AP State Important Questions

These AP 6th Class Social Important Questions 5th Lesson Early Life to Settled Life will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Important Questions 5th Lesson Early Life to Settled Life

Question 1.
How did early humans become farmers?
Answer:
Early humans observed places where edible plants were found, about seeds, plants, etc. They started growing their own plants. And thus; they became farmers.

Question 2.
Name two neolithic tools which are used to grind grain even today.
Answer:
Mortars and pestles are the Neolithic tools used even today for grinding grain.

Question 3.
Describe the tools used by farmers and herders.
Answer:
Stone tools have been found from many sites. They are often different from the Palaeolithic tools and are called ‘Neolithic’. There were tools that were polished so as to give a fine cutting edge. Mortars and pestles were used for grinding grain and other plant produce. However, Palaeolithic tools were still used for some purposes. Some tools were also made of bone.

Question 4.
What was the significance of pottery in the Neolithic Age?
Answer:
Many kinds of pottery have been found. These Were sometimes decorated and were used for storing things.. Pots were also used for cooking and eating.

Question 5.
What is domestication?
Answer:
Domestication is the name given to the process in which people grow plants and look after animals.

Question 6.
When was domestication was begun?
Answer:
Domestication was a gradual process that began about 12,000 years ago.

Question 7.
Name the earliest plants to be domesticated.
Answer:
Barley and wheat are the earliest plants to be domesticated.

Question 8.
How did the hunter-gatherers get their name?
Answer:
The hunter-gatherers got their name from the way in which they lived. They used to gather food either by hunting animals or gathering food from the forests.

Question 9.
Why it was difficult for hunter-gathers to collect food?
Answer:
It was difficult for hunter-gatherers to collect food because:

1. As there were several animals that ran faster than human beings and they were stronger also.
2. People do not know about the edible part of the plant.

Question 10.
What are the reasons for nomads to move from one place to another?
Answer:
Nomads consume all the available food from plants and animals of a particular place and later move on in search of food to another place. Animals move from place to place for various reasons and hence this made the nomads move along with them for hunting. Plants and trees bore fruits in different seasons. Thus, people had to move along with the seasons in search of food and survival. People, plants and animals need water for survival. Most of the water bodies like lakes, ponds, streams dry up during the summer. Thus, nomads move to places in search of water during the dry seasons.

Question 11.
What are the tools that hunter-gathers used? How they used them?
Answer:
They used a wide range of tools made out of stone, wood and bone. They used these . tools to scrape animal skins and to clean the skins. They made clothes with the skins, hides with the help of these tools. They used stone tools to cut animal flesh and bones.
They dug soil for edible tubers and roots with these tools. They prepared spears and arrows for hunting, with these they hunted animals easily.

Question 12.
Observe the below given Andhra Pradesh map and answer the following questions.

1. What is a rock art site?
Answer:
The rock shelters which have the paintings of the early people are called rock art sites.

2. Name the districts which have no rock art sites.
Answer:
Srikakulam, Vizianagaram, Visakhapatnam, East Godavari and Krishna districts have no rock sites.

3. In which district Adoni is located?.
Answer:
Kurnool district

Question 13.
Who are archaeologists?
Answer:
Archaeologists are the people who study the past by digging up old places where people lived and taking out remains of their lives like tools, bones, pots, buildings etc.

Question 14.
Write about Belum Caves.
Answer:
Belum caves are situated in the Kurnool district near Betamcherla and Banaganapalli. Archaeologists recovered a number of stone tools from these caves. These caves seem to have been used by the stone tools using hunter-gatherers as resting places for thousands of years.
Animal bones, stone tools especially microliths and also tools made of bones have been found in them. Tools made of bones are found only in these caves in the entire Indian Subcontinent.

Question 15.
Write about the paintings of hunter-gatherers.
Answer:
The hunter-gatherers spent their leisure time paintings. They painted pictures of humans, animals and hunting scenes on the walls of the caves and on rock shelters. Different colour stones were used and mixed with animal fat to prepare colours. They used bamboo brushes to paint on rocks and walls.

Question 16.
Write about the rock shelter in the YSR Kadapa district.
Answer:
Chintakanta is in Muddunur Mandal of Y.S.R. Kadapa District. There are ten rock shelters near it that have paintings of early people. There are more than 200 paintings in white and red colour. But there are only ten white paintings. In the red colour paintings, humped oxen are found in only one cave, which is locally called Eddula Aavula Gundu. In the remaining paintings, we can see pictures of deer, stag, fox, rabbits, birds, human beings, etc.

These AP 6th Class Social Important Questions 4th Lesson Land Forms – Andhra Pradesh will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Important Questions 4th Lesson Land Forms – Andhra Pradesh

Question 1.
What is our state song?
Answer:
Maa Telugu Talliki Mallepudanda is a bur State song.

Question 2.
What does our state song describe?
Answer:
Our state song describes the rivers and the rich heritage of our state.

Question 3.
What does relief of the region mean?
Answer:
Relief of region means the shape of the surface of the earth.

Question 4.
What is the other name of relief of region?
Answer:
Landforms are the other name of relief of region.

Question 5.
Where is Andhra Pradesh situated?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is situated in the east coastal line of South India.

Question 6.
What are the boundaries of our state?
Answer:
Chattisgarh, Odisha is in the north, Tamilnadu in the south, Telangana is in the west and north – west, and Karnataka is in the South – West and Bay of Bengal are in the east are the boundaries of our state.

Question 7.
What is the length of the coastal line of Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
The length of the coastal line of Andhra Pradesh is 972 km.

Question 8.
On the basis of physical and economic conditions into how many parts can Andhra Pradesh be divided. What are they?
Answer:
On the basis of physical and economic conditions, Andhra Pradesh can be divided into two parts. They are :

1. Coastal Andhra Pradesh and
2. Rayalaseema.

Question 9.
Write about Coastal Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
Coastal Andhra Pradesh consists of 9 districts. This region has the fertile soils of the Godavari, Krishna, and Penna Delta. The density of the population is also very high.

Question 10.
Write about Rayalaseema.
Answer:
Rayalaseema is a group of 4 districts. This region comprises rocky and drylands. The uncertain and less rainfall is not favorable for agriculture. So, this land is known for droughts and famines.

Question 11.
Describe mountains.
Answer:
The Mountain range contains severed hills. A mountain is a natural elevation of the earth’s surface. Mountains may have a small summit and a broad base. It is considerably higher than the surrounding area.
Y.S.R. Kadapa, Chittoor, Kurnool, and Vijayanagaram districts have stretches of hilly terrain which we can see as pockets of scattered hills called the Eastern Ghats.
Arakuloya, Borra caves of Vishakhapatnam district, and Papikondalu of East and West Godavari are the famous tourist places in the mountain region.

Question 12.
Where is Lambasingi situated and why it is famous?
Answer:
Lambasingi was situated in the interior tribal hamlet in Chintapalli Mandal of the Visakhapatnam agency. It has recorded single-digit temperatures in the winter like in Kashmir. So it is also known as Kashmir of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 13.
Who are Chenchus?
Answer:
The Chenchus are a tribal group practicing a pre-agricultural mode of economy. The government of India recognized them as a particularly vulnerable Tribe. They have been the inhabitants of the Nallamala forest area. They are hunter-food gatherers. They spread over the districts of Kurnool, Guntur, and Prakasam in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 14.
What Is a plateau? Describe.
Answer:
A plateau is an elevated flat land. It is a flat-topped table land standing above the surrounding area. A plateau may have one or more sides with steep slopes. The height of plateaus often varies from a few hundred meters to several thousand meters. Like mountains, plateaus also may be differentiated as young or old. The Deccan plateau in India is the oldest plateau and it is of volcanic origin. A large part of Rayalaseema is located in this Deccan plateau region.

Question 15.
Write a few lines about the Deccan plateau.
Answer:
Deccan plateau is the oldest plateau in India. The Deccan plateau is a lava plateau. The larger part of Rayalaseema comes under the Deccan plateau region.

Question 16.
Describe the plateau region.
Answer:
Plateaus are very useful because they are rich in mineral deposits. Many of the mining areas are located in the plateau areas. Limestone, manganese, asbestos, iron ore, gold, diamonds, graphite, dolomite, quartz, silica sand are available in plateau regions. The lava plateaus are rich in black soil. They are fertile and good for cotton cultivation. Many plateaus have scenic spots and are great tourist attractions.

Question 17.
What are Plains? Describe.
Answer:
Plains are level lands with flat surfaces. These are densely populated areas as flatlands are suitable for building houses, as well as cultivation. Because of fertile soils, the land is highly productive. Construction of transportation facilities is also easy.
In Andhra Pradesh, several districts are situated in the plains. Our state has a long stretch of plains called ‘Coastal Plains’ stretching from Srikakulam district in the North to the Pulicat Lake in the South.

Question 18.
What is Kharif and Rabi?
Answer:
Paddy monsoon crop is called Kharif and the winter monsoon crop is called Rabi.

Question 19.
What is a horticulture hub?
Answer:
Horticulture hub is an area where plantation crops, especially ready-to-harvest crops like banana, mango, guava, and papaya crops are grown.

Question 20.
What are the main rivers of Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Krishna and The Godavari is the main rivers of Andhra Pradesh. They flow from the Western ghats and join into the Bay of Bengal in the east by forming a large delta.

Question 21.
What is ‘Podu’?
Answer:
Podu is an ancient agricultural practice in the hilly regions. It is also called shifting or jhuming cultivation. In this method, the people clear a patch of land and use it to grow crops for one or two years and later shift to some other place.

Question 22.
How are the soils in the delta region get enriched?
Answer:
Every year the floodwaters of the river enrich the soils of the delta region. The floods bring silt-laden with humus with them. They deposit it in the flooded areas. In this way, the floods enrich the soils of the delta region.

Question 23.
How crops can be grown throughout the year in plain areas?
Answer:
Plain areas receive plenty of rainfall from June to October from the Southwest monsoon. Besides rainfall, bore wells and canals provide plenty of water for agriculture. Warm temperature and good sunshine make it possible to grow crops throughout the year.

Question 24.
Why plain areas are important for agriculture?
Answer:
Plain areas are important for agriculture because alluvial soils are deposited as sediments in these plains. They are deep and fertile, and the flatness facilitates mechanizes of crop production. They also support grasslands which provide good grazing for livestock.

Question 25.
Why soils in plateau areas are not suitable for cultivation?
Answer:
Soils in plateau areas are of two types: red and saline soils. These soils cannot hold much water. So fields in the Rayalaseema region are left to be uncultivated. Saline soils have a high content of lime and salts. They cannot absorb water and are not suitable for any crop.

Question 26.
Which crops can be cultivated in hilly areas and why?
Answer:
In hilly areas, the soils are uneven and sloped. These soils belong to red and rocky. Because of their high elevation and the natural downward movement of water, these soils are mostly well-drained and suitable for plantation crops like coffee and tea.

Question 27.
What are the sources of water in plateaus and hilly regions?
Answer:
In plateaus sources of water are rainfall, borewells, and tanks. In hilly regions source of water is only rainfall.

Question 28.
What are the famous tourist places in the mountain region of Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Borra caves of Visakhapatnam district and Papikondalu of East and West Godavari districts are the famous tourist places in these mountain regions.

Question 29.
What is a drought-prone region?
Answer:
A region that receives low and uncertain rainfall is called a drought-prone region.

Question 30.
What is the difference between a cash crop and a food crop?
Answer:
Cash Crop gives more income or profit to the farmer. It is also known as a commercial crop. Ex: Groundnut, turmeric, sugarcane, tobacco, etc.
A food crop is a crop grown for consumption. Ex: Paddy, millets, vegetables, etc.

Question 31.
What is known as aquaculture? What is the effect shown by aquaculture?
Answer:
The rearing of aquatic animals for food is known as aquaculture. Ex: Fish, prawn, shrimp, crabs, etc. Most of the farmers in coastal districts are shifting to aquaculture. Most of the paddy-growing fields are converted into aquaculture ponds. This change is resulting in water pollution and contamination of water ponds in paddy-grown areas.

Question 32.
What is the impact of a landform on people’s lives?
Answer:
Change in landforms impacts the wellness of a region, occupation, and food patterns. The plant and animal wealth of a place also depends upon the natural habitat and the climate that prevails in that region. Food, clothing, occupation, and livelihood of the people are closely connected with the regional and physical surroundings and climate.

Question 33.
What is Mean Sea Level (MSL)?
Answer:
The height of a surface from the sea is called Mean Sea Level. India’s mean elevation is 160 m (525 ft) and is taken from Mumbai High.

Question 34.
Write a brief note on landforms of Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:

• Andhra Pradesh is situated in the east coastal line of India.
• Andhra Pradesh has varied landforms.
• The important landforms are Deccan Plateau in the South West.
• The Eastern Ghats towards the mid-eastern part.
• Eastern coastal plains in the east where the land descands down into the Bay of Bengal.
• Thus our state has mountains/hills, plains, and plateaus as major landforms.

Question 35.
Locate the Fast coastal plains In the below map.
Answer:

Question 36.
Locate the following places in the Andhra Pradesh outline map.
A) the Eastern Ghats
B) East Coastal Plains
C) Amaravathi
D) Armakonda
Answer:

Question 37.
Read the information and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Name of the Hills	Name of the District
1.	Yarada and Ananthagiri hills	Visakhapatnam
2.	Bison hills and Papikondalu	East and West Godavari
3.	Mogalrajapuram, Kondapalli hills	Krishna
4.	Berumkonda, Nagarjunakonda and Kotappakonda	Guntur
5.	Velikondalu	SPSR Nellore
6.	Nallamala, Erramala	Kurnool
7.	Velikondalu and Palakondalu	YSR Kadapa
8.	Seshachalam and Horsely hills	Chittoor
9.	Penukonda and Madakasira hills	Ananthapuram

1. In which district Nagarjunakonda is situated?
Answer:
Guntur district.

2. What is the other name of Bison hills?
Answer:
Papikondalu.

3. What are the hills situated in the SPSR Nellore district?
Answer:
Velikondalu.

4. What are the hills situated in the Chittoor district?
Answer:
Seshachalam and Horsely hills.

5. Name the hills situated in Visakhapatnam district?
Answer:
Yarada and Anantagiri hills.

6. How many types of hills are there in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
There are nine types of hills.

7. Name the hills situated in SPSR Nellore district.
Answer:
Velikondalu is situated in the SPSR Nellore district.

8. Where are Seshachalam Hills?
Answer:
Seshachalam hills are in the Chittoor district.

9. Where can we find Ananta Giri Hills?
Answer:
We can find Anantagiri hills in the Visakhapatnam district.

Question 38.
Mention any two groups, even now treated as nomads.
Answer:

• It is a strange experience to know that some groups of people are still nomads in the 21st century.
• There are a good number of nomads on the Earth.
• Chenchus of Andhra Pradesh (Nallamala forest area) is one of the wondering groups for hunting and food gathering.
• Erukula is another sect of nomads.
  They travel with a group of families by selling medicines with donkey milk, dolls with palm leaves, etc.

Question 39.
Read the map and answer the following questions.

1. What is the area represented by A?
Answer:
The Western Ghats.

2. What is the area represented by B?
Answer:
Deccan plateau.

3. What is the area represented by C?
Answer:
The Eastern Ghats.

4. What is the area represented by D?
Answer:
Coastal plains.

Question 40.
Read the passage and answer the following question.
Lammasingi / Lambasingi, the interior tribal hamlet in Chintapalli Mandal of Visakhapatnam agency, has recorded single-digit temperatures in the winter. It is also known as ‘Kashmir of Andhra Pradesh’.
★ Write some other hill stations like Lambasingi.
Answer:

• Horsely hills near Gurram Konda of Chittoor district is famous. Hill resort is famous for its cool temperature in summer.
• Mahendra Giri is one of the highest peaks in our state in Odisha Border.
• Tirumala, Simhachalam, Gundala, Kotappakonda, Vijayawada (Kanaka Durga Temple) are some of the spiritual centers on hills stations.
• Aruku Valley is famous for its pleasant climate and beautiful sceneries.

Question 41.
Appreciate the Diversity in lifestyles of Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:

• Andhra Pradesh has different landforms.
• We must appreciate the people for selecting their economic activities depending upon the physical and climatic features of their region.
• People living in the plains thrive on agriculture.
• People in the coastal areas depend on fishing.
• Charcoal batti, making of cement bricks are in the plateau region.
• Collection of forest products and animal rearing are some of the economic activities in the mountain region.

