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AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 9 Rampur: A Village Economy.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the main factor of production in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
The main factor of production in the agriculture sector is land.

Question 2.
Why were usually men paid more wages than women for the same work?
Answer:

1. Because ours is a male-dominated society.
2. Women are paid less wages because of gender bias.

Question 3.
Write any two aspects of Rampur village’s economy which you like.
Answer:

1. In Rampur no land is left idle.
2. The non-agricultural sector also developed.
3. Due to the development of the transport sector, other sectors of the economy also developed.

Question 4.
What is multiple cropping?
Answer:
To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the same year is called multiple cropping.

Question 5.
What are the main non-farm production activities taking place in your region?
Answer:

1. Transportation
2. Dairy farming
3. Brick making
4. Carpentry
5. Basket making
6. Poultry
7. Shopkeeping
8. Fishing, etc.

Question 6.
Who are called as labour force?
Answer:
Labour force: People, in the age group of 15 – 59 are labour force, (or)
People who are employed are called labour force.

Question 7.
How do the small farmers procure the capital needed for farming?
Answer:
The small farmers procure the capital needed for farming by borrowing money from

1. Large farmers
2. Moneylenders
3. The traders who supply various inputs for cultivation.

Question 8.
Create a slogan on the importance of agriculture.
Answer:
Without agriculture – there is no future.
No farmer-No food.

Question 9.
Which is the main production activity in villages across India?
Answer:
Farming is the main production activity in villages across India.

Question 10.
Name any two non-farming activities in Rampur village.
Answer:
Small scale manufacturing, dairy farming, transport services, etc.

Question 11.
Who owns the majority of land in Rampur village?
Answer:
80 upper-caste families own the majority of land in Rampur village.

Question 12.
What educational facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has two primary schools and one high school.

Question 13.
What health facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has a primary health centre run by the government and one private dispensary where the sick are treated.

Question 14.
What is the main aim of production?
Answer:
The main aim of production is to produce goods and services required by the people.

Question 15.
What is a marketable surplus?
Answer:
The difference between the quantity of output that a farmer produces during a year and the quantity that he keeps with himself for his own and family’s consumption is called a marketable surplus.

Question 16.
Who are small farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own less than 2 hectares of land are known as small farmers.

Question 17.
Who are the medium farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own more than 2 hectares and less than 10 hectares of land are called medium farmers.

Question 18.
Who are large farmers?
Answer:
The farmers who own more than 10 hectares of land are known as large farmers.

Question 19.
What is the basic constraint in raising farm production?
Answer:
Land area under cultivation is the basic constraint in raising farm production because it is fixed and scarce.

Question 20.
What is the minimum wage rate for a farm labourer?
Answer:
The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is Rs. 60/- per day.

Question 21.
Which is the most abundant factor of production?
Answer:
Labour is the most abundant factor of production.

Question 22.
What do medium and large farmers do with their earnings from surplus farm produce?
Answer:
A part of the earning from surplus farm produce is saved and kept for buying capital for the next season. Another part may be utilized for lending to small farmers who require a loan.

Question 23.
How did the spread of electricity help the people of Rampur?
Answer:
a) Electricity helped farmers in running tubewells in the fields.
b) It is also used for carrying out various small scale business in the village.

Question 24.
What are the sources of irrigation?
Answer:

1. Canals
2. Tubewells
3. Tanks and
4. Rains.

Question 25.
What is fixed capital?
Answer:
Tools, machines and buildings are called ‘fixed’ capital because these can be used in production for several years.

Question 26.
What is working capital?
Answer:
Raw materials and money form part of working capital. The capital which is used for production is known as working capital.

Question 27.
Classify the capital investment on various items in production.
Answer:
There are two types of capital investments in production.

1. Physical or fixed capital
2. Working capital

Question 28.
Name the items/factors that are needed for production.
Answer:
There are four factors of production. They are:

1. land 2
2. labour
3. capital and
4. organisation.

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the aims and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers?
Answer:
The aims and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers:

1. Some more days of work.
2. Still better wages.
3. Better education to their children in the local govt, schools.
4. No social discrimination.
5. Chances of leadership activities, etc.

Question 2.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. 87% of the farmers are small farmers are holding only 48% of the cultivated land.
2. 13% are the medium and large farmers.
3. There is unequal land distribution in India.

Question 3.
Convert the information given below into a pie-chart (rough diagram). Write your observation.

Answer:
Cultivated Area

Observation: While a major part of the land (52%) is under control of medium and large farmers, minor part of land (48%) is under the control of small farmers.

Question 4.
Write a letter to the Tahasildar (MRO), explaining the problems faced by the farmers because of famine.
Answer:

Kalyandurg,
Date : xx xx xxxx.

To,
The Tahsildar,
Mandal Revenue office,
Anantapur

Sub: Problems faced by farmers due to famine – request for write off old loans.

Respected Sir,

I am from Kalyandurg I would like bring to your notice the following one and for favourable help. The rains are very less in the before year. So, crops left much loss. The farmers get into debt. They can’t repay the loans. They need money for purchasing seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and to cultivate the land. It will be highly difficult to get a loan again from bank.

Hence, I request you place it in front of the government, write – off the old loans and give them the new loans. I hope you provide immediate help to the farmers without loss to them to grow the crop this year.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
x x x x x

Question 5.
Mention the factors of production.
(OR)
Explain any one factor of production.
Answer:
Land: An area of ground, especially when used for a particular purpose such as farming or building; A necessary factor for production.
Labour: Workers especially people who do practical work with their hands.
Working capital: The requirement of raw material and money which are used up in the production cycle.
Fixed capital: Physical Capital = Tools, machine and buildings, which are not used up or consumed immediately in the production process.
Knowledge: It is essential to use all the above in a meaningful way to produce some goods or services.

Question 6.
Today, why is there a need for expansion of non-farm activities in rural areas?
Answer:
Nowadays farming is not providing regular employment to rural people and they are not getting sufficient income also. That’s why the expansion of non – farm activities in rural areas is needed. Nowadays people with some amount of capital can set up non-farm activities.

It requires very little land. Banks provide loans to self-employment purpose. People can get market facilities to sell their goods. Neighbouring towns and cities provide more demand to village goods.
Ex: Milk, jaggery, broomsticks etc.

Question 7.
How do the farmers get their capital for agriculture?
Answer:
For capital, farmers face many troubles. They get their capital by borrowing from large farmers and village money lenders. They take loans from traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. They get from banks also but very less and rare.

Question 8.
What can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in the villages?
Answer:

1. At present, non-farm production activities engage less number of people in villages.
2. Many things can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in the villages.
3. It is important to see that loan available to people, who are interested in setting up non-farm production activities, at low rate of interest.
4. It is good to have markets where these goods and services produced can be sold.
5. To connect more and more villages to towns and cities through good roads.
6. As these require little land and some capital, entrepreneurs should be encouraged.

Question 9.
Describe the work of a farmer with 1 hectare of land.
Answer:

1. The farmer with 1 hectare of land is considered as a small farmer.
2. He usually keeps large share of production for household needs.
3. He does not have much saving for capital.
4. When he thinks of inputs expenditure, he may borrow money from large farmer or moneylender.
5. In case of borrowing from large farmer, he not only pays high rate of interest but he is also forced to work as a labourer in the large farmer’s fields.
6. In case of borrowing from money lender, he has to pay high rates of interests.

Question 10.
Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, modern farming methods like the use of fertilizers, pesticides, high yielding variety of seeds, power-driven tubewells of irrigation, latest tools and implements like tractors, harvesters, threshers, etc. require more inputs which are manufactured in industry.

Question 11.
Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?
Answer:

1. It is very important to increase the area under irrigation because it is not wise to depend on monsoon rains which were uncertain and erratic.
2. To increase production we have to bring more area under irrigation.
3. It helps us to improve the farming pattern or adopt modern farming methods in those areas.

Question 12.
Give the characteristics of Rural industries.
Answer:

1. Rural industries are small scale manufacturing units.
2. They involve very simple production methods.
3. The output is very small.
4. The work is usually carried out by the members of the family.
5. The work is carried out at home and not in workshops.
6. The profits earned are also less.

Question 13.
Explain ‘Multiple Cropping’ in your own words.
Answer:

1. Growing more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as multiple cropping.
2. It is the most common and traditional practice to increase production on a given piece of land.
3. All farmers in Rampur grow at least two main crops.

Question 14.
Which changes have taken place in the way of farming practised in India?
Answer:

1. Traditional seeds have been replaced by HYVS.
2. Natural manures were replaced by chemical fertilizers.
3. Use of pesticides.
4. Use of farm machinery.
5. Use of tubewells for irrigation, instead of Persian wheels.

Question 15.
“Excessive use of chemical Fertiliser and pesticides declines the Fertility of land”.
Give your opinion on this.
Answer:

1. Experience shows fertility of the land is declining due to overuse, excessive use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides.
2. The situation of water is equally alarming.
3. Underground water tables have fallen rapidly across the country.
4. The use of natural resources also not always been judicious while increasing production.

Question 16.
“Labour in an essential item for production”. Read the statement and interpretate.
Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Question 17.
The expenditure on tools, machines and buildings is called as physical capital. Ex¬plain why.
Answer:

1. The expenditure on tools, machines and building is called physical capital.
2. They are not used up or consumed immediately in the process of production.
3. They help to produce goods over many years.
4. They require some repair and maintenance so that they remain useful and can be used year after year.
5. That is why they are called fixed or physical capital.

Question 18.
Ground-level waters are rigorously declining nationwide. Suggest some alternatives.
Answer:

1. Underground water levels are deteriorating at a faster rate throughout India.
2. To conserve water schemes like a watershed, soaking pit, check dams, afforestation, bund construction, etc., should be taken up.
3. Digging borewells should be allowed only for drinking water but not irrigation.
4. Farmers should look for alternate crops which use lesser water.

Question 19.
Name some Dairy activities in your area.
Answer:

1. Many families in my region are engaged in milk production.
2. Various types of grass, maize, bajra, etc., is used to feed the cattle.
3. Two tradesmen established milk collection and storing points.
4. Family labour and especially women take care of the rearing of animals.

Question 20.
Explain the business tactics of a small businessman in your area.
Answer:

1. Once Mr. Venkateswara Rao organised a cloth business in my region.
2. At the beginning, he used to wander every household to sell cloths and collects money weekly.
3. By conducting his business reliably and supplying quality items he became popular.
4. Later he set up his own business firm and till date it is running well.

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Based on the pie chart and the particulars given below, answer the questions.

1. Which kind of houses are more in Rampur Village?
   Answer:
   Huts and thatched houses are more in Rampur village.
2. In which category does 60% of Rampur village belong?
   Answer:
   60% of Rampur village belong to the poor class.
3. State approximately, the number of middle-class people in Rampur village.
   Answer:
   25% people of Rampur belong to the middle class.
4. Which category of people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks?
   Answer:
   Rich people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks.

Question 2.
Read the table given below and answer the following questions.

1. What are the works done only by male workers?
   Answer:
   Ploughing.
2. What are the works done only by female workers?
   Answer:
   Transplanting, Picking cotton.
3. In which works, the wages are different for male and female?
   Answer:
   Sowing, Weeding, Harvesting, Winnowing, Threshing.
4. What are the reasons for paying less wages to female workers than male workers?
   Answer:
   The concept existing in the society is that, the women do less work than men.

Question 3.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the non – farm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is essential item in production.

Conclusion: If government provides loans to landless labour for agriculture purpose, motor pumpsets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in the agricultural sector.

Question 4.
Mention the factors of production and explain any two of them.
Answer:

1. The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we want.
2. There are four requirements for the production of goods and services.

They are:

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital – (a) Physical or fixed capital (b) Working capital
4. Knowledge and enterprise

1. Land: The first requirement is land, and other natural resources such as water, forests, minerals.
It is a free gift of nature and it is neither created nor destroyed.
2. Labour: It is a factor which helps in production. There are three types of labour – skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled. Some production activities require highly educated workers to per¬form the necessary task. Other activities require manual work. Each worker provides the labour necessary for production.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Data refers to the land cultivated by farmers).

Answer:

1. The given data refers to the land cultivated by farmers.
2. As per the data, 87% of the total farmers, i.e. small farmers are cultivating only 48% of the total land.
3. The remaining 13% of the farmers are medium and large farmers. They are cultivating the remaining 52% of the land.
4. This indicates that there is no equal distribution of land among farmers.
5. I opine that the distribution of cultivated land is unequal in India.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The land is the most crucial factor necessary for farm production. Land area under cultivation, however^practically fixed. In Rampur, since 1921 there has been no expansion in land area under cultivation. By then, the nearby forests had been cleared and some of the wastelands in the village Were converted to cultivable land. There is no further scope to increase agriculture production by longing new land under cultivation.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that land is essential for agriculture.
2. The cultivable land is not expanding.
3. In some areas a few forest lands are cleared and the waste land is being converted to agriculture land. There is no other way of expansion of land.
4. My opinion is that the issue discussed in this paragraph is correct. The basic factor of production is land.
5. The population is increasing day by day.
6. The food grain production is not increasing or expanding in proportion to the population. It is the time for searching for new ways of increasing the production of food grains.
7. Green revolution is also to be encouraged.
8. Rampur village is a model for us.
9. In conclusion I would like to say that there is much land without irrigation.
10. Due to some other reasons like power cut, lack of capital, non-availability of ground water the farmers are not able to involve in farm activities.
11. The government should concentrate on these issues and try to solve them so as to increase the cultivable land and increase the food grains.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Most small farmers have to borrow money to arrange for the working capital. They borrow from large farmers or the village moneylenders or the traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. The rate of interest on such loans is very high. They are put to a great distress to repay the loan.

Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, small farmers in villages take loans from the moneylenders.
2. They don’t have sufficient capital for farming activities.
3. As they are charged a high rate of interest, they are put to distress.
4. This is the real situation of small farmers.
5. I do agree with this. My comments on this paragraph are as follows.
6. Generally, large farmers have sufficient capital for next crop.
7. Small farmers depend on others for loans.
8. The government should concentrate on providing a loan facility to the small farmers without collateral.
9. Farmers’ cooperative societies are to be encouraged.
10. Minimum facilities and needs are to be identified and fulfilled.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

There is often a loss inform activities, especially when crops are damaged because of floods, pests, etc. The other risk is sudden fall in price of agricultural produce. In such situations, farm¬ers find it difficult to recover the working capital they had spent.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given it is clearly understood that when there is a natural hazard like floods or pests the farmer’s life will be in risk.
2. In those conditions, they hardly survive.
3. Many of the farmers commit suicide because of this situation.
4. Farmers normally desire to grow more food grains.
5. They hope the yield must be more. They spend much on agriculture.
6. They depend on moneylenders for loans. Sometimes they take loans from banks also. They have to pay all these loans when the yield comes. Due to the pests, floods or drought, they don’t have money to pay the loans or for their survival.
7. Many a time, they commit suicides.
8. When they face this type of situation the government should give them a helping hand.
9. They should be saved from losing their lives.
10. New schemes should be launched for the sake of farmers who lose because of these natural hazards.

Question 9.
From your field visit find out at what rate of interest do farmers borrow when they need money for inputs. Compare with interest charged by the bank.
Answer:

1. Farmers need money for inputs like seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and repair of tools, etc.
2. Small farmers cannot mobilise that money.
3. They borrow from medium and large farmers or moneylenders.
4. They charge higher rate of interest, usually 36% per annum.
5. Whereas banks provide crop loan to farmers.
6. But banks charge only 8% per annum.
7. Thus there is great variation in the rate of interest.

Question 10.
Groundwater levels are deplected dangerously day by day. If this is continued, what would be the consequences?
Answer:

1. The groundwater levels are depleted dangerously day by day.
2. Excessive use of groundwater for irrigation and industrial purposes has resulted in a decrease of groundwater levels.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. We will face the problem of scarcity of water.
5. Water will not be available for domestic purposes also.
6. Hence we should not over-extract water from tube wells.
7. Water should be allowed to sink into the ground.
8. Under any cost we should conserve groundwater for future generations.

Question 11.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of Maharashtra
   Answer:
   Mumbai
2. The birth place of river Godavari.
   Answer:
   Triyambak
3. The birth place of river Krishna.
   Answer:
   Mahabaleswar
4. Santal tribal people are in this state.
   Answer:
   Odisha
5. Uttar Pradesh
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Jammu & Kashmir
9. Assam
10. Tripura

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Reproduction – The Generating System Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 6th Lesson Reproduction – The Generating System

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction – The Generating System Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Why do fish and frog produce a huge number of eggs each year?
Answer:

1. External fertilisation occurs in fish and frog.
2. The female lays a vast number of eggs in water and male releases some millions of sperms on to them in water.
3. Eggs may be carried to a long-distance by water currents or they may be eaten by predators.
4. So fertilisation is a chance factor and controlled by nature.
5. Fertilisation occurs externally hence it is inevitable to give rise to vast number of eggs by fish and frog.

Question 2.
Give examples and explain what is meant by external fertilisation?
Answer:

1. Fusion of the male and female gametes is called fertilisation.
2. The fertilized egg (ovum) is called zygote.
3. If the fertilisation occurs outside the body of the female organism then it is called external fertilisation.
4. External fertilisation is seen in fish, frog and earthworm, etc.

Question 3.
Write the differences between
a) Grafting – Layering b) Stamen – Carpel.
Answer:
a) Differences between Grafting and Layering.

b) Differences between Stamen and Carpel.

Question 4.
Describe the mode of fertilization in plants with a diagram.
Answer:

1. Fertilisation is the process of fusion of male and female gametes.
2. For the fusion of male and female gametes pollen grains have to reach the surface of the stigma. This is called pollination.
3. Pollen grains received by the stigma germinate and give rise to pollen tubes. Only one pollen tube finally reaches the embryo-sac.
4. This tube will have two male nuclei, which migrate to the tip of the pollen tube at the time of fertilization.
   
5. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle and discharges the two male gametes into its embryo-sac.
6. One male nucleus (n) or (gamete) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form a diploid (2n) zygote. This is first fertilisation.
7. The other male nucleus (n) or (gamete) reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) and fuses with it to form the endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization in the embryo-sac.
8. Thus double fertilisation occurs in embryo-sac which is unique in flowering plants.

Question 5.
What are the different modes of asexual reproduction? Cite them with examples.
Answer:
Asexual reproduction takes place by six different methods. They are:

1. Fission
2. Budding
3. Spore formation
4. Regeneration
5. Fragmentation and
6. Vegetative propagation.

1. Fission: Single-celled organisms split into two equal offsprings or more offsprings. Ex: Paramoecium, bacteria.

2. Budding: A growth on the body as a bud grows to form identical copy of parent. Ex: Yeast.

3. Spore formation : Spores are produced in the sporangium.
Ex : Rhizopus, mucor, bacteria, ferns and mosses.

4. Regeneration :
a) Ability of organisms to give rise to new individual organisms from their body parts.
b) That is if the individual is some how cut or broken up into many pieces, many of these pieces grow into separate individuals.
Ex: Hydra and Planaria.

5. Fragmentation:
a) In multicellular organisms with relatively simple body organisation breaks up into smaller pieces upon maturation.
b) These pieces of fragments grow into new individuals.
Ex: Flatworms, Spirogyra, moulds, lichens.

6. Parthenogenesis: In the process generally the female gametes or ova develop into zygote without fertilization.
Ex : Bees, ants and wasps.

7. Vegetative propagation: When a vegetative part like stem, root and leaf can produce a new organism it is called vegetative propagation. It is of two types.
a) Natural propagation:
Bryophyllum Dahlia, Carrot, Radish
b) Artificial propagation:
i) Layering: Eg: Nerium, Guava, Orange, Rose
ii) Cutting: Eg: Rose, Hibiscus, Sugarcane
iii) Grafting: Eg: Sapota, Guava, Mango, etc.

Question 6.
In what ways does sexual reproduction differ from asexual one? State at least three reasons.
(OR)
What are the differences between sexual and asexual reproduction?
Answer:

Apart from the above differences Sexual and Asexual reproduction differs in the following ways:

1. The unit of reproduction in sexual reproduction is gamete whereas in asexual repro-duction it may be whole parent body or bud or a fragment or a single somatic cell.
2. Sexual reproduction need more time to complete and it is less time in asexual reproduction.

Question 7.
How are sperm cells adapted for their function?
Answer:

1. Sperm cell is adapted to its function by carrying genetic information to an egg.
2. Its body consists of four parts :
   1. Head
   2. Neck
   3. Middle piece and
   4. Tail.
3. Sperm has a streamlined body that allows it to move quickly.
4. Nucleus is present in the head.
5. Special structure on the head called acrosome helps in penetrating the ovum during fertilisation.
6. The head of sperms also contain enzymes to breakdown and digest the zone on the egg through which it penetrates and fertilise it.
7. Large number of mitochondria are present in the mid-region, so it is able to produce a lot of energy in order to operate tail.
8. Its tail allows it to swim towards the egg for fertilisation.

Question 8.
The menstrual cycle prepares the uterus for a fertilised egg. How long is an average menstrual cycle from start to finish?
Answer:

1. The cycle of changes that occur in the female reproductive system is called menstrual cycle.
2. The average menstrual cycle from start to finish is 28 days long.

Question 9.
When the foetus is growing inside the uterus it needs nutrients? What provides these nutrients?
Answer:

1. When the foetus is growing inside the uterus it needs nutrients for its growth and development.
2. These nutrients are provided by the mother’s blood through a special structure called placenta.
3. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother.
4. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy and becomes an important structure for nourishment of the embryo.
5. The foetus is connected to placenta in mother’s body through umbilical cord.

Question 10.
Which type of substances are absorbed by foetus from the mother?
Answer:

1. The digested food from the mother travel through the mother’s blood stream and exchange to the blood stream of the foetus through the placenta.
2. In addition to ingested food the mother’s body continuously breakes down muscles, fat and bones.
3. Releasing proteins, fat and calcium to the mother’s blood that can be absorbed through the placenta to provide nutrients to the foetus.
4. Some hormones also transfer to baby.

Question 11.
What is the job of Amniotic sac?
Answer:

1. The amniotic sac is a bag of fluid inside a women’s womb (uterus) where the embryo and foetus develops and grows.
2. The cavity within the amnion becomes filled with fluid called amniotic fluid.
3. The embryo or unborn baby floats and moves in the amniotic fluid.
4. Amniotic sac and amniotic fluid give protection against minor mechanical injury.
5. This fluid also provides a stable temperature and assists in maintaining a consistent body temperature for the unborn child.

Question 12.
What are the advantages of sexual reproduction?
(OR)
What are uses of sexual reproduction?
Answer:
Advantages of sexual reproduction:

1. Sexual reproduction promotes diversity of characters in the offsprings by providing genetic variation.
2. It plays an important role in the origin of new species have different characters.
3. This genetic variation leads to the continuous evolution of various species to form better and still better organisms.
4. Sexual reproduction influences in diversity of characters in offsprings.
5. It helps to maintain the continuty of organisms.
6. It leads to new generation to tolerate adverse or diseased conditions.
7. It helps the spreading of population to new areas.

Question 13.
How does reproduction help in providing stability to population of species?
Answer:

1. The reproduction is directly linked to the stability of the population of species because it helps in replacing the lost or aging population with the new population and thus ensures the survival of the species.
2. The process of reproduction ensure continuity of life on earth.
3. In the absence of reproduction one particular species will disappear with time.
4. Reproduction induces variations in the population which help the population to tide over adverse environmental conditions and adapt to changing environment.
5. Reproduction also helps to generate copies of individuals which are suited to a particular environment.

Question 14.
Write the differences between mitosis and meiosis.
Answer:

Question 15.
What happens to the wall of the uterus during menstruation? (OR)
What changes occur in the wall of the uterus during menstruation?
Answer:

1. During the early stage of menstruation the cells in the wall of uterus increase in number by repeated mitotic divisions.
2. The inner lining of uterus becomes thick and soft with lot of blood capillaries in it.
3. These changes in the uterus are necessary because in case the ovum released by the ovary gets fertilised by the sperm, then the uterus has to keep this fertilised ovum for further development and supply it with food and oxygen etc.
4. If fertilisation does not occur the additional growth of the uterus is detached and expelled along with some amount of blood.

Question 16.
“All unicellular organisms undergo only mitotic cell division during favourable conditions” – Do you support this statement? Why?
Answer:

1. Unicellular organisms undergo mitotic cell division not only during favourable conditions but also in unfavourable conditions.
   So I don’t support the given statement.
2. When the organism finds favourable conditions it deserves to perform division called Fission. Ex: Amoeba.
3. Sometimes scarcity of food or to save it life, some organisms undergo mitotic cell division.
4. Organisms like paramoecium undergo a type of sexual reproduction called conjugation during unfavourable conditions.

Question 17.
What would be the consequences if there is no meiosis in organisms that reproduce sexually?
(OR)
What happens if Meiosis does not take place in reproductive cells?
Answer:

1. If meiosis did not occur, a fusion of gametes would result in a doubling of the chromosomes for each successive reproduced generation.
2. For example, in case of man egg cells and sperm cells like other cells must contain 46 chromosomes.
   
3. This results in the formation of abnormalities in each generation.
4. If meiosis did not occur, there is no genetic variation in the offsprings produced by random fusion of the gametes.
5. New characters will not appear in the offsprings.
6. The process of evolution will be stopped.

