AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 18 Impact of Colonialism in India

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 18th Impact of Colonialism in India

9th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
How did people use the forests before the rule of the British? Why was there less danger of the forests being fully destroyed in those days?
Answer:

  • The adivasis used forests for hunting, gathering tubers, fruits, flowers and herbs and for gazing their cattle.
  • They cut wood, cleared the land to cultivate crops.
  • They cut trees to build their homes etc.
  • They did not blindly cut large tracts of forests but only small patches.
  • They cut only old trees and allowed new trees to grow.
    Therefore there was less danger of the forests being fully destroyed in those days.

AP Board Solutions

Question 2.
Against whom did the adivasis revolt? In what ways did they demonstrate their anger and protest? Give some examples.
Answer:

  • The Adivasis revolted against the police department, the forest department and the moneylenders.
  • During the protests they would burn down many police stations, posts of the forest department and houses of the moneylenders.
  • In many places they would set fire to the entire jungle.
  • The revolt of Santhals of Jharkhand in 1856, the Koya revolt of A.P. in 1880 and 1922, the revolt of the Maria and Muria of Bastar in 1910, etc. were some of the revolts of adivasis.

Question 3.
How were the revolts of the adivasis suppressed by the British?
Answer:

  • In most of the revolts the leaders were arrested and were kept behind bars,
    e.g.: Birsa Munda died in prison in 1900.
  • The leaders were traped and shot dead by the Britishers,
    e.g.: Sita Rama Raju of A.P.
  • The Adivasis were armed only with bows and arrows.
  • They could not stand before the gun-bearing British army.
    e.g. : In a fierce battle 15000 Santhals were killed and their revolt was finally suppressed.

Question 4.
Make a timeline to show when adivasi protests occurred in different parts of India.
Answer:

Adivasi Protests
1. Santhal adivasi revolt Jharkhand 1856
2. Koya adivasi revolt Andhra Pradesh 1880 and 1922
3. Maria and Muria adivasis revolt Bastar 1910
4. Munda adivasi revolt Chhotanagapur Plateau (Now in Jharkhand) Between 1874 and 1901

Question 5.
What problems did the Indian industrialists have with the British government?
Answer:
The problems of the Indian industrialists during the British government were –

  1. The British government had levied a special tax on cloth made by Indian weavers in order to help the cloth industry of Britain.
  2. The British government refused to levy the similar tax on the British cloth.
  3. Later the government levied a 3 /2% tax on the British goods and the same tax was levied on the cloth made in India too.
  4. With this the British government made it clear that it would protect mainly the interests of the British factories.

Question 6.
During British rule, why was it easier for the European companies rather than Indian companies to set up industries? Give a few reasons.
Answer:

  • Indian industry had got a little help from the British government.
  • A very large number of factories, banks, ships etc., were in the hands of Europeans, not in the hands of Indians.
  • British industries had easy access to all types of officers and authorities of the British government, whereas Indians never had such reach.
  • All the foreign trade was in the hands of European companies, hence, they had no shortage of funds.

Question 7.
Labour laws were first made for child labourers, then for women and lastly for men. Why were these laws made in this order?
Answer:

  • The first Factory Act in 1881 made rules especially for the welfare of the children.
  • As the children are tender hence the first priority was given for the welfare and regularized their working hours and children below 7 years were restricted to work in factories.
  • In 1891, laws were made in the interest of women labour as they are sensitive when compared with men.
  • Lastly in 1911, the working hours of men were regularised.

AP Board Solutions

Question 8.
How could education affect industrial development ? Discuss in the class.
Answer:

  • Industrial development needs a lot of educational workers and officers at all levels.
    We need lot of technicians, scientists, engineers, management personnels, lot of support system etc.
    Previously lack of “technical know how” led to the establishment of factories with foreign collaboration
    Now due to education affect, we are technically skillful and can establish industries without any foreign collaboration.

Question 9.
Identify the large industrial cities on outline map of India during 20th century.
AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 18 Impact of Colonialism in India 1
Answer:

  1. Mumbai
  2. Ahmedabad
  3. Chennai
  4. Jamshedpur
  5. Kanpur
  6. Kolkata
  7. Hyderabad
  8. Surat
  9. Visakhapatnam
  10. Pune
  11. Nagpur
  12. Indore
  13. Salem

Question 10.
Find out where each of these adivasi struggles took place, and mark their locations on a map of India.
Answer:

  1. Jharkhand
  2. Chotanagpur Plateau
  3. Uttarkhand
  4. Chintapalli
  5. Adilabad

AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 18 Impact of Colonialism in India 2

Question 11.
Read the para under the title ‘Adivasi Revolts’ on page 222 and comment on it.
Adivasi Revolts :
We have seen how the conditions of the adivasi farmers who lived in the jungle worsened in British times. The Baiga, Muria, Gond and Bhil tribes of Madhya Pradeshand Chattisgarh, the Koya, Reddy, and Kolam tribes of Andhra Pradesh and the Saora adivasis of Orissa, were all no longer able to practice their old form of cultivation. They were having to become labourers for either the Forest Department or for contractors. Or they were becoming bonded labourers for moneylenders or farmers who had come from outside.
Answer:

  1. As soon as the British took over Eastern India, tribal revolts broke out to challenge the alien rule.
  2. In the early years of colonization, no other community in India offered such heroic resistance to British rule or faced such tragic consequences as did the numerous Adivasi communities.
  3. As punishment for Adivasi resistance to British rule, ‘The Criminal Tribes Act’ was passed by the British Government in 1871.
  4. As the freedom movement widened, it drew adivasis into all aspects of the struggle.

Question 12.
Visit an office of the Forest Department and interview the official on how forest could be preserved and wisely used by both industries and local people.
Answer:
Interview with Forest Ofiicer :
Student (S) : “Good Morning Sir, tell us about your eduction.”
Forest Officer (F.O) : “I was a village man. After completing my graduation, I appeared for the APPSC. Later I got selected and trained at Dehardun. I was appointed in forests in East Godavari Dist.
Student : Sir, elaborate upon your works as a Forest Officer.”
Forest Officer : “My work involved preservation of forest. As a Forest Officer it is my duty to safeguard the forests. Today, the world’s demand for timber and paper continues to grow. As we lose the forest, we also lose the habitat for many species, including human tribes.”
Student : “What precautions should we take to preserve the forests ?”
Forest Officer : 1. The government should ban the import of illegally logged timber.
2. The people should use less paper and wood.
3. People should invest in forest communities.
Student : “How can the forests be used wisely by both industries and local people ?”
Forest Officer : “Fine, there are certain things that everyone of us can do.
1. We should plant new trees.
2. We should practise the 3Rs. ‘Reduce, Reuse and Recycle’.
Reduce the amount of products of trees.
Reuse the items of forests, use the recycling process for some items.
3. Harvesting trees to create young regrowing forest in the place of cut forests.
4. We should keep all wildlife in our minds.
Student : “Thank you Sir, you gave us good information. Bye, sir”
Forest Officer : “Very good my boy. God bless you.”

AP Board Solutions

Question 13.
Visit a nearby factory in your area find out its history how has the technology changed, where do the workers come from, try and talk to the employers and some workers to get their views.
Answer:
We have visited Sri Padmavathi Polymers.
Sri K. Chalapathi Rao and Sri C.V. Narasimha Rao are the partners of this factory. The factory was established in the year 2007. There are 50 employees in this factory. They are manufacturers and suppliers of Thermocol Boxes like EPS box, Apple box, Fish box, etc.

They import the thermocol balls from some other country. They heat these balls and mould them in different shapes.

The employers are present in the factory when we visit it. We met Smt. Subhadra, Accountant there. They are very happy to work there. They said that the facilities arranged by the authorities were well. There are shift duties in the factory. Women workers work during the day time only. The salary structures are also fine. They have eight working hours a day. We observe the surroundings in the factory. They are neat and clean. They grow plants for fresh air.

9th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss what “Protected market” means. (Text Book Page No. 225)
ANswer:

  • “Protected Market” is the policy according to which goods made in a specific area be protected from foreign goods.
  • Protection is given to the indigeneous goods by levying tax on imports. Thereby free incoming of imports is restricted to protect local markets.
  • Indian markets were not protected during the British rule.

Question 2.
The Indians demanded that a tax be imposed on British goods coming to India.
1) Do you think this was a fair demand? (Text Book Page No. 225)
2) Should the government have treated British and Indian industries equally?
Answer:

  1. Yes, Indians’ demand of taxing the British goods coming to India was a fair demand.
  2. Yes, the government should have treated British and Indian industries equally.

Question 3.
Why did a rapid development take place in Indian industry during the First World War? (Text Book Page No. 226)
Answer:

  • During the First World War, the import of foreign goods into India fell sharply.
  • Cargo ships were diverted to war related duties, and hence there was a shortage of ships.
  • The factories of Europe produced things needed for the war.
  • So under these circumstances, the factories in India started selling their goods in greater quantities.
  • Enthused by these heavy sales there was a rapid development of industries.

Question 4.
What industries were established in India during British rule? (Text Book Page No. 227)
Answer:

  • From 1850 onwards, machine based industries had begun to set up in India.
  • The biggest industry was the spinning and weaving of textiles.
  • The jute industry also developed during this peirod.
  • The greatest example of the achievements of Indian industrialists was the setting up of a steel factory at Jamshedpur in 1907.

Question 5.
What were the difficulties in the development of Indian industries at the time of Independence? (Text Book Page No. 227)
Answer:

  • Tax levied on foreign goods was not adequate to protect our industries or goods.
  • The British government did not pay adequate attention to develop the resources and facilities such as coal and iron and railway, roadways and electricity.
  • Indian industrialists had to buy machines from abroad and they did not start in India.
  • Educated workers like scientists, engineers and technicians were not available in India.
  • Hence we depended on foreigners for “technical know how”.
  • The above were the difficulties in the development of Indian industries at the time of independence.

AP Board Solutions

Question 6.
In the early days of factories in India : (Text Book Page No. 229)
a) What were the rules regarding work and rest for labourers?
b) What were the rules regarding payment of wages ?
c) For what reasons would there be cuts and reductions in the labourers’ wages?
Answer:
a) Rules regarding work and rest for labourers :

  1. Once the work began, there was no question of stopping.
  2. There was no fixed time break even for meals.
  3. Taking out 15-20 minutes from their work and would eat their meal.
  4. The working atmosphere was unhygienic and would pass in the heat, humidity, noise, dust and suffocation of the mill.
  5. The work would stop at sunset, when it would impossible to see.

b) Rules regarding payment of wages :

  1. Wages were given in proportion to the amount of goods produced.
  2. The owners laid the condition that “as much as you make, so much will you be paid”.
  3. The labourers were not able to get any fixed income each month.
  4. At the end of the month, the owners would not even pay the full payment. They would keep some amount till the end of the next week so that the worker would not leave the work.

c) Reasons for cuts and reductions in the wages :

  1. There were plenty of fines.
  2. The owners would fine the labourers
    a) if they came late,
    b) if the cloth spoilt,
    c) if the owner thought the labourer did not work sincerely.
  3. These fines were deducted from the month’s wages.

Question 7.
Why did labourers go on strikes? (Text Book Page No. 230)
Answer:

  1. Labourers struggled against their oppressive working conditions.
  2. They went on strike for fixed incomes and other facilities such as –
    a) regulation of working hours
    b) improvement of their working conditions
    c) weekly break and leave
    d) regarding employment of children

AP Board Solutions

Question 8.
Why were strikes used instead of any other action? (Text Book Page No. 230)
Answer:

  • During strikes all workers would participate.
  • Due to that the work would stop and the production would come down.
  • One day strike would lead to lakhs of rupees loss to all industrialists.
  • Hence strikes were used instead of any other work.

Question 9.
Why did the educated people of India not pay much attention to the interests of factory labourers in the beginning? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

  • In the beginning most of the educated people of India paid no need to the problems of the labourers.
    They believed that if laws were made in the interests of the labourers, industries would not be able to develop in India.

Question 10.
How would the labour laws have affected the industrialists? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

  • The industrialists were forced to give a break of half an hour after every six hours of work.
  • The working hours of men, women and children were regularised.
  • The mill production came down.
  • The expenses of the owners increased.
  • They were forced to improve the working conditions of the workers.

Question 11.
The British industrialists were against the development of factories in India, yet they took the side of Indian labourers. Why? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

  • If fixed incomes and facilities were provided, the mill production would come down and the expenses of the owners would go up.
  • Then the goods produced in the factories would be more expensive.
  • Then the goods from Britain would be sold easily.
  • The development of Indian industries would come to a standstill.
    Thus the British industrialists were just pretending to show concern for the welfare of the Indian labourers.

Question 12.
Below what age could children not be employed as labourers in British times? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

  • According to the Factory Act of 1881, children below the age of 7 were not allowed to work in the factories.
  • According to the Factory Act of 1891, children below the age of 9 were not allowed to work in the factories.

Question 13.
According to the labour laws what was the maximum number of hours that children, women and men could be expected to work? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

  • According to the Factory Act of 1881, the children’s working hours were reduced to 9 hours a day.
  • According to the Factory Act of 1891, the women labourers cannot be made to work more than 11 hours a day.
  • The men labourers cannot be made to work for more than 12 hours every day as per the Factory Act of 1911.

AP Board Solutions

Question 14.
Which were the two main labourers’ unions to be formed in India during British times? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

  • Girni Kamgar Union was formed with the help of labourers of Mumbai.
  • The Mazdoor Mahazan was formed in Ahmedabad under the influence of Gandhiji.