Question 42.
Read the map and answer the following questions.

a) In which district Amaravathi is located?
Answer:
Amaravathi is located in the Guntur district.

b) Which district has the boundary with Chattisgarh state?
Answer:
East Godavari district done has a boundary with Chattisgarh state.

c) What are the border districts of Karnataka State?
Answer:
Kurnool, Anantapuram, and Chittoor are the border districts of Karnataka.

Question 43.
How can you say that the tribal people follow distinct cultures?
Answer:

1. The tribal people follow distinct cultures of their own.
2. They do not destroy the forests they use.
3. Their lifestyle is eco-friendly.
4. They use naturally available things like medicines.

These AP 6th Class Social Important Questions 3rd Lesson Maps will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Important Questions 3rd Lesson Maps

Question 1.
When a map is useful?
Answer:
When we want to study the Earth horizontally as a part, such as a country, state, district, town, village, and world as a whole maps are useful.

Question 2.
What is a map?
Answer:
A map is a representation of the whole Earth or a part of it, on a flat surface according to its proportionate scale.

Question 3.
What are the four cardinal directions and what are the components of a map?
Answer:
There are four major directions: North, East, West, South. They are called cardinal directions.
Components of a map are

1. Distance,
2. Direction,
3. Symbols and
4. Colours

Question 4.
What do you mean by the term the scale of the map?
Answer:
The scale of the map is the ratio between the actual distance of the ground and the distance shown on the map. Ex: 1 cm : 10 km.

Question 5.
How are maps prepared?
Answer:
Usually, maps are prepared in such a manner that the north direction is at the top of the map. Among the four directions, North is treated as the Principal direction. The south side is at the bottom. So the east side is on the right and the west side is on the left.

Question 6.
Define a sketch.
Answer:
A drawing that is drawn without scale and directions is called a sketch. A sketch is a drawing mainly based on memory and spot observation.

Question 7.
What are the intermediate directions? How they are useful?
Answer:
North East (NE), South East (SE), South West (SW) and North West (NW) are the intermediate directions. With the help of these intermediate directions, we can locate a place more accurately.

Question 8.
What is a scale? How is it useful?
Answer:
A scale is one of the main components of a map. On a map, we can’t show the actual distance between two places. We use a scale to show the actual distance on the ground by reducing it on a map. We can show the distance in proportion with the help of a scale.

Question 9.
Why symbols are used in the maps?
Answer:
With the use of symbols, maps can be drawn easily. With the Symbols, maps are simple to read. Symbols give a lot of information in a limited space. Even if we don’t know the language of an area we can know the information from maps with the help of symbols.

Question 10.
What are the neighbouring countries that share the land with India?
Answer:
Neighbouring countries that share the land with India are Pakistan, China, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Myanmar.

Question 11.
Name different types of maps.
Answer:
Three types of maps are used frequently. They are :

1. Political map,
2. Physical map and
3. Thematic map.

Question 12.
What does a political map show?
Answer:
A political map shows villages, cities, towns, districts, states with their capitals and countries with their capitals boundaries.

Question 13.
What does a physical map show?
Answer:
A physical map shows the physical features such as mountains, plateaus, plains, oceans, rivers and deserts.

Question 14.
What does a thematic map show?
Answer:
A thematic map shows the physical distribution of specific features such as land use, temperature, rainfall, population, soils, natural vegetation, crops, minerals, industries, railways, roads and waterways.

Question 15.
How many continents are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are 7 continents. They are Asia, Africa, North America, South America, Australia, Europe and Antarctica.

Question 16.
How many oceans are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are 5 Oceans. They are the Pacific Ocean, Indian Ocean, Arctic Ocean, Antarctic Ocean and the Atlantic Ocean.

Question 17.
Expand GPS.
Answer:
Global Positioning System.

Question 18.
How web-based maps are useful?
Answer:
Web-based maps provide detailed information about geographical regions and sites around the world. They offer aerial and satellite views of many places.

Question 19.
What are large scale maps?
Answer:
Large scale maps represent small areas. They can be divided into Cadastral maps and Topographical maps. Cadastral maps show the individual property. Topographical maps show detailed surface features.

Question 20.
What are small scale maps?
Answer:
Small scale maps represent large areas like World, Continents or Countries. They are of two types – Wall maps and Atlas maps.

Question 21.
What is the difference between Globe and Map?
Answer:

• Globe is a model of Earth.
• Globe is useful to study the shape of the Earth as a whole.
• We can’t see details of a country/place in the Globe.
• We can observe all particulars in Maps.
• There are separate maps like Thematic maps, Political maps and Physical maps. We can use the specific map for a particular purpose.

Question 22.
What are small scale maps?
Answer:

• Small scale maps represent large areas, i.e., World, Countries and Continents.
• They are two types: One is Wall maps and the other is Atlas maps.
• Wall maps are larger in size than the Atlas.
• Small scale maps are used for teaching.

Question 23.
Observe the picture and answer the questions.

1. Where is the school situated?
Answer:
The school is situated in between Ramapuram and Krishnapuram.

2. Where the pond is located?
Answer:
The pond is located in the North-East direction.

3. Where is the masjid located?
Answer:
The masjid is located in the North-West direction.

4. What is RS. Shown in the picture?
Answer:
It is a Railway station.

5.
What does this symbol denote?
Answer:
Broad Gauge Railway Line.

Question 24.
Based on the content or purpose maps can be classified into three types: 1. Political Map 2. Physical Map 3. Thematic Map
i) How many types of Maps are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are three types of Maps.
They are Political, Physical and Thematic Maps.

ii) What is the Political map?
Answer:
Maps showing villages, cities, towns, districts, states and countries with their boundaries are called Political Maps.

iii) What is the Physical map?
Answer:
Physical maps show physical features such as mountains, plateaus, plains, oceans, rivers, deserts, etc.

Question 25.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.

1. What is the country in the Southern direction to us?
Answer:
Sri Lanka.

2. What is the capital of Ladakh?
Answer:
Leh.

3. What is the country in the North-West direction?
Answer:
Afghanistan.

4. What is the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar islands?
Answer:
Port Blair

5. What is the capital city of Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
Bhopal.

Question 26.
Observe the symbols printed below and answer the following.

a) Draw the symbols for various religious places from the table.
Answer:

b) Write the Symbols with Letters from the table.
Answer:

c) Draw different roads.
Answer:

d) Draw any other symbol know to you.
Answer:

Question 27.
People are often using other than traditional maps comment.
Answer:
Yes. People are often using other than conventional maps. They are web-based maps. They provide detailed information about different geographical regions. They also offer aerial and satellite views of many places.

Question 28.
Do you think that India and its surrounding countries are moving friendly?
Answer:

1. Indian surrounding countries are Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar.
2. China and Pakistan are always trying to quarrel with India at the border.
3. Now, Nepal is also ready to follow the same path.
4. India always tries for peace and prosperity with border countries, but in vain.

Question 29.
Why should we appreciate the cartographers?
Answer:

• We must appreciate the cartographers for their contribution to making maps.
• Man’s thoughts are like in the story “Frog in the well”.
• People of every country thought that their country is the centre point in the world.
• When cartographers made maps, people realised the real world.

Question 30.
Read the below map and answer the following questions.

a) Name the continents that have a boundary with the Atlantic Ocean.
Answer:
North America, South America, Europe and Africa.

b) Name the Oceans that are around the poles.
Answer:

• The Arctic Ocean is around the North pole.
• The Antarctic Ocean is around the South pole.

c) What is the biggest Ocean on the Earth.
Answer:
The Pacific Ocean is the biggest ocean on Earth.

d) What are the continents that have their boundaries with the Indian Ocean?
Answer:
Africa, Asia and Australia are the continents that have their boundaries with the Indian Ocean.

e) The name of a continent and an ocean are similar, what are they?
Answer:
Ocean: Antarctic Ocean
Continent: Antarctica.

These AP 6th Class Social Important Questions 2nd Lesson Globe – Model of the Earth will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Important Questions 2nd Lesson Globe – Model of the Earth

Question 1.
What is a Globe?
Answer:
Globe is an object shaped like a ball with a map of the world on its surface, usually on a stand so that it can be turned. It is a model of the Earth. It shows the shape of the earth, land, and water, the continents and oceans and the main countries of the world.

Question 2.
When was the oldest terrestrial globe was made and by whom?
Answer:
The oldest terrestrial globe was made in 1492 by Martin Behaim.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of the globe?
Answer:
The globe is small in shape. It is convenient to carry and use, and depicts all features of the earth.

Question 4.
Does the Earth have a needle-like globe?
Answer:
No. The Earth doesn’t have a needle-like a globe.

Question 5.
What is an axis?
Answer:
A needle fixed through the globe in a tilted manner is called the axis.

Question 6.
What is the Equator?
Answer:
The imaginary line that divides the globe into two spheres is called the Equator. It is 0° latitude.

Question 7.
What are latitudes?
Answer:
The imaginary lines that are drawn parallel to the Equator are called latitudes.

Question 8.
What are longitudes?
Answer:
The lines drawn perpendicular to latitudes on the globe are called Iogitudes. These longitudes connect the North pole and South pole.

Question 9.
Basing on the equator, how many spheres the Earth was divided into? What are they?
Answer:
Basing on the equator the Earth was divided into two equal spheres. They are Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere.
Northern hemisphere: The hemisphere that lies north of the equator is the Northern hemisphere.
Southern hemisphere: The hemisphere that lies south of the equator is the Southern hemisphere.

Question 10.
What are the important latitudes in the Northern hemisphere?
Answer:
North pole (90° N), The Arctic circle (66\(\frac{1}{2}\)° N), the Tropic of Cancer (23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° N) are the important latitudes in the Northern hemisphere.

Question 11.
What are the important latitudes in the Southern hemisphere?
Answer:
South pole (90°S), The Antarctic circle (66\(\frac{1}{2}\)°S), the Tropic of Capricorn (23\(\frac{1}{2}\)°S) are the important latitudes in the Southern hemisphere.

Question 12.
Basing on prime meridian into how many spheres the Earth was divided? What are they?
Answer:
Basing on the prime meridian the Earth was divided into two equal spheres. They are Eastern Hemisphere and Western Hemisphere.
Eastern hemisphere: The hemisphere that lies east of the prime meridian is the Eastern hemisphere.
Western hemisphere: The hemisphere that lies west to the prime meridian is the West¬ern hemisphere.

Question 13.
What are the two types of lines needed to locate any point on the earth’s surface?
Answer:
Latitudes and longitudes are required to locate any point on the earth’s surface.

Question 14.
What is the earth’s rotation?
Answer:
Earth spins on its own axis from west to east. This movement is called rotation.

Question 15.
How the day and night are caused?
Answer:
Day and night are caused due to earth’s rotation. While the earth is moving on its own axis half of the earth receives Sun’s rays. It is a day for that part of the Earth. The other half of the earth will remain in dark. It is a night for that part of the earth.

Question 16.
How much time it will take for a rotation of Earth?
Answer:
For one rotation of the earth, it takes 23 hours 56 minutes and 4.09 seconds.

Question 17.
What is called revolution? How many days it will take for one revolution?
Answer:
While moving on its own axis earth also moves around the Sun. This movement is called revolution. It will take 36554 days for one revolution.

Question 18.
How do the seasons change in the Northern and Southern hemispheres?
Answer:
When the Northern Hemisphere is oriented toward the sun, that region of Earth warms because the sun’s rays fall on that part of the Earth at a more direct angle. It’s summer in Northern Hemisphere.
When the Northern Hemisphere is oriented away from the sun, the sun’s rays are: less direct, and that part of Earth cools. It’s winter in Northern Hemisphere.
Seasons in the Southern Hemisphere occur at opposite times of the year from those in the Northern Hemisphere. Northern summer = Southern winter. Northern winter = Southern summer:

Question 19.
How many days a normal year has?
Answer:
A normal year consists of 365 days.

Question 20.
What is a leap year?
Answer:
A year which consists of 366 days instead of 365 days is called a leap year. Usually, a year consists of 365 days. In a leap year, we have 29 days in February, unlike 28 days. For every four years, a leap year will come.

Question 21.
What is the summer solstice?
Answer:
The day when the Earth’s North Pole is tilted closest to the Sun is called the summer solstice. The summer solstice marks the longest day and shortest night of the year. This happens on June 21st.

Question 22.
What is the winter solstice?
Answer:
The day when the Earth’s North Pole is tilted farthest to the Sun is called the winter solstice. The winter solstice marks the longest night and shortest day of the year. This happens on December 22nd.

Question 23.
What is an Equinox?
Answer:
The day when neither the North pole nor the South pole tilted towards the Sun is called Equinox. On this day direct rays of the Sun fall on the Equator. So, the whole earth experiences equal day and night. So, it is called an Equinox. This happens on 21st March and 23rd September.

Question 24.
When does an Eclipse happen?
Answer:
We know that Earth revolves around the Sun and Moon revolves around the Earth. Sometimes while revolving, the Sun, the Moon, and the Earth come into a straight line. At that time an eclipse occurs. During the time of eclipses, it appears that a shadow is cast either on the Sun or on the Moon.

Question 25.
When does a Solar Eclipse occur?
Answer:
A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes in a direct line between the Earth and the Sun. The Moon’s shadow travels over the Earth’s surface and blocks out the Sun’s light as seen from Earth. A solar eclipse occurs only on new moon day. But not on all new moon days.

Question 26.
When does a lunar eclipse occur?
Answer:
A lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes directly behind Earth and into its shadow, This can occur only when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are exactly or very closely aligned With Earth between the other two. During a toted lunar eclipse, Earth completely blocks direct sunlight from reaching the Moon. Lunar eclipses occur only on a full moon day. But lunar eclipse does not occur on all full moon days.

Question 27.
Which eclipse occurs commonly?
Answer:
A lunar eclipse occurs commonly than a Solar eclipse.

Question 28.
Illustrate the position of the Sun, the Earth, and the Moon during each Eclipse by usingS I M I E. Explain how their positions differ.
Answer:

1. The Earth revolves around the Sun and the moon revolves around the Earth. Sometimes while revolving, the Sun, the Moon, and the Earth come into a straight line. At that time an eclipse occurs.
2. If the moon comes in between the Sun and the Earth a Solar eclipse occurs.
3. If the Earth comes in between the Sun and the Moon a Lunar eclipse occurs.

Question 29.
Write the names of imaginary lines on the Earth in their respective box:
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn, Equator, North Pole South Pole, Prrfhelongitude, Arctic Circle, Antarctic Circle.

Question 30.
In Australia, Christmas is being celebrated In summer. Why?
Answer:
Australia is located in the Southern Hemisphere. On 22nd December, the Tropic of Capricorn receives direct rays of the Sun as the South Pole tilts towards the Sun. As the Sun rays fall vertically at the Tropic of Capricorn, a larger portion of the Southern Hemisphere gets light. So, it is summer in the Southern Hemisphere. As Christmas is celebrated on December 25 it is summer in Australia.

Question 31.
If the rotation of the earth stops, what will happen?
Answer:
Because of rotation we experience day and night. If the earth doesn’t rotate there would be no day and night. The eastern hemisphere is always in the day and the western hemisphere is always in the night. The eastern hemisphere is hot as it experiences always day and cold in the western hemisphere. So it would make the planet uninhabitable.

Question 32.
How do seasons occur?
Answer:
The Earth’s movement around the sun causes seasons. During this movement, if the earth leans towards the sun summer happens. It earth leans away from the sun winter happens. In between spring and Autumn occurs.

Question 33.
How do Eclipses form?
Answer:
Earth revolves round the Sun.
The moon revolves round the Earth.
While they revolve, they come in a straight line for some time.
Either solar eclipse or lunar eclipse occurs.

Question 34.
Globe has a history. Explain in brief.
Answer:

• Globe is the model of the Earth. It is derived from the Latin word “Globus”.
• The oldest terrestrial globe was made by Martin Behaim in 1492.
• Modern looking terrestrial globe was made by Taqi AI-Din during 1950s.
• The first seamless celestial globe was made by Moghal scientists in the Jahangir period.

Question 35.
The Indian Map given below identify the latitudes and longitude of the given states.

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Karnataka
3. Jharkhand
4. Telangana
5. Uttarakhand
6. Himachal Pradesh
7. Gujarat
8. Assom
9. Madhya Pradesh

Answer:

State	Latitudes	Longitudes
Andhra Pradesh	12°41′ – 19°07′ N	77° – 84°40′ E
Karnataka	11°30′ – 18°30’ N	74° – 78°30′ E
Jharkhand	21°87′ – 25°4′ N	83°28′ – 88°02′ E
Telangana	15°46′ -19°47′ N	77°16′ – 81°43’E
Uttarakhand	28°44’ – 31°28′ N	77°35′ – 81°0r E
Himachal Pradesh	30°22′ – 33°12’N	75°45‘ – 79°04’ E
Gujarat	20°06′ – 24°42′ N	68°10′ – 74°28’E
Assom	22°19′ – 28°16’N	89°42′ – 96°30′ E
Madhya Pradesh	21 °6′ – 26°3Q’ N	74°9’ – 82°48′ E

Question 36.
What are the important longitudes on the globe?
Answer:

• 0° longitude is called Prime Meridian.
• 180° Greenwich longitude is called the International dateline.