Question 18.
Vicky’s father wants to grow a single plant having two desirable characters colourful flowers and big fruits. What method will you suggest to him and why?
Answer:

1. I will suggest the method of grafting to him.
2. Grafting enables us to combine the most desirable characteristics of two plants into a single plant with colourful flowers and big fruits.
3. By grafting method, a very young scion can be made to flower and produce fruits fast when it is grafted to the stock.
4. Vicky’s father can grow one of the two plants as stock and second plant can be graft to some of its branches as scions.
5. Then he can get the plant with both the desirable characters.

Question 19.
Uproot an onion plant and take a thin section of its root tip. Stain it and observe under the microscope. Draw as you see and identify the stages of the cell division.
Answer:

Question 20.
Visit a nearby village and collect information on how farmers grow sugarcane, flowering plants like chrysanthemum, primerose and vegetables like stem tubers, plump gourd (dondakaya), etc. Make a report and present in class.
Answer:
Report on growing methods of various plants :

Question 21.
Collect the information from school library or using internet what vegetative methods are followed in your district as well as in your state to propagate various plants of economic importance. Represent it with a graph.
Answer:
Vegetative methods followed in our district as well as in our state to propagate various plants of economic importance.
I) Natural vegetative propagation: In this method of vegetative propagation, a part of the plant which may be stem, root-leaf or flower gets detached from the body of the mother plant.

1. Vegetative propagation: Roots of radish, carrot, dahlia develop adventious buds which grow into leafy shoots.
2. Vegetative propagation by stems: Stolons – Vallisneria, offsets – Eichhornia, Rhizome – Banana, Ginger Bulbs – Alliumcepa (Onion); Corn – Colacasia; Tuber – Potato.
3. Vegetative propagation by leaves: Bryophyllum.
4. Vegetative propagation by modified flowers (Bulbils): Agave.

II) Artificial vegetative propagation: Certain flowering plants have the capacity to develop a part of their somatic body into a new independent plant. In artificial vegetative propagation such plants are identified and special techniques are applied to obtain new independent plant.

1. Cutting (Stems): Sugarcane, Roses, Hibiscus, Citrus plants.
2. Cutting (Root): Lemon, Tamarind.
3. Layering: Jasmine, Strawberry, Gooseberry.
4. Grafting: Rubber, Apple, Pear, Citrus, Mango, Guava.
5. Propagation by tissue culture technique: Lily, Rose, Magnolia, Fern, Banana for micropropagation, a small amount of tissue from a suitable part of the parent plant is excised and grown on a nutrient medium under aseptic conditions.

Question 22.
Make a flow chart to show the cell cycle and explain cell division describing different stages of mitosis.
Answer:

Different stages of mitotic cell division:

Question 23.
Draw neat labelled diagrams of male and female reproductive systems of plant.
Answer:

Question 24.
Observe the following part of flowering plant and prepare a note.
Answer:
The given diagram is the structure of ovule which is present in the ovary (carpel) of plant.

1. An ovule is an egg shaped structure attached by a stalk (Funicle) to the inner side of the ovary.
2. Depending upon the species of plant involved, an ovary may have one, two, several or even hundreds of ovules.
   
3. At the centre of each ovule is a microscopic embryo sac filled with food and water.
4. The embryo-sac is composed of gametophyte cells.
5. The majority of flowering plants have an embryo sac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.
6. They are one egg (female gamete), two synergids, one central cell (secondary nucleus) and three antipodals.
7. Central cell contains two nuclei, they are called polar nuclei.

Question 25.
Prepare a flow chart to explain the process of sexual reproduction in plants
Answer:

Question 26.
Draw a neat labelled diagram to explain plant fertilisation. Write few points on Pollen grain.
Answer:

Pollen grains:

1. Pollen grains develop in anther.
2. Anther consists of spore-forming tissue. Some of the cells in the spore-forming tissue develop as pollen mother cells.
3. Each pollen mother cell undergoes meiosis to form four daughter cells which develop into pollen grains
4. Pollen grains are haploid (‘n’) and are otherwise known as microspores or male gametes.
5. They contain only one set of chromosomes (‘n’).
6. The study of pollen grain is called palynology.
7. During pollination pollen grains are dispersed by wind and insects.
8. Pollen grains are formed in large numbers. They are light in weight and are easily carried by wind currents.

Question 27.
How will you appreciate cell division that helps in perpetuation of life?
Answer:

1. Perpetuation means continuation of life.
2. The perpetuation of life is based on the cell division.
3. Both mitotic and meiotic divisions are very essential for perpetuation of life.
4. In unicellular organisms, the mitotic cell divisions form the entire organisms.
5. Mitotic division is essential for all types of asexual reproductions.
6. In sexually reproducing organisms meiotic cell division helps in formation of gametes with haploid number of chromosomes which fuses to form diploid zygote during fertilization.
7. Zygote further divides by mitosis again and grows into an embryo and then to offspring.
8. Thus both mitotic and meiotic cell divisions play a key role in perpetuation of life. Without cell division, there is no perpetuation of life.

Question 28.
What precautions will you take to keep away from various sexually transmitted?
Answer:
Precautions to be taken to keep away from various sexually transmitted diseases:

1. Avoid sex with any one who has genital sores, a rash, discharge or other symptoms.
2. The only time unprotected sex is a safe if the partners have sex only with each other.
3. I use latex condoms every time 1 participate in sex. I use it for the entire sex act.
4. I avoid sharing towels or under clothing.
5. I wash genital organ before and after intercourse.
6. I will get a vaccination for hepatitis B. This is a series of three shots.
7. I will get tested for HIV for every six months.
8. I will not drunk or take drugs. Under these conditions, I may fail to have safe sex.
9. I consider that not having sex is the only way, sure way to prevent sexually transmitted diseases.
10. Sexual act is supposed to be an act between husband and wife. Hence I will not participate in sex before marriage.
11. When I grow up and get married, I will be upright and faithful to the life partner and will not behave immorally.
12. Hence as a student I will concentrate on studies and create activities to achieve success in life.

Question 29.
Conduct a seminar on child marriages and foeticide.
Answer:
child marriages can also be defined as “any marriage carried out under the age of 18 years and involves the girl who is physically, psychologically, mentally and physiologically immature”.

Causes of Child marriages :

1. Poverty in the families due to unemployment.
2. Illiteracy among people.
3. Ignorance of consequences of child marriages.
4. Strong superstitions among people about child marriages.
5. Religious and traditions are also responsible for occurance of child marriages.

Steps to prevent Child marriages:

1. By creating awareness among the people about the ill effects of child marriages.
2. By educating the people especially in rural areas of backward districts.
3. By providing employment opportunities to all the people.
4. Performing live plays, skits and stage shows to create enlightenment among the rural illiterate women about the pathetic future of kids who are forced to get married.

Foeticide:

1. Foeticide is the illegal practice of killing a foetus. Female foeticide is prevalent in our country as a major social evil.
2. Some kinds of complications in pregnancy can also demand surgical termination of pregnancy after 8 weeks of conception.
3. This is where the abortion is legal and doctors may have to suggest for discontinuous of pregnancy for the sake of health of the mother. However the technique of surgical termination is misused by some people by getting rid of the unborn child.
4. Abortion of foetus is an act of murder. God is the author of life and nobody should have right to take it.

Choose the correct answer.

1. The part of the female reproductive system produces the eggs [ ]
A) Ovary
B) Epididymis
C) Cervix
D) Fallopian tube
Answer: A

2. The term that we use to describe a sperm cell fusing with an egg cell [ ]
A) Fragmentation
B) Fermentation
C) Fertilisation
D) Fusion
Answer: C

3. Which part of the male reproductive system produces (human) the sperm cells ? [ ]
A) Vas deference
B) Epididymis
C) Seminiferous tubules
D) Scrotum
Answer: C

4. How does the sperm break through the egg cell membrane? Choose the option you think is right.   [ ]
A) Tears a hole in the membrane
B) Dissolves the membrane with chemicals
C) Bites through the membrane with teeth
D) Squeezes through gaps in the membrane
Answer: B

5. Why are egg cells larger than sperm cells? Choose the option you think is right. [ ]
A) Egg cells have more cells in them
B) Have food store to help growth after fertilisation
C) Have thicker cell membranes
D) Have larger nuclei
Answer: B

6. Which of these things will affect the way a foetus grows? Choose the option you think is right. [ ]
A) Chemicals in cigarette smoke
B) Alcohol
C) Drugs
D) All of the above
Answer: D

7. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the human life cycle? Choose the right option. [ ]
A) Babyhood, childhood, adolescence, adulthood
B) Childhood, babyhood, adulthood, adolescence
C) Adolescence, babyhood, adulthood, childhood
D) None of the above
Answer: A

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction – The Generating System InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 117

Question 1.
How do you think bacteria were dividing to form curd?
Answer:
Curdling indicates that the increase in number of bacteria by fission.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 118

Question 2.
How do you think this process (parthenogenesis) happens?
Answer:
This process occurs by the development of female gamete or ovum directly develops into zygote without fertilisation.

Question 3.
What about animals?
Answer:

1. Normally the fertilized ovum (zygote) develops into a young one. But the unfertilized ovum also develops into a young one generally the male.
2. The process of development of young ones from unfertilized ovum is called parthenogenesis.
3. In this process sperms develop by mitotic division whereas ova develop by meiotic division.
4. This strange kind of reproduction occurs in animals like bees and wasps.

Question 4.
Is regeneration can also be known as a type of fragmentation? Do you agree? Why? Why not?
Answer:

1. Yes. I agree that regeneration could be also called as a type of fragmentation. Because in both cases pieces or parts from the body of the organism can develop into a new individual.
2. Fragmentation and regeneration occur in multicellular animals.
3. Fragmentation occurs in organisms with relatively simple body organisation.
4. Whereas regeneration occurs in organisms with fully differentiated body organisation.

Question 5.
Which type of fission would produce larger colonies in less period of time. Why?
Answer:
Multiple fission would produce larger colonies in less period of time because more number of daughter cells are formed by multiple fission.

Question 6.
Which mode of asexual reproduction provides maximum scope of choice of desirable characters?
Answer:
Parthenogenesis provides maximum scope of choice of desirable characters.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 120

Question 7.
What are the characters that would you like to select?
Answer:
The characters that I would like to select are plant with large number of fruits which are big in size and taste sweet with less or no seeds.

Question 8.
What mode of propagation would help you to produce the plants with selected characters?
Answer:
Mode of propagation that would help me to produce the plants with selected characters is grafting.

Question 9.
Whether they reproduce by budding or fission or fragmentation, organisms are copies of their parents. Is it true? Why ?
Answer:

1. Yes, it is true that organisms reproduced by budding or fission or fragmentation are copies of their parents.
2. Because budding or fission or fragments are not the methods of sexual reproduction.
3. No gametes were formed or fused in these methods.
4. Exchange of chromosomes or crossing over do not take place. Hence the offsprings produced are similar to their parents.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 122

Question 10.
Do you find any similarities between rhizopus and fern spores and sporangia?
Answer:

1. Both rhizopus and fern reproduce asexually through spores.
2. In both the spores are microscopic, unicellular bodies produced in the sporangia.

Question 11.
What about mushrooms, how do they grow? Discuss in your class.
Answer:
Fungi grow from the fragmentation of hypae. They also form buds which are bulged from out side of cells which detaches after division of the nucleus. A special reproduc¬tive sac called sporangium produces asexual spores which are released outside. Fun¬gal sexual reproduction includes plasmogamy, Karyogamy and gametangia.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 123

Question 12.
Think why testis are located outside the abdominal cavity?
Answer:
The testis are located outside the abdominal cavity because the temperature required for proper functioning of spermatogenesis is generally 2 to 3 degrees less than the body temperature,

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 127

Question 13.
What function do you think is served by petals and sepals?
Answer:

1. Calyx consists of sepals give protection to the flower particularly in bud condition.
2. Corolla consists of bright coloured petals and are useful in attracting insects for pollination.

Question 14.
Draw the diagram of the flower that you collect and label the parts shown and write their functions.
Answer:
Functions of flower parts:

1. Calyx: Consists of sepals – protects flower in bud conditions.
2. Corolla: Consists of coloured petals – helps in pollination.
3. Androecium: Consists of stamens – produce male gametes pollen grains,
4. Gynoecium: Female reproductive part – produce ovules inside the ovary. Stigma receives pollen grain.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 128

Question 15.
How does the male reproductive cell fertilise the female reproductive cell in flowers of such plants (pea plants)?
Answer:

1. In self pollinated plants anthers are usually present above the stigma.
2. Pollen from the anthers drop on the stigma.
3. A process that takes place as the flowers close for the night,
4. And sometimes occurs before they are completely developed and ready to open.
5. At the time of pollination slightest movement of the flower’s petals stimulate the stamen to dislodge its pollen and transfer it to the near by stigma in pea plant.
6. Pollination usually occurs before the flower is fully open, .

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 129

Question 16.
How many nuclei are present in the pollen grain?
Answer:
Pollen grain has two nuclei. One is called a tube cell and the another is generative cell.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 131

Question 17.
Which floral part may be seen in a fruit?
Answer:
Sometimes calyx may remain with fruit.

Question 18.
How cotyledons are useful for the plant?
Answer:

1. The cotyledons digest and absorb the endosperm.
2. They make the stored food available for the growth of the epicotyl and hypocotyl.
3. The cotyledons of some flowering plants, digest, absorb, and store the foods from the endosperm as the ovule is maturing into a seed. Eg: beans
4. As a consequence, the cotyledons become greatly enlarged because of stored food and the endosperm disappears more or less completely.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 137

Question 19.
What differences do you find in mitosis and meiosis? Write in a tabular form.
Answer:

Question 20.
What would happen if the gametes do not have half the chromosome number as the skin parent?
Answer:

1. Daughter cells formed in meiosis are gametes.
2. These gametes have half of the chromosomes in number as the parent,
3. If the gametes do not have half of the chromosomes in number as the parent, when they fuse, they form zygote with double the number of chromosomes when compared to parent cell.
4. If it continues, cells in the offspring will have thousands of chromosomes within few generations.
5. If the chromosome number increases in a species it leads to the formation of abnormalities.

Question 21.
How would it affect the progeny formed by sexual reproduction?
Answer:
If the progeny have thousands of chromosomes in them, it results in formation of abnormalities in each generation.

Question 22.
Why did the government of India fixed the legal marriage age of boys (21 years) and girls (18 years)?
Answer:

1. Government of India fixed legal marriage age of boys as 21 years, and girls as 18 years.
2. This is because teenage mothers are not prepared mentally or physically for motherhood.
3. Early marriage and motherhood cause health problems for the mother and child.
4. It may also cause mental agony, as teenage mother is not ready for responsibilities of motherhood.

Question 23.
Do you feel that it is a social responsibility to control birth after having one or two children?
Answer:

1. Yes, it is a social responsibility of every individual to control birth after having one or two children.
2. If we don’t control birth after having one or two children, population will grow rapidly.
3. If the population increases we will not be able to provide all the facilities such as education, medicine, employment etc., to all the people.
4. It shows impact on the economic conditions of the family and the society.
5. The quality of life will decrease.

Question 24.
What do you understand by the term ‘Healthy Society’?
Answer:

1. If all the people in a society are in the state of complete physical, mental and social well being, then the society is said to be healthy society.
2. To be in a healthy society, every one in the society should take care of their own personal hygiene and cleanliness of the surroundings.
3. Avoiding child marriages, unprotected sex and creating awareness among the people regarding adverse effects of these are very essential to form a healthy society.

Question 25.
Will you encourage child marriage? Why?
Answer:

1. No. I will never encourage child marriage.
2. This is because, the sexual act always has potential to lead to pregnancy.
3. In case of child marriage, the age of girls is less than 18 years and so they are not prepared mentally or physically for motherhood.
4. If they got pregnancy the health of them and their child will be affected.

Question 26.
How does HIV is transmitted?
Answer:
Hiv is transmitted by unsafe sexual contacts, using infected devices,infected blood
transfusion, from an infected mother to child, etc.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 138

Question 27.
Social discrimination against AIDS patients is also a social evil. Can you support this? Why?
Answer:

1. Yes, I will support this statement.
2. The persons suffering from HIV/AIDS are shown lot of social discrimination in the society.
3. This happens even with their own family members.
4. This is due to lack of awarness among public about spreading of disease, illiteracy misconception about AIDS.
5. If everyone knows how it will not spread they will treat HIV + ves with love and effection.
6. HIV +ves are patients. It will spread through sexual contact, blood transfusion, mother to child and not with other modes.
7. Hence they can live with us without any discrimination they need our love and family support.
8. If anybody shows discrimination, it is definitely a social evil.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 140

Question 28.
Do you think you have moral right to kill a foetus?
Answer:
No, I don’t think that we have moral right to kill a foetus. It is our social responsibility to protect the foetus.

Question 29.
Why doctors are prohibited to do sex determination through ultrasound scanping for pregnant women?
Answer:
Knowing the sex of foetus inside mother’s womb is a severe crime as per the acfmade by government. Ultrasound tests are mend to know the growing condition of the foetus and also to see whether it is suffering with severe ailments. By knowing the sex of the foetus, if it is female, people are ready for aborting it. This leads to reduction in male female ratio in the country. That’s why doctors are prohibited to do sex determination through ultrasound scanning for pregnant women.

10th Class Biology 5th Lesson Reproduction – The Generating System Activities

Activity – 1

Formation of bacterial colony in milk.
Answer:

1. Take a tea spoon full of curd and mix it thoroughly with around tea spoon full of (half of the glass) luke warm milk in a bowl.
2. Take another tea spoon full of curd and mix it with 30 tea spoon full of cold milk in another bowl,
3. Cover both the bowls and note the initial time.
4. Keep observing every hour to see whether curd has formed.
5. Curdling indicates that the increase in number of bacteria.
6. Note the time taken for formation of curd in both the bowls.

• Does it take the same time to form curd in both the bowls?
  Answer: No. Formation of curd in the bowl containing luke warm milk takes nearly 5 – 6 hours. In the second bowl in which cold milk is present no curdling took place.
• What does the time taken to form nearly 30 times the size of the bacterial colony indicate?
  Answer: Time taken to form nearly 30 times the size of the bacterial colony indicates how fast bacteria are growing.

Activity – 2

Examine Rhizopus or common mould under Microscope.
(OR)
Write the materials required and the procedure followed by you to observe Rhizopus in the lab.
(OR)
Write the procedure which you follow to observe bread-mould Sporangium m your laboratory. What precautions do you take during the activity?
(OR)
Suneetha wanted to observe Rhizopus on the piece of bread,
(i) Suggest the apparatus needed. (ii) Write the procedure to be followed.
Answer:
Aim: To grow and examine rhizopus or common mould.
Materials required: Bread, plastic bag, plain glass slide, cover slip, water, eye dropper, disposable gloves, compound microscope.
Procedure to grow mould:

1. Take a soft bread and leave it in the open for about an hour so it is exposed to contaminants in the air.
2. Place the bread in a plastic bag, sprinkle water over it, so it is damp and seal the bag living some air inside.
3. Check on the piece of bread every few days and add more water if it is becoming dried out.
4. We can find whitish thread like growth with masses of black, gray and green fine dotted structures, the black dotted structure is that of bread mould.
5. A good sample of mould may take up to two weeks to form.
6. Using this mould make a slide and observe under the microscope.

Procedure to make a slide:

1. Place a drop of water in the centre of the slide, using an eye dropper if you have one, or the tip of a clean finger.
2. Using a tooth pick, scrape some of the mould off, and place it on the drop of water.
3. Take the coverslip and set it at an angle to the slide so that one edge of it touches the water drop.
4. Then carefully lower it over the drop, so that the coverslip covers the specimen without trapping air bubbles underneath.
5. Use the corner of a tissue paper or blotting paper to blot up any excess water at the edges of the coverslip.
6. View the slide with a compound microscope, starting with a low objective.

Observations:

1. The common bread mould plant consists of fine thread like projections called hyphae and thin stems having knob like structures called sporangia.
2. Each sporangium contains hundreds of minute spores.

Precautions:

1. This should not be done by those with allergies to mould or with severe asthma.
2. Avoid opening the plastic bag as much as you can.
3. If you touch the bread, be sure to thoroughly wash your hands afterwards.

Activity – 3

Observation of pollen grain.

1. Take a slide and put a few drops of water on it.
2. Take any flower like hibiscus, tridax, marigold, etc. Tap the anther over the drop of water.
3. We will see small dot like structures in water. These are pollen grains.
4. Take permanent slide of pollen grain from your lab.
5. Also see a permanent slide of pollen grain from our lab.
6. Observe under a microscope. We will make a drawing of what we observe and compare with the given diagram.

Observation: Pollen grain germinates only on stigma. Pollen grain consists of two to three cel Is surrounded by a protective wall in Angiosperms. In gymnosperms the pollen grain consists of several living cells.

Activity – 4

Seed germination.
Answer:

1. Soak a few groundnut or bengal gram (chana) seeds overnight.
2. Drain the excess water and cover the seeds with wet cloth. Leave them for a day.
3. Keep sprinkling water at regular intervals so that they do not dry up.
4. Open the seeds carefully and observe the parts.

Observation: The seed is germinated i.e., the seed embryo is developed into seedling plumule which grows into plant.

Activity – 5

Observe different stages of mitotic cell division. (OR)
Describe various stages of mitosis with the help of neat diagrams.
Answer:

1. Take permanent slides which shows different stages of mitotic cell division from your lab kit.
2. Observe carefully under microscope.
3. Draw diagrams what you observe, and compare your observations with the following chart.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Indian Rivers and Water Resources.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. What are the twin sources of ‘Ganga’?
Answer:
The twin sources of Ganga are:

1. Bhagirathi,
2. Alakananda

Question 2.
Why are the Himalayan rivers called perennial?
Answer:
Himalayan rivers are called perennial because they flow throughout the year.

Question 3.
Suggest two activities that can be taken up so that the groundwater can be restored.
Answer:
The following activities are suggested to restore the ground water.

1. Check dams,
2. Percolation tanks,
3. Loose boulder structures,
4. Plantations on forest lands and roadsides etc. (Any two you can write).

Question 4.
What are the tributaries of the Indus river?
Answer:
The tributaries of the Indus river are the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej.

Question 5.
Name any two tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej.

Question 6.
What are the two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India?
Answer:
The two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India are

1. The Arabian sea branch
2. The Bay of Bengal branch

Observe the map given and answer questions 7 and 8.

Question 7.
Name the two rivers that flow into the Arabian sea.
Answer:
The rivers that flow into the Arabian sea are

1. Sabarmati
2. Mahi
3. Narmada
4. Tapati

Question 8.
Through which states, river Tungabhadra flows?
Answer:
River Tungabhadra flows through Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh

Question 9.
Observe the map and answer the questions below?

a) Which river is shown in the map?
b) Which state does the river form a delta?
Answer:
a) River Godavari
b) Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10.
What are the three physiographic units of the drainage of India?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas
2. The Peninsular Plateau and
3. The Indo-Gangetic plain

Question 11.
Divide the Indian drainage system on the basis of its origin.
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers.
2. The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
Name the three Himalayan rivers. (OR)
Mention the three principal river system to which the Himalayan Rivers belong.
Answer:

1. The Indus
2. The Ganges
3. The Brahmaputra

Question 13.
Which rivers are perennial? Write the reason.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers are perennial. This is because the rivers are supplied on rainfall as well as the melting snow.

Question 14.
Where does the Indus originate? What is its route?
Answer:
The Indus originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near lake Manasarovar. It follows a north-westerly course through Tibet.

Question 15.
Where does the Indus enter India?
Answer:
It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 16.
What do the water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

Question 17.
What is the significance of ‘Devaprayag’?
Answer:
Bhagirathi and Alakananda join at ‘Devaprayag’ to form the Ganga.

Question 18.
Where does the Brahmaputra rise?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra in Tibet rises from the snout of the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Manasarovar.

Question 19.
Where does the Brahmaputra enter India?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra enters in a great loop southwest through Arunachal Pradesh in India, first as Siang and then as Dihang.

Question 20.
What are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra?
Answer:
The Dibang and the Lohit are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Question 21.
Where do the peninsular rivers originate?
Answer:
The peninsular rivers the Krishna, the Godavari and the Cauveri originate in the Western Ghats. The Mahanadi originates in the Vindhya Satpura ranges.

Question 22.
Which is the largest peninsular river system?
Answer:
The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system.

Question 23.
What is the source of the river Godavari?
Answer:
The source of the Godavari is in the Triambak plateau near Nasik in Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal.”

Question 24.
Write the ‘inflow’ as a formula?
Answer:
Inflow = Precipitation + Surface flow + Groundwater flow.

Question 25.
What is called evaporation?
Answer:
The turning of water into vapour is called evaporation.

Question 26.
What is called transpiration?
Answer:
Living things give off water into the atmosphere through their breathing process, this is called transpiration.

Question 27.
What is called evapotranspiration?
Answer:
The total amount of water added to the atmosphere from both evaporation and transpiration is called evapotranspiration.

Question 28.
When would the surface flow increase?
Answer:
The surface flow would increase during the monsoon months.

Question 29.
How does the water reach the root zone of crops?
Answer:
Water reaches the root zone of crops either through rainfall or some process of irrigation.