Question 15.
In which year were you born? Mark it on this time line. Also mark the births of your parents and some grandparents or other old relatives you can find out about. (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:
I was born on ……………. . My father was born on ……………. . My mother was born on ……………. . My grand father was born on My grand mother was born on ……………. .

Question 16.
Find out whether any of the people whose births you marked were affected by the labour laws. (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:
My grandfather was affected by labour law. He worked in a sugar factory. So he obtained many benefits by labour law. Working hours duration, medical, housing etc., facilities were obtained.

Question 17.
Underline four sentences that represent the situation of adivasis and their use of forests before British rule. (Text Book Page No. 220)
Answer:

  • Before British rule adivasis and villagers living in and near forests got many things they needed for their daily lives from the forests.
  • They were the owners of the forests.
  • They used the forests for hunting, gathering tubers, fruits,flowers and herbs and for grazing their cattle.
  • They cut wood to build their homes and to make implements. They took things for their personal use.

AP Board Solutions

Question 18.
Have you seen old wooden sleepers used in railway tracks ? What are they being replaced with today? Discuss why this replacement is taking place. (Text Book Page No. 221)
Answer:
Yes, I have seen wooden sleepers in railway tracks when I was very young. They are replaced by concrete sleepers today. Interest in concrete rail road ties increased after World War – II following advances in the design, quality and production of pre-stressed concrete. Concrete ties were cheaper and easier to obtain than timber and better able to carry higher axle weights and sustain higher speeds. Concrete sleepers have a longer service life and require less maintenance than timber due to their greater weight which helps them remain in the correct position longer.

Problems with wood ties include rot, splitting, insect infestation, plate-cutting, etc. In addition to these, the government wanted to reduce the burden on the forests.

So the concrete sleepers are introduced and replaced the wooden sleepers.

Question 19.
What do the present laws set as minimum age, below which children cannot be employed as labourers? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:
According to the recent factory acts no child below 14 years of age can be employed as labour in factories or coalmines or any other jobs.

Question 20.
Why is a union or labourers’ organization important for labourers? Discuss. (Text Book Page No. 233)
Answer:

  • Any union or organizations fight for the common cause of all workers.
  • They fight for the right of the workers.
  • They protect the workers from the harassment of owners.
  • They also fight for the hike in salaries and compensation for accident deaths, etc.

 

AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 6 Agriculture in India

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 6th Lesson Agriculture in India Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 6th Lesson Agriculture in India

9th Class Social Studies 6th Lesson Agriculture in India Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Name one important beverage crop and specify the geographical conditions required for its growth.
Answer:

  • Tea is an important beverage crop.
  • The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates.
  • Fertile, well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter is essential.
  • Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
  • Frequent showers are necessary.

AP Board Solutions

Question 2.
The land under cultivation has got reduced day by day. Can you imagine its consequences?
Answer:

  • The land under cultivation has been reducing due to the competition for land between non-agricultural uses such as housing, etc.
  • As a result, the productivity of India has started showing a declining trend.
  • That would lead to the scarcity of food grains in future and in turn poverty and drought situation would prevail in our country.

Question 3.
On an outline map of India show millet producing areas.
Answer:
AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 6 Agriculture in India 1

Question 4.
What is a Minimum Support Price (MSP)? Why is a MSP needed?
Answer:
1) A Minimum Support Price is a price at which the farmers can sell their grain, if they want, to the Government.
2) The Government sets the MSP so as to cover the cost of cultivation and allow a little bit of profit to the farmer.
3) Thus the farmer, produced far markets within the country.
4) The farmers are not forced to sell their grains at cheaper prices to the traders.

Question 5.
Explain all the ways the Indian government supported the Green Revolution.
Answer:

  • The Green Revolution was initially introduced in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, and in some parts of Andhra Pradesh and Tamilnadu.
  • The Government introduced new kinds of seeds, known as High Yielding Varieties to the Indian soils.
  • It was also accompanied by use of chemical fertilizers, machinery such as tractors, and others besides irrigation facilities.
  • A variety of cooperative banks were set up to provide credit to farmers so that they buy raw materials such as seeds, fertilizers, and pesticides, machinery required for modern farming.

AP Board Solutions

Question 6.
Do you think it is important for India to be self-sufficient in food grain production? Discuss.
Answer:

  • A large portion of our population especially children and poor communities are unable to get adequate nutrition.
  • Whenever there were little rains, drought situations prevailed. This led to decrease in food production and forced government to import food grains.
  • To avoid these kind of situations we should be self-sufficient in food grain production.
  • A large stock of food grains has built-up with the government through Food
    Corporation of India that could be used in case of shortage and can avoid drought and famine situations in our country.

Question 7.
How is dry land agriculture different from agriculture in other areas?
Answer:

  • 45% of the cultivable land which cannot easily be irrigated and depend solely on rainfall is known as dryland in our country.
  • Unlike the cultivation of irrigated lands, dryland farming poses different challenges.
    a) Conserving rainfall that the area receives is the first step. This is done through watershed development programme which includes afforestation, bunding, building check-dams, and tanks.
    b) Fertility of the soil needs to be raised by adding organic manure.
    c) Farmers may also need new varieties of seeds suitable for different regions, knowledge about the best ways of growing a mix of crops on the same land etc.
    Hence farming in dryland is different from other areas.

Question 8.
Can you recall the incidents such as pesticides being found in soft drinks? How is this related to the use of pesticides? Discuss.
Answer:

  • The use of pesticides is polluting underground water.
  • The soft drink factories use this underground water for making soft drinks.
  • Hence undissolved pesticides are seen in soft drink.

Question 9.
Why is chemical fertilizer used in new farming methods? How could use of fertilizers make soil less fertile ? What are the alternative ways of enriching soil?
Answer:

  • The chemical fertilizers are used to increase production of crops.
  • But the chemical fertilizers are basically made for petro-chemicals. And eventually remain in the soil.
  • As a result, many micro organisms like earth worms are destroyed.
  • These micro organisms increase the fertlity of the soil. But these are detroyed and hence this, in turn, affects the long run fertility of the soil.
  • The alternative ways of enriching soil, like vermicompost, can be used to increase the fertility of the soil.

AP Board Solutions

Question 10.
How has the Green Revolution in some areas resulted in short-term gains but longterm losses to farmers?
Answer:

  • In Green Revoluton, the farmers are encouraged to pump ground water to water-intensive crops in low rainfall areas.
  • This unsustainable pumping has reduced water storage in ground.
  • Consequently, many wells and tubewells have run dry.
  • More over the use of chemical fertilizers has also affected the long-term fertility of the soil. Hence we can say that Green Revolution has short-term gains and long term losses.

Question 11.
What could be the effects of foreign trade on farmers’ income?
Answer:

  • Foreign trade could cause farmers’ income to fluctuate a lot.
  • In certain years and for certain crops the farmers might gain from exports.
  • In other years, farmers could lose because of cheap imports and fall in prices of farm products.
  • Small farmers without much savings will not be able to bear this loss.
  • They will be caught in debt trap and become poorer.
  • Hence the government must be careful in allowing trade in farm products.

Question 12.
In earlier classes we have studied about land distribution. How does the following image reflect this idea? Write a paragraph about this in the context of Indian agriculture.
AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 6 Agriculture in India 2
Answer:
In India more than 70% of the farmers are having only small and marginal holdings,
i. e., Less than 2 hectares and hence most of these farms are not viable. The small farmers cannot produce enough to meet even their basic requirements of their families. They can invest more in agriculture to increase production. They are unable to get financial assistances.
Caption : “A man of sixty acres :
A group of six feet”.

Question 13.
Read the para under the title ‘Fertilizer Problems’ on page 70 and comment on it.

Fertilizer Problems : Manure and compost contain humus and living organisms that slowly release minerals as they decompose. Chemical fertilizers provide minerals (usually nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium) which dissolve in water and are immediately available to plants, but may not be retained in the soil for long. They may be leached from the soil and pollute groundwater, rivers, and lakes. Chemical fertilizers (as well as pesticides) can also kill bacteria and other organisms in the soil. This means that some time after their use, the soil will be less fertile than ever before. Without micro-organisms, the soil will be dependent on frequent addition of more and more chemical fertilizers. The variety of nutrients which are normally produced by micro-organisms may also be reduced. Thus, in many areas, the Green Revolution has actually resulted in a loss of soil fertility and ever-increasing costs to farmers.

Answer:

  • The main environmental problem associated with fertilizer use is contamination of water with nitrates and phosphates.
  • Elevated nitrogen levels in drinking water.
  • Environmental pollution is a significant problem. But while most of the focus is placed on polluting industries, toxins like mercury and small particle traffic pollution, a major source of environmental devastation is caused by modern food production. Far from being life sustaining, our modern chemical dependent farming methods.

– Strip soil of nutrients
– Destroy critical soil microbes.
– Contribute to desertification and global climate change, and
– Saturate form lands with toxic pesticides, herbicides and fertilizers that then migrate into ground water, rivers, lakes and oceans.

AP Board Solutions

Question 14.
Observe the map given in the page 74 and locate the States where paddy is grown in the India outline map.
AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 6 Agriculture in India 3
Answer:

  1. Punjab
  2. Haryana
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Bihar
  5. West Bengal
  6. Chattisgarh
  7. Odisha
  8. Telangana
  9. Andhra Pradesh
  10. Karnataka
  11. Tamilnadu

AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 6 Agriculture in India 4

Question 15.
Which crops are grown in your area? Which of these are grown from HYV seeds and which ones are grown from traditional seeds? Compare the HYV seeds and the traditional seeds with regard to each of the following points :
a) duration of crop
b) number of times irrigated
c) production
d) fertilisers
e) diseases
f) pesticides
Answer:
1. Paddy, sugarcane, maize, pulses are grown in our area.
2. Paddy is grown from HYV seeds and the remaining are grown from traditional seeds.
3.

HYV Seeds Traditional Seeds
Duration of crop Less More
No. of times irrigated Least More
Production (comparatively) More Less
Fertilisers Nominal quantity Large quantity
Diseases Least chancess More chances
Pesticides Right quantity More quantity

Question 16.
Conduct a Debate : Make the students two teams. One team should support chemical fertilizers and another should support organic farming.
Answer:
Teacher conducts this Debate.
Example : In agriculture it is better to be followed organic fertilizers.
Reasons :
Pesticides can enter the human body.
There is a chance of groundwater damage.
The use of fertilizers can reduce the natural nutrients on the soil surface, etc.

9th Class Social Studies 6th Lesson Agriculture in India InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name some of the states of India where such farming is practised? (Text Book Page No. 59)
Answer:
Punjab, Haryana, Odisha, Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar
Pradesh and some parts of Rajasthan.

Question 2.
Give some more examples of crops which may be commercial in one region and may provide subsistence in another region. (Text Book Page No. 60)
Answer:
1) In Haryana and Punjab, rice is a commercial crop whereas in Odisha it is a subsistence crop.
2) In Punjab, maize is a commercial crop whereas in Jharkhand it is a subsistence crop.

AP Board Solutions

Question 3.
Distinguish which of these pulses are grown in the kharif season and which are grown in the rabi season? (Text Book Page No. 62)
Answer:
Pulses grown in the Kharif season :
Red gram, Black gram and Green gram.

Pulses grown in Rabi season :
Peas, Bean, Chickling vetch and Lentil.

Question 4.
Complete the bar diagram given on P.65 in Textbook and find out the percentage of cultivators and agricultural labourers in 1971 and 2001 respectively. (Text Book Page No. 65)
Answer:

  1. Student’s activity.
  2. Percentage of cultivators in 1971 = 62
  3. Percentage of agricultural labourers in 2001 = 46

Question 5.
In which decades the food grains yields grow fast? What could be probable reasons for this? (Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:
The food grains yields grew fast between 1980 – 1990, 2000 – 2010.
The green revolution helped farmers to produce higher level of food grains.

Question 6.
Can organic farming produce enough food for all? (Text Book Page No. 72)
Answer:
If some measures are taken, I think, organic farming can produce food for all.

AP Board Solutions

Question 7.
How is organic farming especially suited for small and marginal farmers? Discuss. (Text Book Page No. 72)
Answer:
Large sections of farmers in India and their land holdings are small and marginal.
Their access to external inputs is limited and their ability to improve production is low. Globalisation and the opening up of the trade barriers among the nations have resulted in the decline of agricultural prices in the local markets to the detriment of the interests of these small and marginal farmers. Thus organic farming especially is suited for small and marginal farmers.

Question 8.
Read the following table. (Text Book Page No. 66)
Number of farmers and land they possess in India (2010 – 2011)
AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 6 Agriculture in India 5
Complete the data in the table and the explanation in the following passage below.
Majority of farmers operate only small plots of lands. A typical Indian marginal farmer has only aboutacres to cultivate. There are 924 lakh farmers so that ..(2)..% of all farmers are marginal. If we add up the number of small and marginal farmers they form …(3)..% of all farmers. However, even though in percentage terms medium and large farmers is small, the number in absolute terms is large. ..(4)…lakh farmers can be together considered to be in this group. They have a powerful voice in rural areas. This group of large and medium farmers together operate …(5)…% of the land. Each large farmer for example on an average operates ..(6)..acres of land. Compare this with each marginal farmer who operates on an average ..(7)..acres of land. This inequality in distribution of land explains the inequalities in opportunities that they experience, the pov¬erty or growth opportunity that they face.
Answer:

  1. 2.5
  2. 67%
  3. 85%
  4. 69
  5. 32%
  6. 42.9 acres
  7. 0.95 acres.

Question 9.
Discuss the differences between self employment and looking for work using examples from your region. (Text Book Page No. 65)
Answer:
1. In self employment, people create their own employment and earn their livelihood. They do not depend either on government or an any other persons for their livelihood.
e.g.: Working in their own farms, opening a shop or public telephone booth or establishing a small organization like manufacturing of candles, matchboxes, etc.

