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SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 7th Lesson Industries in India Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 7th Lesson Industries in India

9th Class Social Studies 7th Lesson Industries in India Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Why government took up the responsibility to set up basic goods industries?
Answer:

• Basic industries produce essential goods that can form a base to support a large variety of factories.
• A huge amount of capital is required to set up basic goods industries.
• Moreover, it takes a long time to set up basic industries.
  E.g.: For setting up a power plant for the production of electricity, it would require five to ten years.
• Private industrial groups were not willing to invest in such industries.
• Hence the Government took up the responsibility to set up basic goods industries.

Question 2.
Why are industries located in specific areas?
Answer:

• All factories need raw materials from which goods can be produced.
• Transportation is needed to bring raw materials to factories and transfer finished goods from them.
• So industries are located in specific areas where raw materials like minerals are available.
• Industries are also concentrated where infrastructural facilities like transportation electricity, banking services, etc. are available.

Question 3.
What are the basic goods industries? How they are different from consumer goods industries?
Answer:

Question 4.
Give a list of towns/areas in which some conventional mineral resources are found and ask students to identify then possible industries which can be set up.

Answer:

Question 5.
Why government in 1990s allowed private industries in many areas which were earlier restricted only to government?
Answer:

• Indian industry as a result of government’s control was not modernizing fast and was producing goods at high cost and not making technological improvement.
• Government used to allocate a specifc amount every year to operate these industries.
• It was expected that these industries become independent, generate revenue for the government.
• But these government run factories continually require government assistance.
• Their functioning was much below that was expected.
• So, in the 1990s a new industrial policy was announced. Many activities which were earlier restricted only for the government are now allowed for the private industries.

Question 6.
What is the impact of industrial development on employment generation?
Answer:

• An important goal of industrial policies in India was to generate employment opportunities in industrial activities.
• Raising the proportion of people employed in factories is also generally seen as an important indicator of economic development of a country.
• Today nearly 2 lakh large factories and 3 crore small manufacturing units are operating in India.
• These units employ nearly about one-fifth of India’s 460 million workers.
• Number of employees generated in industrial section has increased from 11% in 1972-73 to 22 % in 2009-10.
• But large industries began to replace workers with technology. More and more automation has taken place.
• This has led to almost zero additional employment in large factrories.

Question 7.
What is the impact of industrial development on revenue?
Answer:

• When goods made in factories and exported to other countries, we get revenue.
• A few decades before, three-fourths of income from goods exported from manufacturing industries alone.
• Even today, nearly two-third of goods exports is contributed by industries and particularly small industries.
• Factory goods exported range from gems, jewellery, chemicals, cars, machinery, cashewnuts, etc.
• The money or foreign exchange earned in this process enable us to import from other countries a large number of goods that we want from other countries.

Question 8.
“Industrial activities increase environmental problems” Discuss.
Answer:

• The production process in industries involves the use of electricity and application of different chemicals.
• In the course of production, these industries release a lot of other materials. They are causing pollution in the industrial locations.
• The industrialization led to the indiscriminate exploitation of minerals, forests, soils, air, etc.
• It leads to deforestation and damages the natural habitat of animals.
• Underground water is being contaminated due to the release of wastes by the industries.
• Some animals are endangered and some creatures have become extinct.
• The depletion of ozone layer, pollution of water, air, soil has increased ecological problems.

Question 9.
Write a few slogans on the prevention of environment pollution.
Answer:

• We were born to help the world, not to destroy it.
• Only when the last tree has died, the last river has been poisoned and the last fish has been caught, will we realize that we cannot eat money?
• Save the environment and you will save the life and future.
• Hungry and the Earth will serve, Thirst and the seas will water I Do you still want to cut that all?
• Man made global warming, the biggest scan in the history of mankind to fulfil his greediness? Understood this or nature will teach you.
• Stop pollution – Stop global warming.

Question 10.
Read the para 3 of page 83 and comment on it.

Answer:
IT and electronics are the fast growing segments of Indian industry both in terms of production and exports. This sector is attracting considerable interest not only as a vast market but also as potential production base international companies.

In recent times, software development and IT enabled services have emerged as a niche opportunity for India in the global context.

The Government is taking all necessary steps to make India, a Global IT super power and a front runner in the age of information revolution. It earns a major share of foreign exchange.

Question 11.
Observe the map given on page 95 and locate the iron and steel plants in the India outline map.

Answer:

Question 12.
Select one agro-based and one mineral-based industry in your area.
i) What are the raw materials they use?
ii) What are the other inputs in the process of manufacturing that involve transportation costs?
iii) Are these factories following environmental norms?
Answer:
1. Agro-Based :
Nandini Foods.

2. Mineral Based :
Ramagundam Thermal Power Station

9th Class Social Studies 7th Lesson Industries in India InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can you make a list of products produced by factories for other factories? (Text Book Page No. 76)
Answer:

1. Moulds
2. Speakers
3. Spare parts
4. Tyres, Tubes, etc.

Question 2.
Have you seen machines used in a factory? Make a collage of different kinds of machines that are used. (Text Book Page No. 76)
Answer:
I have seen a welding factory.
Machines in the factory are :

1. arc welding
2. resistance welding
3. laser welding
4. electron bean welding
5. stud welding
6. orbital welding
7. wave soldering
8. hot dip brazing
9. torch brazing
10. indution brazing
11. ultrasonic
12. friction welding

Question 3.
Discuss what is meant by the word “basic”. What are the basic necessities for industries? (Text Book Page No. 76)
Answer:

• “Basic” means the things that are basically necessary.
• The basic necessities for setting up any industries are machines, electricity, minerals and ores and infrastructural facilities like transport, telephones, etc.

Question 4.
At the time of independence what were the objectives that were desired to be achieved through industrialization? (Text Book Page No. 76)
Answer:

• After 1947, India began many initiatives to promote industrial activities in the country.
• Major objectives were – to become self-sufficient in meeting our needs and to make the country an industrially developed nation.

Question 5.
Where should the sugar and jaggery mills be ideally located? (Text Book Page No. 80)
Answer:
The sugar and jaggery mills should be ideally located near the crop grown areas.

Question 6.
Where would it be economically viable to set up the cement manufacturing units? (Text Book Page No. 82)
Answer:
Cement manufacturing units can be established near the areas where the raw materials are available in bulk.
Raw materials : Limestone, silica, alumina, gypsum, coal and electric power and transportation facilities.

Question 7.
Can you point out some examples of increase in production of goods that are used in the production of many products by different factories? (Text Book Page No. 90)
Answer:

1. Steel
2. Engines
3. Cement
4. Bricks
5. Wood
6. Glass
7. Vegetables
8. Cotton, etc.

Question 8.
The industry has strategically located plants in Gujarat that have suitable access to the market in the Gulf countries. Find out where the plants are located in other states of India. Find their names. (Text Book Page No. 82)
Answer:

1. Nirman Cements Ltd – Bihar.
2. Grasim Cements Ltd – Madhya Pradesh
3. Sagar Cements – Telangana
4. The India Cements Ltd – Tamilnadu

Question 9.
Fill in the following table. For some industries, you may need to discuss with the teacher. (Text Book Page No. 84)

Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the following pie charts. (Text Book Page No. 87, 88)

a) What are the differences in employment in the three kinds of economic activities that you notice from these pie charts?
Answer:

• The employment generation in agricultural sector has been decreased from 74% in 1972-73 to 53% in 2009-10.
• The employment generation in industrial sector has been increased from 11% in 1972-73 to 22% in 2009-10.
• The employment generation in service sector has shown an increase of 10%.

b) What is the percentage of change in employment by industry?
Answer:
There is a 11% increase in employment generated by industry.

c) Did we expect to see a greater change in employment by industry that did not happen?
Answer:
1) Yes, we expected a greater change in employment by industry. But it did not happen.
2) Large industries began to replace workers with technology. More and more automation has taken place.
3) Hence it did not happen.

Question 11.
Look at the following Graph and answer the following question. (Text Book Page No. 89)

What has been the increase in production of cloth over the past 30 years? What would be the impact of this? Discuss in your class. (Text Book Page No. 90)
Answer:
1. The production of cotton cloth was 8000 million square metres approximately in 1980-81. The production went up to 15000 million square metres by 1990-91, to 19000 million square metres by 2000-01. The production has been increased to 31000 million square metres approximately by 2010-11.

2. The production of other cloth material was approximately 2500 million square metres in 1980-81 and that went up to 7000 million square metres by 1990-91, to 20000 million square metres by 2000-01 and to 30000 million square metres approximately
by 2010-11.

Question 12.
Refer the chart that shows the production of cement and steel construct a table to show the increase from 80-81 to present times. Discuss some positive and negative effect of this increase in production. (Text Book Page No. 90)

Answer:

The positive and negative effects of the increase in production :
1. The increase in the production of cement has positive impact on the development of our country. The infrastructural facilities like buildings, dams, roads etc., are increased due to the increase of production of cement.

2. Negative impact of cement production: The heating of limestone and clay may release mercury into the air which affects the health of the people and pollutes the ground water too.

Steel Production:
1. The increase in the production of steei has impact on the production of other goods, iike heavy tools and machines etc.

2. The steel factories release poisonous gases into the atmosphere and release waste into the streams causing air and water pollution.

Question 13.
Iron is the basic requirement for a large number of goods produced by various factories. Explain this with examples that you see around. (Text Book Page No. 76)
Answer:

• Iron is used in making steel, machinery, tools and weapons.
• Iron is also used in shipbuilding industry.
• Iron is also used for many other purposes in constructions and transport.

Question 14.
Make a chart to show how petroleum is the basic requirement for a large number of products. (Text Book Page No. 76)
Answer:
Petroleum or crude oil is a naturally occurring liquid found in the earth. It is refined and used to make so many products. The byproducts are Petrol, Diesel, Kerosene, etc.
It is used in:

1. Petrochemical industry
2. Plastic making
3. Lubricating oils
4. Fertilizers
5. Asphalt – which is used in road construction
6. Pesticides
7. Detergents
8. Photographic film
9. Artificial fibres, etc.

Question 15.
Why is the per capita consumption of steel so low in India? (Text Book Page No. 81)
Answer:

• India is the developing country, the process of development is a little bit slow than other developed countries.
• Economy plays a vital role in the development of India economy is good but not best.
• The steel industry has limited factories in our country.
• The production is also limited. So the per capita consumption of steel is low in India.

Question 16.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi lay emphasis on spinning yarn and weaving khadi? (Text Book Page No. 79)
Answer:

• To spend time usefully with some other work,
• To fight against foreign cloths imported,
• To encourage village industries,
• To insist that everyone learn to do his own work like making the yarn for his cloth and
• To lead a simple life and minimising the needs for living.

9th Class Social Studies 7th Lesson Industries in India Activity

Collect the wrappers of a tea packets and tooth paste. Read the wrappers carefully and try to relate to the question below. (Text Book Page No. 77)
Answer:
Student’s Activity

…………..(1)………….. can be considered as a product of agro based industry. …………..(2)………….. can be considered a product of mineral based industry.
Answer:
1) Tea,
2) Toothpaste

Raw material for the tooth paste…………..(1)………….. and …………..(2)…………..
industry. That industry is called key or basic industry. Whereas the tooth paste is a consumer goods and the industry producing such goods is called consumer goods industry.
Answer:
1) Flouride,
2) Calcium

The ownership of industries could be lying with individuals or groups of individuals such as …………..(1)………….. (for the tea packets) and …………..(2)………….. (tooth paste). Such an industry is called a private sector industry whereas if the ownership belongs to the government, it will be called as public sector industry. Two examples of public sector industries are …………..(3)………….. and …………..(4)…………..
Answer:
1) Brookebond,
2) Dabur (Red),
3) Bharat Dynamics Ltd,
4) BHEL Ltd.

Some industries are also owned by large number of people who supply raw materials (milk/sugarcane) or supply their labour (coir) pool their resources to run them. Such industries are called cooperative industries.

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 20th Lesson Democracy: An Evolving Idea Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 20th Democracy: An Evolving Idea

9th Class Social Studies 20th Lesson Democracy: An Evolving Idea Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
How does democracy produce an accountable, responsive, and legitimate government?
Answer:
1. Accountable :
Democracy produces a government that is accountable to all people, it is the basic outcome of democracy. It will produce a government that responds to the people.

2. Legitimate :
In a democracy, elections are conducted through which people select their representatives. If they do not react to their demands, they choose another representative in the next elections.

3. Responsive :
Democracy produces a government which responds to all the demands and needs of different people.

Question 2.
What are the conditions under which democracies accommodate social diversity?
Answer:

• In every society, there are people belonging to different religions, income groups, and using different languages.
• Democracy means that equal treatment is given to all the individual and that there should not be any discrimination on the basis of caste, gender, race, religion, or region.
• It accommodates all the social diversity by giving equal rights and freedoms to the people.
• In a democratic set up, people from socially weaker sections of the society are allowed to vote and choose their representatives in the government, and no particular religion or language is given any special preference.
• Also, women are given equal rights as men in the society.
• It also ensured that the rule of the majority is not by those who are in majority just in number. The majority group needs to work in harmony with the minority group such that interests and concerns of every group are respected.

Question 3.
Give arguments to support or oppose the following assertions :
A) Industrialised countries can afford democracy but poor countries need dictatorship to become rich.
Answer:
No, we do not agree with the statement, because the nature and scope of democracy is not confined or limited to rich or industrialised countries only. Democracy is the government of modern era which provides accountable, representative, responsible and legitimate government to the people. It also tries to accommodate social differences and promote economic growth which a dictatorship cannot. Hence, a poor country can also afford democracy for popular government and economic growth.

B) Democracy can’t reduce inequality of incomes between different citizens.
Answer:
We do not agree with the statement. Democracy can’t reduce inequality of incomes between different citizens. But democracy can reduce the economic inequality by providing equal distribution of wealth and equal opportunities to all.

C) Government in poor countries should spend less on poverty reduction, health, education, and spend more on industries and infrastructure.
Answer:
We do not agree with this statement. Poverty is one of the social challenges which democracy has to accommodate, so poor countries should spend more to check poverty.

Besides food, clothing, health and education are the basic needs of the people and it is the duty of the government to provide these facilities to the people.

D) In democracy, all citizens have one vote, which means that there is absence of any domination and conflict.
Answer:
Yes, we do agree with the statement. Democracy stands for political equality and guarantees Universal Adult Franschise. Universal Adult Franchise gives right to vote to every adult citizen of the country. Hence there is no chance of political domination and conflict.

Question 4.
In the context of assessing democracy, which among the following is odd one out? Democracies need to ensure :
A) free and fair elections
B) dignity of the individual
C) majority rule
D) equal treatment before law
Answer:
(C) Reason : Majority rule is odd one out because democracy ensures people’s rule based on popular consensus.

Question 5.
Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show that:
A) democracy and development go together.
B) inequalities exist in democracies.
C) inequalities do not exist under dictatorship.
D) dictatorship is better than democracy.
Answer:
(B) Inequalities exist in democracies

Question 6.
Here is some information about six countries. Based on this information, how would you classify each of these countries? Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.
i) Country A : People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not have a right to vote
ii) Country B : The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty years
iii) Country C : Ruling party has lost in the last elections
iv) Country D : The parliament cannot pass a law about the army without the consent of the Chief of Army
v) Country E : The parliament cannot pass a law reducing the powers of the judiciary
vi) Country F : All the major economic decisions about the country are taken by officials of the central bank which the ministers cannot change,
Answer:

i) Undemocratic
ii) Not sure (More details are needed)
iii) Democratic
iv) Undemocratic
v) Democratic
vi) Undemocratic

Question 7.
Each of these statements contains a democratic and an undemocratic element. Write out the two separately for each statement.
A) A minister said that some laws have to be passed by the parliament in order to confirm to the regulations decided by the World Trade Organisation.
Answer:
Passing laws by the parliament is democratic whereas passing it in confirmity to the regulations decided by WTO is undemocratic.

B) The Election Commission ordered re-polling in a constituency where large scale rigging was reported.
Answer:
To order repoll in a constituency by the Election Commission is democratic whereas rigging is undemocratic.

C) Women’s representation in the parliament has never reached 10 per cent. This led women’s organisations to demand one-third seats for women.
Answer:
Demand by women’s organisation to reserve 1/3 seats for women is democratic whereas less 10% women’s representation in the parliament is undemocratic.

Question 8.
Write a response to the following arguments against democracy :
A) Army is the most disciplined and corruption-free organisation in the country. Therefore army should rule the country.
Answer:
Army rule is always undemocratic. Under this system, people do not enjoy freedom of speech and expression and are not allowed to criticise the government. Military rule is another name for dictatorship. Moreover, many army men are not disciplined and are corrupt.

B) Rule of the majority means the rule of ignorant people. What we need is the rule of the wise, even if they are in small numbers.
Answer:
Rule of majority is democratic as it represents the views of all sections of the people.

C) If we want religious leaders to guide us in spiritual matters, why not invite them to guide us in politics as well. The country should be ruled by religious leaders.
Answer:
Rule by religious leaders is not democractic. It arouses communal feeling among the people which sometimes lead to communal riots. Besides many religious leaders do not have any experience of administration.

Question 9.
Locate the following countries in the world map.
1. Sri Lanka
2. Belgium
3. Russia
4. America (USA)
Answer:

Question 10.
Read the first two paragraphs under the subheading ‘Dignity and freedom of the citizens’ and answer the following question.

Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Often conflicts arise among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with due respect. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy. Democracies throughout the world have recognised this, at least in principle. This has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies. For societies which have been built for long on the basis of subordination and domination, it is not a simple matter to recognise that all individuals are equal.

Take the case of dignity of women. Most societies across the world were historically male dominated societies. Long struggles by women have created some sensitivity today that respect to and equal treatment of women are necessary ingredients of a democratic society. That does not mean that women are actually always treated with respect. But once the principle is recognised, it becomes easier for women to wage a struggle against what is now unacceptable legally and morally. In a non-democratic set up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom . and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there. The same is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based inequalities and atrocities, but these lack the moral and legal foundations. Perhaps it is this recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their democratic rights.

Write about the dignity and freedom of the citizens in a democratic country in your own words.
Answer:

• In a democratic country people have freedom to choose their representatives on the basis of universal adult franchise.
• Most societies across the world are male dominated. Equal treatment of women became the necessary requirement of a democratic society. Thus their status in democratic countries improved.
• In a non-democratic set up, there is no legal basis for freedom and dignity of individuals.
• Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.
• Democracy transforms people from the status of subjects under a king or a dictator to the status of citizens with rights and duties.
• Many fundamental rights are granted to citizens in a democratic country. One such right is to travel anywhere, freedom to any profession, to choose any religion, etc.

Question 11.
What are the reasons for the people to fight for democracy?
Answer:
Reasons:

1. A democracy is the best form of government.
2. Democracy promotes equality.
3. It promotes dignity and freedom of the individual.
4. It improves the quality of decision making.
5. People can elect the leaders of their choice.
6. People have the right to get the information about the public administration.

Question 12.
Give some examples which prove that democracy is practised in our schools.
Answer:

1. Admissions to the students without any differences of caste/creed / religion.
2. Elections to elect SPL / CPL
3. Parents, teachers, associations
4. Social clubs
5. Community participation
6. Equality in teaching etc.

Question 13.
Conduct elections in your class to elect class representative with the help of your teacher.
Answer:
Note : ‘Mock poll’ should be conducted in the class with the help of the teacher.

9th Class Social Studies 20th Lesson Democracy: An Evolving Idea InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss the solutions given in both the countries to accomodate social, religious, and linguistics diversity in them. (Text Book Page No. 254)
Answer:
Both are democracies. Yet, they dealt with the question of power sharing differently. In Belgium, the leaders have realised that the unity of the country is possible only by respecting the feelings and interests of different communities and regions. Such a realisation resulted in mutually acceptable arrangements for sharing power. Sri Lanka shows us a contrasting example. It shows us that if a majority community wants to force its dominance over others and refuses to share power, it can undermine the unity of the country and force the country back several hundred years with internal conflicts and civil wars.

Question 2.
How will this chess board change? (Text Book Page No. 247)

Answer:
If the inequalities are vanished, the chess board will change.

Question 3.
If a party is repeatedly voted to power, does it mean that people really want it to come to power, or that there is no alternative or that people are not allowed to vote for any alternative? Answer on the basis of the following three case studies: (Text Book Page No. 249)
a. Since its independence in 1930, Mexico holds elections after every six years to elect its President. The country has never been under a military or dictator’s rule.But, until 2000, every election was won by a party called PRI (Institutional Revolutionary Party). Opposition parties did contest elections, but never managed to win. The PRI was known to use many unfair means to win elections. Teachers of government schools used to force parents to vote for the PRI.

b. Zimbabwe attained independence from White minority rule in 1980. Since then, the country has been ruled by ZANU-PF, the party that led the freedom struggle.Its leader, Robert Mugabe, has been ruling the country since independence. Elections have been held regularly and always won by ZANU-PF. President Mugabe is popular but also uses unfair practices in elections. His government has changed the Constitution several times to increase the powers of the President and make him less accountable. Opposition party workers are harassed and their meetings disrupted. There is a law that limits the right to criticise the President. Television and radio are controlled by the government and give only the ruling party’s version.

c. In China, elections are regularly held after every five years for electing the country’s parliament, called Quanguo Renmin Daibiao Oahui (National People’s Congress). The National People’s Congress has the power to appoint the President of the country. It has nearly 3,000 members elected from all over China. Some members are elected by the army. Before contesting elections, a candidate needs the approval of the Chinese Communist Party. Only those who are members of the Chinese Communist Party or eight smaller parties allied to it were allowed to contest elections held in 2002-03. The government is always formed by the Communist Party.
Answer:

1. Democracy requires free and fair elections.
2. People should have choice to vote.
3. People should not be forced by the government.
4. Electoral rolls should maintained in a right way.

In these 3 cases, these conditions are not fulfilled. So we can say that the elections are conducted in an undemocratic way.

Question 4.
Let us take the example of an election in India. Of all the residents in a region, let us assume that 1000 have right to vote. In any typical election about 60% people go to cast their votes. Thus, we have 600 people voting in an election. Let us assume that there are ten candidates in the election and of these the winning candidate gets about 250 votes, the second candidate gets 200 votes and the other candidates between them get about 150 votes. We declare the one with 250 votes the winner. Does he or she really represent the views and interests of the residents of the locality? Actually, he or she only represents one fourth of the voters. Is this a fair democratic arrangement ? Can there be better ways of representing the people in decision making bodies? (Text Book Page No. 250)
Answer:
He or she really represents the views and interests of the majority people of the locality. This may not be a fair democratic arrangement.

This controversial new look at democracy in a multicultural society considers the ideas of political inclusion and exclusion and recommends ways to engage in democratic politics in a more inclusive way. Processes of debate and decision making often marginalize individuals and groups because the norms of political discussion are biased against some forces of expression. Inclusion and democracy broadens our understanding of democratic communication by reflecting on the positive political function. It reconstructs concepts of civil society and public sphere.