Question 30.
Which kind of water is the vital need?
Answer:
Water used for drinking, cooking, washing, cleaning and for animals is vital need.

Question 31.
Name the surface storages.
Answer:
Tanks, ponds, lakes, etc. are the surface storages.

Question 32.
What is the question that we face today about the groundwater?
Answer:
The question that we face today is the depletion of groundwater storage and tendency not to care about the availability for future generations.

Question 33.
What are the two parts of the Tungabhadra basin?
Answer:

1. The upper and middle catchment in Karnataka and
2. The lower portion of the catchment in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 34.
Which water is available to us?
Answer:
The annual flows and stocks that recharge wells and tubewells is the water that is available for us.

Question 35.
When can the mining water be done?
Answer:
The mining water can be done only in extreme drought situations and replenished in good rainfall years.

Question 36.
How are the low portions of the Tungabhadra basin characterized in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
They are characterized by low rainfall and drought.

Question 37.
What is the result of the encroachment of public land for cultivation?
Answer:
It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.

Question 38.
What is the result of the rampant felling of trees and mining activity?
Answer:
Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna.

Question 39.
Why did the Tungabhadra basin lose its water storage capacity?
Answer:
With the accumulation of silt due to mining, dust, soil erosion, debris the Tungabhadra Dam lost its water storage capacity.

Question 40.
How is water shared?
Answer:
Water is shared based on agreements between state governments.

Question 41.
What is the result of industrialization and urbanization?
Answer:
While increased industrialization and urbanization have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution, especially by industrial units.

Question 42.
Why do the interstate disputes arise between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka?
Answer:
Interstate disputes between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka arise due to the trans-boundary nature of the river.

Question 43.
Where is Hiware Bazar located?
Answer:
Hiware Bazar is located in the Ahmednagar district in Maharashtra. It is situated on the eastern side of the Sahyadri mountain ranges that run north-south and separate Konkan, the coastal region, from the rest of Maharashtra.

Question 44.
Expand CCT.
Answer:
Continuous Contour Trenches.

Question 45.
Why were CCTs dug?
Answer:
The CCTs were dug on the hill slopes to arrest the erosion of soil, harvest water and encourage growth of grass.

Question 46.
Name some water harvesting structures.
Answer:
Check dams, percolation tanks and loose boulder structures.

Question 47.
Name the four bandis.
Answer:

1. Kurhad bandi
2. Charai bandi
3. Nasbandi
4. Nashabandi

Question 48.
What are the other bans which were added later?
Answer:

1. The ban on borewells for irrigation,
2. Growing sugarcane and banana and
3. Selling one’s own land to any outsider.

Question 49.
Why do the farmers in Hiware Bazar keep rainfall data meticulously?
Answer:
They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 50.
What happens when there is so much extraction of water?
Answer:
When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.

Question 51.
What laws and regulations are needed for water consumption?
Answer:
Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that, Panchayati Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 52.
Which judgments illustrate the confusion over our laws today?
Answer:
The judgments in the case of Perumatty Gram Panchayat in Kerala and Coca Cola company illustrate the confusion over our laws today.

Question 53.
What do water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Himalayan rivers are perennial, which means these rivers are filled with water throughout the year.
What are the two reasons that they are called perennial rivers?
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers are perennial rivers as a result of the melting of ice and glaciers.
2. During rainy season they depend on rainfall.

So they are filled with water throughout the year.

Question 2.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) What is the River Ganga called in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Padma.
b) On the banks of which River is Kolkata situated?
Answer:
River Hooghly. (Hugly)

Question 3.
Create two slogans on water conservation or the importance of water. (OR)
Write two slogans to bring awareness on saving of water in consumption.
Answer:
a) Save water – Save future.
b) Without water – there’s no future.
(Students can create a few of their own)

Question 4.
What were the conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under Adarsh Gram Yojana?
Answer:
The conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under the Adarsh Gram Yojana are

1. Kurhad bandi – ban of felling trees
2. Charai bandi – ban of free grazing
3. Nasbandi – family planning
4. Nashabandi – ban on liquor
5. Shramadan – voluntary physical labour.

Question 5.
Categories the drainage system based on its origin.
Answer:
On the basis of the origin, the drainage system in India is categorized into

Question 6.
Suggest measures to be taken to conserve water.
Answer:
Measures to conserve water:

1. Check dams
2. Percolation tanks
3. Loose boulder structures
4. Plantation

Question 7.
Give a few suggestions for the betterment of groundwater level in Telangana in the present situation.
Answer:

1. All people should maintain rainwater harvesting pits.
2. They should construct and maintain check dams. The government should take responsibility.
3. Continuous contour trenches are to be built up.
4. Silt is to be removed every year from the tanks.
5. Plantation should be taken up seriously.
6. Digging of deep borewells should be avoided.

Question 8.
Even in years of continuous drought, there was no drinking water shortage in Hiware Bazar.
What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

1. The main thing is the social control over groundwater extraction and no bore-wells usage for irrigation, no water-intensive crops like sugarcane.
2. Water for irrigation was taken only through dug wells.
3. They also worked out certain thumb rule type of things like if they get good rainfall, then they can take full rabi crop; if the rainfall is less, then they bring down the area under rabi crop etc.
4. They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 9.
As a student, how do you save water in your house and in your school?
Answer:

1. Make it a classroom activity to check for leaks regularly.
2. Install rainwater tanks.
3. Fix any leaking taps, toilets.
4. Raise awareness of the importance of water.

Question 10.
Create a poster on water importance.
Answer:

WATER IS LIFE

Water has been important for people for thousands of years. Without water there would be no life on earth.
We use water in our houses for cooking, bathing and washing the dishes. Water is used to grow food. In many dry areas farmers must bring water to the fields through canals and expensive irrigation systems.

Industries and factories also use water. Fruits and vegetables must be cleaned before they can be processed and sold in supermarkets. Water is used for cooling in many areas, for example in steel production.

Many countries around the world use water to produce energy. Power stations burn coal which turns water into steam. Countries with many mountains and rivers use the power of water to produce electricity.

Water is important for our free time. People enjoy themselves at seaside resorts or on cruise trips.

Transportation was at first carried out on waterways. Ancient civilizations traded goods across the Mediterranean Sea. Today oil, coal, wheat and other products are transported on waterways.

Question 11.
Write about the drainage of India.
Answer:
The drainage of India has evolved and adjusted itself with the evolution of the three physiographic units:

1. the Himalayas
2. the Peninsular plateau and
3. the Indo- Gangetic plain. On the basis of its origin, the drainage system in India can be broadly divided into two categories,
   i) The Himalayan rivers and ii) The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
“Rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people” – Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The river system provides irrigation, potable water, cheap transportation, electricity and livelihoods for a large number of people all over the country and to rural areas.
2. This easily explains why nearly all the major cities of India are located by the banks of rivers.
3. Several major rivers along with their tributaries make up the river system of India.
4. So rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which place has the water level gone down in your area? What are the reasons for the reduction of water levels according to your opinion?
Answer:
The water level has gone down in many of our areas. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture. If groundwater is not available, there will be many problems.
My opinion is that because of modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used. Very deep borewells cause for drawing out water from the ground. Water has become a source of business. Many multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles. Water conservation is also a major issue and it is taken as a serious one.

Question 2.
Explain any four river systems of India in the prescribed table form.

Answer:

Question 3.
Today underground water is the main source of water for people. When there is so much extraction it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore one can’t allow individual land owners to extract as much water as they wish from the land. There should be some restrictions.
Do you agree, with this? Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement.

1. Water should be treated as a common pool resource.
2. There are no boundaries in the flowing water underground.
3. Land ownership should not be applied to underground water.
4. Drinking water should be the first priority as well as a human right.
5. Panchayat Raj Institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 4.
“The current laws about groundwater in many states are both outdated and inappropriate. They were developed at a time when groundwater was a marginal source of water. Today shallow and deep tubewells have the potential to draw a lot of water.”
Write your comment on the judicious way of using and equal distribution of groundwater and suggest few measures in this regard.
Answer:

1. Today underground water is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects the stock of water that would be available to future generations.
3. Therefore the landowners cannot be allowed to extract as much as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions.
4. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn through tube wells on the land.

Question 5.
“Usage of water without keeping in view about the future leads to non-availability of underground water for future generations.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. So individual land owners should not be allowed to extract as much water as they wish.
5. There should be some restrictions.
6. The relation between the land ownership and the extraction of water should be delinked.
7. They only the restrictions will be implemented properly.
8. Groundwater should be treated as a common pool resource.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
What is required are laws and rules to recognize that water is common flowing resource? Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that Panchayat Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.
Answer:
In my opinion.

1. Groundwater benefits a wide range of people and the environment.
2. But there are number of threats to the sustainability of this natural resource, which are compounded by a lack of understanding it.
3. Groundwater is often seen as a resource that can be drawn on when surface water is scarce.
4. Due to over use of groundwater the quality of water is deteriorating.
5. If the people drink that polluted water, they will get diseases.
6. Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right.
7. So, the Panchayat Raj institution think about water is common flowing resource at the same time these institutions have control on groundwater for the sake of future generations and provide it equitable manner.
   Example: In Kerala, Perumatti grama panchayat, the Panchayat Raj institution give first priority to drinking water and next will give importance to Cocacola company. Here, the people’s health is most important.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, this is the major source of water for people. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore, one can’t allow individual landowners to extract as much water as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn from the underground system through tube-wells on the land.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the main source for people.
2. But excessive extraction of the groundwater is more effect to not only present people but also future generations.
3. But there are no appropriate laws to regulate the usage of the groundwater resources.
4. All the present laws were designed when the usage was minimum.
5. The owner of the land is not the owner of the groundwater beneath his land.
6. A link should be designed between the land ownership and control.
7. The government should control the individuals in using underground water resources.

Question 8.
Explain the use of water in the river basin of Tungabhadra.
Answer:

1. River water of Tungabhadra is shared by Karnataka, Telangana and the Andhra Pradesh States.
2. Approximately 80% of rural area people are dependent on agriculture with Tungabhadra water.
3. In some areas people constructed storage tanks based on Tunghabhadra water.
4. Surface flows by canals that carry water from dams built along Tungabhadra in other areas.
5. More land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
6. There are 27 large industries and 2543 small industries are depend on Tungabhadra water.
7. It provides supply of drinking water to neighbour areas.
8. Improved standard of living for some.
9. Disputes also arised between Karnataka and Andhra on the base of availability of water.

Question 9.
Explain the Himalayan river systems.
Answer:

Himalayan River Systems

The Indus system, The Ganga system and the Brahmaputra system come under the Himalayan river systems:

1. The Indus System: The Indus originates in Kailash range near Manasarovar. It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir. The Ravi, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Beas and the Sutlej are its tributaries.
2. The Ganga System: The Ganga is formed joining Bhagirathi with Alakananda which join at Devaprayag. It has large number of tributaries.
3. The Brahmaputra System: The Brahmaputra rises from Kailash range near Manasarovar. It covers Tibet, and joins Arunachal Pradesh in India. It has different names in different places and is known as the Brahmaputra. The Dibang and the Lohit are its tributaries.

Question 10.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.
Regulation is not easy. This is also because for some resources like water, electricity, oil, natural gas, etc. consumption by one person or a sector affects what is available for others. In fact, in a number of states, the answer to falling water tables has not been to address the issue itself. State governments have thus often chosen to increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of groundwater possible.
Answer:
The given paragraph says that the regulation of natural resources like water, natural gas, etc. is not easy. Gradually water table is decreasing. Governments increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of ground water possible.

My interpretation is that water, electricity, oil and natural gas are essential for all people. These are to be used in control. Whatever we use should be useful to the next coming genera¬tion. Natural resources are sustainable. They can be useful to all generations. Water is an essen¬tial commodity. It is the people who decide the future. For a few decades we have been observ¬ing that more groundwater is being pumped out. Sinking water is gradually decreasing. In forests also water is not available. So monkeys, leopards are coming to villages. Deforestation is increased. Quarrying is also increased. Clouds are coming but they are not giving rain. Temperature is increasing day by day. People should understand the need of the future and act accordingly. Per head consumption is increasing drastically. Water conservation is an essential one. Not only human beings, birds, animals, plants also depend on water. Water harvesting pits are promoted at every house. Water shed programs are to be taken up. Every drop of water should be caught perfectly and saved with proper proposals. Government concentrates on the conservation of water to make the next coming generation happy.

Question 11.
“India is heading towards water scarcity.” Trace the possible solutions to tackle this problem.
Answer:

1. Construction of multi purpose projects and canals.
2. Solving river water disputes quickly.
3. Inter-basin transfer of water.
4. Measures to raise the underground water table.
5. Rainwater harvesting.
6. Watershed development.
7. Avoiding pollution of water bodies.
8. Preventing the wastage of water.
9. Interlinking of Rivers.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and state your opinion on it.
Encroachment of public lands for cultivation is common. It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover. Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna. Inflows of groundwater depend on the tree cover in the catchment areas. Inadequate tree hover leads to water run-off as surface flow without getting a chance to recharge the underground system. Moreover, this also causes flash floods. If we wish to be fair to both the rainfed and canal irrigated regions, we must adopt a different plan for water conservation and a system of sharing water.
Answer:

1. In recent years public land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
2. The felling of trees and other mining activities threatened flora and fauna.
3. The inadequate free cover leads to water run off.
4. There is less chance for recharging groundwater.
5. It causes flash floods.
6. The felling of trees threatened flora and fauna.
7. Hence we must be alert and adopt a different plan for water conservation.

Question 13.
Read the para and answer the following questions.
Let us see the dispute over water use between the Perumatty Grama Panchayat in Kerala and the Coca Cola Company. The Panchayat decided not to renew the license for extraction of water because of the lowering of the water table in neighbouring areas. There was also decreasing water quality to the extent that the local government primary health centre had concluded that the water was not fit for drinking. The issue was brought to the courts and is now pending in the Supreme Court as on January 2014. The two decisions given by the judges in Kerala gave two opposing views of groundwater regulation. The first judge found that groundwater is a public resource meant for all, and that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive exploitation. Additionally the judge made the link that drinking water is a priority. The second judge took a completely different perspective and asserted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater. These two contradictory decisions illustrate the confusion over our laws today.
Answer:

1. The para is an example of the confusion over our laws today.
2. The Coca Cola company was extracting more and more underground water.
3. This was reducing the groundwater levels and the water is getting polluted.
4. The issue was brought to the court.
5. Two judges gave contradicting judgments.
6. The first judge stated that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive
7. The second judge insisted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater.
8. Hence we can conclude that there should be some clarity regarding the laws relating to ground-water.
9. The laws are outdated and inappropriate.
10. There should not be any contradiction regarding public interest.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
During the fast two decades there has been an increasing trend in the number of small towns and industrial areas. This has made the competing demands for water more complex. While increased industrialization and growth of urban areas have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution especially by industrial units.
Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, it is clear that urbanization leads to water problems.
2. Another point is that some people are leading prosperous life whereas many poor people are facing the problems of pollution.
3. In my opinion, in this modern age urbanization has become mandatory.
4. People from villages are coming to cities and towns for different reasons.
5. Education for children, medical facilities and different livelihoods are the needs of the rural people.
6. As they come to cities and towns they face the problems of basic need like food, water, shelter and cloth.
7. In conclusion I don’t say that urbanization is not necessary but the problems of the poor migrants also should be considered.
8. At industries and working cites water facility is to be provided.
9. In all the areas protected water supply is necessary.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your comment on it.
Over the past few decades groundwater has become the main source, especially for domes¬tic use and agriculture. This tremendous increase in the use of groundwater has significant impact on water availability and access to it.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater level is the crucial one to all the people.
2. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture.
3. If groundwater is not available there will be many problems.
4. My opinion is that because of the modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used.
5. Very deep bore wells cause for drawing out water from the ground.
6. Water has become a source of business many Multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles.
7. Every individual should think about the importance of water as it is useful to all people.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
Current laws on groundwater use are inappropriate because the basic links between access to groundwater and land ownership on which these rules are based are flawed. Since groundwater has to be extracted from the land above, a link was established between land ownership and control.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the current laws are not appropriate and there is no link between accesses to groundwater and land ownership.
2. Proper laws are to be made and implemented otherwise there will be a mass problem of water.
3. I would like to comment on this paragraph that current laws are not being implemented in a right way.
4. The government should have true spirit of implementation of laws. There are so many laws made in the time of the British rule.
5. After independence these would have been modified or changed according to the present needs or new laws according to the situations and necessities have to be made time to time. This was not done.
6. The government should take necessary action to bring in new laws and they should be implemented in a right way.

Question 17.
People are facing the problem of water scarcity in all the areas. It may be there in your locality also. Write a note on the condition of water scarcity that you recently observed.
Answer:

1. Scarcity of water has become a common problem everywhere.
2. People of all corners are facing the same problem.
3. They purchase even two glasses of water by paying twenty or twenty five rupees.
4. Human activities like deforestation, using plastic, cement and concrete roads are a few rea¬sons for the depletion of groundwater level.
5. Deforestation leads to low rainfall.
6. Rainwater is not percolated properly because of two reasons.
7. By constructing small check dams, it is better to store the water and so it could be useful to restore the groundwater.
8. Then it will be expected that drinking water is available.

Question 18.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Mention any two tributaries of river Ganga.
Answer:
Gandak, Ghagra, Gomati, Son, Betwa, Chambal, Yamuna are the tributaries of river Ganga. (Any two can be written)
b) River Brahmaputra joins a river before joining into Bay of Bengal. What is the name of the river?
Answer:
The river in which the Brahmaputra joins is the Ganga.
c) Two countries are sharing the water of the river Teesta. What are the two countries?
Answer:
India and Bangladesh.
d) Which river is called ‘Padma’ in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Ganga.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Brahmaputra river
2. Drainage area of Indus river
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. The project on Sutlej river
   Answer: Bhakra Nangal
5. The river which is parallel to river Narmada.
   Answer: Tapti
6. The lake which in between Krishna and Godavari rivers.
   Answer: Kolleru
7. Locate Hiware Bazar.
8. Konkan Coast.
9. The Coast of Tamilnadu
   Answer: Coromandel
10. Capital of Madhya Pradesh.
    Answer: Bhopal

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 14 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What does the term “Great Depression” signify?
Answer:

1. There was a worldwide economic decline triggered by a decline in demand and fall in prices. It was called “Great Depression”.
2. The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939.

Question 2.
Read the following map and answer the question.
Name any one country that shared land boundary with India and not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
Nepal, Tibet, Bhutan.

Question 3.
What was your opinion on Hitler’s treatment of the Jews in Germany?
Answer:
The treatment of Hitler towards Jews is very cruel and unjust.

Question 4.
Mention the important aspects of “New Deal”.
Answer:

1. Relief to the victims of depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions.
3. Steps to ensure economic recovery.

Question 5.
Write any two consequences of economic depression.
Answer:

1. Decline in demand and fall in prices.
2. Massive unemployment.
3. Decline of real incomes of ordinary people.

Question 6.
Write any two economic reforms of Hitler.
Answer:
Hitler’s Economic Policies:

1. Hitler banned all strikes.
2. He reduced tax burden on people.
3. He established war industries.
4. He created employment opportunities.

Question 7.
Write about collective farming.
Answer:

1. In U.S.S.R all small and large farmers were forced to join collective farms.
2. These farms were united and mechanised farming was introduced and the produce was divided among the members.

Question 8.
How did Hitler get all powers to sideline Parliament?
Answer:
Hitler got all powers to sideline parliament by passing the Enabling Act.

Question 9.
What was the intention of the Communist Party of India for helping Britain during the Second World War?
Answer:
The Communist Party of India helped Britain during the Second World War as the Nazis attacked on the soviet union. Intentionally the communists helped Britain.

Question 10.
What was the ‘New Deal Policy’ of Franklin D. Roosevelt?
Answer:
Relief to the victims of depression.
Reform of financial institutions and steps to ensure Economic Recovery by undertaking large public works.

Question 11.
Who was the leader of Bolsheviks in Russia?
Answer:
Lenin was the leader of Bolsheviks in Russia.

Question 12.
What was the major incidence occurred in 1924 in Russia?
Answer:
Union of Soviet Socialistic Republic was established.

Question 13.
Who became the leader of Russia after Lenin in 1924?
Answer:
Stalin.

Question 14.
Enlist Indians that were inspired by communism.
Answer:
M.N. Roy, Tagore and Nehru.

Question 15.
Name the book written on the violation against the opposition in Russia and who wrote it.
Answer:
George Orwell wrote his famous satire “Animal farm” to highlight how the ideals of Russian Revolution were compromised in USSR.

Question 16.
What were the famous “3 Rs” of New Deal Policy?
Answer:
The famous “three Rs” of New Deal are …

1. Relief to the victims of depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions.
3. Recovery of the economy.

Question 17.
What happened to Germany after World War – II?
Answer:
Eventually, Germany was divided into

1. German Democratic Republic of Germany (GDR).
2. Federal Republic of Germany (FRG).

Question 18.
Where were the Nazi generals put to trial?
Answer:
The leaders and Nazi generals were captured and put to trial in the famous “Nuremberg trials.”

Question 19.
Name the organization formed after World War – II to establish peace.
Answer:
United Nations Organization.

Question 20.
Enlist the countries that got independence by 1950.
Answer:
India,. China, Indonesia, Vietnam, Egypt, Nigeria, etc.

Question 21.
What were the super powers emerged after 1945?
Answer:
The USA and the USSR.

Question 22.
What was “Socialistic camp”?
Answer:
Eastern Europe and China together came to be known as “the Socialistic camp.”

Question 23.
Why did the common people not want the war?
Answer:
Fatigued by military reserves and upset at economic shortages, the common people did not want the war.

Question 24.
Who led Bolsheviks?
Answer:
Vladimir Lenin led the Bolsheviks.

Question 25.
Why could full peace not return to Russia after October Revolution?
Answer:
Full peace could not return to Russia, as the liberals decided to continue the war to preserve the honour of their land.

Question 26.
Expand the USSR.
Answer:
The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics.

Question 27.
When did the Great Depression begin?
Answer:
The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the Second World War began.

Question 28.
Who was the President during the Depression?
Answer:
Franklin Delano Roosevelt.

Question 29.
What was the ‘New Deal’?
Answer:
It was a programme created by the US to help the Americans and the economy.

Question 30.
What were ‘Three Rs’?
Answer:
The Three Rs are:

1. Belief to the victims of Depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions and
3. Steps to ensure economic Recovery.

Question 31.
What else was introduced in the US?
Answer:
The Social Security system was introduced.

Question 32.
What is meant by Social Security system?
Answer:
It is a permanent system of universal retirement pensions, unemployment insurance, and welfare benefits for handicapped and needy children in families without father present.

Question 33.
Why did Germany face severe crises of the war?
Answer:
German economy faced severe crises after the war as it was saddled with the burden of paying war damages, etc.

Question 34.
Which act of the German government resulted in unheard of inflation?
Answer:
The German government began to print currency notes on a large scale and this resulted in unheard of inflation.

Question 35.
How did Hitler mobilise his supporters?
Answer:

1. Hitler mobilized his supporters on the promise of establishing the racial supremacy of Aryan Germans over the world and by targeting minority communities like Jews as the main cause of all problems.
2. He also guaranteed employment to people.

Question 36.
How did Hitler attack communism and capitalism?
Answer:
Hitler attacked communism and capitalism terming both of them as Jewish conspiracies and promised to build a strong state which would counter both.

Question 37.
How did he appeal to the middle class?
Answer:
Hitler appealed especially to the middle class which felt threatened by capitalism and the Great Depression and at the the same time was opposed to working-class movement led by the Communists and Socialists.

Question 38.
Name the security forces in Germany.
Answer:
Regular police in a green uniform and the SA or the Storm Troopers, Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads), criminal police and the Security Service (SD).

Question 39.
What was Auschwitz?
Answer:
Auschwitz was a killing centre.

Question 40.
Why were Soviet forces welcomed all over Eastern Europe?
Answer:
Soviet forces were welcomed all over Eastern Europe as liberators from the hated Nazi rule and eventually captured Berlin, the capital of Germany.

Question 41.
What happened to Hitler and his close associates?
Answer:
Hitler and his close associates committed suicide to avoid being captured and tried.

Question 42.
Who sentenced the Nazis?
Answer:
The Nuremberg Tribunal sentenced only eleven leading Nazis to death.

Question 43.
What were the two super powers?
Answer:
The USA and the USSR.

Question 44.
What did Hitler promise?
Answer:

1. Hitler promised employment for those looking for work and a secure future for the youth.
2. He promised to weed out all foreign influences and resist all foreign ‘conspiracies’ against Germany.

Question 45.
Who laid way for planned economic development in Russia?
Answer:
Stalin in 1928.

Question 46.
What were the policies of Stalin?
Answer:
Stalin followed a twin policy of rapid industrialization and collectivization of agriculture.

Question 47.
Name Indian Leaders who were inspired by the Russian Revolution.
Answer:
M.N. Roy, Tagore and Nehru were inspired by the Russian Revolution.

Question 48.
What does the book “Animal Form” mention about?
Answer:
The book highlighted, how the ideals of the Russian Revolution were compromised in USSR.

Question 49.
What was the Enabling Act?
Answer:
The Act was passed in 1933. This act established a dictatorship in Germany.

Question 50.
Who was the famous economist of Hitler?
Answer:
Hjalmar Schacht.