2. On the other hand, some people cannot create their own employment. They generally depend either on government or on any other organization or a person for earning their livelihood.
e.g.: Working in the fields or others, or in a shop or working as government servant, etc.

Question 10.
Do you think that some families who were earlier cultivators are becoming agricultural labourers now? Discuss. (Text Book Page No. 65)
Answer:
Reasons:

  1. Small land holdings
  2. Dependency on seasons for rainfall
  3. High rate of interests on loans
  4. Very low minimum support price
  5. Lack of technology
  6. Big families and
  7. Some rituals.
    All these changed the cultivators as agricultural labourers.

Question 11.
In which areas were the new methods of agriculture first tried? Why was the whole country not covered? (Text Book Page No. 68)
Answer:
1. The new methods were initially implemented in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and in some districts of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Tamilnadu.

2. The HYV seeds required a lot of water and these areas were already irrigated.
Hence the new methods were introduced in these areas.

AP Board Solutions

Question 12.
Why are different methods necessary for dry land areas? (Text Book Page No. 68)
Answer:

  • 45% of the land which cannot be irrigated are known as dry lands.
  • It would be very difficult and expensive to irrigate these dry lands.
  • These areas must depend solely on rainfall.
    Hence different methods are necessary for dry land areas.

Question 13.
How increase in buffer stock would help to avoid situations of drought and famines? (Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:

  • A large stock of food grains should be maintained with the government.
  • That buffer stock could be used in case of shortage of food grains and can also be used to supply foodgrains to inaccessible areas.
  • We can also avoid drought and famine like situations in our country.

Question 14.
How farmers were able to raise higher amount of food grains on the same plot of land over the years? (Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:
The use of High Yielding Varieties of seeds, chemical fertilizers, machinery, etc. made the farmers to raise higher amount of food grains on the same plot of land over the years.

Question 15.
Why did not the Indian government allow farmers to export foodgrains during the Green Revolution years? (Text Book Page No. 71)
Answer:
There would be a shortage of food grains if the government allows farmers to export food grains. So the government did not allow farmers to export food grains.

AP Board Solutions

Question 16.
Why should government ban exports /import ? How does this policy help Indian farmers? (Text Book Page No. 71)
Answer:
Foreign trade could cause farmers income to fluctuate a lot. In some years farmers could lose because of cheap imports and fall in prices of farm products. So the exports ad imports should be banned.

Small farmers will not be able to bear this loss. They will get caught in debt trap and become poorer. So this ban helps the Indian farmers in preventing them from debts and heavy losses.

Question 17.
Use an atlas of India to find the locations of the below mentioned dams and mark them on a map of India. Also label the names of the major rivers on which these dams were built. (Text Book Page No. 67)
Answer:

  1. Bhakra-Nangal Project (Punjab)
  2. Nagarjuna Sagar Project (Telangana & Andhra Pradesh)
  3. Hirakund Project (Odisha)
  4. Damodar Valley (West Bengal)
  5. Gandhi Sagar (Madhya Pradesh)

AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 6 Agriculture in India 6

Question 18.
In your opinion, what would be the minimum amount of land required to do viable farming which would give a farmer a decent earning. How many farmers in the table Page No. 66 are doing viable farming? (Text Book Page No. 66)
Answer:
The minimum amount of land required to do viable farming may be 2 acres in my opinion. There are 67% of farmers do not have this minimum required land for viable farming.

AP Board Solutions

Question 19.
Why only a small section of farmers have a powerful voice? (Text Book Page No. 66)
Percentage of large and medium farmers is 5% but they hold 32% of total cultivable land. Their average land holding is also high. Hence they have a powerful voice.

AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 India: Relief Features

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 India: Relief Features.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 1st Lesson India: Relief Features

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

AP Board Solutions
Question 1.
According to the given table below, which area is the eastern side?

Date Area: Imphal Area: Dwaraka
Sunrise Sunset Sunrise Sunset
Jan 3 05.53 16.34 07.19 18.07

Answer:
According to the given table, Imphal is the eastern side.

Question 2.
What is the time In India when it is 8 am in London?
Answer:
The time is 1.30 pm in India when It is 8 am in London.

Question 3.
Which Indian islands are of volcanic origin?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands are of volcanic origin.
(OR)
Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.

Question 4.
Give examples for Himalayan hill stations.
Answer:
Examples for the Himalayan hill stations are

  1. Simla
  2. Mussoorie
  3. Raniket
  4. Nainital

AP Board Solutions

Question 5.
Read the map given and answer the questions.

AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 India Relief Features 1
Map : India – north – south,
east – west extent and standard meridian

a) Name the latitude that divides India into two parts.
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer / 23°30′ Northern latitude.
b) On which longitude, is Indian Standard Time based upon?
Answer:
82°30′ Eastern longitude.

Question 6.
Mention any one difference between the physical features of the Andaman and Nicobar islands and the Lakshadweep.
Answer:

Andaman and nicobar Islands Lakshadweep Islands
  • Stretched in Bay of Bengal
  • Some of these are of volcanic origin
  • Stretched in Arabian Sea
  • Coral origin

Question 7.
Mention any two differences between the Western and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Eastern ghats Western ghats
Less height More height
Not continuous ranges Continuous ranges
No origin of rivers Rivers originate
Highest peak is Aroma Konda Highest peak is Anaimudi

Question 8.
Write any two unique features of Eastern Coastal Plain?
Answer:
Unique features of East Coastal Plain

  1. East Coastal Plains are very wide.
  2. The rivers which are flowing in this area are formed deltas.
  3. These plains are agriculturally developed.
  4. These Plains has lakes.

AP Board Solutions

Question 9.
Name the landform from which the World originated.
Answer:
World originated from two giant lands namely Angara Land (Laurasia) and Gondwana Land.

Question 10.
What is the location of India?
Answer:
India is located between 8°4’ and 37°6′ north latitudes and 68°7′ and 97°25′ east longitudes.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “Doab”?
Answer:
The fertile land between two rivers is known as the Doab feature. ‘Do’ means two, ‘ab’ means water.

Question 12.
Name three parallel ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:
Three parallel ranges are there in the Himalayas. They are

  1. the Himadri
  2. the Himachal
  3. the Shivalik.

Question 13.
Name the tributaries of Indus.
Answer:
The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej are the tributaries of Indus.

Question 14.
Name the tributaries of the Ganga.
Answer:
The Ghaggar, the Teesta, the Sone, the Kosi and the Yamuna are the tributaries of the Ganga.

AP Board Solutions

Question 15.
Expand IST.
Answer:
Indian Standard Time.

Question 16
Expand GMT.
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 17.
What do you mean by “Dun”? Give one example.
Answer:
The valleys lying between the lesser Himalayas and Shivalik ranges are called “Duns’’, e.g. Dehra Dun.

Question 18.
Which continents of today were part of the Gondwana land?
Answer:
India, South Africa, Australia and South America were part of the Gondwana land.

Question 19.
Name three major divisions of the Himalayas from North to South.
Answer:

  1. The Greater Himalayas or Himadri.
  2. The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal.
  3. The Shivaliks or Outer Himalayas.

Question 20.
Name the island group of India having a coral origin.
Answer:
Lakshadweep.

Question 21.
What is the peninsular plateau composed of?
Answer:
The peninsular plateau is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks

AP Board Solutions

Question 22.
Identify the regional division of the Northern plains.
Answer:

  1. Punjab plain
  2. Ganga plain
  3. Brahmaputra plain.

Question 23.
What are the relief features that are found in the Northern plains?
Answer:

  1. Bhabar
  2. Terai
  3. Bhangar
  4. Khadar

Question 24.
Which landform feature was a part of Gondwana land?
Answer:
Peninsular Plateau.

Question 25.
Which plateau lies between the Aravalis and the Vindhya range?
Answer:
Malwa Plateau.

Question 26.
Where are the Aravali hills located?
Answer:
The Aravali hills are located on the western and north-western margins of the peninsular plateau in Rajasthan.

Question 27.
What is Bhangar?
Answer:
Bhangar is the largest part of the northern plains and is formed by the oldest alluvium.

Question 28.
What is Khadar?
Answer:
The younger alluvium deposit is called Khadar.

AP Board Solutions

Question 29.
What is a reef?
Answer:
A ridge of jagged rock formed from coral secretions and skeletons.

Question 30.
Name some kinds of reefs.
Answer:
Barrier reef, coral reef and fringing reef.

Question 31.
What was called Angara land?
Answer:
The northern part of Pangaea was called Angara land.

Question 32.
What are known as Purvanchal?
Answer:
The Himalayas in the north-eastern states are known as the Purvanchal hills.

Question 33.
Where is the Kanchenjunga peak?
Answer:
The Kanchenjunga peak is in Sikkim.

AP Board Solutions

Question 34.
Which is the second highest peak in the Himalayas?
Answer:
K2, in the Karakoram range, is the second-highest peak after Mount Everest.

Question 35.
Name the valleys in the Himachal range.
Answer:
Kangra, Kulu and Kashmir valley.

Question 36.
What are Duns?
Answer:
The longitudinal valleys between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks are known as Duns,
e.g.: Dehradun, Patli dun and Kotli dun.

Question 37.
Where is Bhabar located?
Answer:
Bhabar is located at the foot of the Shivaliks.

Question 38.
What are the two divisions in the Peninsular Plateau?
Answer:
Central Highlands and Deccan Plateau.

Question 39.
Which is the easternmost part of the central highlands?
Answer:
The Chotanagapur Plateau is the eastern-most part of the central highlands.

Question 40.
What is the other name of Ooty?
Answer:
Udagamandalam.

AP Board Solutions

Question 41.
Which is a narrow coastal plain?
Answer:
The Western coastal plain is a narrow plain.

Question 42.
Name the Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
The Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauveri.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention the major relief divisions of Indian landmass.
Answer:
The relief divisions of Indian landmass can be divided into following groups :

  1. The Himalayas
  2. The Indo-Gangetic Plain
  3. The Peninsular Plateau
  4. The Coastal Plains
  5. The Desert
  6. The Islands

AP Board Solutions

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below:
a) Name the two countries that share their land boundaries with India.
b) In between which latitudes, is India located?
Answer:
a) Pakistan, China, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar.
b) 8°4′ – 37°6′ Northern latitudes.

Question 3.
Observe the map given below and answer the following questions.
a) What is the distance between the eastern and western most points of India?
b) Name any two countries that share their boundaries with India.
Answer:
a) The distance between the eastern and the western most points of India is 2933 kms.
b) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, China and Bhutan.

Question 4.
Discuss the significant differences between the Himalayan Rivers and the Peninsular Rivers.
Answer:

The Himalayan Rivers The Peninsular Rivers
1. The Himalayan Rivers are Perennial. 1. The Peninsular rivers are seasonal in nature.
2. They originated in Glaciers. 2. They originated in Western ghats and highlands.
3. Himalayan Rivers changes their way frequently. 3. These rivers has fixed course.
4. These rivers irrigate the northern plains. 4. These rivers irrigate the Deccan Plateau.
5. They made the northern plains fertile. 5. These rivers are straight.

Question 5.
Discuss the various islands in India.
Answer:

  1. There are 2 groups of islands – Andaman and Nicobar Islands stretched in Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep Islands in the Arabian Sea.
  2. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are volcanic origin.
  3. The southernmost tip of India found in Nicobarlsland is called Indira point which was submerged during the 2004 Tsunami.
  4. Lakshadweep Islands are of coral origin.
  5. It is famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

AP Board Solutions

Question 6.
Himalayas play a vital role in India’s development. How?
Answer:

  1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from Siberia and Central Asia.
  2. They are reason for the monsoon type of climate in India.
  3. Without the Himalayas India would have remained drier.
  4. The rivers originating in the glaciers of the Himalaya are perennial and caused the economic growth of the northern plains.
  5. The Himalayan valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
  6. The rivers of the Himalayas for the formation of fertile.

Question 7.
How are the Himalayas divided regionally or on the basis of river valleys?
Answer:

  1. Punjab Himalayas between rivers Indus and Sutlej.
  2. Kumaon Himalayas between rivers Sutlejjind Kali.
  3. Nepal Himalayas between rivers Kali and Teesta.
  4. Assam Himalayas between rivers Teesta and Brahmaputra.

Question 8.
Look at the picture and comment on it.
Answer:
It is a sketch of different levels of vegetation in the Himalayas. There are 5 levels in that vegetation.
Level I: On the top of the mountains there is no vegetation.
Level II: On the hill slopes – there is only grass.
Level III: Next to the level II – this area is covered with conifers.
Level IV: Next to level III – this area is covered with broadleaf trees.
Level V: At the feet of the mountains. It is Terai with tree cover.

AP Board Solutions

Question 9.
Write a short note on the Great Indian Desert.
Answer:
The Great Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravalli Hills.
The region gets scanty rainfall. Hence the climate is arid and vegetation is scanty. Luni is the only large river. Some streams appear during rainy season. Crescent-shaped duns are formed around in this area.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Describe any four of major relief divisions of Indian land mass.
Answer:
I. Himalayas:

  1. To the north of India, Himalayan mountains extend from west to east at a length around 2400 Kms.
  2. There are three parallel ranges viz. Himadri, Himachal and Shivaliks.

II. Indo-Gangetic Plains:

  1. Indo-Gangetic Plain is formed with the interaction of the rivers Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
  2. These fertile alluvial plains are suitable for agriculture.

III. Peninsular Plateau:

  1. The Indian plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounding by the sea on the three sides.
  2. It is broadly divided into two parts : Malwa plateau and Deccan plateau.