Question 5.
Do the millions of poor people really have any control over the functioning of the elected functionaries? (Text Book Page No. 246)
Answer:
In a democracy, every citizen has certain basic rights that anyone cannot take away from them. I think people are using this during the time of elections.

Question 6.
Does democracy mean rule by people or merely rule by elected persons? (Text Book Page No. 246)
Answer:
Literally, democracy means rule by people only. But in practice, it is rule by elected persons.

Question 7.
How can people really participate in government on a day to day basis? (Text Book Page No. 246)
Answer:
This is possible when all policies and laws are made after extensive public discussions, in which people participate and openly state their needs and views. It also requires that people be involved in effective implementation of the policies and laws – by forming independent citizens committees.

Question 8.
Why do people not want to participate in governance? Is it because of poor knowledge or lack of interest or a feeling that they don’t have a real say in things? (Text Book Page No. 247)
Answer:
The people remain apathetic and they lose their interest in politics. Fore.g. : whoever may be the elected representative, he tries to save his position and wealth, etc.
So they do not want to participate in governance.

Question 9.
Why do you think does such high level of inequality persist even where the countries are democratic and government works in the interest of all people? (Text Book Page No. 248)
Answer:
In many countries like the USA, most of the media are owned by very rich corporate houses or media barons. They effectively manipulate and influence public opinion by what they high light and what they black out. The rich and powerful also have immediate access to members of the legislature and the ministers, and are in a position to influence their policies and programmes.

On the other hand, the poor and illiterate people have no such access to the government circles. Thus the government of many of these countries follow policies which seem to be contradictory to the interests of the poor and in favour of the rich.

So the high level of inequality persists even where the countries are democratic and government works in the interest of all people.

Question 10.
Even today, most countries do not give voting powers to people who have migrated from other countries. Actually, millions of people across the world live without these democratic rights simply because the countries they live in treat them as illegal immigrants. This is the plight of South American immigrants in the US or Turkish immigrants in France or Germany. Such immigrants and refugees are found all over the world including India. Should they not be part of democratic governance? (Text Book Page No. 247)
Think of some reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Democracy is based on the fundamental principle of political equality and inclusiveness. In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value. So they should also be a part of democratic governance.

Question 11.
Many governments give people the civil liberties. But they keep a careful watch on the activities of the citizens by tapping their telephones and letters, spying on them etc. Do you think this is justified? (Text Book Page No. 248)
Answer:
Today the conditions in the world are so. All the countries are in the shadow of terrorism. So the governments are supposed to do like that. But the government should not disclose the secrecy of the individuals. Then only I think this is justified.

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 1st Lesson Our Earth Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 1st Lesson Our Earth

9th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson Our Earth Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Look at the map of India in an Atlas and identify latitude and longitude for the following places.
a) Kanyakumari ………………. and ………………. .
b) Imohal ………………. and ………………. .
c) Jaisalmer ………………. and ………………. .
d) Pune ………………. and ………………. .
e) Patna ………………. and ………………. .
Answer:
a) Kanyakumari : 77°36′ E longitude and 8°35′ N latitude
b) Imphal : 93°58′ E longitude and 24°44′ N latitude
c) Jaisalmer : 26°55′ N latitude and 70°54′ E longitude
d) Pune : 18°32′ N latitude and 73°52’E longitude
e) Patna : 27°34′ N latitude and 81°46′ E longitude

Question 2.
Identify the words that match with Latitude and Longitude (parallel lines, vertical lines, horizontal lines)
Answer:
Latitudes are horizontal and parallel lines. Longitudes are vertical lines.

Question 3.
Look at the world map of time zones in the Text page 13.
a) If you travel from Vijayawada to Paris to which time zone are you moving?
b) If you are travelling from Hyderabad to Tokyo which time zone are you moving? ……………………… .
Answer:
a) – 5.30 hrs time zone
b) – 3.30 hrs time zone.

Question 4.
Why is it difficult to study the formation of the earth and its structure?
Answer:
Earth formed around 4.54 billion years ago by accretion from the solar nebula. Nearly all branches of natural science have contributed to the understanding of the main events of the earth’s past. The age of the earth is approximately one-third of the age of the universe. Biological and geographical change has been constantly occurring on our planet since the time of its formation. The process of plate tectonics has played a major role in the shaping of earth’s oceans and continents as well as the life on it.

It took us years of scientific investigation and analysis of data to form an understanding of the interiors of the earth. The main reason for this is that even the deepest mines we have dug do not go beyond a few kilometers under the surface while the radius or the distance to the centre of the earth is over 6000 kilometers.

Thus it is very difficult to study the formation of the earth and its structure.

Question 5.
Read the paragraph under the heading of “Internal structure of the earth” and answer the question.

How can you say the earth is still very active?
Answer:

• The matter deep inside the mantle shoots up through volcanoes and fissures on ocean floors.
• In many regions on the earth part of the earth’s crust enters into the mantle and once again becomes molten.
• The crust is still being changed by earthquakes, volcanoes, subduction of land and rise of mountains due to the processes happening deep down the earth.
• This constant process of formation and destruction of the earth’s crust explains the fact that the earth is still very active.

Question 6.
What is a grid and how does it help us?
(OR)
Write any two uses of the ‘Grid system’ located on the globe.
Answer:
Grid : A grid is a sqaure or a rectangle that is formed between when two latitudes and longitudes out across each other. In other words the network of latitudes and longitudes drawn on the globe is called a ‘grid’.

Uses of grid:
1. Network of latitudes and longitudes is called a Grid.

2. Uses of a grid :
a) To locate a place
b) How hot or cold it would be there,
c) To know the time.

Question 7.
Differentiate between
a) Local and Standard time
b) Equator and Prime meridian.
Answer:
a) Difference between Local and Standard time :

Example: If the 1ST is 12.00 noon, the local of Mumbai is 39 minutes – 1ST = 11.21 minutes a.m.
Since Mumbai is on 72°82′ east longitudes, it is 9°45′ behind the 82°30′. Thus the local time of Mumbai is 9.45 x 4 = 38 minutes.

b) Differences between Equator and Prime meridian :

Question 8.
If every state follows its local time then what problems will rise?
Answer:
If every state follows4ts local time, a lot of serious problems would rise. Some of them are being discussed hereunder.

1. At the time of national calamities and disasters, it is very difficult for the national government to make necessary emergency announcement.
2. At the time of wars and national emergency, it is very difficult for the national government to alert all the defensive forces stationed in all the state capitals and the naval forces of all the coastal states.
3. It is very difficult for Televisions and Radios to follow a single schedule to broadcast their programmes.
4. Railways faces a difficult problem in preparing a timetable for its trains that travel through many states.

Question 9.
With the help of your teachers find out the standard meridian of given countries.
1. Nepal
2. Pakistan
3. Bangladesh
4. England
5. Malasiya
6. Japan
Answer:
1. Nepal : 88°45’East is the Standard Time Meridian of Nepal
2. Pakistan : 74°22′ East .
3. Bangladesh : 90°24′ East
4. England : 0°07′ West
5. Malaysia : 100° East
6. Japan : 90° East

Question 10.
Make a thought provoking poster on the earth’s protection.
Answer:

9th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson Our Earth InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Tick the factors which cause the formation of seasons on the earth : (Text Book Page No. 3)
a) Daily rotation of the earth on its axis.
b) Monthly movement of the Moon around the Earth.
c) Rotation of the Sun on its axis.
d) Revolution of the Earth around the Sun.
e) Tilt of Earth’s axis of rotation to its orbital plane.
f) Spherical shape of the Earth.
g) Earth’s distance from Sun during the annual revolution.
Answer:
d) (✓)
e) (✓)
g) (✓)

Question 2.
We cannot hope to travel to the mantle to study it. But we can study substances from the mantle. Can you tell what these substances would be and how we can get them? (Text Book Page No. 5)
Answer:
1) The thickness of the mantle is 100 – 2900 kms. So we cannot hope to travel to the mantle to study it.
2) Interestingly the matter from the deep inside the mantle shoots up through volcanoes and fissures on ocean floors and cools down to form the earth’s crust.
3) Thus by studying the lava or magma or the substances brought up through the fissures, we can study the substances from the mantle.

Question 3.
When it is 12 noon in Greenwich (0°), what is the local time at: (Text Book Page No. 12)
a) Mumbai (73° E)
b) Chicago (87°30′ W)
c) Sydney (151° E)
Answer:
a) Mumbai (73° E) :
Local time at Mumbai is : 73 × 4 = 292 minutes, i.e. 4 hours 52 minutes. That means the local time at Mumbai is 4 hours 52 minutes after 12 noon i.e., 12.00 + 4.52 = 4.52 p.m.

b) Chicago (87°30′ W):
Local time at Chicago is : 87°30′ × 4 = 350 minutes, i.e. 6 hours 50 minutes. That means the local time at Chicago is 6 hours 50 minutes less than 12.00 noon at Greenwich. i.e. 12.00 – 6.50 = 5.10 a.m.

c) Sydney (151° E): Local time at Sydney is 151° × 4 = 604 minutes, i.e. 10 hours 4 minutes before Greenwich time.
That means the local time at Sydney is 12.00 + 10.04 = 10.04 p.m

Question 4.
Why do you think people today are curious to know about the secrets of distant stars and galaxies and the beginning of the universe? (Text Book Page No. 2)
Answer:
Today people are curious to know about the secrets of the distant stars and galaxies and the beginning of the universe
a) to understand the stars that shine there.
b) to understand the sun, the moon and the planets which keep moving across the sky.
c) to understand what are these and in what way they are related to us and how they affect us.
d) to know how they move and work.
e) to know whether there is any life on any other planet.

Question 5.
Swathi works for a call centre in Hyderabad. Her clients are in the U.S.A. She answers clients’ questions about the computer problems. She always works during the night. Why is this? Use geography to find out! (Text Book Page No. 12)
Answer:
Indian Standard Time is the time observed in India. Its time offset is UTC + 5.30.
United Standard Time is the Central Standard Time. Its time is GMT – 6.00. Thus there is a difference of 11½ hours between Indian Standard Time and American Standard Time. Thus if it is day time in America, in India it is night time. If an American client asks Swathi a question at 11 am in America, Swathi has to answer the same at 10.30 p.m the same day. Thus Swathi should always work at night to answer his clients from the U.S.A.

Question 6.
In earlier classes we have studied about hemisphere. Let us revise it in the image below. (Text Book Page No. 8)

With the help of the above maps complete the following table.

Answer:

Question 7.
Look at the following pictures. (Text Book Page No. 6)

Now answer the following questions.
1. Look carefully at the map of the world, do you find some continents looking as if they are two pieces of a jigsaw puzzle? Name those continents. (Text Book Page No. 7)
Answer:
By observing the maps of the world from 220 million years ago up to the present world, we can find the following continents look as if they are two pieces of jigsaw puzzle. They are :
1) North America and North West Africa.
2) South America and Western Africa.
3) Nothern Africa and Eurasia.
4) Eastern Africa and India.
5) South Eastern Africa and Antarctica.
6) Antarctica and Australia.

2. In which direction Australia is moving?
Answer:
Australia is moving in eastern direction.

3. In which direction India is moving?
Answer:
India is moving in northern direction.

Question 8.
Look at the following map. (Text Book Page No. 12)

Using your Atlas, find out how many standard time zones these countries have :
a) U.S.A
b) Australia
c) Russia
d) Japan
e) Zimbabwe and
f) Chile.
Answer:
a) U.S.A :
The United States uses nine standard time zones. From east to west they are Atlantic Standard Time, Eastern Standard Time, Central Standard Time, Mountain Standard Time, Pacific Standard Time, Alaskan Standard Time, Hawai – Aleutian Standard time, Samoa Standard Time and Chamorro Standard Time.

b) Australia :
Australia uses three standard time zones.
a) Australia Eastern Standard Time (GMT + 10)
b) Australia Central Standard Time (GMT + 9½)
a) Australia Western Standard Time (GMT + 8)

c) Russia :
There are 9 time zones in Russia.
a) Kaliningrad Time – UTC + 3
b) Moscow Time – UTC + 4
c) Yaketerinburg Time – UTC + 6
d) Omsk Time – UTC + 7
e) Krasnoyarsk Time – UTC + 8
f) Irkutsk Time – UTC + 9
g) Yakutsk Time – UTC + 10
h) Vladivostok Time – UTC + 11
i) Magadan Time – UTC + 12

d) Japan :
Japan Standard Time – UTC + 9

e) Zimbabwe :
Zimbabwe uses Central Africa Time zone : UTC + 2h standard time

f) Chile :
Since Chile uses daylight saving time, in total 4 time zones are used.

Question 9.
Initially people thought that the earth was in the centre of the universe and human beings the most important creation. What difference does it make to us to know that we are a small insignificant speck in this vast universe? (Text Book Page No. 2)
Answer:
The earth we live on seems big and very important to us. But in the universe as a whole, it is tiny and very insignificant speck of rock. To put things into perspective earth is just a small planet in the solar system, part of a family of bodies that circle round the sun. The sun is just one of billions of stars that makes up our galaxy, and this galaxy is just one of billions that make up a universe bigger than most of us can imagine.

Question 10.
Do you think the Earth was created suddenly or do you think it was formed by long drawn and complex processes? (Text Book Page No. 4)
Answer:
The Earth began to form around four and a half billion years ago. The earth has reached its present form through several phases but not created suddenly.

• It began as a ball of swirling dust and clouds and passed through a molten stage.
• The molten Earth was very hot and was constantly bombarded by massive rocks and other materials from the space. In this way the size of the earth grew.
• When the earth was so hot and in liquid form the heavier particles went to the bottom and formed core and the mantle.
• The lighter particles cooled at the top and formed the crust.
• While the earth’s interior was cooling, it contracted and outer crust wrinkled forming ridges (i.e., mountains) and basins (i.e., oceans)
• It took a long time for the air we breathe to develop.
  Thus we can say that the earth was not created suddenly but formed through several phases.

Question 11.
Some people believe that our being on this earth is the result of a series of fortuitous accidents – it is quite possible that there may not have been any life on the earth. Do you agree? Give your reasons. (Text Book Page No 4)
Answer:
Yes, the earth’s creatures have evolved through a series of contingent and fortuitous events.
1. Our earth is just the right distance from the sun to have a stable orbit. Our orbit keeps us from getting too hot or too cold to survive. Any closer we’d burn up, any farther away we’d freeze to death.

2. Our earth is perfect in both size and mass. Mass is critically important to the formation of an atmosphere. If the earth’s mass were less dense, an atmosphere could not have formed and remained. If it were more dense, the atmosphere would have been uninhabitable.

3. Our earth has just the right mix of the 27 elements needed for life, including carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorous, potassium, iron, sodium, and copper.

4. Our earth has just right amount of water in the proper ratios of liquid, solid, and gas.

A little more and the continents would probably be totally overrun with water and literally, drown. Any less and the temperature of the earth would probably be too hot making life unbearable here.

Thus we can say that our being on this earth is the result of fortuitous accidents.

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 19th Lesson Expansion of Democracy Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 19th Expansion of Democracy

9th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Expansion of Democracy Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Map 1: Democratic Governments in 1900 – 1950

Map 2 : Democratic Governments in 2011

a) On the basis of these maps, identify up to three countries (in some cases you won’t find three countries) that were democratic in these continents for the given years and make a table as given.

Answer:

b) identify some African countries with democracy in 2011.
Answer:
Egypt, Libya, Tunisia are countries which got independence in and around 2011.

c) Make a list of big countries that were not democratic in 2011.
Answer:
1) Asian countries :
China, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Saudi Arabia, etc.

2) African countries :
Algeria, Ethiopia, Chad, Zaire, Morocco, Mauritania, Angola, etc.

The above countries were not democratic in 2011.

Question 2.
Read the maps again and think about the following points.
a) Based on the maps, can we say that the Twentieth century was a significant era for the spread of democracy?
Answer:

1. At the beginning of the 20th century only few countries of Europe and America were independent, e.g.: Spain, France, England, Norway, Argentina, Chile, Bolivia and Peru, the USA, Canada, Alasca.
2. After World War II almost all countries fought against colonial powers and got independence.
3. Though there are still some non-democratic countries, we can call 20th century as an era of democracy.

b) During the early 20 century, democracy was mostly in the continents like Europe and Americas. While in certain continents like Africa and Asia there were almost no democratic countries.

c) Even today there are certain areas that have not established democratic governments such as Saudi Arabia and Ethiopia.

Question 3.
Most countries often claim themselves to be democratic by conducting elections. How did this occur in the context of Myanmar and Libya?
Answer:

1. Both the countries Myanmar and Libya claim themselves as independent and democratic.
2. But in practical view, they are not democratic countries.
3. Unlike democratic countries –
   a) They did not allow multi-party elections and one party usually ruled for several years.
   b) Even they did not allow free elections.
   c) Sometimes they did not allow the elected representatives to form governments.
   Ex : NLD, led by Suu Kyi got 80% seats, was not allowed to form government.
   d) They did not allow freedom of expression or freedom to form organizations, or freedom to protest against government.

Both the countries did not have any conditions for a democracy to flourish. Hence they cannot claim themselves to be democratic by conducting elections.

Question 4.
Why do you think the rulers try to control the media? Do you know how is media controlled in your area?
Answer:

• Mass Media is powerful weapon which can make or break any governments.
• Restrictions on media helps them to remain in power.
• Hence the rulers always try to control the media.
• So many times in India too government censors certain news. This generally happens without the notice of common man.

Question 5.
Write an imaginary dialogue between a person from Libya and Myanmar comparing the events and struggle for democracy in their respective countries.
Answer:
Person from Libya : Hai, I am xxxx, as I have already told you the monarchy is over thrown in our country.
Person from Myanmar : Yes, I came to know about that who is ruling your country now.
Libya : Gaddafi has taken control of our country. What about your country.
Myanmar : In 1962, the government was overthrown and ‘Ne Win’ military rule is going on.
Libya : First of all we thought he could rule us. He laid foundation for development. What is your country’s position?
Myanmar : Under military rule, our country did not make any progress.
Libya : UNO is supporting our people’s to demands.
Myanmar : Other countries are also showing sympathy us.
Libya : We protested against.
Myanmar : Suu Kyi is in house arrest she played good role.
Libya : Gaddafi is overthrown in 2012. O.K. Bye.
Myanmar : We got new government in 2012. Bye.

Question 6.
How do literacy and mass education help for the functioning of democracy?
(OR)
How do the literacy help for the effective functioning of democracy?
Answer:

• Literacy and education play an important role in the development of individual and society.
• Knowledge liberates citizens from ignorance.
• Any society needs a vigilant, conscious, and informed public for the successful functioning of the democracy.
• Education enables people to think critically, rationally, and scientifically.
• The right to vote can be properly exercised when voter can read newspapers, follow national and international developments, and participate in democratic process effectively.
  Hence the proper functioning of democracy always depends on the literacy and mass education.

Question 7.
What is the difference between democracy and dictatorship?
Answer:
Differences between democracy and dictatorship :

Question 8.
What is the role played by Aung San Suu Kyi in fighting for democracy in Myanmar?
Answer:

• Aung San Suu Kyi, daughter of Aung San who took the lead in staging protest against the military rule.
• Suu kyi fought for reforms in Burma.
• She established a new political party “National League for Democracy (NLD) and won majority (80%) of the seats even though she was in prison.
• Suu Kyi was released from house arrest after the elections of 2010.
• She questioned on the malpractices of elections.
• In 2011 Suu Kyi’s ‘NLD’ contested in the elections and have won 43 out of 45 parliamentary seats that were vacant.
• The freeing of Suu Kyi and the successful participation of NLD in elections are considered the beginning of democracy in Burma.

Question 9.
Read the last paragraph of this chapter and answer the question.

Today, it is increasingly becoming clear to the people that democracy which respects the freedom and rights of all people may be the best way to solve some of the complex problems the countries face. Today, a new kind of democracy is being forged across the world in which even the poorest and the most vulnerable people will have a voice and will be able to influence policies and ensure justice and peace for all.

What is a new kind of democracy?
Answer:

1. The poorest and the most vulnerable people will have a voice.
2. The poorest will be able to influence the policies.
3. The new kind of democracy will ensure justice and peace for ail.

Question 10.
Read the newspapers and note down any news regarding struggle for democracy in Libya or Egypt or any other country. Prepare a file of such news clippings and display in the classroom.
Answer:
Struggle for democracy in Libya :
A few months ago the National Transitional Council (NTC), which has governed Libya since the first few weeks of the revolt in 2011, announced that the assembly would not draft the constitution itself but instead appoint a 60-member committee to draft it. The members of this committee were supposed to be chosen from outside the assembly and represent the country’s three geographic regions of Libya – Tripolitania, Cyrenaica, and Fezzan — in equal numbers. Yet, a few weeks ago, the NTC changed policy again at the last moment, declaring that the members of the constitutional committee would not be appointed by the assembly but directly elected by the people, though it’s not clear when. Confused? So are Libyans.

There are rumors in Libya that most members of the NTC are not happy about the idea of dissolving the institution and going back home. It’s just a rumor, but the group’s decision to revoke constitution-writing powers from the new assembly is making people suspicious, and that’s the point. The NTC likely fears too much power going to Islamists, who are notoriously less friendly toward the NTC than are other groups. We can’t know the NTC’s motivations for sure, but their recent moves diminished the power of the new assembly, which they may have feared would be dominated by Islamists, who swept national elections in neighboring Tunisia and Egypt. A more democratic Libya would re¬ject the NTC’s odd rule-changing and reinstate the elected assembly’s power to write the constitution. After all, this is what Libyans voted for. So should the same Western powers that supported the Libyan revolt.

Libya has come a long way since Gaddafi’s fall, but it still hasn’t been able to solve two major security problems: the armed militias that still roam the country and the state’s deteriorating control of its national borders. Fortunately, this is where new assembly can step in, finding agreement among the various parties and militias and forming a govern-ment, one that is as inclusive as possible, to administer and rebuild Libya. The interna-tional community can help, including by training and equipping the police and security forces, both of which were devastated by the recent conflict.

A successful election is just the start of dealing with one of Libya’s most important challenges right now: national unity. Regional and local claims and jockeying for power threaten to undermine the legitimacy of and support for the national government. A few thousand inhabitants of the eastern provinces care calling for a federalist state, if not of outward secession. While this is definitely a minority position, it is a very dangerous one because it could easily, at the administration’s first real difficulty, split the government and the people, thus slowing or even reversing Libya’s progress toward stability. Most Libyans, as well as the interested Western nations, are rightly happy with Libya’s progress toward becoming a stable, unified, democratic state. But if they want that progress to continue, they’ll all have to work together.