Question 51.
Expand GDR and FDR.
Answer:
G.D.R – German Democratic Republic.
F.D.R – Federal Republic of Germany.

Question 52.
What happened to Germany after World War – II?
Answer:
Germany was divided into two portions.

1. The Eastern Part – GDR.
2. The Western Part – FDR.

Question 53.
Which countries came under “the socialist camp”?
Answer:
Russia along with the Eastern European countries and China came under the socialistic camp.

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

“In fact, the second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the Great Depression. Far from the theatres of war, the industries and agriculture of USA prospered and achieved full employment and high productivity. In Harry Truman’s words, “We have emerged from this war as the most powerful nation in the world.”

How do you think the Second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery from the Great Depression? Write your comment.
Answer:
The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the World War-II began. There was a sudden fall in the American stock market.

This effected almost all the nations in the world. Roosevelt, the US President, announced ‘The New Deal which promised Relief to the victims of Depression. However, the real break came from the outbreak of war when state expenditure on armies and armaments suddenly increased giving a big boost to factory production and demand for farm produce. Thus the Second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery from the Great Depression.

Question 2.
Observe the given timeline chart and answer the following questions.

a) How do you think the victory on Auschwitz and liberation by the Soviet Union led to an easy success for the Allied nations?
Answer:
After the liberation of Auschwitz the Allied got victory in Europe. So I can say so.

b) What were the main incidents which occurred in 1941 in world’s history?
Answer:

1. Germany invaded the USSR.
2. Mass murder of the Jews begins.
3. The United States joins the Second World War.

Question 3.
Observe the given map and answer the questions:
a) What is Dutch East India called now?
Answer:
Indonesia

b) Which Chinese region was under the control of Japan?
Answer:
Manchuria

Question 4.
Write any two effects of great depression.
Answer:

1. Increase in unemployment.
2. Fall in prices.
3. Closure of industries.
4. Decrease in the purchasing capacity of the people.

Question 5.
Read the below paragraph.

“This earth is not allotted to anyone nor is it presented to anyone as a gift. It is awarded by providence to people who in their hearts have the courage to conquer it, the strength to preserve it, and the industry to put it to the plough. A vigorous nation will always find ways pf adapting its territory to its population size.”

Do you think world should belong to those who have power and strength alone – Comment.
Answer:

1. No. I don’t think like that.
2. The world belongs to all. All are equal by birth.

Question 6.
“Constitution is a living and changing document.” Would you agree with it? Justify it.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with it.
2. Our constitutional makers are aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. So they provided an opportunity to amend laws.

Question 7.
Observe the Map and answer the questions given below:

1. Name any two countries which were not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
India, Nepal and Tibet.

2. Dutch East Indies was the former name of which country?
Answer:
Indonesia.

Question 8.
What will be the consequences of the World War that may happen after the Second World War?
Answer:
The consequences of the World War that may happen after the Second World War are

1. Huge loss of life on the earth
2. Destruction of properties
3. Increase of environmental damage
4. The existence of life becomes difficult

Question 9.
What were the changes brought about by Russian revolution of 1917 in the Russian Society?
Answer:

1. The immediate change was the elimination of the democratic provisional councils called Soviets in various larger cities.
2. Under Bolshevik rule Russia got out of World War-II.
3. A Socialist system was imposed on the country which all but the smallest businesses were taken over by the government.
4. Land was redistributed to peasant farmers and food distribution was temporarily improved.
5. Soon though, many people became disenchanted with the Bolsheviks and the Russian Civil war broke out in 1918 and lasted until 1920.

Question 10
Observe the map and answer the questions.

1. Mention any two countries that were NOT under Japanese control.
Answer:
India, Tibet, Nepal, Mongolia, U.S.S.R. (any two)

2. Which part of the Ocean did Japan dominant in 1942?
Answer:
North Part of Pacific Ocean.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

“With this began a great experiment of building a country without exploiters like feudal lords, Kings or capitalists. The USSR tried to build a society that was industrialized and modern and yet did not have inequality or exclusion of people on basis of birth, gender, language, etc.”

Answer:

1. The Soviets under the leadership of Bolsheviks seized power from the provisional government in 1917.
2. Peace could not be established as civil war lasted from 1918-20.
3. Finally the USSR was established in 1924.
4. This was an experiment as there was no place for feudal lords, kings or capitalists.
5. The USSR tried to establish a society where there was no scope for inequality or exploitation on the basis of birth, gender, language, etc.
6. Socialism was established and gave a big’ blow to the capitalistic world.

Question 12.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.

1. Mention any two countries which are not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
India and China are not under the control of Japan.

2. Mention any two places which are under f ‘ the control of Japan and lying on its western side.
Answer:
Korea and Manchuria.

Question 13.
What do you know about Tsarist Russia?
Answer:
Tsarist Russia was vast landmass spread over two continents and making it a Euro Asian Power. It had the third-largest population in the world, viz. 156 million, after China and India. It comprised of several nations like the Russia, Ukraine, Uzbekistan, .’Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Turkomania, etc.

Question 14.
What was the first Russian revolution of 1917?
Answer:
On March 8th 1917, around 10,000 women of the capital, St Petersburg, took out a procession demanding ‘Peace and Bread’. Workers joined them in this protest. Unnerved at the protest in the capital, Tsar Nicholas II ordered the army to suppress the demon¬strators, even by firing at them. Instead, the soldiers joined the demonstrators. In just two days, the situation went so much out of hand that the Tsar abdicated and non-aristocratic Russians made a Provisional government. This was the first Russian revolution of 1917 and it was called the March Revolution.

Question 15.
“The October Revolution was not spontaneous” – Why?
Answer:
A bigger revolution was made later in October 1917 and it was not spontaneous. The liberals and aristocrats, who ruled Russia after the abdication of the Tsar, decided to continue the War to preserve the honor of the fatherland. Fatigued by military reverses and upset at economic shortages, the common people did not want the War. They began organizing themselves in councils which were called Soviets. Such Soviets of soldiers, industrial workers, and also people in rural areas were the expression of com-mon people’s power which was channelized by a group of Russian Communist party called Bolsheviks.

Question 16.
Why were Bolsheviks able to win the confidence of the Soviets?
Answer:
Bolsheviks were able to win the confidence of the Soviets because they took up the demand for immediate and unconditional peace, nationalization of all land and its redistribution to the peasants and control over prices and nationalization of all factories and banks.

Question 17.
What effect did the war have, on the industry of Russia?
Answer:
Russian industries were very few numbers and the country was cut off from other suppliers of industrial goods by German control of the Baltic sea. Industrial equipment disintegrated more rapidly in Russia than elsewhere in Europe. By 1916 railway, lines began to breakdown. Able-bodied men were called up to the war. As a result, there were labour shortages and small workshops producing essential commodities were shut down.

Question 18.
Discuss briefly the Five-Year Plans.
Answer:

1. A process of centralized planning was introduced by Stalin in 1928. Officials assessed how the economy could work and set targets for a five-year period, on this basis they made five-year plans.
2. The government fixed all prices to pro-mote industrial growth during the first two plans. (1927-32, 1933 – 38)
3. Centralised planning led to economic growth.

Question 19.
Appreciate the role of Lenin in the Revolu¬tion and his economic policy.
Answer:

1. Vladimir Lenin played an important role in the Russian Revolution of 1917.
2. He led the revolutionaries after the fall of the war.
3. The Bolshevik party put forward clear policies to end the war.
4. He transferred land to the peasants and advance the slogan ‘All power to the Soviets’.
5. These were the real objectives of the Russian Revolution and he fulfilled them. So, Lenin’s name has become inseparable from the Russian Revolution.

Question 20.
Write any two conditions which led to the Russian civil war in 1918-1920.
Answer:

1. The Russian army began to break up after the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution. Soldiers who were mostly peasants wished to go home for the land and desert.
2. Supporters of private property among ‘Whites’ took harsh steps with peasants who had seized land.

Question 21.
How can you say that the experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world including India?
Answer:
The experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world who were committed to the ideals of equality and national liberation. A large number of them now became communists and tried for a communist revolution in their countries. Many of them like MN Roy, Tagore and Nehru were inspired by it even though they did not agree with many aspects of communism like suppression of opposition political parties.

Question 22.
Describe what happened to Germany after its defeat in the First World War.
Answer:

1. World War -1, ended with the Allies defeating Germany and the Central Powers in November 1918.
2. The Peace Treaty of Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating treaty.
3. Germany lost its overseas colonies, a tenth of its population, 13 percent of its territories, 75 percent of its iron and 26 percent of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.
4. The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its power. Germany was forced to pay compensation amounting to 6 billion.

Question 23.
Explain the role of women in Nazi Germany.
Answer:

1. According to Hitler’s ideology, women were radically different from men.
2. The democratic idea of equal rights for men and women was wrong and would destroy society.
3. While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and steel-hearted, girls were told that they bad to become good mothers and rear pure-blooded Aryan children.

Question 24.
Explain the rallies of Nazis.
Answer:
Hitler devised a new style of politics. He understood the significance of rituals and spectacle in mass mobilization. Nazis held massive rallies and public meetings to demonstrate the support for Hitler and instill a sense of unity among the people. The Red banners with the Swastika, the Nazi salute, and the ritualized rounds of applause after the speeches were all part of this spectacle of power.

Question 25.
Write about the Enabling Act.
Answer:
On 3 March 1933, the famous Enabling Act was passed. This Act established a dictatorship in Germany. It gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree. All political parties and trade unions were banned except for the Nazi Party and its affiliates. The state established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.

Question 26.
Explain the condition of the people of Germany after the famous Enabling Act passed.
Answer:
People could now be detained in Gestapo torture chambers, rounded up and sent to concentration camps, deported at will or arrested without any legal procedures. The police forces acquired powers to rule with impunity.
These powers were used to arrest and torture millions of political activists, trade unionists and people of minority communities and build a state of unprecedented horror and fear.

Question 27.
What happened in the far east with the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
In the far east with the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki Japan surrendered to the USA. US armies occupied Japan but keeping in the sentiments of Japanese allowed the Japanese Emperor to continue. But it built a Constitutional Monarchy like in England. Japan was to be ruled by the elected government responsible to the Parliament (DIET).

Question 28.
Name the Indian leaders inspired by the USSR Communist regime.
Answer:

1. The experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world who were committed to the ideals of equality and national liberation.
2. Many of them like Manavendra Nath Roy, Rabindranath Tagore, and Jawaharlal Nehru were inspired by it even though they did not agree with many aspects of communism like suppression of opposition political parties, etc.

Question 29.
How was the economic revival planned after World War II?
Answer:

1. There were many economies that collapsed after World War II.
2. The USA came up with the Marshall Plan to fund the economic revival of West European countries.
3. The USSR came up with a package for the revival of East European countries.

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note on the measures taken by the USSR under the great depression.
Answer:

1. USSR was not integrated with the international market.
2. It had a planned economy.
3. The state decided what and how much has to be produced.
4. This enabled them to maintain a balance between demand and supply.

Question 2.
A) Locate and Label any four of the permanent members of United Nations Security Council on the World map given.
Point out the following countries on the World map given.
B) 1) Portugal 2) Nigeria S) Chile 4) Japan
Answer:
Question 3.
Explain the rise of Nazism in Germany.
Answer:

1. German economy was the worst hit by the Great Depression.
2. This economic crisis created deep anxieties and fears in people.
3. Hitler and his Nazi party used this situation in an intelligent manner.
4. Hitler, by his words and passion, moved the people.
5. He promised them to construct a strong Germany in all aspects.
6. He devised a new style of politics and attracted people.
7. As a result of this, the Nazi Party has become the largest party by 1932.
8. By passing the Enabling Act in 1933, Hitler became the dictator of Germany. Nazi government had become most powerful.

Question 4.
Answer the questions with the help of Time-line chart.

1. What was the immediate cause for the Second World War?
Answer:
Invasion of Poland by Germany.

2. When did the United States enter into the World War – II?
Answer:
Dec. 8, 1941

3. The Weimar Republic belongs to which country ?
Answer:
Germany

4. Write any two important incidents occurred in 1941.
Answer:
Germany invades the USSR Mass murder of the Jews begins The United States joins Second World War

Question 5.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below:

1. Which was the first country that established the socialist government in the world?
Answer:
Russia (OR) USSR.

2. Why did the Civil war occur in Russia?
Answer:
Civil war was broke out between Bolshevik group and White army for establishment of Socialism and political monarchism, ecomonic capitalism. Bolsheviks were favour to Socialism and White group was favour to Economic capitalism.

3. What were the Russian emperors called?
Answer:
Tzars.

4. Name the international organization which was formed to promote socialist ideology.
Answer:
Formation of Comintern (Third international at Moscow in 1919).

Question 6.
Russian revolution brought in many changes in their society. What were they? And what challenges did they face?
Answer:
Changes in the Russian Society:

1. The immediate change was the elimination of the democratic provisional councils called Sovi¬ets in various larger cities.
2. Under Bolshevik rule Russia got out of World War – II.
3. A Socialist system was imposed on the country which all but the smallest businesses were taken over by the government.
4. Land was redistributed to peasant farmers and food distribution was temporarily improved.
5. Soon though, many people became disenchanted with the Bolsheviks and the Russian Civil war broke out in 1918 and lasted until 1920.

Challenges they faced:

1. Famines
2. Resistances
3. Low standards of living
4. The Great Depression
5. Unemployment
6. Lack of educational facilities
7. Cheap public health care, etc.

Question 7.
What were the agricultural reforms of Joseph Stalin in the USSR?
Answer:

1. After the death of Lenin in 1924 Stalin emerged as the leader of the Communist Party.
2. The USSR began a programme of planned economic development with its Five Year Plans in 1928.
3. This pursued a twin policy of rapid industrialization and collectivization of agriculture.
4. The USSR under the leadership of Joseph Stalin tried to end small peasant production by forcing all small and large farmers to surrender their lands and join “Collective Farms” and share the products.
5. Farmers worked together and the produce was divided among the members of the farms.
6. After an initial period of decline, agricultural production soon rose and helped the USSR to also build its industries on an unprecedented scale.
7. All industries were owned by the state which did not allow a free-market system.
8. An extended schooling system developed, and arrangements were made for factory workers and peasants to enter universities.

Question 8.
What are the impacts of the great economic depression in the USA?
Answer:
Impacts of the great economic depression in the USA:

1. The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the Second World War began.
2. In this period decline in demand and fall in prices.
3. The decline in demand led to closure of factory production which in turn meant further de-cline in the purchasing power of people.
4. It initially began with a stock market collapse in the U.S.A., but before long affected almost every country.
5. As many as 25% Americans were unemployed.
6. This in turn caused a collapse of prices (up to 60%) for agricultural produce causing pauperisation of millions of farmers and stopping of cultivation.
7. It had devastating social consequences sharply increasing poverty, desolation, homelessness, etc.
8. F.D. Roosvelt who became the President of the US announced “the New Deal” policy to re-cover America from Great Depression.

Question 9.
What are the consequences of the World Wars?
Answer:
The World Wars had a long-lasting impact on the politics, society and economy of the world.
These can be enumerated as follows:

1. Enormous human cost: The first consequence of the wars was widespread deaths and injuries. Many persons who were under forty years of age died.
2. Democratic principles asserted : The two wars also brought home the dangers of having un-democratic governments and greatly strengthened the case for democratisation of power.
3. New balance of power: With World War I the German, Austro-Hungarian, Russian and Turk-ish empires came to an end. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.
4. New international organisations After World War I, the League of Nations was formed to resolve disputes peacefully and the United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II.
5. Enfranchisement of women : After a long struggle for political right like right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your interpretation.
“USSR, started a great experiment of building a country without exploiters like feudal lords, kings or capitalists. The USSR tried to build a society that was industrialized and modern and yet didn’t have inequality or exclusion of people on the basis of birth, gender, language, etc.”
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that USSR has established a country with equality.
2. There are no exploiters, no dominants and no sufferers.
3. Though if followed industrialisation and modern technology and updated life, it didn’t have no inequality in any form.
4. It is the real spirit of socialism.
5. A country with equality and modern development is never expected in any country but it happened in USSR at that time.
6. In any country, we can see some sort of discrimination.
7. In some countries, discrimination is seen in the form of colour, i.e. the Blacks and the Whites.
8. In our country, some castes are treated as high castes and some other castes as low.
9. Boys are sent to higher education whereas the girls are not sent because of various reasons like safety and security.
10. Many countries have mentioned in the preamble of their constitutions that they give impor¬tance to equality and there will be no discrimination in any form.
11. In conclusion, I would say that every country should maintain equality.
12. The downtrodden should be uplifted.
13. A country with equal treatment is always an ideal one to all the nations.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your interpretation.
“The Nazi’s police powers were used to arrest and torture millions of political activists, trade unionists and people of minority communities, especially the Jews. They did all this to build a state of horror and fear”.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph conveys about the cruel policy of the Nazi soldiers.
2. Hitler arrested and tortured millions of German political leaders and activists, trade union leaders.
3. Minorities were also targeted.
4. This situation created a horrible state under the leadership of Hitler in Germany.
5. When Hitler won the elections of 1932 he brought the Enabling Act and many special forces like Gestapo, protection squads, security services besides different troopers.
6. These forces worked brutally and created horror and fear among the people.
7. Hitler did not allow any political party or trade union to work out.
8. He instructed all the people to follow the Nazis.
9. There was no peace.
10. He treated the Jewish people as his enemies.
11. Everyone criticized Hitler mainly because of his cruel treatment with the Jewish people.
12. The whole Germany was horrified of his activities.
13. In conclusion, I feel that Hitler’s activities are unlawful and undemocratic.
14. Nowadays all the countries are moving towards democratic governments.
15. All the countries should concentrate on literacy rate and so various programmes are to be taken up and implement strictly.
16. So that there will be no scope for such situation in any country.

Question 12.
What are the situations that led to strengthening Nazism in Germany?
Answer:
The situations that led to strengthening Nazim in Germany:

1. The burden of paying war-damages.
2. Inflation increased.
3. The economy was worst hit by depression.
4. Unemployment increased.
5. Savings of the people diminished.
6. Small businessmen were ruined.
7. Big businessmen were in a crisis.
8. Organized workers could manage to survive.
9. Peasants were affected by fall in agricultural prices.
10. Women were unable to feed their children.
11. No stable rule.

Question 13.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analysing it.

Answer:
Annual National Defence Expenditure

1. The table shows that the annual defence expenditure of great countries Britain and Germany has been increasing since 1933.
2. In the year of 1939, the expenditure increases because of the armament race, protection from enemies why because already they tasted the World War -1.
3. The government of these countries also helped to them to spend more money on defence. Ag-gressive nationalism also created proud of their country and desire of superiority in the world and also responsible to more expenditure on defence.
4. Million dollars spend for defence only during the period of 1933 to 1939.
5. At present some countries also spend more money on defence because of enemies. If every country realise and maintain friendly relations with other countries, and they spend million dollars for peace and development of poor people, automatically the world peace will de¬velop and every person live with without fear of war and tension in the world.

Question 14.
Observe the following Bar-graph and analyse it.
Answer:

1. The given bar graph is about the Explosive Production of two developed industrialised countries of West, i.e. Britain and Germany during World War-1.
2. Both countries belonged to two enemy groups or blocks.
3. In 1914 the explosive production of Britain and Germany is 4 tonnes and 8 tonnes respectively.
4. From that year onwards the production increased on a large scale in both the countries.
5. The difference is that the explosive production is less for Britain when compared to Germany in 1914.
6. But this situation reversed in 1917. The explosive production of Britain increased by over 45 times, i.e. from 4 tonnes to 184 tonnes during the years from 1914 to 1917 whereas the production of Germany increased by approximately 18 times, i.e. from 8 tonnes to 140 tonnes for the same period.

Question 15.
Explain briefly about the consequences of the World Wars.
Answer:
The World Wars had a long-lasting impact on the politics, society and economy of the world.
These can be enumerated as follows:

1. Enormous human cost: The first consequence of the wars was widespread deaths and injuries. Many persons who were under forty years of age died.
2. Democratic principles asserted: The two wars also brought home the dangers of having un-democratic governments and greatly strengthened the case for democratisation of power.
3. New balance of power: With World War I the German, Austro-Hungarian, Russian and Turkish empires came to an end. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.
4. New international organisations: After World War I, the League of Nations was formed to resolve disputes peacefully and the United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II.
5. Enfranchisement of women: After a Jong struggle for political right like right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.

Question 16.
Observe the poster and answer the questions.
a) Which country issued this poster?
b) What was the purpose of this poster?
c) What does the Swastika in the poster stand for?
d) During which war was this poster was published?
Answer:
a) U.S.A issued this poster.
b) War bonds were offered by the U.S.A. Government for purchase by the public to fulfill the military operations and other expenditure in times of war.
c) The three young children, apprehensive and fearful, as they are enveloped by the large dark arm of swastika shadow.
(OR)
Simply, Germany is going to occupy the U.S.A also.
d) This war bonds poster was published during the time of second World War.

Question 17.
Describe the course of Russian Socialist Revolution.
Answer:

1. Russian socialist revolution in 1917 took place in two phases – March 1917 and November 1917.
2. 10,000 women took procession demanding ‘Peace and Bread’ and supported by many later.
3. In just two days Tsar Nicolas II abdicated throne and provisional government was set up in search 1917.
4. It wished to continue the war and economic shortage was not addressed.
5. Soviets (the councils of peasants, workers and soldiers) were organised by Bolshevik leader Lenin.
6. They seized political power from provisional government.
7. They took steps to end the war and redistributed land.
8. They made control over prices and nationalized industries, banks, etc.
9. They suppressed the long-drawn civil wars.
10. By 1924, the USSR – Union of Soviet Socialist Republics was formed.

Question 18.
Give an estimate of the world at the end of first half of the 20th century.
Answer:

1. The first half of the 20th century ended with the nightmare of Hiroshima and Nagasaki and with the hopes generated by the founding of the UNO.
2. The Second World War ended with the ending of large colonial empires of Britain, France, Japan, Italy and Germany.
3. By 1950, countries like India, China, Indonesia, Vietnam, Egypt, Nigeria etc. became independent.
4. Britain which was the most powerful country now became a secondary power.
5. Two new superpowers emerged on the World scene : the USSR and the USA.
6. The USSR, which bore the main burnt of Hitler’s war and faced enormous destruction, gradually rebuilt its economy.
7. Its victory however, greatly enhanced its prestige in the world and it was now joined by the entire Eastern Europe and China to form a large ‘Socialist Camp’.

Question 19.
Observe the timeline chart and answer the following questions.

1. When and how were the foundation for socialism laid?
Answer:
The foundations for socialism were laid between 1850¬1880 due to debates over socialism.

2. How many revolutions took place in Russia?
Answer:

1. Revolution of 1905 .
2. The February Revolution of 1917 and the October revolution of 1917.

3. Did the peace establish in Russia after 1917?
Answer:
No, civil war broke out between 1918-20.

4. What do you mean by collectivization?
Answer:
The land was collected and farmer worked together and shared the produce. This was collectivization.

Question 20.
Locate the following points in the world map.

1. St. Petersberg
2. Moscow
3. Kyrgyzstan
4. Ukraine
5. Uzbekistan
6. Tajikistan
7. Kazakistan
8. Turkomania

Answer:

Question 21.
Observe the following map.

Answer the following questions after reading the map.

1. Which neighbouring country of India was occupied by Japan?
Answer:
The neighbouring country of India that was occupied by Japan was Burma.

2. What is Dutch East India called now ?
Answer:
Dutch East India is now called ‘Indonesia’.

3. Most of the area under control of Japan is a part of which ocean?
Answer:
Most of the area under the control of Japan is a part of Pacific Ocean.

4. Which Chinese region was under the control of Japan ?
Answer:
Manchuria was the Chinese region that was under the control of Japan.

5. Was Mongolia under the control of Japan in 1942?
Answer:
No. It was not under the control of Japan in 1942.

Question 22.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Stalingrad

2. In 1939 Germany attacked on this country
Answer:
Poland

3. St. Petersberg

4. This country faced more destruction due to releasing atom bombs by America
Answer:
Japan

5. Capital of Poland
Answer:
Warsaw

6. Capital of Austria
Answer:
Vienna

7. Corsica Island

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 12 Sustainable Development with Equity.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. How does the Green Revolution lead to an increase in food grains?
Answer:

1. Use of high yielding varieties.
2. Improvement of irrigational facilities.
3. Use of new methods of cultivation.
4. Use of pesticides and fertilisers.

Question 2.
What is the main theme of Rachel Carson’s book ‘Silent Spring’?
Answer:
The impact on birds and human beings of spraying DDT for mosquito control.

Question 3.
What is the aim of Chipko movement?
Answer:
The main aim of Chipko Movement is to protect forests.

Question 4.
Write any two slogans on the environmental protection.
Answer:

1. Save the environment, save life.
2. Save the nature to save the future.
3. Go green and eliminate the global warming.

Question 5.
Write one main characteristic of organic farming.
Answer:
In organic farming the farmers use local resources including on-farm biological processes. Pest predators available them. Micro-organisms which make nutrients more accessible to the plants. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used only for animal manure.

Question 6.
What is HDI as a measure of development?
Answer:
As a measure of development, HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.

Question 7.
Which expands the meaning of development?
Answer:
HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of education and health.