Question 37.
Read the given picture “Revolution of the Earth and seasons and analyze it.

Answer:

• The picture indicates the Earth’s revolution around Sun.
• The fixed orbit of the Earth is elliptical in shape.
• Day and Night are equal (Equinox) on 21st March and 23rd September.
• Seasons occur due to Earth’s revolution.
• Seasons are not common for the whole earth, but it differs between Hemispheres.

Question 38.
Name the countries to spread both the Hemisphere.
Answer:
Countries spread both in Northern & Southern Hemisphere

1. Ecuador
2. Colombia
3. Brazil
4. Gabon
5. Congo
6. the Congo Republic
7. Uganda
8. Kenya
9. Indonesia

B. Countries spread both in Northern & Southern Hemisphere.

1. U.K.
2. France
3. Spain
4. Argentina
5. Mali
6. Ghana
7. Togo
8. Burkina Faso

Question 39.
Give an example of your personal experience on the rotation of the earth.
Answer:

• Most of the important Games & Sports events were held at night.
• It is clarified by studying the rotation of the earth that those places are in the Western Hemisphere.
• The people in Western Hemisphere may also feel the same when the games are held in Eastern Hemisphere.

Question 40.
Appreciate the wonders of rotation and revolution.
Answer:

• One must appreciate scientists for finding facts on earth.
• Earth’s rotation continuously without an axis is nature’s magic.
• Earth revolution on fixed orbit for a long & limitless time without any road/way.

Question 41.
Point out the starting & ending points of latitudes and longitudes of India in the India map.
Answer:

These AP 6th Class Social Important Questions 1st Lesson Our Earth in the Solar System will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Important Questions 1st Lesson Our Earth in the Solar System

Question 1.
Why can’t we see the Moon and stars during the daytime?
Answer:
The bright light of the Sun does not allow us to see the moon and the stars during the daytime.

Question 2.
What are celestial bodies?
Answer:
The Sun, the Moon, and all those objects shining in the night sky and other bodies like the Earth are called celestial bodies.

Question 3.
What is a star?
Answer:
A celestial body that is made up of gases, and which has its own heat and light is called a star.

Question 4.
What is a planet? Give an example.
Answer:
A celestial body that does not have its own heat and light and gets them from a star is called a planet. The Earth on which we live is a planet and gets heat And light from the Sun.

Question 5.
How many galaxies does Universe contain?
Answer:
The universe contains millions of galaxies.

Question 6.
Who is the companion of the Earth?
Answer:
Moon is the companion of the Earth.

Question 7.
What is called a solar system?
Answer:
The sun, eight planets, satellites, and other celestial bodies like asteroids and meteoroids are together known as a solar system.

Question 8.
What is the source of light and heat in the solar system?
Answer:
The source of light and heat in the solar system is the Sun.

Question 9.
What is the distance of the sun from the earth?
Answer:
The sun is about 150 million kilometers away from the earth.

Question 10.
What is the speed of the light?
Answer:
3 lakhs kilometers per second is the speed of light.

Question 11.
How much time light will take to travel from Sun to the Earth?
Answer:
The light will take 8 minutes to travel from the Sun to the Earth.

Question 12.
How big is the Sun?
Answer:
Sun can include 13 lakhs Earths in it.

Question 13.
What are Constellations?
Answer:
Various patterns formed by different groups of stars in the sky are called Constellations.

Question 14.
What is Saptarshi?
Answer:
Saptarshi is one of the constellations with a group of seven stars.

Question 15.
What is an orbit?
Answer:
The fixed elongated path in which, all the 8 planets in the solar system move around the sun is called an orbit.

Question 16.
What are inner planets? What are they?
Answer:
The planets nearer to the Sun are called inner planets: They are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.

Question 17.
What are outer planets? What are they?
Answer:
The last four planets are called outer planets. They are Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.

Question 18.
Which planet is called Earth’s twin? Why?
Answer:
Venus is called Earth’s twin. Venus’s size and shape are very much similar to that of the earth. So it is called Earth’s twin.

Question 19.
Why Earth’s shape is described as a Geoid?
Answer:
The Earth is slightly flattened at the poles and bulges in the middle. So Earth shapes in described as a Geoid.

Question 20.
Why earth Is called a blue planet?
Answer:
Two third of Earth’s surface is covered by water. The earth appears blue from outer space. So the Earth is called a blue planet.

Question 21.
What are the realms of the Earth?
Answer:
The lithosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere, and biosphere are called the realms of the Earth.

Question 22.
What is the lithosphere?
Answer:
The solid outer layer of the earth which consists of rocks and soils is called the lithosphere. It is the land we live.

Question 23.
What does the hydrosphere consist of?
Answer:
Hydro means water. The hydrosphere consists of water bodies such as oceans, seas, rivers, lakes, and ice caps on mountains.

Question 24.
What is the atmosphere?
Answer:
The atmosphere is the layer of air that surrounds the Earth. Major gases like Nitrogen (78%), Oxygen (21 %), Carbon dioxide, Hydrogen, Helium, Argon, and Ozone are present in the atmosphere.

Question 25.
What is the biosphere? What does it consist of?
Answer:
All the living things that exist on the land, in the water, and in the air are together are called as Biosphere. The biosphere consists of plants animals, bacteria, and other tiny organisms.

Question 26.
What is a satellite?
Answer:
A satellite is a celestial body that moves around the planets in the same way as the planets move around the Sun.

Question 27.
Name the planets that do not have satellites.
Answer:
Mercury and Venus do not have any satellites.

Question 28.
What is the natural satellite of earth? Why moon appears big than other stars?
Answer:
Moon is the natural satellite of the Earth. It appears so big because it is nearer to our planet than other celestial bodies.

Question 29.
What are the shadows on the moon?
Answer:
Moon has mountains, plains, and depressions on its surface. These objects cast shadows, on the moon’s surface.

Question 30.
Expand ISRO.
Answer:
Indian Space Research Organisation.

Question 31.
Expand SHAR.
Answer:
Sriharikota High Altitude Range.

Question 32.
Who is Satish Dhawan?
Answer:
Satish Dhawan is a scientist and the Former Chairman of the ISRO.

Question 33.
What are asteroids?
Answer:
Apart from the stars, planets, and satellites, there are numerous tiny bodies which move around the sun are called asteroids.

Question 34.
What are meteoroids?
Answer:
The small pieces of rocks which move around the Sun are called meteoroids.

Question 35.
What is a Comet? Name one famous Comet.
Answer:
A comet is a celestial object made up of a head and a tail. Halley’s comet is one of the famous comets.

Question 36.
Explain Akash Ganga.
Answer:
A cluster of millions of stars is called Akash Ganga.

Question 37.
Why do we not fee! the heat and light of the stars, even though they are so big and hot?
Answer:
We do not feel the heat and light of the stars because they are very far away from us.

Question 38.
What is the shape of the orbits in which planets revolve around the sun?
Answer:
The orbits of planets are elliptical or elongated in shape.

Question 39.
What is the difference between the moon and INSAT?
Answer:
The moon is a natural satellite of the earth while INSAT is an artificial satellite.

Question 40.
Why do we only see one side of the Moon?
Answer:
The moon is tidally locked to the earth. The moon’s rotation on its axis is exactly the same as its orbital time around the earth. So we can see only one side of the moon ever facing the earth.

Question 41.
Write a short note on the Sun.
Answer:
The Sun is considered the head of the solar system. It is a star, although it is smaller and less bright than the other stars. It is a huge celestial body made up of extremely hot gases. It provides heat and light for the whole of the solar system. Life on the earth depends on many factors, and the sunlight is one of them. The Sun is about 150 million kilometers away from the earth.

Question 42.
Write a short note on the moon.
Answer:
The moon is the only natural satellite of our planet earth. Its diameter is just about 14th of the earth’s diameter. It is comparatively closer to the earth than all other celestial bodies. It does not support life. It moves around the earth in about 27 days and rotates ’ about its own axis in 27 days only. So we can see one side of the moon only.

Question 43.
What is a comet? Write about Halley’s comet.
Answer:
A comet is a celestial object made up of a head and a tail. Halley’s comet is one of the most famous comets. It comes close to the Earth every 76 years. It appeared in 1986 and will appear again in 2061.

Question 44.
All the celestial bodies spin in an anti-clockwise direction except two planets. What are they?
Answer:
Venus and Uranus are the two planets that spin around in a clockwise direction.

Question 45.
From where does the earth get light and heat?
Answer:
The earth gets light and heat from the Sun.

Question 46.
Who is the first man to step on the moon?
Answer:
Neil Armstrong, an American was the first man to step on the surface of the moon on 21st July 1969.

Question 47.
Where is ISRO located?
Answer:
Isro is located in Sriharikota in the SPSR Nellore district.

Question 48.
How did dead people in olden times determine the directions?
Answer:
People in olden times determined directions with the help of stars.

Question 49.
Who determined the directions with the help of north star?
Answer:
In the olden days, people in the northern hemisphere determined the directions with the help of the north star. With the help of the north star, they determine the north direction. It always remains in the same direction in the sky. It is also called the pole star.

Question 50.
What is the difference between Asteroids and Meteoroids?
Answer:
Asteroids are large rocky objects in space, in orbit around the Sun. Meteoroids are much smaller rocks or particles in orbit around the Sun. Sometimes these Meteoroids come near the Earth and tend to drop upon it.

Question 51.
What exists between inner planets and outer planets?
Answer:
An asteroid belt exists in between the inner planets and the outer planets. It separates the inner planets and the outer planets.

Question 52.
Is there any other planet that looks like Earth?
Answer:
Venus looks like Earth because of its shape and size.

Question 53.
Show the time needed for one orbit around the sun, one spin on the axis of all planets of the Solar Family.
Answer:

Name of the Planet	One orbit around the sun	One spin on the axis
Mercury	88 days	59 days
Venus	225 days	243 days
Earth	365\(\frac{1}{4}\) days	1 day
Mars	687 days	1 day
Jupiter	11 years, 11 months	9 hours, 56 minutes
Saturn	29 years, 5 months	10 hours 40 minutes
Uranus	84 years	17 hours, 14 minutes
Neptune	164 years	16 years, 7 minutes.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Important Questions 22nd Lesson Rulers and Buildings

Question 1.
Describe the main features of the ‘trabeate’ or ‘corbelled’ style of architecture.
Answer:
Between the seventh and tenth centuries, architects started adding more rooms, doors, and windows to buildings. Making large rooms with an elaborate superstructure requires more sophisticated skills. Roofs, doors, and windows were still made by placing a horizontal beam across two vertical columns, a style of architecture called trabeate or corbelled style of architecture. Between the eighth and thirteenth centuries, the trabeate style was used in the construction of temples, mosques, tombs, and in buildings attached to large stepped – wells.

Question 2.
What are the two technological and stylistic developments?
Answer:
Two technological and stylistic developments are noticeable from the twelfth century.

1. Arcuate style of architecture: The weight of the superstructure above the doors and windows was sometimes carried by arches. The roofs too used this principle and was converted into vaults and domes. This architectural firm is called ‘arcuate’.
2. Use of Limestone Cement: Limestone cement was increasingly in the construction of heavy and large structures. This was very high-quality cement, which, when mixed with stone chips hardened into concrete. This made the construction of large structures easier and faster. Arches, domes, and limestone mortar were used extensively in buildings after 1190 A.D.

Question 3.
Describe the plan of the temples of the Chandela dynasty?
Answer:
To begin with, an ornamented gateway led to an entrance and the main hall (mahamandapa) where dances were performed. The image of the chief deity was kept in the main shrine (garbha griha). This was the place for ritual worship where only the king, his immediate family, and priests gathered.

Question 4.
What are the main characteristics of the Vijayanagara style of architecture?
Answer:
Vijayanagara kings wanted their architecture to reflect all the important imperial build¬ing traditions. They followed the architectural styles of Cholas and Pandyas. This included vimanas and the gopurams y/hich were built on a scale and height. The first floor of the gopuram was built of solid granite and the upper floors were built of brick and sunnam. Other distinctive features include mandapas or pavilions and long pillared corridors that often ran around the shrines within the temple complex. They built secular royal buildings modeled on the style and techniques of the sultanate architecture.

Question 5.
Look at the following picture.

Now answer the following questions:
a. What does the picture show?
Answer:
The riverfront garden city of Agra.

b. Which river is flowing through the city?
Answer:
The Yamuna.

c. Which great monument is shown in the picture?
Answer:
The Taj Mahal.

d. Whose garden palaces are shown in the map?
Answer:
Garden palaces of the nobles.

e. Can you locate the Taj Mahal in the picture?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 6.
Describe the arcuate style of architecture.
Answer:
The weight of the superstructure above the doors and windows was sometimes carried by arches. The roofs too used this principle and were converted into vaults and domes. This architectural firm is called the ‘arcuate’ style of architecture. This style is used from the twelfth century.

Question 7.
How were the tallest – shikhara constructed by using heavy stones?
Answer:
Constructing tall Shikharas was not easy because there were no cranes in those days and the 90 tonne stone for the top of the shikhara was too heavy to lift manually. So the architects built an inclined path to the top of the temple, placed the boulder on rollers, and rolled it all the way to the top. The path started more than four kilometers away so that it would not be too steep. This path was dismantled after the temple was constructed.

Question 8.
Study the following table.

Style of the architecture	Characteristics	Used in
Trabeate (or) corbelled	A roof can be made by placing a horizontal beam across two vertical columns, a style of ‘ architecture is called trabeate or corbelled.	in the construction of temples, mosques and tombs.
Arcuate style	The weight of the superstructure above the doors and windows was sometimes carried by arches. The roofs used this principle and was converted into vaults and domes. This architectural form is called arcuate’.	in constructing roofs and domes.
Imperial style of the Vijayanagara period.	The Vijayanagara style of architecture had been developed by using the techniques of Chola and Pandya styles. This included Vimanas and Gopurams. Towers on the central shrines were dwarfed. Other distinctive features of this style include mandapas or pavilions and long pillared corridors that often ran around the shrines within the temple complex.	in building Gopurams, Vimanas and Mandapas of the temple.

Now answer the following questions:
a. Write the characteristic of trabeate style of architecture.
Answer:
A roof can be made by placing a horizontal beam across two vertical columns. This style of architecture is called trabeate or corbelled type of architecture. This style is used in the construction of temples, mosques, and tombs.

b. Write the characteristics of Arcuate style of architecture.
Answer:
The weight of the superstructure above the doors and windows was sometimes carried by arches. The roofs too used this principle and were converted into vaults and domes. This architectural form is called ‘Arcuate’. This is used in constructing roofs and domes of temples and mosques.

c. Write about the imperial style of Vijayanagara period.
Answer:
The Vijayanagara style of architecture had been developed by using the techniques of Chola and Pandyan styles. This included Vimanas and Gopurams. Towers on the central shrines were dwarfed other distinctive features of this style include mandapams or pavilions and long pillared corridors that ran around the shrines with in the temple complex.

Question 9.
Read the following passage.
Temples and mosques were beautifully constructed because they were places of worship. They were also meant to demonstrate the power, wealth and devotion of the patron. Take the example of the Rajarajeshvara temple. An inscription mentions that it was built by King Rajarajadeva for the worship of his god, Rajarajeshvara. Notice how the name of the ruler and the god are very similar. The king took the god’s name because it was auspicious and he wanted to appear like a god. Through the rituals of worship in the temple, one god (Rajarajadeva) honored another (Rajarajeshvara).
Now answer the following questions.
a. Why were the temples and mosques constructed beautifully?
Answer:
Temples and mosques were built beautifully because they were places of worship.

b. What were the beautiful temples and mosques meant to?
Answer:
Temples and mosques were meant to demonstrate the power, wealth and devotion of the patron.

c. Who built the Rajarajesvara temple?
Answer:
The King Rajarajadeva built Rajarajeshvara temple.

d. Why did King Rajaraja take the name of God?
Answer:
King Rajarajadeva took the name of God – Rajarajesvara because it was auspicious and he wanted to appear like a god.

e. Who were the two gods mentioned in the passage?
Answer:
The Lord Rajarajeshvara and the King Rajarajadeva who himself wanted to appear like a god.

