by men. In fact, no woman was allowed to speak in the famous Washington March. They felt that women needed to assert themselves for the equality of women.”

Answer:
This paragraph is about the inequalities in the society. Women discrimination is discussed. Their voice was not being heard. It means they were not allowed to say what they demand. Many of the black women participated in the Civil rights movement but not even a single woman was allowed to speak is the March. The women came to know that they should fight for their rights.

There was strong discrimination between the Whites and the Blacks. Especially the black women had no rights. The Americans purchased the black people from Nigeria and other African countries as if they purchase different commodities. They were treated as slaves. In 1960s there was a segregation of blacks and whites in schools, buses and public places. The blacks were discriminated against in appointments, housing and even in voting rights. So there was a movement against this discrimination.

White Aryan supremacy was the reason for this segregation. The Americans, the English, and French, and the Germans feel that they are Nordic race and their race is the supreme one. Dr. Martin Luther King delivered a speech that he had a dream that his children would one day live in a nation where they would not be judged by the colour of skin.

Discrimination is there in different forms. At the time of Second World War, in Germany, millions of Jews were killed.Caste based discrimination was there in India. Nowadays this discrimination is reduced.

Special status is being given to some people based on their birth or position. In these days, everyone is coming out for study and employment. As this was not there, the movements began. Nowadays the women occupied many high positions. Banks, political parties are also being run by the women. About five states in India are being ruled by the women. Many IAS, IPS officers are there from women.

In conclusion, the women should be given priority, even in family matters. The head of the family may be the women. She could play a crucial role in taking decisions. Equal rights are to be given to women. They should be encouraged for higher education. There voice is to be given respect. In political scenario the wives of leaders occupied some positions but their husbands are ruling. This shouldn’t happen. Let the elected rule of themselves. I hope to see the world without any sort of discrimination.

Question 11.
What are the losses incurred due to Bhopal gas disaster?
Answer:
The losses incurred due to Bhopal gas disaster:

1. Thousands of people lost their lives.
2. Many people became homeless.
3. Still people are suffering from its ill effects.
4. It caused damage to the environment.

Question 12.
What is the result of the anti-nuclear movement?
Answer:

1. Thousands of scientists and intellectuals from across the world campaigned for abolishing all nuclear weapons and insisted that USA and USSR come to an agreement to end the Arms Race.
2. Massive protests took place against the governments weaponisation policies and demanded them to reduce nuclear arms and work towards peace on a long term.
3. The USA and the USSR began the race to cut down their nuclear arsenal.
4. Strategic Arms Limitation talks were unsuccessful.
5. A Treaty was signed in 1991 called Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START)
6. In late 2001, according to this treaty, 80% of the all strategic weapons then in existence were removed.

Question 13.
What is the effect of globalisation on people?
Answer:

1. Tribal and marginal farmers are being threatened by commercial farmers, mining corporations, dam projects, etc.
2. As large companies find rare resources in remote rural areas there has been a rapid increase in the ousting of the farming and tribal population.
3. This led to the destruction of tribal cultures.
4. So they became most vulnerable section of the society.
5. These gave rise to environmental movements.
6. Poor families, landless workers, women, industrial workers, and workers in unorganized sectors have been worst hit.

Question 14.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

“We, the undersigned, as American men of draftage, may be asked by our government to participate in the war in Vietnam. We have examined the history and the nature of this war, and have reached the conclusion that our participation in it would be contrary to the dictates of our consciences.

We therefore declare our determination to refuse military service (all citizens are required to do so by law) while the United States is fighting in Vietnam. Our intention in signing this statement is to unite with other draftage men who share our convictions, in order to turn our personal moral rejection of this war into effective political opposition to it.”

Give your opinion on the above article.
Answer:

1. Here the people in the USA were refusing to be drafted into the army to fight in the Vietnam war.
2. They were saying that they had examined the history and the nature of the war.
3. Participation was contrary to the dictates of their consciences.
4. So they are refusing to join into military services.
5. They signed on the statement in order to create political opposition to the war.
6. The article was a trendsetter as people’s rejection to war was established in the statement.

Question 15.
Why have social movements arised?
Answer:

1. Social movements have raised diverse demands of environment or human rights or equality.
2. In some contexts, these resist changes that are forced on them.
3. In some contexts, these demand for change.
4. These often distant from individual political parties and more united under a single cause.
5. Their programmes are envisaged through participatory and democratic manner.
6. Social movements arise when people feel that their expectations were unmet by political systems.

Question 16.
‘The second half of the 20th -century was an era of growth, prosperity and growing tensions’ – Comment.
Answer:

1. With the end of the Second World War and the independence of colonies and semi-colonies like India, China, Indonesia, Nigeria and Egypt by mid 1950s a new era began in the world.
2. This was an era of economic growth and prosperity for most of the countries, but also of growing tensions in many countries.
3. Sections of societies which had long been denied equal rights came out asserting their rights.

Question 17.
Write the names of any two important treaties among the nations to prevent nuclear weapons.
Answer:
The USA and the USSR, the main competitors in the arms race began talks to cut down their nuclear arsenal.

1. SALT – Strategic Arms Limitation Talks.
2. START – Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty.

Question 18.
Read the given passage.

Manipur today is composed of two distinctive geographical terrains: the valley and the hills. Before independence, the valley was under princely rule and the hill areas were relatively autonomous, mainly inhabited by the tribal population. In 1891 the British established their I control over the region though the king continued to rule the kingdom. The kingdom of Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949 and Manipur was made a part of India. This agreement was disputed by many tribes which argued that they had been autonomous and did not agree to be a part of India.

Answer the following questions.
a) When did the British establish their control over the Manipur?
Answer:
British established their control oyer Manipur in 1891.

b) When has Manipur signed a merger agreement with India?
Answer:
Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949.

c) Name the two distinctive geographical terrains of Manipur.
Answer:
Two distinctive geographical terrains in Manipur are 1) Hills and 2) Valleys.

Question 19.
The raise in the price level of oil will severely affect the social life-Express your opinion.
Answer:

1. The raise in the price level of oil will severely affect social life.
2. The raise in the price levels of oil will lead to raise in the transportation costs.
3. It’s raise leads to raise in the prices of essential commodities.
4. As we depend a lot on oil imports, it’s cost raise will charge a lot on our exchequer.

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write an essay on ‘Appreciating the prominence of the basic features of Social Movements”.
Answer:

1. Social movements have been a powerful means for ordinary people to participate directly in creating positive social change.
2. There are deeply grounded in our founding values of security, culture, justice, democracy, civil rights, etc.
3. Social movements have raised diverse demands cutting across the strict boundary of environment establishing equality.
4. Most of the social movements are non-violent and often a distance from individual political parties and are more united under a single cause.
   For all these conditions we can appreciate the basic features of the Social Movements.

Question 2.
Explain the Meira Paibi Movement.
Answer:

1. Meira Paibi (in Meitei language) literally can be translated as ‘torch bearers’.
2. Meira Paibi originated as a movement to prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse in the late 1970s.
3. But, it soon became a movement for human rights with the massive deployment of Indian armed forces to counter the armed movement in the early 1980s.
4. This resulted in frequent military operations and human rights violations. The Meira Paibi responded instantly with protest demonstrations.
5. The Meira Paibi took to patrolling the streets at night.
6. Women of every leikai or ward of every town and village participated in the daily patrolling.
7. Bearing no weapons but only the bamboo and rag kerosene torches.
8. These are not activists or politically inclined women, Meira Paibi group has also been demanding that AFSPA be revoked.

Question 3.
Explain the impact of globalisation and neo-liberalism on the lives of marginalised people.
Answer:

1. Tribal people, poor farmers, landless workers, women and the workers in the unorganised sector have been worst hit.
2. They have no access to better education and skills.
3. As a result, they are not able to get better-paying jobs or legal or other constitutional remedies.
4. Due to the activities such as mining and construction of major projects, many tribal people and farmers are being displaced.

Question 4.
Estimate the pros and cons of building Multipurpose projects.
Answer:
Pros:

1. Huge amounts of water could be stored.
2. Agriculture could be developed.
3. A large amount of electricity could be generated.
4. Floods and droughts could be controlled.

Cons:

1. Local people will be displaced.
2. It is not really possible to rehabilitate all the displaced people properly.
3. Bio-diversity will be damaged.
4. Water storage and electricity generation were actually less than those were assumed.
5. Sometimes the construction of dams may cause earthquakes.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analysing it.

Answer:

1. The above table shows that how many million tonnes of carbon dioxide is emitted in 2011 by some of the countries like China, USA, Russia, India, UK & Indonesia while they are using energy resources.
2. According to this, they are given ranks also to the countries on the base of emission of carbon dioxide.
3. In the above table, over all China emitted more million tonnes, but in percapita USA emitted more metric tonnes.
   In this one China, USA, Russia occupies first three places in the emission of carbon dioxide which are highly industrialised countries. These are the main responsible for global warming in the world and creating natural hazards and disasters in the world. Due to that climatic changes are taken place very rapidly and causes to destroy life at present and future also.
4. If it continues the whole world will suffer very highly, that’s why every country takes the responsibility and reduce the emission of carbon dioxide more and follow the safe and scientific measure and protect the atmosphere, environment and human beings also.

Question 6.
Write about the advantages and problems the people faced, due to the construction of Dams.
Answer:
Advantages: They do not only help in irrigation but also in electricity generation, water supply for domestic and industrial uses, flood control, recreation, inland navigation and fish breeding.
Disadvantages: Due to the Dam construction people lost their fertile land. Tribal people lost the forest land and their livelihood. People are displaced from their native place to other places. It maintains more expenditure also. It also induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases and pests and pollution resulting from excessive use of water.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The economic and political changes happening world wide since 1990s, which go by the name pf ‘globalisation’ or ‘neo-liberalism’ have deeply impacted the lives of the underprivileged and poor. Tribal people, poor farmers, landless workers, women, urban poor working in the unorganised sector and industrial workers have been the worst hit. By and large these are also the people without access to formal education or adequate nutrition and health.

Answer:
This paragraph is about the consequences of globalisation. It mainly influences the poor people and tribal people and it affects workers working in the unorganised sector. The people who are illiterates and under-nutritious are mostly affected.

Due to technological advancement, various machinery came out. The developed technology is influencing all the sectors. In agriculture combined harvesters, threshers are used. Tractors and transplantation machines are used and so labourers lost their livelihoods Due to railways and dams the tribal people are affected. When railways are taken up for extension many of the trees are cut for keeping under the rails. Hence the forest dwellers face problems of displacement. When government plans for constructing dams to increase irrigation facilities it is compulsory to
construct near forests. These lead to the displacement of tribal people. Many of these people are illiterates. Many tribal people lost their livelihoods such as collecting honey, nuts and seeds. Industrial belts also increased near the outskirts of cities and towns. This leads to pollution. Many rural illiterates are affected by this. Computers, IT,

Telecommunication, transportation increased and so the poor and the tribals are impacted.
My suggestion to the government is that it should take care of the people about their displacement. Proper compensation is to be given on time. Officers also should implement existing laws.

Question 8.
What are the ways in which the Black Americans protested with the government?
Answer:

1. The Black Americans suffered a lot as the government permitted segregation in schools and buses.
2. There was discrimination against them in appointments, housing, and even in voting rights.
3. They took up the Civil Rights Movement.
4. It Is of non-violent nature.
5. They gave massive demonstrations, marches, civil disobedience and boycott of discriminatory services.
6. They boycotted the buses for one year long.
7. More than two lakh people conducted the Washington March.
8. These are the ways in which they protested.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

Initially, the Sardar Sarovar Project was expected to be built with money borrowed from World Bank. After Intense protests, mobilisation, marches, hunger fasts and an international campaign World Bank decided to withdraw its funding.

Is it possible to build factories or projects or powerplants without throwing out farmers or tribal people?
Answer:

1. Most of the times it is possible to build factories, mines or power plants without throwing out the farmers or the tribal people.
2. Because they need infrastructural facilities and raw material.
3. .For that Government should think of alternatives.
4. Protection of the interests of the farmers and tribals also lies with the government.
5. The government should see that no damage is done to any sections of people.
6. Compensations in terms of land, money or job are to be properly calculated.
7. Government has to go for alternatives if the interests of any section of people are hurt.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions after studying the table.

a) Which state witnessed anti-arrack movement?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is the state which witnessed anti-arrack movement.

b) Which movement was led by Med ha Patkar?
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan was led by Medha Patkar.

c) Who led the Civil Rights Movement in America?
Answer:
Dr. Martin Luther King led the Civil Rights Movement in America.

d) Name the movement that took place in Manipur.
Answer:
Anti AFSPA is the movement that took place in Manipur.

e) Where was Narmada Bachao Andolan Movement taken place?
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan was taken place in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 11.
Answer the following questions after studying the table.

a) What is the war technique of Vietnam?
Answer:
The war technique of Vietnam is Guerrilla warfare.

b) What are the inventions of the USA Arsenal?
Answer:
Chemical weapons and Napalm bombs are the inventions of U.S.A Arsenal.

c) Why were there no civilian deaths in war for the USA?
Answer:
The war was fought in Vietnam. So, none of the USA civilian deaths occurred there.

d) How many military deaths were there for the USA?
Answer:
There were 58000 military deaths for the USA.

e) How many civilian deaths were there for Vietnam?
Answer:
There were 8 to 30 lakh civilian deaths for Vietnam.

Question 12.
Read the following information.

Read the passage and answer the following questions.
a) Which article protests, against the arbitrary arrest?
Answer:
Article 9.

b) What are the provisions of Article 10?
Answer:
According to article 10 everyone is entitled to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial judiciary.

c) Why are the above articles framed?
Answer:
The above articles are framed to protect civil and human rights.

d) Which article insists on equality before Saw?
Answer:
“Article 7” insists on equality before law.

Question 13.
Read the information and answer the following questions.

a) Write about civil rights movement of the USA.
Answer:
It was a movement to protest against discrimination of blacks in the USA in 1960s.

b) In which place Anti-Arrack movement in A.P. occurred?
Answer:
In Nellore District.

c) Name the movement that banned under water nuclear tests.
Answer:
Green Peace movement.

d) Who were the leaders of Human Rights Movement of the USSR.
Answer:
Alexander Solzhenitsyn and Andrei Sakharov.

Question 14.
What were the demands of the people of Bhopal regarding the great tragedy?
Answer:

1. The worst industrial disaster in the world happened in Bhopal in 1984.
2. Thousands of people lost their lives and many more are still suffering from its ill effects till date.
3. Right from the beginning, the people of Bhopal have been fighting for four main demands.
4. Proper medical treatment of the victims is the first.
5. As the company was a multinational company, the compensation for them based on international standards.
6. Third one is fixing criminal responsibility for the disaster on the management of the company.
7. The fourth demand is to find steps to prevent such disasters in the future.
8. While they have succeeded to some measure, they are still a long way to achieve all these demands.

Question 15.
Locate the following points on the outline map of world.

1. USA
2. USSR
3. Vietnam
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Andhra Pradesh
6. Manipur
7. Gujarat
8. Hungary
9. Poland.

Answer:

Question 16.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Estonia
2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Finland
4. Hungary
5. Europe
6. Norway
7. Sweden
8. Greenland
9. River Niger
10. Turkey

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 18 Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77).

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77)

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think the tribal languages were ignored at the time of the creation of the states in 1956?
Answer:
The languages spoken by dominant or powerful populations were considered at that time, so the tribal language were ignored.

Question 2.
What is the main aim of Panchsheel policy?
Answer:
To establish a foreign policy on the basis of Gandhian principles like peace and non-violence.

Question 3.
What were the main challenges before the leaders of the country in the early years after Independence?
Answer:

1. To maintain unity and integrity.
2. Reorganization of states without disturbing unity and integrity.
3. To bring about social and economic transformation
4. Poverty
5. Unemployment
6. Illiteracy.

Question 4.
Write any two rural development programmes of Nehru.
Answer:
The rural development programmes are:
The strategy favoured by Nehru and finally adopted included three components.

1. Land reforms,
2. Agricultural co-operatives and
3. Local self-government.

Three types of land reforms were contemplated, a) abolition of Zamindari system, b) tenancy reform and c) land ceilings.

Question 5.
Why is the Green Revolution Compulsory in India?
Answer:
Green Revolution in India is compulsory because.

1. To meet the needs of the increasing population by increasing food production.
2. To use better water management.

Question 6.
What is the difference between a single-party system and multi-party system?
Answer:

1. Single party system – prevailing only one party
2. Multi-party system – prevailing many parties.

Question 7.
What was the main reason behind introducing symbols to represent political parties and candidates by Election Commission?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of illiteracy.

Question 8.
What is meant by ‘Universal Adult Franchise’?
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise:
All the people who attain the age of 18 years, irrespective of caste, creed, religion gender language have the right to vote.

Question 9.
What are the land reforms proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru?
Answer:
According to Nehru’s proposal of land reforms are:

1. Abolition of Zamindari System
2. Tenancy reforms
3. Land ceiling. Some land is fixed. No one should hold more than that extent.

Question 10.
What did the Election Commission of India do for the illiterates to cast their vote?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India introduced symbols for the political parties and contesting candidates for the sake of illiterates to cost their vote easily.

Question 11.
What is the Constitution sought for?
Answer:
The Constitution is sought to fulfil multiple goals simultaneously, including making democracy work, unification and creation of a single political community and bringing about massive social and economic changes.

Question 12.
What was a great achievement?
Answer:
The setting of national goals and putting in place institutional mechanisms to achieve them within a relatively short span of time was undoubtedly a great achievement for a people who had been ruled by a foreign power for more than two centuries.

Question 13.
How can you say that first general elections were immensely significant for Indian democracy?
Answer:
The first elections were difficult because of the social dimensions also.

Question 14.
Why was an Election Commission set up?
Answer:
An Election Commission was set up to take care of the practical matters of conducting elections across the length and breadth of the country.

Question 15.
What was called the Congress System?
Answer:
The Congress party formed the government in many of the states as well. This inaugurated what some observers called the Congress System.

Question 16.
Write about the groupism in Congress.
Answer:
Congress always had within small groups. Though these groups originated on the basis of personal competition between leaders, they shared in the overall goals of the party but differed on some policy issues.

Question 17.
What enabled Indian politics to develop a multiparty democracy?
Answer:
It was the strength of the Constitutional framework and the democratic foundations laid by the freedom movement which enabled Indian politics to develop a multiparty democracy.

Question 18.
Write a challenge of the new nation.
Answer:
Among the first challenges the new nation faced was the demand for the reorganization of states on the basis of language.

Question 19.
How was the country divided during British rule?
Answer:
During the British period, the country was divided into Presidencies (Calcutta, Madras and Bombay) and a number of very large states like Central Provinces and Berar. A large part of the country was under princely states.

Question 20.
What was the fear regarding the language reorganisation?
Answer:
The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was the fear that language reorganization would lead to breaking up of the country.

Question 21.
When were the A.P. and Tamil Nadu state created?
Answer:
Potti Sriramulu demanding the formation of a separate Telugu speaking state died after 58 days of fasting in October 1952. Consequently, the states of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu were created.

Question 22.
What was at the top of the agenda of modern India?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly had called for social, economic and political justice and equality of status and opportunity, it put social and economic change at the top of the agenda of modern India.

Question 23.
What were the two questions that divide a political opinion?
Answer:
The two main questions that divided political opinion were:

1. What place agriculture should have in the larger development strategy?
2. How should resources be allocated between industry and agriculture?

Question 24.
What did the planners feel?
Answer:
The planners felt that for the country to develop it was essential to develop industries so that more people can shift to towns to work in factories and in the service sector. Hence from the Second Five Year Plan onwards, the emphasis shifted to industries.

Question 25.
Who formulated Panchsheel and for what?
Answer:
As for the immediate neighbours Nehru formulated the Panchsheel policy of non-interference in each other’s internal affairs.

Question 26.
Who succeeded Sastri?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi succeeded Sastri as Prime Minister after his untimely death in 1966.

Question 27.
Name some assemblies in which the Congress defeated.
Answer:
It was defeated in assemblies like Bihar, U.P., Rajasthan, Punjab, West Bengal, Orissa, Madras and Kerala.

Question 28.
Who was MGR?
Answer:
He was a popular hero in Tamil Nadu.

Question 29.
How were SVD governments?
Answer:
Many of these SVD governments were short-lived. Their life was marked by defections and corruption. Power seemed to be the only thing that united them. These governments had nothing to showcase.

Question 30.
What was the regional sentiment in A.P.?
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh, there was a demand for the separation of Telangana. The movement was spearheaded by students of Osmania University, whose main grouse was that the benefits of development were going to only some sections of the state.

Question 31.
What was Bangladesh?
Answer:
It was East Pakistan.

Question 32.
What was popular slogan in 1971 election?
Answer:
The popular slogan in 1971 election was “Garibi Hatao”.

Question 33.
What were the important legislations during the period of Indira Gandhi?
Answer:

1. Nationalisation of many private banks.
2. Abolition of princely pensions.

Question 34.
What happened in 1973?
Answer:
In 1973, the Court came up with the landmark decision on the Basic Structure of the Constitution, which put a checkon the governmental power to amend the Constitution.

Question 35.
Write any two ill effects of the Emergency period.
Answer:

1. The fundamental rights were suspended.
2. There were also instances of arbitrary arrests, torture and violation of civil liberties.

Question 36.
How was Meghalia formed?
Answer:

1. Meghalaya was formed in 1969; Meghalaya formerly belonged to Assam.
2. It was formed out of the tribal districts of Khasi, Jaintia and Garo hills.

Question 37.
Expand SRC.
Answer:
State Reorganization Committee.

Question 38.
Write two important events occurred during Lai Bahadur Shastry period.
Answer:

1. Official language Act in 1963 and anti-Hindi agitation.
2. War with Pakistan in 1965.

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the given Pie diagram and discuss the 2014 General Elections.

Answer:

1. B.J.P. is the largest party with 282 seats.
2. INC got only 44 seats.
3. AIADMK got 37 seats
4. TDP got 16 seats.
5. Others got 140 seats.

Question 2.
Read the following passage and answer the given question.

With this democracy was put on hold. The government began a series of repressive measures, claiming that this was necessary to bring order in the country. Many of the fundamental rights were suspended. There were also instances of arbitrary detention, torture and other violations of civil liberties. While people welcomed control over prices rise and the campaign against black marketing and bonded labour many programmes undertaken by the emergency government such as demolition of slums and forced sterilisation in the name of population control became very unpopular. However, in the absence of civic freedom people could not express their discontent and the government therefore could not take corrective measures.

What were the changes taken place in an emergency?
Answer:

1. Democracy was put on hold.
2. The government began a series of repressive measures in the name of law and order.
3. Fundamental rights were suspended.
4. Forced sterilization in the name of population control.
5. In the absence of civil rights, people could not express their discontent.

Question 3.
What are the aims of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
Answer:

1. To exclude the courts from election disputes.
2. To strengthen the central government vis-a-vis the State Governments.
3. To provide maximum protection from judicial challenges towards social and economic transformation legislation.
4. To make the judiciary subservient to the parliament.

Question 4.
Read the following paragraph and comment in your own words.

One of the greatest weaknesses was undoubtedly the low priority given to primary education and public health. This was going to hurt India for a long time to come. Other countries like China and Korea which also began a new inning around the same time, did much better on these two counts as compared to India.

Answer:

1. Primary education and public health are the most important aspects.
2. They have to be given utmost priority in any state.
3. Unfortunately in India, both these sectors could not develop as per expectations.
4. The government had to play a key role in these sectors to achieve the targets.

Question 5.
How were the land reforms implemented in India? How far did these reforms benefit the people?
Answer:

1. Land reforms were however implemented in a half-hearted manner across India.
2. While the Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place.
3. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land.
4. The Dalits continued to be landless but benefited from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and interpret the changes taken place in the social and economic fields in India.

Land reforms were implemented in a halfhearted manner across India. While the Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to landless did not take place. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land. The dalits continued to be landless but benefited from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Answer:
The Constituent Assembly had called for social, economic and political justice and equality of status and opportunity as its agenda.

1. For that the Planning Commission was set up within a month. The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture.
2. The strategy favoured by Nehru and finally adopted included three components.
   1. Landforms
   2. Agricultural co-operatives
   3. Local Self Government
3. Three types of land reforms were contemplated:
   1. Abolition of Zamindari system
   2. Tenancy reforms and
   3. Land Ceilings.
4. Local self-government would ensure that the land reforms were carried out and the coopera¬tives run according to the collective interests of the village.
5. Dams were constructed and were useful to both the agriculture and industrial sector.
6. The Second Five Year Plan shifted emphasis to industries. As a result, the service sector also would develop.

Question 7.
Which qualities of Lai Bahadur Shastri do you like? Why?
Answer:
After the death of Nehru in 1964, Congress managed a successful transition with the choos¬ing of Lai Bahadur Sastri as its leader in government. Sastri was immediately put to test with a series of issues which challenged the fundamental values and goals of the Indian nation. These included the Anti-Hindi agitation led by the DMK in the South, which threatened the goals of unity and integrity, the shortage of food which came in the way of social and economic transformation, besides a war with Pakistan in 1965.

Question 8.
Draw an outline map of India.
Answer:

Question 9.
What are the results of the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Results of Green Revolution:

1. Increase in net sown area
2. Increase in double-cropped area
3. Progress in the irrigation sector
4. Increase in per hectare yield level
5. Increase in the area under High Yielding Varieties
6. Increase in the use of fertilizers.

Question 10.
Write the differences between Regional party and the National Party.
Answer:
State Party: In a state, if a party wins 3% of valid votes or 3 Assembly seats, it is declared as a regional/state party. A party can be recognised in more than one state.
National Party: If a party is recognized in four states with 6% of valid votes or 11 Loksabha M.P seats from 4 different states, it is called a national party.

Question 11.
Create two slogans on “the importance of voting”.
Answer:
Your vote – Your weapon
Cast your vote – Change your fate
Vote is valuable – Don’t sell it

Question 12.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

A few days later, with the JP movement gaining more strength, the government imposed Emergency and justified it as necessary to preserve order, save democracy, protect the social and economic transformation and preserve national integrity.

Comment on the above text.
Answer:

1. When J.P. movement gaining more strength, the government imposed Emergency.
2. Democracy was put on hold.
3. Fundamental rights were suspended.
4. There were instances of arbitrary arrests and the violation of civil liberties.
5. The emergency period weakened the democratic fabric of our country.

Question 13.
Observe the following map and answer the following questions.

a) Name the states that are bordering Hyderabad state.
Answer:
Bombay State, Andhra state and Mysore state were surrounding the Hyderabad state.

b) How many states were there in the southern peninsula?
Answer:
There were eight states in the southern peninsula. They are

1. Bombay state
2. Hyderabad state,
3. Mysore state,
4. Andhra state,
5. Madras state,
6. Coorg state,
7. Pondicherry state,
8. Travancore-Cochin state.

Question 14.
Observe the following map and answer the following questions.
a) What was the smallest state that is there between Madras and Mysore state?
Answer:
“Coorg” was the smallest state between Madras and Mysore states.

b) Name the southernmost state from the above map.
Answer:
Travancore – Cochin state was the southern most state.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

Jawaharlal Nehru was not opposed to linguistic states; he only believed that this was not the time for it. It was also the consensual position among the leaders of the day. They believed that India was in the process of consolidating Itself and there should be no distraction.

Was Nehru opposing “Liquistic reorganization of states”?
Answer:

1. No. Nehru was not opposed to linguistic states.
2. He thought it was not a right time for reorganization.
3. Still India was consolidating itself.
4. At this moment there should not be any distraction.
5. Hence Nehru thought that it was not the right time to reorganization.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When India became independent the Cold War had just begun and the world was being polarised into countries in the US or USSR camp. Jawaharlal Nehru followed a policy of not joining either camp and tried to maintain an equidistant and independent position in foreign policy. He also joined hands with several other countries that had become independent around the same time and wanted to follow a similar policy – Indonesia, Egypt, Yugoslavia, and so on. Together they built the Non Aligned Movement. As for the immediate neighbours he formulated the Panchsheel policy of non-interference in each other’s internal affairs. However, India had to face two wars during this period, first with Pakistan over Kashmir in 1948 and with China in 1962. India was not well prepared for the wars, especially the war in 1962 and sustained heavy losses of human life and money.

Answer:
What was our foreign policy and did that policy help us to avoid wars with our neighbours?

1. We became independent in the bipolarized world.
2. We followed a policy of not joining in the US or the USSR camp.
3. Along with other countries like Indonesia, Egypt, Yugoslavia we built the Non-Alignment movement
4. In spite of our policy of Non-Alignment, we had to face two wars with Pakistan in 1965 and 1971 and one war with China, i.e. in 1962.
5. These wars ended with heavy losses of human life and money.
6. We have always been peace-loving and follow our policy in spite of hurdles.

Question 17.
What were the challenges before the leadership?
Answer:
The main challenges before the leadership were the need to maintain unity and integrity, bring about a social and economic transformation and to ensure the working of the democratic system. These challenges are interrelated and great care had to be taken to ensure that the system did not get imbalanced.

Question 18.
Mention the social dimension time of the first general elections.
Answer:
A large section of the population did not know how to read and write. In some parts of the country, women were known by their father’s or husband’s name, they did not have an independent identity. This has to change if women were to have equal rights and take the country towards greater social equality.

Question 19.
How did the Election Commission overcome the problem of illiteracy?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of illiteracy, the Election Commission came up with a novel idea of having symbols from everyday life to represent political parties and candidates. This creative innovation dispensed with elaborate instructions and required only visual identification. This basic idea continues even today. To make it even easier, in the first election each candidate had a separate ballot box with the symbol stuck outside; the voter only had to drop their ballot paper in the box of their preferred candidate.

Question 20.
How were the first three general elections?
Answer:
In Independent India’s first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962, the Indian National Congress won reducing other participants to almost nothing. Jawaharlal Nehru became the first Prime Minister of India. None of the other parties individually got more than 11% of the votes polled.

Question 21.
What was the result of groupism in Congress party?
Answer:
The groups took different positions on various issues depending on the interests of the members. This made the Congress appear as if it was a party representing diverse interests and positions. At times, these groups also tied up with other political parties to pressurise the leadership. This also acted as an inbuilt corrective mechanism within the ruling party. Political competition in the one- party dominant system, therefore, took place within the Congress. The opposition parties therefore only posed a latent and not a real threat.

Question 22.
What was the planning for Nehru?
Answer:
For Nehru planning was not only good economics but good politics as well. He hoped that planned development would dissolve the divisions of caste and religion, community and region as well as other disruptive and disintegrative tendencies and help India to emerge as a strong and modern nation.

Question 23.
Write about the First Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture and stressed on the need for increased food production, development of transport and communications and the provision of social services. It also stressed the need to industrialise India as quickly as possible. Given that food was a basic requirement, there was a consensus on increasing food production but there was no agreement on how this should be achieved.

Question 24.
How were land reforms implemented?
Answer:
Land reforms were implemented in a half-hearted manner across India. While Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land. The Dalits continued to be landless but benefitted from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Question 25.
Write about laws during the First Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The First Five Year Plan focussed on improving agriculture by building large dams to irrigate and produce electricity. Dams benefitted both the agriculture and the industrial sector. Though there was an increase in agricultural production, it was still not sufficient to meet the needs of the population.

Question 26.
Explain the need of Green revolution.
Answer:
The existing strategy was not increasing food production, there was a shift to different strategy between the years 1964-67. This attempted to secure the cooperation of the state governments as well as increase food production. In a way it also reflected the changes in economic policy after the death of Nehru and also the changes in economic thinking as well.

Question 27.
Explain the reason for the given statement: The new governments are important markers.
Answer:
The new governments are an important marker in India’s political history because it was in a way the first democratic upsurge. It was for the first time the intermediate castes; the groups who had first benefitted from the land reforms and acquired some degree of economic standing gained political power. They were the dominant castes in their respective states and also had a significant numerical presence.

Question 28.
What were the reactions of government before emergency?
Answer:
The government reacted harshly with a series of laws which violated civil rights in the name of maintaining order. The opposition also criticised the Prime Minister for personalising the government. Meanwhile, due to a decision of Allahabad High Court Indira Gandhi was unseated from Lok Sabha for violating some of the provisions of the Representation of the Peoples Act during the 1971 elections. However, she got a stay from the Supreme Court.

Question 29.
In the west, franchise was extended in stages, first to propertied and only subsequently to other sections of society. But independent India adopted Universal Adult Franchise at one go. Why was it so?
Answer:

1. The first general elections in independent India were immensely significant for Indian democracy.
2. It represented India’s determination to take the path of democracy.
3. Earlier British provided franchise to propertied and educated as well as taxpayers only.
4. But independent India wanted every adult to indicate his choice.
5. That is how democracy would be more meaningful.
6. So, independent India adopted Universal Adult Franchise immediately.

Question 30.
Why were many of the Samyukta Vidhayak Dal governments short-lived ?
Answer:

1. Many of the Samyukta Vidhayak Dal governments were short-lived.
2. Their life was marked by defections and corruptions.
3. Power seems to be the only thing united them.
4. These governments had nothing to showcase.
5. Even today, the regional or state parties are evaluated from this standpoint.

Question 31.
“The 73rd Constitutional Amendment is useful for Local Self Government”. Explain reasons.
Answer:

1. 73rd Constitutional amendment definitely useful for local self-government.
2. State governments decide on what functions were to be devolved to local self-governments.
3. Women and scheduled caste and tribes are provided with reservation of seats in local self-governments.

Question 32.
“Too much centralisation of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyse it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralisation of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals. ,
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, rising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed emergency.
5. During Emergency, Democracy was put on hold.

Question 33.
Imagine and write the main reasons for the continuation of anti-Hindi movement in Tamil Nadu till today.
Answer:

1. DMK in Tamil Nadu believed the passage of Official Languages Act, 1963 was an attempt to foist Hindi on the rest of the country.
2. They started a statewide campaign protesting the imposition of Hindi. This was called anti- Hindi agitation.
3. They organised strikes, dharnas, burning effigies, Hindi books as well as pages of Constitution.
4. The government made English and Hindi as official languages.
5. Till now, Tamilians have anti feelings towards Hindi.

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

i) Which two countries were signed on Panchasheela pact?
Answer:
China and India.

ii) When did Planning begin in India?
Answer:
1951

iii) Name the Prime Minister who imposed emergency in India.
Answer:
Indira Gandhi

iv) What is green revolution?
Answer:
A large increase in the production of food grains due to the introduction of high yielding varieties, to the use of pesticides and to better management techniques.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and answer the following questions.

i) From which state, Jharkhand was separated?
Answer:
Bihar.

ii) Mention one special feature of Uttarakhand.
Answer:
Sanskrit is one of the official languages.

iii) Which state was formed on 1st November 2000?
Answer:
Jharkhand.

iv) Which state was separated from Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
Chattisgarh.

Question 3.
Write your comments on the opinion of Ambedkar given below.

On the 26th of January 1950, we are going to enter into a life of contradictions. In politics, we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality.

Answer:

1. This opinion of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is very much true.
2. As everyone has his right tp vote and each vote has the same value, we can say that there is political equality.
3. As there is discrimination in many aspects, social equality is becoming a question
4. As there are wide inequalities in incomes of the people, there is no economic equality.
5. These inequalities need to be addressed at the earliest possible moment.

Question 4.
Describe the situation of India during the Emergency period.
Answer:

1. The democracy was put on hold.
2. Many Fundamental rights were suspended.
3. Civil liberties were violated.
4. People could not even express their discontent.
5. Slums were demolished.
6. Forced sterilization went on the name of population control.

Question 5.
Read the given data and answer the following questions:

Questions:

1. When was first linguistic state formed?
Answer:
1953.

2. Mention one of the challenges faced by Election Commission in conducting First General Elections.
Answer:
Illiteracy.

3. In which Five Year Plan, was agriculture given importance?
Answer:
Agriculture was given importance is the First Five Year Plan.

4. What party dominated Indian politics in first 3 decades of independent India?
Answer:
Indian National Congress.

Question 6.
Read the following table and answer the questions.

Table showing the parliamentary seat sharing of various political parties
a) Which political parties got their majority in 1962 than in 1952?
Answer:
Communist Party.

b) Which political parties had disappeared till 1962?
Answer:

1. Jana Sangh
2. Praja Socialist Party
3. DMK

c) Which political parties lost their seats in 1952 and in 1962?
Answer:
1962: Kisan Mazdur Party, People’s Democratic Front, Ganatantra Parishad

d) Which political parties lost their majority in 1962 than in 1952?
Answer:
Others, Independents, Congress.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph given below and interpret.

India has been extremely successful in holding together and maintaining Its unity and integrity. India was seen a fit case for breakup given Its extreme diversities and the fact that It has not done so, Is a valuable lesson has many other countries.

Answer:

1. India is a vast country with diversity.
2. There are a good number of religious, castes, tribes and languages.
3. People speaking a particular language have a culture and they identify themselves as a separate entity.
4. But National Integrity lies on the fact of “one nation and one race”.
5. In India all communities people joined together and celebrate all festivals.
6. India gave Right to vote to all eligible citizens without discrimination.
7. Even the highest post President of India is also elected from different communities.
8. This shows India follows, unity and integrity.

Question 8.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Summary of the 2014 – Indian General Elections

Answer:
The given table describes the summary of the 2014 general elections in India. In the given table two parties that is Bharatiya Janata Party and the Indian National Congress are compared. It is not only the party comparison but their alliances are also mentioned. The Bharatiya Janata Party alliance is National Democratic Alliance whereas the United Progressive Alliance is related to Indian National Congress. In these elections, the NDA got 31% of the votes whereas the UPA got 19.31%. If we observe the seats, the BJP with its alliance won 282 whereas the INC won only 44. These elections are very crucial because the voter strongly rejected the Pre-independence party which ruled India since 1947. For a long time it was a single largest party to win the seats in Lok sabha. The voters cleverly gave a mandate to the Bharatiya Janata Party with the hopes that their future may be changed. The BJP announced the Prime Ministerial candidate, Narendra Modi in advance. He achieved and succeeded in Gujarat as Chief Minister. So the voters accepted him as Prime Minister also. They believed him. Congress lost faith of the people because of its failures. During the Congress period there was a lot of corruption, scams and nepotism, etc. Many of the Congress members of Parliament were in court cases. Rajiv Gandhi himself declared that corruption is highly established in India. If the Bharatiya Janata Party with its alliance work for the development of the country, definitely they will win the next coming 2019 elections. So the party should keep this in mind and work in that direction

Question 9.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was a fear that language reorganisation would lead to break down of the country.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph:

The given paragraph says that our country was divided on the basis of religion. So some doubts are created about the security and stability of India. Language reorganisation was another fear. Congress promised to restructure the country on the lines of language.

Everyone knows that India was divided and Pakistan was formed on the basis of religion. Bengal and Punjab were divided into East Bengal – West Bengal and East Punjab – West Punjab. East Bengal became East Pakistan and West Punjab became West Pakistan. In 1970s East Pakistan declared itself independence after the war. Then Bangladesh was formed. The two newly formed countries are of the Muslim majority. Many leaders are afraid about the security and stability of the country. In Pakistan and Bangladesh, a few Hindus are there and in India there are Muslims. Now the position of Hindus in Pakistan and Bangladesh is worst. They have no minority status and rights, but in India minorities are given special attention under Article 29 and 30. The demand of language-based reorganisation was also a problem. At last the States Reorganisation Committee worked out and the States are formed based on the language. Though the States are formed based on language, nothing was weakened as expected but it helped India integrated. Based on the language someone is a Tamilian or Telanganite, he/she is an Indian. Such a feeling is there in all the states. There is a criticism that tribal languages are ignored but they also live in the states safely.

Besides religion, language is also a predominant issue. In erstwhile Andhra Pradesh the language problem was there. Andhra language is greater than Telangana was a feeling. In cinemas, books, cultural programmes and songs Telangana language was degraded and humiliated in many ways. It has become one of the reasons for Telangana separate state movement. Finally, separate Telangana was formed.

In conclusion, I would say, whatever the religion or language is everyone is a human being first next he/she is an Indian. Religion is one’s personal. One can follow the religion he/she likes. The feeling such as one’s religion is greater than others, destroys and destructs the other. Gradually it degrades the country at international level. We hope and wish universal brotherhood. We got independence with lot of stress and strain. We should not spoil its spirit.

Question 10.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Seat share of various political parties in 1952 and 1962

Answer:
Table Analysis:
From the given table we understand how the national parties gained seats in 1952 and 1962 general elections.

1. Comparing 1952 & 1962, we come to know that INC lost three seats; Communist Party of India gained 13 more seats than previous election.
2. Independent parties lost 17 seats.
3. Socialist Party drowned to half of its previous seats.
4. Others too lost 11 seats when compared to previous election.

In my opinion, the other parties which contested were not able to win enough seats to challenge the Congress Party.

Question 11.
Observe the given table and analyse the data of Electors.

Election Commission of India

Lok Sabha Elections, 2014 (16th Lok Sabha)

Answer:
The given table is about the details of Lok Sabha Elections 2014, (16th Lok Sabha) Turn out of the voters issued by Election Commission of India. In the given table male, female and other voters number and their casting of vote particulars are given. Male voters are 43.7 crores whereas 39.7 crores female voters are listed out. Polling percentage in male is 67% and in female it is 65.54%, others only 7%. Out of 83 crore voters 55 crore voters cast their vote.
In democracy voting decides the rulers. Before elections many malpractices are going on the voters are lured with money, liquor, sarees, cricket kits what not many more. Surprising thing is that educated voters are also not excepted.

It is sad in democracy. If all educated and uneducated voters cast their vote by not inclining to any attractions and cast their vote for real leaders then we can say democracy is alive.

In cities like Hyderabad, recent election voting percentage is below 50%. Government should think, why these people are not turning out to cost their vote. In most IT companies they enjoy the day of polling will be a holiday. Rural people turn a lot of costing their vote.

For urban people, Election Commission should come out with a proposal of online voting or evoting. Then percentage will be increased. It is my suggestion.

Question 12.
Analyse the advantages and problems faced by the people due to the Multi-party system in India.
Answer:

1. In the first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962 the Congress Party won and led to single party dominance.
2. It was a kind of undemocratic situation marked by the absence of other political parties.
3. To strengthen the democratic foundations multi-party system emerged.
4. It almost checked the single party dominance of Congress.
5. The oppositions started critisizing the government.
6. People now have chance to choose the right party.
7. Multi-party system strengthens the constitutional frame work and democracy.

Question 13.
Observe the following pie diagram and answer the questions that follow.
1. Which political party secured less seats ?
Answer:
Ganatantra Parishad party secured less number of seal

2. What are the total number of seats that were elected?
Answer:
The total number of seats that were elected are 489.

3. How many seats were secured by Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Indian National Congress Secured the maximum 364 seats.

4. Which political party secured 16 seats?
Answer:
Communist Party of India secured 16 seats.

5. How many seats were secured by Kissan Majdoor Party?
Answer:
Kissan Majdoor Party secured 9 seats.

Question 14.
Observe the given pie diagram and answer the following questions.

a) What were the total number of seats that were elected?
Answer:
The total number of seats that were elected were 494.

b) Which party secured maximum number of seats?
Answer:
Indian National Congress secured maximum number of seats.

c) How many seats were secured by Communist Party of India?
Answer:
Communist Party of India secured 29 seats.

d) Which party secured minimum of seats?
Answer:
Socialists Party secured minimum number of seats.

e) How many seats were secured by others?
Answer:
Others secured 27 seats.

Question 15.
Read the information and answer the following questions.

Compare the above Pie diagrams.
Answer:

1. The above pie diagrams reveal the fact that there was an undemocratic situation marked by the absence of other political parties.
2. In both the election the Congress won maximum seats, i.e., 364 in 1952 and 361 in 1962 election.
3. Other parties were unable to challenge the Congress.
4. Ganatantra Parishad Party secured less seats in 1952 whereas Socialist Party secured less seats in 1962 elections.
5. The Communist Party of India secured more seats in 1962 i.e., 29 when compared with 16 in 1952 elections.

Question 16.
Read the following and comment on it.

The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was the fear that language reorganisation would lead to break up of the country. Hence, even though the Congress itself was organised on the linguistic lines and had promised to restructure the country on those lines, it developed cold feet when independence came.

Answer:

1. The partition of India created a lot of insecurity in the minds of the people.
2. How to maintain the integrity of the country became a burning topic.
3. There was a fear that the language reorganization would lead to breakup of the country.
4. But state reorganization committee was established.
5. Reorganization Act was passed in 1956.
6. Our leaders took initiative in this direction and regional languages were recognized as state official language.
7. English was given the status of communicating language.
8. Hence linguistic reorganization did not create any problem.

Question 17.
Observe the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) Which was the smallest area shown in the map?
Answer:
Pondicherry was the smallest area shown in the map.

b) Which small state was there in between Madras and Mysore states?
Answer:
Coorg was the small state in between Madras and Mysore states.

c) Which was the southernmost state from the map ?
Answer:
Travancore – Cochin state was the southernmost state.

d) Which was the eastern state?
Answer:
Andhra state was the eastern state.

e) Name the boundaries of Andhra State.
Answer:
Bay of Bengal, Hyderabad, Mysore and Tamil Nadu were the boundaries of Andhra State.

Question 18.
Locate the following on the outline map of India.

1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Bihar
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Jammu-Kashmir
6. Nagaland
7. Punjab
8. Meghalaya

Answer:

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Kenya
2. Suez canal belongs to this country
   Answer: Egypt
3. Algeria
4. Libya
5. China
6. Kyrguzstan
7. Uzbekistan
8. Ukraine
9. Phillippine
10. New Zealand

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Coordination in Life Processes Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes

10th Class Biology 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What do you mean by hunger pangs?
Answer:

1. When glucose levels in the blood fall, hunger pangs occur in the stomach.
2. Ghrelin hormone is secreted in the stomach when it goes empty.
3. Ghrelin is secreted from certain cell walls of the stomach.
4. Hunger contractions (hunger pangs) start to occur in the stomach due to secretion of ghrelin hormone.
5. Hunger pangs continue up to 30 – 45 minutes.
6. An increase in Ghrelin levels results in sensation of hunger and motivation to consume food.

Question 2.
What are the organ systems involved in the digestion of food which we eat?
Answer:
The organ systems involved in the digestion of food are:

1. endocrine system,
2. nervous system,
3. muscular system,
4. circulatory system and
5. excretory system.

Question 3.
Rafi said smell also increases our appetite. Can you support this statement ? How?
Answer:

1. Yes. I support the statement made by Rafi that smell also increases our appetite.
2. When we smell, the air borne substances get dissolved in the watery film of nasal mucus.
3. The chemoreceptors which are otherwise called olfactory receptors present in the nose trigger signals in the form of nerve impulses to the brain where the smell is detected.
4. However interactions between the senses of taste and smell enhance our appetite.

Question 4.
Write a note on peristalsis and sphincter function in the stomach.
Answer:
A) Peristalsis functions in stomach:

1. Contraction and relaxation of the muscles present in the stomach bring in a wave-like motion called peristalsis.
2. The contraction of the stomach muscles squeeze and mix the food with the acids and juices of the stomach.
3. Mechanical mixing of food in stomach occurs by peristalsis. This allows the mass of food to further mix with the digestive enzymes.
4. Peristalsis in stomach is involuntary and under the control of the autonomous nervous system.

B) Sphincter functions in the stomach:

1. Pyloric sphincter is present at the opening of the stomach into the duodenum (small intestine).
2. The pyloric sphincter allows only small quantities of food into duodenum at a time.

Question 5.
Observe the given part of the digestive system. What is it ? What is it’s role during digestion ?
Answer:

1. The given part is the LARGE INTESTINE in the human digestive system:
   
2. If creates peristaltic waves to send waste material called stool or faeces into the rectum.
3. In the large intestine water and mineral salts are absorbed from the waste material.
4. The faecal matter containing indigested food material, bile pigments and dead bacteria is formed in the large intestine.
5. It is stored in the rectum and expelled out of the body through the Anus.

Question 6.
Give reasons.
a) If we press the tongue against the palate, we can recognize taste easily.
Answer:
Reason :

1. When the tongue is pressed against the palate, the food substance is pressed against the opening of the taste bud letting it to reach the taste cells and triggering taste signals.
2. Finally, the taste is recognized in the brain.

b) We can’t identify taste when food is very hot.
Answer:
Reason:

1. Most of the taste buds on the tongue are killed when the food is hot.
2. This prevents the person from identifying the taste.
3. The perception of taste decreases when the temperature of the food rises beyond 35°C.
4. But we don’t pay attention to it because we become worried about the burning feeling.

c) If glucose level falls in blood, we feel hungry. (OR) €EI June 2015
We feel hungry if the blood glucose level falls down. 03 June 2019
Answer:
Reason :

1. When glucose levels in the blood fall, we get hunger pangs in stomach.
2. Hungry feeling start to occur in the stomach due to hunger generating signals that the brain from the stomach due to the secretion of the hormone ‘Ghrelin’.

d) Small intestine is similar to a coiled pipe. (OR)
Why is the small intestine long and coiled?
Answer:
Reason :

1. The length of small intestine is 7 meters long.
2. It is coiled so as to fit in the human body.
3. It is coiled to increase surface area and maximum nutrient absorption when food passes through it.

e) Urination increases when we take lot of fluids.
Answer:
Reason:

1. When we take lot of fluids, the kidneys will efficiently throw the water out by forming more urine than usual.
2. When there is excess water in the body, the brain usually produces less of a hormone called vasopressin.
3. This in turn causes the kidneys to produce a lot of dilute urine, until excess water is removed.

f) The process of digestion goes on in a person whose central nervous system has been largerly affected.
Answer:
Reason :

1. The enteric nervous system embedded in the walls of the long tube of our gut or alimentary canal control gut functions often independently of the brain.
2. The mass of neural tissue of enteric nervous system filled with important neurotransmitters reveals that it does much more than merely handle digestion.

Question 7.
Write differences between the following:
a) Bolus – Chyme
b) Small intestine – Large intestine
c) Mastication – Rumination
d) Propulsion – Retropulsion
Answer:
a) Bolus – Chyme:

b) Small intestine – Large intestine:

c) Mastication – Rumination:

d) Propulsion – Retropulsion:

Question 8.
How can you say that mouth is a munching machine?
Answer:

1. Mouth plays a major role in changing the texture of food.
2. The circular muscles of the mouth enable the food to be pushed into the oral cavity and to be moved around.
3. The teeth grind, chew and shred the food.
4. The surface muscles of the jaw help in biting and chewing actions, while the deep muscles of the jaw move up, down, forward and backward during food mastication.
5. The teeth help in cutting and grinding while tongue movements evenly spread out the food and help in mixing it with saliva.
6. The muscles of the mouth enable the food to be pushed in the oral cavity and to be moved around.
7. By all this we can say that mouth is a munching machine.

Question 9.
What is mastication? Explain the role of different sets of teeth in this process.
Answer:
Mastication: Food can not be swallowed directly. So it must be grinded, chewed and shred. This process of grinding, chewing and shredding is called ’MASTICATION’.
Role of different sets of teeth in mastication:

1. In the oral cavity of human beings, 32 teeth and they are 4 different types to perform different functions.
2. They are a) Inscisors b) Canines c) Premolars d) Molars
   a) Inscisors: These are eight in number and have chisel shape. They have sharp edges and are specialized for cutting and biting the food.
   b) Canines: These are four in number and are with pointed edges- These are designed for piercing and tearing food.
   c) Premolars: These are eight in number and are also called cheek teeth. These are designed for crushing and grinding food.
   d) Molars: These are 12 in number. They are designed for crushing and grinding food.

Question 10.
During the journey of food from the mouth to stomach through oesophagus, how does muscular system coordinate in this process?
Answer:
Movement of food (bolus) from mouth to stomach through oesophagus is influenced by the coordination between muscular system and nervous system.
Muscular movement in mouth:

1. The circular muscles of the mouth enable the food to be pushed into the oral cavity and to be moved around.
2. The surface muscles of the jaw help in biting and chewing actions while the deep muscles move the jaw up and down, forward and backward during mastication.

Muscular movement in oesophagus:

1. The wall of the oesophagus is made up of two kinds of smooth muscles.
2. The inner layer consists of circular muscles and the outer layer is of longitudinal muscles.
3. Contraction of circular muscles lead to narrowing of the oesophagus behind the bolus. So the food is squeezed downwards.
4. Contraction of the longitudinal muscles in front of the bolus widens the tube, results in shortening of particular part of oesophagus.
5. In this way food moves easily and enters the stomach. ,
6. Contraction and relaxation of oesophagus muscles bring peristaltic movements.

Question 11.
Is there any reason for the intestine to be coiled with many folds ? In what way it is helpful during the process of digestion? (OR)
Small intestine is similar to a coiled pipe. Give reason.
Answer:

1. Yes, there is a reason for the intestine to be coiled with many folds.
2. The coiled and folded nature of intestine slows down the passage of food along the intestine and afford an increased surface area for absorption.
3. It also increases the surface area for the intestine to increase the absorption of nutrients through finger-like projections villi.
4. The folded and coiled intestine absorbs nutrients and water more than they breakdown.

Question 12.
What is the function of peristalsis in these parts?
a) Oesophagus b) Stomach c) Small intestine d) Large intestine
Answer:
a) Oesophagus:
Peristalsis helps in pushing the food, down the oesophagus into the stomach.

b) Stomach:

1. Peristalsis helps in storing food, breaking down food down and mixing it with juices secreted by stomach lining.
2. Peristalsis in stomach helps in partial digestion of food.

c) Small intestine:

1. Peristalsis pushes the digesting food through small intestine.
2. It helps to mix the chyme to help in the digestive process.
3. Peristalsis also helps in absorbing nutrients from the digesting food into the blood.

d) Large intestine:
Peristaltic movements help to propel feces along the large intestine through colon, to the rectum for expulsion from the body.

Question 13.
How can you justify the enteric nervous system as the second brain of the gut?
(OR)
Write about the nervous system present beneath the digestive system.
Answer:

1. The enteric nervous system, the second brain consists of sheaths of neurons embedded in the walls of the long tube of our gut, or alimentary canal.
2. The second brain measures about nine meters to end from the oesophagus to the anus.
3. The second brain contains some 100 million neurons, more than in either the spinal cord or the peripheral nervous system.
4. This multitude of neurons in the enteric nervous system enables us to “feel” the inner world of our gut and its contents.
5. Enteric nervous system contains mass of neural tissue filled with important neurotransmitters.
6. This reveals that it does much more than merely handling digestion or inflict the occasional nervous pang of hunger.
7. Enteric nervous system stimulates and coordinates the breaking down of food, absorbing nutrients and expelling of waste.
   Thus equipped with its own reflexes and senses, the second brain can control several gut functions often independently of the brain.
8. Several scientists also believe that the enteric nervous system is a way too complicated to have evolved only to make sure things move through and out of our gut smoothly.
9. Hence we can justify that the enteric nervous system as the second brain of the gut.

Question 14.
Rajesh feels hungry upon seeing food. Sheela says no more food as she is not hungry. What makes Rajesh hungry and what suppresses Sheela’s hunger?
Answer:

1. When glucose levels in the blood fall, we get hunger pangs in the stomach. Feeling hungry lies in the physiology of blood circulation.
2. The secretion of the hormone GHRELIN starts in the stomach when it goes empty.
3. Hunger contractions start to occur in the stomach due to hunger generating signals that reach the brain from the stomach due to ghrelin.
4. So Rajesh effected with secretion of ghrelin in his stomach and he felt hungry when he saw food.
5. Sheela was not affected with secretion of ghrelin in her stomach. She felt that her stomach is full.
6. When we feel the stomach is full and there is no need of food any more, another hormone LEPTIN is secreted that supresses hunger.

Question 15.
How are taste and smell related?
(OR)
What is the relationship between taste and smell?
Answer:

1. Taste and smell are closely related.
2. This close relationship is most readily seen in how we perceive the flavours of food.
3. Anyone with severe cough and cold cannot make out the difference in the taste of certain food items.
4. Actually, what is really being affected is the flavour of the food , or the combination of taste and smell.
5. That is because not only the taste but also the food odours are being defected.
6. However, interactions between the senses of taste and smell enhance our perceptions of the foods we eat.
7. Smell of the food flavour gives a similar taste to food.

Question 16.
List out the sphincter muscles of the food canal you have observed and give a brief description.
(OR)
What are the different types of sphincter muscles present in the digestive canal?
Answer:
There are different sphincter “muscles in the food canal. They are :

1. Esophageal sphincter
2. Cardiac sphincter
3. Pyloric sphincter
4. Anal sphincter and
5. Ileocecal value or sphincter.

1. Esophageal sphincter:

1. This allows entry of bolus into the oesophagus,
2. It also reduces back flow from the oesophagus to pharynx.

2. Cardiac sphincter:

1. It is present where oesophagus meets the stomach,
2. It’s location is almost directly in front of the heart,
3. It allows food from oesophagus into the stomach.

3. Pyloric sphincter:

1. It is present at the opening called pylorus, located at the end of the stomach,
2. Pyloric sphincter allows only small quantities of food into duodenum at a time.

4) Anal sphincter:

1. It is located at the anus, the end of the digestive system,
2. The release of waste is controlled partly, voluntarily by anal sphincter.

5) Ileocecal value:

1. It is situated at the junction of the small intestine (ileum) and the large intestine (colon),
2. It’s function is to limit the colonic contents into the ileum.

Question 17.
What happens if salivary ducts are closed?
(OR)
What happens if saliva is not produced by salivary glands?
Answer:
If salivary ducts are closed the following consequences may occur:

1. If salivary ducts are closed saliva will not release into the mouth, the mouth becomes dry.
2. We can’t taste the food.
3. Saliva secretes an enzyme called salivary amylase which breaks down the carbohydrates in food into dextrose and maltose sugar.
4. If saliva is not secreted in the mouth carbohydrates remains unchanged digestion will not completed.
5. Due to absence of saliva food will not get moistened, chewing and swallowing becomes difficult.
6. If salivary ducts are closed, the salivary glands become swollen and it leads to pain.

Question 18.
If size and shape of small intestine is like oesophagus what will happen?
Answer:

1. If size and shape of small intestine is like oesophagus the height of the person should be more than 22 feet as the length of the small intestine is about 22 feet. So it will not fit in the human body.
2. For the complete digestion of the food to occur, it has to stay in small intestine for 3 to 4 hours.
3. Otherwise digestion will not be completed and nutrients are not absorbed into blood . in the small intestine.
4. The tube like nature of small intestine as that of oesophagus will not provide increased surface area for complete absorption of nutrients.

Question 19.
Prepare a questionnaire to understand nervous coordination in the digestion process.
(OR)
What are the questions you are going to ask your teacher about nervous coordination in the digestion process?
(OR)
Prepare a questionnaire for an interview with a doctor to understand the nervous coordination in the digestion process.
Answer:

1. What is enteric nervous system?
2. Why the enteric nervous system is known as second brain?
3. How nervous system plays an important role in digestion of food?
4. Which nervous system controls the release of saliva from salivary glands?
5. Which cranial nerve controls the movement of muscles in the jaw?
6. The mechanism for swallowing is under the control of?