Question 8.
Which are central to the production process?
Answer:
Many naturally existing substances like land, water, minerals and ores, products from trees and animals are central to the production
process.

Question 9.
What does the overuse of ground water imply?
Answer:
Over use of ground water implies that the stock of groundwater is being depleted. Very rapidly the ground water has been falling to lower and lower levels.

Question 10.
Which are central to modern development?
Answer:
Irrigation and power have been produced and both are central to modern development.

Question 11.
What is called NBA?
A. The resistance to Sardar Sarovar and other
dams with similar consequences in the Narmada valley has taken the form of a social movement. It is called Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA).

Question 12.
“It is unjust to ask the poor people”
What is it?
Answer:
We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities. It is unjust to ask poor people to bear the cost of development.

Question 13.
Which governments banned chemical fertilizers and pesticides?
Answer:
The Sikkim government and Uttarakhand government.

Question 14.
When did the Chipko movement start and where?
Answer:
The Chipko movement started in the early 1970s in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand.

Question 15.
Expand HDI.
Answer:
Human Development Index.

Question 16.
What is meant by “Water Recharge”?
Answer:
Water Recharge means the percolation of water into the ground to be extracted.

Question 17.
Write about Chipko Andolan?
Answer:
Chipko means embrace the villagers hugged the trees saving them interposing their bodies between them and the contractor’s axes.

Question 18.
What are the natural resources to use in production?
Answer:
Natural resources used in production are land, water, and minerals, forests, etc.

Question 19.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Question 20.
What are the activities to take up through an alternative Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Alternate PDS advocates the practice of millets, establishment of community grain bank, issue of cards and ensuring food security in the village.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the table which shows the growth in the extraction of some key-minerals in India.
Answer:
Extraction of minerals in a thousand Tonnes

After your observation, what do you think about the environmental loss of such rapid growth of mining.

1. Ground water pollution would increase.
2. Temperatures would increase.
3. Air pollution would increase near the mining areas.
4. Water storage capacity would decrease due to soil erosion.
5. Extreme burning of coal leads to ozone depletion.
6. Accidents may occur due to heavy mining.
7. People may face natural calamities like earthquakes.

Question 2.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone – now and for generations to come.

Question 3.
How does organic farming promote bio-diversity?
Answer:

1. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used in organic farming.
2. Only echo friendly farming techniques are used.
3. Methods like crop rotation, using compost and use of Local resources are used.
4. Number of crops are produced in farms instead of one or two crops.

Question 4.
Write two slogans on enlightening people regarding “environment protection”.
Answer:
Slogans on Environment Protection.

1. Grow plants – Get oxygen
2. Avoid plastic bags – Promote cotton bags.

Question 5.
What are the aspects taken as indicators to measure Human Development?
Answer:
Indicators of development:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling
4. Expected years of schooling
5. Life expectancy at birth
6. Health status
7. Employment status
8. Equal distribution

Question 6.
Create two slogans to prevent Global warming.
Answer:

1. All be nice – Save the ice
2. Global warming – Not charming
3. Protect Mother Earth – It protects all

Question 7.
Identify the importance of the environment in the development of a nation.
Answer:
The development has to be achieved at any cost. Growth in GDP and modern industrial development are necessary, it is argued, for raising the living standards of people and reducing poverty. Since modern industrial and agricultural development are intensive in use of natural resources including energy, depletion of resources and pollution of the environment is to be expected. It is a sacrifice that has to be borne for higher growth. Once high economic growth and prosperity is achieved, pollution and environmental degradation can be handled. One can spend money and clean up the air and rivers, drink bottled water and build cars that are fuel efficient. After all this is the route the developed countries have taken.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of ‘Sustainable Development’.
Answer:

Importance of Sustainable Development

The development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.

The present scenario is quite adversary. There is no such feeling of future generations and their needs. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on. If we do not consider this, how the next generations survive that everyone should think of.

To what extent the natural resources we need to that extent only we should use. This concept is to be spread among the people.

Government should take up awareness programmes on this issue. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts. In some areas multinational companies have taken up the lands and pumping out the water and selling them. How does the government give permission to such companies which lead to fall down of ground water level? Government should think about this and take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 9.
Why is it necessary to focus on sustainable development now a days?
Answer:
Focus on sustainable development nowadays is compulsory to meet the needs of the present as well as future generations. We have to provide better quality of life for everyone. Conservation of fertility of soil is also essential for future crops. Factory emissions are to be prevented to make the air and water pure.

Question 10.
Differentiate between the environment’s ‘Source function’ and ‘Sink function’.
Answer:
Differences between the Environment’s source function and Sink function.

Question 11.
How is environmental protection linked with our lifestyle?
Answer:
Our life style is linked with environment protection. We should be habituated to use organic productions. We should avoid plastic. Use renewable energy sources. Reducing quarrying and deforestation to zero. Industrial waste should be disposed in a proper manner. Public transport with compressed Natural Gas is to be encouraged. Radiating devices are to be minimized.

Question 12.
On what does the primary sector depend?
Answer:
In primary sector activities – agriculture, mining, quarrying – and in the manufacturing and energy sector, production is hugely dependent on natural resources. The other sectors of the economy too are dependent on natural resources in various degrees.

Question 13.
What is environment’s source function?
Answer:
The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an “environment’s source function”. This function is depleted as resources are consumed or pollution contaminates the resources.

Question 14.
What is another function that the environment provides?
Answer:
There is another function that the environment provides. It is to absorb and render harmless the waste and pollution from various activities. Unwanted by-products of production and consumption say exhaust gases from combustion, water used to clean products, discarded packaging and goods no longer wanted are absorbed by the environment. This is as important as the source function.

Question 15.
What does the ‘sink function’ describe?
Answer:
The “sink function” describes an environment’s ability to absorb and render harmless waste and pollution. When waste output exceeds the limit of the sink function, long-term damage to the environment occurs.

Question 16.
What happened in the past fifty years?
Answer:
In the past fifty years of economic development, both these functions of the environment have been overused. This has been said to affect the carrying capacity of the environment, i.e., the capacity of the environment to support economic production and consumption in the future.

Question 17.
What is modern development for people who have been displaced? Why?
Answer:
For people who have been displaced modern development has been unjust and destructive. Because they have lost access to their greater resource, the local environment. Without the local environment, their lives would be reduced to nothing.

Question 18.
How are environmental movements?
Answer:
While each of these movements has slightly different contexts, they are essentially demanding the rights of the local communities over the environment. Chipko movement acted to prevent the cutting of trees and reclaim their traditional forest rights that were threatened by contractors. Narmada Bachao Andolan has stood for the rights of the people over land, forests and river.

Question 19.
What is the impact on the environment that the use of pesticides and chemicals?
Answer:

1. The excessive use of pesticides and chemical fertilizer exhibit a negative impact on society.
2. Environment cannot absorb harmful substances than a limit.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit the sink function limit, danger occurs to the environment.
4. It pressures on environment’s ability to provide different resources for production.

Question 20.
Is it correct to take HDI (Human Development Index) as a measure of development?
Answer:

1. As a measure of development HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.
2. The idea of development hardly limited to production of goods and services.
3. Rapid expansion of production and income coexist with malnutrition and lack of education and health.
4. HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of health and education.

Question 21.
A high % workforce in low-paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only a select groups. Read this and interpretate?
Answer:

1. In India 90% of workforce is in the unorganized sector, where the conditions of working are not encouraging at all.
2. Incomes of both self employed and wage workers in unorganized sectors are generally low and at times pitiably so.
3. With, such a high percentage of the workforce is low paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only to select groups.

Question 22.
Construction of big dams “leads to environmental problems”. Read this and interpretate.
Answer:

1. They disrupt the lives and livelihoods of lakhs of people.
2. Many people lose their access to local environment.
3. Many people drop from a state of self – sufficiency to scarcity.
4. They were at times made to depend on external forces.
5. Many lose their needs without access to the environment.
6. Rich biodiversity and treasure of knowledge is lost which comes traditionally.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How does the lifestyle of people influence the environment? What are your suggestions to protect the environment ?
Answer:
Influence:

1. There is a strong bondage between the lifestyle of human kingdom and environment.
2. Environment fulfills many of our needs.
3. There are various ways in which our lifestyles of people influence the environment.
4. The people of a region lives according to their environment. Their traditions, cultures, festivals, etc. are based on their environment.

My Suggestions:

1. Natural resources should be used limitedly.
2. Forests should not be cut down. We should take care of them.
3. Industrial wastes should be recycled.
4. The establishment of industries which release more pollution should be restricted.
5. People should be enriched with the knowledge of environment.

Question 2.
Observe the following Graph diagram.
Write a brief note on the inequality in India based on the graph.
Answer:

1. 3 million households with annual income above Rs. 17 lakh are classified as rich.
2. 31 million households with annual income between Rs. 3.4 to Rs. 17 lakh are classified as middle class.
3. 71 million households income is between Rs. 1.5 to Rs. 3.4 lakh classified as aspirers.
4. 135 million lakhs classified as deprived.
5. In our country, more than 90% of the people are in unorganised sector.
6. It clearly says that the rich are becoming more rich, whereas the poor remain poor.
7. There is inequality in holding wealth as well as opportunities.
8. Wide inequalities in incomes and opportunities across people cannot be the basis for a just society.

Question 3.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.

It is also important to realize that not only do people lose out as they are removed from their local environments, equally, the environment is denuded of Its rich biodlverslty as the traditional knowledge is lost along with the people.

Answer:

The largest of the dams constructed is the Sardar Sarovar, which floods more than 37,000 hectares of forest and agricultural land, displacing more than half a million people and destroying some of India’s most fertile land. The project has devastated human lives and bio-diversity by inundating thousands of acres of forest and agricultural land. A disproportionate number of those being displaced are Adivasi’s and Dalits.

Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs which otherwise they would have to pay for.
As they lose access to environment either because of displacement, or because the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest sufferers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Question 4.
Write a letter to your district collector on the problems of environment in your area.
Answer:

Anandnagar Colony,
Visakhapatnam,
Date: xxxxxxxxx.

To,
The District Collector,
Visakhapatnam District,
Visakhapatnam.

Respected Sir,

I am Srinivasa Rao, the resident of Gajuwaka. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about problems of environment in our local area.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to take proper effective measures wherever polluted industries are there and they should be shut down and minimise polluted plying vehicles and reduce the release of greenhouse gases.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………
…………………………

Question 5.
Study the table given below and answer the questions.
Growth in Extraction of Some Key Minerals in India (in thousand tonnes)

a) What do the particulars of above table tell about?
Answer:
Growth in extraction of some key minerals in India

b) In comparison to other minerals, which one is not being extracted more than double in 2008-09?
Answer:
Coal is not being extracted more than double in 2008 – 09.

c) What might be the reasons for increase in mining?
Answer:

1. Number of industries increased.
2. Using machinery in mining.
3. Consumption of minerals increase.
4. Greed of human beings.

d) What do you think would be the environmental and human costs of such rapid growth in mining?
Answer:

1. Sustainability of minerals
2. Diversion in the direction of river flow
3. Causes for floods.
4. Extinction of forest cover.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
We are already experiencing the negative consequences of rapid economic growth on several fronts – the problem of groundwater and pesticides being two stark examples. We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities.

1. The idea of development has been contested through problems of environment.
2. The groundwater levels fell rapidly and groundwater recharge is also not to the expected level.
3. Fertilizers made the soil less fertile and ever increasing costs to farmers.
4. Industrialisation has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened.

My Opinion: Always we should be able to integrate enviromental concerns with the idea of progress, along with issues of equity and justice. We have to find an environmentally sustainable pathway out of poverty.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph, understand and write your opinion on it.

While industrialisation has brought a lot of material comforts, at least to some, it has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened and now even the climate is being disrupted. This pattern of growth clearly cannot continue.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph :

1. Industrialisation in the world has brought a lot of material comforts for humans to lead a happy life.
2. Man has invented from small pin to big plane with these metals obtained by mining.
3. But at the same time the minerals are reducing in their quantity because man’s short sighted ness.
4. As a result of man’s greediness the natural resources such as metals and fossil fuels are declin-ing and threatening our planet to fell in danger.
5. Because of over use of these resources, climatic changes are going on with the depletion of ozone layer damage and environment degradation.

I conclude that this type of growth does not create sustainable development to the planet and further it becomes unjustifiable in degrading our environment.

Question 8.
How would the rapid extraction of natural resources effect the future development prospects?
Explain.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this statement.
2. We are extracting minerals and natural resources rapidly.
3. Modern industrial development and agricultural development are intensive in use of minerals and natural resources.
4. If this extraction goes on like this, the mineral deposits and natural resources will be depleted.
5. The extent of our current use of minerals and natural resources is such that the chances of future generations to have access to their fair share of scarce resources are endangered.
6. Moreover, the consequences in terms of impacts on the environment may induce serious damages that go beyond the carrying capacity of the environment.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

Recent data on the status of groundwater resources in India suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. Nearly one-third of the country is pumping out more groundwater than what goes in as recharge. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years, which points to an alarming rate of extraction.

Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater resources are decreasing as we are overusing it.
2. Maximum of water is pumped out from deep layers.
3. Recharging is less and pumping is more.
4. In future it will become a major problem to all people.
5. The rate of extraction of water is dangerous for our existence.
6. Extraction of groundwater doesn’t affect the particular area where the extraction is going on but it affects all surrounding areas also.
7. The depth of the bore wells is increasing day by day.
8. There should be a change in the human attitude.
9. Our behavior should be environment friendly.
10. We should not over use ground water.
11. Deep wells should be discouraged.
12. Plastic usage should be prohibited.
13. The government should take stringent action against the people who do not follow these conditions.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

This pattern of development is in direct contrast to what sustainable development stands for Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone-now and for generations to come.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development.
2. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.
3. The present scenario is quite adversary to the paragraph. There is no such feeling of future
   generations and their needs.
4. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on.
5. The government should take up awareness programmes on this issue.
6. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts.
7. The government should think about this take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

For most rural communities, the link between the environment and the lives of the people is very strong. Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs (like food, firewood, fodder, economically valuable articles, etc.) which otherwise they would have to pay for. As they lose this access to environment either because of displacement, or the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest losers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given here, the rural people are attached with environment for their food and other commodities.
2. When there is a displacement they don’t have this facility of getting commodities.
3. These poor people suffer a lot when the environment is destroyed and polluted.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that many a time it is happening in many places.
5. When displacement takes place, the forest dwellers have to face many problems.
6. They don’t have sufficient food and land for cultivation.
7. They don’t get loans as they are new to the money lenders of that place.
8. The government should think about the troubles of these people when they are asked to move from their living places.
9. I am not opposing to construct dams and projects but the displacement should not lead to troubles.
10. Alternate arrangements should be made keeping their problems in mind.

Question 12.
Locate the following points in the Indian map provided.

1. Mumbai
2. Hyderabad
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Gujarat
5. Tamil Nadu
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Uttar Pradesh
9. River Narmada
10. Sardar Sarovar Project
11. Andhra Pradesh
12. Delhi.

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 8 People and Migration.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 8th Lesson People and Migration

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are Kopis?
Answer:
Kopis are conical huts made of bamboo mats and poles.

Question 2.
Write any one reason for international migration.
Answer:
Education and Employment are the main reasons for international migration.

Observe the graph below and answer questions 3, 4.

Question 3.
Which social background people are migrating more?
Answer:
OBC are migrating more.

Question 4.
What is the reason for short term migration?
Answer:
The reason for short term migration in rural areas is distress caused there.

Question 5.
Draw a rough pie chart to represent the information given in the table.
Population Expansion in Urban Regions 2001 – 2011

Answer:

Question 6.
How does migration arise?
Answer:
Migration arises out of various social, economic or political reasons.

Question 7.
How can we identify a person as a migrant?
Answer:
For identifying a person as a migrant, two criteria are used by the centres :

• birthplace
• last usual place of residence.

Question 8.
What is the most common reason for male migration?
Answer:
Employment or seeking employment is the most common reason for male migration.

Question 9.
Give some other reasons for migration.
Answer:
Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities for studies, loss in business, family, friends, etc. are also some other reasons for migration.

Question 10.
Where do the urban migrants have to work?
Answer:
Most urban migrants have to work in the unorganised sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 11.
Which has been recognised as a natural response?
Answer:
For some people from rural areas moving to cities and towns to work in industry and other service activities have been recognised as a natural response to increase their in¬come and for better family prospects.

Question 12.
Why do migrants continue to live as daily workers?
Answer:
The migrants from rural to urban are not able to find jobs in the organised sector and therefore there’s no job security and decent income that they were aspiring for. They continue to live as daily workers.

Question 13.
Why is the number of seasonal migrants underestimated in India?
Answer:
The number of seasonal migrants is underestimated in India due to limitations in the definition of the term ‘migrant’ used in national surveys.

Question 14.
What is the Emigration Act, 1983?
Answer:
The Emigration Act, 1983 is the Indian law governing migration and employment of Indians abroad.

Question 15.
What are living areas of the sugarcane cutters?
Answer:
The Kopis are cramped together and bullocks are parked in front. Animals and humans live together in congested conditions.

Question 16.
Who are the rural seasonal migrants?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low-income households, dalits and Adivasis.

Question 17.
Where do rural seasonal migrants work?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants work in agriculture and plantations, brick kilns, quarries, construction sites and fish processing.

Question 18.
Who have a long history of migrating?
Answer:
Male from Saora tribals have a long history of migrating to work in Assam plantation, Munda and Santhal men migrate to work in mining sites in Odisha.

Question 19.
Which depend on migrant workers?
Answer:
Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers.

Question 20.
“It is also common to see migrants”
What is it?
Answer:
It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in their petty businesses and casual labour.

Question 21.
What is the economic condition of the seasonal migrants?
Answer:
Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Question 22.
What did the N.C.R.L. find?
Answer:
The National Commission of Rural Labour in its reports in 1990s found that uneven development and regional disparity triggered and accelerated seasonal migration.

Question 23.
How do the migrant labourers spend?
Answer:
Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair price shops at their workplaces.

Question 24.
Why do they suffer from health problems?
Answer:
As they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Question 25.
Name some health problems from which they suffer.
Answer:
Bodyache, sunstroke, skin irritation and lung diseases.

Question 26.
Why are migrants not able to access various health and family care programmes?
Answer:
Migrants are not able to access various health and family care programmes as they do not belong to the organised sector.

Question 27.
Do the migrant workers have maternity leave?
Answer:
No, they do not have maternity leave.

Question 28.
Which leaves a deep impact on migrants?
Answer:
Exposure to a different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmosphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 29.
What does migration allow?
Answer:
Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets. It is also common to find migrant families buying house, land, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.

Question 30.
How do some migrants migrate regularly?
Answer:
Some migrants might take up jobs in the destination, acquire skills required in the destination area, become aware of how to get regular jobs and migrate regularly or permanently.

Question 31.
How many kinds of migrations are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are two kinds of migrations.
They are:

1. Internal migrations
2. International migrations.

Question 32.
Where do the skilled Indians migrate?
Answer:
The skilled Indians migrate to the U.S.A., the U.K., Canada, Germany, Norway, Japan and Malaysia.

Question 33.
What is the second type of international migration?
Answer:
The second type of international migration is unskilled and semi-skilled workers migrating to oil-exporting countries of West Asia on temporary contracts.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When males leave their families, this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

What is the effect on girls if the head of the family migrates?
Answer:
When the head of the family migrates, the burden of the family falls on the woman. She has to work, earn and lead the family. As she works outside of the house, the girl children should take care of the younger children and elder people in the home, So they are becoming dropouts.

Question 2.
What do you suggest to overcome the problems of foreign migrants?
Answer:

1. The government should take care of their security i.e., the embassies.
2. They should not believe on unauthorized intermediators.
3. Legal documents should be verified properly.

Question 3.
Do you think migrants are trouble makers? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes. I think migrants are trouble makers.
2. The migrants may not be provided with proper facilities by the government.
3. The migrants may question for proper facilities in the long course.
4. If the migrants begin to fight for their identity, then the trouble will start.
   Ex: Tamil people in Sri Lanka.

(OR)

1. No. I think migrants are not trouble makers.
2. Generally migrants go for their livelihood.
3. Therefore no scope to fight for domination.
4. Migrants won’t trouble anybody because they won’t fight for identity and domination.
   Ex: Sugarcane cutters in Maharashtra.

Question 4.
What are the problems faced by migrant labourers from villages to cities?
Answer:

1. They have to face the problem for proper shelter and settlement.
2. They may require references for jobs.
3. As they have to work in the unorganised sector, they would have neither job security nor any incentives.
4. They have to spend more on food.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes.

In urban areas, what are the common sectors of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment? Give examples.
Answer:
In urban areas the unorganised sector is the common sector of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment.

Question 6.
List out the reasons why the people have been migrating from your area.
Answer:
The following are the reasons for the people migrating from my area :

1. Marriage is one of the most common reasons for female migration.
2. Employment or seeking employment is another reason for males to migrate.
3. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place, better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds etc. is the other causes for migrating.

Question 7.
What are the reasons for migration?
Answer:

1. Migrations can happen due to many reasons.
2. Females reported marriage as the most common reason.
3. Males migrate on employment or seeking employment opportunities.
4. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place is one reason.
5. Better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds are some other reasons for migration.

Question 8.
Create a pamphlet on “Prevention of Migration”.
Answer:

PREVENTION OF MIGRATION

Reasons: When families migrate, they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Migratory pressures on communities of origin can be related social and economic distress. They can be linked to environmental degradation as well as natural man made hazards and they can be due persecution on conflict and violence. By supporting disaster preparedness and building resilence at the community level.

Conclusion: Why should we prevent means reduce the problems. National societies contributing to elevating pressures that can induce people to migrate against their will and desire.

Question 9.
How does the gender bias effect when the women work outside of the home nowadays?
Answer:
Before the rise of large scale industrialization, home and workplace were one and the same. But now the disparity between men and women in the workplaces is a common issue.

Workers acknowledge gender discrimination is possible in modem organizations, but at the same time maintain their workplaces to be gender-neutral.

Women are facing a high degree of gender bias when it comes to their career. There is a general perception that women are less capable than men in matters of business and decision making.

It is often a strenuous struggle for a woman not just to her mettle but also to make a deserving way to the top. Career goals of women are considered less important compared to male counterparts. The disparity is also seen in the wages and salaries also. Thus the relationship is negative.

Question 10.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. The above pie diagram is about the social background of short term migrants.
2. OBC and ST account for 40% and 23% of the migrants respectively.
3. Most of the OBC are skilled in making some items.
4. So they produce the articles and migrate to cities to sell their products.
5. SC people are benefited by the schemes provided by the government and their share is less.

Question 11.
‘Most children of migrant families become drop-outs.’ Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree that children become dropout if the parents are migrants.
2. When families migrate, children also accompany their parents.
3. They cannot get admission in schools in their parents workplace without transfer certificate.
4. Schools in their native place refuse to take them when they come back.
5. When parents migrate, the elder child especially the girl child, has to take care of the younger siblings.
6. Due to the above reasons, the children become dropouts.

Question 12.
Why are Embassies set up?
Answer:
Embassies set up by the Indian Government in different countries are expected to follow the legal procedures and protect the welfare of the international migrants as given in the Emigration Act.

Question 13.
Which depends upon the needs of rural family members?
Answer:
Remittances – money sent by migrants from their destination – are an important means of supplementing, or generating additional incomes for the rural family. The amount of remittances and the pressure to remain in the urban areas depends upon the needs of rural family members.

Question 14.
Why do migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas because they want to safeguard their rights over land and homestead. Families left in rural areas are important for most urban migrants. In feet, it is the family which decides whether their family member should migrate or not.

Question 15.
Write about Sugar belt.
Answer:
The seven districts in western Maharashtra- Nasik, Ahmadnagar, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur and Sholapur – comprise the”sugar belt” which extends into Surat(Gujarat) in the north and Belgaum(Karnataka) in the south. Five districts of the arid Marathwada region – Beed, Jalgaon, Ahmadnagar, Nasik and Jalna – send out labour to this sugar belt for six months every year for sugarcane harvesting.

Question 16.
Why do people migrate from rural areas?
Answer:
People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities, inadequate income available in rural employment. They also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services.

Question 17.
Why do many families have residences at both the ends?
Answer:
Many families have residences both at their origin- (native place) and at the destination. They shift between the two depending on work and seasons. The migration does not necessarily involve the movement of all members of the family, and often the wife remains in the rural area.

Question 18.
Why do migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas so that potential migrants can engage in the rural-based job search. In most cases, migration is a survival strategy for many families.

Question 19.

Estimate the rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow, Kolkata and Delhi.
Answer:

1. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow = 2 lakhs
2. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Kolkata = 2 lakhs
3. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Delhi = 6 lakhs

Question 20.
From which states in migrations are high? Give reasons.
Answer:
Migrations are high from states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Kerala. Western Uttar Pradesh and Delhi are industrially developed.

Question 21.
Read the above graph and answer the following questions.

1. In the Decade of 1961-71 the urban population of India is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 1961 – 71 is 31 million.
2. At the end of 2001-11 decade the urban population is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 2001 -11 is 91 mn.
3. How many times did the urban population increase from 1961-71 decade to 2001-11 decade?
   Answer:
   The urban population increased from 1961 – 71 to 2001 -11 is by 3 times.