Question 10.
Read the following passage :
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni was a contemporary of Rajendra I. During his campaigns in the subcontinent, he also attacked the temples of defeated kings and looted their wealth and idols. Sultan Mahmud was not a very important ruler at that time. But by destroying temples – especially the one at Somnath – he tried to win credit as a great hero of Islam. In the political culture of the Middle Ages, most rulers displayed their political might and military success by attacking and looting the places of worship of defeated rulers.
Now answer the following questions.
a. Which Chola ruler was the contemporary of Rajendra I?
Answer:
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni

b. What is called the Subcontinent?
Answer:
India.

c. Why did Mahmud of Ghazni destroy temples?
Answer:
To win credit as a great hero of Islam.

d. What was the prevalent political culture of the middle ages?
Answer:
To display their political might and military success by attacking and looting the places of worship.

e. Who looted the Somanath temple?
Answer:
Mahmud of Ghazni.

Question 11.
Read the following passage:
The city of Vijayanagara was developed by the Rayas to act as the imperial capital of the entire South India. Thus they wanted it to reflect all the important imperial building traditions. They built large temples for Sri Virupaksha, Ramachandra, Krishna, and Vitthala using a style that had been developed by Chola and Pandya emperors% of Tamil Nadu. This included the Vimanas and the Gopurams. The Rayas paid special attention to the Gopurams which were now built on d scale and height as drivers before. It consisted of a first floor usually built of solid granite and a series of upper. floors made of brick and sunnam.
Now answer the following questions.
a. Which city was developed as the imperial capital of the entire South India?
Answer:
Vijayanagara.

b. What were the temples built by Vijayanagara Kings?
Answer:
Sri Virupaksha, Ramachandra, Krishna and Vitthala.

c. Whose style of architecture was used by the Vijayanagara Kings?
Answer:
Chola and Pandya styles of Architecture.

d. Which elements of Chola and Pandyan style of architecture did Vijayanagara kings use in building temples?
Answer:
Vimanas and Gopurams?

e. What, were Gopurams?
Answer:
Gopurams were the towering gateways of the temples.

Question 12.
Read the following passage.
The most impressive remain of Vijayanagara, the Mahanavami Dibba is a very high platform, of 55 feet that is as tall as a five-floor building and 11000 feet in area. Its height was increased at least three times during two hundred years. The sides of the platform were covered with sculptures of various kinds. It did not have a complete building on the top. The platform Was covered by cloth shamiana or pandal sup¬ported by wooden pillars. On this platform, the Vijayanagara kings held their Navaratri Puja and held their Dussera court in which all their subordinate chiefs, nayakas and officers paid their tributes to the Emperor. Ambassadors from Europe and other sultan¬ates also attended the festival.
Now answer the following questions.
a. What was the most impressive remain of the Vijayanagara Kingdom?
Answer:
Mahanavami Dibba.

b. Why was it called ‘dibba’?
Answer:
Because it was built on a high platform of 55 feet.

c. How did Vijayanagara used this dibba for?
Answer:
The Vijayanagara Kings used this dibba for performing Navaratri puja and held Dussera court.

d. Who paid tributes during the Dussera court?
Answer:
Subordinate chiefs, nayakas and officers paid their tributes to the Emperor.

e. What were the sides of the platform covered with?
Answer:
The sides of the platform were covered with sculptures of various kinds.

Question 13.
Read the following passage.
Under the Mughals, architecture became more complex. Mughal emperors were per¬sonally interested in literature, art and architecture. In his autobiography, Babur described his interest in planning and laying out formal gardens, placed within rectangular walled enclosures and divided into four quarters by artificial channels.
These gardens were called chahar baghs, four gardens, because of their symmetrical division into quarters. Beginning with Akbar, some of the most beautiful chahar baghs were constructed by Jahangir and Shah Jahan in Kashmir, Agra, and Delhi.
Now answer the following questions.
a. What were Mughal emperors interested in?
Answer:
The Mughal emperors were interested in literature, art and architecture.

b. What was Babur interested in?
Answer:
Babur was interested in planning and laying out formal gardens.

c. What are Chahar baghs’?
Answer:
Formal gardens are placed within rectangular walled enclosures and divided into four quarters by artificial channels. These gardens were called Chahar bagh, four gardens.

d. Why are chahar baghs called so?
Answer:
These gardens were called Chahar bagh “four gardens, because of their symmetrical division into quarters.

e. Where did Mughal emperors construct Chahar baghs?
Answer:
Chahar bags were constructed in Kashmir, Agra, and Delhi by Akbar, Jahangir, and Kashmir.

Question 14.
Read the following passage.
Qutb Minor is five stories high. The band of inscriptions you see is under its first balcony. The first floor was constructed by Qutbuddin Aybak and the rest by Iltutmish around 1229. Over the years it was damaged by lightning and earthquakes and repaired by later kings.
Now answer the following questions.
a. How tall is Qutub Minor?
Answer:
Qutub Minar is five storeys high.

b. Who started the construction of Qutb Minar?
Answer:
Qutbuddin Aybak.

c. Who completed the construction of Qutb Minar?
Answer:
Iltutmish.

d. When was the construction of Qutub Minar completed?
Answer:
In 1229 A.D.

e. What damaged Qutb Minar?
Answer:
Qutb Minar was damaged by lightning and earthquakes.

Question 15.
Read the following passage.
Muslim Sultans and Badshahs did not claim to be incarnations of god but Persian court chronicles described the Sultan as the “Shadow of God”. An inscription in the Delhi mosque explained that God chose Alauddin as a king because he had the qualities of Moses and Solomon, the great law-givers of the past. The greatest law¬giver and architect was God himself. He created the world out of chaos and introduced order and symmetry.
Now answer the following questions.
a. What was it that described the Sultan as the: “Shadow of God”?
Answer:
The Persian court chronicles.

b. Did the Muslim Sultans and Badshahs claim themselves to be the incarnations of God?
Answer:
No.

c. Why did God choose Allauddin as a king according to the inscription in the Delhi mosque?
Answer:
Because he had the qualities of Moses and Solomon.

d. Who were Moses and Solomon?
Answer:
The great law-givers of the past.

e. Who is actually the greatest lawgiver and architect?
Answer:
God himself.

Question 16.
Read the following passage.
In the early ninth century, when the Pandyan king Shrimara Shrivallabha invaded Sri Lanka and defeated the king, Sena I (831-851), the Buddhist monk and chronicler Dhammakitti noted: “he removed all the valuables … The statue of the Buddha made entirely of gold in the Jewel Palace… and the golden images in the various monasteries – all these he seized. ” The blow to the pride of the Sinhalese ruler had to be avenged and the next Sinhalese ruler, Sena II, ordered his general to invade ‘Madurai, the capital of the Pandyas. The Buddhist chronicler noted that the expedition made a special effort to find and restore the gold statue of the Buddha.
Now answer the following questions.
a. Which Pandyan King invaded Srilanka?
Answer:
Shrimara Shrivallabha.

b. Who did Shrimara Srivallabha defeat?
Answer:
Sena I.

c. Who was Dhamma kitti?
Answer:
A Buddhist monk and chronicler.

d. What are the values to seized by Shrivallabha?
Answer:
The Golden statue of Buddha and the Golden images.

e. How was the golden statue of Buddha recaptured by the Sinhalese?
Answer:
According to Dhammakitti, the expedition led by Sena II made a special effort to find and restore the golden statue of the Buddha.

Question 17.
Read the following passage.
Shah Jahan adapted the river-front garden in the layout of the Taj Mahal, the grand¬est architectural accomplishment of his reign. Here the white marble mausoleum was placed on a terrace by the edge of the river and the garden was to its South. The new city of Shahjahanabad that he constructed in Delhi, the imperial palace commanded the riverfront. Only especially favoured nobles – like his eldest son Dora Shukoh – were given access to the river. All others had to construct their homes in She city away from the River Yamuna.
Now answer the following questions.
a. What did Shah Jahan adapt in the layout of the Taj Mahal?
Answer:
The riverfront gardens.

b. What was the grandest architectural accomplishment of Shah -Jahan’s reign?
Answer:
The Taj Mahal.

c. What is referred to as *White marble mausoleum9 in the above passage?
Answer:
The Taj Mahal.

d. Who constructed the new Shah Jahanabad?
Answer:
Shah Jahan.

e. Who was Dara Shukoh?
Answer:
Shahjahan’s eldest son.

Question 18.
An Inscription in Shah Jahan’s diwan – i – khas in Delhi stated: “If there is Paradise on Earth, It is here, It is here. It is here”, How was this Image created?
Answer:
The ceremonial halls of the public and private audience – diwan – i – khas or diwan – i – aam were carefully planned. These courts were also described as chihil sutun or forty-pillared halls, placed within a large courtyard. Thus the beautiful courtyards, carefully planned halls with different elements of Mughal architecture Shah Jahan’s biwan – i – khas (or) diwan – i – aam were called the paradises on earth.

Question 19.
Look at the picture.

Now answer the following questions.
a. What does the above picture show?
Answer:
The above picture shows the plan of the temple of the Chandala dynasty.

b. How many main parts are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are three main parts in the plan – They are

1. ornamented gateway,
2. Maha mandapa and
3. Garbhagriha.

c. Locate the Mahamandapa on the map.
Answer:

d. Locate the garbhagriha in the map.
Answer:

e. Locate the ornamented gateway.
Answer:

Question 20.
Look at the picture.

Now answer the following questions.
a. What does the above picture show?
Answer:
The plan of the Jami Masjid.

b. Who built this structure?
Answer:
Shah Jahan.

c. Where was it built?
Answer:
At Shahjahanabad.

d. What was special about this?
Answer:
Qibla was built in direction of Mecca.

e. Which Masjid was shown in the picture?
Answer:
Jami Masjid.

AP 7th Class Social Important Questions

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Important Questions 21st Lesson Devotional Paths to the Divine

Question 1.
What were the major ideas expressed by Basavanna?
Answer:
The connection between the bhakti movement and temple worship in turn lead to a reaction that was best represented in the Virashaiva movement. It was initiated by Basavanna. This movement began in Karnataka in the mid-twelfth century The major ideas expressed by Basavanna were,

• the Virashaivas argued strongly for the equality of all human beings.
• they were against scriptural ideas about caste and the treatment of women.
• they were also against all forms of ritual and idol worship.

Question 2.
Discuss the ideas of the saints of Maharashtra?
Answer:
The ideas of the saints of the Maharashtra were :

1. They rejected all forms of ritualism, outward display of piety and social differences based on birth.
2. They rejected the idea of renunciation.
3. They insisted that bhakti lay in sharing others’ pain.

Question 3.
Study the following table.

Religious group	Their teachings and beliefs
Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis	1)    They criticized rituals and other aspects of conventional religion and social order. 2)    They advocated renunciation of the world. 3)    They believed salvation lay in meditation on the formless ultimate. 4)    To achieve salvation they advocated intense training of the mind and the body through practices like yogasanas breathing exercises and meditation.
The saints of Maharashtra	1)    They rejected all forms of ritualism, outward display of piety. 2)    They opposed social differences based on birth. 3)    They rejected the idea of renunciation. 4)    They insisted that bhakti lay in sharing others’ pain.
The Sufi saints	1)    The sufis rejected outward religiosity. 2)    They emphasized love and devotion to God and compassion towards all fellow human beings. 3)    They rejected the elaborate rituals and codes of behavior demanded by Muslim religious scholars. 4)    They sought union with God. 5)    They believed that the heart can be trained to look at the world in a different way.

Now answer the following questions.
a. Write about the teachings and beliefs of Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis.
Answer:

1. They criticized rituals and other aspects of conventional religion and social order.
2. They advocated renunciation of the world.
3. They believed that salvation lay in meditation on the formless ultimate.
4. To achieve salvation they advocated intense training of the mind and the body through practices like yogasanas, breathing exercises, and meditation.

b. What were the prevalent religious and social beliefs opposed by the saints of Maharashtra?
Answer:

1. The saints of Maharashtra rejected all forms of ritualism. The outward display of piety.
2. They opposed social differences based on birth.
3. They rejected the idea of renunciation.

c. What were the teachings of Sufi Saints?
Answer:

1. The Sufis rejected outward religiosity.
2. They emphasized love and devotion to God and compassion towards all fellow human beings.
3. They rejected the elaborate rituals and codes of behavior demanded by Muslim religious scholars.
4. They sought union with God.
5. They believed that the heart can be trained to look at the world in a different way.

Question 4.
Study the following table.

Name of the Saint	His teachings and beliefs
Basavanna	1)      He argued strongly for the equality of all human beings 2)      He was against the scriptural ideas about caste and the treatment of women. 3)      He was against all forms of ritual and ritual and idol worship.
Kabir	1)      He rejected the major religious traditions. 2)      He openly ridiculed all forms of external worship of both Hinduism and Islam. 3)      He ridiculed the pre-eminence of the priestly classes and caste system. 4)      He believed in a formless Supreme God. 5)      He preached that the only path to salvation was through bhakti or devotion.
Guru Nanak	1)   He emphasized the importance of worship of one God. 2)    He insisted that caste, creed, or gender are irrelevant for attaining liberation. 3)    He emphasized right worship, the welfare of others, and purity of conduct. 4)    Guru Nanak’s idea of equality had social and political implications.

a. What were the views of Basavanna, Kabir, and Gurunanak about the caste?
Answer:
Basavanna strongly argued for the equality of all human beings. Kabir ridiculed the pre-eminence of priestly classes and the caste system. Guru Nanak insisted that greed and gender are irrelevant for attaining liberation. Thus all the three saints criticized the caste in pits prevalent form and proposed suggestions to reform it.

b. Write about the religious beliefs of Basavanna, Kabir, and Guru Nanak?
Answer:
Basavanna was against all forms of rituals and idol worship Kabir openly ridiculed all forms of external worship of both the Hindus and Muslims. He believed in a formless Supreme God. He preached that the only path to salvation was through bhakti or devotion. Guru Nanak emphasized the importance of worship of one god.

c. What were the views of Kabir and Guru Nanak about liberation and salvation?
Answer:
Kabir preached that the only path to salvation was through bhakti or devotion. Nanak insisted that caste, creed, and gender are irrelevant for attaining liberation.

Question 5.
Study the following table.

Name of the Saint	Lived in	Doctrine Propounded	Teachings
Ramanujacharya	11th Century	Visishtadvaita or qualified monotheism	The best means of attaining salvation was through intense devotion to Vishnu.
Basavanna	Twelfth-Century	Virashaivism	Equality of all human beings and against scriptural ideas about caste and the treatment of women. He was against all forms of ritual and idol worship.
Kabir	Sixteenth Century		He ridiculed all forms of external worship of both Hinduism and Islam. He rejected the pre-eminence of priestly classes and the caste system.

Now answer the following questions.
a. What was the doctrine propounded by Ramanuja?
Answer:
Visishtadvaita

b. Who propounded the doctrine of Virashaivism?
Answer:
Basavanna

c. Who advocated the equality of all human beings?
Answer:
Basavanna

d. Who criticized all forms of external worship of both Hinduism and Islam?
Answer:
Kabir

e. Who believed that the best means of attaining salvation was through intense\devotion of Vishnu?
Answer:
Ramanujacharya

Question 6.
Read the following passage.
Ramanujacharya born in South India in the eleventh century was deeply influenced by the Alvars. According to him the best means of attaining salvation was through intense devotion of Vishnu. Vishnu in His grace helps the devotee to attain the bliss of union with Him. Ramanuja also ensured a place for people of lower castes in temple worship. He propounded the doctrine of Vishishtadvaita or qualified oneness according to which the soul even when united with the Supreme God remained distinct. Ramanuja’s doctrine greatly inspired the new strand of bhakti, which developed in north India subsequently.
Now answer the following questions.
a. By whose teachings were Ramanujacharya influenced?
Answer:
Ramanujacharya was influenced by Alvar’s teachings.

b. What was the best means of attaining salvation according to Ramanujacharya?
Answer:
Intense devotion to Vishnu was the best means of attaining salvation according to Ramanujacharya.

c. What was the doctrine propounded by Ramanujacharya?
Answer:
Visishtadvaita.

d. What does Visishtadvaita means?
Answer:
Visishtadvaita means the soul even when united with the Supreme God remained distinct.

e. What is the other name of Visishtadvaita?
Answer:
Qualified oneness.

Question 7.
Read the following passage.
From the thirteenth to the seventeenth centuries Maharashtra saw a great number of saint-poets, whose songs in simple Marathi continue to inspire people. The most important among them were Jnaneshwar, Namdev, Eknath, and Tukaram as well as women like Sakkubai and the family of Chokhamela, who belonged to the “untouchable ” Mahar caste. This regional tradition of bhakti focused on the Vitthala (a form of Vishnu) temple in Pandharpur, as well as on the notion of a personal god residing in the hearts of all people.
Now answer the following questions.
a. In which language did the saints of Maharashtra preach their teachings?
Answer:
Marathi

b. Name some important saints of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Jnaneshwar, Namdev, Eknath and Tukaram, Sakkubai, and the family of Chokhamela.

c. Which saint of Maharashtra belonged to the untouchable Mahar caste?
Answer:
Chokhamela

d. What was the center of the Marathi Bhakti movement?
Answer:
Vithala

e. Which form of Vishnu is mentioned in the above passage?
Answer:
Vithala

Question 8.
Read the following passage.
Many religious groups of this period criticized the ritual and other aspects of conventional religion and the social order, using simple, logical arguments. Among them were the Nathpanthis, Siddhacharas, and Yogis. They advocated renunciation of the world. To them, the path to salvation lay in meditation on the formless Ultimate Reality and the realization of oneness with it. To achieve this they advocated intense training of the mind and body through practices like yogasanas, breathing exercises, and meditation. These groups became particularly popular among low castes. Their criticism of conventional religion created the ground for devotional religion to become a popular force in northern India.
Now answer the following questions.
a. What were the prevalent social and religious conditions criticized by the religious groups?
Answer:
The rituals and other aspects of conventional religion and the social order.

b. Name some religious groups that emerged during the medieval period.
Answer:
The Nathpanthis, Siddhacharas, and Yogis.

c. What was the path of salvation according to Siddhacharas?
Answer:
Meditation on the formless ultimate Reality and the realization of oneness With it.

d. What were the practices advocated by Siddhacharas to achieve salvation?
Answer:
Practices like Yogasanas breathing exercises and meditation are the methods advocated by Siddhacharas to achieve salvation.

e. What created the ground for devotional religion, a popular force?
Answer:
The criticism of conventional religion by Siddhacharas, Nathpanthis, and Yogis created the ground for devotional religion.

Question 9.
Read the following passage.
Like the saint-poets, the Sufis too composed poems expressing their feelings, and a rich literature in prose, including anecdotes and fables, developed around them. Among the great Sufis of Central Asia were Ghazzali, Rumi, and Sadi. Like the Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis, the Sufis too believed that the heart can be trained to look at the world in a different way. They developed elaborate methods of training using zikr (chanting of a name or sacred formula), contemplation, sama (singing), raqs (dancing), discussion of parables, breath control, etc. under the guidance of a master or pir. Thus emerged the silsilas, a genealogy of Sufi teachers, each following a slightly different method (tariqa) of instruction and ritual practice.
Now answer the following questions.
a. Write the names of great Sufi saints of Central Asia.
Answer:
Ghazzali, Rumi, and Sadi were the great Sufi saints of Central Asia.

b. Write at least two comparisons between the Sufis and Nathpanthis, Siddhas and Yogis.
Answer:
a) Like the Saint – poets the Sufis too composed poems expressing their feelings,
b) Like the Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis, the Sufis too believed that the heart can be trained to look at the world in a different way.

c. What were the methods developed by Suits to train the heart?
Answer:
Zikr, Contemplation, Sama, Raqs, discussion of parables, breath control, etc., were the methods developed by Sufis to train the heart.

d. What are silsilas?
Answer:
A genealogy of Sufi teachers.

e. Who guides the people in methods of training heart?
Answer:
Pir, the master guides the people in methods of training heart.

Question 10.
Read the following passage.
These saints – poets rejected all forms of ritualism, outward display of piety, and social differences based on birth. In fact, they even rejected the idea of renunciation and preferred to live with their families, earning their livelihood like any other person, while humbly serving fellow human beings in need. A new humanist idea emerged as they insisted that bhakti lay in sharing other’s pain. As the famous Gujarati saint Narsi Mehta said, “Vaishnavas are those who understand the pain of others”.
Now answer the following questions :
a. Who were the saint poets mentioned in the passage?
Answer:
The saint poets were Jnaneshwar; Namdevi, Eknath, and Tukaram.

b. What were the unscrupulous religious practices rejected by the saint poets?
Answer:
Expensive rituals, outward, display piety and social differences based on birth.

c. Were these saint poets complete Sanyasis?
Answer:
No. They did not renounce but they preferred to live with their families earning their livelihood like any other person.

d. What was the humanist idea that emerged during the times of saints?
Answer:
“To humble serve the fellow human beings in need’ was the humanist idea that emerged during the saints of poets.

e. Who was Narsi Mehta?
Answer:
A famous Gujarati saint.

Question 11.
What do you think were the existing religious and social conditions that caused the outbreak of the Bhakti movement?
Answer:
In the medieval period, society was under the burden of evil social practices such as casteism. Untouchability, the dominance of priestly class over the people of other castes. So the saints of Bhakti wanted to reform the society. Therefore they argued strongly for the equality of all human beings and questioned the relevance of scriptural ideas about the caste. There were so many unscrupulous religious beliefs challenged by the saints of Bhakti. Idol worship, polytheism evil aspects of conventional religion expensive rituals, external worship, pre-eminence of the priestly classes, orthodox customs and beliefs, outward display of piety were the unscrupulous religious practices the saints of Bhakti wanted to do away with.
These social and religious conditions caused the outbreak of the bhakti movement.

Question 12.
What were the prevalent social evils and unscrupulous religious beliefs the saints of bhakti wanted to be reformed?
Answer:
The social evils that the saints of bhakti wanted to reform are:

1. untouchability and
2. casteism.

Almost all the saints opposed casteism and they criticized social differences based on birth. They opposed the pre-eminence of the priestly classes. Thus the saints argued strongly for the equality of all human beings.
The prevalent unscrupulous religious beliefs challenged by the saints of bhakti were (a) Idol worship (b) rituals (c) outward display of piety (d) narrow and unscrupulous aspects of conventional religion (e) polytheism.

Question 13.
Visit any dargahs, gurudwaras, or temples associated with saints of the bhakti tradition and describe what you saw and heard about them.
Answer:
Student Activity.

Question 14.
Get information about other works of the saint-poets mentioned in this chapter. Sing those songs in your school programs.
Answer:
Student Activity.

AP 7th Class Social Important Questions

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Important Questions 20th Lesson Folk Religion

Question 1.
Who are the Popular deities and when and by whom are they worshipped?
Answer:
Pochamma, Maisamma, Ganganamma, Yellamma, and Paidithalli are folk goddesses. Potharaju Beerappa and Katamaraju are folk gods.
Folk gods and goddesses belong to particular castes or even particular villages or even particular families. Many of the folk gods and goddesses were actually local heroes who either died fighting for the defense of their people or were themselves wronged by the powerful people of their times. Common people believed that such persons attained special powers to help people or cause problems if not worshipped. So people worship these folk gods and goddesses for good crops, for keeping away infectious diseases and evils from their families, for guarding the boundaries of the villages, and will not allow any disease or evil or enter the village.

Question 2.
How did Sammakka and Sarakka become folk goddesses?
Answer:
Medaraju was a tribal chief who was under the Kakatiya kings. His wife was Sammakka and their daughter was Sarakka and their son was Jampanna. He had a son-in-law named Pagididda Raju. Once due to drought, he could not pay the tribute to the Kakatiya king who sent his army against Medaraju. Medaraju’s entire family led the men and women of the tribe in the fierce battle. All of them got killed in the battle Jampana also fought bravely till his last breath and died in ‘Sampenga Vaagu’ to prevent the Kakatiya army from crossing the stream. Hence it is known as Jampanna vaagu. Sammakka and Sarakka fought against the army and sacrificed their lives for the sake of their tribe. From then onwards the tribal people of the entire region venerated them for their courage and sacrifice and to this, they celebrate the Medaram Jatara in their honour.

Question 3.
How do new technologies influence the devotee’s experience of their village deities?
Answer:
The new technologies influence the devotee’s experience of their village deities. People now use music players to play songs; at times they even play cinema songs based on village deities. Tube lights and coloured bulbs add glitter to the celebration Television and Newsprint media are giving a lot of advertisements to the village Jataras. Sometimes the local channels telecast the celebrations live. Sometimes the celebrations which attract the devotees in crores from all over the state are telecast in main channels all over the state.
Thus the new technologies give the devotees a novel experience of their village deities.

Question 4.
Which goddesses are worshipped in your area?
Answer:
In our area goddesses Ganganamma, Poleramma, Renuka, Ankamma, Perantalamma and Maddi Ravamma are worshipped.

Question 5.
Which gods are worshipped in your area?
Answer:
Potharaju and Madaru Sahib are worshipped in our area.

Question 6.
Which saints, pirs and Babas have you seen your family pay their respects to?
Answer:
In our area, people worship saints such as Brahmam guru, Yogi Vemana, the saints of Vaishnava- the Alvars are worshipped. In our area – Babas such as Shirdi Sai Baba, Puttaparthi Satya Sai Baba are worshipped.
In our area, people go to different dargahs. People visit and pay respects to Baba Mastanvali Dargah at Guntur; Baji baba at Peda Kakani and Kaleshavali Dargah at Kasmuru of Nellore district.

Question 7.
Which animals and trees have you seen people worship?
Answer:
I have seen people worship the animals – snake (Nagendra Swami); Dog (Kala Bhairava); Ox (Basavanna / Nandi); Gow (Gomatha).
I have seen the people worship trees such as – Tulasi, Neem and Peepal trees in our area.

Question 8.
Do you know how people worship?
Answer:
In the villages on special occasions, people of all castes go to the shrine with bonalu. They wash the deity and clean the shrine area. People pray to god/goddess in their own language according to their customs and traditions. They offer a part of the bonam and sometimes also offer a chicken or sheep.

Question 9.
How are the deities worshipped and who does they worship?
Answer:
People who are facing problems, who have been falling ill repeatedly worship the goddesses. They would offer her special worship to appease her. They offer bonalu and sacrifice a cock to the goddess.

Question 10.
In which languages are the deities addressed by the worshippers?
Answer:
The worshippers use their own language to address the deities. Like in the temples of main deities they don’t use any Sanskrit mantras and chantings.

Question 11.
Read the following passage:
Maisamma: She is believed to protect the cattle. Among the cattle sheds, a niche is whitewashed and decorated with “Kumkuma ” and called ‘Maisamma Goodu ’. In many places, Katta-Maisamma is also worshipped as a goddess of water and is worshipped in the form of a small stone on the tank bund. People believe that she will ensure that the tank is full. Thus, due to her blessings the crops flourish.
Now answer the following questions :
a. Which deity is talked about in the above passage?
Answer:
Maisamma.

b. What is called Maisamma goodu?
Answer:
The whitewashed and decorated with Kumkuma in the cattle she discalled “Maisamma goodu”.

c. Which goddess blesses the people with good crop?
Answer:
Katta Maisamma.

d. Which goddess protects cattle?
Answer:
Maisamma.

Question 12.
Read the following passage:
Yellamma: Yellamma is also called Polimeramma, ‘Mariaemma ’ ‘Renuka ’Mahankali,
Jogamma, Somalamma and other names. It is believed that she guards the boundaries of the village and will not allow any disease or evil to enter the village. People mainly pray to her to prevent epidemics like cholera.
Now answer the following questions:
a. Which deity is being talked about in the above passage?
Answer:
Yellamma.

b. What are the other names of Yellamma?
Answer:
The other names of Yellamma are Polimeramma. Mariaemma, Renuka, Mahankali, Jogamma, Somalamma.

c. Who guards the boundaries of the village?
Answer:
Yellamma.

d. What do the people mainly worship Yellamma for?
Answer:
People mainly pray for Yellamma to prevent epidemics like cholera.

Question 13.
Read the following passage:
Many of the folk gods and goddesses were actually local heroes who either died fighting for the defence of their people or were themselves wronged by the powerful people of their times. Common people believed that such persons attained special powers to help people or cause problems if not worshipped. Two such folk heroes who laid down their lives in defence of the tribal people were Sarakka and Sammakka in whose honour a Jatara is
conducted.
Now answer the following questions :

a. Who were folk gods and goddesses actually?
Answer:
The folk gods and goddesses were actually the local heroes who either died fighting for the defence of their people or were themselves wronged by the powerful people of their times.

b. What was the common belief about the heroes?
Answer:
The common belief was that the heroes attained special powers to help people or cause problems if not worshipped.

c. Name the goddesses who laid down their lives in defence of the tribal people.
Answer:
Sarakka and Sammakka.

d. On whose honour a Jatara is celebrated?
Answer:
Sammakka and Sarakka.

e. What would happen if folk deities were not worshipped according to the common belief?
Answer:
They would cause problems.

Question 14.
Read the following passage :
It is a celebration by the tribal people of Taadwai mandal in Warangal District at Medaram village. People from Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Chattisgarh and Jharkhand assemble to celebrate the jatara. Nearly one crore people attend it.
Now answer the following questions:

a. Which celebration is being talked about in the above passage?
Answer:
Medaram jatara.

b. Where is the jatara celebrated?
Answer:
At Medaram, in Taadwai Mandal of Warangal district.

c. Which celebration is considered the largest Jatara in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Medaram Jatara

d. Where do the people come from to attend the jatara?
Answer:
People from Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Chattisgarh, Jharkhand assemble to attend the jatara.

Question 15.
Study the following table.

1.	Medaram jatara	at Medaram village in Taadwai Mandal of Warangal district.	The Medaram Jatara is organised every two years. This is a three day fair. Sammakka and Sarakka are formless goddesses. Caskets representing them are brought from the forests in an elaborate procession, brightly decorated and placed on the platform under a tree. At that time devotees feel the spirits or goddess has taken possession of them. The people offer Bangaram Jaggery to the goddess.
2.	Urs	At Ameenpeer Dargah, in Y.S.R. Kadapa district.	Ameenpeer Dargah in Y.S.R Kadapa District, Khajapeerullah Hussaini’s tomb was founded around 400 years ago. In memory of his great-grandson, Syed Shah, Arifullah Hussainy, Urs is celebrated for seven days in which both Hindus and Muslims participate. Offerings of sandalwood paste (Gandhapu Chandanam) on the first day, ‘Chadar’ on the second day and ‘Mushaira’ on the third day take place in this seven day Urs in a grand manner. Qawwali programme is held on both nights.

Now answer the following questions.
a. Describe how medaram Jatara is celebrated.
Answer:
It’s a celebration by the tribal people of Taadwai mandal in Warangal district at Medaram village.
The Medaram Jatara is organised every two years. This is a three day fair. Sammakka and Sarakka are the formless goddesses. Caskets representing them are brought from the forests in an elaborate procession, gaily decorated and placed on the platform under a tree. At that time devotees feel the spirits or goddess has taken possession of them. The people offer Bangaram, Jaggery to the goddess.

b. Describe how Urs is celebrated.
Answer:
Ameenpeer Dargah in Y.S.R Kadapa district, Khajapeerullah Hussaini tomb was founded around 400 years ago. In memory of his great-grandson, Syed Shah Arifullah Hussainy Urs is celebrated for seven days in which both Hindus and Muslims participate. Offerings of sandalwood paste (Gandhapu Chandanam) on the first day, ‘Chadar’ offer on the second day and ‘Mushaira’ on the third day take place in this seven day Urs in a grand manner. Qawwali programme is held on both nights.

Question 16.
In these times of heavy rural migration to cities, what happens to the rural migrant’s relation to the village deity after the people move to the cities?
Answer:
In these times of heavy rural migration to cities to the rural migrant’s relation to the village, deity has been decreasing. After they migrated to cities people don’t get any regular employment. They end up as casual labours or domestic workers. They struggle to make both ends meet. Facing such economic hardships, the people don’t have any time and money to go back to their village to celebrate the rituals of the village deities.

Question 17.
Locate the following places in the map given below:

1. Rayalaseema
2. Palanadu
3. North Andhra

Answer:

Question 18.
Animals buffaloes, in many cases, are usually sacrificed for the village deities. What are the possible consequences of the ban on animal slaughter?
Answer:
As a law of nature, we can kill those animals which we eat. For other purposes, for entertainment, hunting and for sacrifices we should not kill animals. It is a crime. If the ban on animal slaughter is strictly executed, it is better for society. In fact, laws and Acts stay on paper, still, these practices will continue. Because the governments are apathetic to interfere with religious practices. But with the awareness campaigns by the intellectuals and N.G.Os and with the teachings of Mahatma Gandhi and Ambedkar the buffalo sacrifice is on the decline.

Question 19.
Gel detailed information from your grandparents about any Jatara in your area. Prepare a report.
Answer:
Student Activity.

Question 20.
Collect stories and songs about any of the folk deities of your area and prepare a small booklet about it.
Answer:
Student Activity

Question 21.
Write about a Jatara or Urs celebrated by the people together in your area.
Answer:
I went to Venkatagiri in the Nellore district to visit Poleramma Jatara.
It is celebrated with great pomp and show. Thousands of devotees from far and near made a beeline to the handloom town to witness the centenary year celebrations organised by the Endowments department in veneration of the goddess in keeping with the tradition.
People offering prayers to the beautifully decorated idol of the goddess. This Jatara is celebrated for two days. All people participated and worship goddess Poleramma in a devotional manner.

AP 7th Class Social Important Questions

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Important Questions 19th Lesson Livelihood and Struggles of Urban Workers

Question 1.
The details of workers in a paper mill are given in the table below. Study the table and answer the following questions.

Nature of Employment	Nature of Work	Monthly Salary	Other Benefits	Number of  Workers
Permanent	Technical work	15,000	Provident fund. Free medical facility, paid leave, Bonus	1800
Contractual	Unloading wood, packing and loading paper	8,000	Get work throughout the year. May become permanent worker after 3 years	1000
Casual	Cleaning the floors, Pasting labels on paper packets.	2,500	Nil	500

a) How is the nature of the work of a permanent worker different from a contractual worker?
Answer:
The permanent worker is using his mental labour. But contract worker is using his physical labour.

b) How are contractual workers different from casual workers in terms of “Other benefits”?
Answer:
Contract labour job may or may not become permanent after 3 years.
But permanent worker enjoys all benefits along with the permanent job.

c) Why do you think a large number of workers in the mill are not permanent? Explain briefly.
Answer:
Skilled labour is need throughout the year. But unskilled labour is needed whenever the work is there. So companies appoint more labour temporarily why because if ‘ the worker is temporary in manner, there is no need to provide all facilities. This is the benefit to the owner.

Question 2.
Read the table and answer the following questions.

i) Write any two facilities of contract labour.
Answer:

1. Security in working place.
2. Formation of unions.
3. Temporary employment.

ii) Which type of workers get paid holiday?
Answer:
Permanent workers.

iii) How can you. say the permanent worker get better facilities than oil…
Answer:
According to the above information maximum, all facilities are enjoyed by the permanent worker.

iv) What do you understand about daily labour?
Answer:
Daily labour enjoys only temporary employment if he did not do the work, not gaining any wage.

Question 3.
What rights and securities have the workers been fighting for?
Answer:

1. Right to Productive and Safe Employment.
2. Right to Leisure and Rest.
3. Right to Employment Security.
4. Income Security.
5. Work Security.
6. Skill Improvement.
7. Collective Voice so that they can form unions to express their problems and needs.

Question 4.
Who are called regular workers and who are called contract or casual workers?
Answer:
Workers in the factories who are properly registered with the government and who are provided security and workers’ rights under the laws of the government are called regular workers.
Workers in factories, registered and unregistered with the government; and who are not provided security and worker’s rights and who have not been given basic needs of the workers are called casual or contract workers.

Question 5.
What are the benefits available to the permanent workers?
Answer:

1. Their wages were fixed through agreements with the union.
2. Medical facilities through employees State Insurance and Provident Fund are provided for the permanent workers.
3. Health checkups in big private hospitals and leave in case workers become sick are provided for the workers.
4. Educational allowance for their children, travelling allowance and conveyance allowance for the workers are given.
5. Companies provide quarters for the workers to live in.
6. They will be given loans when needed.
7. The company also provide training for workers.
8. Contract workers should be regularised after a definite period of work.

Question 6.
What is the difference between a permanent worker and a badli worker?
Answer:
Workers who are employed permanently, who are provided with regular and high wages and whose employment is secured, and who can enjoy all the facilities such as Provident Fund, Employees State Insurance and all types of allowances are called permanent workers.
Workers who are employed on a casual basis, who replaced permanent workers in their absence, are called badli workers. They get very little salary and very few benefits like Provident Fund and Health Insurance etc.,

Question 7.
Describe the process of making bricks.
Answer:

1. Clay is to be prepared by mixing sand, clay and water.
2. Clay is to be put in brick moulds.
3. Once the clay is shaped into bricks, they are to be smoothened and the seal of the brick company is to be fixed on the bricks.
4. They are allowed to dry and then loaded on bullock carts and taken to kilns for baking.

Question 8.
What kind of machines tools and sources of power are used in brick production?
Answer:
Any machines and tools are not used in brick making except the moulds to shape the clay into bricks. No power is used for making bricks. Only the muscle power of the workers is used for mixing the clay, shaping the clay into bricks by using moulds. In all levels of brick making, no machinery is used. For transport of the clay, sand and dried bricks to the kilns, bullock carts or tractors are used.

Question 9.
Describe a lot of brick workers.
Answer:

1. The workers have to work for 14 to 16 hours a day.
2. They are paid Rs. 108 per 1000 bricks. They normally manage to make about 1000 bricks a day.
3. If they are ill they are not paid anything.
4. Most of the days they don’t get proper feed to eat-they neither have the time nor the money for it.
5. Their children don’t get any education.
6. Though the government frees from their bonded labour they are forced to come back to the kilns since they don’t have any employment opportunities at their home.
7. There are no trade unions that fight for their rights.

Question 10.
Read the following passage.
Over the last two hundred years, workers all over the world have fought to get these rights recognised even though they may not be implemented in all places. In most countries, the governments have agreed that these are the basic needs of workers and made laws that ensure workers these rights. Governments also have Labour Departments which have the responsibility to ensure that these laws are followed. If the laws are not followed workers can file cases in courts.
Now answer the following questions.
a. What did the workers all over the world fight for?
Answer:
To get their rights recognised

b. Are the rights of the workers being implemented everywhere?
Answer:
No. Not in all places

c. What are considered the basic needs by the governments?
Answer:
The rights of the workers are considered as basic needs by the governments.

d. What did the governments do?
Answer:
The governments made laws that ensure workers these rights.

e. Which department has the responsibility to ensure that their laws are followed?
Answer:
The labour department.

Question 11.
Read the following passage:
In our country, we find that many factories which are properly registered with the government often follow many of these laws. However even they try to give these rights only to some workers who are called the ‘Regular Workers’ of the factory and not to those called ‘casual’ or ‘contract workers’ who are employed irregularly. At the same time, there are many factories that are not properly registered with the government and the government does not supervise them.
Now answer the following questions.
a. Which factories follow the laws of the workers?
Answer:
Factories registered with the government.

b. Which workers have been given the rights of the workers?
Answer:
The regular workers.

c. What kind of workers have not been given the rights of the workers?
Answer:
Casual or contract workers.

d. Which type of factory is not supervised by the government?
Answer:
The factories are not properly registered with the government.

e. Which workers are employed irregularly?
Answer:
Casual or contract labour.

Question 12.
Read the following passage:
This company (not a real name) mixes and packs medicines for another big medicine company. It employed about 118 workers of whom about 104 workers were employed as daily casual workers. That is only 14 workers were regular and permanent and were used for the skilled work of mixing the chemicals to prepare the medicine powder. They were paid about Rs. 1500 to Rs 2500 per month and had security of employment. They also got ESI and PE The remaining 104 workers who were engaged on a daily basis mainly did the packaging and labelling of the medicine. About 56 of them were women. These daily workers were engaged by a labour contractor who was told every day by the manager how many workers to engage.
Now answer the following questions.
a. Which company is talked about in the above passage?
Answer:
A multinational medicine company.

b. How many workers work in the factory in total?
Answer:
118

c. How many workers are regular and permanent workers?
Answer:
Only 14 are permanent workers.

d. How many workers are skilled labour?
Answer:
Only 14

e. What are the benefits availed by the permanent workers?
Answer:
They get Rs. 2500/- as salary, they have the security of employment. They also get ESI, medical insurance and Provident Fund.

Question 13.
Read the given passage.
A Trade Union is an organisation formed by workers to protect their interests. If every single worker has to negotiate with the employer separately, they will not be in a strong position. However, if all of them negotiate, their position will become stronger. Trade Unions negotiate on behalf of all workers with the government and the employers. They seek to ensure proper wages, other benefits and decent working conditions for their members. Collectively with their member workers, they secure social security benefits, medical facilities, houses, Provident Fund and pension. If any worker is harassed or is in need of help, the Trade Union takes up his or her cause. Unions adopt a variety of measures like negotiations, filing cases in the law courts and even strikes or stoppage of work to pressurise the employers.
Now answer the following questions :
a. What is a trade union?
Answer:
An organisation formed by workers for protecting their rights.

b. What do the trade unions work for?
Answer:
Ensuring proper wages, other benefits and decent working conditions for its number.

c. What are the measures adopted by the trade unions to pressurise the employers?
Answer:
Negotiations, filing cases in the law courts and even strikes or stoppage of work to pressurise the employers.

d. What is it that conducts negotiations with the government and employers?
Answer:
The trade union.

e. What are the social security benefits the workers should get?
Answer:
Medical facilities, houses, provident fund and pension.

Question 14.
Read the following Passage.
In Andhra Pradesh and other states of India, towns and cities are becoming bigger and bigger. People are rapidly shifting from villages to these towns. But many of them do hot get sufficient regular employment there and are doing a variety of odd jobs. They sell vegetables or other items, make and sell snacks, work in tea stalls, or small factories, stitch clothes, load and unload in markets, work as domestic maids, etc.
Many of them produce goods at home – weavings clothes, papads, pickles, doing embroidery, etc. and are engaged through the putting-out system.
Now answer the following questions:
a. Why are towns and cities becoming bigger and bigger?
Answer:
Because people are rapidly shifting from village to village.

b. Why, do the people end up as casual workers in cities?
Answer:
Because in cities they do not get any regular jobs.

c. Write some jobs that come under the informal sector.
Answer:
Selling vegetables, making snacks and selling, working in tea stalls and small factories.

d. What is the system that the workers of the informal sector are engaged through?
Answer:
Putting out system.

e. Growth of cities leads to the growth of ……….. labour in cities.
Answer:
Casual

Question 15.
Here is a bar diagram. Based on the answer the questions below:

Fill in the blanks.
i) In 2009 of all the 100 people employed ………… were causal labourers.
(54,52,57,51)
Answer:
52

ii) In 1999 of all the 100 people employed ………….. were women, casual workers.
(52, 54, 57, 51)
Answer:
54

iii) In 1993 of all the 100 people employed ………….. were men casual workers
(47, 45, 43, 48)
Answer:
43

iv) The total number of women casual labourers increased faster than male casual labourers between ………….. (a. 1993 to 1999; b. 1999 to 2009)
Answer:
a. 1993 to 1999

Question 16.
Correct the false statement,
a. The total number of casual labourers in rural Andhra Pradesh has decreased from 1993 to 2009.
Answer:
The total number of casual labourers in rural Andhra Pradesh has increased from 1993 to 2009.

b. There are more women casual labourers than male casual labours during all three years.
Answer:
The statement is true.

Question 17.
Write a short note on how gender differences are making an impact on the labour market, drawing from previous chapters as well.
Answer:
Yes. Gender differences are making a great impact on the labour market. From the above bar diagram, it is proved. There are more women casual labourers than male casual labourers during all three years. It is because the female labourers are employed at cheaper rates than the male ones. Thus the gender differences are making a great impact on the labour market.

Question 18.
Below are three pie charts of working people in the entire Andhra Pradesh, rural and urban areas. Study them and answer the questions.

a. Of all the working persons in Andhra Pradesh 45% are …………….
(self-employed, salaried, casual labourers)
Answer:
Casual labourers.

b. Of all the rural working people in Andhra Pradesh 7% are …………….
(self-employed, salaried, casual labourers)
Answer:
Salaried

c. Of all the urban working people in Andhra Pradesh 37% are ……………
(self-employed, salaried, casual labourers)
Answer:
self-employed

d. There are more …………. in the rural area than urban area (self-employed, salaried casual labourers) but there are more ………… in an urban area than rural area (self-employed; salaried; casual labourers)
Answer:
casual labourers; regular salaried workers.

e. More than half of the rural population are …………. (self-employed, salaried, casual labourers)
Answer:
casual labourers

Question 19.
Write a short note on the differences in the rural and urban contexts of employment conditions.
Answer:
a) While casual labourers are more than half of the rural population, in urban areas only 18% of casual labourers are there.
b) Whole self-employed people occupy 41% of the rural population 37% of the working persons in urban areas are self-employed.
c) While 7% of the rural working persons are regular waged / salaried workers, but in urban areas regular waged / salaried workers occupy 45% of the urban working people.
d) In urban areas skilled employment in the organised sector than in the rural areas.
e) In rural areas unskilled employment in the unorganised primary sector is more than in urban areas.

Question 20.
Why do you think people migrate for work in other distant states?
Answer:
In their own place, people may have a small plot of land, with which they cannot get on. They are in debt and on the verge of selling their land. They don’t get regular employment in their villages. Because of the closing down of the factories and mills, the workers of these factories migrate to cities and join the ranks of casual workers.

Question 21.
Which of the seven rights are available to brick kiln workers like Bandhani?
Answer:

1. Right to productive and Safe Employment: Though the brick kiln workers’ employment is productive, their employment is not safe.
2. Right to Leisure and Rest: They don’t have any Leisure and time to rest. They have to work for 14 to 16 hours a day.
3. Right to Employment Security: No. Their employment is not at all called employment in legal terms. It is called a bonded labour. Moreover, it is seasonable employment.
4. Income Security: The kiln workers do not have an adequate and regular income for taking care of the needs of their families and savings for living a dignified life in their old age.
5. Work Security: If they fall ill or meet with an accident they won’t get proper care and won’t get paid for the period of illness.
6. Skill Improvement: It is not a job in which skill is needed.
7. Collective voice: There are not trading unions that fight for their rights as they are migrant workers and spread out in a number of sites.

AP 7th Class Social Important Questions

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Important Questions 18th Lesson Caste Discrimination and the Struggle for Equality

Question 1.
Write any two measures taken by the government of Andhra Pradesh to empower women?
Answer:

1. To provide loans to women from Cooperative societies & Banks for their empower.
2. Provide 33% reservations in local educational and employment institutions.

Question 2.
Classify the given items under suitable headings matching to the person and related issues?

• Savithri Bai Phule, Narayan Guru, Bahadur Shah Jafar, Rani of Jhansi.
• Sepoys revolt, First women teacher, Social reformer who worked on the abolition of the caste system, last Mughal Emperor.
  

Answer:

S.No.	Persons	Related issues
1.	Savithri Bhai Phule	First women Teacher
2.	Jhansi Laxmi Bhai	Sepoy Revolt
3.	Narayan Guru	The social reformer who worked on the abolition of the caste system
4.	Bahadur Shah	Last Mughal Emperor

Question 3.
What is the mid-day meal programme? Can you list three benefits of this, programme?
Answer:
The government is trying to implement the equality that is guaranteed in the Constitution through laws and several schemes. The government has set up several schemes to improve the lives of communities and individuals who have been treated unequally for several centuries. One such programme is the mid-day meal programme. This programme was introduced in all government elementary schools to provide children with cooked and nutritious food. This programme has many positive effects.
Some of them are:

1. More poor children have begun enrolling and regularly attending schools,
2. This programme has also helped to reduce caste prejudices because both lower and upper caste children in schools eat this meal together.
3. A mid-day meal is prepared by the members of the women self-help groups that too from the deprived classes. Thus Dalit women have got employment with this programme.

Question 4.
Read the following passages:
“Long did we wait, but no one turned up. An hour elapsed and the station master came to enquire. He asked us for our tickets. We showed them to him. He asked us why we tarried. We told him that we were bound for Koregaon and that we were waiting for father or his servant to come, but that neither had turned up and that we did not know how to reach Koregaon. We were well-dressed children. From our dress or talk, no one \ could make out that we were children of the untouchables. Indeed the station master j was quite sure we were Brahmin children and was extremely touched at the plight in which he found us. As is usual among the Hindus, the stationmaster asked us who we j were. Without a moment’s thought, I blurted out that we were Mahars. (Mahar is one of the communities which are treated as untouchables in the Bombay Presidency.) He was stunned. His face underwent a sudden change. We could see that he was overpowered by a strange feeling of repulsion. As soon as he heard my reply, he went away to his room and we stood where we were.
Fifteen to twenty minutes elapsed; the sun was almost setting. Our father had not turned up nor had he sent his servant, and now the station master had also left us. We were quite bewildered, and the joy and happiness, which we felt at the beginning of the journey, gave way to a feeling of extreme sadness.
After half an hour the station master returned and asked us what we proposed to do. We said that if we could get a bullock-cart on hire we would go to Koregaon, and if it was not very far we would like to start straight away. There were many bullock-carts I plying for hire. But my reply to the station master that we were Mahars had gone round among the cart men and not one of them was prepared to suffer being polluted and to demean himself carrying passengers of the untouchable classes. We were prepared to pay double the fare but we found that money did not work. The station-master, who was negotiating on our behalf, stood silent, not knowing what to do.
Source: Dr B.R. Ambedkar, Writings and Speeches, Volume 12, Edited Vasant Moon,
Bombay Education Department, Govt, of Maharashtra.
Now answer the following questions:
a. Despite the children offering money the cartmen refused them. Why?
Answer:
The fact that the children belonged to the caste of Mahars had gone around the cartmen. Though the children offered money the cartmen refused them because a) they were not prepared to, suffer being polluted and to demean themselves by carrying passengers of untouchable classes, b) They feared that the upper caste people would never engage their carts if they carried the children of Mahars.

b. How did the people at the station discriminate against Dr Ambedkar and his brother?
Answer:
At the station, the station master showed no interest in them after he was told that they belonged to Mahars. He made them wait for a long time. He could not convince the cartmen to carry them in their carts to Koregaon. After they learnt that they belonged to Mahars, the cart- men refused to carry them in their carts because they were not prepared to suffer being polluted and to demean themselves by carrying the children of untouchables.

c. How do you think Dr B.R.Ambedkar felt as a child when he saw the station master’s reaction to his statement that they were Mahars?
Answer:
I don’t think Ambedkar should have repented for saying that they were Mahars when he saw the station master’s reaction. He was truthful and courageous and he knew that he would have to suffer a lot of discrimination if he revealed his caste. For the sake of convenience and comfort, he did not like to sacrifice his caste.

d. Have you ever experienced prejudice or witnessed an incident of discrimination?
Answer:
No. I have never experienced prejudice or witnessed an incident of discrimination
personally; I’ve read in newspapers that people are still showing discrimination by using special tumblers for offering water to the low caste people.

e. How did this make you feel?
Answer:
I feel very bad about this. I want to ask myself how I should feel if I were to face discrimination. I think there should not be any discrimination based on birth. It is very much insulting and hurtful. We should not violate anyone’s dignity by showing discrimination.

Question 5.
Read the following passage:
An example of Discrimination in schools
Omprakash Valmiki is a famous Dalit writer. In his autobiography, Jonathan, writes, “I had to sit away from the others in the class, and that too on the floor. The mat ran out before reaching the spot I sat on. Sometimes I would have to sit way behind everybody, right near the door sometimes they would beat me without any reason.
When he was in Class IV, the headmaster asked Omprakash to sweep the school and the playground. He writes, “The playground was way larger than my small physique could handle and in cleaning it, my back began to ache. My face was covered with dust. The dust had gone inside my mouth. The other children in my class were studying and I was sweeping. The headmaster was sitting in his room and watching me. I was not even allowed to get a drink of water. I swept the whole day,… From the doors and windows of the school rooms, the eyes of the teachers and the boys saw this spectacle. ” Omprakash was made to sweep the school and the playground for the next couple of days and this only came to an end when his father, who happened to be passing, saw his son sweeping. He confronted the teachers and then walking away from the school holding Omprakash’s hand, he said loudly for all of them to hear, “You are a teacher So I am leaving now. But remember this much Master…. (He) will study right here in this school. And not just him, but there will be more coming after him. ”
Now answer the following questions:
a. What acts of discrimination did Omprakash Valmiki face in his school?
Answer:

1. He had to sit away from the others in the class, and that too on the floor. Sometimes he would have to sit way behind everybody, right near the door.
2. He was beaten by the upper caste children without any reason.
3. He was asked to sweep all the school and the playground.
4. He was not allowed to drink water.

b. Why do you think, was Omprakash discriminated against at the school?
Answer:
Omprakash Valmiki belonged to a Dalit community that was looked down upon in those days as a lower caste. Omprakash was discriminated against because of his caste.

c. “Omprakash was made to sweep the school and the playground for the next couple of days” When did this come to an end? (or) How did his father react to seeing this?
Answer:
One day Omprakash’s father happened to be passing by and saw his son sweeping. He confronted the teachers. He took his son and walked away from the school. He was annoyed to see his son sweeping, while all the other children were listening to lessons in the classroom.

Picture Reading:

Question 6.
Observe the following photos of social reformers and write their names.

Answer:

1. Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
2. Savitri Bai Phule
3. Periyar E.V. Ramaswami
4. Sri Narayana Guru

Question 7.
Observe the following table:

S.No.	Social Reformer	Their contribution to achieving social equality
1.	Jyotirao Govindarao Phule	1)    He was the pioneer of women’s education in India. 2)    He founded the ‘Satyasodhak Samaj’ to secure human rights and social justice for low caste people.
2.	Savitri Bai Phule	1)    She devoted her life to educate Dalits. 2)    She was the pioneer of women’s education in India. 3)    She was the first headmistress of the country’s first girls’ school in Pune. 4)    She started a night school for agriculturists and labourers. 5)    She died while serving plague patients.
3.	Periyar	1)      Periyar is known as a rationalist and the leader of the lower caste movement in India. 2)    He made the people realise that all men are equal. 3)    He taught that it is the birthright of every individual to enjoy liberty and equality.
4.	Sri Narayana Guru	1)    He preached brotherhood for all. 2)    He fought against the ill effects of the caste system. 3)    He led the quiet but significant social revolution. 4)    He gave the watchwords ‘One Caste, One Religion, One God for all men.’

Now answer the following questions.
a. What was Jyotiba Phule’s contribution to achieving social equality?
Answer:
He was the pioneer of women’s education in India. He founded the ‘Satyasodhak Samaj’ to secure human rights and social justice for low caste people.

b. What was Savitri Bai Phule’s contribution to Indian society? (or)
Explain the efforts of any one of the social reformers.
Answer:
She devoted her life to educating Dalits. She was the pioneer of women’s education in India. She was the first headmistress of the country’s first girls’ school in Pune. She started a night school for agriculturists’ and labourers. She died while serving plague patients.

c. Write about Narayana Guru’s contribution to Indian society.
Answer:
He preached brotherhood for all. He fought against the ill effects of the caste system. He led the quiet but significant social revolution. He gave the watchwords ‘One Caste, One Religion, One God for all men.’

d. What was Periyar’s contribution to Indian society?
Answer:
Periyar is known as a rationalist and the leader of the lower caste movement in India. He made the people realize that all men are equal. He taught that it is the birthright of every individual to enjoy liberty and equality.

Question 8.
In what ways do you think the caste system promotes inequality among people?
Answer:

1. People who take up dignified professions are considered as higher caste people and those who take up undignified professions are called people of low caste and are treated as untouchables.
2. People of low castes are not allowed to enter temples, and the houses of the people of upper caste; their children are not allowed to sit with the children of higher caste people.
3. They are not allowed to take water from the wells.
4. This discrimination went on for ages based on the caste system. Thus the caste system promoted inequalities among people.

Question 9.
Why do you think Omprakash Valmiki was being treated unequally by his teacher and his classmates?
Answer:
Omprakash Valmiki was a Dalit by birth. Because he belonged to a lower caste, his schoolmates and teachers hurt his dignity badly and made him feel as if he was less than equal to all the other students in the school. Because of his caste, he was picked and was made to sweep the school, and he was made to sit on the floor behind all the other students in the class.

Question 10.
Find out about a government scheme in your area. What does this scheme do? To whom is this scheme intended to benefit?
Answer:
Student Activity.

Question 11.
Discuss with your parents or grandparents how the caste system functioned earlier to find out what has changed and what has not. Prepare a report and present it in the class.
Answer:
Student Activity.

AP 7th Class Social Important Questions

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Important Questions 17th Lesson Implementation of Laws in the District

Question 1.
What are the responsibilities of MRO (Tahsildar)?
Answer:

1. Mandal Revenue Officer is an officer or head of law order, land revenue, and judiciary at the Mandal level.
2. Mandal Revenue Officer keeps the records of land revenue and maps of the land showing the land owned by different people showing crops, tanks, drainages, wells, neighbouring plots, roads, hillocks, and so on.
3. Using these land records and maps the Mandal Revenue Officer settles the disputes between two individuals.
4. If anyone encroaches on the forest and the lands belonging to the government, the Mandal Revenue Officer evicts them.
5. The Mandal Revenue officer has the responsibility of updating and issuing ration cards.

Question 2.
What are the main features of the Water, Land, and Trees Protection Act of 2002?
Answer:
Some of the features of this law are:

1. Permission from Mandal Revenue Officer is essential to drill/dig a new well.
2. Specific depth and distance should be maintained between the wells to avoid unnecessary competition.
3. Steps to prevent wastage of rainwater.
4. Industrial units have wastewater treatment plants.
5. Protection of drinking water.
6. In the regions affected by groundwater depletion sand quarrying from riverbeds is prohibited.
7. Social forestry is to be taken up on large scale.
8. Cutting trees without permission is prohibited. When a tree is cut two saplings should be planted.

Question 3.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
We saw in the last lesson that there are various departments of the government to do various kinds of activities. These departments are under the control of ministers, but they have a large number of officials who carry out the orders of the government. Some of these officials are posted in the state capital like Hyderabad from where they plan the implementation in all parts of the state. At the same time, the entire state is divided into a number of districts and most departments have their offices in them for the implementation of the government’s laws and plans. There are 13 districts in Andhra Pradesh.

a. Who controls various departments?
Answer:
The ministers.

b. Who carries out the orders of the government?
Answer:
The officials.

c. Where are these officials posted to implement the decisions of the government?
Answer:
At the state capital and at the district headquarters.

d. How many districts are there in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
13

e. What is the capital of our state?
Answer:
Amaravathi.

Question 4.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
You may have noted that the Nallavaram district is divided into different mandals. There are many villages in each of these Mandate. Nallavaram is divided into many Mandate. Many villages together form a Mandal. Just like in the district headquarter there are different offices at the Mandal. There are Mandal Parishad Development Officer Revenue, Education, agriculture, and so on.
a. What is Nallavaram?
Answer:
An imaginary district.

b. What is the district divided into?
Answer:
Mandals

c. What are the mandals composed of?
Answer:
Villages.

d. Where are the different offices located at the mandal?
Answer:
At the mandal headquarters.

e. Write some offices you can have at the mandal headquarter.
Answer:
Mandal Office of Education, Mandal Agricultural Office. Mandal Revenue Office, Mandal Development Office.

f. What is the name of your mandal?
Answer:
Students Activity

g. Write any three neighboring mandals of your district.
Answer:
Students Activity

Question 5.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
After the law was passed, the government formed an authority to implement the act. It was called the Water, Land, and Trees Protection Authority or WALTA: If you look carefully, in order to implement a law like this – it is necessary that different departments of the government work together. You can note that the forest department has to be taken into account because forests are important for saving water and government departments are in charge of the industry to ensure that the factories are not polluting the water.
a. What was the law mentioned in the above passage?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh Water, Land and Trees Protection Act.

b. What is necessary to implement a law?
Answer:
The different departments working together.

c. Expand WALTA.
Answer:
Water, Land, and Tree Protection Authority.

d. What was the authority formed by the government?
Answer:
WALTA.

e. What are forests important for?
Answer:
For saving water.

Question 6.
Read the following passage.
It is important to protect the resources for the benefit and survival of the next generations. In this connection, the Government of Andhra Pradesh enacted the Andhra Pradesh Water, Land, and Trees Protection Act in 2002. It is being implemented from 19 – 04 – 2002.
a. Why is it so important to protect the resources?
Answer:
For the benefit and survival of the next generations.

b. What did the government do to protect the resources?
It enacted the Andhra Pradesh Water, Land, and Trees Protection Act

c. When was the Water, Land, and Trees Protection Act made?
Answer:
In 2002.

d. was the Water, Land, and Trees Protection Act implemented?
Answer:
From 19 – 4 – 2002.

e. What is it that is very important for the survival of the next generations?
Answer:
To protect the resources.

Question 7.
Study the following table.

Department	Subject
Ground Water Department	Registration of Rigs, Sand Mining, classification of Groundwater basins, etc.
Municipal Administration & Urban Development Department	Construction of Rain-water harvesting structures, tree planting, permission for construction of new buildings.
Mines and Geology Department	Monitoring Sand Mining in water bodies
Forest Department	Granting permission for felling trees

Now answer the following questions.
a. What are the responsibilities of the Ground Water Department?
Answer:
Registration of rigs sand mining, classification of groundwater basins is the responsibilities of the Ground Water Department.

b. Who issues permissions for new buildings?
Answer:
Municipal Administration & Urban Development Department.

c. Which department monitors sand mining in water bodies?
Answer:
Mines and Geology Department.

d. Which department grants permission for felling trees?
Answer:
Forest Department.

e. Which department does the construction of rainwater harvesting structures?
Answer:
Municipal Administration & Urban Development Department.

Question 8.
Some activities and some departments are given hereunder. Can you match them?

Activities	Departments
i) Building dams and canals	a) Civil supplies
ii) Supplying electricity to houses	b) Railways
iii) Running ration shops	c) Major irrigation
iv) Running trains	d) Revenue
v) Printing currency notes	e) Child welfare
vi) Collecting taxes from people.	f) Army
vii) Preventing child labour and educating all children.	g) Poverty Alleviation
viii) Defending the borders the country	h) Reserve Bank
ix) Identifying those below the poverty line and implementing schemes for their benefit.	i) Electricity
x) Preventing people from stealing from other people’s houses.	j) Police

Answers:
i) c
ii) i
iii) a
iv) b
v) h
vi) d
vii) e
viii) f
ix) g
x) j

Question 9.
Read the following table.

Department	Subject
Ground Water Department	Registration of Rigs, Sand Mining, classification of Groundwater basins, etc.
Municipal Administration & Urban Development Department	Construction of Rainwater harvesting structures, tree planting, permission for construction of new buildings.
Mines and Geology Department	Monitoring Sand Mining in water bodies.
Forest Department	Granting permission for felling trees.

Now answer the following questions:
a. The responsibilities of Ground Water Department is
Answer:
a) Registration of Rigs
b) Sand mining
c) Classification of groundwater basins.

b. The responsibilities of the Municipal Administration & Urban Development Department are ……………..
Answer:
a) Construction of rainwater harvesting structures.
b) Tree planting.
c) Permission for the construction of new buildings.

c. The responsibility of the Mines and Geology Department is ……………….
Answer:
Monitoring sand mining in water bodies.

d. What is the responsibility of the Forest Department?
Answer:
Granting permission for felling trees.

Question 10.
What is the need for the Water, Land, and Trees Protection Act?
Answer:
It is important to protect these resources for the benefit and survival of the next generations. In this connection, the Government of Andhra Pradesh enacted the Andhra Pradesh Water, Land, and Trees Protection Act in 2002. It is being implemented from 19-04-2002.

AP 7th Class Social Important Questions

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Important Questions 16th Lesson Making of Laws in the State Assembly

Question 1.
Expand M.L.A. and M.L.C.
Answer:
MLA – stands for Member of Legislative Assembly
MLC – stands for Member of Legislative Council.

Question 2.
The results of an assembly election in a state having 300 seats are shown in the table below.
Study the table and answer the following questions.

Political party	Number of Candidates Elected
Party A	115
Party B	80
Party C	65
Party D	40
Total	300

a) What is the minimum number of elected candidates required for a political party to form government in this state?
Answer:
Minimum 151 elected candidates are required.

b) Based on the election result which party has a better chance of forming the government? Why do you think so?
Answer:
Generally, no party has a chance to form the government because no one has more than 150 seats.

c) Give two different alternatives for the political parties that can form a coalition government in this state?
Party A – 72
Party B – 82
Party C – 66
Others – 30
Answer:
To form the coalition.
First step – party A + B + C = 115 + 80 + 65 = 260
Second step = A + B + D = 115 + 80 + 40 = 235

Question 3.
After an election, different political parties got seats as shown below:
Answer the following questions based on the above information.
a) How many seats are needed for getting a majority to form the government in the state?
Answer:
To form the government in any state a political party should have more than 50% of the total seats. So in this state, more than 125 seats are needed.

b) Which one emerged as the single largest party?
Answer:
Party B emerged as the single largest party.

c) If you were the Governor, which party would you call first to form the government?
Answer:
If I am a governor, I would call party B to form the government and say to them to show their majority in a given time.

d) Can the single largest party form the government here? If not, what can be the alternatives to form the government?
Answer:
The coalition government is the alternative form.

Question 4.
What is called manifestos?
Answer:
In elections, political parties play a major role. All political parties and candidates come out with election manifestos. These manifestos are descriptions of programs that they intend to the local context.

Question 5.
Make a list of active political parties in your area and in your state along with their symbols.
Answer:

Political Party	Symbol
Congress (I)	Palm (Hastam)
Telugu Desam Party	Cycle
Bharatiya Janata party	Lotus flower
YSR Congress Party	Fan
Communist Party of India	Sickle and Hammer
CPI (M)	Sickle
Janasena	Glass Tumbler

Question 6.
How do the assemblies make laws?
Answer:
Before a law is passed, the proposed law is called a ‘Bill’. After being passed by both the chambers and approval of the Governor it becomes a law and it is called an ‘Act’ of the state legislature.
Procedure:
The minister who brings the Bill will describe in detail the reason for the new law in the Assembly. There will be a lot of discussions and sometimes opposition from differ¬ent MLAs. There could be suggestions to improve the provisions in the Bill. A small committee is set up to discuss these suggestions. Then it will be placed before the Assembly for voting. If more than half the members of the Vidhan Sabha accept the bill it will be passed and taken to Vidhan Parishad. If the Vidhana Parishad passes it, then it will be sent to the Governor for approval. After his approval the Bill will be called an Act and published in the gazette.

Question 7.
What is the difference between the role of a ruling party MLA and an opposition Party M.L.A.?
Answer:
A ruling party MLA should be constructive in making laws. He must use his discretion to vote for legitimate laws and oppose the Illegitimate ones. He should be in a position to answer the questions of the opposition MLAs who ask about what steps have the government taken on a certain issue.
On the other hand, the opposition M.L.A. should prevent the Government from making illegitimate laws. He should check the government to make laws to favor one section of society. He should offer the government constructive suggestions. He should not unnecessarily criticize the government. He should not play politics over an important issue.

Question 8.
What do you know about Legislative Council? How is it composed?
Answer:
Legislative Council
Earlier we said Andhra Pradesh has two houses. The second house is called Legis-lative Council and was created in 2007. It is a permanent house. Members of this house are elected for 6 years, known MLAs. To contest in this house person should be above 30 years of age. It consists of 50 members.
Composition:

• 17 members (1/3) are elected by the MLAs.
• 17 members (1/3) are elected by the members who were elected to Local Bodies like panchayats and municipalities.
• 3 or 4 members (1/12) from Graduates
• 3 or 4 members (1/12) from Teachers.
• 8 members (1/6) are nominated by the Governor.

In order to make any law in the state now, it has to get the approval of both the houses.

Question 9.
Why is the system of reservation for weaker sections necessary in Assemblies? How are the constituencies reserved for the weaker sections in the Vidhan Sabha of Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
System of Reservation
It has been observed that it is very difficult for weaker sections of the population, like the Dalits or Adivasis to fight and win elections. As such very few of them get elected to the assemblies. In order to ensure that they are adequately represented in the Assemblies, the Indian Constitution reserves certain constituencies for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Reserved Constituencies in Andhra Pradesh State Legislative Assembly:
Total Number of Constituencies: 175
Constituencies Reserved for SCs: 29
Constituencies Reserved for STs: 07

Question 10.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Bill for a ban on public smoking passed
March 27: The Andhra Pradesh State Legislative Assembly on Wednesday passed a bill providing for the prohibition of smoking in places of public work or public use and in public service, vehicles. It also provides for eviction and levying of fines ranging from Rs. 100 to Rs. 1,000 on those who contravene the provisions.
Some of the concerns expressed by the opposition members include implementation of the ban on the sale of cigarettes within 100 meters of educational institutions, sale to those below 18 years, and prohibition of advertisement of cigarettes. Others spoke of the effect it would have on the livelihood of tobacco farmers and pan shop owners. The Minister allayed their apprehensions.
The Minister said the legislation was necessary for a view of the harmful effects of smoking on the health of people and in pursuance of the Supreme Court directions are given on November 2, 2001. Those contravening Sections 5,6 and 10 relating to the ban on smoking in public places and public service vehicles and display of no smoking board, would be punishable with a fine which may extend to Rs. 100 and for the second or subsequent offense with a fine of Rs. 200 which may extend to Rs. 500.

a. Newspapers are often written with the assumption that they are read by adults. So let us first find out the word meanings – eviction, allayed, apprehension, pursuance, implementation, and contravening.
Answer:
Meanings:
eviction = forcing somebody to leave a house or land especially When you have the legal right to do so
allayed = to make some feeling less strong
apprehension = worry or fear that something unpleasant may happen
pursuance = In order to do something
Implementation = Carrying out, making something that has been officially decided to start or happen
contravening = to do something that is not allowed by a law or a rule

b. In the context of the above news items fill in the following.
i) A ……………….. was passed to prohibit smoking in public places (bill, custom, law, rule)
Answer:
bill

ii) Prohibition of smoking does not include ………………. . (place of work, public vehicles, private gardens, bus stand)
Answer:
Private Gardens

iii) The legislation was in order to …………………. the directions from Supreme Court. (silence, punish, follow, dismiss).
Answer:
follow

iv) The bill was passed in the …………….. . (Supreme Court, Ministry, Collectorate, Assembly)
Answer:
Assembly

v) Does the newspaper article suggest that everyone had same opinion about the bill?
Answer:
No. some spoke of the effect it would have on the livelihood of tobacco farmers and pan shop owners.

vi) What are the provisions for punishment mentioned in the newspaper?
Answer:
The contravening sections 5, 6, and 10 of the Supreme Court directions relating to the ban on smoking in public places and public service vehicles are the provisions for punishment.

Question 11.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Bill: Before a law is passed, the proposed law is called a ‘Bill’. After being passed by both the chambers and after the approval of the Governor, it becomes a law and is called an ‘Act’ of the state legislature.
a. What is called a bill?
Answer:
Before the law is passed, the proposed law bill is called a Bill.

b. Who pays the bills?
Answer:
Both the chambers of the legislature.

c. Who will approve the bill?
Answer:
The Governor.

d. What is called an Act?
Answer:
After the approval of the Governor, the Bill is called an Act.

e. What is the difference between a Bill and Act?
Answer:
Before a law is passed, the proposed law is called a Bill. After being passed by both chambers and approved by the Governor it becomes a law and is called an Act.

Question 12.
Study the following table.

Political Party	No. of Candidates Elected
Political Party – A	102
Political Party – B	67
Political Party – C	04
Political Party – D	02
Political Party – E	00
Political Party – F	00
Political party – G	00
Political Party – H	00
Political Party -1	00
Political Party – J	00
Total	175

Now answer the following questions.
a. Which party has got the majority?
Answer:
Party A

b. Which Party has won the second largest number of Candidates?
Answer:
Party B

c. Member of which party is elected as the Chief Minister?
Answer:
Party A

d. Which party is called the opposition party?
Answer:
Party B

e. Members of which party are selected as the Cabinet?
Answer:
Party A

Question 13.
Study the following table.

Political Party	No. of Candidates Elected
Political Party – P	82
Political Party – Q	60
Political Party – R	14
Political Party – S	11
Political Party – T	04
Political Party – U	03
Political party – V	01
Total	175

Now answer the following questions.
a. What does the above table show?
Answer:
Political parties which compete in the elections and the number of seats they got in the elections. .

b. Which party has the right to form the government?
Answer:
Political party – P

c. Which party is considered as the opposition party?
Answer:
Political Party – Q

d. Member of which party becomes the Chief Minister?
Answer:
Political Party – P

Question 14.
Study the following table.

Political Party	No. of Candidates Elected
Political Party – Abed	91
Political Party – Mnop	42
Political Part – Wxyz	32
Political Party – Stuv	10
Total	175

Now answer the following questions.
a. How many total seats are there in the Assembly?
Answer:
175.

b. What is the Optimum majority the party needs to form the government?
Answer:
88 (More than half of the seats).

c. Can any party form the Government on its own?
Answer:
Abed parties can form the government.

d. If Abed got 71, and Mnop got 62, what can be the possible alternatives to form the government?
Answer:
Parties Abed and Mnop together can form the government or parties Abed and Wxyz together can form the government or parties, Mnop and Wxyz together can form the government or parties Mnop and Wxyz and Stuv together can form the Government.

e. What type of Government is possible in this context?
Answer:
The Coalition government is possible in this context.

Question 15.
Read the passage and answer the following questions.
There are 175 constituencies in the state. The number of constituencies in a state will depend upon its population. A constituency in Andhra Pradesh has about 1,70,000 voters. You may remember that all men and women of 18 years of age or above have the right to vote. They have to get their names registered as voters in the area where they live. All voters of one constituency will vote to elect one member for the Assembly.
a. Which state has 175 Constituencies?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh.

b. What do the number of constituencies in a state depend upon?
Answer:
The number of constituencies in a state will depend upon its population.

c. How many voters do a constituency in Andhra Pradesh consist of?
Answer:
A constituency in Andhra Pradesh consists of about 1,70,000 voters.

d. Who has the right to vote?
Answer:
All men and women of 18 years of age or above have the right to vote.

e. Who will elect the member of the Assembly?
Answer:
All voters of one constituency will vote to elect one number for the Assembly.

Question 16.
Read the passage and answer the following questions.
We see that political party A got the 102 seconds largest number of candidates i.e., a number of seats is considered to have got a majority. If any law has to be made they can easily get it passed as more than half the members will support it. The majority members will elect one member among themselves as their leader. He or she will be made the Chief Minister of the state by the Governor. The Chief Minister will select from among party MLAs to be ministers. Together they will be called the Cabinet (or ministry). In popular terms, the Cabinet is also called the ‘Government’. The Cabinet is responsible for the implementation of the laws, for preparing and passing new laws and welfare schemes in the Assembly.
a. Which party is considered to have got the majority?
Answer:
The party which has more than half the number of seats is considered to have got a majority.

b. Who will be made the chief minister?
Answer:
The leader of the majority party.

c. Who is called the Cabinet?
Answer:
The Chief Minister and his ministers together are called the cabinet.

d. Who nominates the Chief Minister?
Answer:
The governor nominates the Chief Minister.

e. What are the duties of the Cabinet?
Answer:
The Cabinet is responsible for the implementation of laws, for implementing development plans, and for preparing and passing new laws and welfare schemes in the assembly.

f. What is called the Cabinet?
Answer:
Ministers selected by the Chief Minister from the MLAs together called the Cabinet.

Question 17.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
This is the most important body for making the laws for the state. The Government of Andhra Pradesh which is responsible for implementing these laws and also formulating policies for the welfare of the state is largely composed of members of the Assembly. Our state Assembly has 175 members (MLAs) who are elected by the people just as panchayat members are elected.
a. What is the most important body for making the laws for the state?
Answer:
Legislative Assembly.

b. Which is responsible for implementing the laws?
Answer:
The State Government.

c. Who formulate the policies for the welfare of the state?
Answer:
The State Government.

d. How many members are there in our Assembly?
Answer:
175

e. Who elected the M.L.As?
Answer:
The people of state directly.

Question 18.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Usually, elections to the state legislative assembly are held once every five years.
Persons aspiring to become MLAs contest these elections. Various political parties field their candidates. There are also individuals who contest elections and do not belong to any political party. They are known as “Independents”. To contest elections a person should be a citizen of India and should have completed twenty-five years of age.
a. What is the term of the Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
Five years.

b. Who contest the elections?
Answer:
Persons aspiring to become M.L.As

c. Who are called independent?
Answer:
The individuals who contest elections and who do not belong to any party are called independents.

d. What are the eligible conditions for contesting elections?
Answer:
a) He should be a citizen of India.
b) He should have completed 25 years of age.

e. What is the minimum age to complete by a person to be elected as an MLA?
Answer:
25 years.

Question 19.
Some people feel that elections require spending huge amounts of money which is possible only for very rich people. Do you agree with this?
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this. Many parties which promised clean, free, and fair politics and which are assured to be uncorrupted were not able to get at least 5% of the total votes polled. Voting has today become a trade and ‘vote’ a tradable commodity. The contestants offer the most rewarding inducements to voters. People have been lured to caste their votes for mere a packet of liquor and a couple of hundred rupees. Sometimes the voters are lured with valuable rewards of Gold ornaments. Hence contesting elections re¬quires spending huge amounts of money.

Question 20.
If only rich people are able to contest elections how will it affect the decisions taken in the assembly?
Answer:
If only rich people are able to contest elections. They will generate economic distortions in the public sector by diverting public investment into capital projects where bribes and kickbacks are more plentiful They tend to be corruptive and lower the quality of the Government services and infrastructure and increases budgetary pressure on Government. The rich enter politics mainly to amass and enhance their wealth.

Question 21.
Many people feel that similar reservation of seats for women too should be ensured. What do you feel?
Answer:
India is the World’s largest democracy in the world. Even after 60 years of Independence and in spite of 15 general elections women still have a very low representation in parliament. Women comprise half of the population in India. They constitute 340 million voters out of the total electorate of 710 million in 2009. Still, they constitute a lowly 9% of the total strength of the Loksabha. The Indian constitution guarantees Gender equality in Articles 325 and 326. Patriarchal society, male domination in social and political life, violence in the form of dowry, domestic violence, and female infanticide, all these oppressive measures against women make the reservation for women in legislative Assemblies necessary. Women’s interests can never be completed by a group of men. That is why women need reservations.

Question 22.
Study the following map:

Now answer the following questions.
a. What does the map show?
Answer:
The map shows the Assembly constituencies of Andhra Pradesh.

b. How many constituencies are there in our state?
Answer:
There are 175 constituencies in our state.

c. Which district has the highest number of constituencies?
Answer:
East Godavari district has the highest number of constituencies.

d. Which district has the lowest number of constituencies?
Answer:
Vijayanagaram district has the lowest number of constituencies.

e. How many constituencies are there in each region?
Answer:
Coastal region: 123 ; Rayalaseema: 52

Question 23.
If you were to contest elections from your district, prepare an election Manifesto- your promises to the constituency people.
Answer:
If I am elected, I promise you, the people of my constituency, that I will
a) do my level best to increase the old age monthly pension from Rs. 200 to 500.
b) make arrangements, to supply drinking water to the neck and corner of my constituency.
c) Provide free education to all from KG to PG.
d) Provide a free power supply to agriculture connections. I will make arrangements to provide a continuous 8 hours supply of power to the agricultural connections.
e) Try to implement Rajiv Arogyasri efficiently to give medical aid to the poor and the needy.

Question 24.
What do you feel about voting for money or caste or out of fear? To what extent will those candidates be interested in formulating good laws and carrying out welfare programs?
Answer:
Voting has become a trade and the ‘vote’ a highly tradable commodity. Very often elections are reduced to show where those constituents who offer the most rewarding inducements and rewards to voters emerge victorious but not on merit. Such political leaders are only engaged in usurping political power and monetary benefits rather than serving the people of India and developing the nation. So I hate voting for money or caste or out of fear. It is embarrassing that billions of dollars are being spent on electing leaders who do nothing more than amassing wealth for themselves after getting elected. Such candidates will not be interested in formulating good laws and carrying out welfare programs.

Question 25.
Suppose you are a member of the Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly. Which issue will you raise for the making of law and why? Explain with example.
Answer:
If I were a member of the Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly, I would raise the groundwater level issues in my constituency. Because almost in all the delta area, the corn is being grown as a second crop in the rabi season which needs a lot of water. The crop needs at least 5 spells of watering. It causes a decrease in groundwater level to a great extent. There has been an increase in the number of bore wells. Because of the decrease in groundwater level the bore wells can not pump out the water. So the people have to walk a long distance to fetch water.
Hence I would like to raise the groundwater level issue in the Assembly and ask the government to take proper steps to increase the groundwater level.

Question 26.
What are the malpractices committed by the contestants to persuade the voters?
Answer:
The candidates may seek to influence the voters by offering money and other goods. Sometimes they may try to persuade them to vote for them because they belong to a particular caste or community. Sometimes they may also threaten the voters to vote for them only. These are the malpractices committed by the contestants to influence the voters.

Question 27.
Why do you think voting has to be kept a secret?
Answer:
We should exercise our franchise through a secret ballot system, i.e. we keep it a secret to whom we voted for. If it were not kept a secret, the poor and weak people might be attacked by the bullies, who got defeated in the election. Then it could not be a free and fair election. People have to vote in fear. Then the democracy will be meaningless. Only the people with money and muscle power will be elected.

Question 28.
Examine the photo identity card of your parents and try to prepare an imaginary identity card for yourself with all the details.
Answer:

AP 7th Class Social Important Questions