9th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Expansion of Democracy InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What kind of problems do you think these pose for establishing democratic government? (Text Book Page No. 235)
Answer:

• Bringing democratic participation of all the people under conditions of tribalism, normalism, illiteracy, and restrictions on women was difficult.
• Encouraging participation of common people in public affairs through peoples councils and elected Peoples Assembly in the centre in also difficult.

Question 2.
Even though the people had benefited much from the Gaddafi government, why do you think they rose in rebellion against it? (Text Book Page No. 237)
Answer:

• The government of Gaddafi was not ready to trust these democratic bodies.
• “Revolutionary Councils” were appointed.
• The democratic bodies had to implement the decisions of these non-elected leaders.
• The RCC used brute armed force to arrest, torture, and kill political opponents.
• There was no freedom of press and no one could start any trade union or other associations.
• The civic amenities were deplorable.
  Hence rebellions rose against the government of Gaddafi.

Question 3.
Even though the Gaddafi government claimed to be a democratic government, what aspects of democracy were absent? What aspects of democratic government were present in it? (Text Book Page No. 237)
Answer:
Aspects of democracy absent in the government of Gaddafi:

1. Democratic bodies had to implement the decisions of non-elected leaders.
2. Freedom of press, freedom to form trade unions and associations were prohibited.
3. No political parties were allowed to function in Libya.
4. This led to concentration of power and wealth in the hands of few.

Aspects of democracy present in the government of Gaddafi :

1. Free universal education was provided.
2. Free medical care for all was also provided.
3. Oil profits were distributed to all the citizens.
4. Subsidised housing schemes were introduced.
5. Women were given with equal opportunities and status in the society.

Question 4.
Why are civil liberties important for democracy? Explain in the context of Libyan experience. (Text Book Page No. 237)
Answer:

• “Liberty” is one of the aspects of democracy.
• Civil liberties include liberty of thought, speech, expression, faith, belief and worship.
• These “liberties” were missing in Libya.
• Liberty of expression was brutally crushed.
• The RCC was also very intolerant of criticism and opposition.
• People were not at liberty to express their discontent.
  Thus lack of civil liberties led to the downfall of the government of Gaddafi in Libya.

Question 5.
Why do you think democracy was not able to establish itself in Burma after its independence? (Text Book Page No. 240)
Answer:

• Burma became independent just 5 months after Indian independence.
• It appeared that Burma too would emerge as a democratic republic.
• However, the Burmese did not have a united political party to lead them at the time.
• Burma consisted of a large number of small states and ethnic linguistic regions.
• Aung San, the leader of the nationalist movement and the leader of the ethnic group was assassinated.
• Burmese military began its slow advance into the ethnic states to rule by force.
• They were illiterate, no able leader, no power to fight with military, etc., were the reasons for the failure to establish democracy in Burma.
• Finally, in 1962, the elected government was overthrown by a coup, and army “General Ne Win” took over the charge of the country.

Question 6.
Why do you think democracy was not able to establish itself in Libya after its independence? (Text Book Page No. 240)
Answer:

• Libya got its independence in 1951 and the power was transferred to king Idris.
• In the year 1969 under the leadership of Gaddafi monarchy was abolished and the country was declared as the “Socialist Libyan Arab Republic”.
• But the people were concerned about their own tribe and its honour than about the welfare of the people.
• Most of the people were poor nomadic animal herders who were also illiterates.
• Women were confined to purdah and were not allowed to participate in public activities.
• On top of this the government of Gaddafi was not ready to trust the bodies of democracy. Hence the democratic participation of all people under these conditions was difficult.

Question 7.
How did students and youth play an important role in bringing democracy to both Libya and Burma? (Text Book Page No. 240)
Answer:

• People from across the country began to interact through internet and mobile phones to share their misery.
• Use of internet and Facebook helped them to get the support of the people all over the world.
• The youth and people started protesting against delay in the building of houses and political corruption.
• In Burma, the students took the lead in staging protest against the military rule. Finally military power was overthrown in both the countries and democracies are established.

Question 8.
What similarities of events do you find in the description of events in Libya and Burma? (Text Book Page No. 240)
Answer:

• In both the countries, students, youth and people participated in the protest movements.
• Use of mobiles and internet and social networking sites like Facebooks were common.
• “UNO” supported both the countries and declared Libya as “No fly zone” and ordered for a referendum in Burma.
• Economic sanctions were imposed on both the countries.
• In both the countries the protest was to overthrow the military regime and establish a democratic form of government.
• Lastly both the countries successfully conducted elections in a fair way and elected their new leader.

Question 9.
Underline the statements that are related to political party and voting in both Libya and Burma. (Text Book Page No. 240)
Answer:
a) Libya

1. RCC – Revolutionary Command Council.
2. Election – 2012 new government sworn in on Nov. 2012. Over 100 political parties participated and 200 representatives were elected.

b) Burma

1. 1951, 56 and 60 elections were held.
2. 1990 elections – NLD party established by Suu Kyi.
3. 2010 elections were held.
4. In 2011 ‘NLD’ won 43 out of 45 seats.

Question 10.
Track the changes that you may have heard about Libya and Burma during the year 2012 and write it. (Text Book Page No. 240)
Changes in Libya :

1. In 2012 the National Transitional Council (NTC) handed overthe powerto Libya’s newly elected Parliament the General National Congress (GNC).
   The Congress appointed a Prime Minister Ali Zidan, who formed an interim government.

Changes in Burma :
Burma’s Pro-democracy leader Aung San Suu Kyi greeted supporters from her vehicle during her election campaign in Aung Pan in the southern Shan State of Burma (Myanmar) on March 1, 2012.

Question 11.
Dictators try to control press and TV media. Do you know other ways of sharing information and ideas between people? (Text Book Page No. 237)
Answer:

• Mobile phone occupies the first place in sharing information and ideas.
• ‘Fax’ is one of the ways of sending message from one place to another.
• Today internets are available everywhere.
• We can send e-mails to exchange information and ideas.
• Social networking sites play important role in sharing informations.
  Ex : Facebook, Twitter, etc.

Question 12.
The Tunisian struggle began with the death of one trader. The struggle gained strength largely through the use of social networking websites like Facebook. Why do you think it is not easy for governments to control them? (Text Book Page No. 237)
Answer:

• Technology has changed much.
• For development, every country has to work on internet.
• Computer have become a part of our life.
• Hence it is difficult to control social networking websites.

Question 13.
Locate “Libya” and “Myanmar” in the world map. Which continents are they located on? (Text Book Page No. 234)
Answer:
Libya is in Africa continent.
Myanmar is in Asia continent.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 Our Earth.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 1st Lesson Our Earth

9th Class Social 1st Lesson Our Earth 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which continent is extended in four hemispheres In the given map. (SA-III : 2015 – 16)
Answer:

Africa continent.

Question 2.
What do you mean by anti meridian? (SA-III : 2016 – 17)
Answer:
The anti meridian is the meridian of longitude opposite the Prime-Meridian.

9th Class Social 1st Lesson Our Earth 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the picture of the Globe and point out all the latitudes that are given special names on it. (SA-III : 2016 – 17)
Answer:

Question 2.
Why is it important to know the latitude and longitude of a place on map? How can it be useful? (SA-II : 2018 – 19)
Answer:
It is very important to know about latitudes and longitudes of a place by the following reasons.

• The particular location of a place on the earth can only be traced precisely with the help of latitude and longitude of that place.
• Latitude also help us in understanding the pattern of wind circulation on the global surface.
• Longitudes are useful to us to define the east-west position of a location on the planet.
• Longitudes are useful to us to know the time of the place.

Question 3.
Wegener hypothesised that the super continents of pangea broke up into two blocks –
1) Laurensia
2) Gondwana. It took millions of years for the continents to reach the present shapes and positions on the globe. (SA-I : 2018 – 19)
1) Laurensia : North America, Greenland, and all of the Eurasia north of Indian sub continent.
2) Gondwana : South America, Africa, Madagascar, India, Arabia, Malaysia, East Indies, Australia and Antartica.
Based on the above information given – answer the following questions.
a) Write any two land masses of present Asian continent which were formed from Gondwana?
b) From which block was the present Europe continent formed?
Answer:
a) India, Arabia, Malaysia, East Indies.
b) The present Europe continent was formed from Laurensia block.

Question 4.
If every state in India follows its local time then what problems will arise? (SA-I : 2019 – 20)
Answer:
If every state follows its local time, the following problems will arise :

• People travelling to different states would have to change their clocks too often.
• There would be confusion and chaos in the timings of railways, airlines, buses etc.
• The schedules of television shows, live shows and games, news etc. would be disrupted.

9th Class Social 1st Lesson Our Earth 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the difference between local time and standard time ? If every state follows its local time then what problems will rise in India? (SA-III : 2015 – 16)
Answer:
Difference between Local and Standard time:

Example:
If the IST is 12.00 noon, the local of Mumbai is 39 minutes – IST = 11.21 minutes a.m. Since Mumbai is on 72°82′ east longitudes, it is 9°45′ behind the 82°30′. Thus the local time of Mumbai is 9.45 x 4 = 38 minutes.

If every state follows its local time, a lot of serious problems would rise. Some of them are being discussed hereunder.

• At the time of national calamities and disasters, it is very difficult for the national government to make necessary emergency announcement.
• At the time of wars and national emergency it is very difficult for the national government to alert all the defensive forces stationed in all the state capitals and the naval forces of all the coastal states.
• It is very difficult for Televisions and Radios to follow a single schedule to broadcast their programmes.
• Railways faces a difficult problem in preparing a timetable for its trains that travel through many states.

Question 2.
Describe the internal structure of the earth. (SA-III : 2016 – 17) (SA-I : 2018 – 19)
Answer:
The earth is made up of three main layers.
A) Crust:

1. The outer part of the earth on which we live is called the crust.
2. While the earth was boiling in a molten form the lighter particles cooled at the top and formed the layer of crust.
3. The curst mostly consists of various kinds of rocks.
4. This layer goes up to a depth of 30 to 100 kms.

B) Mantle:

1. While the earth was boiling in a molten form the less heavier particles settled in the middle and formed the mantle.
2. The upper part of the mantle is a pliable layer over which the crust floats.
3. This layer consists mainly of chemicals called silicates.
4. It exists at the depths from 100 kms to 2900 kms.

C) Core:

1. While the earth was boiling in a molten form the heaviest substances formed core.
2. It is composed of dense and heavy substances like Iron and Nickel.
3. It exists at the depths from 2,900 kms to 6,376 kms.
4. It can be divided into two sub-layers.

a) Outer core :
This layer is composed of liquid metallic material like nickel and iron. It is 2,900 – 5,100 kms in thickness.

b) Inner core :
The solid inner core is made up of iron compounds and heavy substances like gold. It is 5,100 – 6,376 kms in thickness.

9th Class Social 1st Lesson Our Earth Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How can you say the man himself is responsible for environmental crises?
Answer:

• More than any other animal human beings have been trying to make the earth a better place to live in.
• Trying to change ourselves and our surroundings we have entered into conflict with other inhabitants of the earth.
• For long we’ve been exploiting the earth for its resources.
• The reckless exploitation of the earth resulted in environmental crises such as global warming and poisoning of our soils, water and air.
• Thus we can say man himself is responsible for environmental crises.

Question 2.
What were the initial ideas of people about the earth, the sun the moon and other astronomical bodies?
Answer:

• For thousands of years humans have been looking into the sky trying to understand objects that shine there.
• Initially, people thought that earth was firm and stationary and all others went round it.
• They also thought that the earth, the stars and the sun have been like this forever and will be like this forever without any change.

Question 3.
Write about the phases of evolution of facts, about the astronomical bodies their birth and growth.
Answer:

• Initially, people were of the view that the earth was firm and stationary and all the other bodies went round it.
• About five hundred years ago scientists concluded that the earth is not in the middle of everything.
• The earth actually moves round the sun and that the sun itself is also moving.
• The countless stars in the sky are actually so many suns.
• During the last hundred years or so people learnt the stars are born, they grow old and even die.
• Scientists even came to know that the stars are actually part of larger groups called galaxies.
• There are millions of galaxies in the universe.
• Now scientists are of the view that the universe itself started some 13.7 billion years ago with a Big Bang and it may end several billion years later.

Question 4.
How dkl the universe come into existence?
Answer:

1. The universe itself started some 13.7 billion years ago with a Big Bang.
2. From this Big Bang, several galaxies were formed.
3. Within these galaxies, stars were formed.
4. Planets were formed around stars and went around them.

However these astronomical changes take place over thousands and even millions of years.

Question 5.
Describe the process of evolution of the Earth.
(OR)
How did the earth come into existence and get its present form?
Answer:

• The earth began to form around four and a half billion years ago.
• It began as a ball of swirling dust and clouds and passed through a molten age.
• Gradually it grew in size.
• It was very hot and was in molten stage.
• The lighter particles cooled at the top and formed a layer of crust.
• Heavier particles formed the part of the molten core.
• As the earth’s interior cooled and contracted, the outer crust wrinkled, forming ridges and basins.
• The rain filled the basins and thus oceans formed.
• Slowly atmosphere developed and slowly life appeared on the earth.

Question 6.
How and when did the life appear on earth?
Answer:

• Different kinds of gases including water vapour formed the atmosphere on earth.
• Most of these gases were such that life as we know it today could not survive on it.
• Because it did not have oxygen necessary for life to survive.
• It took a long time for the air to develop.
• Then life appeared on oceans first.

It slowly evolved into diverse forms – plants, animals and human beings.

Question 7.
Are the shapes and positions of the continents fixed and permanent as they appear on the globe?
Answer:
The shapes and positions of the continents may seem fixed at the time scale of human experience. But on old earth continents have moved, collided, merged and then been torn apart again.

Mountains have risen and been razed to the ground, oceans have formed and dried up. Valleys have been carved and so during the course of earth’s eventful history. Alfred Wegener’s theory of Continental drift proves the same idea.

Thus the shapes and positions of the continents are not fixed and permanent.

Question 8.
Describe the theory of continental drift.
Answer:

• In 1912 Alfred Wegener propounded the theory of continental drift to describe the present arrangement of continents and ocean basins.
• He postulated a massive super continent Pangaea that existed 220 million years ago.
• Pangaea, the hypothetical continent, from which present continents originated by the drift from Mesozoic era to the present.
• Wegener hypothesized that the super continent of Pangaea broke up to from :
  a) Laurensia – consisting of present North America, Greenland and all of Eurasia north of Indian subcontinent and
  b) Gondwana land – consisting of present South America, Africa, Madagascar, Arabia, India, Malaysia, East Indies, Australia and Antarctica.
• These two blocks were separated by a long shallow inland sea called Tethys sea.
• It took millions of years for the continents to reach the present shapes and positions on the globe.
• Even today many of the continents are moving very slowly pushing each other.

Question 9.
What do you know about latitudes?
Answer:

• Latitudes are imaginary lines drawn around the earth.
• The word ‘latitude’ comes to us from the Latin word ‘iatitudo’ meaning width.
• Latitudes are also called parallels because they are parallel to each other.
• Latitudes are circles.
• Latitudes are expressed in degrees (°), minutes (‘) and seconds (“).
• Latitude values range from 0° t* 90° North (the North Pole) and 90° South (the South Pole).
• Thus there are 180° main latitudes (not counting the equator)
• Equator, the 0° latitude is the largest among all the latitudes.
• Latitudes are used together with the longitudes to locate a place on the earth.
• Latitudes are used to locate the climatic zones on the earth.

Question 10.
What do you know about longitudes?
Answer:

• Longitudes are imaginary lines connecting North and South’Poles.
• Longitudes are semi-circles.
• Longitudes are also called meridians because when the sun is overhead on a longitude at the time on that longitude it is noon (meridianus).
• There are 360 longitudes in total.
• The longitudes from 0° to 180° to the east are called eastern longitudes.
• The longitudes from 0° to 180° to the west are called western longitudes.
• 0° meridian is called the Prime meridian or Greenwich meridian.
• Longitudes are also expressed in degrees (°), minutes (‘) and seconds (“).

Question 11.
How are the time zones formed and why are they formed?
Answer:

• It takes 4 minutes for the sun’s position to move 1° of longitude.
• This means that the time is different for each degree of longitude.
• This can cause a lot of confusion.
• Therefore to end up this confusion the world is divided into 24 time zones.
• The width of each time zone is 15° of longitude.
• This means the difference between one time zone and the next is 1 hour.
• As you go from Greenwich meridian, you add time; as you go west of the Greenwich meridian you subtract time.

Question 12.
Why does every country have its own standard time?
Answer:

• The world is divided into 24 time zones.
• The width of each time zone is 15° of longitude.
• This means that the difference between one time zone and the next is one hour.
• Some countries would have more than one time zone with less than one hour division.
• This is considered too complicated to be useful.
• That is why some countries choose the time along one of the meridians that pass throught their territory and follow the time of that meridian for the whole country.
• This time is called standard time.

Question 13.
What is a Grid?
Answer:
A grid is a square or a rectangle that is formed between when two latitudes and longitudes out across each other. In other words, the network of latitudes and longitudes drawn on the globe is called a ‘grid’.

Question 14.
When it is 12 noon in Greenwich (0°), what is the local time at Mumbai (73° E)?
Answer:
Mumbai (73° E) : Local time at Mumbai is : 73 x 4 = 292 minutes, i.e. 4 hours 52 minutes. That means the local time at Mumbai is 4 hours 52 minutes after 12 noon i.e., 12.00 + 4.52 = 4.52 p.m.

Question 15.
When it is 12 noon in Greenwich (0°), what is the local time at Chicago (87°30′ W) ? Chicago (87°30‘ W) : Local time at Chicago is : 87°30‘ x 4 = 350 minutes, i.e. 6 hours 50 minutes. That means the local time at Chicago is 6 hours 50 minutes less than 12.00 noon at Greenwich.
i.e. 12.00-6.50 = 5.10 a.m.

Question 16.
When it is 12 noon in Greenwich (0°), what is the local time at Sydney (151° E)?
Answer:
Sydney (151° E): Local time at Sydney is 151° x4 = 604 minutes, i.e. 10 hours 4 minutes before Greenwich time.
That means the local time at Sydney is 12.00 + 10.04 = 10.04 p.m

Question 17.
a) What are called ‘parallels’?
b) What are called ‘meridians’?
Answer:
а) Latitudes are called ‘parallels’,
b) Longitudes are called ‘meridians’.

Question 18.
What is the standard meridian of India?
Answer:
82°30′ Eastern longitude is the standard meridian of India.

Question 19.
If you were to travel from India to Japan. How would be the change in time?
Answer:

1. Japan is located in East to India.
2. If we travel to East, then we gain time as per East Gain Add (EGA).
3. India is in 5Vi hours time zone and Japan in 9 hours time zone.
4. Both are in eastern hemisphere. Thus we gain nearly 3% hours time.

Question 20.
How do you think human greed led to exploitation of the earth?
Answer:

• Human life on earth dates back to one lakh years, whereas formation of the earth was four and a half billion years ago.
• Man has constantly trying to change our surrounding to make it a better place to live in.
• He looked on earth as a storehouse of resources and making use of it, at will.
• Thus his greed led to exploitation of the earth.

Question 21.
Why do you think, it took so long time to understand the interior of the earth?
Answer:

• It is difficult for man to know directly about the Earth’s interior.
• So far man could dig a 3 km interior of the earth.
• He could send pipes upto a depth of 6K km.
• But, the radius of the earth is 6,440 km.
• Apart from this, if we go deep the earth-temperature raises at a rate of 1°C for every 32 meters.
• An estimated temperature at the centre of the interior of the earth is 6000°C.
• Thus man was unable to get direct information.
• So he need to rely on indirect sources like seismic waves etc.
• Thus it took so long time to understand the interior of the earth.

Question 22.
Describe the earth’s interior.
Answer:

1. The earth has a radius of 6440 km.
2. The temperature increases at a rate of 1°C for every 32 mts. of depth.
3. The temperature at the centre of the earth would be 6000° C.
4. As such the rocks will be in molten stage.
5. Pressure also increases when one goes deeper into the earth.
6. The earth is made up of three layers. They are : 1) Crust, 2) Mantle, 3) Core.
7. These layers differ from one another in thickness and also in their physical and chemical compositions.

Question 23.
What is “continental drift theory”? Explain.
(OR)
What is the “theory of continental drift”?
Answer:

• Alfred Wagener postulated the theory of continental drift.
• It explains the present arrangement of continents and ocean basins.
• He postulated a massive super continent called “Pangaea” which existed 220 million years ago.
• Present continents originated, by the drift from this “Pangaea”.
• Wagener hypothesised that the supercontinent of Pangaea broke up into two blocks
  1) Laurensia,
  2) Gondwana land.
• The two blocks were separated by a long shallow inland ocean called “Tethys”.
• It took millions of years for the continents to reach the present shape and position.

Question 24.
Differenciate between latitudes and longitudes.
Answer:

Question 25.
How many blocks did the Pangaea brake up into? What are they?
Answer:
The super continent of Pangaea was broke up into two blocks.
1) Laurensia:
Present N.America, Greenland and all of Eurasia, north of Indian subcontinent formed from it.

2) Gondwana land :
Present S.America, Africa, Madagascar, India, Arabia, Malaysia, East Indies, Australia and Antarctica formed from it.

Question 26.
How do you find a place in an atlas?
Answer:

1. We can find the information about a place in an atlas with the help of latitudes and longitudes.
2. Places are listed alphabetically at the back of the atlas.
   Ex : To locate “Visakhapatnam”.

Question 27.
What are longitudes? How many are there? Name some important longitudes.
Answer:

1. The semicircles connecting pole to pole are called longitudes.
2. They are 360 in number.
3. Some important longitudes are :
   a) Prime Meridian – 0° longitude
   b) International Date Line – 180° longitude

Question 28.
“For long we have looked at the Earth as a store house of resources, which we can exploit and use at will. Gradually we are realizing the fallacy of this view point” – Interpret the above statement.
Answer:
For long we have looked at the earth as a store house of resources. With this view we recklessly exploited the earth and are responsible to the destruction of forests, rivers, hills, fellow animals and even fellow humans. This resulted in the environmental crises such as global warming and poisoning of our soils, water and air.

But gradually we understand that the earthly resources are not infinite but finite and the environmental system is a closed one. So we should not use the natural resources indiscriminately.

If a man has to survive, he must derive something from the nature. The exploitation of minimum resources from the natural environment to fulfil the basic needs of human society would cause disequilibrium of some sort in the ecological balance resulting into environmental degradation and pollution. We should always use the natural resources in such a way that they are always at available in a desired quantity and quality.

Question 29.
“Today more than any other time we need to build a new understanding of the Earth, how it works and what we do on it and what we do with each other” – Interpret the above statement.
Answer:
In the decades of 1970s there emerged a concern about the fear of depletion of natural resources because of irrational and rapacious utilization of natural resources. This serious concern arises from the fact-rapid rate of rapacious exploitation of natural resources and modern production processes and advanced technologies. Thus the exploitation of natural resources has threatened the stability and survival of natural ecosystems and existence of several plant and animal species.

Hence today more than any other time we need to build a new understanding of the earth, how it works and what we do on it and what we do with each other.

Question 30.
Read the following para and answer the questions.
Scientists have figured out that the stars are actually part of larger groups called galaxies and that there are millions of such galaxies in the universe. Now, they are of the view that the universe itself started some 13.7 billion years ago with a ‘Big Bang’ and that it may end several billion years later.
1) What is a galaxy?
Answer:
A larger group of stars is called a galaxy.

2) When was the ‘Big Bang’ happened?
Answer:
‘Big bang’ was happened some IB.7 billion years ago.

3) How many galaxies are contemplated by scientists?
Answer:
Scientists contemplated that there are millions of galaxies in the universe.

4) When would be the end of the universe?
Answer:
The end of the universe would be after several billions of years.

Question 31.
What factors determine the number of standard times of countries?
Answer:
Countries which have much east-west extension will have a number of standard times.
Ex: Russia.

Question 32.
Identify other names of “Earth”.
Answer:
Bhoomi, Prudhvi, Dharithri, Dharani, Pudami, etc.

Question 33.

Observe the table and answer the following questions.
1) Which is uppermost layer of the interior of the earth?
Answer:
Crust is the uppermost layer of the interior of the earth.

2) What is the thickness of the core?
Answer:
The thickness of the core is 3476 kms.

3) Which layer is supposed to have more gold?
Answer:
The inner core is supposed to have more gold.

4) What is the radius of the earth?
Answer:
The radius of the earth is 6376 km.

Question 34.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below.

What is the latitudinal value of “Equator”?
Answer:
The latitudinal value of Equator is “0°”.

2) What is the name given to 90° N and 90° S latitudes?
Answer:
90° N is called North pole and 90° S is called South pole.

3) What are the values of Arctic and Antarctic circles ?
Answer:
The value of Arctic circle is 6634° N.
The value of Antarctic circle is 6634° S.

4) In which hemisphere is the Arctic circle situated ?
Answer:
Arctic circle is in Northern hemisphere.

5) Which latitude does not have any direction?
Answer:
The Equator does not possess any direction.

Question 35.
One among our ‘environment crises’ is the poisoning of air. in light of this, how would you assess the Government of Delhi, deciding to allow vehicles with odd and even number plates on alternate days?
Answer:

• Air pollution is one among the environmental crises we face.
• Government of Delhi decided to allow the odd number plate vehicles to ply on the Delhi roads the other day.
• This alternate day journey provision definitely reduces the traffic congestion.
• It also promises in reduction of pollution.
• Already petrol vehicles ply on Delhi roads was banned.
• Compressed Natural Gas is the need of the hour.
• However, care must be taken to disallow everyone to have a vehicle with odd number and another with even.

Question 36.
Observe the following pictures.

a) What do the above pictures represent?
Answer:
The above pictures represent the stages of continental drift.

b) Look at the above picture “2” and identify the following.
1) India,
2) Africa,
3) Tethys sea

c) Identify.
i) South America in picture “3”.
ii) Antarctica in picture “4”.
Answer:

Question 37.
How can you say the Earth’s orbit is nearly circular but not exactly circular or an elongated oval path?
Answer:

• The orbit is the path of the Earth around the sun.
• The difference between earth’s farthest point (about 152 million km from the sun and the closest point 147 million km) is very small.
• Thus we can say the earth’s orbit is nearly circular but not exactly circular or an elongated oval path.

Question 38.
Prepare a palmphet on environmental crises.
Environment Crises
Answer:
For longtime man looked on earth as a store house of resources and tried to exploit at will. His reckless exploitation of earth has meant distruction of forests, rivers, hills, fellow animals and even fellow human beings.

Global warming, which is caused by the increased presence of green house gases like carbon dioxide, methane etc. It is resulting in melting of ice and submerging of low lands and coasts.

Soil pollution is caused by excessive use of chemicals, fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture and industrial waste deposition. Soil erosion is caused by excessive falling of trees and lack of pastures.

Water pollution is caused by routing of industrial wastes into water, usage of chemicals and pesticides etc. Air pollution is caused by the emissions from vehicles, air conditions etc.

Question 39.
Create visual representation to understand the time as described in the earth’s origin to your birth.
Answer:

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 18th Impact of Colonialism in India

9th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
How did people use the forests before the rule of the British? Why was there less danger of the forests being fully destroyed in those days?
Answer:

• The adivasis used forests for hunting, gathering tubers, fruits, flowers and herbs and for gazing their cattle.
• They cut wood, cleared the land to cultivate crops.
• They cut trees to build their homes etc.
• They did not blindly cut large tracts of forests but only small patches.
• They cut only old trees and allowed new trees to grow.
  Therefore there was less danger of the forests being fully destroyed in those days.

Question 2.
Against whom did the adivasis revolt? In what ways did they demonstrate their anger and protest? Give some examples.
Answer:

• The Adivasis revolted against the police department, the forest department and the moneylenders.
• During the protests they would burn down many police stations, posts of the forest department and houses of the moneylenders.
• In many places they would set fire to the entire jungle.
• The revolt of Santhals of Jharkhand in 1856, the Koya revolt of A.P. in 1880 and 1922, the revolt of the Maria and Muria of Bastar in 1910, etc. were some of the revolts of adivasis.

Question 3.
How were the revolts of the adivasis suppressed by the British?
Answer:

• In most of the revolts the leaders were arrested and were kept behind bars,
  e.g.: Birsa Munda died in prison in 1900.
• The leaders were traped and shot dead by the Britishers,
  e.g.: Sita Rama Raju of A.P.
• The Adivasis were armed only with bows and arrows.
• They could not stand before the gun-bearing British army.
  e.g. : In a fierce battle 15000 Santhals were killed and their revolt was finally suppressed.

Question 4.
Make a timeline to show when adivasi protests occurred in different parts of India.
Answer:

Question 5.
What problems did the Indian industrialists have with the British government?
Answer:
The problems of the Indian industrialists during the British government were –

1. The British government had levied a special tax on cloth made by Indian weavers in order to help the cloth industry of Britain.
2. The British government refused to levy the similar tax on the British cloth.
3. Later the government levied a 3 /2% tax on the British goods and the same tax was levied on the cloth made in India too.
4. With this the British government made it clear that it would protect mainly the interests of the British factories.

Question 6.
During British rule, why was it easier for the European companies rather than Indian companies to set up industries? Give a few reasons.
Answer:

• Indian industry had got a little help from the British government.
• A very large number of factories, banks, ships etc., were in the hands of Europeans, not in the hands of Indians.
• British industries had easy access to all types of officers and authorities of the British government, whereas Indians never had such reach.
• All the foreign trade was in the hands of European companies, hence, they had no shortage of funds.

Question 7.
Labour laws were first made for child labourers, then for women and lastly for men. Why were these laws made in this order?
Answer:

• The first Factory Act in 1881 made rules especially for the welfare of the children.
• As the children are tender hence the first priority was given for the welfare and regularized their working hours and children below 7 years were restricted to work in factories.
• In 1891, laws were made in the interest of women labour as they are sensitive when compared with men.
• Lastly in 1911, the working hours of men were regularised.

Question 8.
How could education affect industrial development ? Discuss in the class.
Answer:

• Industrial development needs a lot of educational workers and officers at all levels.
  We need lot of technicians, scientists, engineers, management personnels, lot of support system etc.
  Previously lack of “technical know how” led to the establishment of factories with foreign collaboration
  Now due to education affect, we are technically skillful and can establish industries without any foreign collaboration.

Question 9.
Identify the large industrial cities on outline map of India during 20th century.

Answer:

1. Mumbai
2. Ahmedabad
3. Chennai
4. Jamshedpur
5. Kanpur
6. Kolkata
7. Hyderabad
8. Surat
9. Visakhapatnam
10. Pune
11. Nagpur
12. Indore
13. Salem

Question 10.
Find out where each of these adivasi struggles took place, and mark their locations on a map of India.
Answer:

1. Jharkhand
2. Chotanagpur Plateau
3. Uttarkhand
4. Chintapalli
5. Adilabad

Question 11.
Read the para under the title ‘Adivasi Revolts’ on page 222 and comment on it.
Adivasi Revolts :
We have seen how the conditions of the adivasi farmers who lived in the jungle worsened in British times. The Baiga, Muria, Gond and Bhil tribes of Madhya Pradeshand Chattisgarh, the Koya, Reddy, and Kolam tribes of Andhra Pradesh and the Saora adivasis of Orissa, were all no longer able to practice their old form of cultivation. They were having to become labourers for either the Forest Department or for contractors. Or they were becoming bonded labourers for moneylenders or farmers who had come from outside.
Answer:

1. As soon as the British took over Eastern India, tribal revolts broke out to challenge the alien rule.
2. In the early years of colonization, no other community in India offered such heroic resistance to British rule or faced such tragic consequences as did the numerous Adivasi communities.
3. As punishment for Adivasi resistance to British rule, ‘The Criminal Tribes Act’ was passed by the British Government in 1871.
4. As the freedom movement widened, it drew adivasis into all aspects of the struggle.

Question 12.
Visit an office of the Forest Department and interview the official on how forest could be preserved and wisely used by both industries and local people.
Answer:
Interview with Forest Ofiicer :
Student (S) : “Good Morning Sir, tell us about your eduction.”
Forest Officer (F.O) : “I was a village man. After completing my graduation, I appeared for the APPSC. Later I got selected and trained at Dehardun. I was appointed in forests in East Godavari Dist.
Student : Sir, elaborate upon your works as a Forest Officer.”
Forest Officer : “My work involved preservation of forest. As a Forest Officer it is my duty to safeguard the forests. Today, the world’s demand for timber and paper continues to grow. As we lose the forest, we also lose the habitat for many species, including human tribes.”
Student : “What precautions should we take to preserve the forests ?”
Forest Officer : 1. The government should ban the import of illegally logged timber.
2. The people should use less paper and wood.
3. People should invest in forest communities.
Student : “How can the forests be used wisely by both industries and local people ?”
Forest Officer : “Fine, there are certain things that everyone of us can do.
1. We should plant new trees.
2. We should practise the 3Rs. ‘Reduce, Reuse and Recycle’.
Reduce the amount of products of trees.
Reuse the items of forests, use the recycling process for some items.
3. Harvesting trees to create young regrowing forest in the place of cut forests.
4. We should keep all wildlife in our minds.
Student : “Thank you Sir, you gave us good information. Bye, sir”
Forest Officer : “Very good my boy. God bless you.”

Question 13.
Visit a nearby factory in your area find out its history how has the technology changed, where do the workers come from, try and talk to the employers and some workers to get their views.
Answer:
We have visited Sri Padmavathi Polymers.
Sri K. Chalapathi Rao and Sri C.V. Narasimha Rao are the partners of this factory. The factory was established in the year 2007. There are 50 employees in this factory. They are manufacturers and suppliers of Thermocol Boxes like EPS box, Apple box, Fish box, etc.

They import the thermocol balls from some other country. They heat these balls and mould them in different shapes.

The employers are present in the factory when we visit it. We met Smt. Subhadra, Accountant there. They are very happy to work there. They said that the facilities arranged by the authorities were well. There are shift duties in the factory. Women workers work during the day time only. The salary structures are also fine. They have eight working hours a day. We observe the surroundings in the factory. They are neat and clean. They grow plants for fresh air.

9th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss what “Protected market” means. (Text Book Page No. 225)
ANswer:

• “Protected Market” is the policy according to which goods made in a specific area be protected from foreign goods.
• Protection is given to the indigeneous goods by levying tax on imports. Thereby free incoming of imports is restricted to protect local markets.
• Indian markets were not protected during the British rule.

Question 2.
The Indians demanded that a tax be imposed on British goods coming to India.
1) Do you think this was a fair demand? (Text Book Page No. 225)
2) Should the government have treated British and Indian industries equally?
Answer:

1. Yes, Indians’ demand of taxing the British goods coming to India was a fair demand.
2. Yes, the government should have treated British and Indian industries equally.

Question 3.
Why did a rapid development take place in Indian industry during the First World War? (Text Book Page No. 226)
Answer:

• During the First World War, the import of foreign goods into India fell sharply.
• Cargo ships were diverted to war related duties, and hence there was a shortage of ships.
• The factories of Europe produced things needed for the war.
• So under these circumstances, the factories in India started selling their goods in greater quantities.
• Enthused by these heavy sales there was a rapid development of industries.

Question 4.
What industries were established in India during British rule? (Text Book Page No. 227)
Answer:

• From 1850 onwards, machine based industries had begun to set up in India.
• The biggest industry was the spinning and weaving of textiles.
• The jute industry also developed during this peirod.
• The greatest example of the achievements of Indian industrialists was the setting up of a steel factory at Jamshedpur in 1907.

Question 5.
What were the difficulties in the development of Indian industries at the time of Independence? (Text Book Page No. 227)
Answer:

• Tax levied on foreign goods was not adequate to protect our industries or goods.
• The British government did not pay adequate attention to develop the resources and facilities such as coal and iron and railway, roadways and electricity.
• Indian industrialists had to buy machines from abroad and they did not start in India.
• Educated workers like scientists, engineers and technicians were not available in India.
• Hence we depended on foreigners for “technical know how”.
• The above were the difficulties in the development of Indian industries at the time of independence.

Question 6.
In the early days of factories in India : (Text Book Page No. 229)
a) What were the rules regarding work and rest for labourers?
b) What were the rules regarding payment of wages ?
c) For what reasons would there be cuts and reductions in the labourers’ wages?
Answer:
a) Rules regarding work and rest for labourers :

1. Once the work began, there was no question of stopping.
2. There was no fixed time break even for meals.
3. Taking out 15-20 minutes from their work and would eat their meal.
4. The working atmosphere was unhygienic and would pass in the heat, humidity, noise, dust and suffocation of the mill.
5. The work would stop at sunset, when it would impossible to see.

b) Rules regarding payment of wages :

1. Wages were given in proportion to the amount of goods produced.
2. The owners laid the condition that “as much as you make, so much will you be paid”.
3. The labourers were not able to get any fixed income each month.
4. At the end of the month, the owners would not even pay the full payment. They would keep some amount till the end of the next week so that the worker would not leave the work.

c) Reasons for cuts and reductions in the wages :

1. There were plenty of fines.
2. The owners would fine the labourers
   a) if they came late,
   b) if the cloth spoilt,
   c) if the owner thought the labourer did not work sincerely.
3. These fines were deducted from the month’s wages.

Question 7.
Why did labourers go on strikes? (Text Book Page No. 230)
Answer:

1. Labourers struggled against their oppressive working conditions.
2. They went on strike for fixed incomes and other facilities such as –
   a) regulation of working hours
   b) improvement of their working conditions
   c) weekly break and leave
   d) regarding employment of children

Question 8.
Why were strikes used instead of any other action? (Text Book Page No. 230)
Answer:

• During strikes all workers would participate.
• Due to that the work would stop and the production would come down.
• One day strike would lead to lakhs of rupees loss to all industrialists.
• Hence strikes were used instead of any other work.

Question 9.
Why did the educated people of India not pay much attention to the interests of factory labourers in the beginning? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• In the beginning most of the educated people of India paid no need to the problems of the labourers.
  They believed that if laws were made in the interests of the labourers, industries would not be able to develop in India.

Question 10.
How would the labour laws have affected the industrialists? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• The industrialists were forced to give a break of half an hour after every six hours of work.
• The working hours of men, women and children were regularised.
• The mill production came down.
• The expenses of the owners increased.
• They were forced to improve the working conditions of the workers.

Question 11.
The British industrialists were against the development of factories in India, yet they took the side of Indian labourers. Why? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• If fixed incomes and facilities were provided, the mill production would come down and the expenses of the owners would go up.
• Then the goods produced in the factories would be more expensive.
• Then the goods from Britain would be sold easily.
• The development of Indian industries would come to a standstill.
  Thus the British industrialists were just pretending to show concern for the welfare of the Indian labourers.

Question 12.
Below what age could children not be employed as labourers in British times? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• According to the Factory Act of 1881, children below the age of 7 were not allowed to work in the factories.
• According to the Factory Act of 1891, children below the age of 9 were not allowed to work in the factories.

Question 13.
According to the labour laws what was the maximum number of hours that children, women and men could be expected to work? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• According to the Factory Act of 1881, the children’s working hours were reduced to 9 hours a day.
• According to the Factory Act of 1891, the women labourers cannot be made to work more than 11 hours a day.
• The men labourers cannot be made to work for more than 12 hours every day as per the Factory Act of 1911.

Question 14.
Which were the two main labourers’ unions to be formed in India during British times? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• Girni Kamgar Union was formed with the help of labourers of Mumbai.
• The Mazdoor Mahazan was formed in Ahmedabad under the influence of Gandhiji.

Question 15.
In which year were you born? Mark it on this time line. Also mark the births of your parents and some grandparents or other old relatives you can find out about. (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:
I was born on ……………. . My father was born on ……………. . My mother was born on ……………. . My grand father was born on My grand mother was born on ……………. .

Question 16.
Find out whether any of the people whose births you marked were affected by the labour laws. (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:
My grandfather was affected by labour law. He worked in a sugar factory. So he obtained many benefits by labour law. Working hours duration, medical, housing etc., facilities were obtained.

Question 17.
Underline four sentences that represent the situation of adivasis and their use of forests before British rule. (Text Book Page No. 220)
Answer:

• Before British rule adivasis and villagers living in and near forests got many things they needed for their daily lives from the forests.
• They were the owners of the forests.
• They used the forests for hunting, gathering tubers, fruits,flowers and herbs and for grazing their cattle.
• They cut wood to build their homes and to make implements. They took things for their personal use.

Question 18.
Have you seen old wooden sleepers used in railway tracks ? What are they being replaced with today? Discuss why this replacement is taking place. (Text Book Page No. 221)
Answer:
Yes, I have seen wooden sleepers in railway tracks when I was very young. They are replaced by concrete sleepers today. Interest in concrete rail road ties increased after World War – II following advances in the design, quality and production of pre-stressed concrete. Concrete ties were cheaper and easier to obtain than timber and better able to carry higher axle weights and sustain higher speeds. Concrete sleepers have a longer service life and require less maintenance than timber due to their greater weight which helps them remain in the correct position longer.

Problems with wood ties include rot, splitting, insect infestation, plate-cutting, etc. In addition to these, the government wanted to reduce the burden on the forests.

So the concrete sleepers are introduced and replaced the wooden sleepers.

Question 19.
What do the present laws set as minimum age, below which children cannot be employed as labourers? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:
According to the recent factory acts no child below 14 years of age can be employed as labour in factories or coalmines or any other jobs.

Question 20.
Why is a union or labourers’ organization important for labourers? Discuss. (Text Book Page No. 233)
Answer:

• Any union or organizations fight for the common cause of all workers.
• They fight for the right of the workers.
• They protect the workers from the harassment of owners.
• They also fight for the hike in salaries and compensation for accident deaths, etc.

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 6th Lesson Agriculture in India Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 6th Lesson Agriculture in India

9th Class Social Studies 6th Lesson Agriculture in India Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Name one important beverage crop and specify the geographical conditions required for its growth.
Answer:

• Tea is an important beverage crop.
• The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates.
• Fertile, well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter is essential.
• Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
• Frequent showers are necessary.

Question 2.
The land under cultivation has got reduced day by day. Can you imagine its consequences?
Answer:

• The land under cultivation has been reducing due to the competition for land between non-agricultural uses such as housing, etc.
• As a result, the productivity of India has started showing a declining trend.
• That would lead to the scarcity of food grains in future and in turn poverty and drought situation would prevail in our country.

Question 3.
On an outline map of India show millet producing areas.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is a Minimum Support Price (MSP)? Why is a MSP needed?
Answer:
1) A Minimum Support Price is a price at which the farmers can sell their grain, if they want, to the Government.
2) The Government sets the MSP so as to cover the cost of cultivation and allow a little bit of profit to the farmer.
3) Thus the farmer, produced far markets within the country.
4) The farmers are not forced to sell their grains at cheaper prices to the traders.

Question 5.
Explain all the ways the Indian government supported the Green Revolution.
Answer:

• The Green Revolution was initially introduced in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, and in some parts of Andhra Pradesh and Tamilnadu.
• The Government introduced new kinds of seeds, known as High Yielding Varieties to the Indian soils.
• It was also accompanied by use of chemical fertilizers, machinery such as tractors, and others besides irrigation facilities.
• A variety of cooperative banks were set up to provide credit to farmers so that they buy raw materials such as seeds, fertilizers, and pesticides, machinery required for modern farming.

Question 6.
Do you think it is important for India to be self-sufficient in food grain production? Discuss.
Answer:

• A large portion of our population especially children and poor communities are unable to get adequate nutrition.
• Whenever there were little rains, drought situations prevailed. This led to decrease in food production and forced government to import food grains.
• To avoid these kind of situations we should be self-sufficient in food grain production.
• A large stock of food grains has built-up with the government through Food
  Corporation of India that could be used in case of shortage and can avoid drought and famine situations in our country.

Question 7.
How is dry land agriculture different from agriculture in other areas?
Answer:

• 45% of the cultivable land which cannot easily be irrigated and depend solely on rainfall is known as dryland in our country.
• Unlike the cultivation of irrigated lands, dryland farming poses different challenges.
  a) Conserving rainfall that the area receives is the first step. This is done through watershed development programme which includes afforestation, bunding, building check-dams, and tanks.
  b) Fertility of the soil needs to be raised by adding organic manure.
  c) Farmers may also need new varieties of seeds suitable for different regions, knowledge about the best ways of growing a mix of crops on the same land etc.
  Hence farming in dryland is different from other areas.

Question 8.
Can you recall the incidents such as pesticides being found in soft drinks? How is this related to the use of pesticides? Discuss.
Answer:

• The use of pesticides is polluting underground water.
• The soft drink factories use this underground water for making soft drinks.
• Hence undissolved pesticides are seen in soft drink.

Question 9.
Why is chemical fertilizer used in new farming methods? How could use of fertilizers make soil less fertile ? What are the alternative ways of enriching soil?
Answer:

• The chemical fertilizers are used to increase production of crops.
• But the chemical fertilizers are basically made for petro-chemicals. And eventually remain in the soil.
• As a result, many micro organisms like earth worms are destroyed.
• These micro organisms increase the fertlity of the soil. But these are detroyed and hence this, in turn, affects the long run fertility of the soil.
• The alternative ways of enriching soil, like vermicompost, can be used to increase the fertility of the soil.

Question 10.
How has the Green Revolution in some areas resulted in short-term gains but longterm losses to farmers?
Answer:

• In Green Revoluton, the farmers are encouraged to pump ground water to water-intensive crops in low rainfall areas.
• This unsustainable pumping has reduced water storage in ground.
• Consequently, many wells and tubewells have run dry.
• More over the use of chemical fertilizers has also affected the long-term fertility of the soil. Hence we can say that Green Revolution has short-term gains and long term losses.