Question 22.
Graph: Social Background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08

Read the given Pie diagram and answer the following questions.

1. How much per cent of STis migrated in 2007-08?
   Answer:
   ST’s constitute 23% of the migrated in 2007 – 08.
2. Which is the maximum migrated class In 2007-08? what is its percentage?
   Answer:
   The maximum migration is from the class of OBCs and it is 40%.
3. In which class we notice minimum migrants?
   Answer:
   The minimum migrants are there from others which is 18%.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the meaning of international migration? Identify the reasons and consequences of it.
Answer:
Migration of the people from one country to another country due to various reasons is called “international migration”.
Reasons:

1. For higher education
2. For better employment opportunities
3. For business needs Consequences:
4. Financial conditions of the migrant families improve.
5. They are able to pay back loans and buy assets.
6. Changes occur in their lifestyle.
7. Brain drain has become a major hazard to the progress of the country’s economy.

Question 2.

When families migrate, children accompanying their parents do not have creche facilities. Grown-up children are not able to continue their studies at their parents’ new workplaces. Schools in their native place refuse to take them again when they come back. They finally become dropouts. When males leave their families this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

“Most of the children of migrant families become dropouts” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Yes, it is true. When families migrate most of the children of migrant families become dropouts.
2. At the place of migration, creche facilities are not available for the children.
3. Even if there are such facilities poor families cannot afford them.
4. Sometimes even schools are not available at migrant places.
5. Schools in their native places refuse to take them again when they come back.
6. This is damaging their interest in studies.
7. Young girls in migrant families often required to take care of their siblings.
8. Now – a – days government schools are admitting such students.
9. But even then, they are lagging behind in their studies.
10. Special training should be given to them during the holidays.

Question 3.
Write your reflections on the vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia.
Answer:
Vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia :

1. At times, migrant workers are not paid their salaries, recruitment agents cheat prospective workers or collect more than the prescribed fees for their role in getting work for workers abroad.
2. Employers also terminate the job contract before its expiry, change the employment contract to the disadvantage of migrant workers.
3. Pay less than the agreed salary and freeze fringe benefits and other perks.
4. They often force workers to do overtime without making additional payments and deny permission to keep one’s own passport.
5. Indian migrant workers seldom lodge any complaint against their foreign employers for the fear of losing their jobs.

Question 4.
Observe the given pie chart and answer the question that follows:
Write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:
This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.

Normally in population, the number of people from other backward classes is more. It is also observed in rural areas. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases they have no lands. Recently the trend is changing. Due to some welfare schemes, they are also leading a better life. The percentage of others is also nearly equal to the scheduled castes. Their migration purpose may be different. Many of these migrants work in unorganized sector like, construction work, brick industries, selling plastic goods and vegetables or in casual work.

The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused. Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the nonfarm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Conclusion : If government provide loans to landless labour for Agriculture purpose, motor pump sets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in agricultural sector.

Question 6.
Write down the advantages and disadvantages of the people when they migrate.
Answer:

1. Urban migrants have plenty of opportunities for education and acquire new skills and take us new jobs effectively.
2. Thus they earn more incomes.
3. Remittances are an important means of supplementing or generating additional income for rural families.
4. Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets.
5. Migrant families buy house, land, gold, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.
6. Majority of migrants either remit or bring back savings.
7. Thus their purchasing power increases.

Disadvantages:

1. Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair prices shops.
2. They live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions.
3. They suffer from health problems and are prone to disease.
4. They do not have creche facilities.
5. Grown up children are not able to continue their studies at their parent’s new workplaces.
6. Exposure to different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmo¬sphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 7.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Migrations in India [Census 1991-2001]

Answer:
Table Analysis:
According to 1991 & 2001 census,

1. The total population in 1991 was 838.5 million excluding J & K. At the same time in 2001 it was 1028.6 million including J&K. There was a variation of 21.5% growth in the population.
2. Total migrated people in 1991 were 229.8 million and they were in 2001, 307.1 million. There was 32.9% variation from 1991 to 2001.
3. Migrants from within the districts in 1991 were 136.2 million and in 2001 were 181.7 million. The variation is 32.6%.
4. Migrants from other districts of the state in 1991 were only 59.1 million and in 2001 were 76.8 million. The variation is 29.5%.
5. In 1991 migrants from other states in India were 27.2 million and in 2001 they were 42.3 million. The variation is 54.5%.
6. Migrants from other countries were 6.9 million in 1991. This number reduced to 6.1 million in 2001. Hence, the variation is (-) 11.6%.

From the above information, it is evident that the total migrations increased from 1991 to 2001. Migrants within the district and migrants from other districts of the state increased. Because of employment, facilities and education also increased.
Some areas are not developed, that’s why people are migrating from one place to other places.

Conclusion: Finally from the above information we understand that migrants from other countries to India decreased. So we understand that foreigners are not preferring to migrate India because of lack of resources and employment and low paid salaries.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

The men drive the carts to the factory where they might have to wait in queue for several hours before they get to offload the cane. The women, meanwhile, walk several kilometres back to the settlement. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.

How far is the household work done by the women in these circumstances justified?
Answer:

1. Both men and women work in the sugarcane fields.
2. The cane piles are tied into bundles, carried on the head by men and women.
3. Men drive the carts to the factories.
4. After doing heavy work on cane fields, women walk several kilometres back to the settlement.
5. Then they have to perform household work.
6. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.
7. But the wage paid to the women is less when compared to the men.
8. Hence we can conclude this discrimination is not justified on any grounds.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better servicing. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the people migrate to urban areas as there is no sufficient work in rural areas.
2. They expect high income from urban areas but they settle in unorganized sector.
3. They also have no job security and they face many problems.
4. My opinion is that nowadays every individual want high income for their families.
5. The people are ready to go anywhere for that.
6. They are forcibly settling in the unorganized sector.
7. Some of them don’t find even daily wages.
8. In conclusion I suggest the government to take care of these labourers of the unorganized sector and launch new schemes for these migrants.

A large section of rural workers migrate for a short duration and particularly due to distress caused in rural areas. They are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low Income households, dalits and adivasis.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given, it is understood that most of the labourers migrating from rural areas to urban areas are from marginalized families.
2. Their income is low and they are SCs and STs.
3. They come to cities and towns in distress.
4. My opinion is that most of the dalits and adivasis have no agricultural lands. They are agricul¬tural labourers working in others fields.
5. When they find no work in some peculiar seasons they migrate to urban areas.
6. Especially the adivasis are still leading their lives based on the forest produce.
7. I suggest the government to take up new initiatives for the sake of these low-income groups. MNREGA programmes should be launched in needy areas.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers. It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in other petty businesses and casual labour. A large section of such migrants are from tribal communities and from drought-prone areas of the state. Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that different activities in urban areas depend on migrant workers.
2. Drought is also one of the reasons for migration. Many of the migrants are from tribal communities. They have no lands and so they are very poor.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that it is true the many of the migrants are working on construction sites and they are in the unorganized sector.
4. They don’t find work on all the days.
5. When there is a work they get wages. Many a time they spend their time waiting for work.
6. I conclude by saying these unorganized sector people are to be identified.
7. Special schemes are to be designed and launched. They should be provided with work but not simply financial help.
8. Banks should provide loans without collateral and so they can survive for themselves.

Question 12.

Prepare a paragraph on the above pie chart.
Answer:

1. This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others.
2. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.
3. Normally In population, the number of people from other backward classes is more.
4. It is also observed in rural areas.
5. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases, they have no lands.
6. The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places.
7. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused.
8. If Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 13.
Draw and locate the following.

1. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Amaravathi.
2. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Krishna, East & West Godavari districts.

Answer:

Question 14.
In the following map, estimate the urban migration to Delhi from UP and Bihar.

Answer:

1. Approximately 2 lakh persons migrated from Bihar to Delhi.
2. Approximately 4 lakh persons migrated from UP to Delhi.

Question 15.
In the following map, estimate the rural to urban migration from Karnataka to AP.

Answer:
Approximately 0.5 lakh persons migrated from Karnataka to AP.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 17 The Making of Independent India’s Constitution.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments?
Answer:
The Federal form of the constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments.

Question 2.
Observe the following bar diagram which shows amendments of the Constitution from 1950 to 2013.

a) In which decade were the lowest amendments made?
Answer:
The lowest amendments were made in the decade 1951 – 60.

b) How many amendments were made between 1950 – 2013?
Answer:
Ninety-nine amendments were made between 1950 – 2013.

Question 3.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both center and state?
Answer:
Federal Constitution.

Question 4.
Which preamble reflects the desire for Peace?
Answer:
Japan

Question 5.
What provisions made by the constitution to facilitate social change?
Answer:
Abolition of untouchability and Reservations.

Question 6.
Write the features of the Federal system.
Answer:

1. Dual policy,
2. Separation of powers

Question 7.
What are the two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution are

1. A single Judiciary
2. Uniformity in civil and criminal laws.
3. All India Civil Services.

Question 8.
Write any two similarities between the Indian and the Japanese Constitutional preambles.
Answer:

1. Sovereign Power
2. Democracy
3. Liberty
4. Justice
5. Faith

Look at the Graph below and answer the questions No. 9 and 10.
Graph – 99 Constitutional Amendments made between 1950 and 2013

Question 9.
In which period, more Constitutional amendments were made?
Answer:
More constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 10.
Why were there less Constitutional amendments during 1951-60?
Answer:
The Constitutional amendments during 1951-60 were less because

1. Initial period of the Constitution implementation.
2. More problems were not arised.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “the Republic”?
Answer:
Any country, where the head of the state is not on hereditary but any elected or nominated person is called the Republic.

Question 12.
Which two words were added to our Preamble?
Answer:
Socialistic and secular.

Question 13.
When was Constitution Assembly formed?
Answer:
In 1946.

Question 14.
Write any four basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

Question 15.
Which word was left undefined in our Constitution?
Answer:
“Untouchability” was left undefined in our Constitution.

Question 16.
What is the Population of India and the Constitution was prepared?
Answer:
400 million.

Question 17.
Which set out the main social system before the government?
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy set out the main social system before the government.

Question 18.
When were the first elections held in Nepal?
Answer:
In 1959, the first elections were held in Nepal under a new constitution issued by King Mahendra.

Question 19.
Who presented the draft of the Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar presented the draft of the Constitution before the C.A in 1948.

Question 20.
Expand IAS, IPS.
Answer:
IAS: Indian Administrative Service IPS: Indian Police Service.

Question 21.
Which is a formidable document? What does it contain?
Answer:
The Draft constitution is a formidable document. It contains 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Question 22.
From when major changes in the constitution made?
Answer:
Major changes in the constitution were made during 1970s.

Question 23.
How is the process of making a Constitution?
Answer:
The process of making a Constitution is a process of debate, discussion, ironing out differences and working out a framework acceptable to all conflicting opinions.

Question 24.
When was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 following the election to the provincial assemblies.

Question 25.
How were the Constituent Assembly members elected?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly members were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial assemblies.

Question 26.
How many SC members are represented in the Assembly?
Answer:
26 members.

Question 27.
Expand CA.
Answer:
Constituent Assembly.

Question 28.
Write about ‘Drafting Committee’.
Answer:
A ‘Drafting Committee’ was set up under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar and its task was to prepare the final draft taking in account all view points.

Question 29.
When was the Constitution adopted?
Answer:
The Constitution was finally adopted by the CA on 26th November 1949 and it came into force on 26th January 1950.

Question 30.
Which are recorded as the proceedings of CA?
Answer:
The speeches on the draft Constitution before CA are recorded in the proceedings of C.A. of India.

Question 31.
What are the two principal forms of the Constitution?
Answer:
The two principal forms of the Constitution are known to history – one is called Unitary and the other Federal.

Question 32.
Name some codes.
Answer:
The Civil Procedure Code, Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code, the Evidence Act, Transfer of Property Act.

Question 33.
How were IAS/IPS appointed?
Answer:
They were appointed through UPSC.

Question 34.
Who criticised in CA debates?
Answer:
Maulana Hasrat Mohani, Damodar Swarup Seth.

Question 35.
What was the cause of untouchability?
Answer:
The caste system was the cause of untouchability.

Question 36.
Define Untouchability.
Answer:
Untouchability is a social practice which discriminates people on caste basis.

Question 37.
How many members were there in ‘Drafting Committee’ of the Constitution?
Answer:
There were 7 members in the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

Question 38.
Who were the members of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami, B.R. Ambedkar, K.M Munshi Mohammad Saadula, B.L.Mitter and D.P. Khaitan were the seven members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two differences between Presidential system of Government and Parliamentary system of Government.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the four main features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Main features of Indian Constitution:

1. Written Constitution
2. Rigid and flexible Constitution
3. Parliamentary type of democracy
4. Single citizenship
5. Unitary and federal features.

Question 3.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:

1. The Supremacy of the central polity.
2. The absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 4.
Write the role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in preparing the draft Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. On 29th August 1947 the Drafting Comm¬ittee was appointed Dr.Br. Ambedkar as the Chairman long with 6 other members assisted by a Constitutional Advisor.
2. He studied the constitutions of the other nations and incorporated in Indian constitution which are suitable to Indian people.
3. He stressed on the importance of removal of untouchability and uplifting the depressed classes.
4. He conveyed a meeting with all the communities of the society and drafted a broad constitution.

Question 5.
List out the constitutional provisions that facilitate social change.
Answer:
Constitutional provisions that facilitate social change:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Protection to the minority community.
4. Directive principles of state policy.
5. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
6. Liberty, equality and Justice.

Question 6.
Make a Bar graph based on the below information.

Answer:

Question 7.
What are the double purposes of a Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution has a double purpose:

1. Outlining the role and rights of citizens and the structure and powers of the government and its organs like executive, legislature, judiciary, etc;
2. Indicating the nature of future society which has to be built by the joint efforts of the state and the society.

Question 8.
Who prepared the Constitution of India and how?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was prepared and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. This was the culmination of the long struggle of the Indian people for freedom from British colonial rule.

Question 9.
How were the members from the princely states elected?
Answer:
The members from the princely states were not elected at all and were decided through consultation with the concerned princely states. Such a decision was taken keeping in view the special situation that had arisen due to intense political activity on the eve of freedom and mounting tensions among the people.

Question 10.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution are:

1. the supremacy of the Central Polity [the word polity means a system of government or political organization] and
2. the absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 11.
How is a Federal Constitution marked?
Answer:
Federal Constitution is marked:

1. by the existence of a Central polity and subsidiary polities side by side, and
2. by each being sovereign in the field assigned to it. In other words, the Federation means the establishment of a Dual Polity [dual system of government central and state].

Question 12.
How can we call the Draft Constitution a Federal Constitution?
Answer:
The Draft Constitution is Federal Constitution in as much as it establishes what may be called a Dual Polity. This Dual Polity under the proposed Constitution will consist of the Union at the Centre and the States at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.

Question 13.
Write about Indian citizenship.
Answer:
“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with a single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….”

Question 14.
What are the three means adopted by Indian. Constitution?
Answer:
The means adopted by the Draft Constitution are three

1. a single judiciary,
2. uniformity – in fundamental laws, civil and criminal, and
3. a common All-India Civil Service Jo main important posts.

Question 15.
What is one important aspect of social engineering? What was the reason for this?
Answer:
One important aspect of social engineering is the problem of the right of minorities. The sad experience of suppression of Jewish minority in Nazi Germany weighed in the minds of the Constitution makers. They decided to give special protection to the minority community so that they don’t feel marginalised by the majority.

Question 16.
How can the articles be amended?
Answer:
Amending the articles in the Constitution can be initiated only by the Parliament. And it needs the approval of 2/3rd members in both the houses of parliament – Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha. And some articles may be amended only with acceptance (or ratification) from the state legislature as well. It is further necessary that the President of the ” country also approves the new amendment bill like other laws.

Question 17.
Read the passage and interpret it.

“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….

Answer:

1. We adopted our Constitution by referring other Constitutions and after having a number of debates on the principles.
2. We adopted unitary but federal governments.
3. Hence ours is a dual polity.
4. But the citizens will have only one citizenship, unlike the USA where dual citizen¬ship exists.
5. We have same rights in all the states of India no matter in what state he resides.

Question 18.
“The Draft Constitution is a formidable document. It contains 315 Articles and 8 Schedules. It must be admitted that the constitution of no country could be found to be so bulky as the draft constitution” Is there need for division of Constitution into articles and Schedules?
Answer:

1. There is dire necessity to divide constitution into schedules and articles.
2. Such formidable document without proper division cannot easily read and understood.
3. Information related same matter is spread over articles.
4. Articles are compounded into schedules.

Question 19.
Express your opinion about elections were conducted to Constituent Assembly.
Answer:

1. Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 with members elected indirectly by the members of provincial assemblies.
2. Princely states representatives were identified with a consultation.
3. Provincial assemblies members were from general, Muslim and Sikh communities!
4. 26 Schedule Caste members were also elected.

Question 20.
Imagine and write what happened if every state in India having different laws.
Answer:

1. Up to a certain point, the diversity does not matter.
2. If diversity goes beyond a certain point creates chaos in states.
3. States become intolerant to citizens from other states.
4. What is correct in one state may not be correct if he moves to another state.

Question 21.
“Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyze it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals.
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, raising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed an emergency, which took Indian democracy back.
5. Hence too much centralization of power is not advisable.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the examples and explanations of the basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(OR)
Write about the basic principles of Indian Constitution.
(OR)
Write a short note on basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

1. Popular Sovereignty: India is externally free from the control of any foreign power and internally, it has a free government which is directly elected by the people and makes laws that govern the peopl# So it is the biggest country which is following Parliamentary Democracy System in the world.

2. Fundamental Rights: These are the basic human rights of all citizens. These rights apply irrespective of race, place of birth, religion, caste, creed or sex. These are enforceable by the courty subject to specific restrictions.

3. Directive Principles: These are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government. These provisions are not enforceable by the courts.

4. Cabinet Government: A Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

5. Secularism: Secularism is the basic structure of the Indian Constitution. The government respects all religions. It does not uplift or degrade any particular religion.

6. Socialism: The word ‘socialist’ was added to the preamble by the 42nd amendment. It implies social and economic equality.

7. Federalism: it is a system based upon democratic rules and institutions in which the power to govern is shared between national and state governments.

8. Judicial Independence: The Indian Judiciary is independent of the executive and legislative branches of government according to the Constitution.

Question 2.
How does the Parliamentary system of Government differ from the Presidential system of Government?
(OR)
How is the Parliamentary system of government is different from the Presidential system of government?
Answer:

Question 3.
Describe the features of Indian Federalism.
Answer:
The features of Indian Federalism:

1. The supremacy of the constitution: The supremacy of the constitution means that both the Union and State governments, shall operate within the limits set by the constitution.
2. Written constitution The Constitution of India is the largest and most elaborate one, which discussed on several issues.
3. Division of powers: The Indian Constitution clearly described administrative powers into three lists viz. The Union List, The State List and The Concurrent Lists.
4. The supremacy of the Judiciary: As per the Constitution of India Judiciary is Independent and supreme. It can declare a contravenes law as unconstitutional.

Question 4.
Plot the below Information on a Bar graph (Rough diagram).

Answer:

Question 5.
Analyse the graph about Constitutional amendments given below and write your observations.
Answer:

1. Least number of amendments are made in 1951-60.
2. The number of total constitutional amendments done in between 1951 and 2013 was 99.
3. Highest number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.
4. Equal number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions based on the below graph.

a) When did the Constitution come into force?
Answer:
January 26th 1950.

b) In which decade, the least number of amendments had done?
Answer:
1951-60.

c) Why does the Constitution need to be amended?
Answer:
According the changes in circumstances and policies, laws also should be changed.

d) How many Constitutional amendments had been done from 1951 to 1980?
Answer:
44.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) How many constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60?
Answer:
7 constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60.

b) In which period, maximum constitu¬tional amendments were made?
Answer:
Maximum constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

c) In which decades, equal amendments were made?
A. Equal amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

d) How many amendments were made up to 2013?
Answer:
According to the graph, 99 amendments were made up to 2013.

Question 8.
Our constitution has many provisions facilitating social change. How are they being implemented
Answer:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Directive principles of state policy.
4. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
5. Liberty, equality, Justice.

Question 9.
Observe the below Bar graph and analyse it.
Answer:
This graph is about the amendments made since the Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950 till 2013. The total amendments made were 99. Recently the Supreme Court cancelled the 99th amendment. During 1971-80 and 1981-90, the amendments number is high. Forty-four amendments were made during these two decades. The graph is given decade wise.

Our Constitution makers were aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. Thus it laid down the provisions for amending the laws and the articles in the Constitution as well. Some laws can be made with the approval of more than half the members in legislative houses. The amendments are made in the Parliament only. Some articles can be amended with the approval of both the Houses of Parliament, i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Some need ratification from the states. Finally, the amendments are approved by the President. Then the amendments come into force.

The amendment means to bring some change in existing law of the constitution. Generally, an amendment is necessary on the basis of public needs. In the initial years of our independence, the amendments are only 7. In the next decade, it went up to more than double. The period, 1971-80 and 1981-90 is crucial in Indian Politics. The emergency was declared by Indira Gandhi. Single Party domination was ended and Non-Congress governments came in to power. In 1984 Indira Gandhi was assassinated. From 1991 onwards again the number is decreased.

The constitution can be amended without breaking or spoiling the spirit or its basic principles. In the 1970s, two words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ are added into the Preamble of the Constitution. According to the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Keshavananda Bharati, some basic principles can not be changed.

Many a time Constitution is being changed only for the sake of political benefits. It is a criticism on amendments. The true spirit of the Constitution cannot be changed. Constitutional amendments are necessary for the public interest. There should be some benefit to the masses. Ambiguity and complexity should be avoided. About a hundred times the Constitution is changed, it means the original one is getting it shape changed.

Question 10.
How can you say that India is a Secular State?
Answer:
The following points prove India is a Secular country.

1. Secularism in the Indian context implies tolerance towards others beliefs and faiths.
2. In India there is no state religion.
3. No religion is given superior status.
4. Citizens are granted complete freedom in religious matter.
5. People are free to profess, practice and propagate any religion of their choice.
6. No religious instruction is imparted in any educational institution maintained out of public funds.
7. No political party is allowed to use religion or religious symbols in the election campaigns.
8. No discrimination is made in matters of public employment on the grounds of religion.
9. The religious tolerance is followed.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) Since the Constitution was adopted, how many amendments were made so far?
Answer:
So far there were 99 amendments made since the Constitution was adopted.

b) What was the period of minimum amendments?
Answer:
Minimum amendments were made during 1951 – 60.

c) How many amendments were made during 2001 – 13?
Answer:
17 amendments were made during 2001 -13.

d) How many amendments were made during 1961 – 70?
Answer:
15 amendments were made during 1961 – 70.

e) What is meant by constitutional amendment?
Answer:
Changing the laws and the articles from time to time is known as a constitutional amendment.

f) Why were the amendments less in 1951- 60?
Answer:
Constitution was newly formed and society did not change much and people were illiterate to anticipate any change.

Question 12.
Read the following para and comment on what the Constitution did for social change/change of society.

The Constitution thus has many provisions facilitating social change. You have read about the abolition of Untouchability. The best example of this is the provision for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Constitution. The makers of the Constitution believed that the mere granting of the right to equality was not enough to overcome age-old injustices suffered by these groups or to give real meaning to their right to vote. Special Constitutional measures were required to advance their interests. Therefore the Constitution makers provided a number of special measures to protect the interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes such as the reservation of seats in legislatures. The Constitution also made it possible for the government to reserve public sector jobs for these groups.

Answer:

1. The Constitution has many provisions for social change.
2. Abolition of untouchability is the first step.
3. This was achieved by providing reservations to SC and STs.
4. Thus the Constitution helped for the upliftment of the weaker sections.
5. The Constitution has in it “the Fundamental Rights” and “the Directive Principles of State Policy.”
6. The rights of minorities are also protected in our Constitution.
7. Hence, we can conclude that, the Constitution facilitates social change.

Question 13.
On the outline map of world, identify the following places.

1. Nepal
2. Japan
3. India
4. England
5. USA
6. Ireland
7. Russia
8. France
9. Switzerland
10. Canada

Answer:

Question 14.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.
1. This country’s constitution was completed in 2015.
Answer: Nepal

2. This country’s wishes for peace in its constitution.
Answer: Japan

3. This country’s constitution was the lengthiest written constitution in the world.
Answer: India

4. the U.S.A.

5. Taiwan

6. Any two British colonies.

7. Afghanistan

8. Bhutan

9. Nagasaki

10. Switzerland

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Excretion – The Wastage Disposing System Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 4th Lesson Excretion – The Wastage Disposing System

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion – The Wastage Disposing System Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
What is meant by excretion? Explain the process of formation of urine.
(OR)
What are the different stages in urine formation? Explain what happens in those stages.
(OR)
Explain various steps in the mechanism of urine formation.
Answer:
Excretion: Excretion is a biological process involved in separation and removal of toxic wastes from the body.
Formation of urine involves four stages:

1. Glomerular filtration
2. Tubular reabsorption
3. Tubular secretion and
4. Concentration of urine.

1. Glomerular filtration:

1. Blood flows from renal artery to glomerulus through afferent arteriole.
2. Filtration of blood occurs in the glomerulus.
3. Glomerular filtrate is also known as primary urine which almost equal to blood in chemical composition except the presence of blood cells.