Question 20.
What experiment do you perform to understand action of saliva on flour? Explain it’s procedure and apparatus that you followed.
(Activity – 7)
(OR)
i) Explain the procedure followed in the experiment conducted to understand the action of saliva on starch.
ii) What apparatus and chemicals are used to do this experiment?
(OR)
Write the experiment you have performed in your school laboratory to know the action of Saliva on flour. How did you test the pH of Saliva?
(OR)
Explain the experiment conducted by your teacher in your class to show the action of saliva on the starch.
Answer:
Aim: To understand the action of saliva on flour.
Apparatus:

1. Two test tubes
2. Water
3. Ata flour
4. Water glass and
5. Iodine solution.

Procedure:

1. A test tube is taken and half of the test tube is filled with water.
2. A pinch of flour is added.
3. To mix flour with water, test tube as shaken.
4. Few drops of flour mixture is taken in a watch glass and test for the presence of starch by putting a drop of diluted tincture Iodine in it.
5. A blue black colour confirms the presence of starch.
6. Divide the mixture into two equal halves by transferring it to another test tube.
7. Both the test tubes have the same amount of solution.
8. Add a teaspoon of saliva to one of the test tube and mark it.
9. Do not add anything in the other test tube.
10. After 45 minutes add a drop of dilute Tincture Iodine solution to test tubes containing the solutions.

Observation:

1. Saliva containing flour mixture becomes slurry. It doesn’t show any change.
2. But in the second test tube with only flour mixture turns blue colour.

Conclusion:

1. Saliva in the test tube converts flour into sugar. So no change is observe here.
2. In the second test tube containing only flour mixture turns blue black.

(OR)
i) Answer:

1. Add a spoon of starch to the water taken in a test tube to make starch solution. Starch solution is divided into two equal parts in two test tubes.
2. Add a little saliva to one of the above test tube and the other without adding saliva and keep them a side for some time.
3. Add a drop of dilute iodine to both the test tubes. The test tube added with saliva doesn’t turns to blue black because the starch is broken down into smaller units called sugar by the saliva.
4. The other part which is not added with saliva turns into blue black, as it has starch without any change.
   So this experiment proves saliva converts complex carbohydrates into simple sugars.

ii) Answer:
Test tubes, water glass, flour, iodine, saliva.

Question 21.
Suggest a simple experiment to prove the role of palate in recognizing taste.
(OR)
How do you prove that palate has a role in recognizing taste?
(OR)
“Taste is connected to the tongue and palate”. Write an activity to prove it and write your observations.
Answer:
Experiment to prove the role of palate in recognizing taste
Aim: To prove the role of palate in recognizing taste.
Apparatus: Sugar crystals, Stop watch.
Procedure:

1. Place some sugar crystals on the tongue.
2. Keep mouth opened and see that tongue does not touch the palate.
   
3. Record the time from the moment we placed the crystals on the tongue till we get the taste by using stop watch.
4. Now repeat the test by placing the sugar crystals on the tongue pressing it against the palate.
5. Record the time from placing sugar crystals to getting the taste.

Observation: From the above activity we know that taste can be identified easily when the tongue is pressed against the palate.
Result: We can easily identify the taste of the substance we can identify the taste of it in lesser time.

Question 22.
Collect information related to feeling hunger from your school library and prepare a note on it.
Answer:

1. Generally we feel hunger when our stomach goes empty.
2. When our stomach goes empty Ghrelin hormone is released and it causes the feeling of hunger.
3. As well leptin hormone also released, but it causes the feeling of suppression of hunger.
4. Not only these, when we saw a colourful and good smelling food, automatically we feel hunger. So, the sight of seeing a good food also causes feeling of hunger.
5. If the food doesn’t have good colour, texture, good smell we can’t eat, even though it is a good food.
6. All the feelings towards food are recieved by our eyes, nose, tongue.
7. From these, information is sent to brain, from there signals are sent to stomach and causes feelings either positive or negative.
8. Hormones are also responsible for most of the feelings of hunger.

Question 23.
Draw the block diagram of showing sensation of taste from food material to brain.
Answer:

Question 24.
Draw a neatly labelled diagram showing a peristaltic movement in oesophagus Explain the importance of mucus on the walls of food pipe.
(OR)
In the food pipe, the food bolus is propelled into the stomach by peristaltic movement Represent this action with a diagram.
Answer:
Importance of mucus on the walls of food pipe :

1. The walls of the food pipe secrete a slippery substance called mucus.
2. Mucus lubricates and protects the oesophgeal walls from damage.
3. This helps the food bolus to slide down easily.
4. Besides this the saliva in the bolus also helps in easy movement.

Question 25.
Draw a schematic diagram of villus in small intestinp. Explain how digestive system coordinates with circulatory system.
(OR)
Draw the diagram of villi in small intestine and lable its parts.
Answer:
Coordination of digestive system with circulatory system :

1. After the completion of digestion in small intestine, it enters into the blood through villi.
2. In blood the digested food gets oxidised after that energy is released.
3. Releasing of energy from fot^d occur only when it enter into the blood.
4. So, there is a great coordination between digestive and

Question 26.
The mere smell or sight of food stimulates hunger . Describe the process through a neat diagram.
Answer:

1. The mere smell even the mere sight of delicious food stimulates the hunger.
2. When we smell, the air borne substances get dissolved in the watery film of nasal mucus.
3. The chemoreceptors in nose are otherwise called olfactory receptors which trigger signals in the form of nerve impulses to the brain where smell is defected.
4. The amount of the neurosecretory protein hormone ghrelin in the blood increases as a result of visual stimulation images of food.
5. Hunger contractions start to occur in the stomach due to hunger generating signals that reach the brain.
6. It is believed that the diencephalon in fore brain and vagus nerve (10th cranial nerve) plays an important role in carrying these signals to brain.
7. Hunger pangs continue up to 30-45 minutes.
8. Increase ¡n ghrelin levels results in sensation of hunger and motivation to consume food.

Question 27.
With the help of a diagram show the movement of food from mouth to the stomach. What muscles and nerves are involved in the movement of food and what is this action called as ? (OR)
Draw a diagram of peristaltic movement of food in oesophagus of elementary canal. Write how it performs.
Answer:
The muscles involved in movement of food from mouth to stomach :

1. The circular muscles of the mouth enable the food to be pushed into the oral cavity and to be moved around.
2. The surface muscles of the jaw help in biting and chewing actions and move the jaw up, down, forward and backward.
3. Contraction and relaxation of circular and longitudinal muscles in the oesophagus bring in a wave like motion that propels the bolus into stomach by the action called peristalsis.
4. As the food approaches the closed ring of pyloric sphincter the surrounding muscles relax and allow the food to pass.
5. The muscles of the upper part of the stomach have to relax and accept large volumes of swallowed material.

Nerves involved in the movement of food:

1. The fifth cranial nerve has been found to control the movement of muscles in the jaw.
2. Peristalsis in oesophagus is under the control of autonomous nervous system.

Question 28.
Prepare a cartoon on Pavlov’s experiment with a suitable caption.
Answer:

Question 29.
How do you appreciate stomach as a churning machine? How does this coordination
Answer:

1. The stomach acts like a churning machine, churning the food around to break it into even smaller pieces.
2. Mechanical mixing of food in stomach occurs by peristalsis, which is waves of muscular contractions that move along the stomach wall.
3. This allows the mass of food to further mix with the digestive enzymes.
4. Due to churning of food in stomach, a mixture that resembles thick cream called chyme is formed.
5. All the muscles in the stomach works with such a great coordination.
6. Hence we can call stomach as a churning machine.

Question 30.
There is a great variety in diversified life processes, express your feelings in the form of a poem.
Answer:

POEM
Life is a process of discomfort and pain.
Learn to handle it all with courage and sane
Remember the bliss waiting for you
Nutrition, excretion, respiration all are essential in our life.
Reproduction makes our species go on and on forever.
Autotrophs and heterophs are brothers.
Depend on each other In a systematic way.
So have courage to learn more tricks.
Search for happiness.
In life that survive.

Question 31.
Suggest any two important habitual actions to your friend while eating food, keeping in view of this chapter.
Answer:

1. Masticate the food thoroughly in the mouth.
2. Do not swallow food without chewing properly or do not eat in hurry.
3. Eat small quantities of food at regular intervals for efficient digestion and absorption of nutrients.
4. Eat the food that emit good smell and has good taste to eat.
5. Do not eat too hot and too cold items.

Fill in the blanks.

1. 3:2:1:2 is the ratio of our dentition. Here 1 represents ———–.
2. Large protein molecules are broken down in ———– of digestive tract.
3. ———– is the strong acid which is secreted during digestion.
4. Olfactory receptors present in ———– triggering signals to brain.
5. pH of saliva is ———– in nature.

Answer:

1. Canine
2. Stomach
3. HCl
4. Nose
5. Alkaline nature

Fill in the blanks with suitable words given below.

Fluctuations of hormone —–(i)—– levels results in sensation of hunger and motivation of consuming food. When you feel your stomach is full and there is no need of food any more. Another hormone —–(ii)—– that gets secreted suppresses hunger. When we take food into the mouth it has to be chewed thoroughly. For this purpose the —–(iii)—– muscles help in chewing actions, while the —–(iv)—– muscles of the jaw moves the jaw up,down, forward and backward during food mastication. The —–(v)—– nerve controls the muscles of the jaw. Under the action of —–(vi)—– nervous system Saliva is released by the salivary glands moistens the food to make chewing and swallowing easier. The salivary —–(vii)—– in the saliva breaks down the starch into sugars. As a result of chewing the food is transported into the oesophagus by the action of swallowing which is coordinated by the swallowing centre in the —–(viii)—– and the —–(ix)—–. The tongue which is gustatory recognizes the taste and —–(x)—– nerve plays an important role in sensation of taste.

Choose the right ones.
i) leptin, ghrelin, gastrin, secretin.
ii) ghrelin, leptin, secretin, gastrin.
iii) deep muscles, surface muscles, circu lar muscles, striated muscles.
iv) surface muscles, deep muscles, neck muscles, long muscles.
v) fifth cranial nerve, second cranial nerve, fifth facial nerve, spinal nerve.
vi) central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, autonomous nervous system.
vii) lipase, sucrase, galactase, amylase.
viii) medulla oblongata, cerebrum, 8th spinal nerve, cranial nerve, 7th cranial nerve.
ix) Pons varoli, brain stem, medulla oblongata, mid brain.
x) 6th cranial nerve, 5th cranial nerve, 10th cranial nerve, optic nerve.

Answer:
i) ghrelin
ii) leptin
iii) surface
iv) deep
v) fifth cranial
vi) autonomous
vii) amylase
viii) medulla oblongata
ix) brain stem
x) fifth cranial nerve

Choose the correct answer.

1. In which of the following situations you can taste quickly? [ ]
   A) Put sugar cristals on tongue
   B) Put sugar solution on tongue
   C) Press the tongue slowly against the palate
   D) Swallow directly without grinding and shredding
   Answer: C
2. Peristalsis is because of [ ]
   A) Contraction of longitudinal muscles
   B) Contraction of circular muscles
   C) Under control of autonomous nervous system
   D) Digestive secretions
   Answer: C
3. Sphincter that helps in opening of stomach into duodenum [ ]
   A) Cardiac
   B) Pyloric
   C) Anal
   D) Gastric
   Answer: B
4. Glucose and amino acids are absorbed through the following part of villus [ ]
   A) epithelial cells
   B) blood capillary
   C) lymphatic vessel
   D) all
   Answer: A
5. The region in brain portion that controls hunger signals [ ]
   A) medulla
   B) diencephalon
   C) cerebrum
   D) mid brain
   Answer: B
6. Human organism is an internal combustion machine because of …. [ ]
   (OR)
   Human being is an “Internal combustion machine” because he/she
   A) assimilation of energy from food
   B) liberate CO₂ during respiration
   C) expel waste food at the end state of digestion
   D) secrete powerful digestive juices
   Answer: A

10th Class Biology 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 145

Question 1.
How do we know that we need food?
Answer:
When we feel hungry then we know that we need food.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 146

Question 2.
What plays a major role to identify stale food?
Answer:
Smell or odour plays a major role to identify stale food.

Question 3.
If you are having a tasty dish do you think the smell of it increases your appetite?
(OR)
Do the smell of tasty dish increases our appetite?
Answer:
Yes, the smell of tasty dish increases our appetite.

Question 4.
What are your observations after chewing cumin, sounf, potato and apple?
Answer:
If we chew cumin, sounf, potato and apple we observe in order to taste the food material the food should dissolve in saliva.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 148

Question 5.
Are there any other sensation that affect taste?
Answer:
Temperature (hotness), coldness are the sensations that affect taste.

Question 6.
What happens to your taste sensation while sipping hot milk or tea?
Answer:
We find something more tasty while we sipping hot milk or tea.

Question 7.
What do you think could be the range of temperature for us to relish food items?
Answer:
30°C to 35°C could be the range of temperature for us to relish food items.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 149

Question 8.
What do you think that would happen if the salivary glands did not function in our mouth?
Answer:

1. If the salivary glands do not function in our mouth, saliva will not release and the food do not get moistened and chewing it is difficult.
2. The taste of the food cannot be identified.
3. Carbohydrates in the food cannot be broken down and changed to dextrose and maltose molecules.

Question 9.
Suppose your taste buds were affected what would happen to your interest in haying food?
Answer:
If my taste buds were affected I cannot identify the taste of food and also loose interest in having food.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 151

Question 10.
Does the level of saliva secretion change due to presence of food in the mouth?
Answer:
Yes, the level of saliva increases due to the presence of food in the mouth.

Question 11.
Can the process of chewing go on in the absence of saliva?
Answer:
Yes, the process of chewing go on in the absence of saliva. But it is very difficult to chew food and swallow it.

Question 12.
Does the saliva have any other roles to play?
Answer:
The enzyme present in saliva that is salivary amylase converts large molecules of carbohydrates into small molecules of sugar like maltose and dextrose.

Question 13.
What is the use of such an increase in surface area of food?
Answer:
It helps in more surface area for the enzyme to act.

Question 14.
What about the nature of medium for salivary amylase to act on food component?
Answer:
The nature of medium for salivary amylase to act on food component is alkaline.

Question 15.
If we swallow food material directly without mastication what will happen?
Answer:
If we swallow food material directly without mastication, the food will not get digest easily and completely.

Question 16.
Do you think the pH of our mouth changes?
Answer:
Yes, the pH of our mouth changes from acidic to alkaline by the release of saliva from salivary glands.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 152

Question 17.
What are the different systems that contribute to the proper functioning of digestion in the mouth?
Answer:
Endocrine, muscular, nervous systems contribute to the proper functioning of digestion in the mouth.

Question 18.
After the digestive process in the mouth where does the food move to?
Answer:
After the digestion in the mouth the food move to oesophagus.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 153

Question 19.
What are the systems that come into play for swallowing food?
Answer:
Skeletal system, nervous system and digestive systems come into play for swallowing food.

Question 20.
What does the schematic diagram tell us about the oesophagus?
Answer:
The schematic diagram of the oesophagus tells about its structure, secretion and function.

Question 21.
What kind of the tube is oesophagus?
Answer:
Oesophagus is a muscular and an elastic tube.

Question 22.
How does mucus help in passage of food?
Answer:
Mucus helps in lubricating and protecting the oesophageal wall and helps the bolus to slide down easily in the oesophagus.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 154

Question 23.
What makes the movement of the food bolus in the oesophagus easy?
Answer:

1. Mucus helps the food bolus to slide down easily.
2. Peristaltic movements of the walls of oesophagus also make the movement food bolus in the oesophagus easy.

Question 24.
Why do you think the stomach is structured like a bag rather than a tube like an oesophagus?
(OR)
Why stomach is structured like a bag rather than like a tube?
Answer:

1. The food taken has to remain in the stomach for a long time for proper digestion with digestive juices and enzymes.
2. Different kinds of muscles churns the food by contraction and relaxation to form chyme.
3. If it was like a tube the food would just pass down without under going much changes and cannot remain in the stomach for long time.

Question 25.
What sets such processes into action?
Answer:

1. When the food is in the oral cavity, the nerves in the cheek and tongue are stimulated.
2. These carry messages in the form of nerve impulses to the brain.
3. They messages are transmitted from the brain, to the wall of the stomach, and stimulate the gastric glands to produce gastric juice.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 155

Question 26.
What stimulates stomach muscle into action?
Answer:
The nervous system stimulates stomach muscle into action.

Question 27.
What causes the stomach to churn and mix the food?
Answer:
The contractions of the stomach muscles squeeze and mix the food with the acids and juices of the stomach.

Question 28.
Why should only a small quantity of food be passed from stomach to duodenum?
Answer:
For the complete digestion of chyme, only a small quantity of it be passed from stomach to duodenum.

Question 29.
What is involved in bringing about peristalsis?
Answer:
Contraction and relaxation of the muscles present in various parts of gut bring about peristalsis.

Question 30.
What is the direction of peristalsis? Which end of the gut does it begin?
Answer:
The direction of peristalsis is forward direction that is from mouth to anus.

Question 31.
What happens if the direction of peristalsis is reversed?
Answer:
If the direction of peristalsis is reversed the food present in the gut moves backwards.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 157

Question 32.
Why do you think small intestine is long and coiled?
Answer:
The small intestine is long and coiled because the food has to stay for more time for complete digestion and absorption.

Question 33.
What process is involved in this process of absorption?
Answer:
Selective absorption of nutrients by the villi of small intestine is involved in absorption.

Question 34.
What is the relation between finger-like structures and paper folds?
Answer:

1. Finger-like structures increase the surface area.
2. The space inside the paper folds is very much high. So area is increased.
3. So increase in surface area is the relation between finger-like structures and paper folds.

Question 35.
What systems do you think are working together?
Answer:
The digestive system and circulatory system are working together.

Question 36.
Do you think those systems work together in the whole length of the digestive canal? Why / Why not?
Answer:
No, these systems are not working together in the whole length of the digestive canal. The digested food material is absorbed only in the small intestine but not elsewhere in the gut.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 158

Question 37.
Often you may have experienced that if you have tension for some reason you start having loose motions. What does this show us?
Answer:
If we are tensed for some reason, the enteric nervous system or second brain loses control over the gut. Hence without our intervention, loose motions occur.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 159

Question 38.
What moves out of the gut?
Answer:
The indigested food material moves out of the gut.

Question 39.
Two major pathways of waste expulsion are shown above. Which of the two do you think happens exclusively through the gut?
Answer:
Indigested food matter is expelled in the form of stool from the gut.

Question 40.
What controls the exit of stools from the body?
Answer:
The two muscular layers present In the anal sphincter control the exit of stools from the body.

Question 41.
Do you think the control is voluntary? Why / Why not?
Answer:
Yes, the control is voluntary in adults and it is involuntary in infants.

Question 42.
Did we have a sphincter in any other part of the digestive canal? Where was it?
Answer:
Yes. We have a sphincter at the opening where stomach opens into duodenum (small intestine).

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 160

Question 43.
What is the fate of the digested substances that move into blood from the intestine?
Answer:
The digested substances reach each cell of the body through circulatory system. There it gets oxidised and release energy.

Question 44.
Where is the energy stored?
Answer:
The energy is stored in the cells as ATP.

Question 45.
Which system do you think will remove the excess salts from our body?
Answer:
The excretory system remove the excess salts from our body.

Question 46.
What would be the path of salt removed from gut to the outside of our body?
Answer:

1. The digested food containing salts will be absorbed into the blood stream in small intestine.
2. The circulatory system supplies this to kidney through renal artery.
3. In the kidney salts are filtered and sent out of the body along with urine.
4. Some of the salts also supplied to the skin. They will be sent out of the body in the form of sweat.

10th Class Biology 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes Activities

Activity – 1
Observe the following table, identify and tick those options that you think makes you feel hungry.
Table

i) What stimulates hunger?
Answer:
Smell of food, sight of food and need of food stimulates hunger.

ii) What would be the result of stimulation of hunger?
Answer:
Hunger pangs occur in the stomach.

iii) Which system do you think would send the signals to make us realize that we are hungry?
Answer:
Nervous system.

iv) What kinds of controls are exercised during sensation of hunger? Are they hormonal or nervous or both?
Answer:
They are both hormonal and nervous.

v) Can you suggest any four systems involved in the process of generating hunger sensation?
Answer:
Digestive system, Endocrine system, Circulatory system and Nervous system.

Activity – 2
Observation of how our taste is affected by the sense of smell. (OK) How our taste is affected by the sense of smell?

1. First, close your nose with your fingers.
2. Pop in some zeera in your mouth and chew it for some time.
3. After that chew some sounf.
4. Could you recognise the taste?
5. How long it taken to know the taste?
6. After sometime wash your mouth and repeat the activity by chewing a piece of an apple followed by a potato (remember to close your nose)

Could you know the taste of both or did it taste the same? Why?
Answer:
No, because taste buds couldn’t send the taste signals to brain.

Observation :

1. We can taste the food that is in the form of liquid only.
2. Only after the dissolved food enters into the cup like taste buds, the sense of taste is carried to the brain for analysis. Then only we will know the taste of food material.
3. Similarly olfactory receptors which trigger signals in the form of nerve impulses to the brain where smell is detected.

i) What happens when we put a food material in our mouth?
Answer:
Our mouth salivates.

ii) Name the parts in the mouth that help us to taste food.
Answer:
Papillae (taste buds), palate.

Activity – 3

1. Take a pinch of asafoetida powder/garlic and rub it on hand kerchief/tissue paper.
2. Close your eyes and smell it.
3. Then try to identify taste of different types of food materials with the help of your friend.

i) Does garlic have a stronger scent than apple? How do you think the stronger scent affect your sensation of taste?
Answer:
Yes, garlic have a stronger scent than apple. The stronger scent motivate us to eat different types of foods.

ii) How many food materials you have identified correctly?
Answer:
Seven.

iii) Write a few lines on the relation between smell and taste.
Answer:

1. Taste and smell are intimately entwined. This close relationship is most apparent in how we perceive the flavour of food.
2. Taste itself is focussed on distinguishing chemicals that have sweet, salty, sour, bitter or umami taste.
3. However interactions between the senses of taste and smell enhance our perceptions of the foods, we eat.

iv) Have you ever felt that a particular food is tasty just by looking at it?
Answer:
I felt so many times. In general, we prefer the food material, which is attractive to our eyes and flavour to nose, then we taste it.

Activity – 4
What is the role of different parts of the mouth in helping us to taste keeping sugar crystals over the tongue?

1. Place some sugar crystals on the tongue and keep mouth opened and see that your tongue dosen’t touch the palate.
2. Record the time from the moment you placed the crystals on your tongue till you got the taste by using stop watch.
3. Now repeat the test by placing the sugar crystals on the tongue and pressing it against the palate.
4. Record the time from placing sugar crystals to getting the taste. Or put a drop of sugar solution on your tongue using a dropper.

Observation :
Based on the above activity we know that taste can be identified easily when the tongue is pressed against the palate.
i) Can we taste on dry tongue?
Answer:
No. We can’t taste on dry tongue.

ii) Which way helped you taste faster? Why?
Answer:
Taste can be identified faster when the tongue is pressed against the palate.
When the tongue is pressed against the palate the food substance is pressed against the opening of the taste bud letting it reach taste celjs triggering taste signals. Finally the taste is recognised in the brain.

Activity – 5
How do you show that the breakdown of food by using the model of chalk piece kept in vinegar?

1. Break a piece of chalk into two halves.
2. Crush one half to tiny pieces leaving the other as it is.
3. Take two small mineral wafer bottles QA ltr bottle) cut them into two equal halves and discard the upper portion.
4. Now we have two beakers from the lower cut portion.
5. Fill them half with vinegar and add the crushed chalk to one beaker and the other uncrushed half chalk to the other.
6. Observe them after half-an-hour or so.

i) Which one dissolved faster the crushed chalk or the whole one?
Answer:
Beaker with crushed chalk dissolved faster than the whole one.
This experiment tells us the need of mechanical crushing of food the mouth to increase surface area for action of substances that aid in digestion.

ii) How does this process of mechanical crushing go on in the mouth?
Answer:
Mechanical crushing of food goes in the mouth by chewing.

iii) Which parts in the mouth are involved in this?
Answer:
Teeth and tongue.

iv) What are the systems involved in this process?
Answer:
Digestive system, Nervous system, Muscular system.

Activity – 6
Observe the diagram and answer the questions and fill the table.
i) Observe the model or chart of jaw, on the basis of the figure try to guess what are the functions molars could be?
Answer:
Chewing and grinding.

ii) What do you think could be the function of inscisors?
Answer:
The function of inscisors is biting the food.

iii) Which set of teeth helps in grinding food?
Answer:
Premolars and molars.

iv) Which set helps in tearing food?
Answer:
Canines help in tearing food.

v) What is your dental formula?
Answer:
is the dental formula.

Table

Activity – 7
Testing pH of mouth at intervals of one hour.

1. Collect a strip of pH paper with a colour chart from a chemistry teacher.
2. Take a small piece of the pH paper and touch it to your tongue.
3. Match the colour with the colour chart and note the pH.
4. Take some readings after having your food at lunch break.
5. Compare your readings with that of your friend.
6. Take at least 4 readings.

Table

i) What is the usual range of pH of your mouth Acidic (or) Basic
Answer:
The usual range of pH of our mouth is more or less 6.5. At low level the saliva is acidic and at high level it is basic.

ii) Did you observe any change in pH after eating? What may have caused the change?
Answer:
Yes, 1 observed the change in pH. Bicarbonates in saliva changed that into basic.

iii) In what kind of pH do you think salivary amylase acts well?
Answer:
In the pH range 7.2 to 7.4 it acts well in alkaline medium.

iv) Does this type of food have any role to play on the pH of our mouth?
Answer:
If the food that enters is acidic it will be converted into basic stuff and then it is swallowed.
Based on the above tests we know that salival secreted causes the medium to change to alkaline as it aids in action salivary amylase.

Activity – 8
Making a model of oesophagus to observe how bolus moves forward.

1. Take a piece of waste cycle tube and insert one or two potatoes into it.
2. Lubricate the inner side of the tube with oil.
3. In the same way smear oil over potatoes.
4. Insert oil coated potatoes in the tube.
5. Now try to push the potatoes by squeezing the tube.

i) How do you squeeze the tube to make the potatoes pass through?
Answer:
By pushing the potato from behind.

ii) Do you think that the muscles in the wall of the oesophagus have to do something like this?
Answer:
Yes.

iii) How did oil help you in pushing the potatoes through the pipe?
Answer:
Oil acted as a lubricant to push the potato easily in the forward direction.

Activity – 9
How is the stomach protected from the secretions of its own acids?

1. Take two similar green leaves.
2. Grease one leaf with petroleum jelly, leave the other free.
3. Add 1 or 2 drops of some weak acids on both the leaves.
4. Observe them after half-an-hour or so and write your observations.

i) Which leaf was effected by the acid?
Answer:
The leaf to which petroleum jelly was not applied.

ii) What kind of change did you observe in the leaves?
Answer:
The colour of the leaf changes.

iii) What saved the other leaf from the effect of acid?
Answer:
Petroleum jelly.
From the above activity we can conclude that mucus secreted by the walls of stomach protects stomach from the harmful effects of hydrochloric acid.

Activity – 10
Paper tube and folded papers.

1. Provide students with a piece of paper.
2. Let them calculate the area of one side of the paper and make a roll of it.
3. Try to fill the tube by inserting few folded papers as much as possible in it.
4. Pull out the papers from the tube, unfold them and find out the whole area of the papers.

i) Compare the area of the folded papers with that of the roll. Do you find any increase in the area ? If so try to find out the reasons?
Answer:
Area is increased. The space inside the folded papers is very much high. So we can insert as many folded papers as we could.
From the above activity we can infer that the inner surface of the small intestine contains thousands of finger-like projections called villi which increase the surface area of absorption of nutrients in small intestine.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 20 Post – War World and India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand UNICEF.
Answer:
United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund.

Question 2.
Who formulated the ‘NATO’, the military alliance?
Answer:
United States of America / America.

Question 3.
Why do you think the cooperation between India and Bangladesh is vital for both countries?
Answer:

1. Both the countries have cooperated on the economic front and river water.
2. Bangladesh Is an integral part of the In¬dian look East Policy’ to link up South Asia via Myanmar and both have cooperation on disaster management.

Question 4.
What is the boundary line between China and India?
Answer:
Mc Mahon Line is the boundary line between China and India.

Question 5.
Explain the terms bipolarity and unipolarity.
Answer:

1. Under the leadership of USA and USSR, the world divided into two power blocks after World War – II with different ideologies. This situation is called as bipolarity.
2. After the collapse of the USSR, only the USA remained as a super power in the world. This situation is called as unipolarity.

Question 6.
What is the non-alignment movement?
Answer:
The policy followed by newly independent countries after Second World War, without involving in any of the military blocks, following neutrality in international politics.

Question 7.
What is Cold War?
Answer:
The absence of real fighting as in traditional wars is called the cold war. The cold war characterized by the intense tension between the USA and the USSR during 1945 to 1991.

Question 8.
Write any two objectives of U.N.O.
Answer:

1. Maintains peace and security.
2. Improvement of educational and health facilities.
3. Protecting human rights.
4. Respecting international law

Question 9.
What is Panchsheel?
Answer:
In 1954 a treaty was held between India and China which incorporated the principles of non-interference in other’s internal affairs and respect for each other’s territorial unity, integrity and sovereignty. These principles are known as Panchsheel.

Question 10.
How was the USSR escaped from the Great Depression?
Answer:
The USSR escaped from the Great Depression:

1. USSR was not integrated with international markets.
2. It had a planed economy.
3. Maintained a balance between demand and supply.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions ‘a’ and ‘b’.
a) During 1955-2005, which country had the highest number of warheads?
Answer:
USSR / Russia.

b) What is the reason for decreasing in nuclear stockpiles after 1985?
Answer:

1. Tremendous public pressure.
2. Ban on nuclear tests.

Question 12.
What is the aim of “Zionist movement”?
Answer:
The aim of the Zionist Movement is to unite the Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine their homeland and build a separate state for the Jews.

Question 13.
Write any two principles of Panchasheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of dis-putes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavor to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful coexistence.

Observe the following map and answer questions 14 & 15.

Question 14.
What does the above map tell?
Answer:
The given map tells about cold war military alliances.

Question 15.
Why is united kingdom called an Island?
Answer:
United kingdom is called as an Island because it is covered by water on all the sides.

Question 16.
What are the basic principles of the UNO?
Answer:
The basic principles of the United Nations Organisation are preserving peace, upholding human rights, respecting international law and promoting social progress.

Question 17.
What were the three of the most important processes?
Answer:
Even as the war-devastated countries rebuilt their economics, the world saw some new processes in place. Three of the most important processes were the establishment of the United Nations, Cold War and Decolonisation.

Question 18.
Who drafted a charter for the formation of the UNO?
Answer:
The principle Allied countries like Britain, France, the USA, the USSR and China drafted a Charter for the formation of the UNO even as the war drew to an end.

Question 19.
Write the number of members of the UNO.
Answer:
At the time of its establishment UN had membership of 54 countries and today (2018 ) there are 193 countries.

Question 20.
Which is the main body in the UNO?
Answer:
The General Assembly.

Question 21.
Who are the permanent members of the Security Council?
Answer:
China, France, United Kingdom; USSR (now Russia) and USA.

Question 22.
Explain the ‘Veto Power’.
Answer:
Any decision taken by Council can be vetoed (made invalid or rejected) by the intervention of even anyone of these countries.
(OR)
The power is given to the permanent members to accept or reject any proposal in the UNO.

Question 23.
Name some third world countries.
Answer:
Countries emerging from colonial domination like Vietnam, Korea, Angola, and Afghanistan.

Question 24.
Who got independence in 1960 and what happened then?
Answer:
The Belgian colony in Africa, Congo, got independence in 1960. But its radical communist leader, Patrice Lumumba, was killed in 1961, allegedly at the behest of US spy agency called CIA.

Question 25.
When did Angola become independent?
Answer:
Angola became independent from Portugal in November 1975.

Question 26.
What was the place of the USSR in space race ?
Answer:
The USSR put the first satellite Sputnik and the first human Yuri Gagarin in space.

Question 27.
Whom did the US send to the moon?
Answer:
The US sent Neil Armstrong and others to the Moon in 1969.

Question 28.
What were the core concerns of the people of recently de-colonised?
Answer:
The core concerns of people, especially those who were recently de-colonized like poverty, disease, inequality and colonialism were not addressed by any of these issues of contention.

Question 29.
What does West Asia refer to?
Answer:
West Asia refers to the region between Europe and Asia. The term Middle East is also used to describe this area.

Question 30.
What was called the ‘Zionist Movement’?
Answer:
A movement had developed among the Jews called the ‘Zionist Movement’ which called for uniting Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine as their homeland and build a separate state of Jews.

Question 31.
Who are Palestinians?
Answer:
Palestinians were mostly Arab Muslims.

Question 32.
When and where was the PLO established?
Answer:
The PLO was established in 1964 in Jordon and added a new dimension by bringing together all different Arab factions. Its aim was to regain the land it lost, without violence.

Question 33.
Why did the US become unpopular?
Answer:
The US became unpopular because it supported undemocratic regimes in the Middle East so that the oil resources were available to the US and its allies.

Question 34.
What is the main bone of contention between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
The main bone of contention between the two countries is Kashmir.

Question 35.
Expand POK.
Answer:
Pakistan Occupied Kashmir.

Question 36.
Who was ‘U Thant’?
Answer:
U Thant was the then Secretary-General of UNO.

Question 37.
What was ‘Mukti Bahini ?
Answer:
Supporters of Mujibur Rahman organized a liberation struggle in the form of ‘Mukti Bahini’.

Question 38.
Who signed Shimla Agreement?
Answer:
Zulfikar Ali Bhutto and Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Question 39.
Who fought the Kargil War?
Answer:
India and Pakistan fought the Kargil war.

Question 40.
When was Bangladesh liberated?
Answer:
Bangladesh was liberated from Pakistan with the help of Indian troops in 1972.

Question 41.
What is IPKF?
Answer:
It is the Indian Peace Keeping Force in Sri Lanka.

Question 42.
What is a proxy war?
Answer:
A war instigated by a major power that does not itself participate.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following map and answer the questions:
a) Name any two countries of ’NATO’ at the founding (establishment) time.
Answer:
France and Iceland.

b) Name any two countries which were under the ‘WARSAW’.
Answer:
Poland and Czekoslovakia.

Question 2.
Read the passage and answer the following questions.

To emphasise the determination for peace, Jawaharlal Nehru formulated his renowned Panchsheel principles :
a. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
b. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
c. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
d. Endeavour to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
e. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

i) In between which countries, the Panchsheel was formulated?
Answer:
India and China.

ii) Mention any two principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavour to achieve co-operation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Both USA and USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons but knew very well neither would be the winner in a nuclear war. Yet, they formed military and strategic alliances – the west formalised its alliances in an organisation known as North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) in 1949. To counter this, Communist nations made similar alliances and signed the Warsaw Pact. In addition to this, U.S. established regional military and strategic alliances like South East Asian Treaty Organisation (SEATO) and Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO).

a) What is the counter Pact to NATO?
Answer:
Warsaw pact.

b) Name the two regional military and strategic alliances of the USA.
Answer:
South-East Asian Treaty Organization (SEATO) and the Central Treaty Organization (CENTO).

Question 4.
Read the understand the following text to answer the question given below.

The UN thus started with a twin objective of ensuring lasting peace and human development. At the same time it recognised the autonomy of states and promised not to interfere in any internal affair of a country except in cases mandated by serious human rights violation or threat to world peace.

Comment on the objectives of the UN.
Answer:

1. United Nations Organisation has the objectives of ensuring lasting peace and human development.
2. The UN protects the human rights.
3. It recognized the autonomy of states and promised.
4. Except in extreme conditions UN does not interfere in the internal affairs of any country.

Question 5.
Observe the following Map and answer the questions given below.
A) Write any two countries which are sharing boundary with India on the North-eastern side.
Answer:
Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh.

B) Mention two countries which are sharing sea-boundary with India.
Answer:
Srilanka, Maldives.

Question 6.
Give an account of the present status of relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:

1. The differences regarding the Kashmir issue have been still continuing.
2. Along with the constant efforts to establish peace, India is trying to maintain good relations in the fields of trade and commerce, sports and tourism with Pakistan.

Question 7.
Analyse the below graph and write your observations.

Answer:

1. After World War II the world has been divided into two main political camps.
2. USSR led socialistic camp.
3. USA led the capitalist block.
4. Both USSR and USA competed for nuclear stockpiles.
5. By 1965 US had more nuclear stockpiles.
6. USSR competed with USA and increased its stockpiles. By 1985 it has the highest nuclear stockpiles.
7. By 2005 both countries reduced their stocks of nuclear weapons.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the Cold War?
Answer:
Cold War: Ideological differences between America and Russia is called Cold War.

1. It is an indirect war. There is no real war.
2. It created mutual hatred, misbelief and enmity between Communist Russia and Capitalist USA.
3. Both the USA and the USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons.
4. They maintained secret alliances and treaties. Ex: NATO, WARSAW.
5. Always they created a tension of war.
6. As the rival powers accumulated destructive weapons the world was constantly threatened by a nuclear holocaust.
7. People of all countries lived in constant fear of war.

Question 9.
What suggestions do you give to maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. No country at the present time can afford to exist in isolation.
2. From its very inception, they have to maintain a friendly relation with their neighbouring countries.
3. Maintain mutual confidence and trust based on the heart to heart.
4. Rejects the role of military power and committed to peace.
5. Should have greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
6. Should maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
7. We should share peace and prosperity with the neighbouring countries.

Question 10.
Write briefly about the present relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan was separated from India and formed in 1947 as an Independent country. It is still supporting separation movements in Jammu and Kashmir in India. Pakistan is sending extremists to India to create some instability. India accuses that Pakistan is encouraging to send fake notes to India. It is violating the cease-fire conditions and causing for civilians and soldiers’ deaths. Modi visited Pakistan and discussed with the Prime Minister but the problem is not solved. India answered with surgical strikes. It was a great loss for Pakistan. I think both countries should sit together and solve the problems to concentrate on development.

Question 11.
Suggest measures for better relations between China and India.
Answer:
Since 1962 India, China relations are not good and fair.

• Each should respect another country.
• Panchsheel principles should be followed.
• Settle disputes mutually with bilateral discussions.
• Both countries should understand that they lose much more if there would be a war.

Question 12.
Read the map and answer the following questions.
a) Name the countries that did not enter into any of the military alliances.
Answer:
Sweden, Finland, Switzerland and Ireland were the countries that did notenter into any of the military alliances.

b) State your analysis on the above map.
Answer:

1. Most of the East European countries signed on Warsaw pact.
2. Most of the West European countries signed on NATO pact.

Question 13.
How was the USA after World War – II?
Answer:
The USA suffered less as the war was not fought on its territories. In fact, the Second World War helped the USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the Great Depression. Far from the theatres of war, the industries and agriculture of the USA prospered. This ensured full employment and high productivity in the US during the Second World War. In March 1945, the US President, Harry Truman, said, ‘We have emerged from this War the most powerful nation in the world – the most powerful nation, perhaps, in all history.

Question 14.
How many organs are there in U.N.O? What are they?
Answer:
There are six organs in U.N.O.

1. The General Assembly
2. The Security Council
3. The Trusteeship Council
4. The Economic and Social Council
5. The International Court of Justice
6. The Secretariat

Question 15.
Explain the organs of the U.N.O.
Answer:
The UN works through six different organs. Each of these organs has specific functions like maintaining peace and security, improving education and health facilities, alleviating poverty, providing justice in the context of international crimes and so on. Some bodies responsible for these functions include International Court of Justice located in Hague; the World Health Organisation located at Geneva, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation functioning from Paris, and United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund functioning from New York.

Question 16.
What are the specialised agencies of U.N.O.?
Answer:
The specialised agencies of U.N.O. are

1. UNICEF,
2. UNESCO,
3. FAO,
4. ILO,
5. IBRD,
6. IMF,
7. WHO,
8. UPU

What are the achievements of UNO?
Answer:

1. UNO has under taken complex operations like peace making, peace keeping, humanitarian assistance and disarmament etc.
2. UNO intervened the issues of struggles of many countries and prevented them to more towards war – Ex: Cyprus issue.
3. It encouraged bilateral discussions among countries to solve issues. Ex: Kashmir issue.
4. Disarmament, CTBT etc. are the achievements of UNO that helped to reduce the piling up of armaments.
   Ex:
   1. UN helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis (1962), Middle East crisis (1973).
   2. UN-sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war in 1988.
   3. UN-sponsored negotiations led to withdrawal of soviet troops from Afghanistan.

Question 17.
Which were the worst affected countries in World War – II?
Answer:
The worst affected were the European countries especially the USSR, Poland and Yugoslavia which lost about 20% of its population. In economic terms to the USSR and other European countries lost heavily with the destruction of cities.

Question 18.
Why had the World War – II been fought? (OR)
What led to the formation of UNO?
Answer:
The Second World War had been fought on the principles of peace, democracy and freedom of nations in contrast to the Nazi ideas of dictatorship and Imperialism. Thus, the first task was to establish a global organisation that would ensure peace and development in all nations. This led to the formation of the United Nations Organisation.

Question 19.
Is the UNO successful in preventions wars?
Answer:
While the UN has been doing commendable work in the area of education, health, cultural exchange and protection of heritage, it has been less successful in preventing wars. It has often been held hostage to the ambitions of the super-powers that sought world control.

Question 20.
Which is called a Cold war?
Answer:
For more than forty-five years after the Second World War, a rather strange war was fought between the two blocks. It was a war in which the principal contenders did not physically attack each other or fight each other directly and hence, there was no ‘hot’ war. Instead, a War was fought behind closed doors through propaganda and words. It is called the Cold War.

Question 21.
Why is it called the Cold war?
Answer:
It is called the Cold War simply because of the absence of a real fighting as in traditional wars.
This Cold War characterised by intense tension between the United States and the USSR, influenced and shaped almost everything that happened in the world between 1945 and 1991.

Question 22.
What was the result of Afghanisthan invasion by the USSR?
Answer:
In 1971 the USSR invaded Afghanistan to install a friendly government there. The US in turn provided armed support to Afghan rebels who were also religious extremists. A prolonged civil war ensued and as the USSR decided to withdraw from Afghanistan in 1985 that country fell to religious extremists led by the Taliban which now turned against the USA.

Question 23.
How did the Alliances help the superpowers?
Answer:
The alliances helped superpowers which wanted to expand their influence to gain access to

• the vital resources like oil and minerals
• markets for their products and places to safely invest their capital
• military bases to launch their troops and weapons
• spread their ideology and
• gain economic support, to pay huge military expenses.

Question 24.
Explain the significance of the Bandung conference.
Answer:

1. In 1955 at Bandung in Indonesia a conference was held.
2. It was the first Asio-African conference represented by 29 nations.
3. The most important leaders of this conference were Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru the then Prime Minister of India, Gamal Abdul Nasser the leader of Egypt and Josip Broz Tito the leader of – Yugoslavia.
4. Pt. Nehru was acknowledged as the chief spokes person.
5. It paved the way for Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).

Question 25.
What are often described as the West Asian Crises? Write about them.
Answer:
The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are often described as the West Asian Crises. It was mainly related to the occupation of Palestine. Palestine which was inhabited by Arabs was under the control of Britain before the Second World War. In it is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.

Question 26.
Write about the Taliban of Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Taliban which took over Afghanistan after the withdrawal of Soviet troops similarly established an extremist Islamic state. These states tried to force all people to strictly follow the rules laid down in religious texts. In many cases, this meant the denial of basic freedom and equality of opportunity to women and to religious minorities.

Question 27.
Write about Mikhail Gorbachev.
Answer:
Mikhail Gorbachev in the USSR tried to transform the politics of USSR by making it more open and bringing about radical changes. He was a liberal who introduced certain reforms for the revival of their economy and promoted healthy relations with the West. The reforms introduced by the open regime are often described as ‘Glasnost’and ‘Perestroika’.

Question 28.
Study the graph and answer the following questions.
1. Which country had spent more on Military Expenditure in its GDP?
Answer:
Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.

2. What does the graph show?
Answer:
The graph shows India’s and Pakistan’s Military Expenditures.

3. Analyze the above graph.
Answer:

1. The above graph shows the military expenses of India and Pakistan.
2. In comparison, our country spent much on military than Pakistan.
3. But in GDP values Pakistan spent much on the military in terms of GDP.

Question 29.
Why is China considering India as an adversary?
Answer:
India gave asylum to Dalai Lama, this caused a conflict, and Chinese started considering India as an adversary. Prior to this, a border dispute had surfaced between India and China. China never accepted Mac Mohan Line as a boundary line between China and India. China laid claim to Aksai- chin area in Ladakh region and much of Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 30.
Write about the Indo-China war of 1962.
Answer:
China invaded India in October 1962 violating the peace treaties it signed with India. India was not prepared for this surprise attack and suffered many losses. Eventually, China declared a unilateral ceasefire and withdrew its troops to its pre-war position. It took more than a decade to resume normal relations. Full diplomatic relations were restored only in 1976.

Question 31.
How has the Non-Alignment Movement emerged?
Answer:

1. A large number of developing countries that had attained independence after the World War II, during the cold war era, in order to maintain their hard-won freedom, decided to stay away from the arena of superpower rivalry.
2. Non-Alignment movement emerged under the leadership of India, Egypt and Yugoslavia came into existence which added a new dimension to world politics.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the Europe map and write any two countries from the WARSA pool and any two countries from the NATO pool.
Answer:

Question 2.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.
1. Which country has more nuclear stock piles during 1955-1975?
Answer:
United States of America.

2. What is the number of warheads that United States had in 1965?
Answer:
Nearly 30,000.

3. What led the countries to emerge camps after Second World War?
Answer:

1. Ideological conflicts between US and USSR.
2. For military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy lead the countries to emerge camps after the Second World War.

4. Why the countries decreased their nuclear stockpiles after 1990?
Answer:

1. Realised that war mongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear arsenal (SALT, START).
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 3.
What steps both India and China should take to build lasting peace between the two countries?
Answer:

1. Both countries should respect the sovereignty of each other.
2. Border disputes should be resolved peacefully.
3. Diplomatic relations should be enhanced.
4. One country should not treat the other one as its competitor.
5. The spirit of the ‘Panchasheel Pact’ should be followed by both the countries.
6. Friendship should be enhanced through cultural exchange.

Question 4.
Why is peace between India and Pakistan necessary for the development of both countries?
Answer:

1. Both India and Pakistan have nuclear status and in this scenario the need of peace process between them is much more important than ever before.
2. Any kind of conventional armed conflict can change into a nuclear war.
3. So the peace process should be based on the development of both the countries.
4. For social, political and economical development of both the countries, peace should be established between them.

Question 5.
What is the NAM? What are its main objectives?
Answer:
NAM:

1. Not joining in any powerful block either the USA block or the USSR block.
2. Maintaining equal distance and behave independently.

Objectives:

1. Maintain the world peace.
2. Maintain cooperation among the member nations.
3. To prevent any of the newly decolonised independent countries from joining any of the military blocks.
4. Estimate the growing cold war tensions and its impact on the world at large.

Question 6.
What is the role of the UNO in maintaining world peace?
Answer:
In order to build peace in the world the U.N.O. plays its prominent role as below.
The U.N.O. was established on 24th October, 1945.

1. It prevented the Cold War.
2. It succeeded in getting independence to Indonesia from the Dutch.
3. It solved the dispute in Palestine between Arabs and Jews by creating a separate state of Israel for Jews.
4. It succeeded in averting a war between England and Egypt over Suez Canal issue.
5. It created pressure on Russia and the U.S.A. to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
6. It helped Congo to get freedom.
7. U.N. helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis, middle east crisis.
8. UN sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war.
9. UN sponsored negotiations led to the withdrawal of Soviet troops from Afghanistan.
10. It helped Cyprus to avert conflict between Greeks and Turks.
11. When Pakistan resorted to aggression over Kashmir it intervened and tried to avert the war between India and Pakistan.
12. It helped to Angola to get independence from Portugal.
13. So far it has been able to prevent a Third World War.

Question 7.
Write a detailed note on West Asian conflicts.
Answer:
Jerusalem is a holy city for Jews, Christians, Muslims alike. The Jews consider Palestine as their Promised Land. The conflict came to ahead in Germany under the Nazis when millions of Jews of Europe were jailed and killed. Zionist movement spread across the world and tried to reclaim Palestine as their homeland. This demand was supported by the Western powers. Both the USA and the USSR wanted to bring this region of massive oil reserves under their control. UN divided into two parts Arab and the Jewish states. The Arabs refused to recognize Israel as a legitimate state. Egypt came in support of Palestine but in 1956 Israel attacked Egypt with the support of Western Powers. Israel withdrew the army. The Palestine Liberation Organization encouraged the Arabs to attack. Israel. Yasser Arafat carried out terrorist attacks. Later he gave up terrorist attacks and agreed to find a peaceful solution. He died in 2004 and the Palestinians are still fighting for their homeland.

Question 8.
Observe the following table and analyze it with regard to the trend of nuclear weapons stockpiles.
Nuclear Weapons Stockpiles (1990 – 2014)

Answer:
The given table is about nuclear weapons stockpiles during the period 1990-2014. In this table the superpowers United States of America and Union of Soviet Socialist Republic are compared. In the beginning, the frequency of period is five years but in the ending 2014 is given immediately after 2005. During 1990 the nuclear weapons stockpiles with both the countries are high. United States of America has 10,904 whereas Union of Soviet Socialist Republic has 37,000. This is about four times more than the weapons of USA. The wonder is that 1995 onwards the number of stockpiles is reducing. It has many reasons. It is the experience of 1945 nuclear bomb blast of Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan. Millions of civilians also died in that blast. Second World War brought various experiences to the world. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaties are also the reasons. UNO also brought awareness among the nations. Human Rights Commissions also tried well. During 2014 the USSR brought the weapons down to 7500 only. This is really drastic reduce. In 1990 the USSR has four times more weapons to the USA whereas during 2014 it is only about 300 more weapons. All the countries should think that if nuclear weapons are used in the wars, there will be much destruction to the mankind. Superpowers and developing countries also concentrate on reducing the nuclear weapons. Recently North Korea tested these weapons and created much tension among the counties. So everyone should respect peace.

Question 9.
Is Veto power to a few countries in the UNO, helping or barrier for World Peace? Discuss.
Answer:
Some times Veto power is working as a barrier and also helpful to world peace.
How it is a barrier:

1. Often the great powers themselves involved in many of the conflicts used their Veto power to block any action by the U.N.O.
2. Sometimes they have also used their power to force the UN to bend to their dictates.

How it is helping :
The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
U.N.O created pressure on Russia and the USA to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
U.N.O helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis.

However, the very existence of a forum like UN, has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.

Question 10.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Answer:

1. The graph explains about India and Pakistan military expenditures.
2. Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.
3. The military expenditure of India was also high.
4. India had spent less on military expenditure as % GDP.

Both countries gave importance to gather more & more weapons because always Pakistan is provoking India on the issue of Jammu & Kashmir.
In 2016 Uri incident also happened. India faces a problem with China also.
(OR)
Since 1988 Pakistan military expenditure has not been high. Since 2000 onwards it has been increasing. Though the amount is increased its expenditure in GDP percentage is decreasing. It seems to be less but in total it is more and dangerous to its neighbouring countries like India. At the same time India is also increasing its expenditure on military to protect its people from neighbouring countries.

Question 11.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
US and USSR Nuclear Stockpiles (Number of warheads)

Answer:
Table Analysis:

1. From the given table we understand that from the year 1965 to 2005 the U.S stock-piles gradually decreased.
2. In the U.S.S.R the stockpiles increased from 1965 to 1985, and then decreased till 2005.

Reason for increasing the stockpiles: At the beginning the stockpiles number is increased due to military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy that leads the countries to emerge camps after Second World War.

Reasons for decreasing their stockpiles:

1. Both the countries realised that warmongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and the USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear orsenal.
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of the USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 12.
Under the present circumstances, give suggestions to build cordial relations between India and its neighbouring countries.
(OR)
Why should India have cordial relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. India was a founder of the NAM which sought to keep an independent position between the two superpowers.
2. India tried to base its foreign policy on the Gandhian principles of peace and non-violence.
3. India is emerging as a major world economic and political power. So, it should get support from the neighbours and in turn help them.
4. It should take measures to maintain peace and tranquillity at the borders, which is possible only with cordial relations with neighbours.
5. It has shared culture and civilisation with neighbouring countries, thus built bridges of friendship through trade, sports, films, tourism and cultural exchanges.
6. It shall have a greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
7. It shall have friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
8. It shall have cooperation with neighbours on disaster management.

Question 13.
Describe the present circumstances that one threatening world peace.
Answer:
Present circumstances that are threatening world peace:

• Terrorism
• Wars
• Armament race
• Invasions
• Communalism
• Exploitation of resources
• Interference of developed countries in the affairs of developing countries
• Aggressive nationalism

Question 14.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

During the last few decades, Tribal and Marginal farmers have also been threatened by Commercial farmers, mining corporations, dam projects, etc. As the large companies find rare resources in remote rural areas, like minerals, rare plants or animals and water, there has been a rapid increase in the ousting of the farming and tribal population from their traditional areas.

Answer:
According to the given paragraph the marginalised communities are being neglected and mostly they are exploited. Big companies invest money for their benefits and so the tribal people are far away from agriculture forcefully.

Mining corporations take permission from the mineral development Department or the government and they start mining. Sometimes government plan to construct dams so as to get the water irrigated to feed lakhs of hectares of cultivable land and in some cases uncultivable land also will be converted to cultivable. The people in foot hills of the hills mountains or forests will be asked to migrate to other places. Sometimes it is a must. Then they oppose the construction of dams and other developmental activities.

Government has to give sufficient compensation to the land losers. Moreover it is better to provide land in place of land, but it should be of same quality cultivable. When farmers, tribals are asked to vacate where do they go. Without proper planning it impossible to move. In some localities like Yellampally and Mid Manair areas the land losers got sufficient compensation and so they settled in new colonies. In Kudamkulam in Tamilnadu, Narmada dam construction the land losers are not satisfied.

Question 15.
Read the text and answer the following question.

Two major ideological and political camps emerged in the post war period -the Communist block led by the USSR and the Democratic-Capitalist Block led by the USA. On the one hand, the USSR promoted the ideas of equality and state-controlled development and suppression of opposition to these principles. On the other hand, the USA promoted the ideas of multiparty democracy and private capitalist controlled process of development.

Distinguish between the communist block and capitalist block.
Answer:

Question 16.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

Lai Bahadur Shastri in a rally in Delhi after the end of the war, decried the attempt of Pakistan to use religious symbolism in the war claiming it to be a war of Muslims against Hindus. He proudly stated that India was a secular country.

“The unique thing about our country is that we have Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Parsis and people of all other religions. We have temples and mosques, gurudwaras and churches. But we do not bring this all into politics… This is the difference between India and Pakistan. Whereas Pakistan proclaims herself to be an Islamic State and uses religion as a political factor, we Indians have freedom to follow whatever religion we may choose [and] worship in any way we please. So far as politics is concerned, each of us is as much as Indian as the other.”

Interpret the speech of Lai Bahadur Sastry.
Answer:

1. The above famous speech was delivered by Lai Bahadur Sastry after the Indo-Pak war.
2. He assured the world and the Muslims that it is a secular country.
3. So many religions are there in India.
4. We respect all worshipping places on equal grounds.
5. In India these religions have no role to play in politics as ours is a secular state.
6. People can choose any religion but all of us are Indians.
7. This speech was delivered when Pakistan gave religious symbolism in the war.

Question 17.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) What does the above graph indicate?
Answer:
The above graph indicates the nuclear stock piles of the US and the USSR.

b) Which country has highest armament stock during 1985?
Answer:
USSR (Russia)

c) The nuclear stockpiles of which country did not change between 1995-2005?
Answer:
America (USA)

d) After which year the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America?
Answer:
After 1975, the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America.

e) How much were the stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965?
Answer:
The stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965 were 5000 and 30000 respectively.

f) How much stockpiles did both the countries possess during 1975?
Answer:
Both the countries have the same nuclear stockpiles, i.e. 25000.

g) Which country is storing atomic weapons in large?
Answer:
The USSR is storing atomic weapons in large.

h) What may be the reason for decrease of atomic weapons storage?
Answer:
Protest movements against the atomic weapons may be the reason in a decrease of atomic weapon storage.

i) How much the stock of weapons of Russia is more than America?
Answer:
Russia has about 15000 warheads more than America.

Question 18.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) Which country is spending more money on military?
Answer:
India.

b) Which countries military expenses in terms of GDP are more?
Answer:
Pakistan’s Military expenses in terms of GDP are more.

c) In which year the military expenditure as of GDP was more?
Answer:
Between 2008-09, the military expenditure of GDP equal.

d) What conclusion can you draw from the above graph?
Answer:

1. The military expenditure as a percentage of GDP has been decreasing.
2. The military expenditure of both countries has been increasing.

Question 19.
Read the passage and state your opinion on it.

“Pakistan has over the years encouraged separatist movement in the border states of India like Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir. It is actively training and sending religious extremists to foment trouble in India.

Answer:

1. India and Pakistan became independent by bifurcating from erstwhile British India.
2. The first war between countries took place in 1948.
3. Again in 1965 Pakistan invaded India.
4. Tashkent agreement was signed between two countries in 1966.
5. War broke out in 1971 again over the issue of liberation of Bangladesh.
6. Since then, the Pakistan over years encouraging separatist movement in the border states of India.
7. Both the countries are spending much amounts of scarce funds on arming themselves against each other.
8. Both the countries should go for a solution and reduce tension along the border.

Question 20.
On the outline map of world identify the following locations.

1. Egypt
2. Indonesia
3. Israel
4. Palestine
5. China
6. Spain
7. Belgium
8. Congo
9. Chile
10. Jordan
11. Afghanistan

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Congo
2. Germany
3. Fascism belongs to this country.
   Answer: Italy
4. Head quarters of League of Nations.
   Answer: Geneva
5. Czechoslovakia
6. Romania
7. Mediterranean sea
8. Burma / Myanmar
9. Australia
10. Bulgaria

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Our Environment Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 9th Lesson Our Environment

10th Class Biology 9th Lesson Our Environment Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What happens to the amount of energy transferred from one step to the next in a food chain?
Answer:

1. Energy is transferred along food chains from one trophic level to the next.
2. The amount of available energy decreases from one stage to the next.
3. This is because not all the food can be fully digested and assimilate.
4. Hair, feathers, insect exoskeletons, cartilage and bone in animal foods, cellulose and lignin in plant foods cannot be digested by most animals.
5. These materials are excreted or made into pellets of indigested remains.
6. Assimilated energy is available for the synthesis of new biomass through growth and reproduction.
7. Organisms also lose some biomass by death disease or annual leaf-drop.
8. Moreover at each tropic level, organisms use the most of the assimilated energy to fulfill their metabolic requirements – performance of work, growth and reproduction.
9. Most of the energy is lost in the form of heat during biological processes.
10. Only a small fraction goes to the consumer at next tropic level.

Question 2.
What do pyramids and food chain indicate in an ecosystem?
Answer:

1. The ecologists used the idea of pyramid to show relationship among organisms in an existing food chain.
2. Ecological pyramids are of three types. They are pyramid of biomass, pyramid of number, pyramid of energy.
3. Pyramid of biomass indicates the available biomass in an ecosystem; pyramid of number indicates the organisms present and pyramid of energy indicates the available energy in an ecosystem.
4. The food chain in an ecosystem indicates how energy is transferred from one organism to another.
5. The starting point of a food chain are producers and it ends with top carnivores.
6. A food chain represents a single directional transfer of energy.

Question 3.
Write a short note on pyramid of number for any food chain. What can we conclude from this pyramid of numbers?
i) tree ii) insect iii) woodpecker
(OR)
What is a pyramid of numbers? Write a brief note on the pyramid of numbers with the help of a block diagram.
Answer:
a.

1. The number of organisms in a food chain can be represented graphically in a pyramid of number.
2. Each bar represents the number of individuals at each tropic level in a food chain.
3. In the pyramid of numbers, from the first – order consumers to the large carnivores, there is normally an increase in size, but decrease in number.
4. For example, in a wood, the aphids are very small and occur in astronomical numbers.
5. The ladybirds which feed on them are distinctly larger and not so numerous.
6. The insectivorous birds which feed on the ladybirds are larger still and are only present in a small numbers, and there may only be a single pair of hawks of much larger size than the insectivorous birds on which they prey.

b.

1. In the given pyramid, the producer is a large tree, primary consumers are small
   insects which are numerous in number and secondary consumers are woodpeckers which are comparatively less in number than insects.
2. From this pyramid of number, we can conclude that sometimes the pyramid of numbers does not look like a pyramid at all.
3. This could happen if the producer is a large plant or if one of the organisms at any tropic level is very small.
4. Whatever the situation, the producer still goes at the bottom of the pyramid.

Question 4.
What is biomass? Draw a pyramid of biomass for the given food chain.
i) grass leaves ii) herbivores iii) predators iv) hawk
Answer:

1. Biomass is organic material of biological origin that has ultimately derived from the fixation of carbon dioxide and the trapping of solar energy.
2. This includes trees, shrubs, crops, grasses, algae, aquatic plants* agricultural and forest residues and all forms of human, animal and plant waste.
3. Any type of plant or animal material that can be converted into energy is called “Biomass”.
4. 

Question 5.
How is using of toxic material affecting the ecosystem? Write a short note on bioaccumulation and biomagnifications.
Answer:

1. Use of toxic materials such as pesticides, herbicides and fungicides creates new problems in the ecosystem.
2. As these toxic materials are often indiscriminate in their action and vast numbers of other animals may be destroyed.
3. Some of them may be predators which naturally feed on these pests, others may be the food for other animals.
4. Thus causing unpredictable changes in food chains and upsetting the balance within the ecosystem.
5. Some toxic substances have a cumulative effect.
6. Some of them are degradable, can be broken down into harmless substances in a comparatively short time usually a year.
7. Others are non-degradable which are potentially dangerous as they accumulate in the bodies of animals and pass right through food web.
8. This process of entering of pollutants in a food chain is known as “Bioaccumulation”.
9. The tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one tropic level to the next is known as “Biomagnifications”.

Question 6.
Should we use pesticides as they prevent our crop and food from pests or we should think of alternatives? Write your view about this issue and give sound reason for your answer.
(OR)
Why should we think of alternatives to pesticides? Give reasons.
Answer:

1. We should think of alternatives. This is because these pesticides are toxic chemical whose usage leads to Bioaccumulation and Biomagnifications.
2. When we use pesticides, they prevent our crop and food from pests effectively but indiscriminately destroys a vast number of other animals.
3. This is causing unpredictable changes in food chains and upsetting the balance within the ecosystem.
4. Most of the chemical pesticides that contain mercury, arsenic or lead are non -degradable.
5. They enter into food chain, accumulate in the bodies of animals and pass right through food web.
6. Being further concentrated at each step until animals at the top of the pyramid may receive enough to do considerable harm.
7. This is one of the reasons for ever decreasing number of butterflies, bees, small and large birds.
8. Some of the pesticides are nerve poisons and might bring about changes in behaviour.
9. As the human beings are at the end of the food chain, these pesticides may get accumulated in our bodies also. This shows some adverse effects on us, when their concentration becomes sufficiently high.

Question 7.
What is a tropic level? What does it represent in an ecological pyramid?
Answer:

1. The various steps in a food chain at which the transfer of food takes place is called tropic level.
2. Tropic level means the feeding level of the organism.
3. In an ecological pyramid, the first tropic level represents the primary producers, and their number, biomass or energy.
4. Second tropic level represents the herbivores or primary consumers and their number, biomass or energy.
5. The tropic level represents the lower carnivores or secondary consumers and their number, biomass or energy.
6. The fourth tropic level represents the higher carnivores or tertiary consumers and their number, biomass or energy.

Question 8.
If you want to know more about the flow of energy in an ecosystem, what questions do you ask?
Answer:
I will ask the following questions to know more about flow of energy in an ecosystem.

1. How does the energy flow in an ecosystem from one organism to other?
2. Is the energy transformation from one level to other 100% efficient?
3. What per cent of energy transfers from one level to other?
4. What happens to the remaining energy?
5. How does the ecosystem lose its energy during energy transformation?
6. Which tropic level in an ecosystem has more energy and which has less?
7. What is the ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem?

Question 9.
What will happen if we remove predators from food web?
Answer:

1. Removal of organisms from any tropic level of a food chain or food web disturbs the ecosystem and leads to ecological imbalance.
2. If we remove predators from food web, the prey population will increase enormously as there is no natural control over them.
3. The producers population will decrease rapidly as the organisms feeding on them increase.
4. After few generations the prey population also begins to decrease as some of the preys begin to die due to starvation.
5. Some adaptations may also be developed by the organisms to bring the ecological balance.
6. But it may take some generations, till that the ecosystem will be disturbed and imbalanced.
7. For example, if we remove all the predators (carnivorous) from a forest ecosystem, the herbivorous animal population will increase as there are no carnivores to hunt them.
8. As a result plant population will decrease as the ever increasing herbivores feed more and more on plants.
9. After some generations the herbivore population begins to decrease as the decreasing number of plants are not sufficient to feed.
10. Then some herbivorous animals may adapt to feed on other herbivores to increase their survival.
11. Then scope for survival will increase for plants again which leads to ecological balance.
12. But this may take lot of time to evolve new predators and to form ecological balance.

Question 10.
Observe a plant in your kitchen garden, and write a note on producer-consumer relationship.
Answer:
When I observe a plant in kitchen garden, I came to know the following things.

1. Though it may be relatively small, a garden is a complete ecosystem.
2. It has the same components as any other large and elaborate ecosystems had.
3. The plant in a kitchen garden is a producer as it produces their own food from sunlight.
4. There are two types of consumers in this ecosystem, a) Primary consumers and b) Secondary consumers.
5. Primary consumers feed on plants. This tropic level consists of caterpillars, bees and butterflies.
6. Secondary consumers feed on primary consumers. This tropic level consists of birds, garden lizards and spiders.
7. Fungi, bacteria, insects and worms make up decomposers.
8. The producer and consumer relationship can be shown in the following food chain.
   Plant → Plant eaters such as caterpillars, bees, butterflies → Meat-eaters such as birds, garden lizards, spiders
   Producers → Primary consumers → Secondary consumers
9. The pyramid of number appears like this.
   
10. The pyramid of Biomass appears like this
    
11. The pyramid of energy appears like this
    

Question 11.
What type of information do you require to explain the pyramid of biomass?
Answer:
To explain the pyramid of biomass, we require the following information.

1. The type of ecosystem.
2. Producers in the ecosystem.
3. Primary consumers in the ecosystem.
4. Secondary consumers in the ecosystem.
5. Tertiary consumers in the ecosystem.
6. Number of organisms at each tropic level.
7. Size of organisms at each tropic level.
8. Weight of organisms at each tropic level.
9. All forms of waste produced at each tropic level and
10. In total, total amount of biomass produced at each tropic level.

Question 12.
Draw a pyramid of numbers considering yourself sis top level consumer. Pyramid of numbers
Answer:
Pyramid of numbers
Ex: 1

Ex: 2

Question 13.
Prepare slogans to promote awareness in your classmates about eco-friendly activities.
All the living things have the right to live on this earth along with us. Prepare slogans to promote awareness in public about the conservation of biodiversity.
(OR)
Which slogans do you prefer to promote awareness in your locality about eco-friendly activities?
Answer:

1. Live and let live.
2. If we protect the environment, it protects us.
3. Conserve nature – Conserve life.
4. Save mother earth.
5. Earth needs you.
6. Go ecofriendly.
7. Clean the environment, live happily.
8. Heal our planet! Turn it into a better planet.
9. Plant a tree for your environment.
10. Think ecofriendly and live ecofriendly.
11. Earth enables you to definitely stand. Allow it to stand the actual way it is.
12. You’ve only got one planet. Don’t trash it.

Question 14.
Suggest any three programmes on the prevention of soil pollution in view of avoiding pesticides.
(OR)
Suggest any four eco-friendly methods for prevention of soil pollution in view of avoiding pesticides. (OR)
In your area, soil is polluted by the enormous usage of pesticides. Suggest any two programmes for the prevention of soil pollution.
Answer:
To prevent the soil pollution caused by pesticides following programmes should be implemented.

1. Rotation of crops :
   1. Same crop should not be grown in the same field in successive seasons.
   2. Rotation of crops reduce occurance of pests and damage due to pests will be decreased.
2. Biological control: Introducing natural predator or parasite of the pest.
3. Sterility: Sterilising the males of a pest species reduces the population of pests.
4. Genetic strains: The development of genetic strains which are resistant to certain pest.
5. Studying the life histories of the pests: When this is done it is sometimes possible to sow the crops at a time when least damage will be caused.

Choose the correct answer.

1. What does a food chain always start with?
   A) The herbivore
   B) The carnivore
   C) The producer
   D) None of these
   Answer: C
2. Which of the following do plants not compete for?
   A) Water
   B) Food
   C) Space
   D) All the above
   Answer: B
3. Ban all pesticides, this means that
   A) Control on the usage of pesticides
   B) Prevention of pesticides
   C) Promote eco-friendly agricultural practices
   D) Stop biochemical factories
   Answer: C
4. According to Charles Elton
   A) Carnivores at the top of the pyramid herbivore
   B) Energy trapping is high at the top of the pyramid
   C) No producers at the top of the pyramid
   D) A and C
   Answer: D

10th Class Biology 9th Lesson Our Environment InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Are all terrestrial ecosystems similar?
Answer:

1. No. All the terrestrial ecosystems are not similar.
2. Basing on variations in climatic conditions such as rainfall, temperature and the availability of light, there are various kinds of ecosystems.
3. The major types of terrestrial ecosystem are
   1. Tundra,
   2. Coniferous forest,
   3. Deciduous forest,
   4. Savannah,
   5. Tropical forest and
   6. Deserts.

Question 2.
If we want to show a food chain consisting of grass, rabbit, snake and hawk then connect the given picture of organisms by putting arrows and make a food chain.
A) Name the producers and consumers in the above food chain.
B) Try to guess what does the arrows marked by you are indicate?
C) Identify at least four other food chains from your surroundings. Name the producers and different levels of consumers in those food chains.
Answer:
Grass → Rabbit → Snake → Hawk
A) In the above food chain grass is the primary producer. Rabbit is the primary consumer, snake is the secondary consumer and hawk is the tertiary consumer.
B) The arrows indicate the flow of energy from one organism to another. So these are always pointed from the food to the feeder.
C)

1. Plant → insect → frog → bird
2. Plant → insect →  frog → snake
3. Aquatic plants → insects → fish → crane
4. Plant → mice → snake → vulture
5. Plant → aphids → spiders → birds

Question 3.
Why do most of the food chains consists of four steps?
Answer:

1. Most of the food chains are quite short and mostly consists of four steps.
2. This is because only 10% of the energy present in a tropic level transfers to the other tropic level.
3. Remaining energy is dissipated as heat produced during the process of respiration and other ways.
4. Thus about three steps in a food chain very little energy is still available for use by living organisms.

Question 4.
Why do the number of organisms get decreased as we move from producer to different level of consumers?
Answer:

1. As we move from producers to different levels of consumers the energy available will decrease gradually.
2. Only ten per cent of the energy present in one tropic level transfer to another tropic level.
3. Biomass also decreases gradually as only 10 – 20% of the biomass is transferred from one tropic level to the next in a food chain.
4. As there is less energy & less biomass available at top levels, number of organisms also less, generally.
5. So, the number of organisms get decreased as we move from producer to different level of consumers.

Question 5.
Draw the pyramid of number for the following food chains.
i) Banyan → insects → woodpecker
ii) Grass → rabbit → wolf
A) Are the pyramid of number having same structure in both of the above two cases as compare to the example given in the earlier paragraph?
B) If there is a difference, then what it is?
Answer:

A) No. The pyramid of number in the above two cases doesn’t have the same structure as compared to the example given in the textbook.
B)

1. In the example (given in the textbook), number of organisms at producers level is more. This number gradually decreased in consumers level step by step. So the pyramid of number formed has typical pyramid shape with broad base and the narrow apex.
2. But in the first case given here, on a single Banyan tree, a large number of insects live and feed. These insects become food for few Woodpeckers. So producers number is less than primary and secondary consumers, and secondary consumers are less than primary consumers. So the pyramid of number does not look like a pyramid. It consists of narrow base, broad middle part and medium apex.
3. In the second case, grass which are large in number become food for few rabbits. Rabbit provides food for several wolves which are comparatively less in number than grass. So primary consumers are less in number than secondary consumers and producers. So the pyramid of number for this food chain also does not look like a pyramid. It consists of broad base, narrow middle part and medium apex. Thus it differs from case (i) also.

Question 6.
Think why the pyramids are always upright?
Answer:

1. In ecology not all the pyramids are always upright.
2. Pyramid of number may be upright, inverted or partly upright.
3. Pyramid of biomass may be upright or inverted.
4. But the pyramid of energy is always upright.
5. This is because energy will decrease when we move from producers to the high level consumers.
6. Only 10% of the energy from one tropic level transfers to the other through food chain.
7. So the energy at base is more, gradually decreases, and very less at the top.
8. As a result the energy pyramid is always upright.

Question 7.
Observe the data given in the following table.

i) In which year lake-water spread area is more? Why?
Answer:
In the year 1967. Because lake was not brought under cultivation.

ii) How do you think weeds are more in the lake?
Answer:
Excessive nutrient addition, especially from anthropogenic sources, led to explosive weed growth. Ex: Eichornia, pistia.

iii) What are the reasons for decrease in lake area?
Answer:

1. In 1996, almost entire lake was brought under cultivation.
2. Industries came along in ever growing intensity in the catchment area of the lake.

iv) How do the above reasons lead to pollution?
Answer:

1. Consequently, the drains and rivulets carry substantial quantity of various types of pollutants into the lake.
2. The major sources of pollution are agricultural runoff containing residues of several agrochemicals, fertilizers, fish tank discharges, industrial effluents containing chemical residues.

v) How was the threat to the lake due to pollution discovered?
Answer:

1. The water of the lake turned alkaline in nature, turbid, nutrient rich, low in dissolved oxygen and high in biochemical oxygen demand.
2. Water borne diseases like diarrhoea, typhoid, amoebiasis and others are said to be common among the local inhabitants who are unaware of the state of pollution in the lake water.
3. Vector borne diseases were also increased.

vi) What could be the reasons for the migration of birds to this lake?
Answer:
To avoid extreme cold weather conditions in Northern Asia and Eastern Europe birds migrate to Kolleru lake.

Question 8.
Observe the following table showing different activities in the lake and their influence.
Legend:
(+) means has influence on the mentioned problem
(-) means has no influence on the mentioned problem
i) What are the factors that affected the number of migratory birds to decrease?
Answer:
Aquaculture practices.

ii) Do you find any relationship between biological and physical problems?
Answer:
Yes. Aquaculture practices have influence on these problems.

iii) What are the reasons for chemical problems ?
Answer:
Agricultural practices, aquaculture practices, industrial activities and human activities are the reasons for chemical problems.

iv) What happens if the dissolved oxygen reduce in lake water ?
Answer:
If the dissolved oxygen reduces in lake water, sufficient amount of oxygen will not be available to organisms that live in the lake.
This leads to the death of organisms in the lake.

v) Is BOD of turbid and nutrient rich water high or low? What are its consequences?
Answer:
High. Its consequences are water borne diseases and death of organisms.

vi) People living in catchment area of Kolleru faced so many problems. Why?
Answer:
Vector borne disease increased. The lands adandoned are useless for agriculture.

Question 9.
Name any two pesticides / insecticides you have heard about.
Answer:
DDT, Aldrin, Malathian, Altrazine, Monocrotophos, Endosulphan etc.

Question 10.
How are the food grains and cereals being stored in your house and how dojyou protected them from pests and fungus?
Answer:
To protect food grains and cereals from pests and fungus, we will follow the following rules in our house.

1. First of all we will dry and clean our grain before storing.
2. We will avoid moisture in bagged grains by storing them on wooden structures, bamboo mats or polythene covers.
3. We use domestic bins or improvised storage structures such as Gaade, Kotlu, Paatara, RCC bins and flat bottom metal bins etc.
4. We fumigate the storage room with Ethylene Di-bromide (EDB) ampoules to avoid insect damage.
5. We use anticoagulant for rat control in houses.

Question 11.
Where from pollutants enter to the water sources?
Answer:
The used water from industries and run off water containing agricultural effluents bring pollutants into water sources. Municipal and domestic sewage also pollute water sources.

Question 12.
How can you say fishes living in water having heavy metals in their bodies?
Answer:
The bioaccumulation of heavy metals in tissues of fish particularly in liver, kidney and gills were analysed and found their presence.

Question 13.
Researchers found that pollution levels increase during monsoon season. Why they found so?
Answer:

1. Pollution levels increase during monsoon season in water bodies.
2. During monsoon season heavy rainfall occurs.
3. The rain water brings residues of agrochemicals, fertilizers and different types of organic substances, municipal and domestic sewage.
4. Hence pollution levels increase in monsoon season.

Question 14.
Why did people also suffer from various diseases after consuming fishes living in local water reservoir?
Answer:

1. The heavy metals could find their way into human beings through food chain.
2. This bioaccumulation cause various physiological disorders such as hypertension, sporadic fever, renal damage, nausea etc.

Question 15.
What is the food chain that has been discussed in the above case?
Answer:
The food chain discussed in the above occurrence is Crops → Locust → Sparrow → Hawk.

Question 16.
How did the campaign disturb the food chain in the fields?
Answer:

1. Crop yields after the campaign were substantially decreased.
2. Though the campaign against sparrows ended it was too late.
3. With no sparrows to eat the locust populations, the country was soon swarmed.
4. Locust coupled with bad weather led to the great Chinese famine.

Question 17.
How did these disturbances affect the environment?
Answer:

1. The number of locust increased.
2. Use of pesticides against locust population further degraded the land.

Question 18.
Is it right to eradicate a living organism in an ecosystem? How is it harmful?
Answer:

1. No, it is not right to eradicate a living organism in an ecosystem.
2. It disturbs the existing food chain.

Question 19.
Were the sparrows really responsible? What was the reason for the fall in crop production?
Answer:

1. No, the sparrows were not really responsible for the loss of food grain.
2. With no sparrows to eat the locust population crops were damaged and this led to fall in crop production.

Question 20.
What was the impact of human activities on the environment?
Answer:

1. The human activities badly affected the environment.
2. Use of pesticides against the pest degraded the land.

Question 21.
What do you suggest for such incidents not to occur?
Answer:

1. I suggest to use organic manures and organic insecticides to kill the insects.
2. Rotation of crops is the best method to protect the crops from pests.
3. We should not kill any organism on this earth because every organism has a role to play.
4. Think before you start action.

10th Class Biology 9th Lesson Our Environment Activities

Activity – 1

Observe any water ecosystem in your surroundings and identify the different food chains and food web operating in this ecosystem. Write the following details in your notebook.

WORKSHEET

1. Names of the students in a group: ——————— Date: ———–
2. Name of the ecosystem: ———————
3. Topography: ———————
4. Names / Number of plants (producers) identified: ———————
5 Names / Number of animals identified: ———————
6. Identify the different types consumers and name them & mention their number below :
Herbivores (Primary consumers): ———————
Carnivores (Secondary consumers): ———————
Top carnivores (Tertiary): ———————
7 Food relationships among them: food habits/preferences: ———————
8 Show / draw the different food chains: ———————
9. Showcase the food web: ———————
10. List out all abiotic factors existing in the ecosystem: ———————
( A check list can be given, and asked to tick)
11. Is there any threat to the ecosystem ? Yes / No ———————
If yes, what ? and how ? ———————
Suggest few remedial measures ———————
Answer:
Student’s Activity.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 7th Lesson Coordinate Geometry Exercise 7.2

10th Class Maths 7th Lesson Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points (-1, 7) and (4, -3) in the ratio 2 :3.
Answer:
Given points P (-1, 7) and Q (4, – 3). Let ‘R’ be the required point which divides \(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\) in the ratio 2:3. Then

Question 2.
Find the coordinates of the points of trisection of the line segment joining (4, -1) and (-2, -3).
Answer:
Given points A (4, – 1) and B (- 2, – 3) Let P and Q be the points of trisection
of \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\), then AP = PQ = QB.

∴ P divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) internally in the ratio 1 : 2.

Also, Q divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) in the ratio 2 : 1 internally.

Question 3.
Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points (-3, 10) and (6, -8) is divided by (-1, 6).
Answer:
Let the point (-1, 6) divides the line segment joining the points (-3, 10) and (6, -8) in a ratio of m : n

⇒ 6m – 3n = -(m + n) = -m – n
⇒ 6m + m = – n + 3n
⇒ 7m = 2n
⇒ \(\frac{m}{n}=\frac{2}{7}\)
⇒ m : n = 2 : 7
∴ The point (-1, 6) divides the given line segment in a ratio of 2 : 7.

Question 4.
If (1, 2), (4, y), (x, 6) and (3, 5) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order, find x and y.
Answer:

Given: ▱ ABCD is a parallelogram where A (1, 2), B (4, y), C (x, 6) and D (3, 5).
In a parallelogram, diagonals bisect each other.
i.e., the midpoints of the diagonals coincide with each other.
i.e.,midpoint of AC = midpoint of BD

⇒ 1 + x = 7 and 8 = y + 5
⇒ x = 7 – 1 and y = 8 – 5
∴ x = 6 and y = 3.

Question 5.
Find the coordinates of a point A, where AB is the diameter of a circle whose centre is (2, -3) and B is (1, 4).
Answer:

Given:
A circle with centre ‘C’ (2, -3). \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) is a diameter where
B = (1, 4); A = (x, y).
C is the midpoint of AB.
[∵ Centre of a circle is the midpoint of the diameter]

4 = x + 1 and – 6 = y + 4
⇒ x = 4 – 1 = 3 and y = -6 – 4 = -10
A (x, y) = (3, -10)

Question 6.
If A and B are (-2, -2) and (2, -4) respectively. Find the coordinates of P such that AP = \(\frac{3}{7}\) AB and P lies on the segment AB.
Answer:
Given: A (- 2, – 2) and B (2, – 4)
P lies on AB such that AP = latex]\frac{3}{7}[/latex] AB

i.e., P divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) in the ratio 3 : 4 By section formula,

Question 7.
Find the coordinates of points which divide the line segment joining A (-4, 0) and B (0, 6) into four equal parts.
Answer:
Given, A (- 4, 0) and B (0, 6).
Let P, Q and R be the points which divide AB into four equal parts.

P divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) in the ratio 1 : 3, Q → 1 : 1 and R → 3 : 1 Use section formula to find P, Q and R.
Then, Q is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
P is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{AQ}}\)
R is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{QB}}\)

Question 8.
Find the coordinates of the points which divides the line segment joining A(-2, 2) and B(2, 8) into four equal parts.
Answer:
Given, A (- 2, 2) and B (2, 8).
Let P, Q and R be the points which divide AB into four equal parts.

Then, Q is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
P is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{AQ}}\)
R is the midpoint of \(\overline{\mathrm{QB}}\)

Question 9.
Find the coordinates of the point which divide the line segment joining the points (a + b, a-b) and (a-b, a + b) in the ratio 3 : 2 internally.
Answer:
Given : A (a + b, a – b) and B (a – b, a + b).
Let P (x, y) divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) in the ratio 3 : 2 internally.
Section formula

Question 10.
Find the coordinates of centroid of the triangle with following vertices:
i) (-1, 3), (6, -3) and (-3, 6)
Answer:
Given: △ABC in which- A (- 1, 3), B (6, -3) and C (-3, 6)

ii) (6, 2), (0, 0) and (4, -7)
Answer:
Given: The three vertices of a triangle are A (6, 2), B (0, 0) and C (4, – 7).
Centroid (x, y)

iii) (1,-1), (0, 6) and (-3, 0)
Answer:
Given: (1, -1), (0, 6) and (-3, 0) are the vertices of a triangle.
Centroid (x, y)

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 5 Quadratic Equations Ex 5.2 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 5th Lesson Quadratic Equations Exercise 5.2

10th Class Maths 5th Lesson Quadratic Equations Ex 5.2 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the roots of the following quadratic equations by factorisation,
i) x² – 3x – 10 = 0
Answer:
Given: x² – 3x – 10 = 0
x² – 5x + 2x- 10 = 0
⇒ x(x – 5) + 2 (x – 5) = 0
⇒ (x – 5) (x + 2) = 0
⇒ x – 5 = 0 or x + 2 = 0
⇒ x = 5 or x = -2
⇒ x = 5 or -2
are the roots of the given Q.E.

ii) 2x² + x – 6 = 0
Answer:
Given: 2x² + x – 6 = 0
⇒ 2x² + 4x – 3x – 6 = 0
⇒ 2x(x + 2) – 3(x + 2) = 0
⇒ (x + 2) (2x – 3) = 0
⇒ (x + 2) or 2x – 3 = 0
⇒ x = -2 or 2x = 3
⇒ x = -2 or \(\frac{3}{2}\)
are the roots of the given Q.E.

iii) √2x² + 7x + 5√2 =0
Answer:
Given: √2x² + 7x + 5√2 =0
⇒ √2x² + 5x + 2x + 5√2 = 0
⇒ x(√2x + 5)+ √2(√2x + 5) = 0
⇒ (√2x + 5) (x + √2) = 0
⇒ √2x + 5 = 0 or x + √2 = 0
⇒ √2x = -5 or x = -√2
⇒ x = \(\frac{-5}{\sqrt{2}}\) = or -√2
are the roots of √2 the given Q.E.

iv) 2x² – x + \(\frac{1}{8}\) = 0
Answer:
Given: 2x² – x + \(\frac{1}{8}\) = 0
⇒ \(\frac{16 x^{2}-8 x+1}{8}\) = 0
⇒ 16x² – 8x + 1 =0
⇒ 16x² – 4x – 4x + 1 = 0
⇒ 4x(4x – 1) – l(4x – 1) = 0
⇒ (4x – 1) (4x – 1) – 0
⇒ 4x – 1 = 0
⇒ 4x = l
⇒ x = \(\frac{1}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{4}\)
are the roots of given Q.E.

v) 100x² – 20x + 1 = 0
Answer:
Given : 100x² – 20x + 1 =0
⇒ 100x² – 10x – 10x + 1 = 0
⇒ 10x(10x – 1) – l(10x – 1) = 0
⇒ (10x – 1) (10x – l) = 0
⇒ 10x – 1 = 0
⇒ 10x = 1
⇒ x = \(\frac{1}{10}\), \(\frac{1}{10}\)
are the roots of the given Q.E.

vi) x(x + 4) = 12
Answer:
Given: x(x + 4) = 12
⇒ x² + 4x = 12
⇒ x² + 4x – 12 = 0
⇒ x² + 6x – 2x – 12 = 0
⇒ x(x + 6) – 2(x + 6) = 0
⇒ (x + 6) (x – 2) = 0
⇒ x + 6 = 0 or x – 2 = 0
⇒ x = -6 or x = 2
⇒ x = -6 or 2
are the roots of the given Q.E.

vii) 3x² – 5x + 2 = 0
Answer:
Given: 3x² – 5x + 2 = 0
⇒ 3x² – 3x – 2x + 2 = 0
⇒ 3x(x – 1) – 2(x – 1) = 0
⇒ (x – 1) (3x – 2) = 0
⇒ x – 1 = 0 or 3x – 2 = 0
⇒ x = 1 or \(\frac{2}{3}\),
⇒ x = 1 or \(\frac{2}{3}\) are the roots of the given Q.E.

viii) x – \(\frac{3}{x}\) = 2
Answer:
Given: x – \(\frac{3}{x}\) = 2
⇒ \(\frac{x^{2}-3}{x}\) = 2
⇒ x² – 3 = 2x
⇒ x² – 2x – 3 = 0
⇒ x² – 3x + x – 3 = 0
⇒ x(x – 3) + l(x – 3) = 0
⇒ (x – 3) (x + 1) = 0
⇒ (x – 3) = 0 or (x + 1) = 0
⇒ x = 3 or x = -1
⇒ x = 3 or -1 are the roots of the given Q.E.

ix) 3(x – 4)² – 5(x – 4) = 12
Answer:
Take (x – 4) = a, then the given Q.E. reduces to 3a² – 5a = 12
⇒ 3a² – 5a – 12 = 0
⇒ 3a² – 9a + 4a – 12 = 0
⇒ 3a(a – 3) + 4(a – 3) = 0
⇒ (a – 3) (3a + 4) = 0
⇒ a – 3 = 0 or 3a + 4 = 0
⇒ a = 3 or a = \(\frac{-4}{3}\)
but a = x – 4
x – 4 = 3 (or) x – 4 = \(\frac{-4}{3}\)
⇒ x = 7 or x = 4 – \(\frac{-4}{3}\) = \(\frac{8}{3}\)
∴ x = 7 or \(\frac{8}{3}\)
are the roots of the given Q.E.

Question 2.
Find two numbers whose sum is 27 and product is 182.
Answer:
Let a number be x.
Then the other number = 27 – x
Product of the numbers = x(27 – x) = 27x – x²
By problem 27x – x² = 182
⇒ x² – 27x + 182 = 0
⇒ x² – 14x – 13x + 182 = 0
⇒ x(x- 14) – 13(x – 14) = 0
⇒ (x – 13) (x – 14) = 0
⇒ x – 13 = 0 or x – 14 = 0
⇒ x = 13 or 14.
∴ The numbers are 13; 27 – 13 = 14 or 14 and 27 – 14 = 13.

Question 3.
Find two consecutive positive integers, sum of whose squares is 613.
Answer:
Let a positive integer be x.
Then the second integer = x + 1
Sum of the squares of the above integers = x² + (x + 1)²
= x² + x² + 2x + 1
= 2x² + 2x + 1
By problem 2x² + 2x + 1 = 613
⇒ 2x² + 2x – 612 = 0
⇒ x² + x – 306 = 0
⇒ x² + 18x – 17x – 306 = 0
⇒ x(x + 18) – 17(x + 18) = 0
⇒ (x – 17) (x + 18) = 0
⇒ x – 17 = 0 (or) x + 18 = 0
⇒ x = 17 (or) -18,
we do not consider -18
Then the numbers are (17, 17 + 1)
i.e., 17, 18 are the required two consecutive positive integers.

Question 4.
The altitude of a right triangle is 7 cm less than its base. If the hypotenuse is 13 cm, find the other two sides.
Answer:
Let the base of the right triangle = x cm
Then its altitude = x – 7 cm
By Pythagoras Theorem

(base)² + (height)² = (hypotenuse)²
⇒ x² + (x – 7)² = 13²
⇒ x² + x² – 14x + 49 = 169 .
⇒ 2x² – 14x + 49 – 169 = 0
⇒ 2x² – 14x – 120 = 0
⇒ x² – 7x – 60 = 0
⇒ x² – 12x + 5x – 60 = 0
⇒ x(x – 12) + 5(x – 12) = 0
⇒ (x – 12) (x + 5) = 0
⇒ x – 12 = 0 (or) x + 5 = 0
⇒ x = 12 (or) x = -5 But x can’t be negative.
∴ x = 12
x – 7 = 12 – 7 = 5
The two sides are 12 cm and 5 cm.

Question 5.
A cottage industry produces a certain number of pottery articles in a day. It was observed on a particular day that the cost of production of each article (in rupees) was 3 more than twice the number of articles produced on that day. If the total cost of production on that day was Rs. 90, find the number of articles produced and the cost of each article.
Answer:
Let the number of articles produced be x.
Then the cost of each article = 2x + 3
Total cost of the articles produced = x [2x + 3] = 2x² + 3x
By problem 2x² + 3x = 90
⇒ 2x² + 3x – 90 = 0
⇒ 2x² + 15x – 12x – 90 = 0
⇒ x (2x + 15) – 6 (2x + 15) = 0
⇒ (2x + 15) (x – 6) = 0
⇒ 2x + 15 = 0 (or) x – 6 = 0
⇒ x = \(\frac{-15}{2}\) or x = 6
But x can’t be negative.
∴ x = 6
2x + 3 = 2 × 6 + 3 = 15
∴ Number of articles produced = 6 Cost of each article = Rs. 15.

Question 6.
Find the dimensions of a rectangle whose perimeter is 28 meters and whose area is 40 square meters.
Answer:
Let the length of the rectangle = x
Given perimeter = 2(1 + b) = 28
⇒ (1 + b) = \(\frac{28}{2}\) = 14
Breadth of the rectangle = 14 – x
Area = length . breadth = x (14 – x)
= 14x – x²
By problem, 14x – x² = 40.
⇒ x² – 14x + 40 = 0
⇒ x² – 10x – 4x + 40 = 0
⇒ x(x – 10) – 4(x – 10) = 0
⇒ (x – 10) (x – 4) = 0
⇒ x – 10 = 0 (or) x – 4 = 0
⇒ x = 10 (or) 4
∴ Length = 10 m or 4 m
Then breadth = 14 – 10 = 4 m (or) 14 – 4 = 10 m

Question 7.
The base of a triangle is 4 cm longer than its altitude. If the area of the triangle is 48 sq.cm, then find its base and altitude.
Answer:
Let the altitude of the triangle h = x cm
Then its base ‘b’ = x + 4.
Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × base × height
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)(x + 4)(x)
= \(\frac{x^{2}+4 x}{2}\)
By problem \(\frac{x^{2}+4 x}{2}\) = 48
⇒ x² + 4x = 2 × 48
⇒ x² + 4x – 96 = 0
⇒ x² + 12x – 8x – 96 = 0
⇒ x(x + 12) – 8(x + 12) = 0
⇒ (x + 12)(x – 8) = 0
⇒ x + 12 = 0 (or) x – 8 = 0
⇒ x = -12 (or) x = 8
But x can’t be negative.
∴ x = 8 and x + 4 = 8 + 4 = 12
Hence altitude = 8 cm and base = 12 cm.

Question 8.
Two trains leave a railway station at the same time. The first train travels towards west and the second train towards north. The first train travels 5 km/hr faster than the second train. If after two hours they are 50 km. apart, find the average speed of each train.
Answer:
Let the speed of the slower train = x kmph
Then speed of the faster train = x + 5 kmph.

Distance = Speed × Time
Distance travelled by the first train = 2(x + 5) = 2x + 10
Distance travelled by the second train = 2.x = 2x
By Pythagoras Theorem
(hypotenuse)² = (side)² + (side)²
⇒ (2x)² + (2x + 10)2² = 50²
⇒ 4x² + (4x² + 40x + 100) = 2500
⇒ 4x² + 4x² + 40x + 100 = 2500
⇒ 8x² + 40x – 2400 = 0
⇒ x² + 5x – 300 = 0
⇒ x² + 20x – 15x – 300 = 0
⇒ x (x + 20) – 15 (x + 20) = 0
⇒ (x + 20) (x – 15) = 0
∴ x – 15 = 0 (or) x + 20 = 0
⇒ x = 15 (or) – 20
But x can’t be negative.
∴ Speed of the slower train x = 15 kmph.
Speed of the faster train x + 5 = 15 + 5 = 20 kmph.

Question 9.
In a class of 60 students, each boy contributed rupees equal to the number of girls and each girl contributed rupees equal to the number of boys. If the total money then collected was Rs. 1600, how many boys are there in the class?
Answer:
Let the number of boys in the class = x
Then number of girls in the class = 60 – x [∵ total students = 60]
Money contributed by the boys = x(60 – x) = 60x – x² [∵ given]
Money contributed by the girls = (60 – x)x = 60x – x²
∴ Money contributed by the class = 120x – 2x²
By problem 120x -2x² = 1600
⇒ 2x²– 120x + 1600 = 0
⇒ x² – 60x + 800 = 0
⇒ x² – 40x – 20x + 800 = 0
⇒ x(x – 40) – 20 (x – 40) = 0
⇒ (x – 40) (x – 20) = 0
⇒ x = 40 (or) 20
∴ Boys = 40 or 20 Girls = 20 or 40.

Question 10.
A motor boat heads upstream a distance of 24 km on a river whose current is running at 3 km per hour. The trip up and back takes 6 hours. Assuming that the motor boat maintained a constant speed, what was its speed ?
Answer:
Let the speed of the boat in still water be x kmph.
Speed of the current = 3 kmph
Then speed of the boat in upstream = (x – 3) kmph
Speed of the boat in downstream = (x + 3) kmph
By problem total time taken = 6h.

⇒ 24(2x) = 6(x² – 9)
⇒ 8x = x² – 9
⇒ x² – 8x – 9 = 0
⇒ x² – 9x + x-9 = 0
⇒ x (x – 9) + 1 (x – 9) = 6
⇒ (x – 9) (x + 1) = 0
⇒ x – 9 = 0 or x + 1 = 0
x can’t be negative,
∴ x = 9
i.e., speed of the boat in still water = 9 kmph.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 6 Progressions Ex 6.3 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions 6th Lesson Progressions Exercise 6.3

10th Class Maths 6th Lesson Progressions Ex 6.3 Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the sum of the following APs:
i) 2, 7, 12,…, to 10 terms.
Answer:
Given A.P: 2, 7, 12, …… to 10 terms
a = 2; d = a₂ – a₁ = 7 – 2 = 5; n = 10
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]
∴ S₁₀ = \(\frac{10}{2}\)[2 × 2 + (10 – 1)5]
= 5 [4 + 9 × 5]
= 5 [4 + 45]
= 5 × 49
= 245

ii) -37, -33, -29,…, to 12 terms.
Answer:
Given A.P: -37, -33, -29,…, to 12 terms.
a = -37; d = a₂ – a₁ = (-33) – (-37) = -33 + 37 = 4; n = 12
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]
∴ S₁₂ = \(\frac{12}{2}\)[2 × (-37) + (12 – 1)4]
= 6 [-74 + 11 × 4]
= 6 [-74 + 44]
= 6 × (-30)
= -180

iii) 0.6, 1.7, 2.8,…, to 100 terms.
Answer:
Given A.P : 0.6, 1.7, 2.8,…. S₁₀₀
a = 0.6; d = a₂ – a₁ = 1.7 – 0.6 = 1.1; n = 100
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]
∴ S₁₀₀ = \(\frac{100}{2}\)[2 × 0.6 + (100 – 1)1.1]
= 50 [1.2 + 99 × 1.1]
= 50 [1.2 + 108.9]
= 50 × 110.1
= 5505

iv) \(\frac{1}{15}\), \(\frac{1}{12}\), \(\frac{1}{10}\),…, to 11 terms.
Answer:
Given A.P: \(\frac{1}{15}\), \(\frac{1}{12}\), \(\frac{1}{10}\),…, S₁₁
a = \(\frac{1}{15}\); d = a₂ – a₁ = \(\frac{1}{12}\) – \(\frac{1}{15}\) = \(\frac{5-4}{60}\) = \(\frac{1}{60}\); n = 11
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]

2. Find the sums given below =:
i) 7 + 10\(\frac{1}{2}\) + 14 + …. + 84
Answer:
Given A.P : 7 + 10\(\frac{1}{2}\) + 14 + …. + 84
a = 7; d = a₂ – a₁ = 10\(\frac{1}{2}\) – 7 = 3\(\frac{1}{2}\) and the last term l = a_n = 84
But, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
∴ 84 = 7 + (n – 1) 3\(\frac{1}{2}\)
⇒ 84 – 7 = (n – 1) × \(\frac{7}{2}\)
⇒ n – 1 = 77 × \(\frac{2}{7}\) = 22
⇒ n = 22 + 1 = 23
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l) where a = 7; l = 84
S₂₃ = \(\frac{23}{2}\)(7 + 84)
= \(\frac{23}{2}\) × 91
= \(\frac{2093}{2}\)
= 1046\(\frac{1}{2}\)

ii) 34 + 32 + 30 + … + 10
Answer:
Given A.P: 34 + 32 + 30 + … + 10
a = 34; d = a₂ – a₁ = 32 – 34 = -2 and the last term l = a_n = 10
But, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
∴ 10 = 34 + (n – 1) (-2)
⇒ 10 – 34 = -2n + 2
⇒ -2n = -24 – 2
⇒ n = \(\frac{-26}{-2}\) = 13
∴ n = 13
Also, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
where a = 34; l = 10
S₁₃ = \(\frac{13}{2}\)(34 + 10)
= \(\frac{13}{2}\) × 44
= 13 × 22
= 286

iii) -5 + (-8) + (-11) + … + (-230)
Answer:
Given A.P: -5 + (-8) + (-11) + … + (-230)
Here first term, a = -5;
d = a₂ – a₁ = (-8) – (-5) = -8 + 5 = -3 and the last term l = a_n = 10
But, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
∴ (-230) = -5 + (n – 1) (-3)
⇒ -230 + 5 = -3n + 3
⇒ -3n + 3 = -225
⇒ -3n = -225 – 3
⇒ 3n = 228
⇒ n = \(\frac{228}{3}\) = 76
∴ n = 76
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
where a = -5; l = -230
S₇₆ = \(\frac{76}{2}\)((-5) + (-230))
= 38 × (-235)
= -8930

Question 3.
In an AP:
i) Given a = 5, d = 3, a_n = 50. find n and S_n.
Answer:
Given :
a = 5; d = 3;
a_n = a + (n – 1)d = 50
⇒ 50 = 5 + (n – 1) 3
⇒ 50 – 5 = 3n – 3
⇒ 3n = 45 + 3
⇒ n = \(\frac{48}{3}\) = 16
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₁₆ = \(\frac{16}{2}\)(5 + 50)
= 38 × 55
= 440

ii) Given a = 7, a₁₃ = 35, find d and S₁₃.
Answer:
Given: a = 7;
a₁₃ = a + 12d = 35
⇒ 7 + 12d = 35
⇒ 12d = 35 – 7
⇒ n = \(\frac{28}{12}\) = \(\frac{7}{3}\)
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₁₃ = \(\frac{13}{2}\)(7 + 35)
= \(\frac{13}{2}\) × 42
= 13 × 21
= 273

iii) Given a₁₂ = 37, d = 3 find a and S₁₂.
Answer:
Given:
a₁₂ = a + 11d = 37
d = 3
So, a₁₂ = a + 11 × 3 = 37
⇒ a + 33 = 37
⇒ a = 37 – 33 = 4
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₁₂ = \(\frac{12}{2}\)(4 + 37)
= 6 × 41
= 246

iv) Given a₃ = 15, S₁₀ = 125, find d and a₁₀.
Answer:
Given:
a₃ = a + 2d = 15
⇒ a = 15 – 2d ……… (1)
S₁₀ = 125 but take S₁₀ as 175
i.e., S₁₀ = 175
We know that,

⇒ 35 = 2 (15 – 2d) + 9d [∵ a = 15 – 2d]
⇒ 35 = 30 – 4d + 9d
⇒ 35 – 30 = 5d
⇒ d = \(\frac{5}{5}\) = 1
Substituting d = 1 in equation (1) we get
a = 15 – 2 × 1 = 15 – 2 = 13
Now, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
a₁₀ = a + 9d = 13 + 9 × 1 = 13 + 9 = 22
∴ a₁₀ = 22; d = 1

v) Given a = 2, d = 8, S_n = 90, find n and a_n.
Answer:
Given a = 2, d = 8, S_n = 90
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]

⇒ 90 = 2n [2n – 1]
⇒ 4n² – 2n = 90
⇒ 4n² – 2n – 90 = 0
⇒ 2(2n² – n – 45) = 0
⇒ 2n² – n – 45 = 0
⇒ 2n² -10n + 9n – 45 = 0
⇒ 2n(n – 5) + 9(n – 5) = 0
⇒ (n – 5)(2n + 9) = 0
⇒ n – 5 = 0 (or) 2n + 9 = 0
⇒ n = 5 (or) n = \(\frac{-9}{2}\) (discarded)
∴ n = 5
Now a_n = a₅ = a + 4d = 2 + 4 x 8
= 2 + 32 = 34

vi) Given a_n = 4, d = 2, S_n = -14, find n and a.
Answer:
Given a_n = a + (n – 1) d = 4 ……. (1)
d = 2; S_n = – 14
From (1); a + (n – 1) 2 = 4
a = 4 – 2n + 2
a = 6 – 2n
Given a = 2, d = 8, S_n = 90
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[a + a_n]
-14 = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[(6-2n) + 4] [∵ a = 6 – 2n]
-14 × 2 = n (10 – 2n)
⇒ 10n – 2n² = – 28
⇒ 2n² – 10n – 28 = 0
⇒ n² – 5n – 14 = 0
⇒ n² – 7n + 2n – 14 = 0
⇒ n (n – 7) + 2 (n – 7) = 0
⇒ (n – 7) (n + 2) = 0
⇒ n = 7 (or) n = – 2
∴ n = 7
Now a = 6 – 2n = 6 – 2 × 7
= 6 – 14 = -8
∴ a = – 8; n = 7

vii) Given l = 28, S = 144, and there are total 9 terms. Find a.
Answer:
Given:
l = a₉ = a + 8d = 28 and S₉ = 144 But,
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
144 = \(\frac{9}{2}\)(a + 28)
⇒ 144 × \(\frac{2}{9}\) = a + 28
⇒ a + 28 = 32
⇒ a = 4

Question 4.
The first and the last terms of an A.P are 17 and 350 respectively. If the common difference is 9, how many terms are there and what is their sum?
Answer:
Given A.P in which a = 17
Last term = l = 350
Common difference, d = 9
We know that, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
350 = 17 + (n- 1) 9
⇒ 350 = 17 + 9n – 9
⇒ 9n = 350 – 8
⇒ n = \(\frac{342}{9}\) = 38
Now, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₃₈ = \(\frac{38}{2}\)(17 + 350)
= 19 × 367 = 6973
∴ n = 38; S_n = 6973

Question 5.
Find the sum of first 51 terms of an AP whose second and third terms are 14 and 18 respectively.
Answer:
Given A.P in which

Substituting d = 4 in equation (1),
we get a + 4 = 14
⇒ a = 14 – 4 = 10

Question 6.
If the sum of first 7 terms of an AP is 49 and that of 17 terms is 289, find the sum of first n terms.
Answer:
Given :
A.P such that S₇ = 49; S₁₇ = 289
We know that,

Substituting d = 2 in equation (1), we get,
a + 3 × 2 = 7
⇒ a = 7 – 6 = 1
∴ a = 1; d = 2

∴ Sum of first n terms S_n = n².
Shortcut: S₇ = 49 = 7²
S₁₇ = 289 = 17²
∴ S_n = n²

Question 7.
Show that a₁, a₂ …,a_n, …. form an AP where a_n is defined as below:
i) a = 3 + 4n
ii) a_n = 9 – 5n. Also find the sum of the first 15 terms in each case.
Answer:
Given a_n = 3 + 4n
Then a₁ = 3 + 4 × l = 3 + 4 = 7
a₂ = 3 + 4 × 2 = 3 + 8 = 11
a₃ = 3 + 4 × 3 = 3 + 12 = 15
a₄ = 3 + 4 × 4 = 3 + 16 = 19
Now the pattern is 7, 11, 15, ……
where a = a₁ = 7; a₂ = 11; a₃ = 15, ….. and
a₂ – a₁ = 11 – 7 = 4;
a₃ – a₂ = 15 – 11 = 4;
Here d = 4
Hence a₁, a₂, ….., a_n ….. forms an A.P.

ii) a_n = 9 – 5n
Given: a_n = 9 – 5n.
a₁ = 9 – 5 × l = 9 – 5 = 4
a₂ = 9 – 5 × 2 = 9 – 10 = -1
a₃ = 9 – 5 × 3 = 9 – 15 = -6
a₄ = 9 – 5 × 4 = 9 – 20 = -11
Also
a₂ – a₁ = -1 – 4 = -5;
a₃ – a₂ = -6 – (-1) = – 6 + 1 = -5
a₄ – a₃ = -11 – (-6) = -11 + 6 = -5
∴ d = a₂ – a₁ = a₃ – a₂ = a₄ – a₃ = …. = -5
Thus the difference between any two successive terms is constant (or) starting from the second term, each term is obtained by adding a fixed number ‘-5’ to its preceding term.
Hence {a_n} forms an A.P.

Question 8.
If the sum of the first n terms of an AP is 4n – n², what is the first term (remember the first term is S₁)? What is the sum of first two terms? What is the second term? Similarly, find the 3^rd, the 10^th and the n^th terms.
Answer:
Given an A.P in which S_n = 4n – n²
Taking n = 1 we get
S₁ = 4 × 1- 12 = 4 – 1 = 3
n = 2; S₂ = a₁ + a₂ = 4 × 2 – 2² = 8 – 4 = 4
n = 3; S₃ = a₁ + a₂ + a₃ = 4 × 3 -3² = 12 – 9 = 3
n = 4; S₄ = a₁ + a₂ + a₃ + a₄ = 4 × 4 – 4² = 16 – 16 = 0
Hence, S₁ = a₁ = 3
a₂ = S₂ – S₁ = 4 – 3 = 1
a₃ = S₃ – S₂ = 3 – 4 = -1
a₄ = S₄ – S₃ = 0 – 3 = -3
So, d = a₂ – a₁ = l – 3 = -2
Now, a₁₀ = a + 9d  [∵ a_n = a + (n – 1) d]
= 3 + 9 × (- 2)
= 3 – 18 = -15
a_n = 3 + (n – 1) × (-2)
= 3 – 2n + 2
= 5 – 2n

Question 9.
Find the sum of the first 40 positive integers divisible by 6.
Answer:
The given numbers are the first 40 positive multiples of 6
⇒ 6 × 1, 6 × 2, 6 × 3, ….., 6 × 40
⇒ 6, 12, 18, ….. 240
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₄₀ = \(\frac{40}{2}\)(6 + 240)
= 20 × 246
= 4920
∴ S₄₀ = 4920

Question 10.
A sum of Rs. 700 is to be used to give seven cash prizes to students of a school for their overall academic performance. If each prize is Rs. 20 less than its preceding prize, find the value of each of the prizes.
Answer:
Given:
Total/Sum of all cash prizes = Rs. 700
Each prize differs by Rs. 20
Let the prizes (in ascending order) be x, x + 20, x + 40, x + 60, x + 80, x + 100, x + 120
∴ Sum of the prizes = S₇ = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
⇒ 700 = \(\frac{7}{2}\)[x + x + 120]
⇒ 700 × \(\frac{2}{7}\) = 2x + 120
⇒ 100 = x + 60
⇒ x = 100 – 60 = 40
∴ The prizes are 160, 140, 120, 100, 80, 60, 40.

Question 11.
In a school, students thought of plant¬ing trees in and around the school to reduce air pollution. It was decided that the number of trees, that each section of each class will plant, will be the same as the class, in which they are studying, e.g., a section of Class I will plant 1 tree, a section of Class II will plant 2 trees and so on till Class XII. There are three sections of each class. How many trees will be planted by the students?
Answer:
Given: Classes: From I to XII
Section: 3 in each class.
∴ Trees planted by each class = 3 × class number

∴ Total trees planted = 3 + 6 + 9 + 12 + …… + 36 is an A.P.
Here, a = 3 and l = 36; n = 12
∴ S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S₁₂ = \(\frac{12}{2}\)[3 + 36]
= 6 × 39
= 234
∴ Total plants = 234

Question 12.
A spiral is made up of successive semicircles, with centres alternately at A and B, starting with centre at A, of radii 0.5 cm, 1.0 cm, 1.5 cm, 2.0 cm, … as shown in figure. What is the total length of such a spiral made up of thirteen
consecutive semicircles? (Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\))

[Hint: Length of successive semicircles is l₁, l₂, l₃, l₄,….. with centres at A, B, A, B,…, respectively.]
Answer:
Given: l₁, l₂, l₃, l₄,….., l₁₃ are the semicircles with centres alternately at A and B; with radii
r₁ = 0.5 cm [1 × 0.5]
r₂ = 1.0 cm [2 × 0.5]
r₃ = 1.5 cm [3 × 0.5]
r₄ = 2.0 cm [4 × 0.5] [∵ Radii are in A.P. as aj = 0.5 and d = 0.5]
……………………………
r₁₃ = 13 × 0.5 = 6.5
Now, the total length of the spiral = l₁ + l₂ + l₃ + l₄ + ….. + l₁₃ [∵ 13 given]
But circumference of a semi-cirle is πr.
∴ Total length of the spiral = π × 0.5 + π × 1.0 + ………. + π × 6.5
= π × \(\frac{1}{2}\)[l + 2 + 3 + ….. + 13]
[∵ Sum of the first n – natural numbers is \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)
= \(\frac{22}{7} \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{13 \times 14}{2}\)
= 11 × 13
= 143 cm.

Question 13.
200 logs are stacked in the following manner: 20 logs in the bottom row, 19 in the next row, 18 in the row next to it and so on. In how many rows are the 200 logs placed and how many logs are in the top row?

Answer:
Given: Total logs = 200
Number of logs stacked in the first row = 20
Number of logs stacked in the second row = 19
Number of logs stacked in the third row = 18
The number series is 20, 19, 18,….. is an A.P where a = 20 and
d = a₂ – a₁ = 19 – 20 = -1
Also, S_n = 200

400 = 41n – n²
⇒ n² – 41n + 400 = 0
⇒ n² – 25n – 16n + 400 = 0
⇒ n(n – 25) – 16(n – 25) = 0
⇒ (n – 25) (n – 16) = 0
⇒ n – 25 (or) 16
There can’t be 25 rows as we are starting with 20 logs in the first row.
∴ Number of rows must be 16.
∴ n = 16

Question 14.
In a bucket and ball race, a bucket is placed at the starting point, which is 5 m from the first ball, and the other balls are placed 3 m apart in a straight line. There are ten balls in the line.

A competitor starts from the bucket, picks up the nearest ball, runs back with it, drops it in the bucket, runs back to pick up the next ball, runs to the bucket to drop it in, and she continues in the same way until all the balls are in the bucket. What is the total distance the competitor has to run?
[Hint: To pick up the first ball and the second ball, the total distance (in metres) run by a competitor is 2 × 5 + 2 × (5 + 3)]
Answer:
Given: Balls are placed at an equal distance of 3 m from one another.
Distance of first ball from the bucket = 5 m
Distance of second ball from the bucket = 5 + 3 = 8 m (5 + 1 × 3)
Distance of third ball from the bucket = 8 + 3 = 11 m (5 + 2 × 3)
Distance of fourth ball from the bucket = 11 + 3 = 14 m (5 + 3 × 3)
………………………………
∴ Distance of the tenth ball from the bucket = 5 + 9 × 3 = 5 + 27 = 32 m.
1st ball: Distance covered by the competitor in picking up and dropping it in the bucket = 2 × 5 = 10 m.
2nd ball: Distance covered by the competitor in picking up and dropping it in the bucket = 2 × 8 = 16 m.
3rd ball: Distance covered by the competitor in picking up and dropping it in the bucket = 2 × 11 = 22 m.
………………………………
10th ball: Distance covered by the competitor in picking up and dropping it in the bucket = 2 × 32 = 64 m.
Total distance = 10 m + 16 m + 22 m + …… + 64 m.
Clearly, this is an A.P in which a = 10; d = a₂ – a₁ = 16 – 10 = 6 and n = 10.
∴ S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]
∴ S₁₀ = \(\frac{10}{2}\)[2 × 10 + (10 – 1)6]
= 5 [20 + 54]
= 5 × 74
= 370 m
∴ Total distance = 370 m.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Chemistry Solutions 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers

Review of Your Previous Knowledge

Question 1.
Which property do you think of while suggesting the remedy from a problem of acidity?
Answer:
Neutralization Property. Antacid tablets neutralise acidity.

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11,7 and 9 respectively, which solution is : (AS1)
a) neutral
b) strongly alkaline
c) strongly acidic
d) weakly acidic
e) weakly alkaline
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration.
Answer:
Solution – pH Value
A → 4
B → 1
C → 11
D → 7
E → 9
a) Solution ‘D’ is neutral
b) Solution ‘C’ is strongly alkaline
c) Solution ‘B’ is strongly acidic
d) Solution ‘A’ is weakly acidic
e) Solution ‘E1 is weakly alkaline
∴ Increasing order of Hydrogen ion concentration : C < E < D < A < B.

Question 2.
What is a neutralization reaction? Give two examples. (AS1)
Answer:
Neutralization reaction : When acid reacts with base, forms its salt and water. This reaction is called a neutralization reaction.
Examples :

Equation: HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O
ii) Acetic Acid + Sodium Hydroxide → Sodium Acetate + Water
Equation : CH₃COOH + NaOH → CH₃COONa + H₂O
Formula : Acid + Base > Salt + Water

Question 3.
What happens when an acid or base is mixed with water? (AS1)
Answer:
When an acid or base is mixed with water it changes into dilute acid or dilute base.
(OR)
Dilute acid or dilute base will be formed when an acid or base is mixed with water. Mixing an acid or base with water results in decrease in the concentration of ions (H30+/ OH-) per unit volume. Such a process is called dilution and the acid or base is said to be diluted.

Question 4.
Why does tooth decay start when the pH of mouth is lower than 5.5? (AS1)
(OR)
Does the pH change tooth decay? Explain.
Answer:

1. Tooth enamel is the hardest substance in the body.
2.  It doesn’t dissolve in water but corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5.
3. It happens due to the bacteria which produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth.

Question 5.
Why does not distilled water conduct electricit? (AS2)
Answer:

1. Distilled water does not contain impurities.
2. It is also extremely weak electrolyte.
3. So it does not dissociate into ions.
4. It does not have charge carriers.
5. Because of that it does not conduct electricity.

Question 6.
Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus to red whereas hydrochloric acid does. Why? (AS1)
Answer:
1. Dry hydrogen chloride gas is not an acid. Because it does not produce H⁺_(aq) ions. Hence it can’t turn blue litmus into red.
2. Hydrochloric acid is an aqueous solution. So it can produce H⁺_(aq) ions. Hence it can turn blue litmus into red.

Question 7.
Why pure acetic acid does not conduct electricity? (AS1)
Answer:
The reasons for pure acetic acid does not conduct electricity are :
i) Acetic acid is a weak acid.
ii) It gives fewer H₃O⁺ ions.

Question 8.
A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk. (AS2)
a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
Answer:
1. By adding a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk, the milkman keeps the milk unspoiled for little more time than usual time.
2. As the pH value increases the milk turns to slightly alkaline.

b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Answer:

1. Curd form from the milk by the action of Lactic acid produced by bacteria in the milk.
2. If milk man add Baking soda (NaHCO₃) to the milk it neutralise acid, which is produced by the bacteria.
3. Excess acid is required to change the milk as curd.
4.  It takes long time.

Question 9.
Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why? (AS2)
Answer:
Storing of Plaster of Paris :

1. Plaster of Paris is a white powder.
2. It easily absorbs water in air and forms hard gypsum.
3. So, it should be stored in a moisture-proof container.

Question 10.
Fresh milk has a pH of 6. Explain why the pH changes as it turns into curd.
Answer:
1. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. Hence it is a weak acid.
2. To turn the milk as curd, we have to add yeast in the form of some curd. The fermentation takes place during this process and lactose changes in lactic acid and the pH decreases as milk sets as curd.

Question 11.
Compounds such as alcohols and glucose contain hydrogen but are not categorized as acids. Describe an activity to prove it. (AS3)
(OR) (Activity – 7)
Write an activity to show that the solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character even though they are having Hydrogen.
(OR)
Write an activity which proves acids are good conductors of electricity.
(OR)
The acidity of acids is attributed to the H+ ions produced by them in solution explain the above statement with an activity.
List out the material for the experiment to investigate whether all compounds containing Hydrogen are acids or not and write the experimental procedure.
Answer:
List of the material required :

1. Glucose
2. Alcohol
3. Dil. HCl
4. Dil-H₂SO₄
5. Beaker
6. Connecting wires
7. 230 voltage AC supply
8. Bulb
9. Graphite rods.

Procedure :

1. Prepare glucose, alcohol, hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid solutions.
2. Connect two different coloured electrical wires to graphite rods separately as shown in figure.
3. Connect free ends of the wire to 230 volts AC plug.
4. Complete the circuit as shown in the figure by connecting a bulb to one of the wires.
5. Now pour some dilute HCl in the beaker and switch on the current.

Observation :
The bulb starts glowing.

Repetition:
Repeat activity with dilute sulphuric acid, glucose and alcohol solutions separately.

Observation :

1. We will notice that the bulb glows only in acid solutions.
2. But the bulb does not glow in glucose and alcohol solutions.

Result:

1. Glowing of bulb indicates that there is flow of electric current through the solution.
2. Acid solutions have ions and the movement of these ions in solution helps for flow of electric current through the solution.

Conclusion :

1. The positive ion (cation) present in HCl solution is H⁺.
2. This suggests that acids produce hydrogen ions H⁺ in solution, which are, responsible for their acidic properties.
3. In glucose and alcohol solution the bulb did not glow indicating the absence of H⁺ ions in these solutions.
4. The acidity of acids is attributed to the H⁺ ions produced by them in solutions.

Question 12.
What is meant by “water of crystallization” of a substance? Describe an activity to show the water of crystallisation. (Activity – 16) (AS3)
Answer:
Water of Crystallization : Water of crystallization is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt in its crystaline form.
Ex : CuSO₄ • 5H₂O.
It means that five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate.

Activity to show the water of crystallization :

1. Take a few crystals of copper sulphate in a dry test tube and heat the test tube.
2. We observe water droplets on the walls of the test tube and salt turns white.
3. Add 2 – 3 drops of water on the sample of copper sulphate obtained after heating.
4. We observe, the blue colour of copper sulphate crystals is restored.

Reason :
1. In the above activity copper sulphate crystals which seem to be dry contain the water of crystallization, when these crystals are heated, water present in crystals is evaporated and the salt turns white.

2. When the crystals are moistened with water, the blue colour reappears.
Removing water of crystallization

Question 13.
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid is added to test tube A, while acetic acid is added to test tube B. Amount and concentration of both the acids are same. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why? (AS4)
Answer:
1. The volatility of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is more than that of hydrochloric acid.
2. But HCl solution has more strength than acetic acid.
3. Hence magnesium ribbon in test tube A will react more vigorously than in B.
4. So fizzing occurs more vigorously in test tube ‘A’.

Question 14.
Draw a neat diagram showing acid solution in water conducts electricity. (AS5)
(OR)
Draw a neat diagram which shows acids contains H⁺ ions.
(OR)
Draw a neat diagram showing how does dilute HCl solution conduct electricity.
Answer:

Question 15.
How do you prepare your own indicator using beetroot ? Explain. (AS5)
Aim : To prepare own indicator.
Materials required :
1) Beetroots-2 or 3
2) Knife
3) Bowls
4) Water
5) Spoon
6) Mixy
7) Orange juice

Procedure:
1) Take the beetroots and peel them with the help of a knife. (Firstly wash them).
2) Chop them into pieces.
3) Put those pieces into a mixy jar and make a paste.
4) Add some water to the paste. Now filter this and collect only juice from this.

Observation and Result:
1) Now add 5 to 6 drops of this juice, (beetroot juice (indicator)) to orange juice (5 to 6 drops) and mix it.
2) We can see the colour changes. This indicates the presence of acidic nature in orange juice.

Question 16.
How does the flow of acid rain into a river make the survival of aquatic life in a river difficult? (AS7)
(OR)
What are the harmful effects of acid rain?
Answer:
1) Acid rains are combination of carbonic acid, sulphuric acid and nitric acid with rain water.
2) The pH of acid rain is less than 5.6.
3) Living organisms can survive only in a narrow range of pH change.
4) When acid rain with pH value less than 5.6, flows into rivers, it lowers the pH of river water.
5) Due to less pH, the river water becomes acidic and hence the aquatic life in such rivers becomes difficult.

Question 17.
What is baking powder? How does it make the cake soft and spongy? (AS7)
Answer:
1) Baking Powder:
Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda (NaHCO₃) and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid. COOH (CHOH)₂ COOH

2) Chemical reaction :
When baking powder is heated or mixed in water, the following reaction takes place.
NaHCO₃ + H⁺ → CO₂ + H₂O + Sodium salt of acid.

3) Carbondioxide produced during the reaction causes bread or cake to rise making them soft and spongy.

Question 18.
Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda. (AS7)
(OR)
Write the chemical formulae for washing soda and Baking soda and give their uses.
(OR)
Write any four uses of washing soda.
Answer:
Uses of washing soda (Na₂CO₃.10H₂O) :
1) Washing soda (sodium carbonate) is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
2) It is used in the manufacture of sodium compounds such as borax.
3) Sodium carbonate can be used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes.
4) It is used for removing permanent hardness of water.

Uses of baking soda (NaHCO₃ 10H₂O) :
1) Baking soda (Sodium hydrogen carbonate) is used for faster cooking.
2) Baking powder (a mixture of baking soda and a mild acid) is used in preparation of cakes.
3) Sodium hydrogen carbonate is also an ingredient in antacids.
4) It is also used in soda – acid, fire extinguishers.
5) It acts as a mild antiseptic.

Fill in the Blanks

1. i) ………………….. taste is a characteristic property of all acids in aqueous solution.
ii) Acids react with some metals to produce ………………….. gas.
iii) Because aqueous acid solutions conduct electricity, they are identified as …………………..
iv) Acids react with bases to produce a ………………….. and water.
v) Acids turn methyle orange into ………………….. colour.
Answer:
1. i) Sour
ii) hydrogen
iii) electrolytes or conductors
iv) salt
v) red

2. i) Bases tend to taste ………………….. and feel ………………….. .
ii) Like acids, aqueous basic solutions conduct ………………….., and are identified as ………………….. .
iii) Bases react with ………………….. to produce a salt and
iv) Bases turn phenophthalein into ………………….. colour.
Answer:
2. i) bitter, soapy (slippery) to touch
ii) electricity, electrolytes
iii) acids, water
iv) pink

Match the following :

Answer:
3. a – 4,
b – 5,
c – 1,
d – 2,
e – 3.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The colour of methyl orange indicator in acidic medium is
A) yellow
B) green
C) orange
D) red
Answer:
D) red

2. The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in basic solution is
A) yellow
B) green
C) pink
D) orange
Answer:
C) pink

3. Colour of methyl orange in alkali conditions
A) orange
B) yellow
C) red
D) blue
Answer:
B) yellow

4. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
A) 1
B) 4
C) 5
D) 10
(OR)
If a solution converts red litmus into blue colour, then its pH value is …………….. .
A) 1
B) 4
C) 5
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

5. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky, the solution contains …………….. .
A) NaCl
B) HCl
C) LiCl
D) KCl
Answer:
B) HCl

6. If a base dissolves in water, by what name is it better known?
A) neutralization
B) basic
C) acid
D) alkali
Answer:
D) alkali

7. Which of the following substances when mixed together will produce table salt?
A) Sodium thiosulphate and sulphur dioxide
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
C) Chlorine and oxygen
D) Nitric acid and sodium hydrogen carbonate
Answer:
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide

8. What colour would hydrochloric acid (pH = 1) turn universal indicator?
A) Orange
B) Purple
C) Yellow
D) Red
Answer:
D) Red

9. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
A) antibiotic
B) analgesic
C) antacid
D) antiseptic
Answer:
C) antacid

10. What gas is produced when magnesium is made to react with hydrochloric acid?
A) hydrogen
B) oxygen
C) carbon dioxide
D) no gas is produced
Answer:
A) hydrogen

11. Which of the following is the most accurate way of showing neutralization?
A) Acid + base → acid-base solution
B) Acid + base → salt + water
C) Acid + base → sodium chloride + hydrogen
D) Acid + base → neutral solution
Answer:
B) Acid + base → salt + water

10th Class Chemistry 1st Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 25

Question 1.
Is the substance present in antacid tablet acidic or basic?
A. The substance present in antacid tablet is basic.

Question 2.
What type of reaction takes place in stomach when an antacid tablet is consumed?
mrearx
A. Neutralization reaction takes place in stomach when an antacid tablet is consumed.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 26

Question 3.
You are provided with three test tubes containing distilled water, an acid and a base solution respectively. If you are given only blue litmus paper, how do you identify the contents of each test tube?
Answer:
I know that acid turns blue litmus to red. With the help of this test I can find the acid. Distilled water and base don’t do so. Thus I identify each.

Question 4.
Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? How will you test for the presence of this gas?
Answer:
Usually acids generate hydrogen gas on reacting with metals.

Test: When a burning splinder is brought near to the collected gas (H₂), it puts off with a pop sound.
This test proves that the gas is H₂.

Question 5.
A compound of a calcium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle ; turns lime water milky. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Answer:
Equation is : CaCO₃ + 2 HCl → CaCl₂ + CO₂ + H₂O

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 30

Question 6.
Why do HCl, HNO₂ etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Answer:
HCl, HNO₃, etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solutions as they liberate H⁺ ions. But alcohol and glucose don’t liberate H⁺ ions. So, they do not show acidic character.

Question 7.
While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
Answer:
1) If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns.
2) The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 33

Question 8.
What will happen if the pH value of chemicals in our body increases?
Answer:
When pH value of chemicals in our body increases then the body will effect by some problems. They are
1) Digestion problems raise in the stomach.
2) pH changes as the cause of tooth decay.

Question 9.
Why do living organism have narrow pH range?
Answer:
Because increasing acidity is thought to have a range of possibly harmful consequences such as depressing metabolic rate and immune response in some organisms and causing coral bleaching

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts Activities

Activity – 1

Question 1.
Observe the change in colour in each case and tabulate the results in the table.
Answer:
Procedure:
1) Collect the following samples from the science laboratory ;
i) Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
ii)Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄)
iii) Nitric acid (HNO₃)
iv) Acetic acid (CH₃COOH)
v) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
vi) Calcium hydroxide[Ca(OH)₂]
vii) Magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)₂]
viii) Ammonium hydroxide(NH₄OH)
ix) Potassium hydroxide (KOH)
2) Prepare dilute solutions of the respective substances.
3) Take four watch glasses.
4) Put one drop of the first solution in each one of them and test the solution as follows.
i) Dip the blue litmus paper in the first watch glass.
ii) Dip the red litmus paper in the second watch glass.
iii) Add a drop of methyl orange to the third watch glass.
iv) Add a drop of phenolphthalein to the fourth watch glass.

Observation :
Observe the respective colour changes and note down in the chart below.

1. What do you conclude from the observations noted in the above table? (AS1)
Answer:
Conclusion : Acids turn blue litmus to red and bases turn red litmus to blue. Acids turn phenolphthalein to colourless and bases turn pink. Acids turn methyl orange to red and bases turn methyl orange to yellow.

2. Identify the above sample as acidic or basic solution. (AS4)
Answer:
Acids : HCl, H₂SO₄, HNO₃, CH₃COOH.
Bases : NaOH, KOH, Mg(OH)₂, NH₄OH, Ca(OH)₂.

Activity -2

Question 2.
What are Olfactory indicators? Write an activity to prove them.
(OR)
What is the name given to a substance which identifies an acid or base by virtue of smell? Write an activity to prove the fact with an example.
Answer:
Olfactory Indicators : There are some substances whose odour changes in acidic or basic media. These are called olfactory indicators.
Activity :
Aim : To check the olfactory indicator.
Required materials :
1) Onions
2) Knife
3) Plastic bag
4) Clean clothes.

Procedure :
1) Take some onions and finely chop them.
2) Put the chopped onions in a plastic bag along with some clean cloth.
3) Tie up the bag tightly and keep it overnight in the fridge.
4) Then remove onions from fridge and add some base. We observe it loses its smell. Observation : Check the odour of the cloth strips.

Result: It is used as the basic indicator.

LAB ACTIVITY Reaction of Acids with metals

Question 3.
Write an experiment showing the reaction of acids with metals. (AS3)
(OR)
Ramu added acid to active metal then what is the gas which has been liberated. What are the apparatus required to prove the experiment. Write the experimental acitivity.
(OR)
Write the required material and experimental procedure for the experiment, “Hydrochloric acid reacts with ‘Zn’ pieces and liberates H₂“.
Answer:
Aim : To show the reaction of acids with metals.

Required Materials :

1. Test tube
2. Delivery tube
3. Glass trough
4. Candle,
5. Soap water
6. Dil. HCl
7. Zinc granules
8. One holed rubber stopper
9. Retard stand

Experimental procedure :

1. Take some zinc granules in a test tube and arrange the test tube to the retart stand.
2. Fix a delivery tube to the rubber stopper and immerse the second end of the delivery tube into the soap water.
3. Add about 10 m/ of dilute hydrochloric acid to Zn granules and fix rubber stopper to the test tube.
4. Evolved gas forms bubbles in soap water.
5. Bring a lightened candle near to the gas bubbles. We can observe the burning of gas bubble with pop sound.

Result: We can conform that the evolved gas is hydrogen.
Chemical reaction:
Acid + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen
2Hcl_(aq) + Zn_(s) → Zncl_2(aq) + H_2(g)

Additional Experiment :

• Repeat the above experiment with H₂SO₄ and HNO₃.
• We observe the same observation of the HCL experiment.

Conclusion : From the above activities we can conclude that when acid reacts with metal, H₂ gas is evolved.

Activity – 3 Reaction of Bases with metals

Question 4.
Write an activity to show the reaction of bases with metals.
(OR)
Write an activity which proves certain bases produce hydrogen gas when they react with metals.
Answer:
Aim : To show the reaction of bases with metals.

Required Materials :

1. Test tube,
2. Delivery tube
3. Glass trough
4. Candle
5. Soap water
6. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) Solution
7. Zinc granules
8. One holed rubber stopper

Procedure :

1. Set the apparatus as shown in figure.
2. Take about 10 ml of dilute Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution in a test tube.
3. Add a few granules of zinc metal to it.
4. We will observe formation of gas bubbles on the surface of granules.
5. The gas will pass through delivery tube evolved from soap solution as bubbles.
6. Bring burning candle near the gas filled bubble.
7. The gas in the bubble puts off the candle with pop sound.

Result: The evolved gas is hydrogen.

Chemical reaction :
Base + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen

Note : It is better to use cone. NaOH solution for this reaction.

Activity – 4 Reaction of carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates with Acids

Question 5.
Write an activity to show that all metal carbonates and hydrogen carbonates react with acids to give a corresponding salt. (AS3)
Answer:
Aim : To show that all metal carbonates and hydrogen carbonates react with acids to give a corresponding salt.

Required Materials :

1. Two test tubes
2. Sodium Carbonate (Na₂CO₃)
3. Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate (NaHCO₃)
4. Two holed rubber stopper
5. Thistle funnel
6. Stand
7. Dilute hydrochloric acid
8. Delivery tube
9. Calcium Carbonate (in a test tube)

Procedure :

1. Take a test tube A with 0.5 gm of sodium carbonate.
2. Close the test tube A with two holed rubber cork.
3. Insert a thistle funnel through one hole and insert a delivery tube through the other hole.
4. Pour 2 ml of dilute HC/ to the test tube A.
5. Do the same as above with test tube B with sodium hydrogen carbonate.

Observation :
Carbon dioxide is released from test tube A and B. Passing CO₂ gas through Ca(OH)₂ solution

Chemical Reaction :
Na₂CO_3(s) + 2 HCl_(aq) → 2 NaCl_(aq) + CO_2(g) + H₂O_(l)
Metal Carbonate + Acid → Salt + Carbon dioxide + Water

NaHCO_3(s) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + CO_2(g) + H₂O_(l)
Metal Hydrogen Carbonate + Acid → Salt + Carbon dioxide + Water

Result : All metal carbonates and hydrogen carbonates react with acids to give a corresponding salt.

Activity – 5 Neutralization reaction

Question 6.
Write an activity to find the change of colour in the reaction of an acid with a base (Neutralization) reaction. (AS3)
(OR)
Explain neutralization reaction with an activity.
Answer:
Aim : To test the change of colour in the reaction of an acid with a base.

Required Materials :

1. 2 ml of dilute NaOH (Sodium Hydroxide) solution.
2. Phenolphthalein indicator solution.
3. dilute HCl (Hydrochloric) solution.

Procedure :

1. Take about 2 ml of dilute NaOH solution in a test tube.
2. Add two drops of phenolphthalein indicator solution.

Observation (i) :

1. It turns to red or pink colour.
2. It shows that NaOH is a base.

Experiment (1) : Add dilute HCl solution to the above solution drop by drop.
Observation (ii) : Pink colour disappears due to the reaction of NaOH (base) with HCl (acid).

Experiment (2) : Now add one or two drops of NaOH to the above mixture.
Observation (iii) : Pink colour reappears on adding NaOH.
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O
base + acid → salt + water
Result: This reaction is called a neutralization reaction.

Activity – 6 Reaction of metallic oxides with acids

Question 7.
Write an activity to show that metal oxide reacts with acid is a neutralization. (AS3)
(OR)
How can you prove metallic acids are basic in nature?
Answer:
1) Take a small amount of copper oxide (CuO) in a beaker.
2) Add dilute HCl slowly while stirring.
3) Copper oxide dissolves in dilute HCl and the solution becomes blueish green colour due to the formation of copper (II) chloride.

Equation : Metal oxide + Acid → Salt + Water
Result: This reaction is same as the reaction of base with acid, (neutralization)

Question 8.
Write an activity to show that non-metallic oxide reacts with base is a neutralization.
Answer:
1) Take a small amount of calcium hydroxide (base).
2) Add CO₂ into it.
3) Salt and water are produced.
Equation : Non-metallic oxide + Base → Salt + Water
Result: It is a neutralization reaction.

Question 9.
Repeat the activity – 7 using alkalis such as sodium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide solutions, etc. instead of acid solutions.
i) Does the bulb glow?
Answer:
Yes, the bulb will glow.

ii) What do you conclude from the results of this activity?
Answer:
Basic solutions are also good conductors of electricity due to released OH^– ions.

iii) What happens to an acid or a base in aqueous solution?
Answer:
Acids produce H⁺ ions and bases produce OH^– ions in aqueous solutions.

iv) Do acids produce ions only in aqueous solution?
Answer:
Yes.

Activity – 8

Question 10.
Do acids produce ions only in aqueous solution? Prove it. (AS3)
(OR)
Acids produce ions only in aqueous solution. Justify your answer with an activity.
Answer:
Procedure :

1. Take about 1.0 g of solid NaCl in a clean and dry test tube.
2. Add some concentrated sulphuric acid to the test tube. .

Observation :

1. A gas comes out of the delivery tube.
2. If we test the gas with dry and wet blue litmus paper, there is no change in colour.

Chemical equation : 2 NaCl_(s) + H₂SO_4(l) > 2 HCl + Na₂SO_4(s)

Conclusion :

1. We can conclude that dry HCl gas (hydrogen chloride) is not an acid.
2. Because we have noticed that there is no change in colour of dry litmus paper.
3. But HCl aqueous solution is an acid because wet blue litmus paper turned into red.

Activity – 9 Reaction of water with acids or bases

Question 11.
Write an activity to show that dissolving of an acid in water is an exothermic process (or) endothermic process. (AS3)
(OR)
What do you observe when water is mixed with acid or base?
Answer:
Experiment :

1. Take 10 ml water in a beaker.
2. Add a few drops of concentrated H₂SO₄ to it and swirl the beaker slowly.
3. Touch the base of the beaker.
4. The base is hot.
5. Do this experiment with other concentrated acids like HCl, HNO₃ Result: This is an exothermic process called dilution.

Activity -10 Strength of acid or base

Question 12.
Write an activity to know whether the acid is strong or weak. (AS3)
Answer:

1. Take dilute HCl in a beaker.
2. Close it with a cardboard and introduce two different colour electrical wires through the holes made on it.
3. Connect a bulb and make the connection as shown in the figure.
4. Do the same replacing dilute HCl with dilute CH₃COOH (acetic acid).

Observation :
The bulb glows brightly in HCl solution, while the bulb’s intensity is low in acetic acid solution.

Result:
More ions are present in HCl solution which is a strong acid than in CH₃COOH solution which is a weak acid.

Activity – 11

Question 13.
Test the pH value of solution given in table. Record your observations. What is the nature of each substance on the basis of your observations?
Answer:

Activity – 12

Question 14.
Write an activity to check the colour change in dilute HCl and antacid solution in addition of methyl orange. (AS3)
Answer:
Procedure :

1. Take dilute HCl in a beaker.
2. Add two to three drops of methyl orange indicator to it.
3. The solution colour turns to red.
4. Now take the same solution and mix antacid tablet powder.

Observation :
Check the colour change.

Result:
The colour of the solution turns to light yellow.

Chemical equation:
2 HCl + Mg(OH)₂ → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O

Activity – 13

Question 15.
How can we test the pH value of the soil? (AS3)
Answer:

1. Take about 2g of soil in a test tube.
2. Add 5 ml water to it.
3. Shake it well.
4. Filter the content.
5. Collect the filtrate in a test tube.
6. Add 2 drops of universal solution to it.
7. Observe the colour.
8. Compare the colour with strip colour on the bottle and find the pH value.
9. In this way we can test the pH of the soil.

Activity – 14

Question 16.
Write the formulae of the following salts and classify them as families based on radicals.
Potassium Sulphate, Sodium Sulphate, Calcium Sulphate, Magnesium Sulphate, Copper Sulphate, Sodium Chloride, Sodium Nitrate, Sodium Carbonate and Ammonium Chloride. (AS4)
Answer:

Sodium family : Na₂SO₄, NaCl, NaNO₃, Na₂CO₃, etc.
Family of chloride salts : NaCl, NH₄Cl, etc.
Family of sulphate salts : K₂SO₄, Na₂SO₄, CaSO₄, MgSO₄, CuSO₄, etc.
Family of carbonate salts : Na₂CO₃ MgCO₃ CaCO₃, etc.

Question 17.
Identify the acids and bases from which they are obtained. (AS4)
Answer:

Activity – 15 pH of Salts

Question 18.
Collect the salt samples like sodium chloride, aluminium chloride, copper sulphate, sodium acetate, ammonium chloride, sodium hydrogen carbonate and sodium carbonate. Dissolve them in distilled water. Check the action of these solutions with litmus papers. Find the pH using pH paper (universal indicator. Classify them into acidic, basic or neutral salts. Identify the acid and base used to form the above salts. Record your observations in table. (AS4)
Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 2 Ideas of Development.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development

10th Class Social 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State reason for protesting against the establishment of Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Kudankulam people have protested on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
2. They also want their coast and country protected from the radio active peril.

Question 2.
Why did the people oppose the establishment of Kudankulam Nuclear Power project in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
On the grounds of safety, security and livelihood, the people protested against the project.
(OR)
To protect their cost from radio active peril people opposed it.

Question 3.
Observe the following table and answer the questions a, b, c and d.
Answer:

a) Which two countries have more average schooling years?
Answer:
Norway, America.

b) Which two Asian countries have better HDI rank than that of India?
Answer:
Srilanka, China.

c) Which countries are lacking behind to the average life expectancy of World?
Answer:
India, Bangladesh, Pakistan.

d) What are the reasons for having less average schooling in India, Bangladesh and Pakistan?
Answer:
The reasons for having less average schooling in India, Bangladesh and Pakistan are

1. Poverty,
2. More rural population,
3. No awareness with regard to literacy.

Question 4.
In the context of development, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are conflicting. Give one example for this.
Answer:
Example – 1: To get more electricity industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people such as the tribals who are dis-placed.
Example – 2: A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work. But brother may not like this.

Question 5.
What idea is the poster promoting?

Answer:
Importance of Education.

Question 6.
State any two goals of development other than income.
Answer:
Equal treatment, freedom, security and respect from others.

Question 7.
What is HDI?
Answer:
The index developed for comparing coun¬tries for measuring human development is called HDI (Human Development Index). It generally includes income, educational levels and health status of the people.

Question 8.
What is per capita income?
Answer:
Per capita income is “the total income of the country divided by its total population”.

Question 9.
Expand IMR.
Answer:
Infant Mortality Rate.

Question 10.
Which organization publishes HDR?
Answer:
UNDP publishes Human Development Report.

Question 11.
What is the main criteria for comparing the development of different countries?
Answer:
The main criteria for comparing the development of different countries are per capita income, life expectancy, average years of schooling, expected years of schooling, etc.

Question 12.
What is health?
Answer:
Health means a state of couple soundness – physical and mental.

Question 13.
Why do people look at a mix of goals?
Answer:
People look at a mix of goals for development.

Question 14.
Why are dams opposed?
Answer:
Dams are opposed because they will disrupt the lives of the people and submerge their own lands.

Question 15.
How are the women who work outside the homes?
Answer:
Women who work outside the homes are economically independent and self¬confident.

Question 16.
What is adult literacy rate?
Answer:
The rate of percentage of people aged 15 and above, who can understand, read and write a short and simple statement in their regional languages is known as adult literacy rate.

Question 17.
What is the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries?
Answer:
Average income is the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries.

Question 18.
Explain the calculation of BMI.
Answer:
BMI can be calculated by dividing the total weight of a person by the square of his height.

Question 19.
What is educational development?
Answer:
Education attained by the people of a country on an average basis is referred as educational development.

Question 20.
What isthe percentage of population living in the rural India?
Answer:
70% of the Indian population is living in rural India.

Question 21.
What is Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
The rate at which children in a country die within an age of 0-1 year is known as “Infant Mortality Rate.”

Question 22.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
Land, Labour, Capital and Enterprise are the four factors of production.
Technology is also added to the factors of production.

Question 23.
How is the standard of living measured?
Answer:
Standard of living is measured by real GDP per capita.

Question 24.
What is development?
Answer:
Development refers to progress or improvement in lifestyle.

Question 25.
What is PDS?
Answer:
PDS is a system to distribute ration to the poor at a reasonable rate through govern¬ment ration shops. PDS – Public Distribution System.

Question 26.
A girl from a rich urban family has some development goals for her. State any one such goal.
Answer:
She can get as much freedom as a boy has.

Question 27.
Write any one advantage of public facilities.
Answer:
It develops national feelings and a sense of collective responsibility. Reduces expenditure.

Question 28.
What is NAR?
Answer:
Net Attendance Rate: Out of the total num¬ber of children in age group 6-17, the per¬centage of children attending schools.

Question 29.
Which is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing coun¬tries?
Answer:
Income is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing countries.

Question 30.
Which is not a useful measure for comparison between countries?
Answer:
Total income is not such a useful measure for comparison between countries.

Question 31.
What are called developed countries?
Answer:
The rich countries, excluding countries of West Asia and certain other small countries, are generally called developed countries.

Question 32.
Why, in some areas, children, particularly girls are not able to achieve secondary level schooling?
Answer:
Due to social restrictions imposed on girl child i.e., gender bias.

Question 33.
Why have some states lesser Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Some states have a lesser Infant Mortality Rate because they have adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities.

Question 34.
What is the major consideration of Himachali women?
Answer:
One major consideration is that many Himachali women are themselves employed outside the home and hence show lesser gender bias.

Question 35.
How are the women who work outside the homes?
Answer:
Women who work outside the home are economically independent and self-confident.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you learn from the schooling revolution in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Both the government and the people of Himachal Pradesh were keen on education.
2. They started many schools.
3. They made sure that education was largely free.
4. They allocated a good share to education in the government budget.
5. They tried to ensure that the schools had all the facilities.
6. Most of the students enjoy their schooling experience.

Question 2.
People generally do not like to work in unorganised sector. Why?
Answer:

1. Unorganised sector is largely outside the control of the government.
2. Rules and regulations are often not followed.
3. Jobs are not regular.
4. Jobs are low paid.
5. It is difficult to avail the leaves.
6. No provision for paid leave.
7. Job is not secure.
8. Working conditions are generally poor.
9. No safety measures followed in work places.
10. Health hazards would be there.
11. No insurance
12. No welfare schemes.

Question 3.
Give examples of the criterion for the measurement of human development.
Answer:
The examples of the criterion for the measurement of human development:

1. Per capita income
2. The education levels of people and health status.
3. Standard of life of the people
4. Availability of electricity
5. Transportation
6. Sanitation facilities
7. Expected years of schooling
8. Average years of schooling, etc.
   Ex: Sri Lanka, one of our neighbours is much ahead of India in every respect.

Question 4.
What are the different indicators in which development is measured? Which one do you agree with ?
Answer:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling 4) Expected years of schooling
4. Life expectancy at birth 6) Health status
5. Employment status 8) Equal distribution
6. I agree with all the above things because those are useful for measuring the complete development.

Question 5.
Give examples for different persons can have different developmental goals.
Answer:

Question 6.
What do the people desire other than income?
Answer:
People desire the following other than income.