Question 11.
What could be the effects of foreign trade on farmers’ income?
Answer:

• Foreign trade could cause farmers’ income to fluctuate a lot.
• In certain years and for certain crops the farmers might gain from exports.
• In other years, farmers could lose because of cheap imports and fall in prices of farm products.
• Small farmers without much savings will not be able to bear this loss.
• They will be caught in debt trap and become poorer.
• Hence the government must be careful in allowing trade in farm products.

Question 12.
In earlier classes we have studied about land distribution. How does the following image reflect this idea? Write a paragraph about this in the context of Indian agriculture.

Answer:
In India more than 70% of the farmers are having only small and marginal holdings,
i. e., Less than 2 hectares and hence most of these farms are not viable. The small farmers cannot produce enough to meet even their basic requirements of their families. They can invest more in agriculture to increase production. They are unable to get financial assistances.
Caption : “A man of sixty acres :
A group of six feet”.

Question 13.
Read the para under the title ‘Fertilizer Problems’ on page 70 and comment on it.

Answer:

• The main environmental problem associated with fertilizer use is contamination of water with nitrates and phosphates.
• Elevated nitrogen levels in drinking water.
• Environmental pollution is a significant problem. But while most of the focus is placed on polluting industries, toxins like mercury and small particle traffic pollution, a major source of environmental devastation is caused by modern food production. Far from being life sustaining, our modern chemical dependent farming methods.

– Strip soil of nutrients
– Destroy critical soil microbes.
– Contribute to desertification and global climate change, and
– Saturate form lands with toxic pesticides, herbicides and fertilizers that then migrate into ground water, rivers, lakes and oceans.

Question 14.
Observe the map given in the page 74 and locate the States where paddy is grown in the India outline map.

Answer:

1. Punjab
2. Haryana
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Bihar
5. West Bengal
6. Chattisgarh
7. Odisha
8. Telangana
9. Andhra Pradesh
10. Karnataka
11. Tamilnadu

Question 15.
Which crops are grown in your area? Which of these are grown from HYV seeds and which ones are grown from traditional seeds? Compare the HYV seeds and the traditional seeds with regard to each of the following points :
a) duration of crop
b) number of times irrigated
c) production
d) fertilisers
e) diseases
f) pesticides
Answer:
1. Paddy, sugarcane, maize, pulses are grown in our area.
2. Paddy is grown from HYV seeds and the remaining are grown from traditional seeds.
3.

Question 16.
Conduct a Debate : Make the students two teams. One team should support chemical fertilizers and another should support organic farming.
Answer:
Teacher conducts this Debate.
Example : In agriculture it is better to be followed organic fertilizers.
Reasons :
Pesticides can enter the human body.
There is a chance of groundwater damage.
The use of fertilizers can reduce the natural nutrients on the soil surface, etc.

9th Class Social Studies 6th Lesson Agriculture in India InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name some of the states of India where such farming is practised? (Text Book Page No. 59)
Answer:
Punjab, Haryana, Odisha, Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar
Pradesh and some parts of Rajasthan.

Question 2.
Give some more examples of crops which may be commercial in one region and may provide subsistence in another region. (Text Book Page No. 60)
Answer:
1) In Haryana and Punjab, rice is a commercial crop whereas in Odisha it is a subsistence crop.
2) In Punjab, maize is a commercial crop whereas in Jharkhand it is a subsistence crop.

Question 3.
Distinguish which of these pulses are grown in the kharif season and which are grown in the rabi season? (Text Book Page No. 62)
Answer:
Pulses grown in the Kharif season :
Red gram, Black gram and Green gram.

Pulses grown in Rabi season :
Peas, Bean, Chickling vetch and Lentil.

Question 4.
Complete the bar diagram given on P.65 in Textbook and find out the percentage of cultivators and agricultural labourers in 1971 and 2001 respectively. (Text Book Page No. 65)
Answer:

1. Student’s activity.
2. Percentage of cultivators in 1971 = 62
3. Percentage of agricultural labourers in 2001 = 46

Question 5.
In which decades the food grains yields grow fast? What could be probable reasons for this? (Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:
The food grains yields grew fast between 1980 – 1990, 2000 – 2010.
The green revolution helped farmers to produce higher level of food grains.

Question 6.
Can organic farming produce enough food for all? (Text Book Page No. 72)
Answer:
If some measures are taken, I think, organic farming can produce food for all.

Question 7.
How is organic farming especially suited for small and marginal farmers? Discuss. (Text Book Page No. 72)
Answer:
Large sections of farmers in India and their land holdings are small and marginal.
Their access to external inputs is limited and their ability to improve production is low. Globalisation and the opening up of the trade barriers among the nations have resulted in the decline of agricultural prices in the local markets to the detriment of the interests of these small and marginal farmers. Thus organic farming especially is suited for small and marginal farmers.

Question 8.
Read the following table. (Text Book Page No. 66)
Number of farmers and land they possess in India (2010 – 2011)

Complete the data in the table and the explanation in the following passage below.
Majority of farmers operate only small plots of lands. A typical Indian marginal farmer has only aboutacres to cultivate. There are 924 lakh farmers so that ..(2)..% of all farmers are marginal. If we add up the number of small and marginal farmers they form …(3)..% of all farmers. However, even though in percentage terms medium and large farmers is small, the number in absolute terms is large. ..(4)…lakh farmers can be together considered to be in this group. They have a powerful voice in rural areas. This group of large and medium farmers together operate …(5)…% of the land. Each large farmer for example on an average operates ..(6)..acres of land. Compare this with each marginal farmer who operates on an average ..(7)..acres of land. This inequality in distribution of land explains the inequalities in opportunities that they experience, the pov¬erty or growth opportunity that they face.
Answer:

1. 2.5
2. 67%
3. 85%
4. 69
5. 32%
6. 42.9 acres
7. 0.95 acres.

Question 9.
Discuss the differences between self employment and looking for work using examples from your region. (Text Book Page No. 65)
Answer:
1. In self employment, people create their own employment and earn their livelihood. They do not depend either on government or an any other persons for their livelihood.
e.g.: Working in their own farms, opening a shop or public telephone booth or establishing a small organization like manufacturing of candles, matchboxes, etc.

2. On the other hand, some people cannot create their own employment. They generally depend either on government or on any other organization or a person for earning their livelihood.
e.g.: Working in the fields or others, or in a shop or working as government servant, etc.

Question 10.
Do you think that some families who were earlier cultivators are becoming agricultural labourers now? Discuss. (Text Book Page No. 65)
Answer:
Reasons:

1. Small land holdings
2. Dependency on seasons for rainfall
3. High rate of interests on loans
4. Very low minimum support price
5. Lack of technology
6. Big families and
7. Some rituals.
   All these changed the cultivators as agricultural labourers.

Question 11.
In which areas were the new methods of agriculture first tried? Why was the whole country not covered? (Text Book Page No. 68)
Answer:
1. The new methods were initially implemented in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and in some districts of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Tamilnadu.

2. The HYV seeds required a lot of water and these areas were already irrigated.
Hence the new methods were introduced in these areas.

Question 12.
Why are different methods necessary for dry land areas? (Text Book Page No. 68)
Answer:

• 45% of the land which cannot be irrigated are known as dry lands.
• It would be very difficult and expensive to irrigate these dry lands.
• These areas must depend solely on rainfall.
  Hence different methods are necessary for dry land areas.

Question 13.
How increase in buffer stock would help to avoid situations of drought and famines? (Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:

• A large stock of food grains should be maintained with the government.
• That buffer stock could be used in case of shortage of food grains and can also be used to supply foodgrains to inaccessible areas.
• We can also avoid drought and famine like situations in our country.

Question 14.
How farmers were able to raise higher amount of food grains on the same plot of land over the years? (Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:
The use of High Yielding Varieties of seeds, chemical fertilizers, machinery, etc. made the farmers to raise higher amount of food grains on the same plot of land over the years.

Question 15.
Why did not the Indian government allow farmers to export foodgrains during the Green Revolution years? (Text Book Page No. 71)
Answer:
There would be a shortage of food grains if the government allows farmers to export food grains. So the government did not allow farmers to export food grains.

Question 16.
Why should government ban exports /import ? How does this policy help Indian farmers? (Text Book Page No. 71)
Answer:
Foreign trade could cause farmers income to fluctuate a lot. In some years farmers could lose because of cheap imports and fall in prices of farm products. So the exports ad imports should be banned.

Small farmers will not be able to bear this loss. They will get caught in debt trap and become poorer. So this ban helps the Indian farmers in preventing them from debts and heavy losses.

Question 17.
Use an atlas of India to find the locations of the below mentioned dams and mark them on a map of India. Also label the names of the major rivers on which these dams were built. (Text Book Page No. 67)
Answer:

1. Bhakra-Nangal Project (Punjab)
2. Nagarjuna Sagar Project (Telangana & Andhra Pradesh)
3. Hirakund Project (Odisha)
4. Damodar Valley (West Bengal)
5. Gandhi Sagar (Madhya Pradesh)

Question 18.
In your opinion, what would be the minimum amount of land required to do viable farming which would give a farmer a decent earning. How many farmers in the table Page No. 66 are doing viable farming? (Text Book Page No. 66)
Answer:
The minimum amount of land required to do viable farming may be 2 acres in my opinion. There are 67% of farmers do not have this minimum required land for viable farming.

Question 19.
Why only a small section of farmers have a powerful voice? (Text Book Page No. 66)
Percentage of large and medium farmers is 5% but they hold 32% of total cultivable land. Their average land holding is also high. Hence they have a powerful voice.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 India: Relief Features.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 1st Lesson India: Relief Features

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
According to the given table below, which area is the eastern side?

Answer:
According to the given table, Imphal is the eastern side.

Question 2.
What is the time In India when it is 8 am in London?
Answer:
The time is 1.30 pm in India when It is 8 am in London.

Question 3.
Which Indian islands are of volcanic origin?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands are of volcanic origin.
(OR)
Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.

Question 4.
Give examples for Himalayan hill stations.
Answer:
Examples for the Himalayan hill stations are

1. Simla
2. Mussoorie
3. Raniket
4. Nainital

Question 5.
Read the map given and answer the questions.

a) Name the latitude that divides India into two parts.
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer / 23°30′ Northern latitude.
b) On which longitude, is Indian Standard Time based upon?
Answer:
82°30′ Eastern longitude.

Question 6.
Mention any one difference between the physical features of the Andaman and Nicobar islands and the Lakshadweep.
Answer:

Question 7.
Mention any two differences between the Western and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Question 8.
Write any two unique features of Eastern Coastal Plain?
Answer:
Unique features of East Coastal Plain

1. East Coastal Plains are very wide.
2. The rivers which are flowing in this area are formed deltas.
3. These plains are agriculturally developed.
4. These Plains has lakes.

Question 9.
Name the landform from which the World originated.
Answer:
World originated from two giant lands namely Angara Land (Laurasia) and Gondwana Land.

Question 10.
What is the location of India?
Answer:
India is located between 8°4’ and 37°6′ north latitudes and 68°7′ and 97°25′ east longitudes.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “Doab”?
Answer:
The fertile land between two rivers is known as the Doab feature. ‘Do’ means two, ‘ab’ means water.

Question 12.
Name three parallel ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:
Three parallel ranges are there in the Himalayas. They are

1. the Himadri
2. the Himachal
3. the Shivalik.

Question 13.
Name the tributaries of Indus.
Answer:
The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej are the tributaries of Indus.

Question 14.
Name the tributaries of the Ganga.
Answer:
The Ghaggar, the Teesta, the Sone, the Kosi and the Yamuna are the tributaries of the Ganga.

Question 15.
Expand IST.
Answer:
Indian Standard Time.

Question 16
Expand GMT.
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 17.
What do you mean by “Dun”? Give one example.
Answer:
The valleys lying between the lesser Himalayas and Shivalik ranges are called “Duns’’, e.g. Dehra Dun.

Question 18.
Which continents of today were part of the Gondwana land?
Answer:
India, South Africa, Australia and South America were part of the Gondwana land.

Question 19.
Name three major divisions of the Himalayas from North to South.
Answer:

1. The Greater Himalayas or Himadri.
2. The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal.
3. The Shivaliks or Outer Himalayas.

Question 20.
Name the island group of India having a coral origin.
Answer:
Lakshadweep.

Question 21.
What is the peninsular plateau composed of?
Answer:
The peninsular plateau is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks

Question 22.
Identify the regional division of the Northern plains.
Answer:

1. Punjab plain
2. Ganga plain
3. Brahmaputra plain.

Question 23.
What are the relief features that are found in the Northern plains?
Answer:

1. Bhabar
2. Terai
3. Bhangar
4. Khadar

Question 24.
Which landform feature was a part of Gondwana land?
Answer:
Peninsular Plateau.

Question 25.
Which plateau lies between the Aravalis and the Vindhya range?
Answer:
Malwa Plateau.

Question 26.
Where are the Aravali hills located?
Answer:
The Aravali hills are located on the western and north-western margins of the peninsular plateau in Rajasthan.

Question 27.
What is Bhangar?
Answer:
Bhangar is the largest part of the northern plains and is formed by the oldest alluvium.

Question 28.
What is Khadar?
Answer:
The younger alluvium deposit is called Khadar.

Question 29.
What is a reef?
Answer:
A ridge of jagged rock formed from coral secretions and skeletons.

Question 30.
Name some kinds of reefs.
Answer:
Barrier reef, coral reef and fringing reef.

Question 31.
What was called Angara land?
Answer:
The northern part of Pangaea was called Angara land.

Question 32.
What are known as Purvanchal?
Answer:
The Himalayas in the north-eastern states are known as the Purvanchal hills.

Question 33.
Where is the Kanchenjunga peak?
Answer:
The Kanchenjunga peak is in Sikkim.

Question 34.
Which is the second highest peak in the Himalayas?
Answer:
K₂, in the Karakoram range, is the second-highest peak after Mount Everest.

Question 35.
Name the valleys in the Himachal range.
Answer:
Kangra, Kulu and Kashmir valley.

Question 36.
What are Duns?
Answer:
The longitudinal valleys between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks are known as Duns,
e.g.: Dehradun, Patli dun and Kotli dun.

Question 37.
Where is Bhabar located?
Answer:
Bhabar is located at the foot of the Shivaliks.

Question 38.
What are the two divisions in the Peninsular Plateau?
Answer:
Central Highlands and Deccan Plateau.

Question 39.
Which is the easternmost part of the central highlands?
Answer:
The Chotanagapur Plateau is the eastern-most part of the central highlands.

Question 40.
What is the other name of Ooty?
Answer:
Udagamandalam.

Question 41.
Which is a narrow coastal plain?
Answer:
The Western coastal plain is a narrow plain.

Question 42.
Name the Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
The Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauveri.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention the major relief divisions of Indian landmass.
Answer:
The relief divisions of Indian landmass can be divided into following groups :

1. The Himalayas
2. The Indo-Gangetic Plain
3. The Peninsular Plateau
4. The Coastal Plains
5. The Desert
6. The Islands

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below:
a) Name the two countries that share their land boundaries with India.
b) In between which latitudes, is India located?
Answer:
a) Pakistan, China, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar.
b) 8°4′ – 37°6′ Northern latitudes.

Question 3.
Observe the map given below and answer the following questions.
a) What is the distance between the eastern and western most points of India?
b) Name any two countries that share their boundaries with India.
Answer:
a) The distance between the eastern and the western most points of India is 2933 kms.
b) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, China and Bhutan.

Question 4.
Discuss the significant differences between the Himalayan Rivers and the Peninsular Rivers.
Answer:

Question 5.
Discuss the various islands in India.
Answer:

1. There are 2 groups of islands – Andaman and Nicobar Islands stretched in Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep Islands in the Arabian Sea.
2. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are volcanic origin.
3. The southernmost tip of India found in Nicobarlsland is called Indira point which was submerged during the 2004 Tsunami.
4. Lakshadweep Islands are of coral origin.
5. It is famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

Question 6.
Himalayas play a vital role in India’s development. How?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from Siberia and Central Asia.
2. They are reason for the monsoon type of climate in India.
3. Without the Himalayas India would have remained drier.
4. The rivers originating in the glaciers of the Himalaya are perennial and caused the economic growth of the northern plains.
5. The Himalayan valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
6. The rivers of the Himalayas for the formation of fertile.

Question 7.
How are the Himalayas divided regionally or on the basis of river valleys?
Answer:

1. Punjab Himalayas between rivers Indus and Sutlej.
2. Kumaon Himalayas between rivers Sutlejjind Kali.
3. Nepal Himalayas between rivers Kali and Teesta.
4. Assam Himalayas between rivers Teesta and Brahmaputra.

Question 8.
Look at the picture and comment on it.
Answer:
It is a sketch of different levels of vegetation in the Himalayas. There are 5 levels in that vegetation.
Level I: On the top of the mountains there is no vegetation.
Level II: On the hill slopes – there is only grass.
Level III: Next to the level II – this area is covered with conifers.
Level IV: Next to level III – this area is covered with broadleaf trees.
Level V: At the feet of the mountains. It is Terai with tree cover.

Question 9.
Write a short note on the Great Indian Desert.
Answer:
The Great Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravalli Hills.
The region gets scanty rainfall. Hence the climate is arid and vegetation is scanty. Luni is the only large river. Some streams appear during rainy season. Crescent-shaped duns are formed around in this area.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Describe any four of major relief divisions of Indian land mass.
Answer:
I. Himalayas:

1. To the north of India, Himalayan mountains extend from west to east at a length around 2400 Kms.
2. There are three parallel ranges viz. Himadri, Himachal and Shivaliks.

II. Indo-Gangetic Plains:

1. Indo-Gangetic Plain is formed with the interaction of the rivers Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
2. These fertile alluvial plains are suitable for agriculture.

III. Peninsular Plateau:

1. The Indian plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounding by the sea on the three sides.
2. It is broadly divided into two parts : Malwa plateau and Deccan plateau.

IV. Coastal Plains:

1. The Western coastal plain is extended between Western Ghats and Arabian Sea. The East coastal plain is extended between Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
2. These coastal plains are known locally by different names.
   Eg: Coast of AP – Circar Coast
   Coast of Kerala – Malabar coast etc.

V. Thar Desert:

1. Thar desert lies in the rain shadow region of Aravali mountains.
2. Luni is the only river in this region.

VI. Islands:

1. Andaman and Nicobar islands are in Bay of Bengal. They are of volcanic origin.
2. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea. They are of coral origin.

Question 2.
Explain the uses of Himalayas.
Answer:

1. Himalayas act as natural barriers on the northern side of India.
2. They protect India from the cold winds from Central Asia during severe winter
3. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains.
4. The himalayas are responsible for monsoon type of climate.
5. If there are no Himalayas, India will remain as a desert.
6. They are the origin for many perennial rivers.
7. They attract tourists from all over the world.
8. Himalayan rivers bring a lot of silt, making the northern plains very fertile.

Question 3.
Describe the Indian Islands.
Answer:

1. There are two groups of islands in India.
2. They are Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in Bay of Bengal.
4. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea.
5. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.
6. Lakshadweep islands are of coral origin.
7. Indira point, the southernmost tip of India is found in Nicobar Island.
8. Lakshadweep islands are famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

Question 4.
In what ways is the Indo-Gangetic plain different from the Peninsular plateau?
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and comment on Indian climate and the Himalayas.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type of climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier.
Answer:

1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from the North that comes from Siberia.
2. Without the Himalayas, India would get cold temperatures in the winter months.
3. The Himalayas form a natural barrier that prevents monsoon winds from going further north.
4. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in the regions that are beyond the western ghats of India.
5. In its absence this region would have remained drier.
6. India would have been a tropical desert.
7. The Himalayas are the birthplace of so many rivers.
8. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.

Question 6.
How the Himalayas are influencing the climate of India and agriculture?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas are obstructing cold winds.
2. The Himalayas are reason for rains in summer.
3. They are cause for seasonal climate.
4. If there is no Himalayas the northern region becomes dry.
5. The flow of the Himalayan rivers, making the plains very fertile.

Question 7.
Write about the similarities and differences between East Coastal Plains and West Coastal Plains.
Answer:
Similarities :

1. They are the physical features of India. 2) They both lie in the southern part of India.
2. They both lie near to the coast.

Differences:

Question 8.
Explain the differences between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats,
Answer:

Question 9.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of The Indo-Gangetic Plain with that of The Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
The major physiographic divisions of India are :

1. The Great Himalayas,
2. The Northern Plains
3. The Great Indian Desert
4. The Peninsular Plateau
5. The Eastern and Western Coastal plains and
6. The Island Group

Question 10.
Prepare a table showing the particulars of different mountain ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:

Question 11.
What is the importance of the Himalayas?
Answer:

1. The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways.
2. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter.
3. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India.
4. The Himalayan rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers.
5. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.
6. There are famous hill stations like Simla, Mussorie, Nainital, Raniket, etc. covered by evergreen forests.
7. The valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
8. There are passes in the Himalayas which act as great exchange of culture and commerce.

Question 12.
Write about the coastal plains.
Answer:

1. The southern part of the peninsular plateau is bordered by narrow coastal strips along the Arabian Sea on the west and the Bay of Bengal on the east.
2. Western plain is uneven and broken by hilly terrain.
3. It is divided into 3 parts.
   a) Konkan coast-northern part comprising Maharashtra and Goa coast.
   b) The second is Canara Coast – the middle part includes coastal plain of Karnataka.
   c) The last part is Malabar coast – the southern part, mostly in the state of Kerala.
4. Bay of Bengal plains are wide and have large surface structure.
5. It stretches from Mahanadi in Odisha to Cauvery deltas in Tamil Nadu.
6. These coastal plains are known locally by different names as Utkal coast in Odisha, Circar coast in Andhra Pradesh and Coromandel coast in Tamil Nadu.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on its content.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as hornets protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier. The Himalayan Rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers and bring a fat of silt, making these plains very fertile.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, it is dearly understood that the Himalayas are useful to India in many ways.
2. It means that because of the Himalayas only there are fertile soils, sufficient rainfall, and perennial rivers and so it is useful to agriculture which is the backbone of our economy.
3. I agree with this paragraph because every point discussed here is correct.
4. The Himalayas are extending in the north of our country from Jammu Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh for about 2400 kilometers.
5. Automatically they stop the cold winds blowing from central Asia because our cultivable lands are in the south.
6. If the Himalayas were not there, India would become dry land or a desert.
7. Though we have many benefits from the Himalayas, the passes of the Himalayas caused for foreigners to invade our country and these helped in exchanging business and culture.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the condition of the area as well as people living there.
The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side afAravalis and receives very low amount of rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops. It occupies much of western Rajasthan. It has an arid climate with very law vegetation cover. Streams appear during the rainy season and disappear soon after. ‘Luni’ is the only river in this area. These internal drainage rivers fill into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
Answer:

1. This paragraph says that much of western Rajasthan is sandy and without adequate rainfall.
2. Without sufficient rainfall we can’t expect proper cultivation and production of crops.
3. Though Rajasthan ranks first in the area it has maximum desert area.
4. According to this paragraph, there are a few streams which can be seen during rainy season.
5. The unfortunate thing of the people living there is that the area is in the leeward side of the Aravali Mountains.
6. The southwest monsoons remain empty by reaching there.
7. My opinion is that the people should make a few changes in their livelihoods.
8. They should grow more crops during rainy season. It would be better for them to go for multiple cropping.
9. They grow food crops with the help of Indira Gandhi canal water irrigation.
10. Government should provide their commodities at subsidized prices.
11. Along with the Indira Gandhi canal, there should be many more schemes like that till their needs are fulfilled.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the geographical location of India.
The geographical location of India provides its vast diversity in climatic conditions. This has led to a variety of vegetation and life forms along with advantages for growing many kinds of crops. Its long coastline and location in the Indian Ocean enabled trade routes as well as fishing.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph, the geographical location of India is very prosperous.
2. India has ocean water on the three sides whereas the high Himalayan Mountains in the north.
3. These Himalayas give birth to various perennial rivers because of glaciers so as to grow more crops and this led to a variety of vegetation.
4. In my opinion, there are a few benefits as well as losses to the people living in coastal plains and hilly areas.
5. The coastal people face some drastic situations when there is a tsunami or cyclones.
6. The people living in hilly areas face the problem of landslides.
7. Nowadays global warming is increasing. It may lead to submerge of coastal cultivable lands.
8. People may face many problems.
9. Along with these problems they have the opportunity of maintaining foreign trade with the help of sea routes.
10. Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Mumbai and Cochin are some of the examples for the trade cen¬ters of sea routes.

Question 16.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

Answer the following questions.

1. What are the names of the three Himalayan ranges?
   Answer:
   The three names of the Himalayan ranges are the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
2. Which of the ranges have hill stations?
   Answer:
   The hill stations are found in the Lesser Himalayan ranges.
3. Where do we find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun?
   Answer:
   We find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun in the valleys in between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
4. What is the difference in between the ranges of the Greater Himalayas and the Lesser Himalayas with regard to the composition?
   Answer:
   The Greater Himalayas are composed of ice and snow cover whereas the Lesser Himalayas are composed of highly compressed rocks.

Question 17.
Describe the formation and divisions of Indo-Gangetic plains.
Answer:

1. The interaction of three Himalayan rivers the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra and their tributaries resulted in the formation of great northern plain.
2. In the beginning it was a shallow basin later gradually filled with alluvial soil from these rivers.
3. The western part of Indo-Gangetic plains was formed by the Indus and its tributaries, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej flowing from the Himalayas.
4. Doab features dominate the fertile land between the two rivers.
5. The central part is known as Ganga plain extending from the rivers the Ghaggar to the Teesta. 6} The eastern part of the plain exists mostly in the Brahmaputra valley of Assom and the river
   Brahmaputra is mainly responsible for its formation.

Question 18.
Describe the vairous aspects of the peninsular plateau.
Answer:

1. The Indian Plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounded by the sea on three sides.
2. Large amounts of metallic and non-metallic mineral resources are found here.
3. Its topography is slightly tilted towards east.
4. Its two divisions are central high lands (Malwa plateau) and the Deccan Plateau.
5. The rivers here are not perennial.
6. The triangular landmass to the south of Narmada is called Deccan Plateau.
7. The structure of Western Ghats is continuous with a few passes as the gateways to the coastal plains.
8. The Eastern Ghats are not continuous.
9. One of the remarkable features of the peninsular plateau is black soils formed due to volcanic activity.

Question 19.
Write about the Thar desert.
Answer:

1. The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side of Aravalisand receives very low rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year.
2. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops.
3. It occupies much of western Rajasthan.
4. It has an arid climate with very low vegetation cover.
5. Streams appear during rainy season and disappear soon after.
6. Luni is the only river in this area.
7. The internal drainage rivers fall into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
8. Indira Gandhi canal is watering part of Thar desert.
9. Several hectares of desert land have been brought under cultivation.

Question 20.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.

1. Which hills are spread continuously from North to South?
   Answer:
   Western Ghats spread continuously from North to South.
2. Which Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers?
   Answer:
   Western Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers.
3. Which river flows westwards?
   Answer:
   The river which flows westwards is Narmada. (Tapti also)
4. Which plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali?
   Answer:
   Malwa plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali.
5. Where do the eastern and western Ghats join?
   Answer:
   The eastern and western Ghats join Nilgiris near Gudalur.
6. Which ocean is located in the south of India?
   Answer:
   The Indian Ocean is located in the south of India.
7. Which plateau is there in between Ms s and Chotanagpur plateau?
   Answer:
   Central plateau is there in between Malwa and Chotanagpur plateau.

Question 21.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.

1. Which is the standard meridian in India?
   Answer:
   82° 30′ Eastern Longitude is the standard meridian in India.
2. Name the latitude that moves from the centre of India.
   Answer:
   23% northern latitude moves from the centre of India. This is called Tropic of Cancer.
3. What is the distance between north and south tip of India?
   The distance between north and south tips is 3214 kms.
4. Mention the location of India.
   Answer:
   India is located in between the latitudes of 8°4′ and 37°6′ N and longitudes of 68°7′ and 97°25′ E.
5. Name any two frontier countries of India.
   Answer:
   Pakistan, China, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh and Nepal. ( any two can be written)
6. Which islands are located in the southeast corner of India?
   Answer:
   Andaman Nicobar islands are located in the southeast corner of India.

Question 22.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

• Locate the Highest plateau in the world.
  Answer: Tibet
• Capital of Himachal Pradesh.
  Answer: Simla
• Highest peak in India.
  Answer: Mt-K₂
• Locate the Hills in Arunachal Pradesh.
  Answer: Mishmi Hills
• This plateau has rich variety of mineral resources.
  Answer:
  Chotanagpur
• Rajmahal hills
  Triangular plateau.
  Answer:
  Deccan Plateau Circar Coast
• The southernmost tip of India.
  Answer:
  Kanya Kumari
• Mashy Swampy region of Gujarath.
  Answer:
  Rann of Kutch

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 5th Lesson Biosphere Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 5th Lesson Biosphere

9th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson Biosphere Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Life itself constitutes a separate sphere called ‘Biosphere’. Explain.
Answer:

• The Earth is a unique planet, in that it has life.
•  It is inhabited by countless forms of life from microscopic bacteria to great banyan trees and animals like lions and blue whales and of course human beings.
• The earth has a combination of land, air, and water, and a moderate temperature has made life possible on it.
• Various forms of life are not only related to the three spheres around them, but also to one another.
• They influence one another and they are part of a complete “food chain.”
• Hence geographers are of the opinion that “life itself constitutes a separate sphere called ‘Biosphere’.

Question 2.
Why is ecological crisis created in modern times? What are its effects?
Answer:

• These days the increase in population creates great pressure on earth as well as its resources.
• To satisfy the needs of ever growing population systematic mining, cutting of forests, building of forests and fields and roads took place all over the earth.
• Burning of fossil fuels and release of enormous amounts of waste materials by industries contaminate air, water, and soil.
• For providing food for the ever growing population, there is a need for increase in agricultural production.
• Modern agriculture uses a large amount of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
• The most frightening aspect of pollution due to modern agriculture is the increase in the levels of toxins in our food.
• This increasingly proves to be very harmful not only to humans but also to all types of life on earth.
• Since all living and non-living things on the earth are in one way or the other connected to each other, change affecting one, in due time affects all the others too. All these factors lead to ecological crisis.

Effects of ecological Grisis :

1. If a particular species which feeds upon a particular kind of plant is exterminated, it would result in unchecked growth of that plant and it may intrude the area where other plants grow and disturb their growth.
2. Many industries use chemicals and metals which flow into the rivers and streams. The metals like mercury are consumed by microorganisms in water and in turn beome the food of fishes. When human beings consume these fishes they too absorb some amount of mercury which is detrimental to their health.
3. Farmers use Diclofenac to treat cattle; when the cattle die their flesh retains this chemical: When their flesh is consumed by vultures, diclofenac leads to kidney failure in them and they die.

Question 3.
Natural vegetation depends upon the climate of the place. Write different kinds of forests and climatic conditions of their existence?
Answer:
a) Tropical Deciduous Forests :

1. Tropical deciduous forests are the monsoon forests.
2. These regions experience seasonal changes.
3. Trees shed their leaves in the dry season to conserve water.

b) Tropical Evergreen Forests :

1. These thick forests occur in the regions near the equator and close to the tropics.
2. These regions are hot and receive heavy rainfall throughout the year.
3. As there is no dry season, these trees do not shed their leaves altogether.
4. This is why they are called evergreen forests.

c) Temperate Evergreen Forests :

1. These forests are located in the mid latitudinal costal region.
2. They are commonly found along the eastern margin of the continents.

d) Temperate Deciduous Forests :

1. The temperate deciduous forests are found in higher latitudes.
2. They shed their leaves in the dry season.

e) Mediterranean Vegetation :

1. The west and the south west margins of the continents are covered by these forests.
2. Mediterranean trees adapt themselves to dry summers with the help of their thick barks and wax coated leaves. These help them to reduce transpiration.
3. These regions are marked for hot dry summers and dry summers and mild rainy winters.

f) Coniferous Forests :

1. Coniferous forests are found in the higher latitudes of Northern hemisphere.
2. These forests are found in abundance in the Himalayas.

g) Tropical Grasslands :

1. These forests grow on either side of the equator up to tropics.
2. This vegetation grows in the areas of moderate to low amount of rainfall.

h) Temperate Grasslands :

1. These are found in mid-latitudinal zones and in the interior part of the continents.
2. Usually the grass is very short and nutritious.

i) Thorny Bushes :

1. These are found in the dry desert like regions.
2. This vegetation cover is scarce here because of scanty rain and scorching heat.

j) Tundra :

1. This vegetation is found in the polar region.
2. The growth of natural vegetation is very limited here.
3. Only mosses, lichens and very small shrubs are found here.

Question 4.
How can we protect natural resources?
Answer:
Preservation of the natural environment is essential for maintaining community sustainability.
1. Water:
Communities must work to assure an adequate water supply to meet future needs.

2. Energy :
Energy should be consumed reasonably.

3. Air and climate :
Communities can preserve air quality by limiting or eliminating the discharge of harmful chemicals into the air and by minimizing the sources of air pollution.

4. Biodiversity :
Healthy wildlife should be supported through integrative approaches for, managing, protecting, and enhancing wildlife populations and habitats appropriate to their area and the atmosphere.

5. Land, forests, ecosystems should be provided protective measures. Thus we can protect natural resources.

Question 5.
Read the lesson and fill up the table.

Answer:

Question 6.
Locate the following countries in the world map.
a) New Zealand
b) Brazil
c) Australia
d) North America
e) China
f) India
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the paragraph under the title ‘Depletion of Resources’ on page 57 and comment on it.

Answer:
Depletion of resources is the consumption of a resource faster than it can be replenished.

Use of either of these forms of resources beyond their rate of replacement is considered to be resource depletion.

Resource depletion is most commonly used in reference to farming fishings mining, water and fossil fuels.

Question 8.
Visit any nearby industrial establishment and observe the different kinds of smoke, liquid and Solid Wastes come*6uf of the cdrrtp’ourtd. FincTout from the nearby’residents about their impact on plants and animals. Based on the information collected, prepare a report and present in the class.
Answer:
I have visited a cement factory and observed the following :
Cement manufacture causes environmental impacts at all stages of the process. These include air-borne pollution in the form of dust, gases, noise and vibration when operating machinery and during blasting in quarries, and damage to country side from quarrying. Environmental protection also includes the re-integration of quarries.

• CO₂ emissions : Cement manufacturing releases CO₂ in the atmosphere.
• Heavy metal emissions in the air.
• Heavy metals present in the clinker.
• Use of alternative fuels and by-products materials.
• Noise levels are easy to establish.
• Smoke released from the factory causes breathing problems in the local people.
• Waste liquids are sent to the nearest river and pollute the river water.

Question 9.
Collect the details of some endangered animals and birds in your area. Fill the following table. Discuss in the classroom. Take the help of your elders and teachers.

Answer:
Student Activity.

9th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson Biosphere InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can you say how plants are dependent upon air and water and how they affect the two in return? (Text Book Page No. 51)
Answer:

• Plants need water. Plants use water to carry moisture and nutrients from the roots to the leaves and food from the leaves back down to the roots.
• Plants absorb carbon dioxide from air to form carbohydrates during the process of photosynthesis.
• Nitrogen gas molecules that are trapped and carried in the water droplets provide nourishment to plants.
• Plants need oxygen in small amounts in respiration.
• Plants reduce the carbon dioxide levels in atmosphere and reduce the greenhouse effect and in turn the global warming.

How do plants affect water and air in return?
Answer:

• Plants return water to the atmosphere through the process of transpiration.
• Transpiration is the evaporation of water from aerial parts of plants, especially from . leaves but also from stems and flowers.

Question 2.
In what ways are insects like mosquitoes and butterflies dependent upon rocks or soil and upon water ? How do they affect them in return? (Text Book Page No. 51)
Answer:
Many insects depend on soil for part of their life. They make their home in the soils. Some insects live some portion of their lives in water.

Insects get involved lot of biological processes. Among the most significant beneficial impacts of insects on soil are

1. Their role in regulation of pest populations,
2. The pollination of crops and
3. The soil engineering. Insects mostly pollute the water.

Question 3.
Identify the desert regions in the world map.
Answer:

1. The Sahara Desert
2. The Kalahari Desert
3. The Thar Desert
4. The Arabian Desert
5. The Australian Desert
6. The Atacama Desert
7. The Sonaran Desert

Question 4.
Look around in your surroundings and find out the articles made of hard wood and soft wood. (Text Book Page No. 55)
Answer:
A) Articles made of hard wood :

1. Hard woods are often used to make items including furniture, flooring and utensils. Spoons, chopsticks, bowls, plates and cups are the utensils made from hard wood.
2. Musical instruments such as violins, guitars, pianos and hard drums are also made of hard wood.
3. Sofas, chairs, beds, benches, tables and wardrobes are made of hard wood.

B) Articles made of soft wood :
Manufacturing paper, newsprint, decorative articles, carvings, dolls, match boxes and packing boxes, etc. are made from soft wood.

Question 5.
Find out and learn few names of trees of your locality. (Text Book Page No. 55)
Answer:
In our local we can see Neem trees, Mango trees, Banyan trees and the trees are known by their local names: Chinta, Tumma, Seema Tumma, Palm (Tati), Bandaru, Yegisa are the trees which give us wood.

The trees such as Bamboo give us pulp.

Mangoes, Guavas, Blackberry are fruit bearing trees. In addition to them we have coconut trees and trees which give us drumsticks.

Question 6.
Can you discuss how human beings would have impacted the land, water, plants and animals around them when they began agriculture and animal herding? (Text Book Page No. 56)
Answer:

• With the development of agriculture humans began to radically transform the environment in which they lived.
• They cleared the lands around their settlements and controlled the plants that grew and the animals that grazed on them.
• They devised ways of storing rain water and rechanneling river water to irrigate plants.
• They built reservoirs, dug canals, dikes and sluices that permitted water storage.
• They domesticated major food crops, plants such as flax and cotton and began to cultivate them.
• Men also took lead in taming, breeding and raising the large animals associated with both farming and pastoral communities.
• Thus human beings impacted the land water, plants and animals around them when they began agriculture and animal rearing.

Question 7.
What sources of energy would they have used and how would they haveobtained them? (Text Book Page No. 56)
Answer:

1. The growth of sedantary farming greatly accelerated the pace of technological and social change.
2. Still the man used the physical energies of human and animals to use the agricultural and manufacturing tools.
3. He used wheel to make pots, plough to plough his fields and boats to transport his goods and kiln of blacksmith to make his tools.
4. He burnt firewood to cook his food.
5. Thus when they began agriculture man used merely the physical energy of human beings and animals.

Question 8.
Can you say what kinds of changes will building of cities have on the land and water around them? (Text Book Page No. 56)
Answer:

• With the beginning of agriculture and use of better tools give rise to larger, more elaborate and commodious housing and the construction of community ritual centres.
• Sun-dried bricks, interwoven branches usually plastered with mud and stone structures were associated with early agricultural communities.
• Houses in early agricultural settlements included special storage areas. They were centered on clay or stone hearths that were ventilated by a hole in the roof.
• To defend their cities from the rival nomadic settlements, they fortified their cities.
• The people had devised ways of storing rain water and rechanneling river water to irrigate plants.
• The reservoirs and canals, dikes and sluices that permitted water storage were constructed.

Question 9.
In what way do you think this would have affected the land scape and water cycle? (Text Book Page No. 56)
Answer:

• The increase in population create great pressure on earth as well as its resources.
• The entire earth was reshaped to suit the needs of humans.
• The surface of the earth received a great push with the industrial revolution and process of colonization.
• Industrial production needs raw materials on an unprecedunted scale.
• Industrial countries began to search for diverse kinds of raw materials and sources of energy.
• They dug deep wells and tried to find out what lay underneath.
• Systematic mining, cutting of forests, building of factories and fields and roads took place all over the world.
• The cumulative impact of industrial pollution causes greenhouse effect and global warming.
• The greenhouse effect could cause decrease in precipitation and soil moisture content and decrease of snow cover and finally decrease in rainfall.
• The increased surface temperature would cause melting of glaciers and lead to flooding of coastal areas.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions 1st Lesson Heat

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What would be the final temperature of a mixture of 50 g of water at 20° C temperature and 50 g of water at 40° C temperature? (AS1)
Answer:
In CGS system :
Mass m₁ = 50 g
Higher temperature = T₁ = 40° C
Mass m₂ = 50 g
Lower temperature = T₂ = 20° C

Question 2.
Explain, why dogs pant during hot summer days using the concept of evaporation. (AS1)
(OR)
How do dogs cool their body? Explain by using the process of evaporation.
Answer:

• Dogs pant during hot summer days and get their body cooled. This cooling effect is due to evaporation.
• Evaporation is a surface phenomenon. Temperature of a system falls during evaporation.
• During summer the temperature in the human body increases.
• The temperature of the skin becomes higher and the water in the sweat glands starts evaporating. Since evaporation is a cooling process human body becomes cool.
• Dogs don’t have sweat glands. Their body is covered with hair. They have sweat glands only in their feet.
• So by panting the water on the tongue undergoes evaporation resulting in the cooling of the dog’s body.

Question 3.
Why do we get dew on the surface of a cold soft drink bottle kept in open air? (AS1)
(OR)
Raju observed small droplets of water outside a cold soft drink bottle kept in open air. What is the reason for the formation of droplets?
Answer:

• When cold soft drink bottle is kept in open air, the temperature of surrounding air is higher than the temperature of cold drink bottle.
• Air contains molecules in the form of vapour.
• During the motion of water molecules in air strike the surface of cold drink bottle.
• Then the molecules of air lose their kinetic energy which leads to lower the temperature and they convert into droplets.
• So dew is formed on the surface of cold soft drink bottle.

Question 4.
Write the differences between evaporation and boiling. (AS1)
(OR)
Sita observed decrease in quantity of spirit kept in a vessel placed in open air. Whereas Ramu observed formation of bubbles on a water surface when it is heated. What are those two processes? Distinguish between those two processes.
Answer:

Question 5.
Does the surrounding air become warm or cool when vapour phase of H₂O condenses? Explain. (AS1)
Answer:

• Gases have more higher energy than liquids and solids.
• When vapour condenses, it changes from gas to liquid.
• Therefore there is a drop in energy.
• This energy has to go (somewhere) to the surroundings.
• So surrounding air becomes warm when vapour phase of H20 condenses.

Question 6.
Answer these. (AS1)
a) How much energy is transferred when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100°C?
Answer:
CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of vapourisation = 540 cal/gm.
The amount of heat energy released when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100°C
Q = mL_vapour = 1 × 540 = 540 cal.

(OR)

In SI system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm = 1 × 10^-3 kg
Latent heat of vapourisation = 540 cal/gm.
The amount of heat energy released when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100°C
Q = mL_vapour – 1 × 540 = 540 cal.
In SI, Q = 540 × 4.18 = 2257 J.

b) How much energy is transferred when 1 gm of boiling water at 100° C cools to water 0° C?
Answer:
CGS system :
Latent heat of vapourisation = 540 cal/gm
The amount of heat energy released when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100 °C. m = 1 gm.
Q₁ = mL_vapour = 1 × 540 = 540 cal.
The specific heat of water = 1 cal/gm-°C
Difference in temperature = 100-0 = 100°C.
The heat released to cool water to 0°C is
Q₂ = mS∆T = 1 × 1 × 100 = 100 cal.
∴ Total energy released = 540 + 100 = 640 cal.

c) How much energy is released or absorbed when 1 gm of water at 0° C freezes to ice at 0° C?
Answer:
In CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice (L) = 80 cal/gm
The energy transferred or released when 1 gm of water at 0° C freezes to ice at 0° C.
Q = mL_freeze = 1 × 80 = 80 Cal.

(OR)

In SI system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm = \(\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~kg}\)
Latent heat of fusion = L = 3.36 × 10⁵ J/kg.
Amount of heat released or transferred when lgm of water at 0°C freezes to ice at 0°C.
Q = mL_fusion = \(\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~kg}\) × 3.36 × 10⁵ = 3.36 × 10² = 336J.

(OR)

In CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice (L) = 80 cal/gm
The energy transferred or released when 1 gm of water at 0° C freezes to ice at 0°C.
Q = mL_freeze = 1 × 80 – 80 cal.
(Or)
In SI system : In SI, Q = 80 × 4.2 [1 cal = 4.2 J]
Q = 1 x 10^-3 × 3.36 × 10⁵ = 3 36 J.

d) How much energy is released or absorbed when 1 gm of steam at 100°C turns to ice at 0°C?
Answer:
In CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of vapourisation = L_vapour = 540 cal/gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice = L_fusion = 80 cal
Specific heat of water = S = 1 cal/gm-0°C
Difference in temperature
∆T = 100 – 0 = 100°C.
The energy transferred when 1 gram of steam at 100°C turns to ice at 0°C
Q = mL_vapour + mS∆T + mL_fusion
= 1 × 540 + 1 × 1 × 100 + 1 × 80 = 540 + 100 + 80 = 720 cal.

(OR)

Mass of water = m = 1 gm = \(\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~kg}\)
Latent heat of vapourisation = L_vapour = 2.25 × 10⁶ J/kg
Latent heat of fusion = L_fusion = 3.36 × 10⁵ J/kg
Difference in temperature
∆T = 373 – 273 – 100 K.
Specific heat of water = 4180 J/kg-K
The energy transferred when 1 gram of steam at 100° C turns to ice at 0°C =

(OR)

In CGS system :
Conversion : Steam at 100°C → Water at 100°C → Water at 0°C → Ice at 0°C.
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of vapourisation = L_vapour = 540 cal/gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice = L_fusion = 80 cal
Specific heat of water = S = 1 cal/gm-0°C
Difference in temperature
∆T= 100-0 = 100°C.
The energy transferred when 1 gram of steam at 100°C turns to ice at 0°C
Q = mL_vapour + mS∆T + mL_fusion
= 1 × 540 + 1 × 1 × 100 + 1 × 80
= 540 + 100 + 80 = 720 cal. = 720 × 4.18 = 3009.6 J.

Question 7.
Explain the procedure of finding specific heat of solid experimentally. (AS1)
(OR)
Determination of specific heat of solid experimentally.
(OR)
Ravi wanted to prepare solid with high specific heat to use on cooking utensil. What fool does he need to find the specific heat of aluminium and copper? How should he conduct the experiment?
Answer:
Aim : To find the specific heat of given solid.
Apparatus : Calorimeter, thermometer, stirrer, water, steam heater, wooden box and lead shots.

Procedure:

• Measure the mass of the calorimeter with stirrer = m₁ gm
• Fill water one third volume of calorimeter and measure the mass = m₂ gm.
• At this time initial temperature = T₁.
• Mass of the water = m₂ – m₁ gm.
• Take a few lead shots and place them in steam heater and heat up to 100° C. Let this temperature be T₂.
• Transfer the lead shots into calorimeter and measure the final (or) resultant temperature T₃.
• Mass of calorimeter with contents = m₃ gm and mass of lead shots = m₃ – m₂ gm.
• If the specific heats of the calorimeter, lead shots and water are S_c, S_l and S_w respectively, by using method of mixtures we have
  Heat lost by the solid = Heat gained by the calorimeter + water
  
• Knowing the specific heats of calorimeter and water we can calculate specific heat of solid (lead shots).

Question 8.
Convert 20° C into Kelvin scale. (or) Change 20°C into absolute scale. (AS1)
Answer:
T = t°C + 273 = 20 + 273 = 293
⇒ T = 293 K.

Question 9.
Your friend is asked to differentiate between evaporation and boiling. What questions could you ask to make him to know the differences between evaporation and boiling? (AS2)
(OR)
Veena found that the water kept in a pot is cool and Siva observed when water is heated the temperature remains constant for some time until water turns into vapour. What are the processes involved in these two aspects? Ask some questions to understand these aspects.
Answer:
The questions asked by me are :

• How do wet clothes get dried without heating?
• Are boiling and evaporation one and same or different?
• Is there any difference in kinetic energy if it boils?
• Is the temperature the main cause for boiling and evaporation?
• What are the factors which influence evaporation?
• Is boiling temperature for water always 100° C?

Question 10.
What happens to the water when wet clothes dry? (AS3)
Answer:

1. When wet clothes dry, the water present in the clothes is evaporated.
2. So that the process of evaporation causes the wet clothes dry.

Question 11.
Equal amounts of water are kept in a cap and in a dish. Which will evaporate faster? Why? (AS3)
(OR)
Srinu kept. equal amounts of water in a cap and in a dish in open air. What is his observation? Explain the experiment.
Answer:
Aim : To show the evaporation of equal amounts of water in cap and dish.
Apparatus : Cap, dish, water.

Procedure :

• Take equal amounts of water in cap and dish. Keep them in open air for two hours. Now weigh the water in the cap and the dish.
• We can observe that the weight of water in dish is less than that of water in cap.
• This shows that the water in dish has more evaporation than the water in cap.
• It is due to more surface area of dish.
• As the surface area increases rate of evaporation also increases.

Question 12.
Suggest an experiment to prove that rate of evaporation of a liquid depends on its surface area and vapour already present in surrounding air. (AS3)
Answer:
Aim: The rate of evaporation of liquid depends on its surface area and vapour already present in surrounding air.
Apparatus : Two dishes of different surface areas and water.

Procedure :

• Take two dishes of different surface area.
• Pour equal amounts of water in the both dishes.
• Keep aside for two to three hours.
• Observe them after some time.
  Dish with more surface area has less quantity of water than the dish having less surface area. ,
• This shows evaporation increases with increasing of surface area.
• Take two dishes of equal surface area containing water.
• This experiment should be conducted on more humid day and less humid day.
• We will find that evaporation is less on more humid day due to more vapour in the air.
• So evaporation decreases with vapour in the air.

Question 13.
Place a Pyrex funnel with its mouth-down in a sauce pan full of water, in such a way that the stem tube of the funnel is above the water or pointing upward into air. Rest the edge of the bottom portion of the funnel on a nail or on a coin so that water can get under it. Place the pan on a stove and heat it till it begins to boil. Where do the bubbles form first? Why? Can you explain how a natural geyser works using this experience? (AS4)
Answer:

• When Pyrex funnel with its mouth down in a sauce pan then the bubbles formed by the heat energy come from the top of the funnel.
• That is from stem tube.
• This is because of pressure inside mouth of funnel increases rapidly due to increasing of heat energy.
• Pressure inside the funnel rs more than outside the funnel and very high at stem.
• Hence, bubbles come from stem of the funnel and escapes through stem tube with force, like a geyser.

Working of natural geyser by using this experience :

• Geysers are the fountains of hot water coming under the layers of the earth.
• It is a hole with narrow and deep from the bottom of the earth layers.
• It contains water.
• Water heats up due to high temperatures of the inner layers of the earth.
• As by the pressure of water at top layers of the hole, temperature rises, water boils.
• This hot water comes with narrow vent with high pressure, like Lava from the Volcano.

Question 14.
Collect the information about working of natural geyser and prepare a report. (AS4)
Answer:
Natural Geysers :

• Geysers are the fountains of hot water coming under the layers of the earth.
• It is a hole with narrow and deep from the bottom of the earth layers.
  
• It contains water.
• Water heats up due to high temperatures of the inner layers of the earth.
• As by the pressure of water at top layers of the hole, temperature rises, water boils.
• This hot water comes with narrow vent with high pressure, like Lava from the Volcano.
• This looks like a water fountain at the surface of the earth.
  

Question 15.
Assume that heat is being supplied continuously to 2 kg of ice at – 5°C. You know that ice melts at 0°C and boils at 100°C. Continue the heating till it starts boiling. Note the temperature for every minute. Draw a graph between temperature and time using the values you get. What do you understand from the graph ? Write the conclusions. (AS5)
Answer:
Graph between time and temperature from ice melting at 5° C to boils at 100° C.

Understanding from the graph :

• \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) = Ice warms up from – 5°C to 0°C
• \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\) = Ice melts at 0°C for a certain time period. So \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\) indicates no rising in temperature.
• \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\) = Water warms up from 0°C to 100° C, \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\) indicates rising in temperature.
• \(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\) = Water boils at 100° C for a certain time period. So \(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\) indicates no rising in temperature.

Conclusion :

• The temperature remains same at 0° C until all the ice converted into water. So, 0° C is the melting point of water.
• The temperature remains constant at 100° C until all the water converted into water vapour. So, 100° C is the boiling point of the water.

Question 16.
How do you appreciate the role of the higher specific heat of water in stabilising atmospheric temperature during winter and summer seasons? (AS6)
Answer:

• Due to higher specific heat of water oceans absorb the solar energy for maintaining a relatively constant temperature.
• Oceans absorb large amounts of heat at the equator.
• The oceans moderate the surrounding temperature near the equator.
• Ocean water transports the heat away from the equator to areas closer to the north and south pole.
• This transported heat helps moderate the climate in parts of the Earth that are far from the equator.
• So higher specific heat of water is stabilising atmospheric temperature.
• So we have to extremely appreciate the role of higher specific heat of water to stabilise the atmospheric temperature.

Question 17.
Suppose that 1 / of water is heated for a certain time to rise and its temperature by 2°C. If 2 l of water is heated for the same time, by how much will its temperature. (AS7)
Answer:
Mass of 1 litre of water (m₁) = 1 kg ; ∆T₁ = 2°C
Mass of 2 litres of water (m₂) = 2 kg ; ∆ T₂ = ?
Time duration is same. So same heat is absorbed by water in both the cases
⇒ Q₁ = Q₂
m₁S(∆T₁) = m₂S (∆T₂)

So the rise in temperature for 2 kg of water = 1°C.

Question 18.
What role does specific heat play in keeping a watermelon cool for a long time after removing it from a fridge on a hot day? (AS7)
Answer:

• Generally, watermelon contains large percentage of water.
• Water has high specific heat value than other substances.
• High specific heat substances oppose the increase of temperature. Hence they continuous of the coolingness.
• So watermelon retains coolness after removing from fridge on a hot day due to the high specific cheat of water.

Question 19.
If you are chilly outside the shower stall, why do you feel warm after the bath if you stay in bathroom? (AS7)
Answer:

• In the bathroom, the number of vapour molecules per unit volume is greater than the number of vapour molecules per unit volume outside the room.
• When we try to dry ourselves with a towel, the vapour molecules surrounding you condense on your skin.
• Condensation is a warming process.
• Because of the condensation, you feel warm outside the shower stall when it is chilly.

Question 20.
Three objects A at 30°C, B at 303K and C at 420 K are in thermal contact. Then answer the follwing questions.
(i) Which are in “Thermal equibrium” among A, B and C?
(ii) From which object to another heat transferred? (2 Marks)
Answer:
i) 303K – 273K + 30K = 0°C + 30°C = 30°C.
∴ A and B objects are in ‘Thermal equibrium”.
ii) From object ‘C’ to objects ‘A’ and ‘B’ heat transferred.

Fill in the Blanks

1. The SI unit of specific heat is …………………. .
2. …………………. flows from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature.
3. …………………. is a cooling process.
4. An object A at 10° C and another object B at 10 K are kept in contact, then heat will flow from …………………. to …………………. .
5. The latent heat of fusion of ice is …………………. .
6. Temperature of a body is directly proportional to …………………. .
7. According to the principle of method of mixtures, the net heat lost by the hot bodies is equal to …………………. by the cold bodies.
8. The sultryness in summer days is due to
9. …………………. is used as a coolant.
10. Ice floats on water because …………………. .
Answer:

1. J/kg – K
2. Heat
3. Evaporation
4. A, B
5. 80 cal/gm
6. Average kinetic energy of the molecules of the body.
7. net heat gained
8. high humidity
9. Water
10. the density of ice is less than that of water

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is a warming process?
A) evaporation
B) condensation
C) boiling
D) all the above
Answer:
B) condensation

2. Melting is a process in which solid phase changes to ………………. .
A) liquid phase
B) liquid phase at constant temperature
C) gaseous phase
D) any phase
Answer:
B) liquid phase at constant temperature

3. Three bodies A, B and C are in thermal equilibrium. The temperature of B is 45° C. Then the temperature of C is ……………… .
A) 45° C
B) 50° C
C) 40° C
D) any temperature
Answer:
A) 45° C

4. The temperature of a steel rod is 330 K. Its temperature in ° C is ……………… .
A) 55° C
B) 57° C
C) 59° C
D) 53° C
Answer:
B) 57° C

5. Specific heat S =

Answer: C

6. Boiling point of water at normal atmospheric pressure is ……………… .
A) 0° C
B) 100° C
C) 110° C
D) -5° C
Answer:
B) 100° C

7. When ice melts, its temperature ……………… .
A) remains constant
B) increases
C) decreases
D) cannot say
Answer:
A) remains constant

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 1

Question 1.
Take a piece of wood and a piece of metal and keep them in a fridge or ice box. After 15 minutes, take them out and ask your friend to touch them. Which is colder? Why?
Answer:
1) The metal piece is colder than the wooden piece.
2) Because more heat energy flows out of our body so metal piece gives coldness to our body, than wooden piece.

Question 2.
What could be the reason for difference in coldness of metal and wood?
Answer:

• Due to more heat energy loss by our body when touches the metal piece compared to the wooden piece.
• In other way we say degree of coldness of the metal piece is greater than that of. the wooden piece.

Question 3.
Does it have any relation to the transfer of heat energy from our body to the object?
Answer:

• Yes, the principle of calorimetry, means heat loss by hot body is equal to heat gained by cold body.
• This means that when heat energy flows out of our body we feel the coldness and when heat energy enters our body we feel hotness.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 2

Question 4.
Why does transfer of heat energy take place between objects?
Answer:

• Due to the temperature difference between the two bodies which are in thermal contact.
• Now heat energy transfers from hot body to cold body until they attain same temperature.

Question 5.
Does transfer of heat take place in all situations?
Answer:
No, when the bodies are in thermal equilibrium there is no transfer of heat energy.

Question 6.
What are the conditions for transfer of heat energy?
Answer:

• Two bodies should have difference in temperature.
• They (two bodies) are in thermal contact with each other.
• When the bodies have equal temperature there is no transfer of heat energy.

Question 7.
What is temperature?
(OR)
Define temperature.
Answer:
Temperature : The measure of hotness or coldness of a body is called temperature.

Question 8.
How can you differentiate temperature from heat?
Answer:

• Heat is a thermal energy that flows from hot body to cold body. Temperature is measure of the hotness or coldness of a body.
• Temperature decides direction of heat (energy) flow, whereas heat is energy itself that flows.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 2 & 3

Question 9.
Place a laboratory thermometer in a glass tumbler containing hot water. Observe the change in mercury level. Wffet change did you notice in mercury level? Did mercury level increase or decrease?
Answer:
The mercury level rises up that means temperature of the mercury level increases.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 3

Question 10.
Place a laboratory thermometer in a glass tumbler containing cold water. Observe the change in mercury level. Did mercury level decrease or increase?
Answer:
The mercury level falls down that shows temperature of the mercury level decreases.

Question 11.
If two different systems A and B in thermal contact, are in thermal equilibrium individually with another system C (thermal contact with A and B), will the systems A and B be in thermal equilibrium with each other?
Answer:
Yes, A and B will be in thermal equilibrium with each other that means A and B will have equal temperatures.

Question 12.
How would you convert degree Celsius to Kelvin?
Answer:
Temperature in Kelvin = 273 + Temperature in degree Celsius. [K = t°C + 273]

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 4

Question 13.
Take two bowls one with hot water and second with cold water. Gently sprinkle food colour on the surface of the water in both bowls. How do food grains move? Why do they move randomly?
Answer:
We will notice that the grains of food colour move randomly (jiggle). This happens because of the molecules of water on both bowls are in random motion.

Question 14.
Why do the grains in hot water move more rapidly than the grains in cold water?
Answer:

• Temperature kinetic energy. So molecules in hot water have more KE than molecules in cold water.
• As water molecules in hot water move rapidly, grains in hot water move more rapidly than the grains in cold water.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 4 & 5

Question 15.
a) Take a cylindrical jar and pour hot water and then coconut oil in the vessel (do not mix them). Keep thermometers in hot water and coconut oil as shown in figure. The reading of thermometer in hot water decreases, at the same time reading of the thermometer, kept in oil increases. Why does this happen?
Answer:

• Heat transfers from hot water to oil.
• So, water loses heat and shows downfall in temperature.
• Oil takes the heat and shows increasing in the temperature.

b) Can you say that water loses energy’?
Answer:

• Yes. Due to the temperature difference between the water and oil, water loses energy and oil gains energy.
• Thus some heat energy flows from water to oil.
• This means, the kinetic energy of the molecules of water decreases while the kinetic energy of molecules of oil increases.

c) Can you differentiate between heat and temperature based on the heat transmit activity?
Answer:
Heat is the energy that flows from a hotter body to a colder body. Temperature denotes which body is hotter and which is colder. So, temperature determines direction of heat (energy) flow, whereas heat is the energy that flows.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 5 & 6

Question 16.
Place two test tubes containing 50 gm of water, 50 gm of oil in boiling water for same time.
a) In which material does the temperature rise quickly? Are the amounts of heat given to the water and oil same? How can you assume this?
Answer:

• Rise in temperature of oil is faster than the water.
• Yes, same amount of heat energy given to both the oil and water through boiling water.

b) Why does this happen in specific heat?
Answer:
This happens because rise in temperature depends on the nature of substance.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 7

Question 17.
How much heat energy is required to rise the temperature of unit mass of substance (material) by 1°C?
Answer:
Energy equal to its specific heat.

Question 18.
Why is the specific heat different for different substances?
(OR)
Explain why specific heat values are different for different materials.
Answer:

• We know that the temperature of the body is directly proportional to the average kinetic energy of particle of the body.
• The molecules of the system have different forms of energies such as linear, rotational kinetic energy, vibrational energy and potential energy.
• When we supply heat energy, it will be shared in different forms and increase the energy in the system.
• This sharing will vary from material to material.
• If the maximum share of heat energy is spent to rise linear kinetic energy, then the system gets increasing in temperature.
• Due to differences in sharing different materials have different specific heats.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 8

Question 19.
Take 200 ml of water in two beakers and heat them to same temperature and pour the water of two beakers into a larger beaker.
What do you observe? What could be the reason for the fact you observed?
Answer:

• The temperature of mixture remains the same.
• The reason is that the masses rise in temperature and the materials are same.

Question 20.
Heat the water in one beaker to 90°C and the other to 60°C. Mix the water from these beakers in large beaker. What will be the temperature of the mixture? What did you notice? Can you give reason for the change in temperature?
Answer:

• The temperature of mixture is 75°C.
• The reason is for a given material the temperature of mixture,
  
• Hot water gives heat to the cold water until thermal equilibrium takes place.
• So, the thermal equilibrium attains at 75°C.

Question 21.
ake 100 ml of water at 90°C and 200 ml of water at 60°C and mix the two. What is the temperature of the mixture? What difference do you notice in change of temperature?
Answer:

• The temperature of mixture is 70°C.
• The reason is here m₁ = 100 gm ; m₂ = 200 gm
  
• Final temperature of the mixture is less than the above case.
• If the quantity increases, the quantity of heat to transfer is also rises to attain thermal equilibrium.
  Here hotter body quantity is less and colder body quantity is high. So, the temperature at thermal equilibrium decreases and stands at 70° C.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 10

Question 22.
When floor of room is washed with water, the water on the floor disappears within minutes. Why does water on the floor disappear after some time?
Answer:
Due to evaporation water disappears from the floor.

Question 23.
Pour a few drops of spirit on your palm. Why does your skin become colder? (1 Mark)
Answer:
Spirit absorbs heat energy from our palm and evaporates. So our palm becomes colder.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 10 & 11

Question 24.
Take a few drops of spirit in two petri dishes separately. Keep one of the dishes under a ceiling fan and switch on the fan. Keep another dish with its lid closed. What do you notice? What could be the reason for this change?
Answer:
1) The spirit in the dish which is kept under the ceiling fan disappears.
2) Whereas we will find some spirit left in the dish that is kept in the lidded dish.
3) The molecules which are escaping from the surface is high and they can’t reach back to liquid due to wind blow. So, evaporation is high under fan.
4) At the same time evaporation is less in the dish which is closed by lid.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 12

Question 25.
Does the reverse process of evaporation take place? When and how does it take place?
Answer:
1) Yes, the reverse process of evaporation takes place.
2) When the vapour molecules lose their kinetic energy which leads to lower the temperature, they convert into droplets.
3) This process is called condensation.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 13

Question 26.
In early morning, during winter, you might have noticed that water droplets form on window panes, flowers, grass, etc. How are these water droplets formed?
(OR)
Why do water drops (dew) form on flowers and grass during morning hours of winter season?
Answer:

• During winter season, in the night times, atmospheric temperature goes down.
• The surfaces of window panes, flowers, grass, etc. become colder.
• The water vapour molecules touch the surfaces, gets cooled and lost its energy.
• Then water vapour condenses on the surface and water drops formed.
• The water droplets condensed on such surfaces are known as dew.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 14

Question 27.
Are the process of evaporation and boiling the same? Explain.
Answer:

• No, they are different.
• Evaporation takes place at any temperature.
• But boiling occurs at particular temperature called the boiling point.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 16

Question 28.
You might have observed coconut oil and ghee getting converted from liquid state to solid state during winter season. What could be the reason for this change? What happens to water kept in a refrigerator? How does it get converted from liquid phase to solid phase?
Answer:
1) If temperature of a substance decreases kinetic energy also decreases.
2) Kinetic energy decreases from water to ice. That means solid state to liquid state.
3) In winter season coconut oil in the form of liquid get down its temperature, hence its kinetic energy also decreases. So, it-freezes.
4) Water, which is kept in refrigerator loses the kinetic energy along with decreasing temperature and freezes.
5) In this way water converted liquid phase to solid phase.

Question 29.
Are the volumes of water and ice formed with same amount of water equal? Why?
Answer:
1) No, the volume of ice is greater than volume of water.
2) Water expands on freezing.
3) That means density of ice is less than density of water.

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat Activities

Activity – 1

1. Explain the term temperature with example.
(OR)
What is the name given to degree of hotness or coldness? Explain the quantity with an example.
Answer:
Procedure: Take a piece of wood and a piece of metal and keep them in fridge or ice box.
Observation : When we touch both of them we feel that metal piece is colder than the wooden piece.

Explanation :

• This is due to more energy flow out of our body when we touch the metal piece as compared with wooden piece.
• The degree of coldness of metal is greater than that of the wooden piece.
• The degree of hotness or coldness is called temperature.
• From this example, we say metal piece is at a lower temperature compared to wooden piece.

Activity – 2

2. What is the measure of thermal equilibrium? How do you prove?
(OR)
How do you prove temperature is the measure of thermal equilibrium?
(OR)
Explain thermal equilibrium with an activity.
Answer:
Procedure :
Take two glass tumblers and fill one of them with hot water and another with cold water.
Explanation & Observation :
1) When we place a thermometer inside the hot water the mercury level of thermometer rises from initial position due to heat transferred from hotter body (hot water) to colder body (mercury in thermometer).
2) When we place the thermometer inside the cold water the mercury level comes down from its initial position due to transfer of heat from mercury (hotter body) to water (colder body).

Conclusion :

• Heat is a form of energy that flows from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature until the temperature remains same for two bodies that is called thermal equilibrium.
• In the above case, the steadiness of mercury column shows that thermal equilibrium is achieved. That reading of mercury column gives temperature.
• Thus temperature is a measure of thermal equilibrium.

Activity – 3

3. Establish the relationship between temperature and average kinetic energy.
(OR)
Suggest an activity to prove that the average kinetic energy of the molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the substances.
(OR)
How do you prove that temperature of a body is an indicator of average kinetic energy?
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take two bowls one with hot water and second with cold water.
• Gently sprinkle food colour on the surface of the water in both bowls.

Observation :
We will observe the jiggling of grains of food colour in hot water is more when compared to jiggling in cold water.

Explanation :

• We know kinetic energy depends on speed motion of particles.
• So the kinetic energy of hotter body is greater than that of colder body.
• Thus the temperature of a body is an indicator of average kinetic energy of molecules of that body.

Conclusion :
Therefore average kinetic energy of molecules is directly proportional to absolute temperature.

Activity – 4

4. Write an activity which tells how heat transmits.
(OR)
In which direction does heat tend to flow? Prove it with an activity.
Answer:

Procedure :

• Take water in a container and heat it to 60° C.
• Take a cylindrical transparent glass jar and fill half of it with the hot water.
• Pour coconut oil over the surface of water.
• Put a lid with two holes on the top of the glass jar.
• Insert two thermometers through the lid in such a way that one inside coconut oil and other in water.

Observation & Explanation :

• Now we can observe that the reading of thermometer kept in water decreases while the reading of thermometer kept in oil increases.
• So temperature of water decreases whereas temperature of oil increases.

Conclusion :

• Heat transmits from hotter body to colder body.
• So temperature determines direction of heat flow.

Activity – 5 Specific Heat

5. Write an activity which gives the relation between rise in temperature and nature of material.
(OR)
“The rate of rise in temperature depends on the nature of substance.” Prove it with an activity.
(OR)
Draw a diagram and label the parts to prove that the rate of increase in temperature depends on the nature of substance.
(OR)
We can observe severe burns with hot oil when compared with hot water.
Which factor will decide this aspect? Explain this process with an example.
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take a large jar with water and heat it up to 80°C.
• Take two identical boiling test tubes with single-holed corks.
• Fill them, one of the boiling tubes with 50 gm of water and other with 50 gm of oil.
• Insert two thermometers in each of tubes and clamp them to retort stand and place them in a jar of hot water.

Observation :

• Observe the readings of thermometers every three minutes.
• We can observe that the rise in temperature of oil is higher than that of water.

Explanation :

• Since both the boiling tubes kept in hot water for the same interval of time, the heat supplied to oil and water is same but rise in temperature of oil is more.
• So we conclude that rise in temperature depends on the nature of substance (specific heat).

Activity – 6

6. Derive Q = mSAT.
(OR)
Establish relationship between heat energy, mass of the substance and rise in temperature.
(OR)
Derive an expression for heat energy.
(OR)
Derive an expression for factors affecting amount of heat energy absorbed.
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take two beakers of equal volume and take 250 grams of water in one beaker and 1 kg of water in another beaker.
• Note their initial temperatures.
• Now heat the two beakers up to 60° C.
• Note down the heating times.

Observation:

• We observe that-the water in large beaker takes more time.
• That means we need to supply more heat enepgy to water in larger beaker (greater quantity of water).

Conclusion :
From this we conclude that for some change in temperature the amount of heat (Q) absorbed by a substance is directly proportional to its mass (m).
Q ∝ m (when ∆T is constant) ………….. (1)

Procedure :
Now take 1 litre of water in a beaker and heat it and note the temperature changes (∆T) for every two minutes and observe the rise internals.

Conclusion:
We will notice that for the same mass (m) of water the change in temperature is proportional to amount of heat (Q) absorbed by it.
Q ∝ ∆T (when m is constant) ………….. (2)
From (1) and (2) Q m∆T (or) Q = mS∆T,
where ‘S’ is called specific heat of substance.

Activity – 7

7. a) How are you able to find the final temperature of the mixture of sample?
(OR)
What is the “Principle of method of mixtures”? Verify it with an activity.
Answer:
Situation – 1 :

• Take two beakers of the same size and pour 200 ml of water in each of them.
• Now heat the water in both beakers to same temperature.
• Now pour water from these beakers into a larger beaker and measure the temperature of the mixture.

Observation :
We can observe that there is no change in temperature.

Situation – 2 :

• Now heat the water in first beaker to 90° C and the other to 60° C.
• Mix the water from these beakers in a large beaker.

Observation :
We can find that the temperature of mixture is 75° C.

Situation – 3 :
Now take 100 ml of water at 90° C and 200 ml of water at 60° C and mix the two. Observation :
We can find that the temperature of mixture is 75° C.

7. b) Derive, a formula for final temperature of mixture of samples.
(OR)
Maveen added hotter water of mass m₁ kept at temperature T₁ to cold water of mass m₂ kept at temperature T₂. Find the expression to find temperature of mixture of samples.
Answer:
Procedure:
1) Let the initial temperatures of the hotter and colder samples of masses m₁ and m₂ be T₁ and T₂.
2) Let T be the final temperature of mixture.

Observation :
The temperature of the mixture is lower than hotter sample and higher than colder sample. Explanation :
So hot sample has lost heat, and the cold sample has gained heat.
The heat lost by the hot sample Q₁ = m₁S (T₁ – T)
The heat gained by the cold sample Q₂ = m₂S (T – T₂)
We know that heat lost = heat gained
Q₁ = Q₂
m₁ S(T₁ – T) = m₂ S(T – T₂)
\(\mathrm{T}=\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{~T}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{~T}_{2}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}}\)

Activity -8

8. Explain the process of evaporation phenomenon with an example.
(OR)
Srinu observed that spirit taken in a petri dish disappears after some time. Explain the process involved in it with an example.
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take a few drops of spirit in two petri dishes separately.
• Keep one of the dishes under a ceiling fan and keep another dish with its lid closed.
• Observe the quantity of spirit in both dishes after 5 minutes.

Observation :
We will notice that spirit in the dish kept under the ceiling fan disappears whereas we will find some spirit left in the dish that is kept in the lidded dish.

Explanation :

• The reason is that the molecules of spirit in dish continuously move with random speeds and collide with other molecules.
• During the collision they transfer energy to other molecules.
• Due to this collision the molecules at the surface acquire energy and fly off from the surface.
• Some molecules come back to liquid.
• If the number of escaping molecules is greater than returned number, then the number of molecules in the liquid decreases.

Conclusion :
When a liquid is exposed to air, the molecules at the surface keep on escaping from the surface till the entire liquid disappears into air. This process is called evaporation.

Activity – 9

9. Explain the process of condensation with example.
(OR)
Explain the process of condensation with an activity.
(OR)
Karan told his friend that he observed that there are some water droplets outside a cold soft drink bottle. Explain the phenomenon involved in the formation of these droplets.
Answer:
Procedure :
Place a glass tumbler on the table. Pour cold water up to half of its height.

Observation :
There are droplets formed outside of the glass.

Explanation :

• The reason is that the surrounding air contains water molecules in the form of water vapour. When the water molecules strike the surface of the glass tumbler which is cool, they lose their kinetic energy.
• This energy lowers the temperature of vapour and it turns into droplets.
• The energy lost by water molecules in air is gained by the molecules of the glass tumbler.
• Hence the average kinetic energy of glass molecules increases. In turn the energy is transferred to water molecules in die glass.

Conclusion :

• So the average kinetic energy and temperature of water in glass increases. This is called condensation.
• Condensation is the phase change from gas to liquid.

Activity – 10

10. Explain the process of boiling with an example.
(OR)
Why do we observe bubbles on the surface of water which has been heated ? What is the phenomenon involved in it? Explain.
Answer:
Procedure :
Take a beaker of water, keep it on the burner and note the readings of thermometer for every two minutes.

Observation :

• We will notice that the temperature of the water rises continuously till it reaches 100° C.
• Once it reaches 100° C the temperature remains same and a lot of bubbling on the surface takes place. This is called boiling of water.

Explanation :

• It happens due to when water is heated the solubility of gases it contains reduces.
• As a result, bubbles of gas are formed in the liquid.
• Evaporation of water molecules from the surrounding liquid occurs into these bubbles and they become filled with saturated vapour.
• At a certain temperature, the pressure of the saturated vapour inside the bubbles becomes equal to the pressure exerted on the bubbles from the outside.

Conclusion :

• As a result, these bubbles rise rapidly to the surface and collapse at the surface releasing vapour present in bubbles into air at the surface. This process is called “boiling”.
• This temperature is called ‘boiling temperature”.

Activity – 11

11. Explain the process of melting and latent heat of fusion.
(OR)
When ice is heated to 0°C it starts to turn into water. But temperature remains ‘ constant for some time. What is the process involved in this? Explain.
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take small ice cubes in a beaker. Insert the thermometer in the beaker.
• Now start heating the beaker and note down readings of thermometer every one minute till the ice completely melts and gets converted into water.
• Before heating the temperature of ice is 0°C or less than 0°C.

Observation :

• We will observe that the temperature of ice at the beginning is equal to or below 0°C.
• If the temperature of ice is below 0°C, it goes on changing till it reaches 0°C.
• When ice starts melting, we will observe no change in temperature though you are supplying heat continuously.

Explanation:

• Given heat energy uses to break the bonds (H₂O) in ice and melts.
• So, temperature is constant while melting.

Conclusion:

• This process is called melting. In this process, heat converts solid phase to liquid phase.
• The temperature of the substance does not change until all the ice melts and converts into water.
• The heat given to melting is called latent heat of fusion.
• The heat required to convert 1 gm of solid completely into liquid at constant temperature is called “latent heat of fusion”.

Activity – 12

12. Why does a glass bottle tilled with water break when it is placed in deep freezer for some time?
(OR)
Prove that density of ice is less than that of water.
(OR)
How do you prove that volume of ice is more than that of water?
Answer:
Procedure :

• Take a small glass bottle with a tight lid and fill it with water, without any gap and fix the lid tightly.
• Put the bottle into the deep freezer of a refrigerator for a few hours.

Observation :
When we take it out from the deep freezer, we can observe that the glass bottle breaks.

Explanation :

• These cracks on the bottle due to expansion of the substance in the bottle.
• This means water expands on freezing.

Conclusion :

• Water expands on freezing.
• Ice has less density than water.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 1st Lesson India: Relief Features Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 1st Lesson India: Relief Features

10th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson India: Relief Features Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the west. But the clocks show the same time. How does this happen?
Answer:

1. The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat.
2. It takes 4 minutes for the sun’s position to move one longitude.
3. This means that the time is different for each degree of longitude.
4. Based on the longitudes the time is calculated.
5. Then two different places in our country will have different times, which cause a lot of confusion.
6. To avoid this confusion of time from place to place 82°30’ E longitude is taken as the standard meridian of India and serves as Indian Standard Time.
7. All people in India have to follow this time. Thus clocks show the same time.

Question 2.
If the Himalayas would not have been in its present position, how would be the climat conditions of the Indian sub continent?
(OR)
What is the geographical impact of the Himalayas in influencing the Indian climate?
Answer:

1. The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways.
2. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during winter.
3. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India.
4. In its absence, this region would have remained drier.
5. India would have been a tropical desert.

Question 3.
The Himalayas do not extend into which of the following states :
Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Sikkim/Haryana, Punjab, Uttaranchal.
Answer:

1. The Himalayas run in the west-east direction in the form of an arch with a distance about 2400 kms.
2. These have extended into states like Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Meghalaya in India.
3. These do not extend into Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab.

Question 4.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of the Himalayan region with that of the peninsular plateau.
Answer:

1. There are six major physiographic regions of India.
2. They are:
   1. The Himalayas,
   2. The Indo-Gangetic plain,
   3. The Peninsular Plateau,
   4. The Coastal Plains
   5. The Thar Desert and
   6. The Islands.
3. The Himalayas have 3 ranges of mountains. Among them Himadri has the highest peaks with an average elevation of about 6100 mts above the mean sea level.
4. In ‘Lesser Himalayas’ the height of the peaks ranges between 3700 to 4500 mts.
5. Shivaliks have an altitude varying between 900 mts and 1100 mts.
6. The Himalayas width differs from 500 kms, in the western regions to 200 kms in central and eastern regions.
7. The peninsular plateau consists of two broad divisions namely, the central high lands (Malwa Plateau) and the Deccan Plateau.
8. The place where the Western Ghats and Nilgiris meet has many peaks over a height about 2000 mts.
9. The average height of the Eastern Ghats rarely exceeds 900 mts.
10. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is Aroma Konda found at Chintapalli in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 5.
What is the influence of the Himalayas on Indian agriculture?
(OR)
How do the Himalayas influence agriculture in India?
Answer:

1. The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways.
2. They are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type of climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India.
3. They cause the retreat of southwest monsoon winds as they are blocked by these ranges.
4. Thus, northeast monsoon occurs only because of the Himalayas.
5. The rivers originating in the glaciers of these ranges are perennial and caused the economic growth of the northern plains.
6. These valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
7.  India has irrigation facilities only for 40% cultivated land.
8.  All the remaining land depends on monsoons which are caused by the Himalayas.

(OR)
Answer:
Influence of the Himalayas on Indian Agriculture:

1. Fertile soil: The sediments carried by the Himalayan rivers are deposited in the northern plain in the form of fertile soil. It makes the plain one of the most fertile lands in the world, e.g.: Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar.
2. Source of rivers :
   • The Himalayas act as a huge reservoir of water for the north Indian rivers.
   • All these perennial rivers are the lifeline of north India and are suitable for the construction of multipurpose projects which strengthens Indian agriculture.

Question 8.
Use an atlas and identify the following:
i) The Islands formed due to Volcanic eruption.
ii) The countries constituting Indian Subcontinent.
iii) The states through which the Tropic of Cancer passes.
iv) The northernmost latitude in degrees.
v) The southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland in degrees.
vi) The eastern and the westernmost longitudes in degrees.
vii) The place situated on the three seas.
viii) The strait separating Sri Lanka from India,
ix) The Union Territories of India.
Answer:
i) Narcondam and Barren Islands.
ii) India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh.
iii) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.
iv) 37°6′
v) 8°4′
vi) 97°25′ Easternmost longitude; 68°7’Westernmost longitude
vii) Tamil Nadu
viii) Palk strait
ix) Delhi, Chandigarh, Diu Daman, Dadra, and Nagar Haveli, Pondicheri, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.

Question 9.
How are the Eastern coastal plains and Western coastal plains similar or different?
Answer:

Question 10.
Plateau regions in India do not support agriculture as much as the plain regions -what are the reasons for this?
Answer:

1. Plateau regions in India do not support agriculture as much as the plain regions.
2. There are many reasons for this.
3. The physical formation of plateau is not much supportive to agriculture.
4. Plains are formed with alluvial soils which are very fertile, so support agriculture.
5. The rugged surface of plateau makes irrigation difficult whereas plains provide much irrigation facilities.
6. Plateau region does not have any perennial river, whereas plain regions have perennial rivers.
7. Plateau region is rich in mineral resources whereas plains are rich in agriculture practice.

10th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson India: Relief Features InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.1

Question 1.

Look at the world map given above, and write a few lines about India’s location with reference to the places marked on this map.
Answer:
India is located to the north of the equator between 8°4′ and 37°6′ north latitudes and 68°7′ and 97025′ east longitudes.

Question 2.
The lines of latitude and longitude are used for accurately specifying the location of any place or region. Use the atlas and correct the following statement:
“India is a very extensive country and lies totally in the southern Hemispheres of the globe. The country’s mainland lies between 8 degrees N and 50 degrees N longitude and 68 degree S and 9 degrees E latitude.”
Answer:
India is a very extensive country and lies totally in the Northern hemisphere and the Eastern hemisphere of the globe. The country’s mainland lies between 8°4′ and 37°6′ North latitude and 68°7 and 97°25′ East longitude.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 2

Question 3.
Why do we often use the term “Indian peninsula”?
Answer:

1. Any country which is surrounded by sea on three sides and the fourth side is landlocked, is called a peninsula.
2. India is surrounded by the Bay of Bengal, the Indian Ocean, and the Arabian Sea as its three borders and the fourth side is landlocked with the Himalayan mountains.
3. So we often use that term Indian peninsula.

Question 4.
Examine the map (Text Page No. 1) and imagine that India is located in the Arctic Circle. How would your life be different?
Answer:
If India is located in the Arctic Circle, my life would be different as follows :

1. I must cope with very low temperatures and constant darkness in the winter, and temperatures above freezing and constant daylight in the summer.
2. While temperatures are below freezing, snow and snow everywhere.
3. Transportation: Sledges during winter and boards during summer.
4. Diet: Fish, seals, wheals, caribou, berrys, plants.
5. Shelter: Igloos are camps.

Question 5.
Identify Indira Point on the atlas. What is special about this? (OR)
What is special about ‘Indira Point’ with reference to the location of India ?
Answer:

1. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren Islands are volcanic origin.
2. The southernmost tip of India found in Nicobar Island is called Indira Point.
3. It is named in honour of Smt. Indira Gandhi.
4. It was submerged during the 2004 Tsunami.

Question 6.
Andhra Pradesh lies between and N latitudes and …… and E longitudes.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh lies between 12I4T and 22° North latitudes and IT and 84°40′ East longitudes.

Question 7.
Using the scale given in your atlas estimate the length of the coast line for Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
The length of the coast line for Andhra Pradesh is 972 kms or 604 miles.

Question 8.
Look at the map 2 on text page 3 and trace the boundary for India and colour this.
With the help of the scale given on the map, find out the total land boundary that India shares with Bangladesh.

Answer:
The total land boundary that India shares with Bangladesh is 4,096.70 km.

Question 9.
Which of these data are for rising and setting times for the Sun at Ahmedabad and Imphal ?

Answer:

1. Imphal is in the eastern side of India.
2. The sun rises early there thus the sunrise timing of 5 :59 and sunset timing of 16 : 37 belong to it.
3. Whereas Ahmedabad is in the western side of India.
4. The sun rises late comparative to Imphal here, thus the sunrise timing of 7 : 20 and sunset timing of 18 : 05 belong to it.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 4

Question 10.
List the Himalayan rivers and the Peninsular rivers that helped the formation of North Indian Plain.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers that helped the formation of North Indian Plain are

1. Indus and its tributaries, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej.
2. The Ganga and its tributaries, the Ghaggar, the Teesta, the Sone, the Kosi and the Yamuna river.
3. The Brahmaputra and its tributaries.
4. A majority of the tributaries of the Ganga may originate in the Himalayan ranges but some of them have their sources in the peninsular plateau.
5. The peninsular rivers that helped the formation of Northern plain are the Chambal, the Sind, the Betwa, the Ken and the Son originating in the northern part peninsula belong to the Ganga river system.

Question 11.
The formation of the Himalayas was ———- million years ago while early hunter-gathering human beings emerged on earth ———— million years ago.
Answer:
200; 1.8

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 5

Question 12.
Look at the Map 2 (on test page 3)and the raised relief map in your school. Using your finger trace the regions mentioned below:
a) Follow the course of Godavari and Krishna to identify the direction of slope of Deccan plateau.
b) Describe the entire course of the Brahmaputra River, with reference to landforms, heights, and countries.
Answer:
a) The direction of slope of Deccan plateau is West to East.
b) The course of Brahmaputra is with reference to

• Landforms: Lake, Himalayan range, Tibetan plateau, Assom Valley, Sunderban Delta.
• Heights: Mishmi Hills between 1000 m to 3000m, Assom Valley with a height upto 300 m, Greater Himalayas at an average height of 6100 mts.
• Countries: It flows through Tibet (China), India and Bangladesh.

Question 13.
Locate the three ranges in your atlas.
Answer:
1) Greater Himalayas or Himadri. 2) Lesser Himalayas or Himachal. 3) Shivaliks.

Question 14.
Locate some of the highest peaks in the raised relief map.
Answer:
Mt. Everest, K2 (Godwin Austin), Kanchenjunga, Gowrisankar, Nanga Parbat, Dhaulagiri and Nandadevi.

Question 15.
Trace with your fingers on the above regions (given in the text book matter) in the raised relief map and on the wall map with your fingers.
Answer:
Students’ Activity.

Question 16.
Locate the following places on Indian physical map in your atlas :
Shimla, Mussorie, Nainital and Raniket.
Answer:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 7

Question 17.
Locate the following ranges in the physical map of India.

Answer:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 9

Question 18.
Locate the following on the Indian physical map of your atlas and on the raised relief map: Malwa plateau, Bundelkhand, Bhagelkhand, Rajamahal Hills and Chotanagpur plateau.
Answer:

Question 19.
Using an atlas, compare the relative heights of above plateaus with that of Tibetan plateau.
Answer:
Tibetan plateau is higher than the peninsular plateau (Peninsular plateau 600 – 900 mts. height, Tibetan plateau – more than 5400 mts height).

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 10

Question 20.
Look at the raised relief map and compare the relative heights of Western and Eastern Ghats as well as Tibetan plateau and Himalayan peaks.
Answer:
In few areas the average height of Western Ghats is more than 2000 mts.
The average height of Eastern Ghats rarely exceeds 900 mts.
The Himalayan peaks are of 3 ranges.
In Himadri the average height of peaks is 6100 mts.
In Himachal the average height of peaks is 4000 mts.
In Shivaliks the average height of peaks is around 1000 mts.
The height of world’s highest table land, the Tibetan plateau is above 5400 mts.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 12

Question 21.
On the physical map of India identify the delta regions. How is their height similar or different ?
How do they compare in relation to the Indo-Gangetic Plains ?
Answer:
The height of these deltas is similar between 0 and 300 metres. The northern plain and deltas both are agriculturally developed.

Project work

Question.
Using the raised relief map, and physical maps in your atlas make clay/ sand models of India on the ground. Use different types of sand or soil to mark different types of relief features. Ensure heights of the places are proportional and rivers are marked. Look at the vegetation map in your atlas and try to use leaves and grasses to decorate them. May be over the year you can also add other features of India into them.
Answer: Students’ Activity.

Andhra Pradesh SCERT AP SSC 10th Class Maths Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu Medium are part of AP SSC 10th Class Textbook Solutions.

Students can also read AP SSC 10th Class Maths Solutions for board exams.

AP SSC 10th Class Maths Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu

10th Class Maths Bits in English Medium

• Chapter 1 Real Numbers Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 2 Sets Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 3 Polynomials Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 4 Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 5 Quadratic Equations Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 6 Progressions Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Bits for 10th Class
• Similar Triangles Bits for 10th Class
• Tangents and Secants to a Circle Bits for 10th Class
• Mensuration Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 11 Trigonometry Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 12 Applications of Trigonometry Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 13 Probability Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 14 Statistics Bits for 10th Class

10th Class Maths Bits in Telugu Medium

• 1st Lesson వాస్తవ సంఖ్యలు Bits
• 2nd Lesson సమితులు Bits
• 3rd Lesson బహుపదులు Bits
• 4th Lesson రెండు చరరాశులలో రేఖీయ సమీకరణాల జత Bits
• 5th Lesson వర్గ సమీకరణాలు Bits
• 6th Lesson శ్రేఢులు Bits
• 7th Lesson నిరూపక రేఖాగణితం Bits
• 8th Lesson సరూప త్రిభుజాలు Bits
• 9th Lesson వృత్తాలకు స్పర్శరేఖలు మరియు ఛేదనరేఖలు Bits
• 10th Lesson క్షేత్రమితి Bits
• 11th Lesson త్రికోణమితి Bits
• 12th Lesson త్రికోణమితి అనువర్తనాలు Bits
• 13th Lesson సంభావ్యత Bits
• 14th Lesson సాంఖ్యక శాస్త్రం Bits

AP State Syllabus Bits with Answers