2. Tubular reabsorption:

1. The primary urine passes into proximal convoluted tubule.
2. Useful substances like glucose, amino acids, sodium chloride, potassium ion, bicarbonate ion, water are reabsorbed into peritubular network.

3. Tubular secretion:

1. After reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) the urine travels through the loop of Henle into distal convoluted tubule.
2. Here some other wastes like extra salts ions of K⁺, Na⁺, Cl^– and H⁺ secrete from peritubular capillaries into distal convoluted tubule which are surrounded by peritubular network.

4. Concentration of urine:

1. 75% of water content of the nephric filtrate is reabsorbed in the region of proximal convoluted tubule and 10% of water passes out of filtrate through osmosis in the area of loop of Henle.
2. The concentration of urine takes place in the area of collecting tubes in the presence of hormone called vasopressin. The hormone is secreted only when concentrated urine is to be passed out.

Question 2.
How are waste products excreted in Amoeba?
(OR)
Write the process of excretion in amoeba.
Answer:

1. Specific excretory organs are absent in unicellular organisms like amoeba.
2. Amoeba possess osmoregulatory organell called contractile vacuole.
3. It collects water and wastes from the body, swells up, reaches the surface and bursts to release its content to outside.
4. The main excretion takes place through body surface by simple diffusion.
5. The waste material carbon dioxide is removed by diffusion through the cell membrane.

Question 3.
Name different excretory organs in human body and excretory material generated by them.
Answer:
Different excretory organs in human body and excretory material generated by them are as follows.

Question 4.
Deepak said that ‘Nephrons are functional and structural units of kidneys’. How will you support him?
(OR)
How can you say that kidney is suitable for the filtration of biological waste from blood in man?
Answer:
I support Deepak’s statement that nephrons are functional units of kidneys because

1. Nephron’s chief function is to regulate the concentration of water and soluble substances like sodium salts by filtering the blood, reabsorbing what is needed and excreting the rest as urine.
2. Nephron eliminates wastes from the body, regulates blood volume and blood pressure, controls levels of electrolytes and metabolites and regulates blood pH.
3. Its functions are vital to life and are regulated by the endocrine system.
4. Hence, nephrons are the functional units of kidneys.

Question 5.
How do plants manage the waste materials?
Answer:

1. Plants can get rid of excess water by a process like transpiration and guttation.
2. Waste products may be stored in leaves, bark and fruits.
3. When these dead leaves, bark, and ripe fruits fall off from the tree, the waste products in them are got rid of.
4. Some of the plant waste gets stored in the fruits in the form of solid bodies called Raphides. e.g: Yam.
5. Several plants prepare chemicals and store them in roots, leaves, seeds to protect against herbivores.
6. The plants excrete carbon dioxide produced as a waste during respiration only at night time.
7. The plants excrete oxygen as a waste only during the daytime.
8. The plants get rid of wastes by secreting them in the form of gums and resins.
9. Plants also excrete some waste substances into the soil around them.

Question 6.
Why do some people need to use a dialysis machine? Explain the principle involved in it.
Answer:

1. Kidneys are vital organs for filtration of nitrogenous waste material from blood and for survival of a person.
2. Factors like infections, injury, very high blood pressure, very high blood sugar restrict blood flow to kidneys.
3. This leads to accumulation of poisonous wastes in the body and leads to death.
4. When both kidneys are damaged DIALYSIS machine is used to filter the blood of a person.
5. This process is called HAEMODIALYSIS.
6. In this process blood is taken out from the main artery, mixed with an anticoagulant such as HEPARIN and then pumped into the apparatus called DIALYZER.
7. In this apparatus, blood flow through channels or tubes and are embedded in the dialyzing fluid.
8. The membrane separates the blood flowing inside the tube and dialyzing fluid by osmosis.
9. The dialyzing fluid has the same composition as that of plasma, except nitrogenous wastes.
10. Therefore, nitrogenous waste materials move out from the blood freely, there by cleaning the blood of it’s wastes.
11. This process is called DIALYSIS. Cleaned blood is pumped back to the body through a vein after adding HEPARIN.

Question 7.
What is meant by osmoregulation? How is it maintained in human body?
Answer:

1. The process of constant maintaining of the water and salt contents in the body is called osmoregulation.
2. The kidneys are the main osmoregulatory organs in human body.
3. The function of kidney is to filter blood and maintain the dissolved ion concentrations of body fluids.
4. The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney, which actively filters blood and generates urine.
5. The hormone VASOPRESSIN maintains osmotic concentration of body fluids.
6. 75% of water content of nephric filtrate is reabsorbed in the PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) and only 10% of water passes out of filtrate through osmosis in the area of loop of Henle.
7. Thus osmoregulation is maintained in human body.

Question 8.
Do you find any relationship between circulatory system and excretory system? What are they?
Answer:

1. Circulatory system delivers oxygen, nutrients, water, hormones and other essential to each cell of the body.
2. And it also transports all the carbon dioxide and other waste products of the cells to the lungs to be expired (exhaled) or to the kidneys to be excreted.
3. The excretory system is closely related to the circulatory system by virtue of the process of cleansing the blood of waste, removing excess fluids and generally keeping other fluids in balance.
4. Excretory system releases hormones to elevate blood pressure and accelerate red blood cell production.
5. Kidney stimulates the red blood cell production by erythropoetin and regulates blood pressure with the secretion of renin.

Question 9.
Give reasons.
A) Always vasopressin is not secreted.
Answer:

1. Vasopressin is secreted only when concentrated urine is to be passed out.
2. If vasopressin is not produced in sufficient quantities, very large amount of urine (more than 15 litres per day, normal persons excrete about one litre in a day) is excreted by the person which produces dilute urine.
3. Deficiency of vasopressin causes DIABETES INSIPIDUS.
4. Therefore vasopressin is always not secreted but only to concentrate urine.

B) When urine is discharged, in beginning it is acidic in nature later it becomes alkaline.
Answer:

1. Urine contains 96% of water, 2.5% of organic substances and 1.5% of inorganic solutes.
2. Urine is acidic in the beginning of it’s formation.
3. Gradually it becomes alkaline due to the decomposition of urea to form AMMONIA.

C) Diameter of afferent arteriole is bigger than efferent arteriole.
Answer:

1. Glomerulus develops from an afferent arteriole. It gives rise to an efferent arteriole.
2. The diameter of afferent arteriole is bigger than the efferent arteriole.
3. The narrower out let of efferent arteriole exerts pressure in the glomerulus and enables the blood to remain more time, thus helps in proper filtration of blood by ultrafiltration.

D) Urine is slightly thicker in summer than in winter.
Answer:

1. In summer, a large quantity of water is lost in the form of sweat.
2. To save the body from sun’s heat and to maintain water balance sweat glands secrete more sweat.
3. The remaining waste materials get concentrated.
4. Due to the high concentration of the remaining waste materials urine is slightly thicker in summer than in winter.

Question 10.
Write differences between
A) Functions of PCT and DCT
B) Kidney and Artificial kidney
C) Excretion and Secretion
D) Primary metabolites and Secondary metabolites
Answer:
A) Functions of PCT and DCT:
Functions of PCT:

1. Reabsorbs glucose, amino acids, phosphate, potassium, urea and other organic solutes from the filtrate into the peritubular network.
2. The PCT regulates pH of the filtrates by exchanging hydrogen ions in the interstitium for bicarbonate ions in the filtrate.
3. It is also responsible to secreting organic acids such as creatinine and other bases into the filtrate.
4. Proximal convoluted tubule regulates the pH of the filtrate in the kidneys.

Functions of DCT:

1. It maintains a proper concentration and pH of the urine.
2. Extra salts, ions of K⁺, Na⁺, Cl^– and H⁺ secrete from peritubular capillaries into DCT.
3. It secretes ammonium ions and hydrogen ions.
4. It is relatively impermeable to water but in the pressure of Antidiuretic hormone

B) Kidney and Artificial kidney:

(ADH) its permeability to water increases making urine concentrated.

C) Excretion and Secretion:

D) Primary metabolites and Secondary metabolites:
(OR)
What are primary and secondary metabolites in plants? Give examples.
Answer:

Question 11.
There is a pair of bean-shaped organs ‘P’ in the human body towards the back, just above the waist. A waste product ‘Q’ formed by the decomposition of unused proteins in liver is brought into organ ‘P’ through blood by an artery ‘R’. The numerous tiny filters ‘S’ present in organ ‘P’ clean the dirty blood goes into circulation through a vein ‘T’. The waste substance ‘Q’ other waste salts and excess water form a yellowish liquid ‘U’ which goes from organ ‘P’ into a bag like structure ‘V’ through two tubes ‘W’. This liquid is then thrown out of the body through a tube ‘X’.

(a) What is (i) organ P and (ii) waste substance Q?
(i) Organ P is kidney and
(ii) Waste substance Q is urea.

(b) Name (i) artery R and (ii) vein T.
Answer:
(i) Artery R is Renal artery and
(ii) Vein T is Renal vein.

(c) What are tiny filters ‘S’ known as?
Answer:
The tiny filters S are Nephrons.

(d) Name (i) Liquid (ii) Structure V (iii) Tubes W (iv) Tube X.
Answer:
(i) Liquid U is urine.
(ii) Structure V is urinary bladder.
(iii) Tube W is ureters.
(iv) Tube X is urethra.

Question 12.
The organ ‘A’ of a person has been damaged completely due to a poisonous waste material ‘B’ has started accumulation in his blood, making it dirty. In order to save this person’s life, the blood from an artery in the person’s arm is made to flow into long tubes made of substance ‘E’ which are kept in coiled form in a tank containing solution ‘F’vThis solution contains three materials ‘G’, ‘H’ and ‘I’ and similar proportions to those in normal blood. As the person’s blood passes through long tubes of substance ‘E’, most of the wastes present in it go into solution ‘F’ The clean blood is then put back into a vein in the person for circulation.
(a) What is organ A?
Answer:
Kidney.

(b) Name the waste substance B.
Answer:
Urea.

(c) What are (i) E and (ii) F?
Answer:
(i) Long tubes ‘E’ are made of cellulose.
(ii) Solution ‘F’ is dialysing fluid contains three materials like: water, glucose and salts.

(d) What are G, H and I?
Answer:
Waste molecules, nutrient molecules and water.

(e) What is the process described above known as?
Answer:
Dialysis.

Question 13.
Imagine what happens if waste materials are not sent out of the body from time to time.
(OR)
What happens when the waste products are not sent out from the body?
Answer:

1. If waste materials are not sent out of the body from time to time, our body is filled with extra water and waste products.
2. ThIs condition ¡s called UREMIA. 1f kidneys stop working completely it leads to UREMIA.
3. Our hands and feet may swell.
4. We feel tired and weak because our body needs clean blood to function properly.
5. These waste materials turn into toxic and it leads to death.

Question 14.
To keep your kidneys healthy for long period what questions will you ask a nephrologist/urologist?
Answer:

1. How can I prevent the formation of stones in kidney?
2. Does renal failure hereditary?
3. What are the dietary measures to be taken for normal functioning of kidney?
4. How diabetes harm kidneys?
5. What shall I do to keep my kidneys healthy for a long time?
6. What are the factors responsible for kidney failure?
7. How can we know that there is a problem In the kidneys?
8. Is there any relationship between blood pressure and kidney function?
9. What are ‘the signs of kidney failure?
10. Why is smoking bad for kidneys?

Question 15.
What are the gum yielding trees in your surroundings? What procedure you should follow to collect gum from trees?
Answer:
In our surroundings neem, acacia, eucalyptus, sapota are some of the gum yielding plants.
Process of collecting gum from trees:

1. Gum will flow naturally from cracks in the bark of acacia and neem trees.
2. Gum is collected about four weeks after stripping and can be repeated every few weeks thereafter for several months.
3. Mature plants are selected for taking gum.
4. Suitable stem parts are selected.
5. Grooves are made by break the bark away about three foot from the ground and 10 inches wide with a sharp sickle or knife.
6. We can fit a container at the lower end tightly, so that when gum begins to seep out, it will drip into it.
7. The plants are to be kept undisturbed for at least two or three weeks.
8. When the container is seen filled with gum they are removed.
9. It is collected and stored for supply and used as adhesives, binding agents, in the preparation of medicines etc.
10. Break some shallow notches in a ‘V’ shape, with the point of the ‘V’ diectly above the centre of the bucket.
11. Leave the bucket attached to the tree until the gun begins to seep out and drains into it.
12. Remove any nails or other metal things from the tree and after taking down the gum collection bucket.

Question 16.
Collect the information about uses of different kinds of alkaloids, take help of Library or Internet.
Answer:
Common alkaloids in plants and their uses are

Question 17.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of L.S of kidney.
(OR)
Draw a neat labelled diagram of internal structure of Kidney. Write the function of Renal artery and Renal vein.
Answer:

1. Renal artery supplies oxygenated blood with nitrogenous waste – products to kidneys.
2. Renal vein collects nitrogenous waste free and deoxygenated blood from kidneys.

Question 18.
Draw a diagram of a Nephron, and explain its structure.

Describe the structure of nephron with the help of diagram.
(OR)
Answer:
Structure of the Nephron :

Each Nephron has basically two parts:

1. 1. Malpighian body
   2. Renal tubule

1. Malpighian Body:

1. It consists of Bowman’s capsule and bunch of fine blood capillaries called the glomerulus.
2. Glomerulus develops from afferent arteriole. It gives rise to an efferent arteriole.

Renal Tubule :

1. It has three parts.
   1. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT),
   2. Loop of Henle
   3. ‘U’ shaped second or Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)
2. Distal convoluted tubule open into a COLLECTING TUBE. Collecting tubes form PYRAMIDS and CALYCES which open into PELVIS.
3. Pelvis leads into the URETER.
4. All the parts of the renal tubule are covered by a network of PERITUBULAR CAPILLARIES fromed from EFFERENT ARTERIOLE
5. The peritubular capillaries join to form RENAL VENULE, which joins the other venules to form RENAL VEIN.

Question 19.
Draw a block diagram showing the path way of excretory system in human being.
Answer:
Block diagram showing the path way of excretory system in human beings.

Question 20.
If you want to explain the process of filtration in kidney, what diagram you need to draw ?
Answer:

Question 21.
List out the things that makes you amazing in excretory system of human being.
(OR)
How do you appreciate the functioning of excretory system of human being?
Answer:

1. In human beings during metabolic activities many waste products like water, nitrogenous compounds like ammonia, urea, uric acid, bile pigments, excess salts, etc. the toxic wastes are produced.
2. To excrete all these waste materials in human beings there is an excretory system consisting of a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder and urethra.
3. Each kidney is made up of more than one million nephron. These are the structural and functional units of excretory system.
4. Per day 170 litres of water is filtered by kidneys. Out of this 168.2 litres is reabsorbed. This is a wonderful mechanism.
5. Total amount of urine excreted per day is about 1.6 to 1.8 litres.
6. The kidneys have a great reserve power. If one kidney is removed due to disease or damage, the other kidney can take up the function of both the kidneys.
7. It is so amazing that the 10 cm in length, 5-6 cm in breadth and 4 cm thickness size of the kidney can do filtration of blood and can remove all the poisonous substances from the human body and keeping the organism healthy.
8. Skin is also an excretory organ responsible for elimination of wastes in the form of sweat along with various toxins.

Question 22.
You read about ‘Brain dead’ in this chapter. What discussions would you like to have? Why do you think so?
Answer:

1. When some one is brain dead, there is no blood flow or oxygen to their brain.
2. The brain stops functioning in any capacity.
3. Because the ventilator is breathing for the person organs such as the heart and liver continue to receive oxygen and one able to function for a few days after the brain has dead.
4. Unless damaged by injury we can transplant organs like kidney liver, heart, lungs, pancreas, skin, bone, intestine and eyes (Retina) from brain dead patients.
5. The process of transplantation of organs from brain dead patients to another is called cadaver transplantation.
6. There is very less awareness among people about organ donation.
7. Society needs much awareness in organ donation so that we can save many lives who are in need of different organs for their survival.
8. Those who are willing to donate their organs have to sign in an application form at the transplantation facility hospital.
9. Some voluntary organisations like jeevandan.org working on this aspect.

Question 23.
We the people have very less awareness about organ donation, to motivate people to write slogans about organ donation.
Answer:
Slogans about organ donation :

1. Organ donation saves lives.
2. Give a life, gift of life.
3. Donate organs today for better tomorrow.
4. The measure of a life, after all is not its duration but its donation.
5. Change your thoughts and you change your world.
6. Organ donation is icky (disagreeable) but recycle yourself is sticky.

What you have seen?

1. Have a heart, save a life.
2. The gift of life pass it on.
3. Organ donation is a gift for life.

Question 24.
After learning this chapter what habits you would like to change or follow for proper functioning of kidneys?
(OR)
What habits you would like to follow for the proper functioning of kidneys?
Answer:

1. I always eat the home cooked meals.
2. I should adapt to take low salt diet.
3. I eat the food that are lower in protein which can help to decrease the levels of protein, avoid eating cakes, pies, cookies, candies and pastries (junk foods), take fruits containing simple carbohydrates.
4. I would like to drink sufficient water nearly 5-6 litres per day.
5. I never forget drinking more water after meals.
6. I avoid taking high phosphorus foods like cheese, cola, soft drinks, butter but I replace them with butter milk, sharbat etc.
7. I eat low potassium levels fruits like apples, watermelon, cucumber, grapes, cherries, carrots, etc. because high potassium levels cause irregular heart beats.
8. I avoid high sodium contents like potato chips, bacon (cured meat from pig) cheese, meat, canned vegetables, caned soups frozen dinners and table salt, which damage kidneys.

Fill in the blanks.

1. Earthworm excretes its waste material through ———–.
2. The dark coloured outer zone of kidney is called ———–.
3. The process of control of water balance and ion concentration within organism is called ———–.
4. Reabsorption of useful product takes place in ———– part of nephron.
5. Gums and resins are the ———– products of the plants.
6. Bowman’s capsule and tubule taken together make a ———–.
7. The alkaloid used for malaria treatment is ———–.
8. The principle involved in dialysis is ———–.
9. Rubber is produced from ———– of Heavea braziliensis.
10. ———– performed first Kidney Transplantation.

Answer:

1. nephridia
2. cortex
3. osmoregulation
4. tubular
5. secondary metabolic
6. malphigian tubule
7. quinine
8. Osmosis and filtration
9. latex
10. Dr. Charles Hufnagel

Choose the correct answer.

1. The structural and functional unit of human kidney is called [ ]
   A) Neuron
   B) Nephron
   C) Nephridia
   D) Flame cell
   Answer: B
2. The excretory organ in cockroach  [ ]
   A) Malpighian tubules
   B) Raphids
   C) Ureters
   D) Nephridia
   Answer: A
3. Which of the following is the correct path taken by urine in our body? [ ]
   A) Kidney, urethra, ureters, bladder
   B) Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra
   C) Kidney, bladder, ureters, urethra
   D) Kidney, urethra, bladder, ureters
   Answer: C
4. Malpighian tubes are excretory organs in [ ]
   A) Earthworm
   B) Housefly
   C) Flatworm
   D) Hen
   Answer: B
5. Major component of urine is [ ]
   A) Urea
   B) Sodium
   C) Water
   D) Creatine
   Answer: C
6. Special excretory organs are absent in [ ]
   A) Birds
   B) Amoeba
   C) Sponges
   D) A and B
   Answer: B
7. Which of the following hormones has direct impact on urination? [ ]
   A) Adrenal
   B) Vasopressin
   C) Testosterone
   D) Estrogen
   Answer: B
8. Amber colour to urine due to [ ]
   A) Urochrome
   B) Bilirubin
   C) Biliverdin
   D) Chlorides
   Answer: A
9. Sequence of urine formation in the nephron is [ ]
   A) Glomerular filtration → Tubular reabsorption → Tubular secretion
   B) Tubular reabsorption → Tubular secretion → Glomerular filtration
   C) Tubular secretion → Glomerular filtration → Tubular reabsorption
   D) Tubular reabsorption → Concentration of urine → Tubular secretion
   Answer: A
10. Part of the nephron that exists in outer zone of kidney [ ]
    A) Loop of the Henle
    B) PCT
    C) DCT
    D) Bowman’s capsule
    Answer: D
11. After having lunch or dinner one can feel to pass urine, because of [ ]
    A) Stomach pressures on bladder
    B) Solids become liquids
    C) Water content in food material
    D) Sphincter relaxation
    Answer: D

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion – The Wastage Disposing System InText Questions and Answers.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 75

Question 1.
What products would the organism be able to take up for other activities?
Answer:
Oxygen produced in the photosynthesis process is used by all the living organisms on the earth for breathing. Without oxygen life would not be possible on the earth. No organism can survive.
Carbon dioxide produced in respiration will be taken up by plants to prepare food materials, in the process of photosynthesis. Plants are called autotrophs because they produce food for ail the animals and human beings directly or indirectly.

Question 2.
What are the products would cause harm to the body, if they are not removed?
Answer:
Nitrogenous compounds like ammonia, urea, uric acid, bile pigments, excess salts are toxic to the body. So they should be removed.

Question 3.
What happens if harmful products are not removed from our body every day?
Answer:
If harmful products are not removed from our body they get accumulated in the body and becomes toxic. This leads to the death of the person.

Question 4.
What are the substances present in blood?
Answer:
The substances present in blood are Glucose, Sodium, Potassium, Chlorides, Urea, Creatinine, Uric acid, Cholesterol, Triglycerides, Calcium Phosphorous, Bilirubin, Proteins, Albumin.

Question 5.
What are the substances present in urine?
Answer:
Protein, Creatinine, Calcium, Phosphorous, Uric acid, Sodium, Potassium are the sub-stances present in urine.

Question 6.
What are the substances present both in blood and urine?
Answer:
Sodium, Potassium, Chlorides, Urea, Uric acid, Calcium, Phosphorous are the sub¬stances present in blood and urine in common.

Question 7.
Which substances are present above the normal limits both in the blood and urine?
Answer:
Urea, Uric acid, Cholesterol, Calcium, Creatinine are present above the normal limits both in the blood and urine.

Question 8.
What do you think reading above normal limits indicates?
Answer:
If any material is above the normal limits, it causes health problem which leads to a disease and damage of the organs.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 77

Question 9.
What are the materials needed to be removed from our body?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, water and nitrogenous compounds such as ammonia, urea and uric acid are the waste materials needed to be removed from our body.

Question 10.
From where are these materials removed?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is eliminated through lungs while small amounts of water is eliminated through body surface (sweating) and through lungs during respiration. An excretory organ system is present for excreting the nitrogenous wastes along with salts, excess water.

Question 11.
What are the organs that separate excretory materials?
Answer:
Flame cells in flat worms, Nephridia in Annelids, Malphigian tubules in Arthropods, kidneys in all vertebrates are the excretory organs that separate excretory materials and eliminate them.

Question 12.
Why do you think the body must remove waste substances?
Answer:
For the smooth functioning of the body the body should be healthy. Waste materials are the toxic substances, which are harmful to the body. So they should be eliminated.
If they remain in the body, it leads to the unhealthy conditions to the organisms.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 79

Question 13.
Think why the diameter of the efferent arteriole is less than that of afferent arteriole?
Answer:
The diameter of the efferent arteriole is less than afferent arteriole so as to create pressure in the glomerulus to filter the waste materials. Due to this, blood remains in glomerulus more time.

Question 14.
Why the nephron is considered to be the structural and functional unit of the kidney?
Answer:

1. The kidney is made up of more than one million nephrons.
2. Hence it is called as the structural unit of the kidney.
3. Filtration of blood to remove nitrogenous substances occur in nephron.
4. So it is called as functional unit of the kidney.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 80

Question 15.
Which arteriole has more diameter, afferent or efferent?
Answer:
Afferent arteriole has more diameter than efferent arteriole.

Question 16.
What are the substances that are filtered into the glomerular capsule?
Answer:
The substances that are filtered into the glomerular capsule are waste molecules, nutrient molecules and water.

Question 17.
If you drink more water, will you pass more urine?
Answer:
Yes. If we drink more water, we will pass more urine.

Question 18.
What are the substances reabsorbed into peritubular network from Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?
Answer:
Glucose, Amino acids, Vitamin – C, Potassium, Calcium, Sodium chlorides and 75% of water are the substances reabsorbed into peritubular network from proximal convoluted tubule.

Question 19.
What are the substances that secretes into Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)?
Answer:
The substances that secretes into Distal Convoluted Tubule are extra salts, ions of K\ Na+, C/“ and H+ ions.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 81

Question 20.
Why more urine is produced in winter?
Answer:

1. Due to the cold condition, our body does not lose the water in the form of sweat.
2. In the same condition, blood flow to our internal organs is increased, to keep our organs warm.
3. The increase in the blood flow to the kidneys causes more blood to be filtered.
4. These two causes more urine is produced in winter.