1. Equal treatment
2. Freedom
3. Security
4. Respect from others.

Question 7.
Prepare a pamphlet on making mahila mandals active in villages.
Answer:
Mahila Mandals are voluntary service organizations that work for the betterment of women in the villages of India. To better their life the village women should have their say in the active involvement of Mahila Mandals’ activities. Active Mahila Mandals can be found In many villages. Suggestions to make Mahila Mandals active in the villages:

• First priority should be given to girl education and to eradicate illiteracy.
• Vocational training and credit facilities to women for self-employment should be provided.
• Mahila Mandals should collectively work for the betterment of women who need nutrition, education and family welfare.
• They should help the women in immunization of children, small savings, provision of bathrooms, women crafts centres and balwadis.
• They should work towards the elimination of discrimination, inequality, intolerance, and violence-both, within and outside the home.
• They should have comparatively high involvement in social life and village politics.

The government should provide basic equipment and stationery, etc. to the Mahila Mandals. It should create awareness among women regarding the Mahila Mandals.

Women empowerment leads to a strong nation.

Copies: 2000

Surya Printers.

Question 8.
What is Development ? Why do different people have different developemntal goals? Explain with two Examples.
Answer:
Meaning of Development:

1. Growth plus change is called development. .
2. All the persons may not have the same notion of development or progress.
3. Each one of them seeks different things.
   Examples:
   i) A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work.
   ii) To get more electricity, industrialists, may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced as the tribals.

Question 9.
Create a few slogans on promoting girl education.
Answer:

1. Girl with education – helpful to the family.
2. Educate a girl – she educates a family.
3. Encourage girl education – save the nation.
4. An educated girl – serves the nation well.
   (Students can sit together and discuss to prepare a few slogans of their own.)

Question 10.
Observe the following table and prepare a paragraph on it.
Answer:
Progress in Himachal Pradesh
The comparison across two different years is indicative of development that has happened. Clearly, there has been greater development in schooling and spread of education in Himachal Pradesh than India as a whole. Though there is still a lot of difference in the average levels of education among boys and girls, i.e., across genders, there has been some progress towards greater equal¬ity in the recent years.

Question 11.
Why was it necessary for government to run schools in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:
The rich children can get the education in private sector schools. But the majority of Indian chil¬dren are enrolled in the government schools. Education has also been made free for children from 6 to 14 years of age or up to VIII class under the R.T.E. Act 2009. So, it was necessary for government to run schools in Himachal Pradesh.

Question 12.
‘Human development is the essence of social development’ – Explain.
Answer:

1. Human development focuses on the people.
2. It is concerned with the well-being of the people, their needs, choices and aspirations. All these help in building a right kind of society.
3. It is all about the enlarging or widening the choices for the people. It is the building of human capabilities, such as education, information and knowledge, to have opportunities of livelihood.
4. Human development focuses on the expansion of basic choices.

Question 13.
‘Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well.’ Explain.
Answer:

1. Even though per capita income is high in many states, education and health facilities are still lacking.
2. Money or high per capita income cannot buy a pollution-free environment or good health.
3. Money cannot buy peace and democracy.

10th Class Social 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the following table and answer the questions that given below.
(a) What do you mean by literacy rate?
Answer:
The number of literates per every 100 persons in the population is known as literacy rate.

(b) In which state the net attendance is highest?
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh.

(c) What could be the reason for the highest, Literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Both the government of Himachal Pradesh and the people of the state were keen on education.
2. The government started schools and made sure that education was largely free, or costs very little for parents.
3. Further, it tried to ensure that these schools had at least the minimum facilities of teach¬ers, classrooms, toilets, drinking water, etc.

(d) In which state the IMR is least?
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph :
“In many parts of the country, girls’ are still given less priority by parents compared to boys.”
Comment on the gender bias in India.
Answer:

1. Ours is a male-dominated society.
2. Female literacy rate is low.
3. Women who work outside their homes are less in number.
4. Traditionally, in our society, women have less involvement in social life.
5. Because of all these reasons, gender bias is still continuing.
6. This is a hurdle for the development of society.
7. Boys and girls should be treated equally.

Question 3.
“We should be able to integrate environmental concerns with the idea of progress”. Explain.
Answer:

1. We must show concern on environmental issues while achieving development.
2. The environmental source function will deplete while using the sources in a speedy way.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit, it will cause long-term damage to the environment.
4. The big projects may harm bio-diversity.
5. Use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in modern agriculture leads to a big loss to the environment.
6. The fuel used as a part of industrial development causes a lot of air pollution.
7. Ground water levels are being depleted.
8. Deforestation is being occurred.
9. The rights of low-income countries, future generations also should be viewed.

Question 4.
Plot the below information on a bar graph. Write your observation.

Answer:
Observation:
As Himachal Pradesh has high literacy rate, it can be considered as developed state.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and comment.
In many parts of the country, girls’ education is still given less priority by the parents as compared to boys’ education. While girls may study for a few years, they may not complete their schooling.
Answer:
According to this paragraph two things are clearly mentioned that there is a gender bias with regard to giving education to boys and girls among the people of the country and the second one is only the Himachali Pradesh Government is concentrating on girl education.
My opinion on these two issues is that the gender bias was there once in the society. As there is a vast awareness in the parents they send their daughters to the schools in many places. Even a rickshaw puller also wants to make his daughter study in a school.
He hopes his daughter becomes a professional. The parents are interested to send their children to English medium schools irrespective of their income and status. It shows their interest. A little bit fear about girls is there among them because of other reasons. They are afraid of the safety of their daughters. Just like in Himachal Pradesh other states are also spending much amount on education and schooling. It is accepted that the Himachal Pradesh state has taken the step earlier. I don’t say that other states are not taking steps to improve the conditions of schools for providing good education for the girls.
It is a sensitive issue and it is to be taken seriously to bring awareness among people to make their daughters admit in schools and the governments should consider the problems of girls in schools. Sufficient toilets and other facilities are to be provided so as to enroll all the girls in schools.

Question 6.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.
Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2013

1. Which country stands ahead of India in all aspects in HDI ?
   Answer:
   The country Sri Lanka stands ahead of India in all aspects in HDI.
2. Mention the aspects that are considered in making Human Development Index.
   Answer:
   1. Percapita income
   2. Literacy Rate
   3. Average years of schooling
   4. Expected years of schooling
   5. Life expectancy at birth
   6. Health status, etc. are the aspects considered in making Human Development Index.
3. Name the country that has the lowest per capita income.
   Answer:
   The country Nepal has the lowest per capita income.
4. Give two suggestions for the improvement of the rank of India in HDI.
   Answer:
   1. Education should be improved and more skill development centres should be established.
   2. The poor and needy people should be provided cheap and better health facilities.

Question 7.
Observe the given table and analyse the HDI data of India and its neighbours.
Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2016

Answer:
The given table is about Human Development data of India and some of the neighbouring countries pertaining to 2016. In this table per capita income in dollars, life expectancy at birth and literacy rate are considered and HDI Ranking is given. In per capita income Sri Lanka stands high and in the same of life expectancy but in literacy Myanmar is better than Srilanka. Pakistan is very poor in literacy rate and so Bangladesh. These countries do not show interest on literacy. In over all ranking Srilanka stands well, Pakistan’s ranking is least. Countries should concentrate on what (the people need proper medication, medical facilities to the poorer people, wide availabiltiy of
104,108 services are essential in rural areas. In Telangana to some extent these services are provided. Each one teach one programme is to be maintained so that all people will be literated. Schooling should be strengthened. Per capita income should be spent on Health facilities and education. Priorities are to be set first and proper planning for its implementation is essential. So that countries can be developed.

Question 8.
Read the text and interpret it.
The ongoing protest over the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project in theTirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu is one such conflict. The government of India set up the nuclear power plant in this quiet coastal town of fisher folks. The aim is to generate nuclear power to meet the growing energy needs of the country. The people in the region have protested on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
Answer:

1. The Government of India is going on with the Nuclear Power Project of the Kundankulum.
2. The aim of the project is to generate nuclear power to meet the growing energy needs of the people.
3. The fisher folks of this area are protesting against the project on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
4. Hence the ideas on development are different for different people.
5. Development for one may not be the development for other.
6. Here the ideas on development of government is conflicting with the interests of the local people.

Question 9.
Read the following text and state your opinion on it.

Human Development Report

When we realise that even though the level of income is important, it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criteria but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Punjab, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita Income.

Answer:

1. The income is not the correct criteria to measure the level of development.
2. Most of the time it hides disparities.
3. So we begin to think of another criterion.
4. There could be a long list of criteria.
5. We selected some such as “health and education”.
6. Health and Education indicators were used to compare Punjab and Kerala.
7. Human Development Report was published by UNDP.
8. The countries were compared on the basis of the education levels of the people, health status and per capita income.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
If you get a job in afar off place, you would try to consider many factors, apart from income.
This could be facilities for your family, working atmosphere or opportunity to learn. In another case, a job may give you less pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of security. Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job security and also leave no time for your family. This will reduce your sense of security and freedom.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph, people give preference to income as well as facilities.
2. They also want to spend time with their families.
3. They need job security and freedom. It is not possible in all the cases.
4. Many workers from India are migrating even to foreign countries for getting work so as to earn something for their livelihoods.
5. Some people are working in cities like Hyderabad by keeping their families at their hometowns.
6. They are losing the opportunity of spending their time with their families. Their living conditions are also not good.
7. Many of them are leading sedentary life. In some cases pay is less but job is secure. In some other cases payment may be high but job security is not there.
8. Whatever it is, I am coming to the conclusion that there are many factors that affect livelihoods.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
When we looked at Individual aspirations and goals, we found that people not only think of better income but also have goals such as security, respect of others, equal treatment, freedom, etc. In mind. Similarly, when we think of a nation or a region, we may, besides average income, think of other equally important attributes.
Answer:

1. This paragraph is about the aspirations and goals of the individuals.
2. The people want their income and they want to be treated well.
3. Though the wages are well and good, they don’t want to be ill-treated.
4. Everyone in the society wants to live with dignity which our Constitution promises.
5. Many of the labourers are now looking towards prestige.
6. Some states in our country are getting more per capita income but they are lacking in providing other facilities to the people.
7. Nowadays schooling is very importing to its children.
8. For nations and states the literacy rate, net attendance rate, infant mortality rate are also considered in its development.
9. They have to provide schools, pollution-free atmosphere, unadulterated medicines, to its people for better living.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
In many parts of the country, girls’ education is still given less priority by parents compared to
boys’ education. While girls may study for a few classes, they may not complete their schooling.
A welcome trend in Himachal Pradesh is the lower gender bias. Himachali parents have ambitious educational goals for their girls, just as for their boys.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph two things are clearly mentioned that there is a gender bias with regard to giving education to boys and girls among the people of the country.
2. Only the Himachali Pradesh Government is concentrating on girl education.
3. My opinion on these two,issues is that the gender bias was there once in the society.
4. As there is a vast awareness in the parents they send their daughters to the schools in many
   places.
5. Even a rickshaw puller also wants to make his daughter study In a school.
6. He hopes his daughter becomes a professional.
7. The parents are interested to send their children to English medium schools Irrespective of their income and status.
8. It is a sensitive issue and it is to be taken seriously to bring awareness among people to make their daughters admitted in schools and the governments should consider the problems of girls in schools.
9. Sufficient toilets and other facilities are to be provided so as to enroll all the girls In schools.

Question 13.
Table: Read the following table and answer the following questions.
Some Comparative data of Selected States

1.  What does the table tell us?
   Answer:
   The table tells us about some comparative data of selected states.
2. What are the three states compared here?
   Answer:
   The three states compared are Punjab, Himachal Pradesh and Bihar.
3. What does IMR mean?
   Answer:
   IMR means Infant Mortality Rate.
4. Which state ranks best in literacy rate?
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh ranks best in literacy rate with 84%.
5. What is the Net Attendance Rate of Bihar in 2006?
   Answer:
   The Net Attendance Rate of Bihar in 2006 is 56.
6. What is the position of Punjab in 2011 with regard to literacy rate?
   Answer:
   The position of Punjab in 2011 with regard to literacy rate is next to Himachal Pradesh.
7. What is literacy rate?
   Answer:
   Literacy rate is that the percentage of literate people in the 7 and above years age group.
8. Why is the number of children below the age of 6 not considered for counting of Net Atten¬dance Rate?
   Answer:
   The children below the age of 6 do not go to school.
9. Which state ranks first when we consider the above data ?
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh ranks first.
10. How do you say Bihar is an underdeveloped state ?
    Answer:
    Bihar has high infant mortality rate i.e., 62. It has less literacy rate and Net attendance rate i.e., 64 and 56 respectively. Hence we can say Bihar is a backward state.

Question 14.
Study the table given and answer the following questions.
Table: Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2013

1. What is the table about?
   Answer:
   The table is about some data regarding India and its neighboring countries for 2013.
2. What is the life expectancy at birth in India?
   Answer:
   The life expectancy at birth in India is 65.8 years.
3. What components are considered in this table?
   Answer:
   The components considered in the table are per capita income, life expectancy at birth, aver¬age years of schooling, expected years of schooling and HDI.
4. Which country ranks best in HDI?
   Answer:
   Sri Lanka ranks best in HDI with 92nd rank.
5. Which country is lacking in expected years of schooling?
   Answer:
   Pakistan is lacking in expected years of schooling.
6. Per capita income is shown in some symbol. What does it mean?
   Answer:
   The symbol given means dollar.
7. Which country has the lowest average years of schooling?
   Answer:
   Nepal has the lowest average years of schooling.
8. What is the per capita income of India ?
   Answer:
   The per capita income of India is $ 3,285.
9. What is the lowest life expectancy at birth in the table?
   Answer:
   65.7 years is the lowest life expectancy at birth in the table.
10. What is the difference between expected years of schooling and average years of schooling
    for India?
    Answer:
    The difference between expected years of schooling and average years of schooling for India is 6.3 years.

Question 15.
By studying the given map answer the following questions.

1. Name two countries which have low income.
   Answer:
   Zimbabwe and Kenya are the two countries with low income.
2. Which two countries have very high income?
   Answer:
   USA and Canada are the two countries which have very high income.
3. Name two countries with high income.
   Answer:
   Brazil and Russia are the two countries with high income.
4. Which two countries have medium income?
   Answer:
   India and Egypt are the two countries which have medium income.

Question 16.
Prepare a pamphlet on Promoting Girl Education.
Answer:

PROMOTING GIRL EDUCATION

Girls and boys in the society are equal but many of the parents give less importance to girl education compared to boys. This treatment of girls and boys in different ways is called gender bias. Some parents feel that boy is income and girl is expenditure. After marriage also the in-law’s family of the bride normally gives very less importance to her education. This is the wrong notion that the people have. It is to be removed.
The notion is to be changed. Many women have come forward to discharge their duties in political, educational and administrative areas. They are proving that they can do everything. In education also many girls are getting good results and ranks. Their number in civil services and other competitive examinations is rapidly increasing. If a girl is educated, she can manage her family herself well.
She can educate her children.
Many women now are district collectors or police officers and administrative officers and a few banks are being run under the leadership of female authorities. Many departments are under their control. For many years it has been a custom that the women have to work at kitchen but it is disproved, if they were given choice to do something they can do it as we expected.
All the parents should send their daughters to schools to study. They should be given an opportunity to show their intellect. All the parents should understand that their notion is to be
changed and think positively about their daughters’ future.

Question 17.
Write a paragraph after reading the table.
Answer:
Comparison of two countries

According to this table in the country ‘A’, all the five persons are earning mostly equal monthly income. In the country ‘B’ the first four persons are earning only five hundred each but the fifth person is earning forty eight thousand rupees per month. If you are the fifth one it is OK but if you are one among the first four it will be worst to live in. If we consider the average, it will be the same as ten thousand per person per month. In these two countries the country A has more equitable distribution of income.
In many countries more income is there with a few persons. Many people in the countries are poor. They don’t have minimum amount of income for their livelihoods. In the above table the average income of the two countries is the same but in B it is not equally distributed. The Gross Domestic Product is to be distributed among the people of the country that means the poor also have to get their share in the country. The gap between the poor and the rich is to be removed and so the society of equality emerged.

Question 18.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu.
   Answer:
   Kudankulam
2. Schooling Revolution took place in the state.
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh
3. Draw the Indian standard time.
   Answer:
   82 1/2° E longitude.
4. Sahyadri Range.
5. Islands in Bay of Bengal.
   Answer:
   Andoman & Nicobar
6. Locate any one of Hill station.
   Answer:
   Nainital
7. River which is flowing through a rift valley.
   Answer:
   Narmada
8. The Hill Station located near Nilgiris.
   Answer:
   Ooty
9. The largest river in South India.
   Answer:
   Godavari
10. The largest river in India.
    Answer:
    Ganga

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Respiration – The Energy Releasing System Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 2nd Lesson Respiration – The Energy Releasing System

10th Class Biology 2nd Lesson Respiration – The Energy Releasing System Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Distinguish between
(a) Inspiration and Expiration
(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
(c) Respiration and Combustion
(d) Photosynthesis and Respiration
Answer:
(a) Inspiration and Expiration:

(b) Aerobic respiration and Anaerobic respiration:
(OR)
Respiration is energy-producing process in the organisms. It takes place both in the presence and absence of oxygen. Laxmi said there are some differences between the two processes. How do you support her?
Answer:

Aerobic respiration	Anaerobic respiration
1. It takes place in the presence of oxygen.	1. It takes place in the absence of oxygen.
2. In aerobic respiration, complete oxidation of glucose takes place.	2. In anaerobic respiration, the glucose molecule is incompletely oxidised.
3. End products are CO2 and water.	3. End products are either ethyl alcohol or lactic acid and CO2.
4. Lot of energy is liberated (38 ATP).	4. Relatively small energy is liberated (2 ATP).
5. It occurs in plant’s and animal’s cells.	5. Occurs in many anaerobic bacteria and human muscle cells.
6.	6.
7. It has two stages – Glycolysis and Krebs cycle.	7. It has two stages – Glycolysis and Fermentation.

(c) Respiration and Combustion:
(OR)
Even though both are oxidation processes, combustion and respiration are different in many aspects. Explain those differences.
(OR)
Combustion and respiration are oxidative processes but still there are differences between them. What are they?
(OR)
Write the differences between respiration and combustion.
Answer:

(d) Photosynthesis and Respiration:

Photosynthesis	Respiration
1. Occurs only in all plants and photo­synthetic bacteria.	1. Occurs in all living organisms.
2. Takes place in the presence of sunlight.	2. Takes place throughout day and night.
3. A plant can survive without performing photosynthesis for few days.	3. No organism can survive without respiration for few minutes even.
4. In plants, only few cells perform photosynthesis.	4. All living cells in an organism perform this process.
5. Raw materials are C02 and water.	5. Uses carbohydrates and oxygen.
6. Oxygen is liberated.	6. Carbon dioxide is released.
7. It occurs in chloroplast.	7. It takes place in cytoplasm and mitochondria.
8. Adds weight to the organism.	8. Decrease weight of the organism.
9. It is an anabolic process.	9. It is a catabolic process.
10.	10.

Question 2.
State two similarities between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Similarities between aerobic and anaerobic respiration:

1. Both are catabolic processes.
2. Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration takes place in all cells.
3. Energy is released in both the processes.
4. CO₂ is the end product of both processes.
5. First stage of both respiration is glycolysis.
6. Respiratory substances in both processes are glucose, fatty acids and amino acids.

Question 3.
Food sometimes enters the wind pipe and causes choking. How does it happen?
Answer:

1. Pharynx is the common passage of both air and food.
2. From here air enters into trachea and food enters into oesophagus.
3. Pharynx is connected to larynx through glottis a slit like opening.
4. A cartilagenous flap called EPIGLOTTIS act as a lid over glottis and prevents food from entering into trachea during swallowing.
5. Any food particles enters the trachea it causes chocking.
6. Sometimes the food particles are forced back by cough.

Question 4.
Why does the rate of breathing increase while walking uphill at a normal pace in the mountains? Give two reasons.
Answer:
The rate of breathing increases while walking uphill at a normal pace in the mountains.

1. It is because as we go up the hill above sea level the concentration of oxygen is greatly reduced. So we have to breathe more to get required amount of oxygen.
2. While walking uphill a lot of oxygen is used by our body to release energy from glucose.
3. This leads to lack of oxygen in the cells.
4. We take in oxygen when we breathe.
5. Hence to increase the amount of oxygen intake there is an increase in breathing rate during walking uphill.

Question 5.
Air leaves the tiny sacs in the lungs to pass into capillaries. What modification is needed in the statement?
Answer:

1. Gaseous exchange takes place within the lungs by diffusion from the alveoli to blood capillaries and vice versa.
2. The carbondioxide in the blood is exchanged for oxygen in alveoli.
3. This sentence may be modified as “Air that contains oxygen reaches the tiny sacs in the lungs to pass into capillaries.

Question 6.
Plants photosynthesize during daytime and respire during the night. Do you agree to this statement? Why? Why not?
Answer:

1. No, I do not agree with this statement. Plants photosynthesize during daytime only and respire during the daytime as well as night time also.
2. During daytime when photosynthesis occurs in the presence of sunlight. Oxygen is produced. The leaves use some of this oxygen for respiration and the rest diffuses into air.
3. During daytime CO₂ produced by respiration is all used up in photosynthesis by leaves.
4. At night time no photosynthesis occurs and oxygen diffuses into leaves to carryout respiration.

Question 7.
Why does a deep sea diver carry oxygen cylinder on his/her back?
Answer:

1. When we go deep into the sea, the oxygen level decreases. Oxygen is in dissolved state in water.
2. Humans are adapted for utilizing oxygen in gaseous state. They cannot use dissolved oxygen for breathing.
3. Only aquatic animals like fish can utilize the dissolved oxygen for breathing using gills.
4. Human beings have lungs for respiration. Therefore, sea divers have to carry oxygen cylinders in their back so as to receive oxygen.
5. If they do not carry them, they do not get oxygen and there is a chance even to die.

Question 8.
How are alveoli designed to maximise the exchange of gases?
Answer:
The human lungs have been designed to maximise the exchange of gases as follows.

1. The interior of lung is divided into millions of small chambers called alveoli.
2. The presence of millions of alveoli in the lungs provide a very large surface area.
3. If all alveoli of our lungs are spread out they will cover an area of nearly 160 m².
4. Availability of large surface area maximises the exchange of gases.

Question 9.
Where will the release of energy from the glucose in respiration take place? Mala writes lungs, while Jiya writes muscles. Who is correct and why?
Answer:

1. Respiration is the process of releasing energy from the breakdown of glucose.
2. Respiration takes place in every living cell, all the time.
3. All cells need to respire in order to produce the energy that they require.
4. During respiration the release of energy from the glucose takes place in muscles but not in lungs.
5. So Jiya is correct. The energy is released from the muscle cells during respiration. Only gaseous exchange takes place in lungs.

Question 10.
What is the role of epiglottis and diaphragm in respiration?
Answer:
Epiglottis:

1. Epiglottis, a flap like muscular valve controls movement of air and food towards their respective passages.
2. Epiglottis is partly closed when we swallow food and it opens more widely when we take a breath and air enters the lungs.
3. Epiglottis allows air pass through the larynx and the respiratory system.
   

Diaphragm :

1. The diaphragm in the respiratory system is the dome shaped sheet of muscle that separates the chest from the abdomen.
2. When the diaphragm contracts during inhalation it flattens out a bit. This results in the enlargement of the volume of the chest cavity.
3. This reduces the pressure in the lungs and air enters into lungs from outside the body.
4. During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and assumes its dome shape. This change increases the pressure on the lungs and squeezes the air through the nose to the atmosphere.
   

Question 11.
How does gaseous exchange take place at blood level?
Answer:

1. Lungs are made up of several thousands of small chambers called alveoli.
2. Within the alveoli, exchange of gases take place between the gases inside the alveoli and blood.
3. Blood arriving in the alveoli has higher CO₂ concentration which is produced during respiration by the body cells.
4. At the same time air in the alveoli has a much lower concentration of CO₂ and this allows the diffusion of CO₂ out of the blood and to alveolar air.
5. Similarly blood arriving in the alveoli has a lower oxygen concentration while air in the alveoli has a higher oxygen concentration.
6. Therefore oxygen moves into the blood by diffusion.
   

Question 12.
Explain the mechanism of gaseous exchange at bronchiole level.
Answer:

1. the trachea (wind pipe) is divided into two tubes called BRONCHI. As there are two lungs each bronchus (singular) enters the lungs on the same side.
2. In the lung, the bronchus divides into smaller and smaller branches called BRONCHIOLES which enters into each alveoli.
3. When oxygen from outside reaches the alveoli through bronchioles and the carbondioxide from alveoli moves out.
4. The inhaled air from outside enters into bronchioles through nostrils → nasal cavities → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchus.
5. The exhaled air from alveoli enters bronchioles → pharynx → nasal cavities → nostrils → outside.
   

Question 13.
After a vigorous exercise or work we feel pain in muscles. What is the relationship between pain and respiration?
Answer:

1. We obtain energy by oxidation of glucose molecule.
2. In the absence of oxygen (anaerobic respiration) glucose is converted to latic acid.
3. During vigorous exercise oxygen gets used up faster in the muscle cells that can be supplied by blood.
4. When oxygen supply is inadequate the muscles use energy released during the anaerobic breakdown of glucose.
5. The anaerobic respiration by muscles bring about partial breakdown of glucose to form lactic acid.
6. The accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles causes muscular pains or cramps.

Question 14.
Raju said, “Stems also respire along with leaves in plants”. Can you support this statement? Give your reasons.
Answer:
Yes. I support the statement of Raju that stems also respire along with leaves in plants.
The reasons are

1. The stems of herbaceous plants have stomata.
2. So the exchange of respiratory gases in the stems of herbaceous plants takes place through stomata.
3. The oxygen from air diffuses into the stem through stomata and reaches all the cells for respiration.
4. The carbon dioxide released during respiration diffuses out into the air through the stomata.
5. In woody stems the bark has lenticels for gaseous exchange. Through lenticels, oxygen diffuses in and carbon dioxide diffuses out into the air.
   

Question 15.
What happens if diaphragm is not there in the body?
Answer:

1. The lungs cannot draw in air or push it out by themselves. The chest wall muscles and the diaphragm helps the lungs in moving air into and out of them.
2. If diaphragm is not there in the body, we would not be able to breathe.
3. The diaphragm is the major muscle in the process of respiration.
4. It separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities.
5. In the absence of diaphragm, the relaxation and contraction of the chest wall muscles do not take place and thereby inspiration and expiration become difficult that leads to death of the person.

Question 16.
If you have a chance to meet pulmonologist, what questions are you going to ask about pulmonary respiration?
Answer:
If I have a chance to meet pulmonologist, I would like to ask the following questions:

1. What is pulmonary respiration?
2. What is the organ involved in pulmonary respiration?
3. What is the name of blood vessel that brings deoxygenated blood to lungs?
4. What is the name of the blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
5. Out of the two lungs which one is larger than the other?
6. What type of diagnostic test will be performed to assess the function of lungs?
7. What is pulmonary edema? How does it occur?
8. Can all the diseases of the lungs be cured permanently?

Question 17.
What procedure do you follow to understand anaerobic respiration in your school laboratory?
(OR) (Lab Activity)
Write the procedure and observations of the experiment which you have conducted in your laboratory to prove that CO₂ and heat are evolved during anaerobic respiration by using yeast.
(OR)
How do you prove that carbon dioxide is released during anaerobic respiration?
(OR)
How do yeast cells convert glucose solution to CO₂ and ethyl alcohol?
Answer:
Aim : To prove that CO₂ is released during anaerobic respiration.
Apparatus: Thermos flask, splitted corks, thermometer, wash bottle, glass tubes, liquid
paraffin, glucose solution, yeast cells, bicarbonate solution.
Procedure:

1. Remove dissolved oxygen from glucose solution by boiling it for a minute and then cooling it without shaking.
2. Now add some yeast to the glucose solution and fix a two-holed rubber stopper to the flask.
3. The supply of oxygen from the air can be cut off by pouring a 1cm layer of liquid paraffin into the mixture through the holes.
   
4. Insert one end of the thermometer into the thermos flask. See the mercury bulb of thermometer keep inside the solution.
5. Arrange for any gas produced by the yeast to escape through a wash bottle containing bicarbonate solution or lime water as shown in the figure.
6. Add a few drops of diazine green (Janus Green B) solution to the yeast suspension before you pour liquid paraffin over it.
7. The blue diazine green solution turns pink when oxygen is in short supply around it.
8. Warm the apparatus to about 37° F in order to speed up the test.
9. Keep the apparatus undisturbed for one or two days.

Observations :

1. After two days it can be observed that lime-water of the wash bottle turns into milky white precipitate.
2. Increase in temperature in thermometer.
3. Alcohol smell given off from the flask.

Result: These observations indicate that yeast cells respire anaerobically converting glucose solution into CO₂, ethyl alcohol and release heat energy.

Question 18.
What are your observations in the combustion of sugar activity?
Answer:
Observations in the combustion of sugar:

1. When sugar is heated, first it melts, chars and later burns producing flames.
2. When sugar is combusted, carbon dioxide and water are produced.
3. Energy is also released in the form of heat and it released at once.
4. We cannot control the combustion of sugar.
5. Intermediate products are not formed.
6. We can combust sugar in the absence of water and enzymes.
7. When combustion of sugar, heat energy is released into the atmosphere and we cannot store it for further use.

Question 19.
Collect information about cutaneous respiration in frog. Prepare a note and display them in your classroom.
(OR)
How does frog respire with the help of skin?
Answer:

1. Respiration through skin is called cutaneous respiration.
2. In frog, skin is an additional or secondary or accessory respiratory organ.
   
3. Skin is a very important respiratory organ in both on land and water.
4. One-third of the total oxygen taken up by frog is through the skin.
5. Frog also keeps its skin moist. Frog skin has a large number of mucous glands which secrete mucous onto the surface of the skin.
6. The mucous layer retains water and reduces evaporation of water from body.
7. To keep the skin wet and moist frogs jump into water very frequently.
8. Frog skin is supplied with a large number of blood vessels which help in absorbing oxygen from the water.
9. The carbon dioxide produced during to respiration, diffuses out into the water through the blood vessels present in the skin of the frog.