IV. Coastal Plains:

  1. The Western coastal plain is extended between Western Ghats and Arabian Sea. The East coastal plain is extended between Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
  2. These coastal plains are known locally by different names.
    Eg: Coast of AP – Circar Coast
    Coast of Kerala – Malabar coast etc.

V. Thar Desert:

  1. Thar desert lies in the rain shadow region of Aravali mountains.
  2. Luni is the only river in this region.

VI. Islands:

  1. Andaman and Nicobar islands are in Bay of Bengal. They are of volcanic origin.
  2. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea. They are of coral origin.

AP Board Solutions

Question 2.
Explain the uses of Himalayas.
Answer:

  1. Himalayas act as natural barriers on the northern side of India.
  2. They protect India from the cold winds from Central Asia during severe winter
  3. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains.
  4. The himalayas are responsible for monsoon type of climate.
  5. If there are no Himalayas, India will remain as a desert.
  6. They are the origin for many perennial rivers.
  7. They attract tourists from all over the world.
  8. Himalayan rivers bring a lot of silt, making the northern plains very fertile.

Question 3.
Describe the Indian Islands.
Answer:

  1. There are two groups of islands in India.
  2. They are Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
  3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in Bay of Bengal.
  4. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea.
  5. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.
  6. Lakshadweep islands are of coral origin.
  7. Indira point, the southernmost tip of India is found in Nicobar Island.
  8. Lakshadweep islands are famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

Question 4.
In what ways is the Indo-Gangetic plain different from the Peninsular plateau?
Answer:

Indo – Gangetic plain Peninsular plateau
1. This plain area was formed due to deposition of sediments brought by rivers. 1. Plateau region was formed due to volcanic eruption.
2. It consists of alluvial soil. 2. It is mainly composed of the old crystalline, hard igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks.
3. It has fertile alluvial soils and flat surface. 3. It has a rugged surface.
4. It provides much irrigation facilities. 4. It also provides much irrigation facilities.
5. Plain regions have perennial rivers. , 5. Plateau region does not have any perennial river.
6. Plains are rich in agriculture practice. 6. Plateau region is rich in mineral resources.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and comment on Indian climate and the Himalayas.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type of climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier.
Answer:

  1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from the North that comes from Siberia.
  2. Without the Himalayas, India would get cold temperatures in the winter months.
  3. The Himalayas form a natural barrier that prevents monsoon winds from going further north.
  4. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in the regions that are beyond the western ghats of India.
  5. In its absence this region would have remained drier.
  6. India would have been a tropical desert.
  7. The Himalayas are the birthplace of so many rivers.
  8. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.

AP Board Solutions

Question 6.
How the Himalayas are influencing the climate of India and agriculture?
Answer:

  1. The Himalayas are obstructing cold winds.
  2. The Himalayas are reason for rains in summer.
  3. They are cause for seasonal climate.
  4. If there is no Himalayas the northern region becomes dry.
  5. The flow of the Himalayan rivers, making the plains very fertile.

Question 7.
Write about the similarities and differences between East Coastal Plains and West Coastal Plains.
Answer:
Similarities :

  1. They are the physical features of India. 2) They both lie in the southern part of India.
  2. They both lie near to the coast.

Differences:

Eastern Coastal Plains Western Coastal Plains
1. Eastern coastal plains is a belt of plain region lying towards the east between Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal. 1. Western coastal plains is a belt of plain region lying towards the west between Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
2. Eastern coastal plains are comparatively wider. 2. This belt of plains is narrow in width.
3. Eastern coastal plains are very fertile because rivers like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery deposit their sediments during delta formation. 3. Western coastal plains are less fertile because no major river is engaged in sediment deposition.
4. Eastern plains receive comparatively lesser rainfall. 4. Western plains receive more rainfall.
5. From north to south, Eastern coastal plains are divided into Utkal coast, Sircar coast and Coramandal coast. 5. From north to south, Western coastal plains are divided into Konkan coast, Canara coast and Malabar coast.

Question 8.
Explain the differences between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats,
Answer:

Eastern Ghats Western Ghats
1. The Eastern Ghats start from Bhuvaneswar in Odisha. 1. The Western Ghats start from Khandesh in Maharashtra.
2. They end at Nilgiris in the south. 2. They end at Kanyakumari.
3. They run parallel to some extent in the east coast. 3. They run parallel to the west coast.
4. They are nearer to the Bay of Bengal keeping away some distance. 4. They are nearer to the Arabian sea.
5. They have more number of gaps. 5. They have gaps.
6. They are less strongly built. 6. These are strongly built.
7. The coastal plain of the Eastern Ghats is wider than that of the Western Ghats. 7. The coastal plain of the Western Ghats is not as broad as that of the Eastern Ghats.
8. There are no dense forests in the Eastern Ghats when compared to those of the Western Ghats. 8. There are dense forests in the Western Ghats.
9. There are no rivers originating in Eastern Ghats. 9. The rivers Godavari and Krishna take origin in the Western Ghats.
10. The Eastern Ghats are dissected by rivers. 10. The Western Ghats are not dissected by rivers.
11. They have structural level and uniformity. 11. They have more rugged topography.
12. In Nilgiris they join the Western Ghats. 12. In Nilgiris they join the Eastern Ghats.

AP Board Solutions

Question 9.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of The Indo-Gangetic Plain with that of The Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
The major physiographic divisions of India are :

  1. The Great Himalayas,
  2. The Northern Plains
  3. The Great Indian Desert
  4. The Peninsular Plateau
  5. The Eastern and Western Coastal plains and
  6. The Island Group

Question 10.
Prepare a table showing the particulars of different mountain ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:

Himalayan region Peninsular region
1. The Himalayas are located in the northern region of our country. 1. The Peninsular region is located in the southern region of our country.
2. The Himalayas are young fold mountains. 2. The central Highlands are formed of low hills and plateaus.
3. Many great perennial rivers like the Indus, the Ganges and the Brahmaputra originate from the Himalayas. 3. Some great rivers like the Godavari, the Krishna, the Mahanadi, the Tapati and the Narmada originate from these hills.
4. These are formed of the sedimentary rocks. 4. The central highlands are formed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
5. They are formed at the edge of the Indo- Gangetic plain. 5. They are formed at the edge of the Deccan plateau.
6. Important hill stations like – Shimla, Mussorie, Darjeeling, Nainital are found on the Himalayas. 6. Udagamandalam, Araku – Harsley hills are hill stations found in the Peninsula plateau region.
7. There are three parallel ranges a) Himadri b) Himachal and c) Shivaliks. 7. They consist of two divisions – Central high lands, Deccan plateau.
8. They run in west – east direction in the form of an arch. 8. The plateau is tilted towards east.

Question 11.
What is the importance of the Himalayas?
Answer:

  1. The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways.
  2. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter.
  3. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India.
  4. The Himalayan rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers.
  5. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.
  6. There are famous hill stations like Simla, Mussorie, Nainital, Raniket, etc. covered by evergreen forests.
  7. The valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
  8. There are passes in the Himalayas which act as great exchange of culture and commerce.

Question 12.
Write about the coastal plains.
Answer:

  1. The southern part of the peninsular plateau is bordered by narrow coastal strips along the Arabian Sea on the west and the Bay of Bengal on the east.
  2. Western plain is uneven and broken by hilly terrain.
  3. It is divided into 3 parts.
    a) Konkan coast-northern part comprising Maharashtra and Goa coast.
    b) The second is Canara Coast – the middle part includes coastal plain of Karnataka.
    c) The last part is Malabar coast – the southern part, mostly in the state of Kerala.
  4. Bay of Bengal plains are wide and have large surface structure.
  5. It stretches from Mahanadi in Odisha to Cauvery deltas in Tamil Nadu.
  6. These coastal plains are known locally by different names as Utkal coast in Odisha, Circar coast in Andhra Pradesh and Coromandel coast in Tamil Nadu.

AP Board Solutions

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on its content.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as hornets protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier. The Himalayan Rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers and bring a fat of silt, making these plains very fertile.
Answer:

  1. According to the paragraph given, it is dearly understood that the Himalayas are useful to India in many ways.
  2. It means that because of the Himalayas only there are fertile soils, sufficient rainfall, and perennial rivers and so it is useful to agriculture which is the backbone of our economy.
  3. I agree with this paragraph because every point discussed here is correct.
  4. The Himalayas are extending in the north of our country from Jammu Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh for about 2400 kilometers.
  5. Automatically they stop the cold winds blowing from central Asia because our cultivable lands are in the south.
  6. If the Himalayas were not there, India would become dry land or a desert.
  7. Though we have many benefits from the Himalayas, the passes of the Himalayas caused for foreigners to invade our country and these helped in exchanging business and culture.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the condition of the area as well as people living there.
The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side afAravalis and receives very low amount of rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops. It occupies much of western Rajasthan. It has an arid climate with very law vegetation cover. Streams appear during the rainy season and disappear soon after. ‘Luni’ is the only river in this area. These internal drainage rivers fill into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
Answer:

  1. This paragraph says that much of western Rajasthan is sandy and without adequate rainfall.
  2. Without sufficient rainfall we can’t expect proper cultivation and production of crops.
  3. Though Rajasthan ranks first in the area it has maximum desert area.
  4. According to this paragraph, there are a few streams which can be seen during rainy season.
  5. The unfortunate thing of the people living there is that the area is in the leeward side of the Aravali Mountains.
  6. The southwest monsoons remain empty by reaching there.
  7. My opinion is that the people should make a few changes in their livelihoods.
  8. They should grow more crops during rainy season. It would be better for them to go for multiple cropping.
  9. They grow food crops with the help of Indira Gandhi canal water irrigation.
  10. Government should provide their commodities at subsidized prices.
  11. Along with the Indira Gandhi canal, there should be many more schemes like that till their needs are fulfilled.

AP Board Solutions

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the geographical location of India.
The geographical location of India provides its vast diversity in climatic conditions. This has led to a variety of vegetation and life forms along with advantages for growing many kinds of crops. Its long coastline and location in the Indian Ocean enabled trade routes as well as fishing.
Answer:

  1. According to this paragraph, the geographical location of India is very prosperous.
  2. India has ocean water on the three sides whereas the high Himalayan Mountains in the north.
  3. These Himalayas give birth to various perennial rivers because of glaciers so as to grow more crops and this led to a variety of vegetation.
  4. In my opinion, there are a few benefits as well as losses to the people living in coastal plains and hilly areas.
  5. The coastal people face some drastic situations when there is a tsunami or cyclones.
  6. The people living in hilly areas face the problem of landslides.
  7. Nowadays global warming is increasing. It may lead to submerge of coastal cultivable lands.
  8. People may face many problems.
  9. Along with these problems they have the opportunity of maintaining foreign trade with the help of sea routes.
  10. Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Mumbai and Cochin are some of the examples for the trade cen¬ters of sea routes.

Question 16.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

Ranges Direction Uaiaht Speciality
Himadri The Northernmost range Above 6100 mts
  • Covered with snow
  • Glacier are present
  • Birth place of many rivers
Himachal Situated to the South of Himadri Between 3700­4500 mts.
  • Number of hill stations are located.
  • Famous valleys like Kulu, Kangra are located.
Shivalik The Southernmost range of the Himalayas 900-1100 mts.
  • Known as Jammu hills in Jammu and Kashmir and Mishmi hills in Arunachal Pradesh.
Purvanchal The Easternmost range Act as the Eastern boundary of India
  • Patkai hills, Naga hills Manipuri hills, Khasi hills and Mizo hills are part of the Purvanchal range.

Answer the following questions.

  1. What are the names of the three Himalayan ranges?
    Answer:
    The three names of the Himalayan ranges are the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
  2. Which of the ranges have hill stations?
    Answer:
    The hill stations are found in the Lesser Himalayan ranges.
  3. Where do we find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun?
    Answer:
    We find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun in the valleys in between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
  4. What is the difference in between the ranges of the Greater Himalayas and the Lesser Himalayas with regard to the composition?
    Answer:
    The Greater Himalayas are composed of ice and snow cover whereas the Lesser Himalayas are composed of highly compressed rocks.

AP Board Solutions

Question 17.
Describe the formation and divisions of Indo-Gangetic plains.
Answer:

  1. The interaction of three Himalayan rivers the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra and their tributaries resulted in the formation of great northern plain.
  2. In the beginning it was a shallow basin later gradually filled with alluvial soil from these rivers.
  3. The western part of Indo-Gangetic plains was formed by the Indus and its tributaries, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej flowing from the Himalayas.
  4. Doab features dominate the fertile land between the two rivers.
  5. The central part is known as Ganga plain extending from the rivers the Ghaggar to the Teesta. 6} The eastern part of the plain exists mostly in the Brahmaputra valley of Assom and the river
    Brahmaputra is mainly responsible for its formation.

Question 18.
Describe the vairous aspects of the peninsular plateau.
Answer:

  1. The Indian Plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounded by the sea on three sides.
  2. Large amounts of metallic and non-metallic mineral resources are found here.
  3. Its topography is slightly tilted towards east.
  4. Its two divisions are central high lands (Malwa plateau) and the Deccan Plateau.
  5. The rivers here are not perennial.
  6. The triangular landmass to the south of Narmada is called Deccan Plateau.
  7. The structure of Western Ghats is continuous with a few passes as the gateways to the coastal plains.
  8. The Eastern Ghats are not continuous.
  9. One of the remarkable features of the peninsular plateau is black soils formed due to volcanic activity.

Question 19.
Write about the Thar desert.
Answer:

  1. The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side of Aravalisand receives very low rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year.
  2. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops.
  3. It occupies much of western Rajasthan.
  4. It has an arid climate with very low vegetation cover.
  5. Streams appear during rainy season and disappear soon after.
  6. Luni is the only river in this area.
  7. The internal drainage rivers fall into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
  8. Indira Gandhi canal is watering part of Thar desert.
  9. Several hectares of desert land have been brought under cultivation.

AP Board Solutions

Question 20.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.
AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 India Relief Features 5

  1. Which hills are spread continuously from North to South?
    Answer:
    Western Ghats spread continuously from North to South.
  2. Which Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers?
    Answer:
    Western Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers.
  3. Which river flows westwards?
    Answer:
    The river which flows westwards is Narmada. (Tapti also)
  4. Which plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali?
    Answer:
    Malwa plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali.
  5. Where do the eastern and western Ghats join?
    Answer:
    The eastern and western Ghats join Nilgiris near Gudalur.
  6. Which ocean is located in the south of India?
    Answer:
    The Indian Ocean is located in the south of India.
  7. Which plateau is there in between Ms s and Chotanagpur plateau?
    Answer:
    Central plateau is there in between Malwa and Chotanagpur plateau.

Question 21.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.
AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 India Relief Features 6

  1. Which is the standard meridian in India?
    Answer:
    82° 30′ Eastern Longitude is the standard meridian in India.
  2. Name the latitude that moves from the centre of India.
    Answer:
    23% northern latitude moves from the centre of India. This is called Tropic of Cancer.
  3. What is the distance between north and south tip of India?
    The distance between north and south tips is 3214 kms.
  4. Mention the location of India.
    Answer:
    India is located in between the latitudes of 8°4′ and 37°6′ N and longitudes of 68°7′ and 97°25′ E.
  5. Name any two frontier countries of India.
    Answer:
    Pakistan, China, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh and Nepal. ( any two can be written)
  6. Which islands are located in the southeast corner of India?
    Answer:
    Andaman Nicobar islands are located in the southeast corner of India.

AP Board Solutions

Question 22.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

  • Locate the Highest plateau in the world.
    Answer: Tibet
  • Capital of Himachal Pradesh.
    Answer: Simla
  • Highest peak in India.
    Answer: Mt-K2
  • Locate the Hills in Arunachal Pradesh.
    Answer: Mishmi Hills
  • This plateau has rich variety of mineral resources.
    Answer:
    Chotanagpur
  • Rajmahal hills
    Triangular plateau.
    Answer:
    Deccan Plateau Circar Coast
  • The southernmost tip of India.
    Answer:
    Kanya Kumari
  • Mashy Swampy region of Gujarath.
    Answer:
    Rann of Kutch

AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 India Relief Features 7

AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 5 Biosphere

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 5th Lesson Biosphere Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 5th Lesson Biosphere

9th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson Biosphere Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Life itself constitutes a separate sphere called ‘Biosphere’. Explain.
Answer:

  • The Earth is a unique planet, in that it has life.
  •  It is inhabited by countless forms of life from microscopic bacteria to great banyan trees and animals like lions and blue whales and of course human beings.
  • The earth has a combination of land, air, and water, and a moderate temperature has made life possible on it.
  • Various forms of life are not only related to the three spheres around them, but also to one another.
  • They influence one another and they are part of a complete “food chain.”
  • Hence geographers are of the opinion that “life itself constitutes a separate sphere called ‘Biosphere’.

AP Board Solutions

Question 2.
Why is ecological crisis created in modern times? What are its effects?
Answer:

  • These days the increase in population creates great pressure on earth as well as its resources.
  • To satisfy the needs of ever growing population systematic mining, cutting of forests, building of forests and fields and roads took place all over the earth.
  • Burning of fossil fuels and release of enormous amounts of waste materials by industries contaminate air, water, and soil.
  • For providing food for the ever growing population, there is a need for increase in agricultural production.
  • Modern agriculture uses a large amount of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
  • The most frightening aspect of pollution due to modern agriculture is the increase in the levels of toxins in our food.
  • This increasingly proves to be very harmful not only to humans but also to all types of life on earth.
  • Since all living and non-living things on the earth are in one way or the other connected to each other, change affecting one, in due time affects all the others too. All these factors lead to ecological crisis.

Effects of ecological Grisis :

  1. If a particular species which feeds upon a particular kind of plant is exterminated, it would result in unchecked growth of that plant and it may intrude the area where other plants grow and disturb their growth.
  2. Many industries use chemicals and metals which flow into the rivers and streams. The metals like mercury are consumed by microorganisms in water and in turn beome the food of fishes. When human beings consume these fishes they too absorb some amount of mercury which is detrimental to their health.
  3. Farmers use Diclofenac to treat cattle; when the cattle die their flesh retains this chemical: When their flesh is consumed by vultures, diclofenac leads to kidney failure in them and they die.

Question 3.
Natural vegetation depends upon the climate of the place. Write different kinds of forests and climatic conditions of their existence?
Answer:
a) Tropical Deciduous Forests :

  1. Tropical deciduous forests are the monsoon forests.
  2. These regions experience seasonal changes.
  3. Trees shed their leaves in the dry season to conserve water.

b) Tropical Evergreen Forests :

  1. These thick forests occur in the regions near the equator and close to the tropics.
  2. These regions are hot and receive heavy rainfall throughout the year.
  3. As there is no dry season, these trees do not shed their leaves altogether.
  4. This is why they are called evergreen forests.

c) Temperate Evergreen Forests :

  1. These forests are located in the mid latitudinal costal region.
  2. They are commonly found along the eastern margin of the continents.

d) Temperate Deciduous Forests :

  1. The temperate deciduous forests are found in higher latitudes.
  2. They shed their leaves in the dry season.

e) Mediterranean Vegetation :

  1. The west and the south west margins of the continents are covered by these forests.
  2. Mediterranean trees adapt themselves to dry summers with the help of their thick barks and wax coated leaves. These help them to reduce transpiration.
  3. These regions are marked for hot dry summers and dry summers and mild rainy winters.

f) Coniferous Forests :

  1. Coniferous forests are found in the higher latitudes of Northern hemisphere.
  2. These forests are found in abundance in the Himalayas.

g) Tropical Grasslands :

  1. These forests grow on either side of the equator up to tropics.
  2. This vegetation grows in the areas of moderate to low amount of rainfall.

h) Temperate Grasslands :

  1. These are found in mid-latitudinal zones and in the interior part of the continents.
  2. Usually the grass is very short and nutritious.

i) Thorny Bushes :

  1. These are found in the dry desert like regions.
  2. This vegetation cover is scarce here because of scanty rain and scorching heat.

j) Tundra :

  1. This vegetation is found in the polar region.
  2. The growth of natural vegetation is very limited here.
  3. Only mosses, lichens and very small shrubs are found here.

AP Board Solutions

Question 4.
How can we protect natural resources?
Answer:
Preservation of the natural environment is essential for maintaining community sustainability.
1. Water:
Communities must work to assure an adequate water supply to meet future needs.

2. Energy :
Energy should be consumed reasonably.

3. Air and climate :
Communities can preserve air quality by limiting or eliminating the discharge of harmful chemicals into the air and by minimizing the sources of air pollution.

4. Biodiversity :
Healthy wildlife should be supported through integrative approaches for, managing, protecting, and enhancing wildlife populations and habitats appropriate to their area and the atmosphere.

5. Land, forests, ecosystems should be provided protective measures. Thus we can protect natural resources.

Question 5.
Read the lesson and fill up the table.
AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 5 Biosphere 1
Answer:
AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 5 Biosphere 2

Question 6.
Locate the following countries in the world map.
a) New Zealand
b) Brazil
c) Australia
d) North America
e) China
f) India
Answer:
AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 5 Biosphere 3

Question 7.
Read the paragraph under the title ‘Depletion of Resources’ on page 57 and comment on it.

Industrialisation, rapid population growth and urbanisation all have meant unprecedented exploitation of natural resources like minerals, forests, soil, water, air etc. besides sources of energy (coal, petroleum etc.) stored in the earth for billions of years. This has resulted in rapid deforestation and decline of reserves of minerals, oil and ground water. Many scientists have argued that the present way of life is not ‘sustainable’for if we use so much natural resources, nothing will be left for our children and grand children.

Answer:
Depletion of resources is the consumption of a resource faster than it can be replenished.
AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 5 Biosphere 4

Use of either of these forms of resources beyond their rate of replacement is considered to be resource depletion.

Resource depletion is most commonly used in reference to farming fishings mining, water and fossil fuels.
AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 5 Biosphere 5

Question 8.
Visit any nearby industrial establishment and observe the different kinds of smoke, liquid and Solid Wastes come*6uf of the cdrrtp’ourtd. FincTout from the nearby’residents about their impact on plants and animals. Based on the information collected, prepare a report and present in the class.
Answer:
I have visited a cement factory and observed the following :
Cement manufacture causes environmental impacts at all stages of the process. These include air-borne pollution in the form of dust, gases, noise and vibration when operating machinery and during blasting in quarries, and damage to country side from quarrying. Environmental protection also includes the re-integration of quarries.

  • CO2 emissions : Cement manufacturing releases CO2 in the atmosphere.
  • Heavy metal emissions in the air.
  • Heavy metals present in the clinker.
  • Use of alternative fuels and by-products materials.
  • Noise levels are easy to establish.
  • Smoke released from the factory causes breathing problems in the local people.
  • Waste liquids are sent to the nearest river and pollute the river water.

AP Board Solutions

Question 9.
Collect the details of some endangered animals and birds in your area. Fill the following table. Discuss in the classroom. Take the help of your elders and teachers.
AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 5 Biosphere 6
Answer:
Student Activity.

9th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson Biosphere InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can you say how plants are dependent upon air and water and how they affect the two in return? (Text Book Page No. 51)
Answer:

  • Plants need water. Plants use water to carry moisture and nutrients from the roots to the leaves and food from the leaves back down to the roots.
  • Plants absorb carbon dioxide from air to form carbohydrates during the process of photosynthesis.
  • Nitrogen gas molecules that are trapped and carried in the water droplets provide nourishment to plants.
  • Plants need oxygen in small amounts in respiration.
  • Plants reduce the carbon dioxide levels in atmosphere and reduce the greenhouse effect and in turn the global warming.

How do plants affect water and air in return?
Answer:

  • Plants return water to the atmosphere through the process of transpiration.
  • Transpiration is the evaporation of water from aerial parts of plants, especially from . leaves but also from stems and flowers.

Question 2.
In what ways are insects like mosquitoes and butterflies dependent upon rocks or soil and upon water ? How do they affect them in return? (Text Book Page No. 51)
Answer:
Many insects depend on soil for part of their life. They make their home in the soils. Some insects live some portion of their lives in water.

Insects get involved lot of biological processes. Among the most significant beneficial impacts of insects on soil are

  1. Their role in regulation of pest populations,
  2. The pollination of crops and
  3. The soil engineering. Insects mostly pollute the water.

Question 3.
Identify the desert regions in the world map.
Answer:

  1. The Sahara Desert
  2. The Kalahari Desert
  3. The Thar Desert
  4. The Arabian Desert
  5. The Australian Desert
  6. The Atacama Desert
  7. The Sonaran Desert

AP Board 9th Class Social Studies Solutions Chapter 5 Biosphere 7

Question 4.
Look around in your surroundings and find out the articles made of hard wood and soft wood. (Text Book Page No. 55)
Answer:
A) Articles made of hard wood :

  1. Hard woods are often used to make items including furniture, flooring and utensils. Spoons, chopsticks, bowls, plates and cups are the utensils made from hard wood.
  2. Musical instruments such as violins, guitars, pianos and hard drums are also made of hard wood.
  3. Sofas, chairs, beds, benches, tables and wardrobes are made of hard wood.

B) Articles made of soft wood :
Manufacturing paper, newsprint, decorative articles, carvings, dolls, match boxes and packing boxes, etc. are made from soft wood.

AP Board Solutions

Question 5.
Find out and learn few names of trees of your locality. (Text Book Page No. 55)
Answer:
In our local we can see Neem trees, Mango trees, Banyan trees and the trees are known by their local names: Chinta, Tumma, Seema Tumma, Palm (Tati), Bandaru, Yegisa are the trees which give us wood.

The trees such as Bamboo give us pulp.

Mangoes, Guavas, Blackberry are fruit bearing trees. In addition to them we have coconut trees and trees which give us drumsticks.

Question 6.
Can you discuss how human beings would have impacted the land, water, plants and animals around them when they began agriculture and animal herding? (Text Book Page No. 56)
Answer:

  • With the development of agriculture humans began to radically transform the environment in which they lived.
  • They cleared the lands around their settlements and controlled the plants that grew and the animals that grazed on them.
  • They devised ways of storing rain water and rechanneling river water to irrigate plants.
  • They built reservoirs, dug canals, dikes and sluices that permitted water storage.
  • They domesticated major food crops, plants such as flax and cotton and began to cultivate them.
  • Men also took lead in taming, breeding and raising the large animals associated with both farming and pastoral communities.
  • Thus human beings impacted the land water, plants and animals around them when they began agriculture and animal rearing.

Question 7.
What sources of energy would they have used and how would they haveobtained them? (Text Book Page No. 56)
Answer:

  1. The growth of sedantary farming greatly accelerated the pace of technological and social change.
  2. Still the man used the physical energies of human and animals to use the agricultural and manufacturing tools.
  3. He used wheel to make pots, plough to plough his fields and boats to transport his goods and kiln of blacksmith to make his tools.
  4. He burnt firewood to cook his food.
  5. Thus when they began agriculture man used merely the physical energy of human beings and animals.

Question 8.
Can you say what kinds of changes will building of cities have on the land and water around them? (Text Book Page No. 56)
Answer:

  • With the beginning of agriculture and use of better tools give rise to larger, more elaborate and commodious housing and the construction of community ritual centres.
  • Sun-dried bricks, interwoven branches usually plastered with mud and stone structures were associated with early agricultural communities.
  • Houses in early agricultural settlements included special storage areas. They were centered on clay or stone hearths that were ventilated by a hole in the roof.
  • To defend their cities from the rival nomadic settlements, they fortified their cities.
  • The people had devised ways of storing rain water and rechanneling river water to irrigate plants.
  • The reservoirs and canals, dikes and sluices that permitted water storage were constructed.

AP Board Solutions

Question 9.
In what way do you think this would have affected the land scape and water cycle? (Text Book Page No. 56)
Answer:

  • The increase in population create great pressure on earth as well as its resources.
  • The entire earth was reshaped to suit the needs of humans.
  • The surface of the earth received a great push with the industrial revolution and process of colonization.
  • Industrial production needs raw materials on an unprecedunted scale.
  • Industrial countries began to search for diverse kinds of raw materials and sources of energy.
  • They dug deep wells and tried to find out what lay underneath.
  • Systematic mining, cutting of forests, building of factories and fields and roads took place all over the world.
  • The cumulative impact of industrial pollution causes greenhouse effect and global warming.
  • The greenhouse effect could cause decrease in precipitation and soil moisture content and decrease of snow cover and finally decrease in rainfall.
  • The increased surface temperature would cause melting of glaciers and lead to flooding of coastal areas.

 

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions 1st Lesson Heat

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What would be the final temperature of a mixture of 50 g of water at 20° C temperature and 50 g of water at 40° C temperature? (AS1)
Answer:
In CGS system :
Mass m1 = 50 g
Higher temperature = T1 = 40° C
Mass m2 = 50 g
Lower temperature = T2 = 20° C
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 1

Question 2.
Explain, why dogs pant during hot summer days using the concept of evaporation. (AS1)
(OR)
How do dogs cool their body? Explain by using the process of evaporation.
Answer:

  • Dogs pant during hot summer days and get their body cooled. This cooling effect is due to evaporation.
  • Evaporation is a surface phenomenon. Temperature of a system falls during evaporation.
  • During summer the temperature in the human body increases.
  • The temperature of the skin becomes higher and the water in the sweat glands starts evaporating. Since evaporation is a cooling process human body becomes cool.
  • Dogs don’t have sweat glands. Their body is covered with hair. They have sweat glands only in their feet.
  • So by panting the water on the tongue undergoes evaporation resulting in the cooling of the dog’s body.

Question 3.
Why do we get dew on the surface of a cold soft drink bottle kept in open air? (AS1)
(OR)
Raju observed small droplets of water outside a cold soft drink bottle kept in open air. What is the reason for the formation of droplets?
Answer:

  • When cold soft drink bottle is kept in open air, the temperature of surrounding air is higher than the temperature of cold drink bottle.
  • Air contains molecules in the form of vapour.
  • During the motion of water molecules in air strike the surface of cold drink bottle.
  • Then the molecules of air lose their kinetic energy which leads to lower the temperature and they convert into droplets.
  • So dew is formed on the surface of cold soft drink bottle.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 4.
Write the differences between evaporation and boiling. (AS1)
(OR)
Sita observed decrease in quantity of spirit kept in a vessel placed in open air. Whereas Ramu observed formation of bubbles on a water surface when it is heated. What are those two processes? Distinguish between those two processes.
Answer:

Evaporation Boiling
1. The process of escaping of molecules from the surface of a liquid at any temperature is called evaporation. 1. The process in which the liquid phase changes to gaseous phase at constant temperature. This temperature is called boiling point of liquid.
2. Evaporation takes place at any temperature. 2. Boiling takes place at a definite temperature.
3. The temperature of liquid gets down. 3. The temperature of liquids increases up to a constant temperature.
4. The kinetic energy does not change. 4. The kinetic energy of the molecules increases with the increase of temperature.
5. The evaporation depends on surface area, wind, speed, humidity. 5. The boiling depends on atmospheric pressure.
6. It is surface phenomenon. 6. It is bulk phenomenon.
7. Eg : 1) Wet clothes dries.
2) Sea water evaporates to form clouds.
7. Eg : 1) Water boils at 100° C.

Question 5.
Does the surrounding air become warm or cool when vapour phase of H2O condenses? Explain. (AS1)
Answer:

  • Gases have more higher energy than liquids and solids.
  • When vapour condenses, it changes from gas to liquid.
  • Therefore there is a drop in energy.
  • This energy has to go (somewhere) to the surroundings.
  • So surrounding air becomes warm when vapour phase of H20 condenses.

Question 6.
Answer these. (AS1)
a) How much energy is transferred when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100°C?
Answer:
CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of vapourisation = 540 cal/gm.
The amount of heat energy released when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100°C
Q = mLvapour = 1 × 540 = 540 cal.

(OR)

In SI system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm = 1 × 10-3 kg
Latent heat of vapourisation = 540 cal/gm.
The amount of heat energy released when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100°C
Q = mLvapour – 1 × 540 = 540 cal.
In SI, Q = 540 × 4.18 = 2257 J.

b) How much energy is transferred when 1 gm of boiling water at 100° C cools to water 0° C?
Answer:
CGS system :
Latent heat of vapourisation = 540 cal/gm
The amount of heat energy released when 1 gm of boiling water at 100°C condenses to water at 100 °C. m = 1 gm.
Q1 = mLvapour = 1 × 540 = 540 cal.
The specific heat of water = 1 cal/gm-°C
Difference in temperature = 100-0 = 100°C.
The heat released to cool water to 0°C is
Q2 = mS∆T = 1 × 1 × 100 = 100 cal.
∴ Total energy released = 540 + 100 = 640 cal.

c) How much energy is released or absorbed when 1 gm of water at 0° C freezes to ice at 0° C?
Answer:
In CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice (L) = 80 cal/gm
The energy transferred or released when 1 gm of water at 0° C freezes to ice at 0° C.
Q = mLfreeze = 1 × 80 = 80 Cal.

(OR)

In SI system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm = \(\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~kg}\)
Latent heat of fusion = L = 3.36 × 105 J/kg.
Amount of heat released or transferred when lgm of water at 0°C freezes to ice at 0°C.
Q = mLfusion = \(\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~kg}\) × 3.36 × 105 = 3.36 × 102 = 336J.

(OR)

In CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice (L) = 80 cal/gm
The energy transferred or released when 1 gm of water at 0° C freezes to ice at 0°C.
Q = mLfreeze = 1 × 80 – 80 cal.
(Or)
In SI system : In SI, Q = 80 × 4.2 [1 cal = 4.2 J]
Q = 1 x 10-3 × 3.36 × 105 = 3 36 J.

d) How much energy is released or absorbed when 1 gm of steam at 100°C turns to ice at 0°C?
Answer:
In CGS system :
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of vapourisation = Lvapour = 540 cal/gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice = Lfusion = 80 cal
Specific heat of water = S = 1 cal/gm-0°C
Difference in temperature
∆T = 100 – 0 = 100°C.
The energy transferred when 1 gram of steam at 100°C turns to ice at 0°C
Q = mLvapour + mS∆T + mLfusion
= 1 × 540 + 1 × 1 × 100 + 1 × 80 = 540 + 100 + 80 = 720 cal.

(OR)

Mass of water = m = 1 gm = \(\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~kg}\)
Latent heat of vapourisation = Lvapour = 2.25 × 106 J/kg
Latent heat of fusion = Lfusion = 3.36 × 105 J/kg
Difference in temperature
∆T = 373 – 273 – 100 K.
Specific heat of water = 4180 J/kg-K
The energy transferred when 1 gram of steam at 100° C turns to ice at 0°C =
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 2

(OR)

In CGS system :
Conversion : Steam at 100°C → Water at 100°C → Water at 0°C → Ice at 0°C.
Mass of water = m = 1 gm
Latent heat of vapourisation = Lvapour = 540 cal/gm
Latent heat of fusion of ice = Lfusion = 80 cal
Specific heat of water = S = 1 cal/gm-0°C
Difference in temperature
∆T= 100-0 = 100°C.
The energy transferred when 1 gram of steam at 100°C turns to ice at 0°C
Q = mLvapour + mS∆T + mLfusion
= 1 × 540 + 1 × 1 × 100 + 1 × 80
= 540 + 100 + 80 = 720 cal. = 720 × 4.18 = 3009.6 J.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 7.
Explain the procedure of finding specific heat of solid experimentally. (AS1)
(OR)
Determination of specific heat of solid experimentally.
(OR)
Ravi wanted to prepare solid with high specific heat to use on cooking utensil. What fool does he need to find the specific heat of aluminium and copper? How should he conduct the experiment?
Answer:
Aim : To find the specific heat of given solid.
Apparatus : Calorimeter, thermometer, stirrer, water, steam heater, wooden box and lead shots.

Procedure:

  • Measure the mass of the calorimeter with stirrer = m1 gm
  • Fill water one third volume of calorimeter and measure the mass = m2 gm.
  • At this time initial temperature = T1.
  • Mass of the water = m2 – m1 gm.
  • Take a few lead shots and place them in steam heater and heat up to 100° C. Let this temperature be T2.
  • Transfer the lead shots into calorimeter and measure the final (or) resultant temperature T3.
  • Mass of calorimeter with contents = m3 gm and mass of lead shots = m3 – m2 gm.
  • If the specific heats of the calorimeter, lead shots and water are Sc, Sl and Sw respectively, by using method of mixtures we have
    Heat lost by the solid = Heat gained by the calorimeter + water
    AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 3
  • Knowing the specific heats of calorimeter and water we can calculate specific heat of solid (lead shots).

Question 8.
Convert 20° C into Kelvin scale. (or) Change 20°C into absolute scale. (AS1)
Answer:
T = t°C + 273 = 20 + 273 = 293
⇒ T = 293 K.

Question 9.
Your friend is asked to differentiate between evaporation and boiling. What questions could you ask to make him to know the differences between evaporation and boiling? (AS2)
(OR)
Veena found that the water kept in a pot is cool and Siva observed when water is heated the temperature remains constant for some time until water turns into vapour. What are the processes involved in these two aspects? Ask some questions to understand these aspects.
Answer:
The questions asked by me are :

  • How do wet clothes get dried without heating?
  • Are boiling and evaporation one and same or different?
  • Is there any difference in kinetic energy if it boils?
  • Is the temperature the main cause for boiling and evaporation?
  • What are the factors which influence evaporation?
  • Is boiling temperature for water always 100° C?

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 10.
What happens to the water when wet clothes dry? (AS3)
Answer:

  1. When wet clothes dry, the water present in the clothes is evaporated.
  2. So that the process of evaporation causes the wet clothes dry.

Question 11.
Equal amounts of water are kept in a cap and in a dish. Which will evaporate faster? Why? (AS3)
(OR)
Srinu kept. equal amounts of water in a cap and in a dish in open air. What is his observation? Explain the experiment.
Answer:
Aim : To show the evaporation of equal amounts of water in cap and dish.
Apparatus : Cap, dish, water.

Procedure :

  • Take equal amounts of water in cap and dish. Keep them in open air for two hours. Now weigh the water in the cap and the dish.
  • We can observe that the weight of water in dish is less than that of water in cap.
  • This shows that the water in dish has more evaporation than the water in cap.
  • It is due to more surface area of dish.
  • As the surface area increases rate of evaporation also increases.

Question 12.
Suggest an experiment to prove that rate of evaporation of a liquid depends on its surface area and vapour already present in surrounding air. (AS3)
Answer:
Aim: The rate of evaporation of liquid depends on its surface area and vapour already present in surrounding air.
Apparatus : Two dishes of different surface areas and water.

Procedure :

  • Take two dishes of different surface area.
  • Pour equal amounts of water in the both dishes.
  • Keep aside for two to three hours.
  • Observe them after some time.
    Dish with more surface area has less quantity of water than the dish having less surface area. ,
  • This shows evaporation increases with increasing of surface area.
  • Take two dishes of equal surface area containing water.
  • This experiment should be conducted on more humid day and less humid day.
  • We will find that evaporation is less on more humid day due to more vapour in the air.
  • So evaporation decreases with vapour in the air.

Question 13.
Place a Pyrex funnel with its mouth-down in a sauce pan full of water, in such a way that the stem tube of the funnel is above the water or pointing upward into air. Rest the edge of the bottom portion of the funnel on a nail or on a coin so that water can get under it. Place the pan on a stove and heat it till it begins to boil. Where do the bubbles form first? Why? Can you explain how a natural geyser works using this experience? (AS4)
Answer:

  • When Pyrex funnel with its mouth down in a sauce pan then the bubbles formed by the heat energy come from the top of the funnel.
  • That is from stem tube.
  • This is because of pressure inside mouth of funnel increases rapidly due to increasing of heat energy.
  • Pressure inside the funnel rs more than outside the funnel and very high at stem.
  • Hence, bubbles come from stem of the funnel and escapes through stem tube with force, like a geyser.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 5
Working of natural geyser by using this experience :

  • Geysers are the fountains of hot water coming under the layers of the earth.
  • It is a hole with narrow and deep from the bottom of the earth layers.
  • It contains water.
  • Water heats up due to high temperatures of the inner layers of the earth.
  • As by the pressure of water at top layers of the hole, temperature rises, water boils.
  • This hot water comes with narrow vent with high pressure, like Lava from the Volcano.

Question 14.
Collect the information about working of natural geyser and prepare a report. (AS4)
Answer:
Natural Geysers :

  • Geysers are the fountains of hot water coming under the layers of the earth.
  • It is a hole with narrow and deep from the bottom of the earth layers.
    AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 6
  • It contains water.
  • Water heats up due to high temperatures of the inner layers of the earth.
  • As by the pressure of water at top layers of the hole, temperature rises, water boils.
  • This hot water comes with narrow vent with high pressure, like Lava from the Volcano.
  • This looks like a water fountain at the surface of the earth.
    AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 7

Question 15.
Assume that heat is being supplied continuously to 2 kg of ice at – 5°C. You know that ice melts at 0°C and boils at 100°C. Continue the heating till it starts boiling. Note the temperature for every minute. Draw a graph between temperature and time using the values you get. What do you understand from the graph ? Write the conclusions. (AS5)
Answer:
Graph between time and temperature from ice melting at 5° C to boils at 100° C.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 8

Understanding from the graph :

  • \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) = Ice warms up from – 5°C to 0°C
  • \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\) = Ice melts at 0°C for a certain time period. So \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\) indicates no rising in temperature.
  • \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\) = Water warms up from 0°C to 100° C, \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\) indicates rising in temperature.
  • \(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\) = Water boils at 100° C for a certain time period. So \(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\) indicates no rising in temperature.

Conclusion :

  • The temperature remains same at 0° C until all the ice converted into water. So, 0° C is the melting point of water.
  • The temperature remains constant at 100° C until all the water converted into water vapour. So, 100° C is the boiling point of the water.

Question 16.
How do you appreciate the role of the higher specific heat of water in stabilising atmospheric temperature during winter and summer seasons? (AS6)
Answer:

  • Due to higher specific heat of water oceans absorb the solar energy for maintaining a relatively constant temperature.
  • Oceans absorb large amounts of heat at the equator.
  • The oceans moderate the surrounding temperature near the equator.
  • Ocean water transports the heat away from the equator to areas closer to the north and south pole.
  • This transported heat helps moderate the climate in parts of the Earth that are far from the equator.
  • So higher specific heat of water is stabilising atmospheric temperature.
  • So we have to extremely appreciate the role of higher specific heat of water to stabilise the atmospheric temperature.

Question 17.
Suppose that 1 / of water is heated for a certain time to rise and its temperature by 2°C. If 2 l of water is heated for the same time, by how much will its temperature. (AS7)
Answer:
Mass of 1 litre of water (m1) = 1 kg ; ∆T1 = 2°C
Mass of 2 litres of water (m2) = 2 kg ; ∆ T2 = ?
Time duration is same. So same heat is absorbed by water in both the cases
⇒ Q1 = Q2
m1S(∆T1) = m2S (∆T2)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 9
So the rise in temperature for 2 kg of water = 1°C.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 18.
What role does specific heat play in keeping a watermelon cool for a long time after removing it from a fridge on a hot day? (AS7)
Answer:

  • Generally, watermelon contains large percentage of water.
  • Water has high specific heat value than other substances.
  • High specific heat substances oppose the increase of temperature. Hence they continuous of the coolingness.
  • So watermelon retains coolness after removing from fridge on a hot day due to the high specific cheat of water.

Question 19.
If you are chilly outside the shower stall, why do you feel warm after the bath if you stay in bathroom? (AS7)
Answer:

  • In the bathroom, the number of vapour molecules per unit volume is greater than the number of vapour molecules per unit volume outside the room.
  • When we try to dry ourselves with a towel, the vapour molecules surrounding you condense on your skin.
  • Condensation is a warming process.
  • Because of the condensation, you feel warm outside the shower stall when it is chilly.

Question 20.
Three objects A at 30°C, B at 303K and C at 420 K are in thermal contact. Then answer the follwing questions.
(i) Which are in “Thermal equibrium” among A, B and C?
(ii) From which object to another heat transferred? (2 Marks)
Answer:
i) 303K – 273K + 30K = 0°C + 30°C = 30°C.
∴ A and B objects are in ‘Thermal equibrium”.
ii) From object ‘C’ to objects ‘A’ and ‘B’ heat transferred.

Fill in the Blanks

1. The SI unit of specific heat is …………………. .
2. …………………. flows from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature.
3. …………………. is a cooling process.
4. An object A at 10° C and another object B at 10 K are kept in contact, then heat will flow from …………………. to …………………. .
5. The latent heat of fusion of ice is …………………. .
6. Temperature of a body is directly proportional to …………………. .
7. According to the principle of method of mixtures, the net heat lost by the hot bodies is equal to …………………. by the cold bodies.
8. The sultryness in summer days is due to
9. …………………. is used as a coolant.
10. Ice floats on water because …………………. .
Answer:

  1. J/kg – K
  2. Heat
  3. Evaporation
  4. A, B
  5. 80 cal/gm
  6. Average kinetic energy of the molecules of the body.
  7. net heat gained
  8. high humidity
  9. Water
  10. the density of ice is less than that of water

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is a warming process?
A) evaporation
B) condensation
C) boiling
D) all the above
Answer:
B) condensation

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

2. Melting is a process in which solid phase changes to ………………. .
A) liquid phase
B) liquid phase at constant temperature
C) gaseous phase
D) any phase
Answer:
B) liquid phase at constant temperature

3. Three bodies A, B and C are in thermal equilibrium. The temperature of B is 45° C. Then the temperature of C is ……………… .
A) 45° C
B) 50° C
C) 40° C
D) any temperature
Answer:
A) 45° C

4. The temperature of a steel rod is 330 K. Its temperature in ° C is ……………… .
A) 55° C
B) 57° C
C) 59° C
D) 53° C
Answer:
B) 57° C

5. Specific heat S =
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 4
Answer: C

6. Boiling point of water at normal atmospheric pressure is ……………… .
A) 0° C
B) 100° C
C) 110° C
D) -5° C
Answer:
B) 100° C

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

7. When ice melts, its temperature ……………… .
A) remains constant
B) increases
C) decreases
D) cannot say
Answer:
A) remains constant

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 1

Question 1.
Take a piece of wood and a piece of metal and keep them in a fridge or ice box. After 15 minutes, take them out and ask your friend to touch them. Which is colder? Why?
Answer:
1) The metal piece is colder than the wooden piece.
2) Because more heat energy flows out of our body so metal piece gives coldness to our body, than wooden piece.

Question 2.
What could be the reason for difference in coldness of metal and wood?
Answer:

  • Due to more heat energy loss by our body when touches the metal piece compared to the wooden piece.
  • In other way we say degree of coldness of the metal piece is greater than that of. the wooden piece.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 3.
Does it have any relation to the transfer of heat energy from our body to the object?
Answer:

  • Yes, the principle of calorimetry, means heat loss by hot body is equal to heat gained by cold body.
  • This means that when heat energy flows out of our body we feel the coldness and when heat energy enters our body we feel hotness.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 2

Question 4.
Why does transfer of heat energy take place between objects?
Answer:

  • Due to the temperature difference between the two bodies which are in thermal contact.
  • Now heat energy transfers from hot body to cold body until they attain same temperature.

Question 5.
Does transfer of heat take place in all situations?
Answer:
No, when the bodies are in thermal equilibrium there is no transfer of heat energy.

Question 6.
What are the conditions for transfer of heat energy?
Answer:

  • Two bodies should have difference in temperature.
  • They (two bodies) are in thermal contact with each other.
  • When the bodies have equal temperature there is no transfer of heat energy.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 7.
What is temperature?
(OR)
Define temperature.
Answer:
Temperature : The measure of hotness or coldness of a body is called temperature.

Question 8.
How can you differentiate temperature from heat?
Answer:

  • Heat is a thermal energy that flows from hot body to cold body. Temperature is measure of the hotness or coldness of a body.
  • Temperature decides direction of heat (energy) flow, whereas heat is energy itself that flows.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 2 & 3

Question 9.
Place a laboratory thermometer in a glass tumbler containing hot water. Observe the change in mercury level. Wffet change did you notice in mercury level? Did mercury level increase or decrease?
Answer:
The mercury level rises up that means temperature of the mercury level increases.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 3

Question 10.
Place a laboratory thermometer in a glass tumbler containing cold water. Observe the change in mercury level. Did mercury level decrease or increase?
Answer:
The mercury level falls down that shows temperature of the mercury level decreases.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 11.
If two different systems A and B in thermal contact, are in thermal equilibrium individually with another system C (thermal contact with A and B), will the systems A and B be in thermal equilibrium with each other?
Answer:
Yes, A and B will be in thermal equilibrium with each other that means A and B will have equal temperatures.

Question 12.
How would you convert degree Celsius to Kelvin?
Answer:
Temperature in Kelvin = 273 + Temperature in degree Celsius. [K = t°C + 273]

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 4

Question 13.
Take two bowls one with hot water and second with cold water. Gently sprinkle food colour on the surface of the water in both bowls. How do food grains move? Why do they move randomly?
Answer:
We will notice that the grains of food colour move randomly (jiggle). This happens because of the molecules of water on both bowls are in random motion.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 14.
Why do the grains in hot water move more rapidly than the grains in cold water?
Answer:

  • Temperature kinetic energy. So molecules in hot water have more KE than molecules in cold water.
  • As water molecules in hot water move rapidly, grains in hot water move more rapidly than the grains in cold water.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 4 & 5

Question 15.
a) Take a cylindrical jar and pour hot water and then coconut oil in the vessel (do not mix them). Keep thermometers in hot water and coconut oil as shown in figure. The reading of thermometer in hot water decreases, at the same time reading of the thermometer, kept in oil increases. Why does this happen?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 10

  • Heat transfers from hot water to oil.
  • So, water loses heat and shows downfall in temperature.
  • Oil takes the heat and shows increasing in the temperature.

b) Can you say that water loses energy’?
Answer:

  • Yes. Due to the temperature difference between the water and oil, water loses energy and oil gains energy.
  • Thus some heat energy flows from water to oil.
  • This means, the kinetic energy of the molecules of water decreases while the kinetic energy of molecules of oil increases.

c) Can you differentiate between heat and temperature based on the heat transmit activity?
Answer:
Heat is the energy that flows from a hotter body to a colder body. Temperature denotes which body is hotter and which is colder. So, temperature determines direction of heat (energy) flow, whereas heat is the energy that flows.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 5 & 6

Question 16.
Place two test tubes containing 50 gm of water, 50 gm of oil in boiling water for same time.
a) In which material does the temperature rise quickly? Are the amounts of heat given to the water and oil same? How can you assume this?
Answer:

  • Rise in temperature of oil is faster than the water.
  • Yes, same amount of heat energy given to both the oil and water through boiling water.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

b) Why does this happen in specific heat?
Answer:
This happens because rise in temperature depends on the nature of substance.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 7

Question 17.
How much heat energy is required to rise the temperature of unit mass of substance (material) by 1°C?
Answer:
Energy equal to its specific heat.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 18.
Why is the specific heat different for different substances?
(OR)
Explain why specific heat values are different for different materials.
Answer:

  • We know that the temperature of the body is directly proportional to the average kinetic energy of particle of the body.
  • The molecules of the system have different forms of energies such as linear, rotational kinetic energy, vibrational energy and potential energy.
  • When we supply heat energy, it will be shared in different forms and increase the energy in the system.
  • This sharing will vary from material to material.
  • If the maximum share of heat energy is spent to rise linear kinetic energy, then the system gets increasing in temperature.
  • Due to differences in sharing different materials have different specific heats.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 8

Question 19.
Take 200 ml of water in two beakers and heat them to same temperature and pour the water of two beakers into a larger beaker.
What do you observe? What could be the reason for the fact you observed?
Answer:

  • The temperature of mixture remains the same.
  • The reason is that the masses rise in temperature and the materials are same.

Question 20.
Heat the water in one beaker to 90°C and the other to 60°C. Mix the water from these beakers in large beaker. What will be the temperature of the mixture? What did you notice? Can you give reason for the change in temperature?
Answer:

  • The temperature of mixture is 75°C.
  • The reason is for a given material the temperature of mixture,
    AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 12
  • Hot water gives heat to the cold water until thermal equilibrium takes place.
  • So, the thermal equilibrium attains at 75°C.

Question 21.
ake 100 ml of water at 90°C and 200 ml of water at 60°C and mix the two. What is the temperature of the mixture? What difference do you notice in change of temperature?
Answer:

  • The temperature of mixture is 70°C.
  • The reason is here m1 = 100 gm ; m2 = 200 gm
    AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 13
  • Final temperature of the mixture is less than the above case.
  • If the quantity increases, the quantity of heat to transfer is also rises to attain thermal equilibrium.
    Here hotter body quantity is less and colder body quantity is high. So, the temperature at thermal equilibrium decreases and stands at 70° C.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 10

Question 22.
When floor of room is washed with water, the water on the floor disappears within minutes. Why does water on the floor disappear after some time?
Answer:
Due to evaporation water disappears from the floor.

Question 23.
Pour a few drops of spirit on your palm. Why does your skin become colder? (1 Mark)
Answer:
Spirit absorbs heat energy from our palm and evaporates. So our palm becomes colder.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 10 & 11

Question 24.
Take a few drops of spirit in two petri dishes separately. Keep one of the dishes under a ceiling fan and switch on the fan. Keep another dish with its lid closed. What do you notice? What could be the reason for this change?
Answer:
1) The spirit in the dish which is kept under the ceiling fan disappears.
2) Whereas we will find some spirit left in the dish that is kept in the lidded dish.
3) The molecules which are escaping from the surface is high and they can’t reach back to liquid due to wind blow. So, evaporation is high under fan.
4) At the same time evaporation is less in the dish which is closed by lid.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 12

Question 25.
Does the reverse process of evaporation take place? When and how does it take place?
Answer:
1) Yes, the reverse process of evaporation takes place.
2) When the vapour molecules lose their kinetic energy which leads to lower the temperature, they convert into droplets.
3) This process is called condensation.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 13

Question 26.
In early morning, during winter, you might have noticed that water droplets form on window panes, flowers, grass, etc. How are these water droplets formed?
(OR)
Why do water drops (dew) form on flowers and grass during morning hours of winter season?
Answer:

  • During winter season, in the night times, atmospheric temperature goes down.
  • The surfaces of window panes, flowers, grass, etc. become colder.
  • The water vapour molecules touch the surfaces, gets cooled and lost its energy.
  • Then water vapour condenses on the surface and water drops formed.
  • The water droplets condensed on such surfaces are known as dew.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 14

Question 27.
Are the process of evaporation and boiling the same? Explain.
Answer:

  • No, they are different.
  • Evaporation takes place at any temperature.
  • But boiling occurs at particular temperature called the boiling point.

10th Class Physics Textbook Page No. 16

Question 28.
You might have observed coconut oil and ghee getting converted from liquid state to solid state during winter season. What could be the reason for this change? What happens to water kept in a refrigerator? How does it get converted from liquid phase to solid phase?
Answer:
1) If temperature of a substance decreases kinetic energy also decreases.
2) Kinetic energy decreases from water to ice. That means solid state to liquid state.
3) In winter season coconut oil in the form of liquid get down its temperature, hence its kinetic energy also decreases. So, it-freezes.
4) Water, which is kept in refrigerator loses the kinetic energy along with decreasing temperature and freezes.
5) In this way water converted liquid phase to solid phase.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 29.
Are the volumes of water and ice formed with same amount of water equal? Why?
Answer:
1) No, the volume of ice is greater than volume of water.
2) Water expands on freezing.
3) That means density of ice is less than density of water.

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat Activities

Activity – 1

1. Explain the term temperature with example.
(OR)
What is the name given to degree of hotness or coldness? Explain the quantity with an example.
Answer:
Procedure: Take a piece of wood and a piece of metal and keep them in fridge or ice box.
Observation : When we touch both of them we feel that metal piece is colder than the wooden piece.

Explanation :

  • This is due to more energy flow out of our body when we touch the metal piece as compared with wooden piece.
  • The degree of coldness of metal is greater than that of the wooden piece.
  • The degree of hotness or coldness is called temperature.
  • From this example, we say metal piece is at a lower temperature compared to wooden piece.

Activity – 2

2. What is the measure of thermal equilibrium? How do you prove?
(OR)
How do you prove temperature is the measure of thermal equilibrium?
(OR)
Explain thermal equilibrium with an activity.
Answer:
Procedure :
Take two glass tumblers and fill one of them with hot water and another with cold water.
Explanation & Observation :
1) When we place a thermometer inside the hot water the mercury level of thermometer rises from initial position due to heat transferred from hotter body (hot water) to colder body (mercury in thermometer).
2) When we place the thermometer inside the cold water the mercury level comes down from its initial position due to transfer of heat from mercury (hotter body) to water (colder body).

Conclusion :

  • Heat is a form of energy that flows from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature until the temperature remains same for two bodies that is called thermal equilibrium.
  • In the above case, the steadiness of mercury column shows that thermal equilibrium is achieved. That reading of mercury column gives temperature.
  • Thus temperature is a measure of thermal equilibrium.

Activity – 3

3. Establish the relationship between temperature and average kinetic energy.
(OR)
Suggest an activity to prove that the average kinetic energy of the molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the substances.
(OR)
How do you prove that temperature of a body is an indicator of average kinetic energy?
Answer:
Procedure :

  • Take two bowls one with hot water and second with cold water.
  • Gently sprinkle food colour on the surface of the water in both bowls.

Observation :
We will observe the jiggling of grains of food colour in hot water is more when compared to jiggling in cold water.

Explanation :

  • We know kinetic energy depends on speed motion of particles.
  • So the kinetic energy of hotter body is greater than that of colder body.
  • Thus the temperature of a body is an indicator of average kinetic energy of molecules of that body.

Conclusion :
Therefore average kinetic energy of molecules is directly proportional to absolute temperature.

Activity – 4

4. Write an activity which tells how heat transmits.
(OR)
In which direction does heat tend to flow? Prove it with an activity.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 10
Procedure :

  • Take water in a container and heat it to 60° C.
  • Take a cylindrical transparent glass jar and fill half of it with the hot water.
  • Pour coconut oil over the surface of water.
  • Put a lid with two holes on the top of the glass jar.
  • Insert two thermometers through the lid in such a way that one inside coconut oil and other in water.

Observation & Explanation :

  • Now we can observe that the reading of thermometer kept in water decreases while the reading of thermometer kept in oil increases.
  • So temperature of water decreases whereas temperature of oil increases.

Conclusion :

  • Heat transmits from hotter body to colder body.
  • So temperature determines direction of heat flow.

Activity – 5 Specific Heat

5. Write an activity which gives the relation between rise in temperature and nature of material.
(OR)
“The rate of rise in temperature depends on the nature of substance.” Prove it with an activity.
(OR)
Draw a diagram and label the parts to prove that the rate of increase in temperature depends on the nature of substance.
(OR)
We can observe severe burns with hot oil when compared with hot water.
Which factor will decide this aspect? Explain this process with an example.
Answer:
Procedure :

  • Take a large jar with water and heat it up to 80°C.
  • Take two identical boiling test tubes with single-holed corks.
  • Fill them, one of the boiling tubes with 50 gm of water and other with 50 gm of oil.
  • Insert two thermometers in each of tubes and clamp them to retort stand and place them in a jar of hot water.

Observation :

  • Observe the readings of thermometers every three minutes.
  • We can observe that the rise in temperature of oil is higher than that of water.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat 11

Explanation :

  • Since both the boiling tubes kept in hot water for the same interval of time, the heat supplied to oil and water is same but rise in temperature of oil is more.
  • So we conclude that rise in temperature depends on the nature of substance (specific heat).

Activity – 6

6. Derive Q = mSAT.
(OR)
Establish relationship between heat energy, mass of the substance and rise in temperature.
(OR)
Derive an expression for heat energy.
(OR)
Derive an expression for factors affecting amount of heat energy absorbed.
Answer:
Procedure :

  • Take two beakers of equal volume and take 250 grams of water in one beaker and 1 kg of water in another beaker.
  • Note their initial temperatures.
  • Now heat the two beakers up to 60° C.
  • Note down the heating times.

Observation:

  • We observe that-the water in large beaker takes more time.
  • That means we need to supply more heat enepgy to water in larger beaker (greater quantity of water).

Conclusion :
From this we conclude that for some change in temperature the amount of heat (Q) absorbed by a substance is directly proportional to its mass (m).
Q ∝ m (when ∆T is constant) ………….. (1)

Procedure :
Now take 1 litre of water in a beaker and heat it and note the temperature changes (∆T) for every two minutes and observe the rise internals.

Conclusion:
We will notice that for the same mass (m) of water the change in temperature is proportional to amount of heat (Q) absorbed by it.
Q ∝ ∆T (when m is constant) ………….. (2)
From (1) and (2) Q m∆T (or) Q = mS∆T,
where ‘S’ is called specific heat of substance.

Activity – 7

7. a) How are you able to find the final temperature of the mixture of sample?
(OR)
What is the “Principle of method of mixtures”? Verify it with an activity.
Answer:
Situation – 1 :

  • Take two beakers of the same size and pour 200 ml of water in each of them.
  • Now heat the water in both beakers to same temperature.
  • Now pour water from these beakers into a larger beaker and measure the temperature of the mixture.

Observation :
We can observe that there is no change in temperature.

Situation – 2 :

  • Now heat the water in first beaker to 90° C and the other to 60° C.
  • Mix the water from these beakers in a large beaker.

Observation :
We can find that the temperature of mixture is 75° C.

Situation – 3 :
Now take 100 ml of water at 90° C and 200 ml of water at 60° C and mix the two. Observation :
We can find that the temperature of mixture is 75° C.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Heat

7. b) Derive, a formula for final temperature of mixture of samples.
(OR)
Maveen added hotter water of mass m1 kept at temperature T1 to cold water of mass m2 kept at temperature T2. Find the expression to find temperature of mixture of samples.
Answer:
Procedure:
1) Let the initial temperatures of the hotter and colder samples of masses m1 and m2 be T1 and T2.
2) Let T be the final temperature of mixture.

Observation :
The temperature of the mixture is lower than hotter sample and higher than colder sample. Explanation :
So hot sample has lost heat, and the cold sample has gained heat.
The heat lost by the hot sample Q1 = m1S (T1 – T)
The heat gained by the cold sample Q2 = m2S (T – T2)
We know that heat lost = heat gained
Q1 = Q2
m1 S(T1 – T) = m2 S(T – T2)
\(\mathrm{T}=\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{~T}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{~T}_{2}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}}\)

Activity -8

8. Explain the process of evaporation phenomenon with an example.
(OR)
Srinu observed that spirit taken in a petri dish disappears after some time. Explain the process involved in it with an example.
Answer:
Procedure :

  • Take a few drops of spirit in two petri dishes separately.
  • Keep one of the dishes under a ceiling fan and keep another dish with its lid closed.
  • Observe the quantity of spirit in both dishes after 5 minutes.

Observation :
We will notice that spirit in the dish kept under the ceiling fan disappears whereas we will find some spirit left in the dish that is kept in the lidded dish.

Explanation :

  • The reason is that the molecules of spirit in dish continuously move with random speeds and collide with other molecules.
  • During the collision they transfer energy to other molecules.
  • Due to this collision the molecules at the surface acquire energy and fly off from the surface.
  • Some molecules come back to liquid.
  • If the number of escaping molecules is greater than returned number, then the number of molecules in the liquid decreases.

Conclusion :
When a liquid is exposed to air, the molecules at the surface keep on escaping from the surface till the entire liquid disappears into air. This process is called evaporation.

Activity – 9

9. Explain the process of condensation with example.
(OR)
Explain the process of condensation with an activity.
(OR)
Karan told his friend that he observed that there are some water droplets outside a cold soft drink bottle. Explain the phenomenon involved in the formation of these droplets.
Answer:
Procedure :
Place a glass tumbler on the table. Pour cold water up to half of its height.

Observation :
There are droplets formed outside of the glass.

Explanation :

  • The reason is that the surrounding air contains water molecules in the form of water vapour. When the water molecules strike the surface of the glass tumbler which is cool, they lose their kinetic energy.
  • This energy lowers the temperature of vapour and it turns into droplets.
  • The energy lost by water molecules in air is gained by the molecules of the glass tumbler.
  • Hence the average kinetic energy of glass molecules increases. In turn the energy is transferred to water molecules in die glass.

Conclusion :

  • So the average kinetic energy and temperature of water in glass increases. This is called condensation.
  • Condensation is the phase change from gas to liquid.

Activity – 10

10. Explain the process of boiling with an example.
(OR)
Why do we observe bubbles on the surface of water which has been heated ? What is the phenomenon involved in it? Explain.
Answer:
Procedure :
Take a beaker of water, keep it on the burner and note the readings of thermometer for every two minutes.

Observation :

  • We will notice that the temperature of the water rises continuously till it reaches 100° C.
  • Once it reaches 100° C the temperature remains same and a lot of bubbling on the surface takes place. This is called boiling of water.

Explanation :

  • It happens due to when water is heated the solubility of gases it contains reduces.
  • As a result, bubbles of gas are formed in the liquid.
  • Evaporation of water molecules from the surrounding liquid occurs into these bubbles and they become filled with saturated vapour.
  • At a certain temperature, the pressure of the saturated vapour inside the bubbles becomes equal to the pressure exerted on the bubbles from the outside.

Conclusion :

  • As a result, these bubbles rise rapidly to the surface and collapse at the surface releasing vapour present in bubbles into air at the surface. This process is called “boiling”.
  • This temperature is called ‘boiling temperature”.

Activity – 11

11. Explain the process of melting and latent heat of fusion.
(OR)
When ice is heated to 0°C it starts to turn into water. But temperature remains ‘ constant for some time. What is the process involved in this? Explain.
Answer:
Procedure :

  • Take small ice cubes in a beaker. Insert the thermometer in the beaker.
  • Now start heating the beaker and note down readings of thermometer every one minute till the ice completely melts and gets converted into water.
  • Before heating the temperature of ice is 0°C or less than 0°C.

Observation :

  • We will observe that the temperature of ice at the beginning is equal to or below 0°C.
  • If the temperature of ice is below 0°C, it goes on changing till it reaches 0°C.
  • When ice starts melting, we will observe no change in temperature though you are supplying heat continuously.

Explanation:

  • Given heat energy uses to break the bonds (H2O) in ice and melts.
  • So, temperature is constant while melting.

Conclusion:

  • This process is called melting. In this process, heat converts solid phase to liquid phase.
  • The temperature of the substance does not change until all the ice melts and converts into water.
  • The heat given to melting is called latent heat of fusion.
  • The heat required to convert 1 gm of solid completely into liquid at constant temperature is called “latent heat of fusion”.

Activity – 12

12. Why does a glass bottle tilled with water break when it is placed in deep freezer for some time?
(OR)
Prove that density of ice is less than that of water.
(OR)
How do you prove that volume of ice is more than that of water?
Answer:
Procedure :

  • Take a small glass bottle with a tight lid and fill it with water, without any gap and fix the lid tightly.
  • Put the bottle into the deep freezer of a refrigerator for a few hours.

Observation :
When we take it out from the deep freezer, we can observe that the glass bottle breaks.

Explanation :

  • These cracks on the bottle due to expansion of the substance in the bottle.
  • This means water expands on freezing.

Conclusion :

  • Water expands on freezing.
  • Ice has less density than water.

 

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