Question 21.
What happens if reabsorption of water does not take place?
Answer:
If reabsorption of water does not take place :

1. water levels decreases in the body and leads to malfunctioning of metabolism.
2. osmoregulation of body fluids will be disturbed.
3. circulation of blood does not take place due to increase in its concentration.
4. the useful substances like nutrients, salts, hormones, vitamins are not absorbed they excrete out.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 83

Question 22.
What happens if both kidneys fail completely?
Answer:

1. Complete and irreversible kidney failure is called End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD).
2. If kidneys stops working completely, our body is filled with extra water and waste products.
3. This condition is called UREMIA.
4. Our hands or feet may swell. We may feel tired and weak because our body needs clean blood to function properly.
5. The solution to this problem is either dialysis or kidney transplantation.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 84

Question 23.
Is there any long term solution for kidney failure patients?
Answer:
The best long term solution for kidney failure is kidney transplantation. A functioning kidney which is a good match to the body is used in transplantation from a donor preferably a closed relative.

Question 24.
Where is the transplanted kidney fixed in the body of a kidney failure patient?
Answer:
Kidney transplantation involves placing a healthy kidney into the body where it can perform all of the functions that a failing kidney cannot. The new kidney is placed on the lower right or left side of the abdomen where it is surgically connected to nearby blood vessels.
Placing the kidney in this position allows it to be easily connected to blood vessels and the bladder. The vein and the artery of the new kidney are attached to the body’s vein and artery. The new kidney’s ureter is attached to the body’s bladder to allow urine to pass out of the body.

Question 25.
What about the failed kidneys?
Answer:

1. In most cases the old kidneys will not be removed.
2. This is because even failed kidneys release chemicals that help the body work.
3. However if those kidneys have a disease that cause on going problems such as persistent kidney infections or intestinal blockage, then the transplantion would be considered removing the old kidney.
4. The two most common medical conditions requiring “native nephrectomy” or “congenital reflux” disease and polycystic disease.

Question 26.
Can donor survive his / her life with single kidney without any complications?
Answer:

1. There are some risks.
2. There is a chance of affecting his/her life span or life style is extremely low with surgery and anaesthesia.
3. The risk of minor complications like wound infection because the kidney donar operation is a major surgical procedure.
4. Donar feels less energy and need about 4 to 6 weeks to return to their activities.

Question 27.
What are the other excretory organs of human body?
Answer:
Lungs, Skin, Liver are the other excretory organs of human body.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 85

Question 28.
Collect information on sebum and prepare a news bulletin, display it on bulletin
Answer:

1. Sebum is a complex mixture of naturally produced fats, oils, waxes, cholesterol etc.
2. It is secreted by SEBACEOUS glands present in the DERMIS of skin.
3. The fat and OMS present in the sebum do not originate directly from the fats and oils consumed in the diet.
4. SEBUM is manufactured and stored by the sebaceous glands under the direction of biological process.
5. Sebaceous glands are found in great number on the face, scalp and on all parts of the skin.
6. The function of sebum : it prevent the skin from becoming dry.

Question 29.
People in cold countries get very less/no sweat. What changes occur in their skin and in other excretory organs?
Answer:

1. Regulation of body temperature is one of the functions of skin.
2. To maintain the body temperature, skin produces sweat.
3. In cold countries environment is very cool. So there is no production of sweat.
4. In these conditions there will be more pressure on other excretory organs.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 86

Question 30.
Do plants excrete like animals?
Answer:

1. Plants do not have specific organs to excrete the waste materials which are formed during metabolism.
2. As in animals carbon dioxide, water, ammonia and other nitrogenous wastes are also formed in plants.
3. In plants, carbon dioxide released during respiration is sent out through stomata of leaves.
4. Plants discharge the excess water in the form of water vapour during transpiration by leaves. Due to this, the heat in the plants is reduced.
5. In germinating seeds carbon dioxide formed during respiration is released into atmosphere.
6. Plants have the capacity to utilise the by- products of one metabolic activity as the raw materials for another metabolic activity.
7. For example, oxygen released during photosynthesis is utilised for respiration; carbon dioxide released during respiration is utilised for photosynthesis. Plants convert nitrogen and ammonia into nitrates.

Question 31.
How do plants manage or send out waste products from its body?
Answer:

1. Plants can get rid of excess water by a process like transpiration and guttation. Waste products may be stored in leaves, bark and fruits.
2. When these dead leaves, bark, and ripen fruits fall off from the trees, then waste products in them are got rid off.
3. In some plants, waste gets stored in the fruits in the form of solid bodies called Raphides. Example : Yam (pendalam).
4. Several compounds are synthesized by the plants for their own use specially for defense.
5. Several plants prepare chemicals and store them in shoots, leaves, seeds for protection against herbivores.
6. Most of the chemicals are unpleasant to taste and hence herbivores do not prefer to eat such plants. Some of the chemicals are toxic and may even kill the animal that eats them.
7. Some of the plants release attractants for other organisms which will help the plants for pollination. For example, plants having root nodules secrete chemicals to attract rhizobia into the surroundings of the roots and form a symbiotic relationship with the rhizobium.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 87

Question 32.
Why do plants shed their leaves and bark periodically?
Answer:

1. In summer season, transpiration rate is very high in plants.
2. To reduce the transpiration rate plants shed their leaves.
3. And some waste materials are also stored in leaves and removed by shedding of leaves.
4. Bark is the outer zone of plants, which contain phloem to transport food materials.
5. In the growing period cambium produces bark tissue. When new bark tissue is produced, the old bark is removed.
6. In this process the old and dead cells filled with waste materials are also removed.

Question 33.
Name the alkaloids which are harmful to us.
Answer:
The harmful alkaloids are :

1. Nicotine is harmful. It causes cancer to lung, throat, tongue and affects the nervous system.
2. Morphine which is used as a pain killer, may effect kidneys if they are used more.
3. Cocaine, scopolamine (Datura) etc are the alkaloids which are harmful to us.
4. Nitrogenous substances are also found in the walls of pollen grain, if they enter our body. Ex : they cause allergy.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 89

Question 34.
Do roots secrete?
Answer:
Yes, roots also can secrete a portion of their peculiar secretions back into the soil.

Question 35.
Do you think is there any relation between reduction in yielding and root secretions?
Answer:

1. Yes, there is a relation between reduction in yielding and root secretions.
2. For example plants like apple where a single apple crop is yielded for 4 or 5 years continuously in the same soil, it fails to produce fruits.
3. It will not give proper yield even if you use lot of fertilizers.

Question 36.
Why do we get peculiar smell when you shift the potted plants?
Answer:

1. Some peculiar secretions are secreted and sent out from roots into soil.
2. When we shift the potted plant we get peculiar smell due to the chemical reaction of the secretion in the soil to make it fertile.

Think and Discuss

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 82

Question 1.
Do cells need excretion?
Answer:
Yes, the cells need excretion to keep all the body organs healthy.

Question 2.
Why are we advised to take sufficient water ?
Answer:
We are advised to take sufficient water because filtration of waste products becomes easy and there is a free flow of urine including salts, And also body temperature will be maintained.

Question 3.
Why do some children pass urine during sleep at night until 15 or 16 years of age?
Answer:
Children pass urine during sleep at night because one or more of the following reasons.

1. The child’s urinary bladder is maturing more slowly than usual. The capacity of the bladder may be reduced.
2. The risk of child passing urine in night time is due to the hereditory factor that one or both parents wet the bed as children.
3. Some children wet the bed because they do not make enough levels of vasopressin which reduces the urine production.
4. Physical or emotional problems may cause bed wetting.
5. A stressful situation can trigger bed wetting include moving to a new house, changing schools, the death of a loved one or being sexually given bad effect.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 84

Question 4.
Why are weeds and wild plants not affected by insects and pests? (OR)
Ravi went to his cotton field. There he observed some of the cotton leaves were affected by insects. He also observed that weeds in between are not affected. Give reasons.
Answer:
Some plants like weeds and wild plants prepare chemicals which are unpleasant to taste and some chemicals are toxic and may even kill. So insects and pests do not touch them.

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion – The Wastage Disposing System Activities

Activity – 1

How do you study the external and internal features of kidney ? (OR)
Explain the procedure and observations of the experiment conducted to observe internal structure of the kidney.
Answer:
Aim: Studying the external and internal features of a kidney.
Materials required: Freshly collected specimen of sheep/goat’s kidney from the butcher or 3D model of a kidney sharp blade/ scalpel, tray and a jug of water.
Procedure for observation:

1. 1. Wash the kidney so that blood is completely drained from it.
      
   2. Put the kidney in the tray and observe it carefully.
   3. Note down the observation in the notebook.

1. With the help of sharp blade take the longitudinal section of the kidney and observe internal structure.
2. Draw what you have observed and compare it with the figure given.
3. After observing the L.S. of kidney answer the following questions given under.

What is the shape of kidneys?
Answer:
The shape of kidneys is bean shape.

What is the colour of kidney ?
Answer:
Colour of kidney is reddish brown.

Do you find any attachments on upper portion of kidney?
Answer:
Yes. Adrenal glands are attached to kidneys on upper portion.

Is the internal structures similar to fig – 2?
Answer:
Yes. It is similar to internal structure of fig – 2.

What is the colour of the outer part in L.S. of kidney?
Answer:
The colour of the outer part of the kidney is Dark.

In L.S. of kidney where do you find dark brown colour portion?
Answer:
Dark colour portion is found on the outer zone of kidney.

How many tubes are coming out from kidney fissure ?
Answer:
Two tubes are coming from kidney.

SCERT AP 7th Class Science Study Material Pdf 1st Lesson Food for Health Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science 1st Lesson Questions and Answers Food for Health

7th Class Science 1st Lesson Food for Health Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. Cereals and millets are rich in ______ .
2. ______ are present in Pulses.
3. Take more ______ & ______ to prevent constipation.
4. ______ is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin D.
5. Deficiency of Vitamin C causes ______ disease.
Answer:
1. Carbohydrates
2. Proteins
3. Dietary fibre, water
4. Rickets
5. Scurvy

II. Choose the correct answer.

1. Ramana rubbed few sesame grains on a paper. The paper turns translucent at that
a) carbohydrates
b) proteins
c) fats
d) water
Answer:
c) fats

2. Anaemia is caused by the deficiency of
a) Zinc
b) Iron
c) Vitamin A
d) Calcium
Answer:
b) Iron

3. We lose vision due to deficiency of
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
Answer:
a) Vitamin A

III. Matching:

Answer:

IV. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Name the components of food.
Answer:
Our diet consists of the following components.

1. Carbohydrates
2. Proteins
3. Fats
4. Minerals
5. Vitamins
6. Dietary fibres and
7. Water.

Question 2.
Make a list of food items taken during lunch. Write the components in each food item.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the role of water present in our diet?
Answer:

1. Water is also a component of blood.
2. But water does not contain any nutrients. So it cannot be considered as a nutritive component, water constitutes nearly 2/3 of our body weight.
3. It regulates and maintains the temperature of our body.
4. It helps in excretion of wastes from our body as urine and sweat.
5. Water is essential for many metabolic activities.
6. Water helps in easy movement of the food through the digestive track.
7. It helps in digestion of food also.

Question 4.
What questions will you ask a nutritionist to know about deficiency diseases due to malnutrition?
Answer:

1. What is malnutrition?
2. What are deficiency disease?
3. How does malnutrition lead to deficiency diseases?
4. How can we identify deficiency diseases?
5. How can we prevent deficiency diseases?
6. How can be these diseases cased?

Question 5.
What will happen if we don’t u- ‘ de roughage in our food?
Answer

1. Roughage help in free bowel movement in the digestive tract and prevent constipa¬tion.
2. If we don’t include roughage in our food, it leads to constipation.

Question 6.
Mary read somewhere that congee (ganji) contains carbohydrates. Explain the test you suggested her to confirm it.
Answer:
I will suggest to conduct the iodine test to confirm the presence of carbohydrates (starch) in congee by following the templet given below.

Aim: To confirm the presence of starch in congee (ganji).

What you need : 1. Dilute iodine solution (dissolve few iodine crystals in water until it turns into pale brown), 2. Congee, 3. Plate/ test tube, 4. Dropper.

How to do : Take a few drops of congee on a plate/ in a test tube. Add two drops of iodine on the potato piece. Observe if there is any change in colour. If starch is present, it will turn into blue-black.

What you see : The congee turns into blue-black colour.

What you learn : Starch is present in congee.

Question 7.
How can you test the presence of proteins in the given food sample?
Answer:
Aim : To confirm the presence of proteins in the given food sample.

What yon need: (1) 2% Copper suiphate solution (dissolve 2g Copper sulphate in 100 m/water) (2) 10% Sodium hydroxide solution (dissolve lOg Sodium hydroxide in 100 ml water ), egg (3) Test tubes (4) Two Beakers (5) Dropper.

How to do: Make the given food sample into paste (if it is a solid). Take some food sample in a test tube. Add two drops of copper sulphate and ten drops of sodium hydroxide solution. Shake well and keep the test tube in a stand for few7 minutes. Ob-serve for any change in the colour of the material. If the colour of the materia! turns violet, it contains protein.

What you see : The food sample turns into violet colour.

What you learn : Proteins are present in food sample.

Question 8.
Draw a pyramid showing the required quantities of food needed for our body. (Use the picture of my plate for The day prepared by WIN as reference.)
Answer:

Question 9.
Appreciate the role of green leafy vegetables h maintaining our health.
Answer:

1. Greers Seafv vegetables play key role in maintaining our health.
2. They contain vitamins and minerals.
3. Vitamins and minerals are called protective nutrients.
4. They protect our body from diseases.
5. They also help in proper growth and development of our body7
6. Roughages are also present in green leafy vegetables.
7. Thus they prevent constipation also.
8. So we should appreciate the role of green leafy7 vegetables in maintaining our health by including them in plenty in our diet.

Question 10.
Wimt is balanced diet? What food materials wiH you include in your diet to make it a balanced one?
Answer:

1. A diet that contains all the nutrients in required quantity is called balanced diet.
2. I will include
   – adequate quantities of energy giving food such as rice / chapati/ bread
   – moderate quantities of body building food like milk, curd, dal/ meat/ fish
   – plenty of protective food such as vegetables, green leafy vegetables and fruits
   – a small quantity of oil, fat daily in my diet to make it a balanced one.

7th Class Science 1st Lesson Food for Health InText Questions and Answers

7th Class Science Textbook Page No.2

Question 1.
Name the foot? items that are served in a mid-day meal-
Answer:

Question 2.
What is the objective of providing mid-day meal: to the school children?
Answer:

1. To avoid classroom hunger
2. To increase school enrolment
3. To increase school attendance
4. To address malnutrition
5. To improve socialization among castes
6. To empower wanes through employment.

7th Class Science Textbook Page No. 3

Question 3.
Is the menu same for ail days?
Answer:
The menu, is different with delicious food items like ehikkis, sweet pongal, vegetable rice, eggs etc.

Question 4.
Do you knew. ’why different food hems are hang-served is Mid-day meal? fe it only lot taste?
Answer:

1. Every food item is made up of one or more ingredients.. Every ingredient has one or more eutrients/components.
2. These nutrients give us energy, keep us healthy and helps in the growth and repan of our body,
3. So, different food items are being served not only for taste, It is for good health also.

Question 5.
Do you toow about the nutrients present in, chikki? Is it same as the Nutrients present in egg? Discuss.
Answer:

1. Nutrients present in chikki are 1) Carbohydrates 2) Proteins 3) Fibre 4) Calcium 5) iron 6) Magnesium 7) Vitamin B₆ 8) Potassium.
2. Nutrients present in egg (boiled) are 1) Proteins 2) Iron 3) Vitamin-D 4) Vitamin – A 5) Vitamin B
3. Nutrients are not same in chikki and egg.
4. Both egg and chikki contain protein and iron.
5. Carbohydrates are not present in the egg.
6. Vitamin – D is not present in chikki. Fibre is not present in egg.

7th Class Science Textbook Page No. 4

Question 6.
Do you know, the role of the nutrients present in the diet?
Answer:
Each nutrient plays an important role in the growth and well being of our body.

Question 7.
Why do cricket players take the drinks during the break?
Answer:

1. When we are tired, we need energy to become normal. .
2. During the cricket match the players need continuous energy to play.
3. The drink has glucose and it gives instant energy to the body.

Question 8.
Does all the food items contain carbohydrates? How can we confirm this?
Answer:

1. No. All the food items do not contain carbohydrates.
2. By doing iodine test, we can confirm it.

7th Class Science Textbook Page No. 5

Question 9.
Sravya was weak, so the doctor suggested her to take milk, egg and pulses everyday. Can you guess why he did suggest so? Which components do they contain?
Answer:

1. Milk, egg and pulses contain rich proteins.
2. Proteins are required for the formation of muscles and other body organs.
3. To get healthy body doctor suggested to take the food with proteins.

7th Class Science Textbook Page No. 6

Question 10.
Are proteins present in all food items? How can we confirm the presence of proteins in a food item?
Answer:

1. No, proteins are not present in all food items.
2. The presence of proteins in food items can be confirm by doing a test with copper sulphate and sodium hydroxide solutions.

Question 11.
After doing the above test you will come to know that proteins are not present in ghee. What would be there in it?
Answer:
Fats are present in ghee.

Question 12.
When we eat curd rice our palm becomes oily. Why does it happen?
Answer:
The butter present in the cu d makes the palm oily.

Question 13.
The paper used to pack Bajji or Pakodi etc. ………. becomes transluscent here and there. Why?
Answer:
Oil present in the bajji or pakodi, poori, etc. make the paper transparent.

7th Class Science Textbook Page No. 7

Question 14.
Do you know why elders suggest us to take green leafy vegetables regularly?
Answer:

1. Green leafy vegetables contain minerals and vitamins.
2. They protect our body and give good health.

7th Class Science Textbook Page No. 8

Question 15.
What are the reasons for anaemia?
Answer:
Anaemia can have many causes including dietary deficiency, lack of iron, vitamin B₁₂ in the diet.

Question 16.
Why do students get vision problems?
Answer:

1. Vitamin A deficiency is one of the most common causes of eye problems.
2. Vitamin E and Zinc deficiency may also cause for eye problems.

Question 17.
Brahmanandam felt difficultly to see the objects in dim light. So he prefers to avoid night journeys. Do you know what we call such a problem?
Answer:
This problem is called night blindness. It is due to lack of Vitamin A.

7th Class Science Textbook Page No.9

Question 18.
What food should be taken to prevent night blindness?
Answer:
To prevent night blindness vitamin A is required.

Question 19.
What happens due to deficiency of vitamin K?
Answer:
Delay in clotting of blood.

Question 20.
Why are infants exposed to mild sunlight for a short time in the morning?
Answer:

1. Body prepares vitamin D by using sunlight.
2. Vitamin D is very important for bones and teeth.

Question 21.
Why it was advised to take vitamin C in Covid -19 period? Discuss.
Answer:
Vitamin C plays an important role in increasing disease resistant or immunity.

Question 22.
Only sour fruits contain vitamin C. Is it true?
Answer:
Yes. It is true.

7th Class Science Textbook Page No. 11

Question 23.
Nalini got a doubt whether water is also a nutrient or not? What do you think?
Answer:
Water does not contain any nutrients.

Question 24.
Do you think drinking water is the only way to provide water to our body?
Answer:
Not only drinking water, many food items like milk, fruits, vegetables etc. are rich in water. They also provide water to our body.

Question 25.
How does water help in our digestive system?
Answer:
Water help free bowel movements in stomach and intestines.

7th Class Science Textbook Page No. 12

Question 26.
What happens if we do not take adequate water and fibres in the food?
Answer:
We may face some digestion problems due to inadequate fibres and water in the food. It causes constipation also.

Question 27.
What happens if we take a diet that lades some nutrients?
Answer:

1. We may face some health problems if we take some nutrient deficient food.
2. Deficiency diseases like Kwashiorkor, marasmus, anaemia, goitre, beriberi, scurvy, ricket etc., may get due to lack erf nutrients in our diet.

7th Class Science Textbook Page No. 14

Question 28.
Which food materials shoiild we take in large quantity?
Answer:
Carbohydrates, vegetables and fruits.

Question 29.
Which food materials should we take in very leas quantity?
Answer:
Fats and ghee, oily foods.

Question 30.
What will happen if we don’t take balanced diet?
Answer:

1. Taking less than the requirement and more than the limit may lead to health problems.
2. Children who do not take balanced diet may face growth and developmental problems.
3. It we do not take balanced diet we will be prone to various diseases.

Question 31.
John suggested Qiarau to wash the hands and fruits before eating. Can you guess why John did so?
Answer:

1. Fruits anti vegetables may contain bacteria and pesticides.
2. Therefore, should be washed before eating.
3. Our hands also contain harmful bacteria aud virus.
4. So, we should wash hands with soap before eat anything.

Think & Respond

7th Class Science Textbook Page No. 11

Question 1.
Is it good to eat fruits and vegetables along with their peels? Discuss.
Answer:

1. All the fruits and vegetable peels contain valuable nutrients and fibre.
2. So, it is good to eat fruits and vegetables along with their peels like apple, grapes guava etc.
3. But some fruits like papaya, jack-fruit, banana, pomegranate, watermelon, orange etc. should not eat because they contain harmful substances in their peels.

7th Class Science Textbook Page No. 13

Question 2.
How do the infants grow by taking only milk for few months?
Answer:

1. Milk contains carbohydrates in the form of the milk sugar, iron, proteins, minerals such as calcium, zinc, vitamins like A, D, E and B.
2. Hence, milk is considered as a wholesome food.
3. So, infant can grow only with taking milk.

Activities and Projects

Question 1.
Prepare a diet chart to provide balanced diet to a twelve-year old child. The diet chart should include food items which are not expensive and are commonly available in your area.
Answer:

Question 2.
Collect information from your parents suggesting traditional foods and their nutritional values. Prepare a table with the data using the headings, serial number, name of the food, ingredients used and name of the food components present.
Answer:

→ Students can add more food items like this.

Activities

Activitie – 1

Question 1.
Sisiritha found the following nutritional information on the pack of Baalamrutham supplied by the Anganwadi workers to her younger brother. Study that information and answer the following questions.

→ Which components are in larger quantity? (in gms)
Answer:
Carbohydrates, Proteins and fats

→ Which components are in lesser quantity? (in mg or less)
Answer:
Vitamins and minerals

Lab Activity – 1

Question 2.
How do you test to confirm the presence of starch in potato?
Answer:
Aim: To confirm the presence of starch in potato.

What you need:
1. Dilute iodine solution (dissolve few iodine crystals in water until it turns into pale brown).
2. Potato piece.
3. Knife,
4. Plate,
5. Dropper.

How to do :
Take a piece of potato on a plate. Add two / drops of iodine on the potato piece. Observe if there is 1 any change in colour of potato. If starch is present, it will turn into blue-black.

What you see :
The potato piece turns into ______ colour. (blue -black)
What you learn: Starch is ______ in potato, (present / absent) (present)

Use the given materials to test and confirm the presence of starch.

Now, test the below material to find out the presence of starch.

Lab Activity – 2

Question 3.
How do you confirm the presence of proteins in egg white?
Answer:

Aim: To confirm the presence of proteins in egg white.

Whai you need :

1. 2% Copper sulphate solution (dissolve 2g Copper sulphate in KM) mi water)
2. 10% Sodium hydroxide solution (dissolve Mg Sodium hydroxide in 300m/ water)
3. Egg
4. Test tube
5. Two beakers
6. Dropper.

How to do :
Take few drops of egg white in a test tube Add two drops of Copper sulphate and ten drops of Sodium hydroxide solution. Shake well and keep the test tube In a stand for few minutes. Observe for any change in the colour of the material. If the colour of the material turns violet, it contains protein.

What you see : The egg white turns into ______ colour. (violet)
What you learn: Protein is ______ in egg white, (present / absent) (present)
Now test the below material to find out the presence of proteins.

Activity – 2

Question 4.
Write a test to confirm the presence of fat in groundnut seeds.
Answer:
Aim: To confirm the presence of fat in groundnut seeds.

What you need:

1. Groundnut seeds
2. Piece of white paper
3. Ceramic mortar

How to do :
Take few groundnut seeds in a ceramic mortar and make a fine paste. Place the paste on the white paper and rub it for few seconds. Leave it for some time. If the white paper turns transparent or partially transparent then you can say that the groundnut seeds contain fat.

What you see :
The paper turns ______ (transparent/translucent/opaque) (translucent)

What you learn :
Fat is in ______ Groundnut seeds. (present/absent) (present)

Test the below materials to find out the presence of fat.

Activity – 3

Question 5.
Observe the below table showing the details of few minerals.

Answer the following questions.
→ To get iodine, which food would you prefer?
Answer:
Sea – foods, iodized salt etc.

→ Write the names of food items that are rich in iron.
Answer:
Meat, dry – fruits, green leafy vegetables etc. are rich in iron.

Activity – 4

Question 6.
Write a test for vitamin C.
Answer:
Aim: To confirm the presence of vitamin C in lemon.

What you need:

1. Lemon
2. Iodine solution
3. Piece of white paper
4. Knife
5. Dropper.

How to do :
Slice a citrus fruit. Place two or three drops of iodine solution on a piece of paper. Keep the cut side of the slice on the paper. Leave it for 15 minutes and observe. If vitamin C is present, the portion of the paper under the slice will get discoloured.

What you see :
The colour of paper under the lemon slice ______ (discoloured/remains same) (discoloured)

What you learn:
Vitamin C is ______ in lemon, (present/ not present) (present)

The substances which made the iodine paper more discoloured contains more vitamin C.

Activity – 5

Question 7.
Remember different food materials and classify them- according to the quantity of fibre they have. Discuss with your friends and fill the below table. One example is given for you.

Answer: